Anaphy Chap 1-12

ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY
Chapter 1 The Human Body B) Label B 11) ________ refers to all of the chemical
Multiple Choice Part I Questions C) Label C reactions in the body.
D) Label D A) Metabolism
E) Label E B) Homeostasis
F) Label F C) Hematopoiesis
5) Label F points to the ________ cavity. D) Irritability
A) thoracic 12) Normal human body temperature is
B) pelvic ________° C (or ________° F).
C) cranial A) 37; 98
D) abdominal B) 100; 212
6) Identify the cavity that houses the stomach, C) 98; 37
liver, and other digestive organs. D) 72; 102
A) Label A 13) The component of a control system that
B) Label B provides the means for the control center's
C) Label C response
D) Label D (output) is called the ________.
E) Label E A) stimulus
F) Label F B) effector
7) A structure composed of two or more tissue C) receptor
types that performs a specific function for the D) control center
body is a(n) ________. 14) The net effect of the effector is to shut off the
A) organ original ________, or reduce its intensity,
B) tissue during the negative feedback mechanism to
Using Figure 1.1, identify the following: C) cell restore homeostasis.
1) Identify the cavity that houses the spinal cord. D) organ system A) response
A) Label A 8) The heart and blood vessels are the primary B) receptor
B) Label B organs of the ________ system. C) control center
C) Label C A) lymphatic D) stimulus
D) Label D B) integumentary 15) When we imagine a person exhibiting
E) Label E C) cardiovascular anatomical position, the palms of the hands are
F) Label F D) muscular assumed to be facing ________.
2) Label A points to the ________ cavity. 9) The skeletal muscles that contract and shorten A) to the side
A) thoracic to move the bones form the ________ system. B) forward
B) pelvic A) skeletal C) down
C) cranial B) muscular D) behind
D) abdominal C) endocrine 16) The body's ability to maintain stable internal
3) Identify the cavity that houses the heart and D) reproductive conditions is referred to as ________.
lungs (and other organs). 10) The ________ system rids the body of A) metabolism
A) Label A indigestible food residue in feces while the B) homeostasis
B) Label B ________ C) irritability
C) Label C system removes nitrogen-containing metabolic D) output
D) Label D waste in urine. 17) The femoral region is ________ to the crural
E) Label E A) urinary; digestive region.
F) Label F B) cardiovascular; urinary A) superior (proximal)
4) Identify the structure that separates the C) digestive; urinary B) inferior (distal)
thoracic cavity from the rest of the ventral cavity. D) reproductive; digestive C) anterior
A) Label A D) lateral
CHAPTER 1: HUMAN BODY PARTS
18) The armpit area is called the ________ C) anterior A) medial
region. D) medial B) superior
A) brachial 26) Which region is medial? C) dorsal
B) antebrachial A) right hypochondriac region D) lateral
C) axillary B) epigastric region
D) femoral C) right lumbar region
19) The vertebral region is ________ to the D) left lumbar region
sternal region. 27) The navel is located in the ________ region
A) lateral of the abdominopelvic cavity.
B) dorsal (posterior) A) epigastric
C) ventral (anterior B) hypogastric
D) medial C) umbilical
20) The central region of the thoracic cavity D) right lumbar
containing the heart is called the ________. 28) The two major body cavities are ________
A) pleural cavity and ________.
B) mediastinum A) abdominopelvic; thoracic
C) quadrant B) ventral; dorsal
D) visceral cavity C) cranial; dorsal
21) The right and left iliac (inguinal) regions are D) thoracic; ventral
lateral to the ________ region. 29) The abdominopelvic and thoracic cavities are
A) hypogastric (pubic) subdivisions of the ________ cavity.
B) right hypochondriac A) superior
C) right lumbar B) ventral
D) left hypochondriac C) dorsal
22) The cranial and spinal cavities are D) pelvic
Using Figure 1.2, identify the following:
subdivisions of the ________ cavity. 30) The orbital cavities house the ________.
34) In which region is the stomach located?
A) ventral A) mouth
A) Label A
B) abdominopelvic B) nose
B) Label B
C) thoracic C) eyes
C) Label C
D) dorsal D) ears
D) Label D
23) The diaphragm creates a ________ section 31) The abdominopelvic cavity has ________
E) Label E
between the thoracic and abdominal body quadrants and ________ regions.
F) Label F
cavities. A) 6; 10
35) Which region is the umbilical region?
A) transverse (cross) B) 9; 4
A) Label A
B) median C) 4; 2
B) Label B
C) midsagittal D) 4; 9
C) Label C
D) frontal (coronal) 32) The majority of the liver and the gallbladder
D) Label D
24) The hypogastric (pubic) region is ________ are situated in the ________ region of the
E) Label E
to the umbilical region. abdominopelvic cavity.
F) Label F
A) superior A) right lumbar
36) Which region is lateral to the umbilical
B) inferior B) left hypochondriac
region?
C) posterior C) right hypochondriac
A) Label A
D) medial D) right iliac (inguinal)
B) Label B
25) Ventral is a directional term synonymous 33) The epigastric region is ________ to the
C) Label C
with ________ in humans. right hypochondriac region of the
D) Label D
A) posterior abdominopelvic
E) Label E
B) dorsal cavity.
F) Label F 3) Which of the following is the correct 7) The system that controls and coordinates the
37) Which region is associated with the lower sequence, going from simplest to most complex, body through hormones is the ________.
ribs? in the A) integumentary system
A) Label A levels of structural organization of the human B) skeletal system
B) Label B body? C) nervous system
C) Label C A) chemical level, cellular level, tissue D) endocrine system
D) Label D level, organ level, organ system level, E) digestive system
E) Label E organismal level 8) The muscular system consists of the
F) Label F B) chemical level, tissue level, cellular level, ________.
38) The hypogastric (pubic) region is: organ system level, organ level, organismal A) skeletal muscles
A) Label A level B) muscles of the heart
B) Label B C) cellular level, chemical level, tissue level, C) muscles in the walls of hollow organs
C) Label C organ level, organ system level, organismal D) skeletal muscles and the muscles of the
D) Label D level heart
E) Label E D) cellular level, tissue level, chemical E) muscles of the heart and those in the
F) Label F level, organ level, organ system level, walls of the hollow organs
39) Which region is situated inferior to the right organismal level 9) Which two organ systems include the
lumbar region? E) cellular level, chemical level, tissue level, pancreas?
A) Label A organ system level, organismal level, organ A) digestive and endocrine systems
B) Label B level B) urinary and respiratory systems
C) Label C 4) The building blocks of ALL matter are known C) reproductive and urinary systems
D) Label D as ________. D) digestive and respiratory systems
E) Label E A) organs E) endocrine and respiratory systems
F) Label F B) tissues 10) Which system covers the external surface of
C) atoms the body and protects deeper tissues?
1.2 Multiple Choice Part II Questions D) cells A) endocrine system
E) organ systems B) integumentary system
1) The study of the structure and shape of the 5) The major organs of the cardiovascular system C) nervous system
body and its parts and their relationships to one are the ________. D) lymphatic system
another is called ________. A) skeletal muscles E) skeletal system
A) anatomy B) pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi and 11) What is the major function of the lymphatic
B) physiology lungs system?
C) homeostasis C) bones, cartilages, ligaments, and joints A) return leaked fluids back to the
D) negative feedback D) brain, spinal cord, nerves, sensory cardiovascular system
E) irritability receptors B) produce offspring
2) Which of the following activities represents a E) heart and blood vessels C) eliminate nitrogen-containing metabolic
physiological study? 6) The main function of the respiratory system is wastes from the body
A) making a section through the kidney to to ________. D) break down food into absorbable units
observe its interior A) transport oxygen, nutrients, and wastes to E) secrete hormones to regulate body
B) examining the surface of a bone and from body cells and tissues processes such as growth and reproduction
C) viewing muscle tissue through a B) produce sperm and eggs 12) What are two organ systems that are
microscope C) supply the body with oxygen and remove involved in the excretion of wastes from the
D) studying how the layers of the skin are carbon dioxide body?
organized D) control body activities through hormones A) digestive and urinary
E) observing how the heart contracts to released into the blood B) cardiovascular and skeletal
pump blood E) break down food and deliver the products C) muscular and skeletal
to the blood for dispersal D) endocrine and nervous
E) cardiovascular and nervous D) involve blood clotting and the birthing of 23) Sudie works as an administrative assistant
13) Which of the following systems is matched a baby, and operate in such a way that the and has developed carpal tunnel syndrome. What
most accurately to the life function it provides? initial part of her body is affected?
A) integumentary system - movement stimulus is enhanced and increases A) elbow
B) nervous system - excretion E) involve blood clotting and the birthing of B) wrist
C) muscular system - maintaining a baby, and operate in such a way that the C) shoulder
boundaries initial D) neck
D) nervous system - responsiveness stimulus is shut off or reduced E) lower back
E) respiratory system – digestion 18) Which of the following is considered a 24) In reference to the relationship between the
14) Which survival need accounts for 60 to 80 normal body temperature? patellar and popliteal regions, which of the
percent of body weight? A) 29 degrees Celsius following statements is correct?
A) nutrients B) 35 degrees Celsius A) The patellar region is superior to the
B) oxygen C) 37 degrees Celsius popliteal region.
C) water D) 42 degrees Celsius B) The patellar region is proximal to the
D) minerals E) 45 degrees Celsius popliteal region.
E) vitamins 19) When correctly situated in anatomical C) The patellar region is distal to the
15) Which of the following is the correct order of position, where are your feet in relation to your popliteal region.
elements in a control system? knees? D) The patellar region is lateral to the
A) receptor, stimulus, afferent pathway, A) proximal popliteal region.
control center, efferent pathway, effector, B) medial E) The patellar region is anterior to the
response C) superior popliteal region.
B) receptor, stimulus, efferent pathway, D) distal 25) Which body cavity is part of the dorsal
control center, afferent pathway, effector, E) deep cavity?
response 20) Which of the following orientation and A) thoracic cavity
C) effector, stimulus, efferent pathway, directional terms have the same meaning (in B) spinal cavity
control center, afferent pathway, receptor, humans)? C) nasal cavity
response A) superior and caudal D) orbital cavity
D) stimulus, receptor, afferent pathway, B) inferior and cranial E) abdominopelvic cavity
control center, efferent pathway, effector, C) inferior and cephalic 26) The lungs and heart are situated in the
response D) anterior and ventral ________ body cavity.
E) stimulus, receptor, efferent pathway, E) anterior and dorsal A) dorsal
control center, afferent pathway, effector, 21) Which orientation and directional term B) spinal
response means toward the midline of the body? C) thoracic
16) Which of the following elements of a control A) superficial D) cranial
system detects a change? B) posterior E) abdominopelvic
A) control center C) medial 27) Which of these body regions is located on
B) stimulus D) anterior the inferior body surface?
C) effector E) lateral A) antebrachial
D) receptor 22) Jerome plays football and recently broke a B) coxal
E) efferent pathway bone in the tarsal region. This region is in the C) gluteal
17) Positive feedback systems ________. ________. D) plantar
A) involve blood clotting and the birthing of A) calf E) femoral
a baby B) thigh 28) The region that refers to the fingers and toes
B) operate in such a way that the initial C) groin is the ________.
stimulus is enhanced and increases D) ankle A) carpal region
C) operate in such a way that the initial E) wrist B) digital region
stimulus is shut off or reduced C) antebrachial region
D) brachial region 35) Which set of regions in the abdominopelvic 4) Hematopoiesis is a function of the skeletal
E) axillary region cavity is medial? system.
29) The dorsal body cavity houses the ________. A) umbilical, right lumbar, and left lumbar 5) Responsiveness, or irritability, is the major
A) urinary and reproductive organs regions responsibility of the skeletal system.
B) heart and lungs B) epigastric, umbilical, and hypogastric 6) Most homeostatic control mechanisms are
C) digestive and reproductive organs (pubic) regions negative feedback mechanisms.
D) tongue C) iliac (inguinal), lumbar, and hypogastric 7) The human body consists of approximately
E) spinal cord and brain (pubic) regions 60% to 80% water.
30) Which region is associated with the lower D) epigastric, right, and left hypochondriac 8) 8) In anatomical position, a person is
limb? regions assumed to be standing erect.
A) brachial E) right and left iliac (inguinal), and 9) The heel of the foot constitutes the plantar
B) antebrachial hypogastric (pubic) regions region.
C) axillary 36) The thoracic cavity is ________ to the 10) 10) Proximal means farther from the origin
D) popliteal abdominopelvic cavity. of a body part.
E) sacral A) inferior 11) The hypogastric (pubic) region is directly
31) Which of these regions is NOT associated B) lateral superior to the umbilical region.
with the ventral (anterior) portion of the head? C) proximal 12) The thoracic cavity is separated from the
A) buccal D) superior abdominopelvic cavity by the diaphragm.
B) oral E) dorsal 13) The spinal cavity is part of the ventral body
C) orbital 37) The ribs are located in the ________. cavity.
D) occipital A) right and left iliac (inguinal) regions 14) Transverse or cross sections divide the body
E) nasal B) right and left lumbar regions into anterior and posterior parts.
32) The surgeon asked the surgical technician to C) right and left pubic regions 15) There is no physical structure that separates
help create an opening in the chest during open D) right and left hypochondriac regions the abdominal cavity from the pelvic cavity.
heart surgery along a plane that equally separated E) right and left inguinal regions
the right and left halves of the thoracic cavity. 38) Which of the following statements is correct
This section is known as a(n) ________. regarding the location of the stomach? ANSWER KEY:
A) median (midsagittal) section A) The stomach is located in the left upper BHFAIGEDC
B) frontal section quadrant. PJQNMLRSOK
C) transverse section B) The stomach is located in the right upper UVXTYW
D) horizontal section quadrant.
E) parasagittal section C) The stomach is located medially.
33) Which type of section could be used to D) The stomach is located in the left lower
separate the thoracic cavity from the quadrant.
abdominopelvic E) The stomach is located in the right lower
cavity? quadrant.
A) coronal
B) sagittal
C) dorsal 1.3 True/False Questions
D) ventral
E) transverse 1) Cells are the building blocks of all matter.
34) Which cavity houses the mediastinum? 2) The endocrine system is the fast-acting body
A) thoracic control system.
B) pelvic 3) The adrenals, pancreas, thyroid, and
C) abdominal parathyroids are glands of the endocrine
D) cranial system.
E) spinal
1.4 Matching Questions Answer:
Match the following: Anatomy is the study of the structure and shape of the body and its parts
and their relationships to one another while physiology is the study of how
A. Internal • Superior the body and its parts work or function. Structure (anatomy) determines
B. Above • Dorsal what functions (physiology) can take place in the human body.
C. Anterior • Lateral 2) List, and briefly define, the human body's organization levels from smallest to
D. Close to the origin of the body part or • Deep largest.
the point of attachment of a limb to the Answer:
body trunk 1. chemical level:
E. External • Distal a. atoms are the basic building blocks of matter
F. Away from midline • Medial b. molecules are units formed by atoms combining
G. Toward the midline • Superficial 2. cellular level: cells are the smallest living unit in living organisms
3. tissue level: tissues are groupings of cells performing a common function
H. Toward the backside of the body • Proximal
4. organ level: an organ is a structure consisting of two or more tissue types
I. Farther from th origin of a body part • Ventral
5. organ system level: an organ system describes a group of organs
or the point of attachment of a limb to
the body trunk functioning cooperatively for a common purpose
6. organism level: a human organism consists of all of the organ systems of
J. Ankle • Axillary
the body working together to promote healthy functioning (homeostasis)
K. Leg • Tarsal
3) Identify the organ system that bears the major responsibility for
L. Calf • Deltoid responsiveness, one of the necessary life functions, and briefly explain the
M. Thigh • Antebrachial system's role in the body.
N. Forearm • Femoral Answer:
O. Arm • Sural The nervous system bears the major responsibility for responsiveness (or
P. Armpit • Coxal irritability), the ability to sense changes (stimuli) in the environment and
Q. Curve of shoulder • Inguinal then react to them. The nervous system is the fast-acting controlling system
R. Hip • Brachial of the body. This system responds to internal and external changes by
S. Groin • Crural activating appropriate muscles and glands.
T. Urinary System • Gland secrete hormones to 4) List and explain the five survival needs of humans.
regulate other structures Answer:
U. Endocrine System • Breaks down food for 1. Nutrients include carbohydrates, proteins, and fats, which are taken in
distribution by blood to the via the diet for energy and cell building.
body’s cells 2. Oxygen required to release energy from food.
V. Digestive System • Maintains posture and 3. Water accounts for over 60% of the body weight, and provides the basis
produces hear for various body fluids.
W. Integumentary • Regulates the acid-base 4. Normal body temperature - when too high or too low, physiological
balance of food activities cease, primarily because molecules are destroyed or become
X. Muscular System • Picks up fluid leaked from nonfunctional.
blood vessels and returns it 5. Appropriate atmospheric pressure the force exerted on the
to the blood surface of the body by the weight of air; is essential for normal
operation of the respiratory system and breathing.
Y. Lympathic System • Excretes Urea and salt in
5) In your clinical rotations, you watch as an ultrasound is performed on the
persiparation
abdomen of a pregnant woman. The technician presses the ultrasound wand
against the patient's skin inferior to the umbilical region. Your classmate
mentions that the image produced is a transverse plane, but you disagree.
Explain to your classmate what type of plane was likely used.
Answer:
1.5 Essay Questions (With Answer because tamad tayo magsulat)
The ultrasound image produced was from a frontal, or coronal,
plane, not a transverse plane. The image created an anterior view
1) Explain the relationship between anatomy and physiology.
of the internal organs of the abdomen rather than an inferior view The effector is the control center's output and response to the
of the abdomen. Transverse planes are created along horizontal stimulus. The effector's job is to cancel or shut off the control
planes and separate the body into superior and inferior parts while mechanism.
frontal planes divide the body into anterior and posterior parts.
6) Identify the two dorsal body cavities, and state their locations and the
organs contained therein. ANSWER KEY:
Answer:
1. Cranial cavity—the superior posterior space inside the bony
skull that houses the brain. BCCDBEACBCAABDBBACBBADABCBCBBCDCAACDBEFAEACEC
2. Spinal cavity—the inferior posterior space inside the bony DAABAADCDDDCDDCDBEBCDBEDDAEABDDA
vertebral column that houses the spinal cord.
7) Compare and contrast the antecubital region to the olecranal region. FFTTFTTTFFTFFT
Answer:
The antecubital region is the anterior surface of the elbow while
the olecranal region is the posterior surface of the elbow. While
both of these regions refer to the elbow, the antecubital region is
anterior surface and the olecranal region is posterior surface.
8) Explain how scratching an itch is an example of the negative feedback
mechanism.
Answer:
1. Stimulus or input is the itch.
2. A receptor carries the information about the stimulus (itch) to
the brain via an afferent pathway.
3. Control center (brain) analyzes this information an turns on an
effector which will cancel the stimulus.
4. Information reaches the effector via the efferent pathway from
the brain. Muscles move the hand to scratch the itch.
5. Scratching continues until the itch goes away. The brain shuts
off the effector once homeostasis is restored.
9) Explain the terms distal and proximal using an example.
Answer:
The term distal means farther from the origin of a body part or
point or the attachment of a limb to the trunk. The ankle is distal to
the knee means the ankle is further from the leg's attachment to the
trunk than the knee. The term proximal means closer to the origin
of a body part of the point of attachment of a limb to the trunk. The
knee is proximal to the ankle means the knee is closer to the leg's
attachment to the trunk than the ankle.
10) Describe anatomical position. Explain why anatomical position is used.
Answer:
Anatomical position is defined as standing erect, feet parallel to
the arms, palms facing forward. Anatomical position is used
because it is a standard position; it also helps us to avoid
confusion. Additionally, anatomical position is a reference point
that helps us accurately describe body parts and position.
11) Describe the role of the effector in the negative feedback system.
Answer:

Chapter 2 Basic Chemistry C) an element C) isotopic
2.1 Multiple Choice Part I Questions D) energy D) inorganic
6) Nerve impulses involve the flow of an electrical 13) An acid is a molecule that releases (donates)
current, a type of energy known as ________ ________.
energy. A) protons (hydrogen ions)
A) radiant B) hydroxyl ions
B) mechanical C) neutrons
C) electrical D) electrons
D) chemical 14) Proteins are synthesized from ________ during
7) Atoms that have lost or gained electrons are synthesis reactions.
known as ________. A) monosaccharides
A) isotopes B) amino acids
B) reactants C) glycerol and fatty acids
C) molecules D) nucleotides
D) ions 15) Glycogen and starch are examples of a specific
Using Figure 2.1, identify the following: 8) The most common element in the human body is category of carbohydrates called ________.
________. A) monosaccharides
1) Which letter represents a carbohydrate polymer? A) carbon B) triglycerides
A) Label A B) oxygen C) steroids
B) Label B C) hydrogen D) polysaccharides
C) Label C D) nitrogen 16) A solution with a pH of 11.7 is ________ times
D) Label D 9) The atomic number of an atom is equal to the more basic (alkaline) than a solution with a
E) Label E number of ________ an atom contains. pH of 8.7.
2) Letter D represents the structure of a(n) ________. A) protons A) 10
A) monosaccharide B) neutrons B) 100
B) amino acid C) protons and neutrons C) 1000
C) triglyceride D) neutrons and electrons D) 3
D) steroid 10) Compounds that contain carbon-hydrogen 17) Unsaturated fatty acid chains contain one or more
3) Letter E represents a nucleic acid building block bonding are collectively termed ________ ________ bonds between carbon atoms.
known as a ________. compounds. A) peptide
A) monosaccharide A) electrolytic B) double
B) triglyceride B) organic C) triple
C) saturated fat C) inorganic D) monosaccharide
D) nucleotide D) acidic 18) Enzymes are examples of ________ proteins.
4) Which letter represents a globular protein in its 11) Polar molecules, like water, result when electrons A) structural
quaternary structure? are shared ________. B) globular (functional)
A) Label A A) unequally between atoms C) fibrous
B) Label B B) between ions D) alpha
C) Label C C) equally between atoms 19) The complementary base to adenine in a
D) Label D D) or transferred between atoms molecule of DNA is ________.
E) Label E 12) An atom's outermost shell is known as its A) guanine
5) Anything that has mass and takes up space is ________ shell. B) cytosine
considered to be ________. A) valence C) leucine
A) a solid B) ionic D) thymine
B) matter
CHAPTER 2: BASIC CHEMISTRY
20) A nucleotide of DNA contain three components: D) cation C) a neutral atom
________, ________, and ________. E) neutral atom D) stable
A) deoxyribose; a phosphate group; 6) Which of the following leads to an increase in the E) an ion
nitrogen-containing base rate of a chemical reaction? 12) An atom has 6 protons, 8 neutrons, and 6
B) ribose; three phosphate groups; nitrogen- A) increased temperature electrons. Its atomic mass is ________.
containing base B) large particle size A) 2
C) ribose; two phosphate groups; acid group C) lack of catalysts B) 6
D) ribose; a phosphate group; nitrogen- D) decreased temperature C) 8
containing base E) few particles D) 14
7) Atomic mass is equivalent to the number of E) 20
2.2 Multiple Choice Part II Questions ________ in an atom. 13) The atomic number of an atom reveals the
A) protons number of ________.
1) Which of the following contains sodium? B) neutrons A) electrons in the atomic nucleus
A) H2O C) electrons B) protons in the atomic nucleus
B) NaCl D) protons and electrons C) protons plus neutrons
C) N2 E) protons and neutrons D) protons plus electrons
D) CH4 8) The major function of potassium is to ________. E) neutrons plus electrons
E) H2SO4 A) serve as a salt in bones and teeth 14) Isotopes have different numbers of ________;
2) Elements are composed of building blocks known B) play a role in nerve impulse thus they also have different ________.
as ________. transmissions and muscle contractions A) protons; atomic numbers
A) molecules C) make functional thyroid hormones B) neutrons; atomic masses
B) atoms D) influence the pH of body fluids C) electrons; atomic numbers
C) compounds E) exist as the most abundant D) protons; atomic masses
D) polymers extracellularcation E) neutrons; atomic numbers
E) protons 9) Which of the following elements is needed to 15) A molecule of methane, CH4, is known
3) The movement of ions across plasma membranes make functional thyroid hormone? specifically as a(n) ________.
is an example of ________. A) magnesium A) compound
A) radiant energy B) iodine B) radioisotope
B) chemical energy C) iron C) element
C) electrical energy D) potassium D) atom
D) mechanical energy E) chlorine E) anion
E) potential energy 10) An atom with an atomic number of 14 will have 16) The subatomic particles that are responsible for
4) Which of the following is classified as an ________ electrons in its valence shell. the chemical behavior of atoms are the
inorganic compound? A) 2 ________.
A) glucose B) 4 A) protons
B) triglyceride C) 8 B) neutrons
C) water D) 10 C) electrons
D) protein E) 14 D) isotopes
E) steroid 11) An atom with 6 protons, 7 neutrons, and 6 E) ions
5) An atom of magnesium has lost two electrons. It is electrons shares four pairs of electrons with four
known as a(n) ________. other atoms. This atom is now considered to be
A) anion ________.
B) molecule A) a cation
C) isotope B) an anion

D) carbon atoms must be removed from B) neutralization reactions
each bond C) anabolic reactions
E) water molecules and carbon atoms must D) hydrolysis reactions
be removed from each bond E) catabolic reactions
21) The reaction sucrose + water → glucose + 27) Which of these vitamins is produced in skin upon
fructose is an example of a(n) ________. exposure to ultraviolet (UV) radiation?
A) double replacement reaction A) vitamin A
B) synthesis reaction B) vitamin C
C) decomposition reaction C) vitamin D
D) neutralization reaction D) vitamin E
E) anabolic reaction E) vitamin K
22) Water absorbs and releases large amount of 28) Which carbohydrate is also known as blood
energy before changing temperature, a sugar?
characteristic known as ________. A) sucrose
A) cushioning B) glucose
What is the atomic number of the atom in Figure 2.2? B) buffering C) ribose
A) 2 C) chemical reactivity D) deoxyribose
B) 3 D) high heat capacity E) cellulose
C) 4 E) polarity 29) Which polysaccharide is formed of linked
D) 6 23) Hydrogen bonding between water molecules is glucose molecules and stored in animal tissues?
E) 12 responsible for ________. A) ribose
18) What type of bond results when electrons are A) polarity B) cellulose
completely transferred from one atom to B) denaturation of proteins C) starch
another? C) enzyme structure D) glucose
A) ionic bond D) nonpolar covalent bonding E) glycogen
B) hydrogen bond E) surface tension 30) The organic compounds that function in building
C) carbon bond 24) Which of the following solutions is the weakest tissues and acting as enzymes are the
D) polar covalent bond acid? ________.
E) nonpolar covalent bond A) a solution with a pH of 2.4 A) nucleic acids
19) The growth of cells and repair of worn-out tissues B) a solution with a pH of 5.2 B) carbohydrates
is accomplished by ________. C) a solution with a pH of 6.4 C) salts
A) decomposition reactions D) a solution with a pH of 8.6 D) lipids
B) catabolic reactions E) a solution with a pH of 10.1 E) proteins
C) hydrolysis reactions 25) A solution with a pH of 7 ________. 31) The building blocks of a triglyceride are
D) synthesis reactions A) is acidic ________.
E) neutralization reactions B) releases more hydrogen ions than A) three fatty acid chains and one glycerol
20) In order to break a disaccharide down into simple hydroxyl ions into solution molecule
sugar units ________. C) releases more hydroxyl ions than B) one fatty acid chain and one glycerol
A) water molecules must be added to each hydrogen ions into solution molecule
bond D) is basic C) four interlocking rings of carbon and
B) water molecules must be removed from E) is neutral hydrogen atoms
each bond 26) Exchange reactions in which an acid and a base D) amino acids
C) carbon atoms must be added to each bond interact are known as ________. E) nucleotides
A) decomposition reactions 32) Why is ATP categorized as a nucleic acid?

A) ATP has a polar region and a nonpolar 37) Identify the nucleic acid. D) It is a modified nucleotide.
region. A) oxidase E) Its energy is captured in high-energy
B) ATP contains four interlocking carbon B) cholesterol hydrogen bonds.
rings. C) glucose 43) Which of the following is a protein?
C) ATP is a modified nucleotide with three D) DNA A) cholesterol
phosphate groups, ribose, and adenine. E) triglyceride B) antibody
D) All nucleic acids, such as ATP, function 38) Two or more polypeptides chains combine to C) glucose
as catalysts to increase reaction rates. form a complex structure called a ________. D) triglyceride
E) All nucleic acids have an amine and an A) primary structure E) RNA
acid functional group. B) beta-pleated sheet 44) The building blocks of proteins are ________.
33) Which of the following DNA base pairs is C) secondary structure A) monosaccharides
complementary? D) tertiary structure B) nucleotides
A) adenine and guanine E) quaternary structure C) amino acids
B) guanine and uracil 39) Which of the following statements about RNA is D) nucleic acids
C) thymine and guanine true? E) fatty acids
D) cytosine and adenine A) RNA is single stranded. 45) Shell 1 of an atom can hold a maximum of
E) adenine and thymine B) RNA is composed of cytosine, guanine, ________ electron(s).
34) Enzymes ________. adenine, and thymine. A) 1
A) are essential to virtually every C) RNA is found only in the nucleus of the B) 2
biochemical reaction in the body cell. C) 4
B) help regulate growth and development D) RNA contains deoxyribose. D) 8
C) are highly specialized proteins that E) RNA is a double helix. E) 18
recognize, bind with, and inactivate bacteria, 40) The most common steroid is ________. 46) Trans fats are oils that have been solidified by the
toxins, and A) phospholipid addition of ________.
some viruses B) cholesterol A) oxygen atoms
D) increase the rates of chemical reactions C) triglyceride B) carbon atoms
by at least a millionfold D) trans fat C) hydrogen atoms
E) when absent or destroyed, cause all E) unsaturated fat D) nitrogen atoms
biochemical reactions to cease 41) The nucleotide chains of DNA are held together E) phosphorus-containing groups
35) Enzymes are ________. by ________.
A) carbohydrates A) carbon bonds
B) stable at high temperatures B) hydrogen bonds
C) biological catalysts C) ionic bonds
D) not reuseable D) nonpolar covalent bonds
E) required in large amounts in order to be E) polar covalent bonds
effective 42) Which of the following statements about ATP is
36) Saturated fats ________. false?
A) have two fatty acid chains A) It drives the transport of certain solutes
B) exist as solids at room temperature (e.g., amino acids) across cell membranes.
C) are formed from four interlocking carbon B) It activates contractile proteins in muscle
rings cells so that cells can shorten and perform
D) contain many double bonds mechanical work.
E) exist as liquids and are derived from C) It provides the energy needed to drive
plants energy-absorbing chemical reactions.

What type of chemical bond is pictured in Figure 6) Hydrogen bonds are very strong bonds that hold together water molecules.
2.3? 7) Water is the single most abundant inorganic compound in the human body.
A) nonpolar covalent bond 8) The lower the pH, the greater the number of hydrogen ions released by a chemical into solution.
B) polar covalent bond 9) Acids are defined as proton donors since they release hydrogen ions.
C) ionic bond 10) Carbon is found in all inorganic compounds.
D) single covalent bond 11) When a solution produces equal numbers of hydrogen and hydroxyl ions, it is said to be neutral
E) double covalent bond 12) Amino acids are the building blocks for proteins.
48) The sugar found in DNA is ________. 13) Glucose and fructose are classified as disaccharides.
A) ribose 14) Phospholipids are composed of three fatty acid chains attached to one glycerol molecule.
B) sucrose 15) Disruption of the hydrogen bonds of functional proteins leads to their denaturation.
C) deoxyribose
D) lactose
E) starch 2.4 Matching Questions
49) Which of these enzymes catalyzes sucrose? Match the following:
A) glucase
B) cholesterol
C) oxidase
A. Neutron • Atomic number is based on the number of these subatomic particles in an
D) cellulase atom of a particular element
E) sucrose B. Proton • Atoms share these subatomic particles when they combine to form
50) Nucleotides are composed of ________. molecules
A) three fatty acid chains and one glycerol C. Electron • The atomic mass does not include these subatomic particles in the
B) peptide bonds calculation
C) a phosphate group, a five-carbon sugar, • Ionic bonds are formed when these subatomic particles are completely
and a nitrogen-containing base transferred from one atom to another atom
D) four fused carbon rings • Isotopes are atoms of the same element that have varying numbers of these
E) amino acids with an amine group and an subatomic particles
acid group • Atoms share these subatomic particles equally in nonpolar covalent
molecules
2.3 True/False Questions • Atoms that lose or gain these subatomic particles are known as ions
• Along with protons, these subatomic particles are situated in the nucleus of
1) Inactive or stored energy is called an atom
kinetic energy.
2) The number of protons in an atom
equals the atomic number for that
element.
3) Atoms that have lost or gained electrons
during bonding are known as isotopes.
4) Carbohydrates are classified as
inorganic compounds.
5) The four most common elements in the
human body, in order of descending
quantity, are hydrogen, carbon, oxygen,
and nitrogen.

4) Explain how saturated fats are different from unsaturated fats.
D. Decomposition Reaction • Glycogen is broken down to release Answer:
glucose subunits Saturated fats:
E. Exchange Reaction • Amino Acids join together to form 1. tend to be animal fats
proteins 2. have all single bonds between carbon atoms
F. Synthesis Reaction • Bonds are both made and broken in 3. may be solid
these reactions Unsaturated fats:
• Digestion of food 1. tend to be plant oils
2. have some double or triple bonds between carbon atoms
G. Nucleic acids • Building block is monosaccharide 3. may be liquid
H. Fibrous proteins • DNA, RNA, and ATP are examples 5) Distinguish between a dehydration synthesis and a hydrolysis reaction.
Answer:
I. Globular proteins • Triglycerides, steroids, and fat-
In a dehydration synthesis reaction, a more complex molecule is formed
soluble vitamins are examples
from two simpler ones, and a water molecule is lost as each bond forms. An
J. Lipids • Antibodies, some hormones, and
example of dehydration synthesis is seen when a disaccharide is formed
enzymes are examples
from two monosaccharides. Hydrolysis is the breakdown of a more complex
K. Carbohydrates • Collagen and keratin are examples
molecule into its building blocks. A water molecule is added to each bond,
L. Amino Acids • Nucleotides are the building blocks the bond is broken, and simpler molecules are formed. In the process, water
for this organic compound group is split into a hydrogen ion and a hydroxyl ion. An example of hydrolysis is
• The hydrolysis for proteins produces seen when a disaccharide is broken down into two monosaccharides.
these building blocks 6) Differentiate between the functions of RNA and DNA.
• Also known as functional proteins Answer:
DNA is the genetic material found in the nucleus of a cell. It replicates prior
2.5 Essay Questions to cell division to ensure every body cell is identical. DNA provides
1) Describe the role of the electron in chemical bond formation. instructions for building every protein in the body. By contrast, RNA is
Answer: mostly found outside the nucleus and carries out the instructions for
When the valence shell of an atom contains fewer than 8 electrons, an atom generating proteins as dictated by DNA.
will tend to gain, lose, or share electrons with other atoms to reach a stable 7) Describe the difference between the roles of functional, or globular, proteins and
state. As a result, chemical bonds such as covalent bonds or ionic bonds are structural, or fibrous, proteins.
formed. Answer:
2) Differentiate between the method of determination of the atomic number and the Structural proteins most often appear in the body structures, binding
atomic mass. structures together or providing strength in tissues. Functional proteins
Answer: perform jobs for the body. They serve in a variety of roles in the body from
The atomic number is determined by the number of protons in that atom. antibodies, enzymes, hormones to transport proteins.
The atomic mass is the sum of the protons and neutrons in the atom's 8) Explain why a denatured protein no longer functions.
nucleus. Answer:
3) Discuss radioisotopes and explain why they are studied in anatomy and Denaturation results when the three-dimensional shape of a protein is
physiology. destroyed. The function of a protein depends on its structure. The presence
Answer: of an active site on the surface of a protein that interacts with other
Radioisotopes are unstable isotopes of heavier elements that tend to molecules must be intact for the enzyme to work properly.
decompose to become more stable. Recall that isotopes are structural 9) Discuss the organization of the pH scale, including the location of acids, bases,
variations of an element that vary by their neutron number. Radioisotopes and neutral substances.
are used to tag biological molecules so they can be followed or traced Answer:
through the human body. Radioisotopes are valuable tools in medical
diagnosis and treatment.
The pH scale is based on the number of hydrogen ions in solution. The pH ANSWER KEY:
scale is constructed from zero to 14. Each sequential change of one pH unit
represents a ten-fold change in hydrogen ion concentration. Solutions with CCDBBCDBABAAABDCBBDA
a pH lower than seven are considered acidic while solutions with a pH
greater than seven are considered basic (alkaline). At a pH of seven, the BBCCDAEBBBDDBBACDADACDECEBCBEEACEDCBDEABBEBCB
solution is neutral since hydrogen ion concentration equals hydroxyl ion CCCC
concentration.
10) Describe the four structural levels of proteins. FTFFFFTTTFTFFT
Answer:
1. The primary structure of a protein resembles a string of beads in which BCCACA
the amino acids form the basis for the protein molecule.
2. A protein in its secondary structure may exist in a coiled alpha-helix or DFED
an accordian-like beta-pleated sheet.
3. Most proteins reach the more complex tertiary level of structure. The KGJIHGLI
tertiary structure is achieved when the alpha-helical or beta-pleated region
of the polypeptide chain folds in on itself to form a globular (ball-like)
molecule.
4. The quarternary structure results when two polypeptide chains combine
to form a complex protein.
11) Joey works in a lab on an organic compound with the formula of C6H12O6.
Determine the type of organic compound, being as specific as possible, on which he
works. Explain how you know.
Answer:
Joey is working with a carbohydrate. Carbohydrates contain carbon,
hydrogen, and oxygen atoms in the same ratio as water (2 hydrogens to
every carbon and oxygen atom). To be specific, he is working with a
monosaccharide. Monosaccharides contain between three and seven carbon
atoms.
12) Which molecule stores more energy: glucose or glycogen? Explain
Answer:
Glucose is a monosaccharide while glycogen is a polysaccharide. Glycogen
is constructed of glucose molecules linked together by dehydration
synthesis. Therefore, the glycogen molecule stores more energy since it has
many glucose molecules bonded together.
13) Describe the difference between a polar and a nonpolar covalent bond. Give and
explain an example of each type of bond.
Answer:
1. In polar covalent bonds, electrons are not shared equally. For instance,
water is an example of a polar covalent bond. The electron pairs shared in
water spend more time with the oxygen atom causing that end of the
molecule to become slightly negative and the hydrogen end to become
slightly positive.
2. In nonpolar covalent bonds, electrons are shared equally. For example,
the electron pairs in carbon dioxide orbit the entire molecule.

Chapter 3 Cells and Tissues 4) The illustration of simple squamous D) hydrophobic
3.1 Multiple Choice Part I Questions epithelium is ________. 10) The organelle responsible for making
A) Label A the majority of ATP in a cell is the
B) Label B ________.
C) Label C A) Golgi apparatus
D) Label D B) mitochondrion
E) Label E C) rough endoplasmic reticulum
5) The illustration of cardiac muscle tissue is D) lysosome
________. 11) The membrane connections that prevent
A) Label A the leaking of fluid between cells are called
B) Label B ________.
C) Label C A) gap junctions
D) Label D B) tight junctions
E) Label E C) desmosomes
6) Cellular material located outside the D) microvilli
nucleus yet inside the plasma membrane is 12) The ________ is a network of proteins
the ________. that forms an internal framework for the
A) nucleolus cell.
B) cytoplasm A) mitochondrion
C) interstitial fluid B) cytoskeleton
D) extracellular fluid C) rough endoplasmic reticulum
7) The specialized cellular compartments D) Golgi apparatus
Using Figure 3.1, match the following: within the cytosol of the cell are collectively 13) The passive process that involves the
1) The illustration of simple cuboidal called movement of water through aquaporins is
epithelium is ________. ________. ________.
A) Label A A) organelles A) facilitated diffusion
B) Label B B) cilia B) endocytosis
C) Label C C) flagella C) solute pumping
D) Label D D) microvilli D) osmosis
E) Label E 8) ________, a type of cell junction, anchor 14) The nucleoplasm and cytosol make up
2) The illustration of skeletal muscle tissue adjacent cells together and prevent cells the ________ fluid.
is ________. from being A) interstitial
A) Label A pulled apart. B) intracellular
B) Label B A) Tight junctions C) extracellular
C) Label C B) Gap junctions D) nuclear
D) Label D C) Desmosomes 15) The movement of substances through
E) Label E D) Cytoplasm the cell membrane against their
3) The illustration of stratified squamous 9) The phospholipid tails are ________, concentration gradient
epithelium is ________. which make the plasma membrane is a type of ________ process.
A) Label A impermeable to A) active
B) Label B water. B) passive
C) Label C A) water-loving C) diffusion
D) Label D B) hydrophilic D) filtration
E) Label E C) polar
CHAPTER 3: CELLS AND TISSUES

16) The nucleotides of DNA join in a 22) Groups of cells that are similar in both 29) ________ muscle tissue has no visible
complementary way in which adenine pairs structure and function are known as striations and has spindle-shaped cells.
with ________ ________. A) Smooth
while cytosine pairs with ________. A) organs B) Cardiac
A) adenine; cytosine B) organ systems C) Skeletal
B) uracil; guanine C) tissues D) Dense regular
C) thymine; guanine D) atoms 30) Many layers of flattened cells should be
D) guanine; thymine 23) Epithelial tissues have one free surface termed ________ epithelial tissue.
17) In cell division, the term that refers to or edge known as the ________ surface. A) stratified columnar
division of the cytoplasm is ________. A) basement B) stratified squamous
A) mitosis B) apical C) pseudostratified columnar
B) interphase C) matrix D) simple squamous
C) cytokinesis D) attached
D) meiosis 24) The type of tissue consisting of cells
18) The period of the cell cycle when the embedded in an extracellular matrix is
cell grows and performs its metabolic ________ tissue.
activities is A) epithelial
________. B) connective
A) anaphase C) muscle
B) interphase D) nervous
C) metaphase 25) ________ glands possess ducts that
D) telophase transport secretions onto epithelial surfaces.
19) The purpose of ________ is to produce A) Endocrine
two genetically identical cells. B) Adrenal
A) interphase C) Thyroid
B) cell division D) Exocrine
C) DNA replication intestines is ________. The cell shown in Figure 3.2 has been
D) protein synthesis A) simple columnar placed into a(n) ________ solution.
20) The DNA segment that carries B) simple cuboidal A) hypertonic
information for building one protein or C) pseudostratified columnar B) hypotonic
polypeptide chain is D) simple squamous C) isotonic
called a(n) ________. 27) The cell type found in nervous tissue is D) equilibrium
A) codon the ________.
B) gene A) fibroblast 3.2 Multiple Choice Part II Questions
C) anticodon B) osteocyte
D) amino acid C) neuron 1) The structural and functional unit of all
21) The two steps of protein synthesis, in the D) chondrocyte living things is the ________.
correct order, are ________ and ________. 28) ________ tissue is commonly called fat. A) nucleus
A) transcription; translation A) Adipose B) element
B) replication; mitosis B) Bone C) cytoplasm
C) mitosis; cytokinesis C) Reticular D) cell
D) transcription; replication D) Dense fibrous E) organelle

2) Which of the following statements is 6) The three major components of the B) employ protein pumps
NOT part of the cell theory? cytoplasm are the ________. C) transport substances against their
A) The biochemical activities of cells A) cytosol, organelles, and inclusions concentration gradients
depends on the number of their subcellular B) cytosol, inclusions, and nucleoli D) require no ATP
structures. C) cytosol, organelles, and nucleoli E) include exocytosis and endocytosis
B) The human body is composed of 50 to D) organelles, inclusions, and nucleoli 12) Osmosis transports water across
100 trillion cells. E) organelles, inclusions, and ribosomes membranes using ________.
C) Cells are the basic structural and 7) Which of the following is NOT A) ATP
functional unit of living organisms. considered a cytoplasmic organelle? B) solute pumping
D) The activity of an organism depends on A) mitochondrion C) aquaporins
its collective cellular activities. B) Golgi apparatus D) sodium-potassium pump
E) The continuity of life has a cellular basis. C) flagellum E) vesicles
3) What is the arrangement of the D) rough endoplasmic reticulum 13) What assists the movement of
phospholipids as a substance passes through E) peroxisome substances by facilitated diffusion?
the plasma 8) The preparation of secretory vesicles for A) ATP
membrane? export from the cell is the responsibility of B) protein carrier or channel
A) phospholipid head, phospholipid tails, the C) lysosomes
phospholipid head, phospholipid tails ________. D) aquaporins
B) phospholipid head, phospholipid head, A) mitochondrion E) solute pumps
phospholipid tails, phospholipid tails B) Golgi apparatus 14) What is required for diffusion to occur?
C) phospholipid head, phospholipid tails, C) cytoskeleton A) protein carrier or channel
phospholipid tails, phospholipid head D) peroxisome B) concentration gradient
D) phospholipid tail, phospholipid head, E) smooth endoplasmic reticulum C) ATP
phospholipid tail 9) The organelle that contains enzymes D) solute pump
E) phospholipid tails, phospholipid head, produced by ribosomes and packaged by the E) ribosomes
phospholipid head, phospholipid tails Golgi 15) Two types of endocytosis are ________.
4) Which of the following is NOT a apparatus is the ________. A) cellular secretion and solute pumping
structural component of the nucleus? A) Golgi apparatus B) solute pumping and active transport
A) nuclear envelope B) lysosome C) active transport and phagocytosis
B) nucleolus C) peroxisome D) phagocytosis and pinocytosis
C) Golgi apparatus D) ribosome E) pinocytosis and passive transport
D) chromatin E) rough endoplasmic reticulum 16) A solution that contains fewer solutes
E) nuclear pores 10) The movement of fluid through the cell than the cell is ________.
5) Nutrients and ions can pass directly from membrane from a high pressure area to a A) hypotonic
cell to cell through special membrane lower B) hypertonic
junctions pressure area is called ________. C) intravenous
known as ________. A) active transport D) isotonic
A) desmosomes B) bulk transport E) Ringer's lactate
B) gap junctions C) osmosis 17) Which of the following substances must
C) inclusions D) diffusion travel across a membrane via facilitated
D) microvilli E) filtration diffusion?
E) tight junctions 11) Passive processes that move substances A) carbon dioxide
across membranes ________. B) water
A) utilize ATP C) oxygen

D) fat-soluble vitamins D) telophase, metaphase, anaphase, B) adenine
E) glucose prophase C) uracil
18) Which of the following processes E) prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase D) cytosine
require the use of protein carrier molecules? 23) The process of transcription ________. E) guanine
A) facilitated diffusion and solute pumping A) produces ATP from glucose and oxygen 29) If the sequence of nitrogenous bases in
B) facilitated diffusion and vesicular B) transfers information from DNA into one strand of DNA is GTA-GCA, the
transport mRNA sequence of
C) vesicular transport and osmosis C) occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell bases on its complementary DNA strand
D) osmosis and filtration D) creates proteins from mRNA would be ________.
E) filtration and exocytosis E) translates nucleic acids into amino acids A) CAU-CGU
19) A cell is isotonic to its 4% dextrose 24) Sequences of three bases found in B) CAT-CGT
solution. When moved to a 6% dextrose messenger RNA (mRNA) are called C) GAU-GCU
solution, that ________. D) GAT-GCT
cell will ________. A) anticodons E) ACG-ATT
A) shrink B) deoxyribose sugars 30) A tissue constructed of a single layer of
B) plump C) codons flattened cells is known as ________.
C) bloat D) ribosomes A) simple squamous epithelium
D) rupture E) amino acids B) simple columnar epithelium
20) The portion of the cell's life cycle that 25) The two major phases of protein C) simple cuboidal epithelium
does NOT involve cell division is known as synthesis are ________. D) stratified squamous epithelium
________. A) transcription and replication E) transitional epithelium
A) interphase B) mitosis and interphase 31) Which type of tissue conducts
B) mitosis C) replication and translation electrochemical impulses?
C) metaphase D) transcription and translation A) epithelial tissue
D) prophase E) synthesis and cytokinesis B) muscle tissue
E) cytokinesis 26) Which of the following represents a C) nervous tissue
21) The molecule that carries an amino acid segment of RNA? D) connective tissue
to the ribosome for incorporation into a A) AUGUCA E) dense tissue
protein is B) ATGCTA 32) Which of the following is NOT
________. C) TGCGTT classified as a connective tissue?
A) ATP D) CTGTGG A) bone
B) messenger RNA (mRNA) E) GTCATA B) cartilage
C) ribosomal RNA (rRNA) 27) DNA replication takes place during C) blood
D) DNA ________. D) skeletal muscle
E) transfer RNA (tRNA) A) interphase E) adipose
22) The correct order of phases of the B) prophase 33) Which type of tissue is situated in the
mitosis is ________. C) metaphase lining of the urinary bladder and urethra
A) prophase, interphase, metaphase, D) anaphase where
anaphase, telophase E) telophase stretching occurs?
B) prophase, anaphase, telophase, 28) During transcription, which base pairs A) simple cuboidal epithelium
metaphase with adenine of DNA in the newly formed B) stratified squamous epithelium
C) metaphase, anaphase, prophase, molecule C) simple squamous epithelium
telophase of RNA? D) pseudostratified columnar epithelium
A) thymine E) transitional epithelium

34) The tissue that is usually well B) attached to the skeleton D) dense connective tissue
vascularized and has an extensive C) movement is voluntary and cells possess E) nervous tissue
extracellular matrix is called striations 45) Looking into a microscope, you notice
________. D) single nucleus and spindle-shaped cells cells swimming, propelled by a long tail.
A) epithelial tissue E) multinucleate and long, cylindrical cells What cell
B) connective tissue 40) The type of muscle found in the walls of structure must these cells have in order to be
C) nervous tissue hollow organs, such as the stomach, and in mobile?
D) muscle tissue the A) ribosomes
E) brain tissue walls of blood vessels is ________. B) smooth ER
35) Which of the following epithelial tissues A) cardiac muscle C) flagella
is composed of many layers of cells? B) skeletal muscle D) peroxisomes
A) pseudostratified columnar epithelium C) smooth muscle E) cytoplasm
B) simple squamous epithelium D) both smooth muscle and skeletal muscle 46) Which of the following tissues is
C) simple columnar epithelium E) both cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle constructed of many collagen fibers?
D) simple cuboidal epithelium 41) The presence of chondrocytes indicates A) blood
E) stratified squamous epithelium that a tissue is ________. B) scar tissue
36) Bone is best described as ________. A) adipose C) transitional epithelium
A) dense connective tissue B) cartilage D) pseudostratified columnar epithelium
B) epithelial tissue C) bone E) simple cuboidal epithelium
C) adipose tissue D) blood 47) Which type of connective tissue is
D) areolar tissue E) areolar avascular?
E) osseous tissue 42) Damaged tissues that are repaired by the A) adipose
37) Identify the type of connective tissue same kind of cells experience a replacement B) bone
that is found in lymph nodes, the spleen, and process C) cartilage
bone known as ________. D) areolar
marrow. A) inflammation E) reticular
A) adipose tissue B) regeneration 48) A cancer drug interferes with the
B) dense connective tissue C) fibrosis development of mitotic spindle fibers during
C) areolar tissue D) scarring cell division.
D) reticular connective tissue E) clotting Which phase is directly affected?
E) osseous tissue 43) Intercalated discs found in cardiac A) prophase
38) Glands, such as the thyroid, that secrete muscle tissue are ________. B) telophase
their products directly into the blood rather A) tight junctions C) anaphase
than B) phagocytes D) metaphase
through ducts are classified as ________. C) gap junctions E) interphase
A) exocrine D) signet ring cells 49) Neurons and neuroglia are components
B) endocrine E) desmosomes of ________.
C) sebaceous 44) Jacinda tore her Achilles (calcaneal) A) epithelial tissue
D) ceruminous tendon during a recent track meet. She has B) connective tissue
E) sudoriferous injured C) nervous tissue
39) Which of these characteristics best ________. D) muscle tissue
describes cardiac muscle tissue? A) muscle tissue E) granulation tissue
A) movement is involuntary and cells B) loose connective tissue
possess striations C) epithelial tissue

50) Which tissue performs peristalsis to 7) Sperm are the only cells in the human 11) Translation is the stage of protein synthesis
move substances, such as food, through the body to possess cilia. during which a complementary mRNA molecule
hollow 8) Mitotic spindles guide the separation of is synthesized from a DNA template.
organs of the body? chromosomes during mitosis. 12) Stratified epithelium consists of one layer of
A) skeletal muscle tissue 9) Anaphase is the stage of cell division epithelial cells.
B) transitional epithelium when the cleavage furrow first appears. 13) Epithelial tissues are often well vascularized and
C) cardiac muscle tissue 10) Cytokinesis is the division of the contain an extracellular matrix.
D) nervous tissue cytoplasm, whereas mitosis is the 14) The matrix of hyaline cartilage consists of
E) smooth muscle tissue division of the nucleus. abundant collagen fibers hidden in a rubbery
matrix.
15) Muscle tissue is located in the brain, spinal cord,
3.4 Matching Questions and nerves.
Match the following:
A. Site of protein synthesis • Cilia

B. Synthesizes cholesterol and fat • Mitochondria
C. Cylindrical structures made of tubulin proteins • Ribosomes
D. Cellular extensions that move substances along the • Microtubules
cell surface
E. Internal framework composed of a network of • Cytoskeleton
protein structures
The tissue shown in Figure 3.3 most likely F. Packages substances for release from cell • Golgi Apparatus
________. G. Site of ATP synthesis • Nucleus
A) contracts to produce movement
H. Genetic Control center of the cell • Microvilli
B) transmits electrochemical impulses
I. Increases surface area of plasma membrane for • Smooth ER
C) covers and lines body surfaces
absorption
D) stores fat
J. Site of intracellular digestion • Lysosomes
E) contains a matrix
K. Prophase • Cytokinesis is completed
3.3 True/False Questions • Centrioles separate and move toward
opposite sides of the cell
1) Chromatin and chromosomes are both L. Anaphase • Chromosomes cluster and align at the
composed of DNA. center of the spindle
2) Phospholipid tails are hydrophilic and • Nucleoli appear in each daughter cell
are attracted to water. M. Metaphase • Chromosomes separate and move to
3) Protein synthesis occurs on lysosomes opposite ends of the cell
in the cell. • Chromosomes alight at the metaphase
4) 4) The process of facilitated diffusion plate
requires energy. N. Telophase • Spindle breaks down and disappears
5) Osmosis is the process of water moving • Nuclear envelope and nucleoli break down
down the concentration gradient. and disappear
6) Peroxisomes detoxify harmful or • Cleavage furrow squeezes the cell into two
poisonous substances, such as alcohol. parts

3) Explain the difference between filtration and osmosis.
M. Connective tissue • Type of tissue that has an apical Answer:
surface and a basement membrane Filtration is the process by which water and solutes are forced through a
• Type of tissue that consists of living membrane byfluid (hydrostatic pressure). Hydrostatic pressure is exerted by
cells surrounded by an extracellular the blood. By contrast, osmosis is a type of diffusion in which water moves
matrix across a membrane through aquaporins. During osmosis, water moves down
N. Nervous Tissue • Type of tissue that is specialized to its concentration gradient to achieve equilibrium.
contract and produce movement 4) Distinguish between the roles of the ribosome, found freely floating in the
• Type of tissue that can be simple or cytoplasm, and the ribosomes found attached to membranes, such as the rough
stratified endoplasmic reticulum (ER).
O. Muscle tissue • Type of tissue that is found in the Answer:
brain and spinal cord Ribosomes function in protein synthesis. Freely floating ribosomes make
• Type of tissue that can be described as proteins for use in the cytoplasm of a cell while ribosomes attached to the
voluntary or involuntary rough endoplasmic reticulum (ER) make proteins that are transported out of
the cell. Proteins travel through the membranes of the rough ER in
P. Epithelial Tissue • Type of tissue that is common in
glands and their ducts preparation for export in transport vesicles released by th Golgi apparatus
5) List the three different types of RNA and identify their functions.
• Type of tissue that supports , protects,
Answer:
and binds tissues together
1. Messenger RNA (mRNA) carries the "message" containing instructions
• Type of tissue that can be classified as
for protein synthesis from the DNA in the nucleus to the ribosomes in the
loose or dense
cytoplasm.
• Type of tissue whose two functional 2. Ribosomal RNA (rRNA) forms part of the "ribosomal" structure and
characteristics are irritability and helps coordinate the protein building process.
conductivity 3. Transfer RNA (tRNA) transports an amino acid to the ribosomal site and
3.5 Essay Questions recognizes the mRNA codons.
1) Drinking too much water over a short period of time can disrupt the electrolyte 6) Discuss the three steps in protein synthesis.
balance in the body (called water intoxication or hypotonic hydration). Explain how Answer:
cells respond to an environment with less solutes than their intracellular fluid. 1. Uncoiling of DNA—the DNA segment or gene that specifies one
Answer: polypeptide or protein uncoils.
This solution is hypotonic to the cells since it contains less solutes than the 2. Transcription (DNA-directed synthesis of mRNA)—one strand of DNA
body's cells. In these solutions, cells rapidly swell and fill with water in an acts as a template for the synthesis of the complementary mRNA molecule,
attempt to reach equilibrium. Cells may also burst, or lyse. and there is a transfer of information from the DNA's base sequence
2) List the three main regions of the cells in the human body. Describe the main (cod.Einto the complementary base sequence of mRNA (codon).
functions of each region. 3. Translation (RNA-directed synthesis of a polypeptide or protein)
Answer: involves five steps. First, mRNA leaves the nucleus and attaches to
1. Nucleus. The nucleus is the control center of the cell and houses the ribosomes. Second, tRNA (anticodon) transports an
genetic material of the cell called DNA. DNA also has the instructions for amino acid to the mRNA strand and recognizes a mRNA molecule (codon).
building proteins. Third, the codon and the anticodon bind. Fourth, the ribosome moves the
2. Plasma membrane. The plasma membrane is a barrier around the cell's mRNA strand along as each codon is read sequentially. Finally, as each
contents and separates it from the surrounding environment. Most of the amino acid is bound to the next by a polypeptide bond, its tRNA is released.
proteins embedded in the plasma membrane function in the transport of The polypeptide or protein chain is released when the termination (stop)
substances across the membrane. codon is read.
3. Cytoplasm. The cytoplasm is a semi-fluid medium that includes the 7) Discuss the four stages of mitosis.
cytosol, organelles, and inclusions. Each organelle performs a specific Answer:
function for the cell.
1. Prophase—chromatin threads coil and shorten so that visible bar-like 11) Describe the naming scheme for epithelial tissues.
bodies, called chromosomes, appear. Each chromosome is made up of two Answer:
strands, called chromatids, which are held together by a centromere. Epithelial tissues are named based on two features: the number of cell
Additionally, the centrioles separate and move toward opposite sides of the layers and the predominant cell shape. If the epithelial tissue has one layer,
cell, directing the assembly of the mitotic spindle (composed of it is called a simple tissue. Two or more layers qualifies the tissue as
microtubules) between them as they move. stratified. Cells can be flat in shape (squamous), cube-shaped (cuboidal), or
2. Metaphase—the chromosomes cluster and align in the center of the brick-shaped (columnar). The viewer should look toward the apical surface
spindle, midway between the centrioles, forming a straight line of for the most mature cells in the tissue for the cell shape. When naming the
chromosomes. epithelial tissue, place the number of cell layers first (such as simple)
3. Anaphase—the centromeres split and the chromosomes move slowly followed by the cell shape (such as squamous)..
apart toward opposite ends of the cell. A cleavage furrow appears over the
midline of the spindle and eventually pinches the cytoplasmic mass into two
parts in a process called cytokinesis. Answer Key:
4. Telophase—the chromosomes reach opposite ends of the cell and their
movement ends, and they then uncoil and become chromatin again. A BEDACBACDBBBDBACCBBBACBBDACAABBDBCCBACBBEDCB
nuclear membrane then forms around each chromatin mass, the spindle BDAEAAAEBCDAACBACDEBEEDBACBBCDCBCACEC
breaks down and disappears, and nucleoli re-appear in each of the daughter
nuclei. Finally, cytokinesis produces two separate daughter cells. TFFFTTFTTTFFFTF
8) A fat-soluble vitamin, vitamin A, is moving down its concentration gradient into a
cell. What type of membrane transport is responsible for its movement? Describe this DGACEFHIBJ
process.
Answer: NKMNLMNKN
Vitamin A is moving via simple diffusion, a type of passive transport.
Passive transport requires no energy input from the cell. Vitamin A is OPRQ
moving from an area where it is more concentrated to an area where it is
less concentrated. This vitamin is moving without assistance through the VSUVTUSUSST
plasma membrane.
9) Some cancer drugs, such as vincristine, interfere with the creation of mitotic
spindle fibers of a cell. Explain how this drug affects mitosis.
Answer:
The mitotic spindle is formed during prophase by centrioles. This spindle
guides the movement of chromosomes later as mitosis progresses. By late
prophase, the spindle has attached to the centromere of each chromosome.
Without the creation of the spindle fibers, chromosomes cannot successfully
be separated as mitosis progresses through anaphase.
10) Stranded on an island, you have two sources of water to drink: salty ocean water
and contaminated fresh water. Explain your choice of drinking water and indicate
why your selection is the best choice.
Answer:
The contaminated fresh water is the better choice to drink, because this
water is hypotonic to our cells. Our cells will become rehydrated and bloat
with the fluid when we drink.The salty ocean water is hypertonic to our
cells and will cause our cells to dehydrate and shrivel
as water leaves the cell.

Chapter 4 Skin and Body Membranes D) Label D 9) The part of a hair that projects from the
4.1 Multiple Choice Part I Questions E) Label E surface of the scalp or skin is called the
F) Label F ________.
4) The arrector pili muscle is represented by A) follicle
________. B) root
A) Label A C) cuticle
B) Label B D) shaft
C) Label C 10) The outermost layer of the epidermis is
D) Label D keratinized and known as stratum ________.
E) Label E A) basale
F) Label F B) granulosum
5) The gland that produces a mixture of oily C) corneum
substances and fragmented cells is indicated D) spinosum
by 11) The three pigments that contribute to
________. skin color are ________, ________, and
A) Label A ________.
B) Label B A) collagen; elastic; keratin
C) Label C B) melanin; jaundice; erythema
D) Label D C) sebum; sweat; urea
E) Label E D) melanin; carotene; hemoglobin
F) Label F 12) The sebaceous and sweat glands
6) The gland that produces sweat is associated with the skin are classified as
indicated by ________. ________ glands
1) The hypodermis, or subcutaneous tissue, A) Label A because they release secretions to the skin's
is represented by ________. B) Label B surface via ducts.
A) Label A
C) Label C A) exocrine
B) Label B
D) Label D B) endocrine
C) Label C
E) Label E C) serous
D) Label D F) Label F D) mucous
E) Label E 7) The pleura and pericardium are examples 13) "Goosebumps" are caused by
F) Label F
of ________ membranes that cover organs contractions of the ________.
2) The hair follicle is indicated by
in a body A) eccrine glands
________.
cavity closed to the exterior. B) synovial membranes
A) Label A A) mucous C) arrector pili muscles
B) Label B B) serous D) apocrine glands
C) Label C C) cutaneous 14) The type of burn that involves injury to
D) Label D
D) synovial the epidermis and the upper region of the
E) Label E
8) The ________ membrane lines the dermis and
F) Label F
fibrous capsule surrounding joints. is red, blistered, and painful is termed as a
3) The layer responsible for whorled ridges A) synovial ________-degree burn.
on the epidermal surfaces is indicated by B) serous A) first
________. C) mucous B) second
A) Label A
D) cutaneous C) third
B) Label B
D) fourth
C) Label C
CHAPTER 4: SKIN AND BODY MEMBRANES
15) The white, cheesy-looking substance 21) Which of the following letters in the 6) Where are mucous membranes found?
that is produced by the sebaceous glands and ABCD rule for recognizing melanomas is A) lining joint cavities
protects a baby's skin while it is floating in incorrect? B) covering the heart
its water-filled sac inside the mother is A) A stands for asymmetry C) lining the inside of the stomach
called ________. B) B stands for border irregularity D) covering the brain
A) lanugo C) C stands for color E) lining the abdominal cavity wall
B) vernix caseosa D) D stands for diagnosis 7) The skin and its derivatives (nails, glands,
C) milia and hairs) form the ________.
D) vellus 4.2 Multiple Choice Part II Questions A) skeletal system
16) Hair color is due to a pigment known as B) integumentary system
________. 1) Which membrane is constructed of a C) endocrine system
A) hemoglobin visceral and parietal layer? D) immune system
B) carotene A) synovial E) lymphatic system
C) keratin B) cutaneous 8) Which of the following is a vital function
D) melanin C) mucous of the skin?
17) The white crescent area located over the D) serous A) It converts modified epidermal
nail matrix is called the ________. E) peritoneum cholesterol to vitamin D.
A) lunule 2) The deepest layer of the serous membrane B) It aids in the transport of materials
B) cuticle covering the outer surface of the heart is the: throughout the body.
C) matrix A) parietal pericardium C) The cells of the epidermis store glucose
D) bed B) visceral pleura as glycogen for energy.
18) The layer of the serous membrane that C) synovial layer D) It absorbs vitamin C so that the skin will
covers an organ is known as the ________ D) visceral pericardium not be subject to diseases.
layer. E) peritoneum E) It aids in desiccation.
A) bursa 3) Synovial fluid reduces friction ________. 9) Although you get wet while swimming, a
B) visceral A) in movable joints such as the knee tough protein within the skin prevents it
C) lamina propria B) between the visceral and parietal layers from
D) parietal of serous membranes soaking up moisture like a sponge. This
19) The Staphylococcus infection of the skin C) inside the lungs substance is ________.
that causes pink, water-filled, raised lesions D) as the heart beats A) serous fluid
is known as ________. E) around the brain B) melanin
A) impetigo 4) Which of the following is a connective C) mucus
B) cold sores tissue membrane? D) carotene
C) psoriasis A) synovial membrane E) keratin
D) contact dermatitis B) cutaneous membrane 10) The epidermis is composed of
20) The type of gland responsible for body C) mucous membrane ________.
temperature regulation is the ________ D) serous membrane A) simple columnar epithelium
gland. E) pleural membrane B) stratified squamous epithelium
A) sebaceous 5) The only dry membrane is the ________. C) adipose tissue
B) eccrine (sweat or sudoriferous) A) synovial membrane D) areolar tissue
C) apocrine (sweat or sudoriferous) B) cutaneous membrane E) dense fibrous connective tissue
D) oil C) mucous membrane 11) Jan got her microscope slides mixed up
D) serous membrane in lab as they were unlabeled. The slide with
E) basement membrane

abundant adipose tissue should be labeled as 16) The layer of the epidermis in which cells D) hypodermis
the ________. die because of their inability to get nutrients E) papillary layer of the dermis
A) epidermis and 22) In order to warm the body up when cold
B) papillary layer of the dermis oxygen is the clear layer called ________. ________.
C) subcutaneous tissue A) stratum spinosum A) vitamin D is synthesized
D) reticular layer of the dermis B) stratum granulosum B) sudoriferous glands release sweat
E) stratum corneum C) stratum basale C) sebaceous glands release oil
12) The two main layers of skin are D) stratum corneum D) the arrector pili muscles contract to stand
________. E) stratum lucidum hairs upright
A) papillary layer and reticular layer 17) People who produce a lot of melanin E) melanin is produced
B) stratum basale and dermis have a skin tone that is ________. 23) Which vitamin is synthesized by the
C) epidermis and dermis A) green skin?
D) stratum corneum and dermis B) brown A) vitamin A
E) epidermis and hypodermis C) blue B) vitamin C
13) A needle pierces through the epidermal D) pink C) vitamin D
layers of the forearm in the following order: E) orange D) vitamin E
1. stratum basale 18) A splinter penetrates to the deepest layer E) vitamin K
2. stratum corneum of the epidermis on your foot. This layer is 24) Nails are composed of ________.
3. stratum granulosum the: A) melanin
4. stratum lucidum A) stratum basale B) hemoglobin
5. stratum spinosum B) stratum corneum C) keratin
A) 2, 3, 5, 1, 4 C) stratum granulosum D) sebum
B) 1, 5, 3, 4, 2 D) stratum lucidum E) carotene
C) 2, 4, 3, 5, 1 E) stratum spinosum 25) The secretions of the eccrine glands are
D) 1, 3, 5, 2, 4 19) Which of the following kills bacteria ________.
E) 2, 3, 4, 1, 5 and prevents bacterial invasions of the skin? A) primarily uric acid
14) Which of the following homeostatic A) sweat B) mostly water, sodium chloride, and trace
imbalances is caused by a herpes simplex B) hemoglobin amounts of wastes, lactic acid, and vitamin
infection? C) keratin C
A) athlete's foot D) sebum C) fatty substances, proteins, antibodies, and
B) cold sores E) melanin trace amounts of minerals and vitamins
C) impetigo 20) Nutrients reach the surface of the skin D) solely metabolic wastes
D) contact dermatitis (epidermis) through the process of : E) basic
E) cyanosis A) absorption 26) The secretion of sweat is stimulated:
15) The "tanning" effect (darkening of the B) evaporation A) by high temperatures
skin) that occurs when a person is exposed C) filtration B) when the air temperature drops
to the sun is due to . D) diffusion C) by hormones, especially male sex
A) melanin E) osmosis hormones
B) keratin 21) Fingerprints and footprints in the D) as a protective coating when one is
C) oil epidermis are created by dermal papillae swimming
D) Langerhans cells present in the:. E) both by high temperatures and by
E) sweat A) reticular layer of the dermis hormones, especially male hormones
B) subcutaneous tissue 27) Hairs are found associated with the :
C) stratum lucidum A) palms of the hands

B) axillary region A) age hemoglobin circulating in the dermal
C) lips B) size capillaries and reflecting through the
D) nipples C) weight dermis.
E) soles of the feet D) male hormones 6) The pattern that produces fingerprints is
28) Which of the following abnormal skin E) female hormones produced by dermal papillae in the
colors results from liver disorders? dermis.
A) cyanosis 7) The epidermis is made up of stratified
B) pallor squamous epithelium.
C) erythema 8) The majority of the cells in the
D) jaundice epidermis are keratinocytes.
E) bruising 9) Collagen and elastic fibers are common
29) What skin disorder is recognized using in the epidermis of the skin.
the ABCD rule? 10) Sebaceous glands release sweat to help
A) squamous cell carcinoma control body temperature.
B) melanoma 11) Sebaceous glands may be classified as
C) psoriasis eccrine or apocrine depending on their
D) basal cell carcinoma locations.
E) impetigo 12) Hair is produced by the hair bulb and is
30) A physician estimates the volume of composed primarily of dead keratinized
fluid lost in a severely burned patient by: cells.
A) measuring urinary output and fluid intake 13) Nails and hair are composed of keratin.
B) observing the tissues that are usually 14) The reason that the nail bed appears
moist The membrane shown in Figure 4.2 is a: pink is the presence of a large number
C) blood analysis A) cutaneous membrane of melanocytes in the underlying
D) using the "rule of nines" B) synovial membrane dermis.
E) performing enzyme studies C) pericardium, a serous membrane 15) Joe just burned his hand on a hot pot. A
31) Which of the following is an indication D) mucous membrane blister forms and the burn is painful;
of melanoma? E) pleura, a serous membrane Joe's burn would best be described as a
A) a symmetrical mole third-degree, or full-thickness, burn.
B) a pigmented spot that has smooth borders 4.3 True/False Questions 16) The rule of nines is used to estimate
C) a spot on the skin that is smaller than the how much of the body surface is
size of a pencil eraser 1) Cutaneous membranes are the only dry burned.
D) a pigmented spot that is black membranes. 17) Apocrine gland secretions are normally
E) a pigmented spot that contains areas of 2) Serous membranes line and lubricate odorless, and may be milky or
different colors joint cavities such as the knee. yellowish in color.
32) Sebum is responsible for all of the 3) When an individual is exposed to 18) The ABCD rule is used for classifying
following EXCEPT ________. extremely low air temperatures, the burns.
A) body temperature regulation capillaries of the skin will dilate so that 19) Milia is most common during old age
B) makes the skin oilier during adolescence blood will flush into skin capillary beds when secretions accumulate in the
C) kills bacteria on the skin's surface and heat will be dissipated. sebaceous glands.
D) keeps the skin soft and moist 4) The dermis is composed mostly of 20) Squamous cell carcinoma arises from
E) prevents hair follicles from brittleness dense connective tissue. cells of the stratum spinosum.
33) A genetic switch turns on male pattern 5) The pinkish hue of healthy individuals
baldness in response to ________. with fair skin is the result of the
crimson color of oxygenated
4.4 Matching Questions S. Serous membrane • Type of membrane that forms
Match the following: the skin
• Type of membrane adapted for
A. Cancer of melanocytes • Malignant Melanoma absorption or secretion
B. Cancer of stratum spinosum cells • Dermatitis T. Synovial membrane • Type of membrane that secretes
C. Staphylococcus bacterial infection • Dandruff fluids around organs
causing water-filled lesions, • Type of membrane that contains
commonly around the mouth and a visceral and a parietal layer
nose U. Mucous membrane • Type of membrane that lines
D. Infection of the sebaceous gland and • Herpes Simplex open body cavities
the formation of pimples V. Cutaneous membrane • Peritoneum, Pericardium, and
E. Skin inflammation • Basal Cell Carcinoma pleura are examples of this type
F. Inflammation of hair follicles and • Squamous cell carcinoma of membrane
sebaceous glands 4.5 Essay Questions
G. Malignancy of the lowest epidermal • First Degree Burn
layer 1) Explain the ABCD rule.
H. Burn in which only the epidermis • Boils and Carbuncles Answer:
becomes red and swollen The ABCD rule describes the appearance of the most serious form of skin
I. Dry, dead flakes of stratum corneum • Impetigo cancer, melanoma. The "A" is for asymmetry. In melanoma, the two sides
J. Virus that produces cold sores • Third-degree, or full-thickness of the pigmented spot or mole do not match. The "B" is for border
burn irregularity. In melanoma, the borders of the lesion are not smooth but
K. Full thickness burn of the kin in • Acne exhibit indentations. The "C" is for color. In melanoma, the pigmented spot
which the skin becomes blackened contains areas of different colors (blacks, browns, tans, and sometimes
or blanched (gray-white) blues and reds). The "D" is for diameter. In melanoma, the spot is larger
than 6 mm in diameter (the size of a pencil eraser).
2) Distinguish between the locations and secretions of apocrine and eccrine sweat
L. Superficial layer of the epidermis • Epidermal dendritic cell glands.
made of 20-30 cell layers of dead, Answer:
keratin-filled cells Eccrine sweat glands are more numerous than apocrine sweat glands; they
M. Cell commonly found in the • Stratum corneum are found all over the body. Eccrine sweat glands function in body
epidermis that produces keratin temperature regulation. When we are too hot, eccrine sweat glands release
N. Deepest layer of the epidermis that • Papillary layer of dermis sweat containing water, salts, vitamin C, and metabolic wastes on to the
is situated closest to the dermis body's surface. Upon its evaporation, we are cooled down. The ducts of
O. Upper layer of the dermis that forms • Keratinocyte apocrine sweat glands empty into hair follicles in the axillary and genital
dermal papillae areas. Apocrine sweat glands activate at puberty and produce sweat almost
P. Cell that produces a pigment known • Subcutaneous tissue continuously, but their overall function is not know. Apocrine sweat is
as melanin milky or yellowish in color due to fatty acids and proteins in the secretions.
Q. Hypodermis • Melanocyte 3) Explain how the skin helps regulate body temperature.
R. Cell responsible for alerting and • Stratum Basale Answer:
activating an immune response to a The nervous system is responsible for controlling all temperature-regulating
bacterial or viral invasion functions of the skin. When the temperature in the external environment is
high, heat loss occurs as the nervous system activates sweat glands.
Perspiration is produced, which evaporates from the skin surface, causing
heat to be dissipated. At the same time, the nervous system causes blood to
be flushed into skin capillary beds so that heat radiates from the body c. is constructed of simple squamous epithelium overlying a thin
surface. In contrast, when the temperature in the external environment is layer of areolar connective tissue
low, the nervous system prevents blood from entering the skin capillary 7) Differentiate among the roles of melanocytes and keratinocytes. Where in the skin
system and radiation to the body exterior is prevented so that perspiration are these cells located?
does not occur. Answer:
4) Explain three ways in which the skin protects deeper tissues from mechanical Melanocytes are located in the stratum basale of the epidermis. These cells
damage. produce a pigment, melanin, upon exposure to the skin. Melanin functions
Answer: to protect the dermis from damage due to UV radiation. Keratinocytes form
1. Keratinocytes are the most common cell type in the epidermis which most of the cells of the epidermis; they produce a water-resistant, tough
produces a fibrous protein known as keratin. Keratin provides a tough protein called keratin.
protective layer for the epidermis. 8) Julia works in a walk-in clinic where several patients arrive with sunburns. How
2. Fat cells in the subcutaneous tissue, deep to the dermis, cushions blows. should she distinguish the first-degree and second-degree burns from one another?
3. Pressure receptors alert the nervous system to possible damage. Answer:
5) Identify four changes that occur to the skin and subcutaneous connective tissue as Although both first-degree and second-degree burns produce red and
a result of aging, and state how these changes can be delayed. painful skin and are partial thickness burns, only the second-degree burns
Answer: produce blisters.
1. The amount of subcutaneous tissue below the skin decreases, leading to
an intolerance to cold in the elderly.
2. Because of decreased oil production and declining numbers of collagen ANSWER KEY:
fibers, the skin becomes drier and may become itchy and bothersome.
3. Thinning of the skin makes it more susceptible to bruising and other DFABCEBADCDACBBDABABDDDAABCBAEBCCABAEBADDEDC
types of injuries. CBEBDBDEAAE
4. A decrease in elasticity of the skin, along with the loss of subcutaneous
fat, allows bags to form under the eyes and causes jowls to sag. To delay TFFTTTTTFFFTTFFTTFFT
these changes, the skin should be kept clean and shielded from the sun, and
a healthy diet with plenty of fluids should be maintained. AEIJGBHFCKD
6) List and describe the three types of epithelial membranes.
Answer: RLOMQPN
1. Cutaneous membrane is:
a. skin VUSSTUS
b. dry
c. composed of keratinizing stratified squamous epithelium and the
underlying connective tissue is often dense and fibrous.
2. Mucous membrane:
a. is moist
b. is found lining all body cavities that open to the exterior
c. often contains stratified squamous epithelium or simple
columnar epithelium
3. Serous membrane:
a. is composed of two layers (visceral layer covers the organ in the
cavity while the parietal layer lines a specific portion of the wall of
the ventral body cavity)
b. covers organs in body cavities that are closed to the exterior

Chapter 5: The Skeletal System c. Head a. Mandible
1. There are ___ thoracic vertebrae d. Trochlea b. Temporal bon
a. 10 9. A ligament connects c. Ulna
b. 7 a. Muscle to bone d. Both the temporal bone and
c. 12 b. Muscle to tendon ulna
d. 5 c. Bone to bone 17. Sella turcica is part of this bone
2. A cavity that is within a bon, filled with d. Bone to tendon a. Scapula
air, and lines with mucous membrane is 10. What is the distal lateral bone of the leg b. Temporal bone
a _____ a. Tibia c. Ethmoid bone
a. Fossa b. Ulna d. Sphenoid bone
b. Sinus c. Radius
c. Meatus d. Fibula
d. Fissure 11. Which of the following is also a ANSWER KEY :
3. A round or oval opening through a bone synovial joint
is a _____ a. Synarthrotic joint CBDDAACCCDCBCCBDD
a. Fissure b. Amphiarthrotic joint
b. Condyle c. Diarthrotic joint
c. Facet d. Aponeurosis
d. Foramen 12. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) Activates
4. The patella is what type of bone a. Osteoblasts
a. Short b. Psteoclasts
b. Irregular c. Osteocytes
c. Sesamoid d. Chondrocytes
d. Both irregular and sesamoid 13. A rounded articular projection is called
5. Where is hematopoietic tissue found? a
a. Spongy bone a. Trochanter
b. Cartilage b. Tuberosity
c. Diaphysis c. Condyle
d. Central canal d. Tubercle
6. The first cervical vertebra is the 14. Childhood disease where bones fail to
a. Atlas calcify because of lack of calcium or
b. Axis vitamin D
c. Manubrium a. Osteoarthritis
d. Dens b. Scoliosis
7. The type of fracture in which a bone c. Rickets
breaks into many fragments is called d. Osteoporosis
a. Greenstick 15. The medial malleolus is found on this
b. Compound bone
c. Comminuted a. Radius
d. Impacted b. Tibia
8. The proximal end of the humerus and c. Ulna
femur is known as the d. Femur
a. Epicondyle 16. The styloid process is found on this
b. Ischium bone
CHAPTER 5: SKELETAL SYSTEM

Chapter 6: The Muscular System C) Label C D) either smooth or skeletal
6.1 Multiple Choice Part I Questions D) Label D 10) The epimysium covering on the outside
of the muscle can blend into cordlike
________ or sheetlike ________.
A) tendons; aponeuroses
B) ligaments; tendons
C) fascia; ligaments
D) aponeuroses; ligaments
11) The ________ is an organelle that wraps
and surrounds the myofibril and stores
calcium.
A) cross bridge
B) sarcomere
C) sarcolemma
Using Figure 6.2, match the following: D) sarcoplasmic reticulum
5) The epimysium is represented by 12) Muscle tissue has the ability to shorten
________. when adequately stimulated, a characteristic
A) Label A known
B) Label B as ________.
C) Label C A) elasticity
D) Label D B) irritability
Using Figure 6.1, match the following: 6) The perimysium wraps a fascicle of C) contractility
1) The I band within a skeletal muscle fiber muscle cells and is represented by D) extensibility
is indicated by ________. ________. 13) One neuron and all the skeletal muscles
A) Label A A) Label A it stimulates is known as a ________.
B) Label B B) Label B A) sarcoplasmic reticulum
C) Label C C) Label C B) motor unit
D) Label D D) Label D C) synaptic cleft
2) The A band within a skeletal muscle fiber 7) The muscle fiber (cell) is indicated by D) neuromuscular junction
is indicated by ________. ________. 14) The heads of the myosin myofilaments
A) Label A A) Label A are called ________ when they link the
B) Label B B) Label B thick and thin
C) Label C C) Label C filaments together during skeletal muscle
D) Label D D) Label D contraction.
3) The H zone, located within the A band, 8) The endomysium that wraps individual A) neuromuscular junctions
lacks thin filaments and is represented by muscle fibers is indicated by ________. B) synapses
________. A) Label A C) cross bridges
A) Label A B) Label B D) motor units
B) Label B C) Label C 15) The gap between the motor neuron and
C) Label C D) Label D the muscle fiber it supplies at the
D) Label D 9) Striated involuntary muscle tissue is neuromuscular
4) The myofilament composed of actin is classified as ________ muscle. junction is called the ________.
indicated by ________. A) skeletal A) synaptic cleft
A) Label A B) cardiac B) motor unit
B) Label B C) smooth
CHAPTER 7: THE NERVOUS SYSTEM
C) cross bridge A) circular D) myofibrils
D) H zone B) convergent E) smooth muscle only
16) When a skeletal muscle is fully C) pennate
contracted, the ________ are closer to the D) fusiform
thick filaments. 23) The muscle that closes each eye is the
A) Z discs ________.
B) M lines A) orbicularis oris
C) cross bridges B) frontalis
D) A bands C) orbicularis oculi
17) Anaerobic glycolysis requires ________ D) zygomaticus
to make ATP. 24) The prime mover of arm abduction is the
A) creatine phosphate ________ muscle.
B) oxygen A) trapezius
C) glucose B) deltoid The type of muscle tissue pictured in Figure
D) both oxygen and glucose C) latissimus dorsi 6.3 is ________.
18) A smooth, sustained contraction is D) quadratus lumborum A) skeletal muscle
called ________. 25) The hamstring group is the prime mover B) voluntary
A) fused, or complete, tetanus of thigh ________ and knee ________. C) striated
B) a twitch A) extension; flexion D) found only in the heart
C) unfused, or incomplete, tetanus B) dorsiflexion; plantar flexion E) smooth muscle
D) summing of contractions C) abduction; adduction 4) The plasma membrane of a skeletal
19) Contractions in which muscles shorten D) rotation; circumduction muscle cell is called the ________.
and produce movement are known as 26) An inherited disease that causes muscles A) sarcolemma
________. to degenerate and atrophy is known as B) sarcomere
A) isotonic contractions ________. C) myofilament
B) twitches A) torticollis D) sarcoplasm
C) isometric contractions B) muscular dystrophy E) sarcoplasmic reticulum
D) resistance exercises C) cystic fibrosis 5) Smooth muscle cells are ________.
20) The point of muscle attachment to an D) myasthenia gravis A) multinucleate
immovable or less movable bone is known B) involuntary
as the 6.2 Multiple Choice Part II Questions C) branched
________. D) striated
A) innervation 1) Striated involuntary muscle tissue found E) cylindrical
B) action in the heart is ________. 6) Which type of muscle tissue contracts
C) insertion A) smooth muscle most quickly upon stimulation?
D) origin B) skeletal muscle A) skeletal
21) Muscles that perform opposite actions to C) dense regular B) visceral
one another are termed ________. D) cardiac muscle C) cardiac
A) synergists E) dense irregular D) smooth
B) prime movers E) tendons
C) antagonists 2) Endomysium covers ________. 7) Which of the following is NOT a function
D) fixators A) fascicles of muscle cells of the muscular system?
22) The arrangement of fascicles in B) an entire muscle A) production of movement
orbicularis oris is ________. C) an individual muscle cell B) maintenance of posture

C) stabilization of joints D) calcium causes ATP binding to 17) An elaborate and specialized network of
D) generation of heat actin membranes in skeletal muscle cells that
E) hematopoiesis E) calcium binds to regulatory function in
8) A sarcomere is ________. proteins on the myosin filaments, calcium storage is the ________.
A) the nonfunctional unit of changing both their shape and A) sarcolemma
skeletal muscle their position on the thick filaments B) mitochondria
B) the contractile unit between two 13) The mechanical force of contraction is C) intermediate filament network
Z discs generated by ________. D) myofibrillar network
C) the area between two A) shortening of the thick filaments E) sarcoplasmic reticulum
intercalated discs B) shortening of the thin filaments 18) During skeletal muscle contraction,
D) the wavy lines on the cell, as C) a sliding of thin filaments past myosin heads attach to binding sites
seen in a microscope thick filaments associated with
E) a compartment in a myofilament D) the "accordian-like" folding of ________.
9) Which one of the following is composed thin and thick filaments A) myosin filaments
of myosin protein? E) the temporary disappearance of B) actin filaments
A) thick filaments thin filaments C) Z discs
B) thin filaments 14) Acetylcholine is ________. D) thick filaments
C) all myofilaments A) an ion pump on the postsynaptic E) the H zone
D) Z discs membrane 19) Which of the following can actually
E) light bands B) a source of energy for muscle shorten during a muscle contraction?
10) Cross bridges are created when myosin contraction A) myosin filament
heads bind to ________. C) a component of thick B) A band
A) thick filaments myofilaments C) actin filament
B) sarcomeres D) an oxygen-binding protein D) sarcomere
C) thin filaments E) a neurotransmitter that E) myofilament
D) sarcoplasmic reticula stimulates skeletal muscle 20) In order to excite a muscle cell,
E) myosin filaments 15) The gap between the axon acetycholine must ________.
11) A motor neuron and all of the skeletal terminal of a motor neuron and the A) enter the muscle cell by
muscle fibers it stimulates are termed a sarcolemma of a skeletal endocytosis
________. muscle cell is called the ________. B) travel into the axon terminal of
A) myofilament A) motor unit the nerve cell by endocytosis
B) synaptic cleft B) sarcomere C) enter the muscle cell through
C) motor unit C) neuromuscular junction protein channels
D) neuromuscular junction D) synaptic cleft D) bind to receptors in the
E) neurotransmitter E) cross bridge sarcolemma of the muscle cell
12) Why are calcium ions necessary for 16) Neurotransmitters are released upon E) break down acetylcholinesterase
skeletal muscle contraction? stimulation from a nerve impulse by the in the synaptic cleft
A) calcium increases the action ________. 21) Which of these events must occur first to
potential transmitted along the A) myofibrils trigger the skeletal muscle to generate an
sarcolemma B) sarcoplasmic reticulum action
B) calcium releases the inhibition C) thick filaments potential and contract?
on Z discs D) axon terminals of the motor A) sodium ions rush into the cell
C) calcium triggers the binding of neuron B) acetylcholine (ACh) causes
myosin to actin E) sarcolemma of the muscle cell temporary permeability to sodium

C) diffusion of potassium ions out B) the inability to generate E) both masseter and temporalis
of the cell sufficient quantities of ATP due to 30) Sandra is playing the piano for her
D) operation of the sodium- feedback regulation of synthesis recital. Which muscle is NOT involved in
potassium pump C) insufficient intracellular the movement of her hands and/or fingers
E) acetylcholinesterase (AchE) quantities of ATP due to excessive ________.
breaks down acetylcholine (ACh) consumption A) flexor carpi radialis
D) a total lack of ATP B) flexor carpi ulnaris
22) A skeletal muscle twitch differs from a E) inadequate numbers of C) extensor digitorum
tetanic contraction in that ________. mitochondria D) extensor digitorum longus
A) the tetanic contraction is 25) Which of the following is an example of E) extensor carpi radialis
considered abnormal, while the an isometric contraction? 31) Which of these muscles is a synergist to
twitch is a normal muscle response A) shaking the head as to say "no" masseter?
B) the tetanic contraction is caused B) pushing against an immovable A) sternocleidomastoid
by a single stimulus, while the wall B) temporalis
twitch is caused by very rapid C) bending the elbow C) trapezius
multiple stimuli D) rotating the arm D) buccinator
C) the muscle twitch is prolonged E) nodding the head as to say "yes" E) orbicularis oris
and continuous while a tetanic 26) Anaerobic glycolysis occurs without 32) Which muscle helps compress the
contraction is brief and "jerky" ________. abdominal contents during defecation or
D) the muscle twitch occurs only in A) ATP childbirth?
small muscles while a tetanic B) oxygen A) internal intercostals
contraction occurs in large C) lactic acid B) deltoids
muscle groups D) carbon dioxide C) trapezius
E) the muscle twitch is a brief and E) glucose D) iliopsoas
"jerky" movement, while the 27) The least movable point of muscle E) rectus abdominis
tetanic contraction is prolonged attachment to a bone is termed its ________. 33) A muscle located on the ventral
and continuous A) bone marking (anterior) side of the body is the ________.
23) Creatine phosphate (CP) functions B) function A) pectoralis major
within the muscle cells by ________. C) insertion B) occipitalis
A) forming a temporary chemical D) action C) gastrocnemius
compound with myosin E) origin D) gluteus medius
B) forming a chemical compound 28) The movement opposite to abduction is E) latissimus dorsi
with actin ________. 34) A nursing infant develops a powerful
C) inducing a conformational A) flexion sucking muscle that adults also use for
change in the myofilaments B) rotation whistling or blowing a trumpet called the
D) storing energy that will be C) circumduction ________.
transferred to ADP to resynthesize D) adduction A) platysma
ATP as needed E) supination B) masseter
E) storing energy that will be 29) Which of the following muscles closes C) zygomaticus
transferred to ATP to resynthesize the jaw? D) buccinator
ADP as needed A) buccinator E) temporalis
24) The condition of skeletal muscle fatigue B) zygomaticus 35) What is the main function of the
can be best explained by ________. C) frontalis quadriceps group?
A) the all-or-none law D) sternocleidomastoid A) arm flexion

B) hand supination 41) What is the origin of the deltoid muscle? 2) All types of muscle have endomysium
C) thigh abduction A) proximal radius covering individual muscle cells.
D) knee extension B) proximal humerus 3) Bundles of muscle fibers are known as
E) foot inversion C) distal humerus aponeuroses.
36) A muscle group that works with and D) olecranon process of ulna 4) The striations seen in skeletal muscle are
assists the action of a prime mover is a(n) E) scapular spine and clavicle actually alternating dark A and light I bands.
________. 42) While doing "jumping jacks" during an 5) The sarcoplasmic reticulum wraps like a
A) antagonist only exercise class, your arms and legs move sleeve around the myofibril and stores and
B) fixator only laterally away from the midline of your releases calcium.
C) synergist only body. This motion is called ________. 6) A neuromuscular junction consists of one
D) antagonist and synergist A) extension neuron and all the skeletal muscles it
E) antagonist and fixator B) flexion stimulates.
37) Which muscle is an antagonist to C) abduction 7) The neurotransmitter used by the nervous
gastrocnemius? D) adduction system to activate skeletal muscle cells is
A) sartorius E) circumduction acetylcholine.
B) tibialis anterior 43) Which of the following muscles are 8) Thick filaments are made of a protein
C) fibularis brevis antagonists? called actin.
D) fibularis longus A) biceps brachii and triceps 9) Aerobic respiration requires the use of
E) soleus brachii oxygen to generate ATP.
38) Which muscle group includes the biceps B) bicpes femoris and biceps 10) The fastest mechanism for producing
femoris, semimembranosus, and brachii ATP is aerobic respiration.
semitendinosus? C) vastus medialis and vastus 11) Isometric contractions produce
A) abdominal muscles lateralis movement when filaments slide past one
B) quadriceps group D) masseter and temporalis another and the muscle shortens.
C) adductor group E) gastrocnemius and soleus 12) Aerobic, or endurance, exercise involves
D) fibularis muscles 44) What condition results if muscles are not jogging or biking.
E) hamstring group used, such as when immobilized in a cast for 13) A muscle twitch results when the muscle
39) Paralysis of which of the following healing a broken bone? is stimulated so rapidly that no evidence of
would make an individual unable to flex the A) hypertrophy relaxation is seen.
hip________. B) lordosis 14) The effect of the neurotransmitter on the
A) biceps femoris C) atrophy muscle cell membrane is to temporarily
B) gastrocnemius D) spina bifida modify its permeability of ions such as Na+
C) tibialis anterior E) scoliosis and K+.
D) soleus 45) Which one of the following is NOT a 15) When a muscle fiber contracts, the I
E) iliopsoas criterion generally used in naming muscles? bands diminish in size, the H zones
40) Which one of the following muscles is A) relative size of the muscle disappear, and the A bands move closer
involved in abduction of the arm at the B) number of origins of the muscle together but do not diminish in length.
shoulder C) shape of the muscle 16) Abduction and adduction are
joint? D) method of attachment of the antagonistic actions.
A) deltoid muscle to bone 17) The deltoid is a prime mover of arm
B) biceps brachii E) action of the muscle adduction.
C) triceps brachii 6.3 True/False Questions 18) The deepest muscle of the abdominal
D) latissimus dorsi 1) Cardiac and skeletal muscle both possess wall is the transversus abdominis.
E) pectoralis major striations.

19) The deltoid muscle is a common site for 6.4 Matching Questions
intramuscular injections. Match the following:
20) Plantar flexion at the ankle joint is A. Calcium Ions • The sarcoplasmic reticulum stores this chemical
accomplished by the tibialis anterior muscle. B. Acetylcholine • Specific neurotransmitter that stimulates skeletal muscle cells
21) The hamstring group inserts into the C. Synaptic cleft • Chemical that enters a muscle cell upon excitation
distal tibia. D. Sodium Ions • Gap between the axon terminals and the plasma membrane of a
22) Muscle development in babies occurs in
neighboring muscle cell
a cephalic/caudal direction.
E. Acetylcholinesterase • Electrical Current that travels the length of the muscle
23) Supination and pronation refer to up and
down movements of the foot at the ankle.
F. Action Potential • Enzyme that breaks down Acetylcholine (Ach)
A. Smooth Muscle Tissue • Voluntary muscle tissue

• Muscle tissue found only in the heart
• Muscle tissue that forms valves to regulate the passage of substances through internal body openings
B. Skeletal Muscle Tissue • Muscle tissue that is multinucleate
• Muscle tissue composed of branching cells and intercalated discs
C. Cardiac Muscle Tissue • Muscle Tissue that activates arrector pili muscles to stand hairs on end
• Performs very slow, sometimes rhythmic, contractions
• Muscle tissue that maintains posture, body position, and stabilizes joints
D. Flexion • Type of movement that decreases the angle of the joint
E. Extension • Type of movement that allows you to carry a soup bowl
F. Rotation • The movement of a limb toward the body midline
G. Adduction • Type of movement that points the toes
H. Plantar flexion • The movement of a bone around its longitudinal axis
I. Supination • The movement of a limb away from the body midline
J. Abduction • Type of movement that turns the sole of the foot medially
K. Inversion • Primary action of the deltoid
• Primary action of the adductor muscles
• Primary action of the erector spinae
• Primary action of the rectus abdominis
ANSWER KEY:
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BEEACACD BCABCAAB
DIGHFKJGED
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6.5 Essay Questions Answer:
1) You have lost the labels to your muscle tissue slides in laboratory. The myosin heads attach to binding sites on the actin filaments to
Explain the characteristics that allow you to distinguish among skeletal form cross bridges and to begin the process of sliding. The myosin
muscle, smooth muscle, and cardiac muscle tissue. heads swivel toward the center of the sarcomere, attaching and
Answer: detaching several times. The actin filaments are pulled toward the
Although cells in both skeletal muscle tissue and cardiac muscle center of the sarcomere. The actin filaments slide past the thick
tissue are striated, look for intercalated discs and branched cells in filaments as the Z discs are pulled closer together. As this event
the cardiac muscle cells to distinguish between these two tissues. occurs simultaneously in sarcomeres throughout the cell, the
Furthermore, skeletal muscle cells are multinucleate while cardiac muscle cell shortens.
muscle cells are uninucleate. Cells in smooth muscle tissue lack 6) Fascicle arrangements produce skeletal muscles with different structures
striations, making it easy to distinguish from and functional properties, and determine their individual range of motion
skeletal and cardiac muscle tissues. Like the cells in cardiac and power. List the seven different fascicle arrangements of human skeletal
muscle tissue, smooth muscle cells are uninucleate. However, muscles and give a specific example of each:
smooth muscle tissue cells do not branch nor do they possess Answer:
intercalated discs. 1. Circular—orbicularis oris, orbicularis oculi
2. Convergent—pectoralis major
2) Describe the events that occur from the time that a motor neuron releases 3. Parallel—sartorius
acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction until muscle cell contraction 4. Unipennate—extensor digitorum longus
occurs. 5. Multipennate—deltoid
Answer: 6. Fusiform—biceps brachii
Acetylcholine is released, which diffuses through the synaptic cleft 7. Bipennate—rectus femoris
and attaches to receptors on the sarcolemma. The sarcolemma 7) Discuss the importance of calcium in skeletal muscle contraction.
permeability to sodium ions increases briefly, causing sodium ions Answer:
to rush into the muscle cell, which changes the electrical Calcium is necessary for myosin heads to attach to binding sites on
conditions of the resting sarcolemma. An action potential is actin filaments. As the action potential travels into the muscle cell,
initiated and sweeps over the entire sarcolemma. Calcium ions are it stimulates the sarcoplasmic reticulum surrounding each
released from storage areas inside the sarcoplasmic reticulum of myofibril to release its stored calcium into the sarcoplasm. The
the muscle cell. They attach to the myofilaments, which triggers calcium triggers the binding of myosin heads to actin filaments and
the sliding of the myofilaments and causes a muscle cell the initiation of the sliding of filaments.
contraction. 8) Explain how isometric and isotonic contractions differ using examples of
3) Explain what meaning is inferred in the muscle name rectus femoris. each:
Answer: Answer:
The term, rectus, means straight. The fibers in this muscle run 1. Isometric contractions are contractions in which the muscles
straight along a plane. The reference to the femur bone is relayed do not shorten. An example of an isometric contraction is
in femoris. Together, these terms tell us the muscle fibers of rectus pushing against a wall with bent elbows. The muscles cannot
femoris travel "straight along the femur bone." shorten since the wall doesn’t move
4) Describe where and how dorsiflexion and plantar flexion occur. 2. Isotonic contractions occur when muscles shorten and
Answer: movement occurs due to the sliding of the myofilaments.
Dorsiflexion and plantar flexion are special actions occurring at Flexion and extension of the arm are just two examples of
the ankle joint. Dorsiflexion is accomplished by lifting your foot so isotonic contractions
that its superior surface moves toward the shin while plantar 9)What types of movements are demonstrated by your arms and legs when
flexion is accomplished by depressing the foot (pointing the toes or you perform jumping jacks in physical education class?
"planting" the toes toward the ground). Answer:
5) Discuss the role of the myosin heads in sliding filament theory. Abduction and adduction

Chapter 7 The Nervous System 3) The axon terminals are indicated by C) oligodendrocytes
7.1 Multiple Choice Part I Questions A) Label I D) microglia
B) Label G
C) Label B 10) The part of the neuron that typically
D) Label A conducts nerve impulses away from the cell
E) Label C body is the ________.
4) The axon is indicated by ________. A) dendrite
A) Label B B) cell body
B) Label F C) synaptic cleft
C) Label H D) axon
D) Label I 11) The gaps between Schwann cells found
E) Label A at regular intervals in peripheral system
5) The gaps between Schwann cells are neurons are called ________.
indicated by ________. A) synaptic clefts
A) Label D B) axon terminals
B) Label H C) nodes of Ranvier
C) Label B D) myelin sheaths
D) Label F 12) Sensory receptors located in muscles
E) Label A and tendons are termed ________.
A) Meissner's corpuscles
6) The nucleus of the neuron is indicated by B) proprioceptors
A) Label E C) lamellar corpuscles
B) Label I D) association neurons
C) Label A 13) Bundles of nerve fibers (neuron
D) Label B processes) running through the CNS are
E) Label F called ________, whereas in the PNS they
7) The nervous system is structurally are called ________.
subdivided into two systems: ________ A) tracts; nerves
Using Figure 7.1, identify the following: nervous system and ________ nervous B) gray matter; white matter
1) The neural processes that convey system. C) axons; dendrites
incoming messages toward the cell body are A) central; peripheral D) afferent neurons; efferent
indicated by B) somatic; autonomic neurons
________. C) parasympathetic; sympathetic 14) The cell bodies of the ________ neurons
A) Label H D) autonomic; sympathetic are always located within the CNS.
B) Label G 8) ________ cells form the myelin sheaths A) proprioceptor
C) Label A around nerve fibers in the PNS. B) afferent
D) Label F A) Satellite C) motor
E) Label B B) Ependymal D) sensory
2) The metabolic center of the neuron is C) Schwann 15) Myelinated fibers (tracts) form
indicated by ________. D) Nerve ________ matter while unmyelinated fibers
A) Label D 9) Support cells in the central nervous form ________ matter.
B) Label F system are collectively called ________. A) sensory; motor
C) Label A A) myelin sheaths B) gray; white
D) Label H B) neuroglia C) motor; sensory
E) Label I
D) white; gray A) ventricles 28) The large fiber tract that allows
16) ________ connect sensory and motor B) arachnoid villi communication between the two cerebral
neurons in neural pathways and their cell C) meninges hemispheres is called the ________.
bodies are typically located in the central D) sinuses A) corpus callosum
nervous system. 22) Cerebrospinal fluid is formed from B) fornix
A) Interneurons (association blood by clusters of capillaries in the brain C) pons
neurons) known as________. D) thalamus
B) Afferent A) choroid plexuses 29) The portion of the diencephalon that acts
C) Efferent B) arachnoid villi as a relay station for sensory impulses
D) Proprioceptors C) ventricles traveling to the sensory cortex is the
17) During repolarization, ________ ions D) sinuses ________.
are pumped out of the cell. 23) The primary somatic sensory cortex is A) pons
A) sodium located in the ________ lobe of the B) pituitary gland
B) potassium cerebrum. C) thalamus
C) both sodium and potassium A) parietal D) hypothalamus
D) calcium B) frontal 30) The delicate innermost membrane, or
18) ________ reflexes include the secretion C) temporal meningeal layer, that clings to the surface of
of saliva, changes in the size of our pupils, D) occipital the brain and spinal cord is known as the
and digestion involve the activities of 24) The blood-brain barrier is formed by ________ mater.
smooth muscles. ________ junctions that nearly seamlessly A) dura
A) Somatic bind capillaries in the brain. B) arachnoid
B) Voluntary A) gap C) periosteal
C) Autonomic B) intercalated D) pia
D) Sympathetic C) desmosome 31) Hemiplegia and aphasia characterize
19) The thalamus, hypothalamus, and D) tight those patients who have experienced a
epithalamus collectively constitute the 25) One of the major functions of the pons is ________.
A) cerebellum to control ________. A) concussion
B) dicephalon (interbrain) A) breathing B) cerebrovascular accident
C) brain stem B) hunger (CVA), or stroke
D) cerebrum C) thirst C) contusion
20) The brain dysfunction where blood D) consciousness D) cerebral edema
supply to a region (or regions) of the brain is 26) The fissure in the brain that separates the 32) There are ________ pairs of cranial
blocked and vital brain tissue dies, as by a two cerebral hemispheres is called the nerves and ________ pairs of spinal nerves
blood clot or a ruptured blood vessel, is ________. in the peripheral nervous system.
called ________. A) transverse fissure A) 5; 7
A) cerebrovascular accident B) longitudinal fissure B) 18; 34
(CVA), or stroke C) sagittal fissure C) 12; 31
B) Parkinson's disease D) tentorium cerebelli D) 15; 25
C) Huntington's disease 27) The hypothalamus regulates the 33) ________ disease results from a
D) multiple sclerosis ________. degeneration of the dopamine-releasing
21) The brain and spinal cord are protected A) pineal gland neurons of the substantia nigra.
and cushioned by three connective tissue B) pituitary gland A) Parkinson's
membranes that are collectively called C) pons B) Alzheimer's
________. D) thalamus C) Huntington's

D) Autoimmune A) lumbar C) Schwann cells
34) The ________ is a connective tissue B) sacral D) ependymal cells
wrapping around fascicles of neuron fibers. C) brachial E) satellite cells
A) epineurium D) cervical 4) The Schwann cell forms a myelin sheath
B) endoneurium 41) Each spinal nerve divides into a dorsal around the ________.
C) perineurium and a ventral ________. A) dendrites
D) perimysium A) ramus B) cell body
35) Sweat glands that produce perspiration B) tract C) nucleus
when stimulated are innervated only by the C) ganglion D) axon
________ fibers. D) plexus E) nodes of Ranvier
A) sympathetic 42) The ________ division of the autonomic 5) The neuron processes that normally
B) parasympathetic nervous system is often called the "rest-and- receive incoming stimuli are called
C) somatic digest" ________.
D) afferent division. A) axons
36) The only pair of cranial nerves to extend A) somatic B) dendrites
to the thoracic and abdominal cavities is the B) sympathetic C) neurolemmas
________ nerves. C) parasympathetic D) Schwann cells
A) glossopharyngeal D) afferent E) satellite cells
B) oculomotor 6) Unmyelinated nerve fibers are known as
C) vestibulocochlear 7.2 Multiple Choice Part II Questions ________.
D) vagus A) white matter
37) Cranial nerve III is known as the 1) The term central nervous system refers to B) sensors
________ nerve. the ________. C) myelin sheaths
A) optic A) autonomic and peripheral D) receptors
B) olfactory nervous systems E) gray matter
C) oculomotor B) brain, spinal cord, and cranial 7) The major role of the interneuron
D) trochlear nerves (association neuron) is to ________.
38) The number of neurons involved in C) brain and cranial nerves A) carry information from the
transmission of impulses in the autonomic D) spinal cord and spinal nerves central nervous system to muscles
nervous system is ________. E) brain and spinal cord and/or the viscera
A) one 2) Fibers that carry information from the B) form a lipid-protein
B) two skin, joints, and skeletal muscles to the (lipoprotein) cell membrane on the
C) four central nervous outside of axons
D) eight system are ________. C) transmit nerve impulses from
39) One of the last areas of the CNS to A) motor the skin and organs to the central
mature is the ________, which regulates B) visceral sensory nervous system
body temperature. C) somatic sensory D) connect motor and sensory
A) hypothalamus D) interneurons (association neurons in their pathways
B) thalamus neurons) E) detect the amount of stretch in
C) cerebellum E) parasympathetic skeletal muscles or tendons and
D) cerebrum 3) Which of these neuroglial cells forms the their joints
40) The largest nerve in the body, the sciatic myelin sheath in the central nervous system? 8) Neurons with several processes branching
nerve, belongs to the ________ nerve A) astrocytes off the cell body, such as motor neurons and
plexus. B) oligodendrocytes

interneurons (association neurons), are D) restoring the ionic conditions 2. sodium channels open and sodium ions
structurally classified as ________. utilizing the sodium-potassium diffuse inward
A) efferent pump 3. the membrane becomes repolarized
B) multipolar E) repolarizing as potassium ions 4. potassium channels open and potassium
C) afferent diffuse out of the cell ions diffuse outward while sodium is
D) bipolar 14) Immediately after an action potential is actively transported out of the cell
E) unipolar propagated, which one of the following ions A) 3, 2, 4, 1
9) The two major functional properties of rapidly diffuses out of the cell into the tissue B) 2, 1, 4, 3
neurons are ________. fluid ________. C) 2, 1, 3, 4
A) cover and line body surfaces A) sodium D) 1, 2, 4, 3
B) contraction and movements B) chloride E) 4, 1, 3, 2
C) irritability and conductivity C) calcium 19) Which ion causes neurotransmitter
D) connect and protect D) potassium vesicles to fuse with the axon's membrane
E) lubricate and secrete E) magnesium during the conduction of a nerve impulse
10) Ganglia are collections of ________. 15) An action potential is caused by an from one neuron to the next?
A) nuclei influx of these ions into the cell ________. A) chlorine
B) dendrites A) potassium B) sodium
C) cell bodies B) sodium C) potassium
D) axons C) calcium D) calcium
E) axon terminals D) magnesium E) magnesium
11) Impulse conduction is fastest in neurons E) both potassium and sodium 20) The gap between two communicating
that are ________. 16) Nerve impulse transmissions occurring neurons is termed ________.
A) myelinated along myelinated neurons are called A) synaptic cleft
B) unmyelinated ________. B) cell body
C) sensory A) saltatory conduction C) effector
D) motor B) threshold D) Schwann cell
E) cerebral C) graded potential E) node of Ranvier
12) Bipolar neurons are commonly D) sodium-potassium pump 21) The substance that is released at axonal
________. E) all-or-none response endings to propagate a nervous impulse is
A) motor neurons 17) Neurons either conduct action potentials called________.
B) called neuroglia along the length of their axons, or they A) an ion
C) found in ganglia remain at B) nerve glue
D) found in the eye and nose rest. This statement best describes C) a neurotransmitter
E) more abundant in adults than in ________. D) the sodium-potassium pump
children A) a reflex arc E) an action potential
13) During the resting state, a neuron is B) the all-or-none response 22) Which of the following is the correct
________. C) repolarization sequence in a typical reflex arc?
A) polarized with more sodium D) saltatory conduction A) effector, sensory neuron,
ions outside the cell and more E) graded potential integration center, motor neuron,
potassium ions inside the cell 18) Which one of the following is the receptor
B) propagating the action potential correct sequence of events that correlates to B) receptor, sensory neuron,
C) depolarizing and generating an the sequence of events of a nerve impulse? integration center, motor neuron,
action potential 1. the membrane becomes depolarized effector

C) effector, motor neuron, A) longitudinal fissure 33) Control of temperature, endocrine
integration center, sensory neuron, B) gyrus activity, metabolism, and thirst are functions
receptor C) central sulcus associated with the ________.
D) receptor, motor neuron, D) Broca's area A) medulla oblongata
integration center, sensory neuron, E) primary motor area B) cerebellum
effector 28) The midbrain, pons, and medulla C) hypothalamus
E) receptor, sensory neuron, motor oblongata are housed in the ________. D) thalamus
neuron, integration center, effector A) diencephalon E) cerebrum
23) Rick quickly pulled his hand away from B) hypothalamus 34) The vital centers for the control of
the hot stove. This reflex is best known as C) brain stem visceral activities such as heart rate,
a(n) ________. D) pineal gland breathing, blood pressure, swallowing, and
A) two-neuron reflex E) cerebellum vomiting are located in the ________.
B) patellar reflex 29) What part of the brain stem houses A) pons
C) knee-jerk reflex reflex centers for vision and hearing? B) medulla oblongata
D) withdrawal reflex A) pons C) midbrain
E) autonomic reflex B) corpora quadrigemina D) cerebrum
24) Which type of reflex involves skeletal C) fourth ventricle E) hypothalamus
muscles? D) medulla oblongata 35) Loss of muscle coordination results from
A) parasympathetic E) reticular formation damage to the ________.
B) sympathetic 30) The hypothalamus is the "emotional- A) cerebrum
C) autonomic visceral" center of the brain and, thus, is an B) hypothalamus
D) somatic important part of the ________. C) cerebellum
E) visceral A) posterior association area D) thalamus
25) The sensory homunculus is located in B) reticular activating system E) midbrain
the primary somatic sensory area in the C) limbic system 36) Which one of the following represents
________. D) Broca's area the correct sequence from outermost to
A) parietal lobe E) anterior association area innermost layers of the meninges?
B) occipital lobe A) pia mater, dura mater, arachnoid
C) frontal lobe 31) Cerebrospinal fluid circulates through mater
D) temporal lobe all of the following EXCEPT ________. B) pia mater, arachnoid mater, dura
E) cerebellum A) subarachnoid space mater
26) A stroke in the primary motor area has B) corpus callosum C) arachnoid mater, dura mater, pia
caused Don to lose control over his skeletal C) cerebral aqueduct mater
muscles on the right side of his body. What D) fourth ventricle D) dura mater, pia mater, arachnoid
lobe of his brain was damaged? E) lateral ventricles mater
A) occipital lobe 32) A special group of neurons in the brain E) dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia
B) temporal lobe stem that plays a role in consciousness and mater
C) frontal lobe the awake/sleep cycles is the ________. 37) Cerebrospinal fluid is reabsorbed into
D) parietal lobe A) thalamus venous blood in the dural sinuses via the
E) pyramidal tract B) reticular activating system ________.
27) Sally has a brain injury; she knows what (RAS) A) cerebral aqueduct
she wants to say but can't vocalize the C) pineal gland B) hypothalamus
words. The part of her brain that deals with D) limbic system C) arachnoid villus
the ability to speak is the ________. E) cerebellum D) choroid plexus

E) pons 43) Which one of the following is the D) twelve
38) The cerebrospinal fluid ________. correct sequence of nerves that exit the E) eighteen
A) is secreted by the arachnoid villi spinal cord, from superior to inferior? 47) Which cranial nerves control eye
B) enters the four ventricles after A) thoracic spinal nerves, cervical movement?
filling and circulating through the spinal nerves, lumbar spinal nerves, A) cranial nerve II, IV, V
subarachnoid space sacral spinal nerves B) cranial nerve III, IV, VI
C) is secreted mostly by the B) cervical spinal nerves, lumbar C) cranial nerve V, VI, VIII
ependymal cells lining the brain spinal nerves, thoracic spinal D) cranial nerve VIII, X, XII
ventricles nerves, sacral spinal nerves E) cranial nerve IX, X, XI
D) is continually formed mostly by C) thoracic spinal nerves, cervical 48) The ventral rami of the spinal nerves
the choroid plexuses spinal nerves, sacral spinal nerves, form complex networks of nerves known as
E) is identical in composition to lumbar spinal nerves a ________.
whole blood D) cervical spinal nerves, thoracic A) ganglion
39) The blood-brain barrier is effective spinal nerves, sacral spinal nerves, B) reflex
against the passage of ________. lumbar spinal nerves C) plexus
A) water E) cervical spinal nerves, thoracic D) tract
B) nutrients such as glucose spinal nerves, lumbar spinal nerves, E) fascicle
C) alcohol sacral spinal nerves 49) Which cranial nerve descends into the
D) anesthetics 44) Which one of the following is the thoracic and abdominal cavities to regulate
E) metabolic waste such as urea correct sequence in connective tissue heart rate and promote digestive activity?
40) Which of the following brain sheaths, going from outermost to innermost A) oculomotor
dysfunctions is also known as a stroke? layer? B) vagus
A) cerebrovascular accident (CVA) A) epineurium, endoneurium, C) hypoglossal
B) Alzheimer's disease perineurium D) accessory
C) aphasia B) epineurium, perineurium, E) glossopharyngeal
D) cerebral edema endoneurium 50) Which nervous system subdivision is a
E) Parkinson's disease C) perineurium, epineurium, chain of two motor neurons consisting of a
41) The spinal cord terminates around endoneurium preganglionic neuron and a postganglionic
vertebra ________. D) perineurium, endoneurium, neuron?
A) C7 epineurium A) somatic
B) T2 E) endoneurium, epineurium, B) central
C) T9 perineurium C) autonomic
D) L3 45) Each spinal nerve branches into a D) skeletal
E) S4 ventral and dorsal ________. E) sensory
42) Cell bodies of the sensory neurons of the A) root 51) Which of the following is NOT a major
spinal nerves are located in ________. B) ganglion nerve of the brachial nerve plexus?
A) the dorsal root ganglia of the C) plexus A) radial
spinal cord D) ramus B) axillary
B) the ventral root ganglia of the E) tract C) musculocutaneous
spinal cord 46) How many pairs of cranial nerves D) median
C) the thalamus branch from the surface of the brain? E) phrenic
D) the hypothalamus A) three 52) The sciatic nerve is the largest nerve in
E) sympathetic ganglia B) five the body resulting from a combination of
C) seven which two nerves?

A) pudendal and femoral nerves 57) Which of the following effects is 61) Which one of the following statements
B) femoral and tibial nerves characteristic of the parasympathetic about aging is most accurate?
C) pudendal and common peroneal nervous system? A) the brain reaches its maximum
nerves A) decreased activity of the weight around the seventh decade
D) common fibular and tibial digestive system of life
nerves B) stimulated sweat glands to B) synaptic connections are too
E) pudendal and tibial nerves produce perspiration fixed to permit a great deal of
53) The sympathetic and parasympathetic C) decreased urine output learning after the age of 35
nervous systems are subdivisions of the D) increased metabolic rate C) despite some neuronal loss, an
________. E) decreased heart rate unlimited number of neural
A) central nervous system 58) The effects of the sympathetic nervous pathways are available and ready
B) voluntary nervous system system are essentially opposite of the to be developed; therefore,
C) autonomic nervous system ________. additional learning can occur
D) somatic nervous system A) central nervous system throughout life
E) peripheral nervous system B) parasympathetic nervous system D) learning throughout the adult
54) In contrast to the somatic nervous C) autonomic nervous system and aging years is supported
system, the autonomic nervous system D) motor division primarily by glial proliferation
________. E) sensory division E) increased efficiency of the
A) has a chain of two motor 59) Sympathetic division fibers leave the sympathetic nervous system
neurons spinal cord in the ________. enhances the ability to learn
B) has a chain of two sensory A) craniosacral regions, and the
neurons postganglionic fibers secrete 7.3 True/False Questions
C) stimulates its effector cells norepinephrine
D) has both sensory and motor B) thoracolumbar region, and the 1) The central nervous system includes the
fibers postganglionic fibers secrete spinal nerves and cranial nerves.
E) is a subdivision of the central acetylcholine 2) The parasympathetic and sympathetic
nervous system C) craniosacral region, and the nervous systems are subdivisions of the
55) Which of the following is favored by the postganglionic fibers secrete autonomic nervous system.
parasympathetic nervous system? acetylcholine 3) Ependymal cells beat their cilia to help
A) emergency D) thoracolumbar region, and the circulate cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
B) exercise postganglionic fibers secrete 4) Gaps between adjacent Schwann cells of
C) digestion norepinephrine a myelin sheath are known as nodes of
D) embarrassment E) craniosacral region, and the Ranvier.
E) excitement preganglionic fibers secrete 5) A sensory neuron carries stimuli from the
56) Preparing the body for the "fight-or- norepinephrine central nervous system to the effector.
flight" response during threatening 60) What congenital disorder results when 6) Gray matter contains collections of
situations is the role of the ________. the vertebrae fail to form completely around unmyelinated fibers and cell bodies in the
A) sympathetic nervous system the spinal cord, typically in the lumbosacral central nervous system.
B) cerebrum region? 7) Neurons with two processes, an axon and
C) parasympathetic nervous system A) cystic fibrosis a dendrite, are known as bipolar neurons.
D) somatic nervous system B) anencephaly 8) A graded potential is also known as a
E) afferent nervous system C) hydrocephaly nerve impulse.
D) cerebral palsy 9) Depolarization of neurons results from
E) spina bifida the entry of sodium ions into the cell.

10) The withdrawal, or flexor, reflex is one 7.4 Matching Questions
of the only voluntary reflexes. Match the following:
11) The primary motor area allows us to
consciously move our skeletal muscles.
12) Difficulty in breathing may reflect A. Cerebellum • Thalamus, hypothalamus, and Epithalamus
damage to respiratory centers located in the B. Brain Stem • Primary Somatic sensory area
cerebellum.
C. Cerebrum • Primary motor area
13) One of the major functions of the pons is
to produce releasing factors that control the D. Drencephalon • Pons, midbrain, and medulla oblongata
function of the anterior pituitary. • Reticular formation
14) The thalamus plays a role in regulation • Controls balance and equilibrium
of body temperature, metabolism, and water E. Thalamus • Includes the cerebral peduncles and the corpora
balance.
15) Cerebrospinal fluid circulates within the
quadrigemina
ventricles of the brain and also in the
subarachnoid space outside the brain. F. Pituitary gland • Contains centers that control heart rate, blood
16) The collection of spinal nerves at the pressure, breathing, swallowing, and vomiting
inferior end of the spinal cord is called the G. Epithalamus • Gland that hangs from the hypothalamus
cauda equina.
17) There is no possibility of damaging the
H. Medulla oblongata • Regulates body temperature, water balance. And
spinal cord below the third lumbar vertebra. metabolism
18) The ventral and dorsi rami of each spinal I. Hypothalamus • Relay station for sensory impulses passing to the
nerve contain both sensory and motor sensory cortex
nerves. J. Midbrain • Includes the pineal gland and choroid plexus of the
19) Cranial nerve X is the vestibulocochlear
third ventricle
nerve, its fibers carry sensations of hearing
and equilibrium to the brain. K. Parasympathetic Nervous • Decreases heart rate
20) There are 31 pairs of cranial nerves and System • Stimulates sweat glands to produce perspiration
12 pairs of spinal nerves. • Constricts bronchioles of respiratory passageways
21) Complex networks of spinal nerves are L. Sympathetic Nervous System • No effect on most blood vessels
termed nerve plexuses.
22) Sympathetic postganglionic fibers
• Decreases urine output of the kidneys
release norepinephrine and the preganglionic • Increases metabolic rate
axon releases acetylcholine. • Increases the release of epinephrine from the
23) Both the parasympathetic and adrenal medulla
sympathetic nervous systems operate with a
chain of two motor neurons.
24) The parasympathetic division is also ASNWER KEY:
called the craniosacral division since the
preganglionic neurons originate in the brain CAEABAACBDCBACDAACBACAADA FTTTFTTFTFTFFFTTTTFFTTTTT
and sacral region of the spinal cord. BBACDBCACADCBABACECBDBEDBC DCCBBA
25) The usual cause of nervous system CADADBABBDACBDDACDCBCBBCBC JHFIEG
deterioration as we age is circulatory system ECDEADAFBDDBCBCEDCACAEBDEC KLLKKLL
problems.

motor control of skeletal muscles. By contrast, the primary somatic
7.5 Essay Questions sensory area receives information from the body's sensory
1) List and explain the three general functions of the nervous system receptors.
Answer: 5) An 18-wheeler just nearly missed hitting Sam head-on while driving.
1. Sensory (input) function—the nervous system uses millions of Exasperated, he pulls over to the side of the road with his heart pounding.
sensory receptors to monitor changes (stimuli) inside and outside Which division of the autonomic nervous system (ANS) is taking control
the body; the gathered information is called the sensory function. right now? What other symptoms do you think he's experiencing
2. Integrative function—the nervous system processes and Answer:
interprets sensory input and makes The sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system is
decisions about what should be done and the magnitude to which it controlling Sam. In addition to his pounding heart, he is also likely
should be done at each moment. experiencing deep breathing; cold, sweaty skin; a prickly scalp;
3. Motor (output) function—the process of reaction to stimuli; the and dilated pupils of his eyes.
body responds by activating muscles that can produce motion or 6) How does a transient ischemic attack (TIA) differ from a cerebrovascular
glands that can produce and secrete hormones. accident (CVA or stroke)?
2) Explain how neurons and neuroglia are functionally different. Answer:
Answer: Temporary restriction of blood flow to the brain results in a TIA;
In general, neuroglia are cells that support, insulate, and protect this even can last for 5 to 50 minutes and result in numbness,
neurons. Neuroglia, orglia, are not able to conduct nerve impulses, temporary paralysis, and impaired speech. When blood flow to a
unlike neurons which are specialized to conduct nerve impulses. particular brain area is blocked, a stroke has occurred. As a result,
Likewise, neuroglia never lose the ability to divide. brain tissue dies. Symptoms of a stroke may include paralysis on
3) Explain the difference between a polarized neuron and a depolarized one side of the body.
neuron. 7) List and describe the protective structures found in the CNS.
Answer: Answer:
A neuron is polarized when there are more positively charged ions 1. The brain and spinal cord are protected by a bony skull and a
located on the outer surface of the membrane and less positively bony vertebral column.
charged ions situated on the inner surface of the membrane. A 2. There are three layers of membranes (meninges) covering the
neuron is at rest when it is polarized. Depolarization occurs when structures in the CNS.
the sodium ions, normally located outside the neuron's membrane, a. The outermost dura mater surround the brain. This
rush into the cell. Now, the interior surface of the membrane double-layered membrane is a leathery covering.
carries a positive charge due to the presence of more positively b. The middle membrane layer is the arachnoid mater,
charged ions while the exterior surface of the membrane carries a which has a cobweb appearance.
negative charge due to the smaller number of positively charged c. The pia mater is the innermost layer, which clings to
ions. the surface of the brain and spinal cord.
4) The family of Mr. Sanchez has learned that his cerebrovascular accident 3. Cerebrospinal fluid forms a water cushion that circulates in and
(CVA, or stroke) impaired his ability to move the right side of his body. around the brain and spinal cord. The CSF protects the CNS from
They were told the CVA involved the primary somatic sensory area in the blows and other trauma. Also, remember from a previous chapter
right cerebral hemisphere. Did the receive correct that water has a high heat capacity that prevents changes in
information? Explain. temperature.
Answer: 8) Compare and contrast the functions of the somatic nervous system and
Mr. Sanchez's family received two incorrect pieces of information. the autonomic nervous system.
First, if Mr. Sanchez cannot move the right side of his body, the Answer:
left cerebral hemisphere is responsible for controlling that Both the somatic and autonomic nervous systems are subdivisions
movement. The motor pathway crosses to the opposite hemisphere of the motor (efferent) division of the peripheral nervous system.
of the brain. Second, the primary motor area provides conscious The somatic nervous system, or voluntary nervous system, allows

us to consciously, or voluntarily, control our skeletal muscles. The regulates activity of smooth and cardiac muscles and glands.
autonomic nervous system, or involuntary nervous system,
CHAPTER 8: Special Senses c. Conjuctuvase c. Glossopharyngeal
1. Receptor cells in the eye that sense color are d. Hydrolase 16. The posterior wall of the eye is the
a. The lateral rectus 9. The epithelial cells that respond to a. Sclera
b. The ciliary zonule chemicals dissolved in saliva ___ cells b. Fundus
c. Rods a. Cirucumvallate c. Conjuctiva
d. Cones b. Fungiform d. Scleral Venous
2. The covering of the eye is the c. Glossopharyngeal 17. The retina of the eye contains this type of
a. Canthus d. Gustatory neuron
b. Conjuctiva 10. Which ossicle is most medial a. Unipolar
c. Choroid a. Hammer b. Bipolar
d. Lacrimal Canaliculus b. Stapes c. Multipolar
3. Nearsightedness is called c. Anvil d. Nonpolar
a. Astigmatism d. Incus
b. Myopia 11. Which cranial nerve controls both the ANSWER KEY:
c. Hyperopia medial and and superior rectus muscles? DBBCBCCBDBBBDCDB
d. Glaucoma a. Vestibulocochlear
4. Wax glands of the ear are the __ glands b. Oculomotor
a. Myobian c. Optic
b. Sebaceous d. Trochlear
c. Ceruminous 12. Which term describes the reflexive
d. Lacrimal movement of the eyes medially, when we
5. The lack of __ results in color blindless view objects at a close distance?
a. Lens a. Accomodation
b. Cones b. Convergence
c. Rods c. Chiasma
d. Iris d. Presbyopia
6. Which of the following anatomical 13. The area of the eye posterior to the lens is
structures of the eye is in the fibrous layer filled with this gel-like substance
a. Lens a. Scleral Venous
b. Retina b. Rhodopsin
c. Cornea c. Choroid
d. Iris d. Vitreous humor
7. If drainage of the ___ is blocked, fluids back 14. In which section of the ear is the vestibule
up and could lead to glaucoma located
a. Vitreous humor a. Semicircular canals
b. Vitreous body b. External ear
c. Aqueous humor c. Internal ear
d. Scleral venous sinus d. Middle ear
8. This enzyme secreted by the lacrimal glands 15. This cranial nerve serves the posterior taste
destroys bacteria bud-containing parts of the tongue
a. Vitrease a. Facial trigeminal
b. Lysozyme b. Vestibulocochlear

Chapter 9 The Endocrine System B) Label I D) Label E
C) Label G E) Label J
D) Label E 11) The thymus is indicated by ________.
E) Label F A) Label E
5) The producer of hormones released by the B) Label H
posterior pituitary is indicated by ________. C) Label F
A) Label B D) Label J
B) Label D E) Label A
C) Label J 12) The pancreas is indicated by ________.
D) Label A A) Label H
E) Label C B) Label E
6) The gland that produces insulin and glucagon C) Label I
is indicated by ________. D) Label A
A) Label D E) Label B
B) Label H 13) The pineal gland is indicated by ________.
C) Label B A) Label H
D) Label G B) Label D
E) Label F C) Label F
7) The glands that act as antagonists to the D) Label B
thyroid gland are indicated by ________. E) Label A
Using Figure 9.1, identify the following: A) Label H 14) The glands situated around the thyroid gland
1) The gland that produces thymosin is indicated B) Label E that operate entirely under humoral control are
by ________. C) Label I represented by ________.
A) Label F D) Label F A) Label C
B) Label J E) Label C B) Label F
C) Label D 8) The gland that hangs from a stalk from the C) Label E
D) Label A hypothalamus is indicated by ________. D) Label B
E) Label C A) Label C E) Label G
2) The gland that produces melatonin is indicated B) Label J Answer: C
by ________. C) Label E 15) Water-soluble hormones, such as proteins
A) Label C D) Label F and peptide hormones, activate target cells using
B) Label D E) Label I ________.
C) Label J 9) The gland that is the major producer of female A) direct gene activation
D) Label B hormones is indicated by ________. B) the second-messenger system
E) Label A A) Label D C) steroid hormone action
3) The gland that produces testosterone is B) Label F D) diffusion
indicated by ________. C) Label J 16) The most common stimulus for prodding
A) Label I D) Label I endocrine glands into action is ________.
B) Label F E) Label H A) hormonal
C) Label E 10) The gland that is primarily responsible for B) humoral
D) Label J regulating metabolism is indicated by ________. C) neural
E) Label A A) Label I D) direct gene activation
4) The glands that produce catecholamines are B) Label A 17) The endocrine gland most closely associated
indicated by ________. C) Label D with the hypothalamus is the ________.
A) Label J
CHAPTER 9: THE ENDOCRINE SYSTEM
A) thymus D) catecholamines A) diabetes insipidus
B) pineal gland 24) A hormone produced by the heart, known as B) hypoglycemia
C) thyroid gland ________, prevents the release of aldosterone in C) diabetes mellitus
D) pituitary gland order to reduce blood volume and blood D) goiter
18) The target organ of thyrotropic hormone pressure. 31) When blood glucose levels are too high, the
(TH), or thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), is A) atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) beta cells of the pancreas release ________ to
the________ gland. B) cortisol decrease levels.
A) adrenal C) antidiuretic hormone (ADH) A) epinephrine
B) pineal D) glucagon B) glucagon
C) pituitary 25) Male sex hormones produced by the adrenal C) insulin
D) thyroid cortex are called ________. D) growth hormone
19) Alcohol suppresses the production of this A) estrogens 32) A hormone called ________ is believed to
hormone, ________, which normally promotes B) glucocorticoids play an important role in establishing the body's
water retention and prevents dehydration. C) androgens day-night cycle.
A) antidiuretic hormone (ADH) D) mineralocorticoids A) thymosin
B) aldosterone 26) Bronze skin color, hypoglycemia, and a B) cortisol
C) thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) reduced ability to cope with stress (burnout) are C) melatonin
D) cortisol signs and symptoms of ________. D) aldosterone
20) The hypothalamus makes two hormones, A) Addison's disease 33) A hormone called ________ plays an
________ and ________, that are stored by the B) Graves' disease important role in incubating a special group of
posterior pituitary. C) Cushing's disease white blood cells.
A) oxytocin; antidiuretic hormone (ADH) D) goiter A) cortisol
B) cortisol; aldosterone 27) Hypersecretion of glucocorticoids, often B) thymosin
C) growth hormone; prolactin caused by a tumor, results in ________. C) glucagon
D) antidiuretic hormone (ADH); prolactin A) Cushing's syndrome D) melatonin
21) Calcitonin is made by the ________ cells of B) Graves' disease 34) The hormone produced by male testes which
the thyroid gland. C) diabetes insipidus is responsible for sperm production is ________.
A) follicle D) Addison's disease A) estrogen
B) parafollicular 28) Catecholamines are released by the B) cortisol
C) beta ________. C) testosterone
D) alpha A) pancreas D) prolactin
22) Mineralocorticoids regulate the B) thyroid gland 35) Home pregnancy tests check for a hormone
concentration of ________ and ________ ions in C) adrenal cortex in the female's urine called ________.
our blood. D) adrenal medulla A) human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
A) iron; magnesium 29) Beta cells of the pancreatic islets produce a B) antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
B) calcium; phosphorus hormone known as ________ while the alpha C) atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
C) water; glucose cells produce a hormone known as ________. D) thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
D) sodium; potassium A) insulin; glucagon
23) Cortisone and cortisol are types of ________ B) glucagon; insulin 9.2 Multiple Choice Part II Questions
produced by the middle cortical layer of the C) cortisol; glucagon
adrenal gland. D) epinephrine; cortisol 1) Which system produces chemical messengers
A) mineralocorticoids 30) Polyphagia, polydipsia, and polyuria are the known as hormones?
B) glucocorticoids three cardinal signs of a disease known as A) nervous system
C) sex hormones ________. B) immune system

C) endocrine system E) able to diffuse through the plasma 12) Hyposecretion of growth hormone during
D) integumentary system membrane of their target cells childhood leads to ________.
E) muscular system 7) Most endocrine organs are prodded into action by A) pituitary dwarfism
2) Which of the following hormones is NOT other hormones; this type of stimulus is called B) Cushing's disease
classified as a steroid hormone? ________. C) acromegaly
A) oxytocin A) hormonal stimulus D) myxedema
B) estrogen B) humoral stimulus E) gigantism
C) adrenocorticoids C) neural stimulus 13) Releasing and inhibiting hormones produced by
D) testosterone D) receptor-mediated stimulus the hypothalamus influence the activities of the
E) mineralocorticoids E) steroid stimulus ________.
3) Which one of the following is NOT typical of the 8) Tropic hormones ________. A) pineal gland
changes that follow the binding of a A) stimulate the pineal gland to secrete B) anterior pituitary gland
hormone to its target cells? hormones C) adrenal gland
A) plasma membrane permeability changes B) stimulate the thymus gland to secrete D) posterior pituitary gland
B) cellular mutations occur hormones E) thyroid gland
C) enzymes are activated or inactivated C) stimulate other endocrine glands to 14) The two hormones released by the thyroid gland
D) mitosis is stimulated secrete hormones are ________.
E) proteins are synthesized in the cell D) stimulate nervous tissue A) calcitonin and thyroid hormone
4) Prostaglandins are ________. E) stimulate prostaglandins B) calcitonin and parathyroid hormone
A) amino acid-based hormones 9) Which of these anterior pituitary hormones (PTH)
B) steroid hormones regulates the activity of the cortex region of the C) thyroid hormone and parathyroid
C) lipid hormones manufactured in the adrenal gland? hormone (PTH)
plasma membranes of cells A) thyrotropic hormone (thyroid-stimulating D) prolactin (PRL) and oxytocin
D) glycerol hormones hormone, or TSH) E) oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone
E) target organs B) prolactin (ADH)
5) Being lipid soluble, steroids can do all the C) growth hormone (GH) 15) Which hormone is alternately known as
following EXCEPT ________. D) adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) vasopressin due to its effect on blood vessel
A) diffuse through the plasma membranes of E) luteinizing hormone (LH) diameter and blood pressure?
target cells 10) Which one of the following is NOT a hormone A) oxytocin
B) catalyze cyclic AMP produced by the anterior pituitary? B) antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
C) enter the nucleus A) prolactin C) thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
D) bind to receptor proteins within the B) adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) D) growth hormone (GH)
nucleus C) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) E) luteinizing hormone (LH)
E) activate genes to transcribe mRNA for D) antidiuretic hormone (ADH) 16) Which two hormones play a role in promoting the
protein synthesis E) luteinizing hormone (LH) milk reflex and in maintaining breast milk
6) Most hormones are ________. 11) The hormone that stimulates follicle development production in a mother's breasts?
A) regulated by a positive feedback by female ovaries and sperm development by male A) antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and thyroid
mechanism testes is ________. hormone
B) classified as steroids A) luteinizing hormone (LH) B) growth hormone and glucagon
C) released upon stimulation by other B) prolactin C) prolactin (PRL) and oxytocin
hormones C) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) D) parathyroid hormone (PTH) and thyroid
D) controlled by blood levels of ions or D) progesterone hormone
nutrients E) antidiuretic hormone (ADH) E) prolactin (PRL) and antidiuretic hormone
(ADH)

17) Which of these hormones prods the E) cretinism B) renin
thyroid gland to release thyroxine? 23) Which of these hormones regulate C) cortisol
A) follicle-stimulating hormone calcium levels in the body? D) vasopressin
(FSH) A) T3 and T4 E) angiotensin
B) adrenocorticotropic hormone B) calcitonin and parathyroid 29) Glucocorticoids do all of the following EXCEPT
(ACTH) hormone (PTH) ________.
C) gonadotropic hormones C) oxytocin and prolactin A) help resist long-term stress
D) thyroid-stimulating hormone D) insulin and glucagon B) increase blood glucose levels
(TSH) E) melatonin and glucocorticoids C) decrease edema
E) luteinizing hormone (LH) 24) Where is calcitonin made? D) suppress inflammation
18) Alcohol inhibits the secretion of A) hypothalamus E) regulate salt content of the blood
________. B) parafollicular cells of the 30) Daniella has been diagnosed with Addison's
A) parathyroid hormone (PTH) parathyroid gland disease. Which of the following does NOT match her
B) antidiuretic hormone (ADH) C) anterior pituitary signs or symptoms?
C) glucagon D) parafollicular cells of the A) bronze skin tone
D) oxytocin thyroid gland B) high blood pressure and edema
E) prolactin (PRL) E) follicular cells of the thyroid C) weak muscles
19) The thyroid gland is located ________. gland D) hypoglycemia
A) on top of the kidneys 25) Which of these hormones is E) inability to cope with stress
B) directly below the Adam's apple released by the adrenal medulla? 31) The "fight-or-flight" response triggers the release
C) within the mediastinum A) sex hormones of ________.
D) within the pancreas B) aldosterone A) antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
E) within the parathyroid glands C) cortisone B) prolactin
20) The body's major metabolic hormone is D) glucocorticoids C) growth hormone (GH)
called ________. E) epinephrine D) epinephrine
A) prolactin 26) Rising blood levels of aldosterone cause E) melatonin
B) growth hormone the kidney tubules to ________. 32) Mr. Lee says he felt scared to death when his
C) adrenaline A) reabsorb potassium neighbor's dog bit him. Which of the following
D) thyroid hormone B) reabsorb sodium did he NOT experience as a result of catecholamine
E) calcitonin C) reabsorb calcium release?
21) The element necessary in the diet for D) reabsorb iodine A) stimulation of the sympathetic nervous
proper thyroid function is ________. E) reabsorb hydrogen system
A) sodium 27) Tetany resulting from uncontrolled B) dilation of the small passages of the lungs
B) potassium muscle spasms may indicate a malfunction C) increased heart rate
C) calcium of the ________. D) decreased blood pressure
D) iodine A) pineal gland E) increased blood glucose levels
E) bromine B) thymus 33) Insulin is produced by cells of the pancreatic
22) Six-year-old Timothy is small for his C) parathyroid glands islets called ________.
age and shows signs of mental retardation. D) adrenal cortex A) alpha cells
What disorder do you suspect? E) posterior pituitary B) beta cells
A) goiter 28) The enzyme produced by the kidneys C) delta cells
B) pituitary dwarfism when blood pressure drops, stimulating a D) gamma cells
C) myxedema release of aldosterone, is called ________. E) theta cells
D) exophthalmos A) cortisone

34) Which of the following hormones decreases A) stimulate the development of secondary D) androgens and testosterone
blood glucose levels? sex characteristics in females E) cholecystokinin and secretin
A) glucocorticoids B) stimulate growth of facial hair
B) epinephrine C) stimulate menstruation 9.3 True/False Questions
C) growth hormone D) help maintain pregnancy 1) The study of hormones and endocrine
D) insulin E) prepare the uterus to receive a fertilized organs is known as immunology.
E) glucagon egg 2) All hormones can arouse and bring about
35) Which hormone works against glucagon? 41) Which of the following is NOT an effect of changes in all cells of the human body.
A) epinephrine testosterone? 3) Most hormones are regulated by negative
B) aldosterone A) maintenance of pregnancy feedback mechanisms.
C) insulin B) deepening of the voice 4) Hormones that are secreted in response to
D) cortisol C) growth of facial hair other hormones are prodded by hormonal
E) glucocorticoids D) sperm production stimuli.
36) Which one of the following is NOT a sign of E) development of heavy bones and muscles 5) The hormones secreted by the posterior
diabetes mellitus? 42) Sex hormones produced by the ovaries and testes pituitary are made by the hypothalamus.
A) polyuria A) are protein hormones 6) Releasing and inhibiting hormones made
B) polydipsia B) are controlled by hormones produced by by the hypothalamus control the release of
C) moon face the adrenal cortex hormones
D) polyphagia C) promote the formation of sex cells from the posterior pituitary.
E) acidosis D) are produced in equal amounts in both 7) The target tissue of prolactin is the female
37) The pineal gland produces ________. males and females breast.
A) thymosin E) are secreted in response to posterior 8) Oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone are
B) melatonin pituitary hormones made and released from the posterior
C) estrogen 43) Testosterone can be categorized as a(n) ________ pituitary.
D) insulin hormone. 9) Antidiuretic hormone inhibits urine
E) cortisol A) amine production and promotes water reabsorption
38) The hormone that appears to help regulate our B) glycoprotein by the kidney.
sleep-awake cycles is ________. C) peptide 10) Antidiuretic hormone promotes sodium
A) thymosin D) protein and water retention.
B) melatonin E) steroid 11) Growth hormone controls the rate at
C) progesterone 44) Which hormone is produced by the placenta that which glucose is oxidized and converted to
D) glucagon stimulates the ovaries to continue producing body heat and chemical energy (ATP).
E) thyroxine estrogen and progesterone? 12) Thyroid hormone targets all cells of the
39) The hormone responsible for the maturation of A) human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) body.
white blood cells known as T lymphocytes is B) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) 13) Diabetes insipidus is caused by
________. C) luteinizing hormone (LH) hyposecretion of insulin.
A) thymosin D) prolactin 14) Thyroid hormone is actually two iodine-
B) melatonin E) oxytocin containing hormones called T3 and T4.
C) aldosterone 45) Which hormones regulate the female's menstrual 15) Calcitonin and parathyroid hormone
D) progesterone cycle? (PTH) are produced by the parathyroid
E) thyroxine A) estrogens and progesterone glands.
40) Estrogens do all of the following EXCEPT B) thymosin and melatonin 16) Thyroxine is produced by the follicular
________. C) atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) and cells of the thyroid gland.
aldosterone

17) Parathyroid hormone (PTH) is the most
important regulator of blood calcium A. Thyroid gland • Growth Hormone
concentration. B. Adrenal Medulla • Prolactin
18) Calcitonin is antagonistic to parathyroid C. Hypothalamus • Adrenocorticortopic Hormone
hormone (PTH) in the regulation of blood D. Parathyroid glands • Thyroid-stimulating hormone
calcium concentration. E. Pancreas • Lutenizing hormone
19) Mineralocorticoids help regulate both F. Adrenal Cortex • Oxytocin
water and electrolyte balance in body fluids. G. Thymus gland • Antidueretic hormone
20) The adrenal glands are similar to the H. Anterior Pituitary • Follicle-stimulating hormone
pituitary gland in that they have both • Thyroxine
glandular and neural tissue. • Calcitonin
21) The adrenal cortex makes • Parathyroid Hormone (PTH)
corticosteroids. • Adolsterone
22) Glucocorticoids, glucagon, and • Cortisone
epinephrine are hyperglycemic hormones.
• Epinephrine
23) The glucocorticoids help the body
• Glucocorticoids
handle long-term stress primarily by
increasing blood glucose levels. • Insulin
24) Both male and female sex hormones are • Glucagon
produced by the adrenal cortex throughout • Releasing and inhibiting hormones
life in relatively small amounts. • Thymosin
25) Hypersecretion of the sex hormones may • Norepinephrine
lead to masculinization in both men and I. Thyroid-stimulating hormone • Stimulates contraction of the uterus and milk ejection
women. J. Growth hormone • Raises blood calcium levels
26) Aldosterone release is prevented by K. Antidiuretic Hormone • Promotes normal cell metabolism and helps the body resist
atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP), a hormone L. Parathyroid Hormone long-term stressors
released by the heart. M. Oxytocin • Stimulates the thyroid gland to produce thyroxine
27) Adrenaline is also known as N. Follicle-stimulating hormone • Promotes reabsorption of only water by the kidneys
epinephrine. O. Glucocorticoids • Lowers blood glucose levels
28) Aldosterone raises blood glucose levels P. Insulin • Promotes growth of skeletal muscles and long bones
through the breakdown of fats and proteins. • Stimulates development of follicles in female ovaries and
29) Melatonin production peaks during the sperm development in male testes
night to help regulate the body's day-night
cycle.
30) The thymus gland is located in the neck
wrapped around the trachea.
31) The ovaries release estrogen and ANSWER KEY:
progesterone in response to gonadotropic AEDCABBADCCAECBADDAABDBACAADACCCBCACABCBCACDDCABABCDBBDDEBDEBCBEBDDBD
hormones from the pituitary gland. CCBBABACEAA
32) The placenta is a temporary organ
formed in the uterus of pregnant women.
FFTTTFTFTFFTFTFTTTTTTTTTTTTTFTFTT
9.4 Matching Questions

9.5 Essay Questions bone matrix and release the calcium into the inhibit ADH secretion and result in a large
1) Explain the two major chemical classifications of blood, raising blood calcium levels. output of urine. Jamie is already dehydrated
hormones. Parathyroid hormone also targets the and alcohol will only further that situation.
Answer: intestine and kidneys to absorb calcium. 8) Discuss how renin and angiotensin II help restore
The amino acid-based molecules include Parathyroid hormone works opposite to low blood pressure to normal.
proteins, peptides, and amines. The steroid calcitonin whose job is to lower blood Answer:
hormones include the sex hormones made calcium levels through deposition to bones. When blood pressure is low, the kidneys
by the gonads and the hormones produced 5) A weight lifter named Jake is shocked to learn that release an enzyme called renin. Renin, in
by the adrenal cortex. his body produces small amounts of estrogen in turn, triggers the production of angiotensin
2) Describe the three types of stimuli that activate the addition to testosterone. Explain to him where this II. As a result, angiotensin II triggers the
endocrine organs. female sex hormone is produced. release of aldosterone by the adrenal cortex.
Answer: Answer: Aldosterone targets the kidney and promotes
The most common stimulus is hormonal. In The adrenal cortex makes small amounts of sodium reabsorption by the tubule cells of
hormonal stimulus, endocrine organs are both estrogen and testosterone in both males the kidney; water follows and is also
prodded into action by other hormones, and females throughout life. Although the reabsorbed when aldosterone is present in
known as tropic hormones. Another type of majority of the hormones produced in this the kidney. The increased blood volume, due
stimulus is humoral, in which changing region of the adrenal cortex are androgens, to water reabsorption, leads to increased
blood levels of certain ions and nutrients some estrogens are also formed. blood pressure.
stimulate hormone release. The third type of 6) Four-year-old Tim is extremely small for his age, 9) Jenny's grandfather frequently urinates and is often
stimulus is neural, in which nerve fibers and he shows signs of mental retardation. His hair is thirsty. What other signs or symptoms would help
stimulate hormone release. thinning and his skin is dry. His parents have read you to determine if he has diabetes mellitus or
3) Explain the pituitary-hypothalamus relationship. about cretinism and pituitary dwarfism as possible diabetes insipidus? Explain.
Answer: diagnoses for their son and have taken him to the Answer:
Hormones from the anterior pituitary are pediatrician for tests to be run. Which diagnosis do Diabetes mellitus is characterized by
released in response to releasing and you think is correct? Explain why. polyuria (excess urination), polyphagia
inhibiting hormones produced by the Answer: (excess hunger), and polydipsia (excess
hypothalamus. The hypothalamus releases The likely diagnosis is cretinism. thirst). This form of diabetes results from the
these hormones into the blood of the portal Hyposecretion of the thyroid hormone in hyposecretion of insulin and causes glucose
circulation, which connects the blood supply early childhood leads to cretinism. Cretinism to be lost in the urine. By contrast, diabetes
of the hypothalamus with that of the anterior results in dwarfism and mental retardation. insipidus results from the hyposecretion of
pituitary. Hormones from the posterior Cretinism also causes hair to be scanty and antidiuretic hormone. This condition is
pituitary are made in the hypothalamus by the dry skin. It is unlikely Tim suffers from characterized only by polyuria and
hypothalamic neurons. Those hormones are pituitary dwarfism. Pituitary dwarfism polydipsia. Polyphagia is not associated with
then stored in the posterior pituitary until results from hyposecretion of growth this type of diabetes and glucose is not lost
their release is necessary. hormone in children but does not cause the in the urine. In addition, blood tests could be
4) Discuss the role of hormones in maintaining blood other symptoms listed. performed to measure the levels of glucose
calcium levels. 7) Jamie is dehydrated from playing a rough game of and antidiuretic hormone in the bloodstream.
Answer: football on a hot summer afternoon. Explain why
Parathyroid hormone, produced by the beer is not a good choice of beverage considering ANSWER KEY:
parathyroid glands, is the most important what you know about antidiuretic hormone.
regulator of blood calcium levels. It is Answer: HHHHHCCHAADFFFEECGB
secreted in response to low blood calcium Antidiuretic hormone prevents urine MLOIKPJN
levels, a humoral stimulus. Parathyroid production and promotes water retention by
hormone activates osteoclasts to destroy the kidneys. However, alcoholic beverages

CHAPTER 10: BLOOD C) Label C; Label D A) polycythemia
10.1 Multiple Choice Part I Questions D) Label D; Label B B) leukemia
6) The most common type of leukocyte is C) anemia
indicated by ________. D) leukocytosis
A) Label A 13) Life at a high altitude can lead to a red
B) Label B blood cell disorder known as ________.
C) Label C A) anemia
D) Label D B) polycythemia
7) The type of leukocyte that fights allergies C) leukocytosis
and parasitic worms is indicated by D) leukemia
________. 14) A total white blood cell count above
A) Label A 11,000 cells/mm3 is a condition known as
B) Label B ________.
C) Label C A) leukopenia
D) Label D B) leukocytosis
8) Normal blood pH falls in a range between C) polycythemia
________ to ________. D) anemia
A) 7.1; 7.2 15) The process by which white blood cells
Using Figure 10.1, identify the following: B) 7.35; 7.45 travel through the wall of blood vessels is
1) The neutrophil is indicated by ________. C) 7.6; 7.75 termed
A) Label A D) 7.85; 8.05 ________.
B) Label B 9) An important plasma protein that A) diffusion
C) Label C contributes to the osmotic pressure of blood B) diapedesis
D) Label D is ________. C) filtration
2) The eosinophil is indicated by ________. A) thyroglobulin D) chemotaxis
A) Label A B) fibrin 16) Abnormally low levels of white blood
B) Label B C) albumin cells causes a condition known as ________.
C) Label C D) glucose A) leukocytosis
D) Label D 10) The percentage of erythrocytes in blood B) anemia
3) The monocyte is indicated by ________. is known as the ________. C) thrombocytopenia
A) Label A A) hematocrit D) leukopenia
B) Label B B) buffy coat 17) White blood cells containing granules
C) Label C C) hemoglobin and lobed nuclei are classified as ________.
D) Label D D) plasma A) agranulocytes
4) The lymphocyte is indicated by 11) Each hemoglobin molecule is able to B) granulocytes
________. transport ________ molecules of oxygen. C) thrombocytes
A) Label A A) 1 (one) D) neutrophils
B) Label B B) 2 ( two) 18) Platelets are fragments of a
C) Label C C) 3 (three) multinucleate cell known as a ________.
D) Label D D) 4 (four) A) megakaryocyte
5) The granulocytes are indicated by 12) A decrease in the oxygen-carrying B) erythrocyte
________ and ________. ability of the blood, for any reason, is a C) reticulocyte
A) Label A; Label C condition known D) monocyte
B) Label B; Label A as ________.
CHAPTER 10: BLOOD

19) The process by which bleeding is A) A; B C) erythrocytes
stopped is called ________. B) A; O D) lymphocytes
A) hematopoiesis C) AB; O E) formed elements
B) erythropoiesis D) B; O 2) In a centrifuged blood sample, the buffy
C) homeostasis 26) The blood type that contains both coat situated between the formed elements
D) hemostasis antigens A and B is ________. and the
20) The rate of erythrocyte production is A) AB plasma contains ________.
controlled by a hormone known as B) A A) leukocytes and erythrocytes
________. C) B B) platelets and erythrocytes
A) erythropoietin D) O C) leukocytes and platelets
B) insulin 27) A person with type B blood can receive D) erythrocytes only
C) growth hormone blood from blood type(s) ________. E) leukocytes only
D) aldosterone A) AB, B 3) Blood is ________.
21) During coagulation, long, hair-like B) B, O A) acidic
molecules known as ________ form the C) A, B, AB, O B) cooler than body temperature
basis for a clot. D) B, O, AB C) sweet tasting
A) thrombin 28) If you carry the Rh antigen, you are D) composed mostly of white
B) prothrombin referred to as Rh ________. blood cells and platelets
C) fibrin A) positive E) slightly alkaline
D) fibrinogen B) sensitive 4) The hematocrit is the percentage of
22) Hereditary bleeding disorders that result C) negative ________.
from lack of clotting factors are referred to D) compatible A) plasma in blood
as 29) The condition in which maternal B) erythrocytes in blood
________. antibodies cross the placenta and destroy the C) leukocytes in blood
A) petechiae baby's RBCs D) formed elements in blood
B) hemophilia is called ________. E) platelets in blood
C) aplastic anemia A) hemophilia 5) Which formed element is the most
D) thrombocytopneia B) thrombus abundant in blood?
23) Substances that the body recognizes as C) hemolytic disease of the A) erythrocyte
foreign are called ________. newborn B) eosinophil
A) antigens D) physiologic jaundice C) platelet
B) antibodies 30) The condition in which fetal RBCs are D) basophil
C) formed elements destroyed faster than the infant liver can rid E) lymphocyte
D) megakaryocytes the body of the breakdown products of 6) Erythrocytes ________.
24) When antibodies bind to antigens on hemoglobin is called ________. A) possess lobed nuclei and
foreign blood types, clumping or ________ A) hemolytic disease of the cytoplasmic granules
occurs. newborn B) lack a nucleus and most
A) coagulation B) pernicious anemia organelles
B) hematopoiesis C) sickle cell trait C) are the least common of all
C) agglutination D) physiologic jaundice formed elements
D) alkalosis 10.2 Multiple Choice Part II Questions D) travel by diapedesis through the
25) The ABO blood groups are based on two 1) The matrix of blood is called ________. walls of vessels
antigens: antigen ________ and antigen A) buffy coat E) clot blood
________. B) plasma
CHAPTER 10: BLOOD

7) Normal whole blood contains ________ g C) eosinophils and monocytes A) yellow bone marrow
of hemoglobin per 100 mL. D) basophils and lymphocytes B) articular cartilage
A) 4-8 E)neutrophils, lymphocytes, and eosinophils C) red bone marrow
B) 12-18 13) Which type of granulocyte produces antibodies? D) epiphyseal line
C) 15-20 A) eosinophils E) synovial membrane
D) 30-35 B) basophils 19) Low levels of oxygen in the blood stimulate the
E) 42-48 C) neutrophils release of erythropoietin by the ________.
8) Which of the following red blood cell D) lymphocytes A) stomach
disorders may result from life at a higher E) monocytes B) pancreas
altitude? 14) The most numerous of the white blood cells are C) kidneys
A) aplastic anemia the ________. D) hypothalamus
B) sickle cell anemia A) lymphocytes E) spleen
C) pernicious anemia B) neutrophils 20) The average functional lifespan of an RBC is
D) polycythemia C) eosinophils A) 20-30 days
E) hemolytic anemia D) monocytes B) 50-75 days
9) White blood cells differ from red blood cells E) basophils C) 100-120 days
because only they contain ________. 15) Which type of leukocyte contains heparin, an D) one year
A) a biconcave shape anticoagulant? E) the body's lifetime
B) a nucleus and most organelles A) neutrophil 21) An immature RBC which contains some
C) the ability to transport both oxygen and B) monocyte endoplasmic reticulum is called a(n) ________.
carbon dioxide C) lymphocyte A) megakaryocyte
D) the iron-containing molecule called D) basophil B) hemocytoblast
hemoglobin E) eosinophil C) reticulocyte
E) cytoplasm 16) Place these leukocytes in order from the most D) agranulocyte
10) Jordan works in a hematology lab and received a common to the least common: E) granulocyte
blood report showing 22,000 white blood 1) basophil 22) What enzyme joins soluble fibrinogen proteins
cells per cubic millimeter of blood for a patient. He 2) eosinophil into long molecules of fibrin during
determines this patient has ________. 3) lymphocyte coagulation?
A) a normal blood count 4) monocyte A) PF3
B) polycythemia 5) neutrophil B) thrombin
C) anemia A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 C) tissue factor
D) leukocytosis B) 3, 4, 5, 1, 2 D) prothrombin
E) leukopenia C) 5, 3, 2, 4, 1 E) calcium
11) The two major groups of white blood cells are D) 5, 2, 3, 1, 4 23) The application of a sterile gauze to a cut aids
________. E) 5, 3, 4, 2, 1 with ________.
A) leukocytes and erythrocytes 17) Platelets are fragments of multinucleate cells A) platelet plug formation
B) platelets and megakaryocytes called ________. B) the release of tissue factor
C) neutrophils and basophils A) erythrocytes C) the formation of fibrin
D) granulocytes and agranulocytes B) eosinophils D) coagulation
E) granulocytes and leukocytes C) basophils E) vascular spasms
12) Which of the following cells are classified as D) megakaryocytes 24) The series of reactions that stop blood flow
granulocytes? E) macrophages following a cut is called ________.
A) neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils 18) Where does hematopoiesis produce new red A) homeostasis
B) lymphocytes and monocytes blood cells? B) coagulation
CHAPTER 10: BLOOD

C) hemostasis 30) A persistent clot in an unbroken blood vessel is E) vitamin K supplements and vitamin B12
D) erythropoiesis known as ________. injections
E) agglutination A) an embolus 36) Severe shock that can be fatal occurs with blood
25) Which one of the following represents the proper B) polycythemia loss exceeding ________.
sequence of hemostasis? C) hemophilia A) 5 percent
A) platelet plug formation, coagulation, D) a thrombus B) 10 percent
vascular spasm E) leukopenia C) 20 percent
B) vascular spasm, coagulation, platelet plug 31) Which of the following is a blood clotting D) 30 percent
formation disorder? E) 50 percent
C) coagulation, vascular spasm, platelet plug A) polycythemia 37) A substance that stimulates the immune system to
formation B) hemophilia release antibodies is the ________.
D) vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, C) leukocytosis A) antigen
coagulation D) leukopenia B) antibody
E) coagulation, platelet plug formation, E) anemia C) interleukin
vascular spasm 32) Bleeding disorders often result from a lack of D) fibrinogen
26) Why do you think Mrs. Gonzalez was prescribed which one of the following vitamins E) prothrombin activator
heparin, an anticoagulant? A) vitamin B12 38) The process whereby the binding of antibodies to
A) to enhance hematopoiesis B) vitamin A antigens causes RBCs to clump is called ________.
B) to inhibit release of erythopoietin C) vitamin C A) hemostasis
C) to enhance the formation of clots D) vitamin D B) coagulation
D) to increase vascular spasms E) vitamin K C) agglutination
E) to inhibit the formation of clots 33) The ion essential for blood clotting is ________. D) clotting cascade
27) Blood normally clots in approximately ________. A) sodium E) hemolysis
A) 1 minute B) calcium 39) Which blood type contains the A antigen only?
B) 3 to 6 minutes C) iodine A) blood type A
C) 5 to 10 minutes D) potassium B) blood type B
D) 15 minutes E) hydrogen C) blood type AB
E) 30 minutes 34) The organ largely responsible for the synthesis of D) blood types A and AB
28) The formation of an insoluble clot during clotting factors is the ________. E) blood type O
hemostasis is termed ________. A) pancreas 40) The most common type of blood in the U.S.
A) agglutination B) thyroid population is ________.
B) coagulation C) liver A) A
C) hematopoiesis D) spleen B) B
D) positive chemotaxis E) kidneys C) AB
E) diapedesis 35) Treatment of hemophilia often involves D) O
29) Which of the following insoluble fibers forms a ________. E) AO
mesh network and the basis for the A) transfusion of plasma and vitamin K 41) Molly has blood type A and her daughter has
formation of a clot during coagulation? supplements blood type B. Why can't Molly donate blood to
A) albumin B) injections of missing clotting factors and her daughter?
B) fibrin vitamin B12 injections A) Blood types A and B will coagulate
C) thrombin C) vitamin K supplements only during a transfusion.
D) fibrinogen D) transfusion of plasma or injections of B) Mothers cannot donate blood to their
E) hemoglobin missing clotting factor daughters.
CHAPTER 10: BLOOD

C) Blood type B contains anti-A antibodies, E) hemodialysis 14) Rh-related problems occur in pregnant
which will agglutinate with type A blood. 47) Physiologic jaundice occurring in newborns Rh- women carrying an Rh+ baby.
D) Blood transfusions cannot be performed results from ________. 15) Cross matching prevents transfusion
among relatives. A) bone marrow disorders reactions by testing for agglutination
E) Only fathers can donate blood to their B) accumulation of destroyed fetal red blood between donor and recipient blood prior to
daughters. cells the transfusion.
42) Hemolysis most likely will occur when C) a diseased gallbladder that needs to be
A) an Rh negative person receives the first removed ANSWER KEY:
transfusion of blood that is Rh positive D) erythrocyte mutations ACBDAACBCADCBBBDBADACBACA
B) any person receives blood type O during E) vitamin deficiencies ABACDBCEBABBDBDDADBDEDCCCC
a transfusion BACDEBBBDBEBCDDACADCDDDECB
C) an Rh positive person receives the first 10.3 True/False Questions
transfusion of blood that is Rh negative 1) Normal blood pH is between 7.35 and TTTFTFFTFTTFTT
D) an Rh negative person receives the 7.45.
second transfusion of blood that is Rh 2) Erythrocytes make up the majority of the BBBCCACCCAEDFEEF
positive formed elements.
E) platelets cling to the ruptured 3) The primary job of erythrocytes is to
endothelium of a blood vessel transport oxygen.
43) Which blood type(s) can a person with blood type 4) Polycythemia arises from an excess or
O receive? abnormal increase in the number of white
A) blood type A blood cells.
B) blood type B 5) The amount of hemoglobin contained
C) blood type AB within a RBC determines its capability to
D) blood type O transport oxygen.
E) blood types A, B, AB, or O 6) Megakaryocytes are classified as
44) The immune serum used to prevent maternal agranulocytes since they lack visible
sensitization to Rh antigens is ________. granules in the cytoplasm.
A) serotonin 7) Basophils are the most numerous type of
B) interleukin leukocyte.
C) agglutinin 8) All formed elements arise from a
D) RhoGAM common type of stem cell called a
E) fibrinogen hemocytoblast.
45) Which of these blood types carries no antigens? 9) The life span of a red blood cell is 100 to
A) blood type A 120 days.
B) blood type B 10) Erythropoeitin is released to stimulate
C) blood type AB platelet production in response to inadequate
D) blood types A, B, and AB amounts of oxygen in the blood.
E) blood type O 11) Vascular spasms, a part of process of
46) Compatibility testing for agglutination of donor hemostasis, limit blood loss during blood
RBCs by the recipients' serum is called_______. vessel injury.
A) blood typing 12) Calcium is necessary for coagulation to
B) transfusion reaction properly occur during hemostasis.
C) cross matching 13) Blood type A can receive blood from
D) hemolysis blood types A and AB during a transfusion.
CHAPTER 10: BLOOD

2. Life at a high altitude where the air is thinner and less oxygen is available
10.4 Matching Questions (called secondary polycythemia) Increased sluggishness of the blood results
Match the following function with its blood cell: from polycythemia.
2) Discuss why Martina, who has blood type A, cannot receive blood type B during a
A. Platelet • Excess numbers of these cells transfusion.
cause leukocytosis Answer:
• Alternate name for white blood Martina has the antigen for A on her red blood cells. During infancy, her
cell body built
• Granulocytes and agranulocytes anti-B antibodies since she lacked that antigen in her blood. If she receives
are classified as types of these a transfusion of blood type B, her body will already have the anti-B
cells antibodies in place. Agglutination will occur as the anti-B antibodies bind
B. Leukocyte • Excess of these cells cause and clump to the foreign B antigen. The red blood cells will be lysed,
polycythemia hemoglobin will be released into the blood stream, and these events would
• Cell fragments that form from lead to a transfusion reaction.
the rupture of a megakaryocyte 3) While looking through a microscope in your anatomy lab, you see a cell whose
• Immature form of this cell is cytoplasm has a pale pink color with fine granules and a tri-lobed deep purple
called reticulocyte nucleus. Determine what type of cell you see (be specific). Explain why you made
this selection.
C. Erythrocyte • Type of cell that contains
Answer:
hemoglobin for gas transport
You have likely seen a neutrophil, a type of leukocyte, while looking
• Most common type of blood
through the microscope. Neutrophils are granulocytes with a pale pink
cell
cytoplasm and fine granules that are difficult to see. Neutrophils have nuclei
• Type of cell fragment involved
with three to seven lobes connected by thin strands of nucleoplasm.
in hemostasis
4) Describe the three phases of the normal blood-clotting process.
Answer:
D. Blood type A • The blood type that has no Hemostasis involves three major phases. The first phase is the vascular
antigens spasm phase, in which serotonin released by the platelets causes the blood
• The blood type that possesses vessels to spasm and constrict, thus decreasing blood loss. The second
the A antigen only phase is the platelet plug formation, in which platelets become "sticky" and
E. Blood O • The blood type that can receive cling to the site of injury. The third phase is coagulation wherein
blood types B and AB thromboplastin interacts with PF3 and calcium, as well as other blood
• The blood type that forms both proteins, to form prothrombin activator. Prothrombin activator converts
anti-A and anti-B antibodies prothrombin to thrombin, which then joins with fibrinogen to form fibrin,
F. Blood type AB • The most common blood type the basis of the clot.
• The blood type that does not 5) Which situation do you predict to prompt the release of more erythropoietin into
form anti-A or anti-B antibodies the blood: anemia or polycythemia? Explain.
Answer:
10.5 Essay Questions Any decline in the level of oxygen in the blood prompts the kidneys to
1) Scott's blood test shows that he has excess red blood cells. Identify and describe release more
two causes of this disorder. erythropoietin into the blood. Erythropoietin targets the bone marrow to
Answer: produce more red blood cells. Anemia is a decrease in the blood's ability to
Scott's disorder is polycythemia, which results from excess numbers of transport oxygen for any reason while polycythemia is an excessive or
erythrocytes in the blood. This disorder may result from: abnormal increase in the number of red blood cells. Therefore, anemia
1. Bone marrow cancer (called polycythemia vera) would prompt the release of more erythropoietin so that the blood could
CHAPTER 10: BLOOD & CHAPTER 11: CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM

transport more oxygen. In fact, polycythemia would inhibit erythropoietin D) Label D
production by the kidneys. E) Label E
6) Describe ABO and Rh blood groups.
Answer:
The blood groups are based on the presence or absence of specific surface
antigens. Blood group A has type A antigens on their RBCs, blood group B
has type B antigens on their RBCs, blood group AB has both type A and
type B antigens on their RBCs, and blood group O lacks either type A or
type B antigens. The Rh+ blood group indicates the presence of the Rh
aantigens on their RBCs. Individuals belong to blood groups A, B, AB, or
O, and they are also classified as either Rh+ or Rh-.
7) Explain agglutination as it relates to blood groups.
Answer:
Antigens are surface proteins found on all cells including blood cells. In the
case of blood groups, an individual's blood type reflects the presence or
absence of specific antigens. An antigen-antibody response is initiated if the
individual receives a transfusion of blood containing antigens that it
identifies as being "foreign." Antibodies found in a person's blood bind to
the foreign antigen, causing agglutination, or clumping. The antigen-
antibody complexes clog the small blood vessels, and the foreign RBCs are
lysed, releasing hemoglobin into the bloodstream. The most serious
complication of a transfusion reaction is kidney failure due to blockage of
the kidney tubules by the hemoglobin molecules. 3) The atrioventricular bundle (bundle of His) is represented by ________.
8) Mrs. Litaker was concerned because her baby was born with yellow skin. Name A) Label A
and explain this condition to her. B) Label B
Answer: C) Label C
This condition is known as physiologic jaundice and it arises because fetal D) Label D
red blood cells are destroyed at a rate faster than the newborn's liver can rid E) Label E
the body of the hemoglobin breakdown products in bile. This form of 4) The atrioventricular (AV) node is indicated by ________.
jaundice typically causes no major problems. A) Label A
B) Label B
Chapter 11 The Cardiovascular System C) Label C
11.1 Multiple Choice Part I Questions D) Label D
Using Figure 11.1, identify the following: E) Label E
1) The Purkinje fibers are indicated by ________. 5) The bundle branches are indicated by ________.
A) Label A A) Label A
B) Label B B) Label B
C) Label C C) Label C
D) Label D D) Label D
E) Label E E) Label E
2) The sinoatrial (SA) node is indicated by ________. 6) The layer of the heart wall that receives the stimulus from letter E is called the
A) Label A ________.
B) Label B A) pericardium
C) Label C B) epicardium
C)endocardium
CHAPTER 10: BLOOD & CHAPTER 11: CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM
D) myocardium 13) The transportation of blood from the 19) The coronary veins empty blood from
7) The partition where the bundle branches right side of the heart to the lungs and back the myocardium into a large vein on the
are located is called the ________. to the left side of the heart is known as posterior side of the heart known as the
A) left atrioventricular groove ________ circulation. ________.
B) interatrial septum A) systemic A) pulmonary vein
C) interventricular septum B) cardiac B) inferior vena cava
D) right atrioventricular groove C) pulmonary C) superior vena cava
8) The pointed, inferior portion of the heart, D) coronary D) coronary sinus
known as the ________, rests on the 14) The tiny white cords that anchor the 20) The sinoatrial node, located in the right
diaphragm and is oriented toward the left cusps or flaps of endocardium to the walls of atrium of the heart, is often called the
hip. the ventricles are called the ________. ________.
A) base A) chordae tendineae A) pacemaker
B) mediastinum B) ligamentum arteriosum B) pericardial cavity
C) apex C) ductus venosus C) atrioventricular (AV) bundle
D) pericardium D) myocardium (bundle of His)
9) The visceral layer of the serous 15) Oxygenated blood nourishing the D) auricle
pericardium is actually the same layer as the myocardium comes from vessels that branch 21) The length of the cardiac cycle is
________. off the aorta called ________. normally ________ second(s) in length.
A) epicardium A) pulmonary arteries A) 2
B) myocardium B) pulmonary veins B) 4
C) fibrous pericardium C) coronary arteries C) 0.8
D) endocardium D) venae cava D) 0.3
10) The two superior receiving chambers of 16) The walls of the ________ are 22) The electrocardiogram (ECG) wave that
the heart are known as the ________, while substantially thicker because that chamber results from the firing of the sinoatrial (SA)
the two inferior discharging chambers of the acts as the more powerful systemic pump of node is the ________ wave.
heart are known as the ________. the heart. A) QRS
A) ventricles; atria A) left atrium B) T
B) atria; ventricles B) left ventricle C) P
C) arteries; veins C) right atrium D) S-T
D) veins; arteries D) right ventricle 23) The first heart sound, "lub," is caused by
11) The valves located between the atria and the closure of the ________ valves.
ventricles are known as the ________ 17) The bicuspid valve is also referred to as A) semilunar
valves. the ________ valve. B) pulmonary
A) pulmonary A) mitral C) atrioventricular (AV)
B) atrioventricular (AV) B) pulmonary D) aortic
C) aortic C) semilunar 24) The term that means heart contraction is
D) semilunar D) aortic ________.
12) Blood leaves the left ventricle through 18) When ventricles ________, the AV A) diastole
an artery known as the ________. valves are closed. B) tachycardia
A) pulmonary trunk A) relax C) systole
B) aorta B) open D) fibrillation
C) superior vena cava C) contract 25) During mid-to-late diastole, blood flows
D) coronary sinus D) dilate from the atria to the ________.
A) ventricles
CHAPTER 12: THE LYMPATHIC SYSTEM AND BODY DEFENSES

B) lungs D) pulmonary D) great saphenous vein
C) aorta 32) Capillary beds are drained by vessels 39) The single vessel that drains blood from
D) pulmonary trunk known as ________. the digestive tract organs to the liver is the
26) The average heart beats about ________ A) venules ________.
times per minute. B) venae cavae A) hepatic vein
A) 35 C) arterioles B) hepatic portal vein
B) 50 D) arteries C) renal vein
C) 75 33) Large veins have ________ to prevent D) inferior vena cava
D) 105 the backflow of blood. 40) Branches of the common carotid
27) The volume of blood pumped out of a A) tunics arteries, known as the ________, travel
ventricle with each heartbeat is known as B) sphincters through the neck into the skull through the
________. C) valves temporal bone to supply the brain and
A) heart rate (HR) D) shunts cerebral arterial circle (circle of Willis) with
B) stroke volume (SV) 34) The flow of blood through a capillary blood.
C) cardiac output (CO) bed is called ________. A) external carotid arteries
D) blood pressure (BP) A) pulmonary circulation B) internal carotid arteries
28) The vagus nerve operates under the B) hepatic portal circulation C) brachiocephalic trunk
control of the parasympathetic nervous C) systemic circulation D) subclavian arteries
system and causes the ________. D) microcirculation 41) The vessel that carries oxygenated and
A) heart rate to decrease 35) The largest artery in the body is the nutrient-rich blood to the fetus is the
B) heart rate to increase, then ________. ________.
decrease A) brachiocephalic artery A) hepatic portal vein
C) heart rate to increase B) pulmonary trunk B) umbilical vein
D) blood pressure to increase C) aorta C) ductus arteriosus
29) Large blood vessels that carry blood D) common carotid artery D) umbilical artery
away from the heart are called ________. 36) The organs served by the renal arteries 42) The flaplike opening in the interatrial
A) arteries and veins are the ________. septum of the fetus through which blood is
B) capillaries A) ovaries shunted directly from the right atrium to the
C) veins B) kidneys left atrium is the ________.
D) venae cavae C) testes A) ductus arteriosus
30) Tunica ________, the middle layer of a D) lungs B) ligamentum arteriosum
typical blood vessel, contains smooth 37) The longest veins in the body drain the C) ductus venosus
muscle and elastic fibers. leg and are the ________. D) foramen ovale
A) intima A) femoral veins 43) The pressure that draws fluid into
B) externa B) great saphenous veins capillaries since blood has a higher solute
C) media C) venae cavae concentration than interstitial fluid is known
D) adventitia D) anterior and posterior tibial as ________.
31) Arteries are normally depicted as red veins A) blood pressure
while veins are colored blue. The exceptions 38) Veins draining the head and arms empty B) systolic pressure
to this rule are the ________ arteries and into the ________, which carries blood to C) osmotic pressure
veins. the right atrium of the heart. D) diastolic pressure
A) systemic A) superior vena cava 44) The alternating expansion and recoil of
B) hepatic B) inferior vena cava an artery that occurs with each beat of the
C) coronary C) common iliac vein

left ventricle creates a pressure wave known C) epicardium E) left ventricle to the right
as a(n) ________. D) parietal layer of the serous ventricle
A) cardiac output pericardium 8) The tricuspid valve is located between the
B) pulse E) either endocardium or ________.
C) pressure point epicardium A) right atrium and left atrium
D) stroke volume 3) Pulmonary circulation involves blood B) right atrium and right ventricle
45) The narrowing of blood vessels is flow to and from the heart and the________. C) left ventricle and pulmonary
known as ________. A) body artery
A) vasodilation B) digestive organs D) left ventricle and aorta
B) diastole C) skin E) right ventricle and the
C) vasoconstriction D) lungs pulmonary trunk
D) systole E) brain 9) What anchors the flaps of the
46) Sustained elevated arterial blood 4) The left atrium receives blood from the atrioventricular valves to the walls of the
pressure above 140/90 mm Hg is a condition ________. ventricles?
known as ________. A) pulmonary arteries A) ligamentum arteriosum
A) hypertension (high blood B) superior vena cava B) fossa ovalis
pressure) C) aorta C) chordae tendineae
B) orthostatic hypotension D) pulmonary veins D) interatrial septum
C) circulatory shock E) inferior vena cava E) coronary sulcus
D) myocardial infarction 5) Pulmonary arteries transport ________. 10) Which one of the following blood
47) Fluid tends to be forced out of a A) oxygenated blood to the lungs vessels carries oxygenated blood?
capillary bed by ________ while ________ B) blood rich in carbon dioxide to A) superior vena cava
tends to draw fluid into the capillary bed. the lungs B) inferior vena cava
A) systolic pressure; diastolic C) oxygenated blood to the heart C) coronary sinus
pressure D) oxygenated blood directly to the D) pulmonary artery
B) blood pressure; osmotic pressure aorta E) pulmonary vein
C) osmotic pressure; diastolic E) blood rich in carbon dioxide to 11) Which valve guards the base of the aorta
pressure the right atrium of the heart and opens when the ventricles are
D) osmotic pressure; blood 6) What structure divides the left atrium contracting?
pressure from the right atrium? A) mitral valve
11.2 Multiple Choice Part II Questions A) interventricular septum B) aortic semilunar valve
1) The heart is situated within the medial B) interatrial septum C) bicuspid valve
section of the thoracic cavity known as the C) bicuspid valve D) pulmonary semilunar valve
________. D) tricuspid valve E) tricuspid valve
A) mediastinum E) chordae tendineae 12) Which blood vessels are direct branches
B) hiatus 7) When the ventricles contract, the bicuspid of the left coronary artery?
C) pleural cavity (mitral) valve prevents blood from flowing A) circumflex and marginal arteries
D) hilus from the ________. B) anterior and posterior
E) diaphragm A) right ventricle to the right interventricular arteries
2) The layer of the heart wall synonymous atrium C) anterior interventricular and
with the visceral layer of the serous B) left ventricle to the left atrium marginal arteries
pericardium is ________. C) left atrium to the right atrium D) anterior interventricular and
A) myocardium D) right atrium to the left atrium circumflex arteries
B) endocardium

E) posterior interventricular and D) circumflex artery A) arterioles, arteries, capillary beds,
marginal arteries E) pulmonary vein venules, veins
13) The sinoatrial node is located in the 16) Which of these events is NOT B) arterioles, arteries, capillary beds, veins,
________. associated with ventricular systole? venules
A) aorta A) atrioventricular valves close C) arterioles, arteries, venules, veins,
B) right atrium B) heart is relaxed capillary beds
C) left atrium C) blood rushes out of the D) arteries, arterioles, capillary beds, veins,
D) right ventricle ventricles venules
E) interventricular septum D) pressure in ventricles rises E) arteries, arterioles, capillary beds,
14) Which one of the following represents E) semilunar valves open venules, veins
the correct path for the transmission of an 17) The mitral valve is normally closed 22) You notice a missing P wave on a patient's
impulse in the intrinsic conduction system of ________. electrocardiogram (ECG) and believe there is a
the heart? A) when the ventricle is in diastole problem with the ________.
A) atrioventricular (AV) node, B) when the ventricle is in systole A) atrioventricular (AV) node
sinoatrial (SA) node, C) when the atrium is contracting B) Purkinje fibers
atrioventricular (AV) bundle D) by the movement of blood from C) left bundle branch
(bundle of His), right and left the atrium to the ventricle D) atrioventricular (AV) bundle
bundle branches, Purkinje fibers E) when the ventricle is relaxed E) sinoatrial (SA) node
B) atrioventricular (AV) node, 18) A person with a heart rate of 75 beats 23) Which of the following increases heart rate?
atrioventricular (AV) bundle per minute and a stroke volume of 60 mL A) low levels of calcium
(bundle of His), sinoatrial (SA) per beat has a cardiac output of ________. B) parasympathetic nervous system
node, Purkinje fibers, right and left A) 4500 mL/minute stimulation
bundle branches B) 1.25 mL/minute C) vagus nerve stimulation
C) sinoatrial (SA) node, C) 0.8 mL/minute D) cold
atrioventricular (AV) bundle D) 6000 mL/minute E) epinephrine
(bundle of His), atrioventricular E) 120 mL/minute 24) Veins ________.
(AV) node, Purkinje fibers, right 19) The heart sounds "lub" and "dup" result from A) carry blood away from the heart
and left bundle branches ________. B) branch into smaller vessels called
D) sinoatrial (SA) node, A) opening of the heart valves arterioles
atrioventricular (AV) bundle B) firing of the nodes of the intrinsic C) transport oxygen-rich blood
(bundle of His), atrioventricular conduction system D) operate under high pressure
(AV) node, right and left bundle C) blood rushing through the chambers E) often have valves to prevent the backflow
branches, Purkinje fibers D) closure of heart valves of blood
E) sinoatrial (SA) node, E) contraction of the heart 25) Which type of vessel is constructed only from
atrioventricular (AV) node, 20) The volume of blood pumped out by each tunica intima?
atrioventricular (AV) bundle ventricle with each beat of the heart is called the A) arteries
(bundle of His), right and left ________. B) arterioles
bundle branches, Purkinje fibers A) cardiac output C) capillaries
15) Which vessel carries deoxygenated B) cardiac cycle D) veins
blood from cardiac circulation to the right C) stroke volume E) venules
atrium of the heart? D) heart rate 26) The correct sequence of layers of a typical blood
A) coronary sulcus E) diastolic pressure vessel, from superficial to deep, are________.
B) coronary artery 21) The path of blood flow within the systemic A) tunica media, tunica intima, tunica
C) coronary sinus vascular system is ________. externa

B) tunica media, tunica externa, tunica B) groin B) metabolic wastes and carbon dioxide
intima C) neck from the placenta to the fetus
C) tunica externa, tunica media, tunica D) abdomen C) oxygen and nutrients from the fetus to the
intima E) leg placenta
D) tunica externa, tunica intima, tunica 32) Which vein returns blood to the superior vena D) oxygen and nutrients from the placenta to
media cava? the fetus
E) tunica intima, tunica media, tunica A) brachiocephalic vein E) blood from the navel into the inferior
externa B) renal vein vena cava
27) Which of the following blood vessels is a direct C) hepatic portal vein 37) Which fetal shunt bypasses the lungs by directly
branch of the ascending aorta? D) common iliac vein connecting the right atrium and the left
A) right subclavian artery E) great saphenous vein atrium?
B) left internal carotid artery 33) The internal iliac vein empties blood directly into A) ligamentum arteriosum
C) right pulmonary artery the ________. B) umbilical vein
D) left brachiocephalic artery A) femoral vein C) foramen ovale
E) right and left coronary arteries B) common iliac vein D) ductus arteriosus
28) Which one of the following does NOT receive C) superior vena cava E) ductus venosus
blood directly from the aortic arch? D) hepatic portal vein 38) Which one of the following areas is NOT a
A) brachiocephalic artery E) external iliac vein pressure point?
B) left subclavian artery 34) What organ receives blood from the hepatic A) renal artery
C) left common carotid artery portal vein? B) radial artery
D) right common carotid artery A) liver C) facial artery
E) thoracic aorta B) kidney D) dorsalis pedis artery
29) Which of the following arteries is the first branch C) pancreas E) posterior tibial artery
of the abdominal aorta? D) large intestine 39) Which of the following vessels has the lowest
A) splenic artery E) brain blood pressure?
B) superior mesenteric artery 35) The brachial vein ________. A) veins
C) celiac artery A) drains blood from the radial and ulnar B) capillaries
D) femoral artery veins, then empties that blood into the C) venae cavae
E) hepatic artery axillary vein D) arteries
30) Which of these pathways correctly traces blood B) drains blood from the internal jugular E) arterioles
as it travels from the aortic arch to the left vein, then empties that blood into the 40) The friction blood encounters as it flows through
arm? superior vena the vessels is called ________.
A) aortic arch, brachiocephalic trunk, right cava A) cardiac output
common carotid artery C) drains blood from the popliteal vein, then B) stroke volume
B) aortic arch, left common carotid artery, empties that blood into the external iliac C) peripheral resistance
left internal carotid artery vein D) blood pressure
C) aortic arch, left subclavian artery, left D) drains blood from the axillary vein, then E) diastolic pressure
axillary artery, left brachial artery empties that blood into the superior vena 41) What is the effect of parasympathetic nervous
D) ascending aorta, right coronary arteries cava system control on the vascular system?
E) abdominal aorta, celiac trunk, left gastric E) drains blood from the popliteal vein, then A) little to no effect
artery empties that blood into the femoral vein B) heart rate increases
31) The external carotid artery serves the skin and 36) The umbilical vein carries ________. C) blood pressure increases
muscles of the head and ________. A) metabolic wastes and carbon dioxide D) vasoconstriction
A) armpit from the fetus to the placenta

E) epinephrine release brings about many 2) Blood is returned to the right side of the 19) When precapillary sphincters are closed,
changes heart from the lungs. blood flows through the shunts and bypasses
42) Which of the following hormones promotes 3) The chordae tendineae anchor the the tissue cells.
sodium ion reabsorption by the kidney in order semilunar valves to the walls of the 20) The portion of the aorta in the
to increase blood pressure and blood volume? ventricles. abdominopelvic cavity is known as the
A) glucagon 4) The alternate name for the bicuspid valve thoracic aorta.
B) thyroxine is the mitral valve. 21) The three branches of the aortic arch are
C) epinephrine 5) The semilunar valves prevent the the brachiocephalic trunk, left common
D) aldosterone backflow of blood into the atria when the carotid artery, and the left subclavian artery.
E) antidiuretic hormone ventricles are contracting. 22) The renal veins carry oxygen-rich blood
43) Which of the following is NOT a method or 6) The sinoatrial (SA) node is the pacemaker to the kidneys.
pathway of movement for substances traveling of the intrinsic conduction system of the 23) The common iliac vein drains blood into
across a capillary wall? heart. the inferior vena cava.
A) intercellular clefts 7) During ventricular systole, blood is 24) The inferior vena cava returns blood to
B) diffusion ejected from the ventricles through the large the heart from all body regions above the
C) endocytosis or exocytosis arteries connected to the heart. diaphragm.
D) desmosomes 8) The heart sounds, "lub" and "dup," occur 25) The hepatic veins drain the blood from
E) fenestrated capillaries when the atria contract and subsequently the liver and return it to the inferior vena
44) Substances tend to leave the bloodstream at the when the ventricles contract. cava.
arterial end of the capillary because________. 9) The part of the intrinsic conduction 26) The cerebral arterial circle (circle of
A) the osmotic pressure of the blood is system of the heart that directly supplies the Willis) involves blood flow through the
higher at the arterial end of the capillary walls of the ventricles is the Purkinje fibers. liver.
B) the osmotic pressure of the blood is 10) The QRS wave on an electrocardiogram 27) The major vessels involved in hepatic
higher at the venule end of the capillary is representative of ventricular portal circulation are the inferior and
C) blood pressure is higher at the arterial repolarization. superior mesenteric arteries, the splenic
end of the capillary 11) The average heart beats approximately artery, and the left gastric artery.
D) blood pressure is higher at the venule end 75 times each minute at rest. 28) The umbilical vein carries blood rich in
of the capillary 12) During ventricular diastole, the bicuspid nutrients and oxygen to the fetus.
E) interstitial pressure is higher at the and tricuspid (mitral)valves are closed. 29) In fetal circulation, blood travels directly
arterial end of the capillary 13) Cardiac output is the product of the from the right atrium to the left atrium
45) Coronary artery disease results from ________. stroke volume and the systolic blood through the foramen ovale.
A) persistent parasympathetic nervous pressure. 30) Diastolic pressure is the blood pressure
system stimulation of the heart 14) Reductions in venous return cause in the arteries at the peak of ventricular
B) the accumulation of fatty substances reductions in both stroke volume and cardiac contraction.
within blood vessels output. 31) Blood pressure is highest in the arteries
C) temporary loss of oxygen to the heart 15) An increased firing of the and declines to zero or negative pressure in
D) incompetent venous valves parasympathetic nervous system causes the vena cavae.
E) scar tissue in the myocardium of the heart increased cardiac output. 32) Hypotension is diastolic blood pressure
from repeated myocardial infarctions 16) Arteries branch into smaller vessels below 100 mm Hg.
known as arterioles. 33) Blood cells and proteins typically cannot
11.3 True/False Questions 17) Capillaries are composed only of tunica pass across the walls of capillaries and are
1) The fibrous pericardium is superficial to intima. thus prevented from leaving or entering the
the serous pericardium surrounding the 18) Exchanges between blood and tissue capillaries.
heart. cells occur in capillary beds.

11.4 Matching Questions 11.5 Essay Questions
Match the following: 1) Trace the path of a drop of blood, starting at the right atrium and returning to the
A. Left Ventricle • Heart Chamber with the thickest wall right atrium, through the pulmonary and systemic circuits of the cardiovascular
• Inferior discharging chamber on the left side of the heart system. Identify the chambers, valves, and vessels (except specific systemic blood
B. Left Atrium • Heart chamber that pumps blood to the pulmonary trunk vessels that are not directly associated with the heart), and indicate whether the blood
• Heart Chamber that contains the sinoatrial node is oxygenated or deoxygenated in each area.
C. Right Atrium • Roof of this chamber contains the bicuspid valve Answer:
• The coronary sinus empties blood from cardiac Deoxygenated blood in the right atrium, deoxygenated blood through the
circulation into this chamber pulmonary tricuspid valve, deoxygenated blood in the right ventricle,
deoxygenated blood through the pulmonary semilunar valve, deoxygenated
D. Right • The four pulmonary veins return oxygenated blood to
Ventricle blood in the pulmonary trunk, deoxygenated blood in the right and left
this chamber
pulmonary arteries, deoxygenated blood in the pulmonary capillaries in the
• The fossa Ovalis is visible in this chamber
lungs, oxygenated blood in the pulmonary veins, oxygenated blood in the
E. T wave • Wave seen on an electrocardiogram (ECG) representing
left atrium, oxygenated blood through the bicuspid (mitral) valve,
ventricular depolarization
oxygenated blood in the left ventricle, oxygenated blood through the aortic
F. QRS wave • Wave visible on the electrocardiogram (ECG) semilunar valve, oxygenated blood in the aorta, oxygenated blood in the
representing atrial depolarization systemic arteries, oxygenated blood in the systemic arterioles, oxygenated
• Wave Visible on the electrocardiogram (ECG) blood in the systemic capillaries, deoxygenated blood in the systemic
representing ventricular repolarization venules, deoxygenated blood in the systemic veins, deoxygenated blood in
G. P wave • Wave on the electrocardiogram (ECG) that follows the the superior and inferior vena cava, deoxygenated blood in the right atrium.
firing of the sinoatrial (SA) node 2) Identify the five major parts of the intrinsic conduction system of the heart in their
H. Systole • Semilunar valves are forced open as pressure in the normal order, beginning with the pacemaker.
heart rises Answer:
• Blood is ejected from the ventricles through the Sinoatrial (SA) node in the right atrium, atrioventricular (AV) node at the
pulmonary trunk and aorta junction of the atria and ventricles, atrioventricular (AV) bundle or bundle
• Ventricular relaxation of His in the interventricular septum, right and left bundle branches in the
I. Diastole • Pressure in the heart is low interventricular septum, Purkinje fibers in the muscle of the ventricle walls.
• Atrioventricular (AV) valves shut as pressure in the 3) Amanda is exercising and noticed her heart rate has nearly doubled from her
heart rises resting heart rate of 68 beats per minute. Explain what effects her increased heart rate
• Ventricular contraction will have on cardiac output and stroke volume, if any.
J. Capillaries • These vessels carry blood away from the heart Answer:
• These vessels return blood to the hear Cardiac output (CO) is the product of the heart rate (HR) and the stroke
• Superior and inferior vena cava are classified as these volume (SV). When heart rate increases, as is the case for Amanda since
types of vessels she is exercising, both stroke volume and cardiac output will also increase.
K. Arteries • The aorta is classified as one of these vessels Exercise is a physical factor that leads to these increases.
4) Describe how arteries, capillaries and veins are structurally different.
• These Vessels have thicker walls and a heavier tunica
Answer:
media
Arterial walls are thicker, heavier, stronger, and stretchy enough to handle
• Nutrient and gas exchange occur in these vessels
expansion and recoil as blood under high pressure is transported. Veins
L. Veins • Blood pressure in these vessels is low or even negative
have thinner walls; these vessels operate under low or even negative
• These vessels have thinner walls and transport oxygen- pressure. The lumens of veins are larger than those of corresponding
poor blood arteries. Veins also have valves to prevent the backflow of blood.
• Some of these larger vessels have valves to prevent Capillaries are composed of only the tunica intima and are only one cell
backflow layer thick.
• Venules drain these tiny beds of vessels
5) Explain the role of valves in heart functioning. ANSWER KEY:
Answer:
Valves allow blood to flow in one direction through the heart EACBDDCCABBBCACBACDACCCCACBAACDACDCBBABBBDCB
chambers (from atria to ventricles) and out the two arteries leaving CABACDDBBBBCEBDBECBBADCEEEECCEDCCCABAADCACCAD
the heart. DCB
There are two types of valves found in the heart:
1. The atrioventricular, or AV, valves are located between the TFFTFTTFTFTFFTFTTTTFTFTFTFFTTFTFT
atrium and ventricle on each side
of the heart. These valves prevent the backflow of blood into the AADCACBC
atria when the heart contracts. In summary, these AV valves are FGEG
open during heart relaxation and closed during heart HHIIHH
contraction. KLLKKJLLLJ
2. The semilunar valves guard the base of the two large arteries,
aorta and pulmonary trunk, leaving the heart via the two ventricles.
These valves close after blood has passed through the
arteries on its way out of the heart. They prevent the backflow of
blood into the ventricles from the arteries. In summary, these
valves are closed during heart relaxation and open during heart
contraction.
6) Name two shunts that bypass the lungs in a fetus. Briefly explain the
structures these shunts connect.
Answer:
1. The foramen ovale is a opening between the right atrium and the
left atrium of the fetal heart. Some of the blood entering the right
atrium flows directly into the left atrium, bypassing pulmonary
circulation.
2. The ductus arteriosus is a vessel connecting the pulmonary trunk
and the aorta. Blood that happens to enter the right ventricle is
pumped into the pulmonary trunk, supposedly on its way to
the lungs. However, that blood is transported from the pulmonary
trunk through ductus arteriosus into the aorta.
7) Describe the two types of pressures controlling fluid movement in a
capillary bed. Explain the role of each pressure in fluid movement.
Answer:
Blood pressure forces fluids and solutes out of capillaries while
osmotic pressure pulls fluid back into capillaries. Osmotic pressure
is created by plasma proteins in the blood. At the arterial end of the
capillary, blood pressure is higher than osmotic pressure, so fluids
and solutes are pushed out of the capillary and into the interstitial
space. As fluid is forced out of the capillary, blood pressure drops.
Therefore, at the venous end of the capillary, osmotic pressure is
higher than blood pressure so fluid is pulled back into the capillary
from the interstitial space at the venous end.

A) Label A B) Label B
Chapter 12 The Lymphatic System and Body B) Label B C) Label C
Defenses C) Label C D) Label D
12.1 Multiple Choice Part I Questions D) Label D 9) The Peyer's patches are indicated by
E) Label E ________.
5) Lymphatic collecting vessels are A) Label A
indicated by ________. B) Label B
A) Label A C) Label C
B) Label B D) Label D
C) Label C 10) The lymphoid organ that destroys worn-
D) Label D out blood cells is indicated by ________.
E) Label E A) Label A
B) Label B
C) Label C
D) Label D
11) The lymphoid tissues that trap and
remove bacteria that enter the throat are
indicated by ________.
A) Label A
B) Label B
C) Label C
D) Label D
12) Lymph fluid and some plasma proteins
1) A lymph capillary is indicated by originate (escape) from the ________.
________. A) intracellular fluid
A) Label A B) blood vascular system
B) Label B C) endocrine system
C) Label C D) respiratory system
D) Label D 13) Excess accumulation of fluid, which
E) Label E impairs the exchange of materials within the
2) A lymph node is indicated by ________. tissues, is called ________.
A) Label A Using Figure 12.2, identify the following: A) stroke
B) Label B 6) The spleen is indicated by ________. B) shock
C) Label C A) Label A C) edema
D) Label D B) Label B D) MALT (mucosa-associated
E) Label E C) Label C lymphatic tissue)
3) The lymph duct is indicated by ________. D) Label D 14) The ________ duct drains lymph from
A) Label A 7) The tonsils are indicated by ________. the right arm and the right side of the head
B) Label B A) Label A and thorax.
C) Label C B) Label B A) brachiocephalic
D) Label D C) Label C B) subclavian
E) Label E D) Label D C) thoracic
4) Blood capillaries are indicated by 8) The thymus is indicated by ________. D) right lymphatic
________. A) Label A
15) Bacteria and tumor cells are removed 21) The binding of complement proteins to B) antigen-presenting
from lymph by ________. certain sugar or proteins on a foreign cell's C) cytotoxic T
A) lymph nodes surface is called ________. D) killer
B) tonsils A) cellular immunity (cellular- 27) Active immunity to tetanus, whooping
C) the spleen mediated immunity) cough, and polio can be artificially acquired
D) thymus B) complement fixation when we receive ________.
16) The role of the ________ is to trap and C) positive chemotaxis A) vaccines
remove bacteria or other foreign pathogens D) diapedesis B) serum
entering the throat. 22) Small proteins known as ________ are C) antivenom
A) thymus secreted by virus-infected cells to help D) antitoxin
B) spleen defend cells that have not yet been infected. 28) Antibodies provided by serum from an
C) tonsils A) haptens immune donor or an animal donor do not
D) lymph node B) pyrogens challenge the B cells and thus provide
17) Peyer's patches and the tonsils are part C) interferons ________.
of the collection of small lymphoid tissues D) antigens A) cellular or cell-mediated
that protect the upper respiratory and 23) A(n) ________ is any substance capable immunity
digestive tracts from infection and are of mobilizing our immune system and B) active immunity
referred to as ________. provoking an immune response. C) natural immunity
A) lymph nodes A) interferon D) passive immunity
B) MALT or mucosa-associated B) antibody 29) The region of the antibody that varies
lymphatic tissue C) antigen from antibody to antibody is called the
C) germinal centers D) pyrogen ________ region.
D) lymphatics 24) Troublesome small molecules or A) regional or R
18) Harmful or disease-causing incomplete antigens that may mount an B) variable or V
microorganisms from which nonspecific attack that is harmful rather than protective C) constant or C
defenses protect the body are called are called ________. D) stable or S
________. A) haptens 30) Large antigen-antibody complexes can
A) macrophages B) antibodies become insoluble and settle out of solution,
B) antibodies C) pyrogens a reaction called ________.
C) pathogens D) interferons A) neutralization
D) allergens 25) T cells or B cells that are capable of B) complement fixation
19) Redness, heat, swelling, and pain are the responding to a specific antigen by binding C) precipitation
four most common indicators of ________. to it with antigen-specific receptors that D) agglutination
A) fever appear on the lymphocyte's surface are 31) Killer T cells, which kill virus-invaded
B) dehydration considered ________. body cells, are also called ________.
C) edema A) clones A) cytotoxic T cells
D) acute inflammation B) complement B) regulatory T cells
20) The third line of defense involves the C) self-tolerant C) antigen-presenting cells
adaptive response mediated by ________. D) immunocompetent D) helper T cells
A) lymphocytes 26) The major role of ________ cells is to 32) Tissue grafts harvested from a different
B) antigens engulf antigens and present pieces of them animal species are known as ________.
C) mucous membranes to the cells that will deal with those A) xenografts
D) pathogens fragments. B) autografts
A) helper T C) allografts

D) isografts C) left external jugular vein 9) What lymphoid organ stores platelets and
33) Systemic (body-wide) acute allergic D) left subclavian artery acts as a blood reservoir?
response caused by allergens that directly E) aorta A) thymus
enter the blood, as with certain bee stings or 4) Which one of the following is NOT a B) spleen
spider bites, is called ________. mechanism that aids lymph return to the C) appendix
A) myasthenia gravis heart? D) tonsils
B) rheumatic fever A) milking action of skeletal E) Peyer's patches
C) anaphylactic shock muscles 10) The lymph tissues found within the
D) delayed hypersensitivity B) pressure changes within the walls of the small intestine are called
34) AIDS cripples the immune system by thorax ________.
interfering with the activity of cells called C) the pumping action of the heart A) tonsils
________. D) smooth muscle contractions B) appendix
A) antigen-presenting cells within the lymphatic vessels C) Peyer's patches
B) plasma cells E) presence of valves within the D) thymus tissues
C) memory cells larger lymph vessels E) intestinal nodes
D) helper T cells 5) What structure carries lymph into a 11) Where is the thymus located?
35) A tropical disease that results when lymph node? A) pharynx
parasitic worms clog the lymphatic vessels A) trabeculae B) beneath sternum overlying heart
is called ________. B) afferent lymphatic vessel C) armpits, groin, and neck
A) glomerulonephritis C) follicles D) small intestine
B) elephantiasis D) efferent lymphatic vessel E) left side of abdominopelvic
C) appendicitis E) germinal center cavity
D) allergic contact dermatitis 6) Which lymphatic organ's major job is to 12) Mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue
destroy worn-out red blood cells and return (MALT) includes the ________.
12.2 Multiple Choice Part II Questions some of the products to the liver? A) spleen
A) tonsils B) thymus
1) Lymph is largely composed of water that B) spleen C) tonsils only
has escaped from ________. C) thymus gland D) tonsils, the appendix, and
A) cytosol D) appendix Peyer's patches
B) cerebrospinal fluid E) Peyer's patches E) tonsils and spleen
C) saliva 7) Which lymphoid tissues trap and remove 13) The body's first line of defense against
D) tears bacteria entering the throat? the invasion of disease-causing
E) blood A) axillary lymph nodes microorganisms is ________.
2) The right lymphatic duct collects lymph B) cervical lymph nodes A) phagocytes
from the ________. C) tonsils B) natural killer cells
A) right arm D) Peyer's patches C) skin and mucous membranes
B) right leg E) thymus gland D) inflammatory response
C) left leg 8) The thymus is most active during E) fever
D) left side of the head ________. 14) The adaptive (specific) defense system
E) right and left legs A) infancy ________.
3) Lymph from the left arm returns to the B) adolescence A) is an innate defense
heart through the ________. C) middle age B) issues an attack specific to
A) inferior vena cava D) old age particular foreign substances
B) left subclavian vein E) the entire lifetime

C) includes the skin and mucous EXCEPT ________. A) pollen grains
membranes A) dilate blood vessels B) bacteria
D) is the body's first line of defense B) attract phagocytes to the area C) self-antigens
against invading pathogens C) stimulate release of lysozyme D) fungi
E) provides mechanical barriers to D) cause capillaries to become E) virus particles
the body leaky 25) Humoral immunity is provided by
15) Which one of the following is NOT one E) activate pain receptors ________.
of the nonspecific body defenses? 20) Membrane attack complexes (MAC) A) pyrogens
A) intact skin form holes in attacked cells causing them to B) skin and mucous membranes
B) antibody production burst; this is a result of ________. C) interferon
C) the inflammatory response A) interferon D) antibodies
D) fever B) complement fixation E) complement fixation
E) natural killer cells C) natural killer cells 26) Regardless of whether it matures into a
16) The process by which neutrophils are D) keratin B cell or a T cell, a lymphocyte that is
squeezed through the capillary walls during E) phagocytes capable of responding to a specific antigen
the inflammatory process is called 21) What does fever accomplish? by binding to it is said to be ________.
________. A) Fever inhibits bacteria A) clonal
A) agglutination reproduction and speeds the repair B) incompetent
B) chemotaxis process. C) immune
C) diapedesis B) Fever promotes cell lysis by D) immunocompetent
D) coagulation direct cell attack. E) complemented
E) antibody production C) Fever enables macrophages to 27) The specific foreign substances that an
17) Which of the following is NOT one of attack microorganisms. individual's immune system has the ability
the four most common indicators of the D) Fever prevents the spread of to recognize and resist are determined by
inflammatory response? pathogens to adjacent tissues. ________.
A) redness E) Fever prevents the formation of A) individual exposure to the
B) heat complement fixation. specific foreign substance
C) swelling 22) What inhibits viruses from entering and B) individual genetic makeup
D) chills attacking healthy cells? C) the total number of lymphocytes
E) pain A) membrane-attack complexes present at a given time
18) Chemotaxis is best described as (MAC) D) the total number of
________. B) keratin macrophages at a given time
A) the movement of neutrophils C) interferons E) the total number of self-antigens
through capillary walls D) pyrogens at a given time
B) the movement of cells along a E) complement 28) Lymphocytes are trained to be self-
chemical gradient 23) The study of immunity is called tolerant of ________.
C) the dilation of blood vessels ________. A) fungi
D) the release of a lytic chemical A) histology B) foreign blood cells
by perforins B) anatomy C) the body's own cells
E) the accumulation of excess C) pathology D) viruses
fluids in tissue space D) immunology E) bacteria
19) The inflammatory process begins with E) microbiology 29) B cells develop immunocompetence in
release of chemicals, which do all of the 24) Which of the following substances is the ________.
following NOT likely to trigger the immune response? A) thymus gland

B) bone marrow A) variable region 39) Which antibody-antigen interaction
C) spleen B) heavy chain results when a foreign blood type is
D) thyroid gland C) constant region transfused and clumped?
E) lymph nodes D) disulfide bonds A) opsonization
30) Antigen-presenting cells behave as E) light chain B) agglutination
________. 35) Which one of the following is NOT true C) neutralization
A) interferons of the constant (C) regions of antibodies? D) precipitation
B) pyrogens A) The constant regions are the E) phagocytosis
C) macrophages same or nearly the same on all 40) The process by which antibodies bind to
D) natural killer cells antibodies. specific sites on bacterial exotoxins (toxic
E) complement B) The constant regions form the chemicals secreted by bacteria) to block
31) How do plasma cells assist with humoral "stem" of an antibody. their harmful effects is called ________.
immunity? C) The constant regions determine A) agglutination
A) Plasma cells reproduce rapidly the specific type of antibody class B) chemotaxis
to crowd pathogens out of the formed. C) complement fixation
blood. D) The constant regions form an D) neutralization
B) Plasma cells bind to viruses and antigen-binding site. E) precipitation
bacteria to immobilize them. E) The constant regions determine 41) Antigen presentation is essential for the
C) Plasma cells produce how an antibody class will carry activation and clonal selection of ________.
interferons. out its immune role. A) T cells
D) Plasma cells secrete highly- 36) Which one of the following is NOT one B) B cells
specific antibodies. of the antibody classes? C) plasma cells
E) Plasma cells secrete pyrogens. A) IgA D) antigen-presenting cells
32) Vaccines are NOT for ________. B) IgB E) antibodies
A) pneumonia C) IgD 42) What type of T cell releases cytokines to
B) tetanus D) IgG indirectly rid the body of antigens?
C) measles E) IgE A) helper T cells
D) snake bites 37) IgE ________. B) cytotoxic T cells
E) polio A) is mainly found in mucus and C) regulatory T cells
33) Due to a recent respiratory illness from a secretions such as tears and saliva D) killer T cells
viral infection , Jennifer has now developed B) is passed from mother to fetus E) suppressor T cells
________. during pregnancy 43) What is the best graft to have so as to
A) naturally acquired active C) is the most abundant antibody in avoid rejection of a transplanted tissue?
immunity blood plasma A) an autograft
B) artificially acquired active D) can fix complement B) a graft from a recently deceased
immunity E) is involved in allergies individuals
C) naturally acquired passive 38) What is the chief way the body responds C) a graft from another primate
immunity to antigens? D) a xenograft
D) artificially acquired passive A) agglutination E) an allograft
immunity B) chemotaxis 44) Which of the following is often used to
E) passively acquired natural C) complement fixation treat allergies?
immunity D) neutralization A) corticosteroids
34) Which portion of the antibody's E) precipitation B) antihistamines
structure determines the antibody's class? C) blood transfusions

D) bone marrow transplants 5) The most important function of 16) Antibodies are also referred to
E) immunosuppressor drugs the thymus gland is to destroy as immunoglobulins.
45) Allergic contact dermatitis following worn-out red blood cells and 17) The constant region of the
skin contact with poison ivy would normally return some of the products to the antibody joins heavy and light
lead to ________. liver. chains to form an antigen-binding
A) immediate hypersensitivity 6) The innate (nonspecific) defense site specifically made to fit an
B) acute hypersensitivity system and adaptive (specific) antigen.
C) delayed hypersensitivity defense system make up the 18) The antibody a mother passes
D) anaphylactic shock immune system. to her fetus is IgM.
E) immunodeficiency 7) Injured cells release chemicals 19) The process that occurs when
46) Hannah has an auto-immune disease in such as histamine and kinins that antibodies clump foreign cells is
which the beta cells of the pancreas are dilate vessels, attract phagocytes called agglutination.
destroyed. As a result, she does not make and activate pain receptors. 20) Cytotoxic T cells release
enough insulin. What disease does she have? 8) The final disposal of cell debris perforins to creates pores in the
A) multiple sclerosis as inflammation subsides is target cell's membrane to kill the
B) Graves' disease performed by neutrophils. cell.
C) myasthenia gravis 9) The nonspecific defense by 21) Antigen presentation is
D) type I diabetes mellitus which complement proteins attach essential for the activation of clonal
E) systemic lupus erythematosus to sugars or proteins on the surface selection of T cells.
47) Which one of the following is NOT an of foreign cells is called 22) Xenografts are ideal donor
autoimmune disease? complement fixation. organs or tissues since they rarely
A) AIDS 10) Chemicals secreted by white cause rejection.
B) multiple sclerosis blood cells and macrophages 23) Autoimmune disease arises
C) Graves' disease exposed to foreign substances that when the immune system is no
D) type I diabetes mellitus can increase body temperature are longer tolerant of self-antigens
E) rheumatoid arthritis called pyrogens. and antibodies are produced to
11) The study of immunity and the attack the body's own tissues.
12.3 True/False Questions immune system is called 24) Allergies, or hypersensitivities,
1) The two main structures of the endocrinology. are normal immune responses.
lymphatic system are the lymphatic 12) Like all blood cells, 25) Anaphylactic shock, an acute
vessels and the blood vessels. lymphocytes originate from systemic allergic response, causes
2) All lymph rejoins the hemocytoblasts contained within vasodilation and difficulty
bloodstream via the subclavian red bone marrow. breathing.
veins. 13) B cells become 26) As people age, they become
3) The lymph nodes filter bacteria, immunocompetent in the thymus. more resistant to the development
viruses, and tumor cells from blood 14) Antigen-presenting cells of autoimmune and
on its way back to the (APCs) engulf antigens and present immunodeficiency diseases.
heart. them to cells that will deal with
4) The role of the spleen in the them.
lymphatic system is to provide a 15) Artificially acquired passive
site for lymphocyte proliferation immunity is conferred when one
and immune surveillance. receives immune serum for
poisonous snake bites.

12.4 Matching Questions 12.5 Essay Questions
Match the following descriptions with the appropriate lymphoid organ or tissue: 1) Explain the origin and pathway of lymph.
A. Thymus gland • Located on the left side of the abdominal cavity Answer:
• Trap and remove bacteria and pathogens entering the Lymph fluid arises from blood plasma that has been forced out of the
throat capillary beds by osmotic and hydrostatic pressures. The fluid left behind is
B. Peyer’s patches • Located overlying the heart called interstitial fluid. The interstitial fluid is then picked up by lymph
C. Tonsils • Filters and cleanses the blood of bacteria, viruses, capillaries, after which it is called lymph. Lymph is routed up the lymphatic
and other debris vessels until it is finally returned to the venous system through either the
• Located in the wall of the small intestines right lymphatic duct or the thoracic duct.
D. Spleen • Located in the pharynx (throat) 2) Describe how the lymphatic and cardiovascular systems are similar in structure
and function.
E. Pyrogen • Any substance capable of provoking an immune
Answer:
response
Structurally, lymphatic vessels and the veins of the cardiovascular system
F. Antigen • Small protein that binds with receptors on healthy
are both thin-walled and operate under low-pressure. Some of the larger
cells to promote protein synthesis and prevent
vessels in each system have valves. Functionally, both systems return fluids
viruses from binding
back to the heart. The lymphatic system is assisted by the same techniques
G. Cytokines • Chemical secreted by white blood cells and
as the cardiovascular system to return lymph (and venous blood) back to the
macrophages to raise the body’s temperature
heart: milking action of skeletal muscles, pressure changes in the thorax
H. Mucus • Chemical released by natural killer cells to cause cell during breathing, and smooth muscles in the walls of the vessels.
lysis 3) Explain how the innate and adaptive immune systems differ in their responses to
I. Antibody • Chemical released by macrophages and dendritic foreign substances.
cells to activate many other immune cells Answer:
J. Interferon • Proteins secreted by activated B cells in response to The innate immune system is the system we have when we're born. This
an antigen system includes the skin and mucous membranes, the inflammatory
K. Perforins • Sticky substance in the respiratory and digestive response, and proteins already present in our cells. This system is the first
passageways that trap microorganisms one to come into contact with a foreign substance and thus is always
L. Antigen-presenting • May exist in the body for years and enable a quick prepared to defend the body. Therefore, we think of the innate system as the
cell (APC) response to subsequent meetings with the same nonspecific body defense and the first line of defense to protection from
antigen invaders. The adaptive immune system is the second line of defense which
M. Memory Cell • Slows or stops B and T cell activity once infection defends us from specific invaders. This system consists of molecules like
has been conquered pyrogens and immune cells such as lymphocytes and macrophages. This
N. B-cell • Cell that produces huge numbers of the same system differs from the innate system since it must be exposed to the
antibody invader before it can form a response.
O. Regulatory T cell • Kills virus-infected cells, cancerous cells, and is 4) Identify the four most common indicators and major symptoms of an acute
involved in graft rejection inflammatory response and explain their origins.
P. Cytotoxic T cell • Engulfs and presents parts of antigens on the Answer:
membrane for recognition by T cells bearing The four most common indicators of the inflammatory response are redness,
receptors for the same antigen heat, swelling, and pain. Redness and heat are a result of dilation of blood
Q. Helper T cell • Progeny (clone members) of this cell form plasma vessels that increase blood flow to the injured area. Swelling occurs when
cells and memory cells increased permeability of the capillaries allows plasma to leak from the
R. Plasma Cell • Binds with a specific antigen presented by an bloodstream into the tissue spaces. The excess fluid, or edema, triggers the
antigen-presenting cell (APC) activation of pain receptors in the area, accounting for the pain associated
with an injury.

Chapter 14 The Digestive System and Body Metabolism
5) List and describe the cells and chemicals the body uses as its second line of 14.1 Multiple Choice Part I Questions
defense.
Answer:
1. Phagocytes, such as neutrophils or macrophages, engulf foreign particles.
These cells are in nearly every body organ and confront pathogens that
make it through the surface membrane barriers.
2. Natural killer cells, found in blood and lymph, are lymphocytes. They
can lyse and kill cancer cells and virus-infected body cells.
3. The inflammatory response is a nonspecific response that occurs when
body tissues are injured.
6) Contrast the primary humoral response with the secondary humoral response.
Answer:
The primary humoral response occurs during the first encounter with an
antigen. An antigen binds to a specific receptor on a specific B cell. The
activated B cells proliferate to form a clone. While most of the B cell clone
members become plasma cells that will secrete antibody molecules, B cells
that do not become plasma cells will become memory cells. Memory cells
exist for years and are capable of responding to the same antigen at a later
meeting (immunological memory). Secondary humoral responses are the
later immune responses that are faster, more prolonged, and more effective
than the primary humoral response because preparations for this attack have Using Figure 14.1, identify the following:
already been made. 1) The mouth (oral cavity) is indicated by ________.
7) Let's suppose scientists have discovered a new disease that arises when antigen- A) Label C
presenting cells (APCs) are not made by the body. How do you think our immune B) Label D
response will be impacted? C) Label E
Answer: D) Label B
Antigen-presenting cells (APCs) engulf an antigen and present part of it on E) Label A
the membrane in combination with one of the APCs' own glycoproteins. T 2) The large intestine is indicated by ________.
cells require the presentation of the antigen for activation and clonal A) Label J
selection. Without the presentation of antigens by APCs, the immune B) Label L
process would be severely impaired. T cell clone classes provide for cell- C) Label K
mediated immunity and include helper T cells, cytotoxic T cells, regulatory D) Label M
T cells, and memory cells. E) Label N
3) The salivary glands are indicated by ________.
ANSWER KEY: A) Label J
B) Label L
DBAECCABDCABCDACBCDABCCADBADBCAACDBEABCBBCBBCBDCB C) Label M
BCDBCBACDCDDBCBCDDACDBECBDAAABCDA D) Label N
E) Label O
FTFTFTTFTTFTFTTTFFTTTFTFTF 4) The small intestine is indicated by ________.
A) Label H
DCADBCFJEKGIHMORPLNQ B) Label J
C) Label D
D)Label F
E) Label G A) Label K 19) The two intrinsic nerve plexuses serving
5) The liver is indicated by ________. B) Label L the alimentary canal are the ________.
A) Label F C) Label M A) solar; sympathetic
B) Label D D) Label O B) submucosa; myenteric
C) Label E E) Label G C) autonomic; somatic
D) Label G 13) The appendix is indicated by ________. D) mucosa; submucosa
E) Label L A) Label I 20) The ________ sphincter, or valve,
6) The tongue is indicated by ________. B) Label F controls food movement from the stomach
A) Label F C) Label D into the small intestine.
B) Label D D) Label G A) ileocecal
C) Label B E) Label H B) cardioesophageal
D) Label A 14) The pancreas is indicated by ________. C) pyloric
E) Label C A) Label I D) anal
7) The stomach is indicated by ________. B) Label E 21) Large wrinkle-like folds in the stomach
A) Label K C) Label G lining, present when the stomach is empty,
B) Label M D) Label M that allow for expansion when the stomach
C) Label L E) Label L is filling are called ________.
D) Label O 15) The gallbladder is indicated by A) villi
E) Label N ________. B) haustra
8) The esophagus is indicated by ________. A) Label C C) microvilli
A) Label C B) Label E D) rugae
B) Label D C) Label D 22) Intrinsic factor, produced by cells in the
C) Label E D) Label F stomach, is necessary for the absorption of
D) Label A E) Label I vitamin ________ in the small intestine.
E) Label G 16) The process of physically and A) B9
9) The rectum is indicated by ________. chemically breaking food particles down is B) B3
A) Label O referred to as ________. C) B6
B) Label N A) digestion D) B12.
C) Label K B) defecation 23) The three subdivisions of the small
D) Label I C) ingestion intestine are ________.
E) Label J D) absorption A) cecum, colon, rectum
10) The spleen is indicated by ________. 17) The ________ runs from the pharynx B) duodenum, jejunum, ileum
A) Label D through the diaphragm to the stomach. C) cardiac, body, pylorus
B) Label E A) trachea D) ileum, cecum, rectum
C) Label K B) esophagus 24) The fingerlike projections of the small
D) Label G C) larynx intestine increase the surface area and are
E) Label F D) small intestine known as ________.
11) The pharynx is indicated by ________. 18) The innermost layer of the alimentary A) haustra
A) Label N canal is referred to as the ________. B) cilia
B) Label F A) serosa C) villi
C) Label K B) submucosa D) rugae
D) Label M C) mucosa 25) Bile is formed by the ________.
E) Label L D) muscularis externa A) spleen
12) The anus is indicated by ________. B) liver
DIGESTIVE SYSTEM
C) gallbladder 32) The active, voluntary process of placing 38) Hydrochloric acid is necessary in the
D) pancreas food in one's mouth is ________. stomach for the conversion of pepsinogen
26) Deep folds of both the mucosa and A) defecation into its active protein-digesting form called
submucosa in the small intestine that B) ingestion ________.
increase surface are known as ________. C) mastication A) pepsin
A) circular folds (plicae circulares) D) deglutition B) rennin
B) microvilli 33) When digestion is not occurring in the C) amylase
C) haustra small intestine, bile is stored in the D) peptidase
D) villi ________. 39) The hormones secretin and
27) Cells abundant within the large intestine A) liver cholecystokinin target the pancreas,
that produce large amounts of lubricating B) gallbladder ________, and ________ to release
mucus to aid in the passage of feces to the C) pancreas pancreatic juice and bile into the small
end of the digestive tract are called D) spleen intestine for digestion.
________. 34) The process of eliminating indigestible A) gallbladder, stomach
A) parietal cells residues from the GI tract is called B) liver, spleen
B) chief cells ________. C) stomach, spleen
C) goblet cells A) deglutition D) gallbladder, liver
D) enteroendocrine cells B) segmentation 40) When feces are forced into the rectum
28) The process of chewing is known as C) mastication by mass movements and the wall of the
________. D) defecation rectum becomes stretched, the ________
A) deglutition 35) Two hormones that promote the release reflex is initiated.
B) segmentation of bile and pancreatic juice into the small A) defecation
C) peristalsis intestine are ________. B) sucking
D) mastication A) secretin; cholecystokinin (CCK) C) enterogastric
29) The number of baby teeth a child has is B) gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP); D) rooting
________. histamine 41) The energy value of foods is measured
A) 12 C) somatostatin; secretin in units called ________.
B) 20 D) gastrin; histamine A) BMI
C) 28 36) The hormone responsible for promoting B) Hertz
D) 32 the release of pepsinogens, mucus, and C) kilocalories (kcal) or Calories
30) The portion of the tooth embedded in the hydrochloric acid in the stomach is called D) Joules
jawbone is the ________. ________. 42) Sugars and starches are types of organic
A) neck A) insulin compounds known as ________.
B) enamel B) cholecystokinin (CCK) A) nucleic acids
C) crown C) gastrin B) lipids
D) root D) secretin C) proteins
31) The enzyme produced by the salivary 37) The ________ reflex inhibits the D) carbohydrates
glands used in the breakdown of starches is stomach's activities and slows the emptying 43) ________ refers to all chemical
salivary ________. of the stomach. reactions necessary to maintain life.
A) chymotrypsin A) rooting A) Digestion
B) nuclease B) enterogastric B) Metabolism
C) amylase C) sucking C) Homeostasis
D) lipase D) defecation D) Nutrition
DIGESTIVE SYSTEM
44) The major fuel for making ATP in most B) homeostasis 4) The fold of mucous membrane that
cells of the body is a type of carbohydrate C) basal metabolic rate (BMR) secures the tongue to the floor of the mouth
known as ________. D) body mass index (BMI) and limits its
A) cellulose 50) The reflex that helps babies hold onto a posterior movements is called the ________.
B) glucose breast (or bottle) and swallow is the A) lingual frenulum
C) starch ________ reflex. B) uvula
D) saturated fat A) flexor C) submandibular salivary gland
45) The three main metabolic pathways B) rooting D) periodontal membrane
involved in cellular respiration are C) enterogastric E) vestibule
________. D) sucking 5) Which one of the following is continuous
A) gluconeogenesis, glycolysis, 14.2 Multiple Choice Part II Questions with the esophagus?
glycogenolysis 1) The area in the mouth contained by the A) nasopharynx
B) anaerobic, aerobic, and teeth is known as ________. B) oropharynx
fermentation A) vestibule C) linguopharynx
C) glycolysis, Krebs cycle, and B) uvula D) laryngopharynx
electron transport chain C) labia E) esophagopharynx
D) lactic acid fermentation, alcohol D) oral cavity proper 6) Which of the following is the outermost
fermentation, glycolysis E) lingual frenulum layer of the GI tract that lines the
46) Fat oxidation products can acidify the 2) Which one of the following represents the abdominopelvic cavity?
blood, a condition known as ________. correct order through which food passes in A) mucosa
A) cirrhosis the alimentary canal? B) submucosa
B) alkalosis A) mouth, pharynx, esophagus, C) visceral peritoneum
C) acidosis or ketoacidosis stomach, large intestine, small D) muscularis externa
D) hepatitis intestine E) parietal peritoneum
47) The process of making glucose from B) mouth, esophagus, pharynx, 7) The submucosal and myenteric nerve
non-carbohydrate sources, such as fats and stomach, small intestine, large plexuses that help regulate the mobility and
proteins, is known as ________. intestine secretory activity of the GI tract organs are
A) glycogenolysis C) pharynx, mouth, esophagus, both part of the ________.
B) gluconeogenesis stomach, large intestine, small A) somatic nervous system
C) glycolysis intestine B) autonomic nervous system
D) glycogenesis D) mouth, pharynx, esophagus, C) sympathetic nervous system
48) The lipoprotein that transports stomach, small intestine, large D) fight-or-flight mechanism
cholesterol and other lipids to body cells is intestine E) central nervous system
called ________. E) mouth, pharynx, esophagus, 8) What sphincter regulates the passage of
A) high-density lipoprotein or HDL small intestine, stomach, large food from the esophagus into the stomach?
B) low-density lipoprotein or LDL intestine A) internal anal sphincter
C) vitamin D 3) What protects the anterior opening of the B) external anal sphincter
D) cortisol mouth? C) ileocecal sphincter
49) The total amount of kilocalories the A) uvula D) pyloric sphincter
body must consume to fuel all ongoing B) nares E) cardioesophageal sphincter
activities, which increases dramatically C) labia 9) What do the enteroendocrine cells of the
during physical exertion, is called the D) teeth stomach produce?
________. E) salivary glands A) pepsin
A) total metabolic rate (TMR) B) hydrochloric acid
DIGESTIVE SYSTEM
C) intrinsic factor 15) One of the main functions of the small 20) Amylase is an enzyme that is only able
D) gastrin intestine is ________. to digest ________.
E) gastric juice A) absorption of nutrients A) protein
10) Hydrochloric acid is necessary in the B) absorption of water B) starch
stomach for the conversion of pepsinogen to C) waste secretion C) fat
________. D) vitamin conversion D) vitamins
A) acid E) mineral secretion E) minerals
B) rennin 16) Which one of the following is NOT a 21) The number of permanent teeth within a
C) pepsin modification (which is designed to increase full set of adult teeth is ________.
D) rugae surface area for absorption within the small A) 20
E) gastrin intestine? B) 24
11) What lymphatic tissue in the submucosa A) microvilli C) 28
of the small intestine prevents bacteria from B) villi D) 32
entering the blood? C) Peyer's patches E) 36
A) Peyer's patches D) circular folds 22) The anterior chisel-shaped teeth that are
B) rugae E) plicae circulares adapted for cutting are called ________.
C) appendix 17) Which one of the following is NOT a A) incisors
D) circular folds (plicae circulares) subdivision of the large intestine? B) canines
E) lacteals A) cecum C) premolars
12) The small intestine extends from the B) appendix D) molars
________. C) duodenum E) wisdom teeth
A) cardio esophageal sphincter to D) colon 23) Which accessory digestive organ is
the pyloric sphincter (valve) E) rectum situated retroperitoneal?
B) pyloric sphincter (valve) to the 18) The organ responsible for drying out A) liver
ileocecal valve indigestible food residue through water B) gallbladder
C) ileocecal valve to the appendix absorption and the elimination of feces is the C) salivary glands
D) appendix to the sigmoid colon ________. D) pancreas
E) cardio esophageal sphincter to A) stomach E) spleen
ileocecal valve B) large intestine 24) What organ stores bile when food
13) What organs release secretions into the C) small intestine digestion is not occurring?
duodenum of the small intestine? D) pancreas A) liver
A) pancreas and spleen E) liver B) pancreas
B) appendix and Peyer's patches 19) What is the purpose of mastication? C) gallbladder
C) liver and pancreas A) to eliminate undigested food D) spleen
D) cecum and appendix wastes from the body E) the body has no capacity for bile
E) spleen and liver B) to propel food from one storage
14) Enzymes and bile are carried by the digestive organ to the next 25) Which tube brings bile directly back into
pancreatic duct and bile duct into the C) to transport nutrients into the the gallbladder for storage?
________. blood and lymph A) common bile duct
A) duodenum D) to chew, grind and tear food into B) main pancreatic duct
B) jejunum smaller pieces while in the mouth C) cystic duct
C) ileocecal valve E) to move food back and forth D) accessory pancreatic duct
D) ileum along the walls of the small E) common hepatic duct
E) large intestine intestine
DIGESTIVE SYSTEM
26) The sequence of steps by which large This voluntary phase of swallowing is E) duodenum
food molecules are broken down into their known as ________. 37) Which digestive system organ is the
respective building blocks by catalytic A) ingestion target of gastrin?
enzymes is called ________. B) buccal phase of deglutition A) esophagus
A) ingestion C) mastication B) pancreas
B) propulsion D) pharyngeal-esophageal phase of C) stomach
C) mechanical breakdown deglutition D) small intestine
D) digestion E) segmentation E) liver
E) absorption 32) Digestion is primarily controlled by the 38) Pepsin is necessary for the stomach to
27) The propulsive process that moves food ________. break down ________.
from one organ to the next is called A) sympathetic division of the A) carbohydrates
________. autonomic nervous system B) proteins
A) ingestion B) medulla oblongata C) saturated fats
B) peristalsis C) somatic nervous system D) polysaccharides
C) digestion D) pons E) nucleic acids
D) mastication E) parasympathetic division of the 39) What does the enterogastric reflex
E) absorption autonomic nervous system accomplish?
28) The process by which food within the 33) Which of the following processes occurs A) increases output of enzyme-rich
small intestine is mixed with digestive juices last? pancreatic juice
by backward and forward movement across A) ingestion B) stimulates the release of gastric
the internal wall of the organ is called B) propulsion juices
________. C) defecation C) slows the emptying of the
A) peristalsis D) mastication stomach contents
B) segmentation E) segmentation D) stimulates gallbladder to
C) defecation 34) Which of the following does NOT contract and expel bile
D) digestion contribute to the digestion of proteins? E) stimulates emptying of the
E) absorption A) trypsin stomach contents
29) We do NOT have the enzymes to digest B) pepsin 40) The enzyme responsible for converting
________. C) chymotrypsin milk protein in an infant's stomach to a
A) cellulose D) carboxypeptidase substance that looks like sour milk is
B) sucrose E) amylase ________.
C) lactose 35) The process of swallowing is also A) pepsin
D) maltose known as ________. B) salivary amylase
E) starch A) mastication C) pancreatic amylase
30) Proteins are digested to their building B) segmentation D) bile
blocks which are called ________. C) deglutition E) rennin
A) peptides D) defecation 41) The journey of chyme through the small
B) amino acids E) absorption intestine takes ________.
C) polypeptides 36) Which one of the following alimentary A) 2-4 hours
D) fatty acids segments has NO digestive function? B) 3-6 hours
E) glycerol A) cardial region of the stomach C) 6-8 hours
31) After chewing food, you consciously B) pyloric region of the stomach D) 8-10 hours
decide to push the bolus to the back of your C) mouth E) 10-12 hours
mouth into your pharynx with your tongue. D) esophagus
DIGESTIVE SYSTEM
42) Enzyme-rich pancreatic juice contains 47) The process by which larger molecules C) Bowman's capsule
all the following except ________. or structures are built up from smaller ones D) electron transport chain
A) amylase is called ________. E) glycogenesis
B) trypsin A) anabolism 53) Which one of the following is NOT true
C) nuclease B) catabolism of cholesterol?
D) pepsin C) metabolism A) Cholesterol provides energy fuel
E) lipase D) carbolysis for muscle contraction.
43) Which of the following influence the E) glycolysis B) Cholesterol serves as the
release of pancreatic juice and bile? 48) Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is structural basis of steroid
A) rennin and cholecystokinin produced in greatest quantity during hormones.
(CCK) ________. C) Cholesterol serves as the
B) gastrin and rennin A) glycolysis structural basis of vitamin D.
C) cholecystokinin (CCK) and B) the Krebs cycle D) Cholesterol is a major building
gastrin C) protein metabolism block of plasma membranes.
D) secretin and gastrin D) the electron transport chain E) Only about 15 percent of
E) cholecystokinin (CCK) and E) fat metabolism cholesterol comes from the diet.
secretin 49) Which of the following chemical 54) Which condition prevents pancreatic
44) Haustral contractions ________. reactions performed by the liver creates juices from reaching the small intestine to
A) are powerful contractile waves sugars from non-carbohydrate sources such break down fats and fat-soluble vitamins?
B) propel food residue from the as fats and proteins? A) cystic fibrosis
small intestine into the large A) anaerobic respiration B) appendicitis
intestine B) glycogenolysis C) gastroenteritis
C) move food residue from one C) glycogenesis D) phenylketonuria
haustrum to the next haustrum D) gluconeogenesis E) tracheoesophageal fistula
within the large intestine E) glycolysis 55) The reflex that helps an infant hold on to
D) occur three to four times daily 50) Ketoacidosis results from the incomplete the nipple and swallow is called the
E) propel food from the stomach breakdown of ________. ________.
into the small intestine A) fats A) rooting reflex
45) The energy value of foods commonly B) proteins B) nursing reflex
counted by dieters is measured in units C) glycogen C) sucking reflex
called________. D) nucleic acids D) peristaltic reflex
A) ATP E) cholesterol E) fetal reflex
B) decibels 51) Which one of the following is NOT a
C) kilocalories (kcal) or Calories main role of the liver? 14.3 True/False Questions
D) coenzymes A) detoxify drugs and alcohol
E) carb units B) degrade hormones 1) The tongue is anchored to the floor of the
46) Which of these foods would be the most C) make cholesterol mouth by the lingual frenulum.
mineral-rich? D) process nutrients during 2) The mucosa is the outermost lining of the
A) cookies digestion alimentary canal organs from the esophagus
B) cereal E) add ammonia to the blood to the large intestine.
C) pasta 52) Nutrients detour through the liver via the 3) Muscularis externa typically contains an
D) milk ________. inner circular layer and an outer longitudinal
E) cake A) circle of Willis layer.
B) hepatic portal circulation
DIGESTIVE SYSTEM
4) The pylorus region of the stomach is 21) The pharynx and esophagus have no 2. The submucosa is found just beneath the
continuous with the small intestine through digestive roles. mucosa layer. It contains blood vessels,
the pyloric sphincter (valve). 22) The presence of food or a rising pH nerve endings, lymph nodules, and
5) The lacy apron of the peritoneum that stimulates the release of gastrin from the lymphatic vessels.
covers the abdominal organs is called the esophagus. 3. The muscular externis is the next layer,
lesser momentum. 23) Absence of either bile or pancreatic which is typically made up of a circular and
6) Pepsinogens are produced by parietal juice indicates that no fat digestion or a longitudinal layer of smooth muscle.
cells in the stomach. absorption is occurring. This can lead to 4. The outermost layer is the serosa, which
7) The three subdivisions of the small blood-clotting problems because the liver consists of two single layers of cells. The
intestine are duodenum, jejunum, and ileum. needs vitamin K to make prothrombin. innermost serosa is the visceral peritoneum
8) The villi, microvilli, and circular folds of 24) Secretin and cholecystokinin influence while the outermost layer is the parietal
the large intestine all increase the surface the release of both pancreatic juice and bile. peritoneum. Between these layers is serous
area. 25) Bacteria in the small intestine make fluid.
9) The ascending colon travels down the left some vitamins, such as some B and K. 2) Predict the effect on digestion if the pancreas is
side of the abdominal cavity, and then it 26) Mass movements are slow-moving unable to make and release pancreatic juices.
enters the contractile waves that move over large areas Answer:
pelvis where it becomes the sigmoid colon. of the colon Pancreatic juices are rich in both enzymes and
10) Goblet cells in the mucosa of the large three or four times each day. bicarbonate. Without the enzyme-rich pancreatic
intestine produce mucus to lubricate the 27) A nutrient may be a carbohydrate, lipid, juice, starch digestion will be incomplete, about half
passage of feces. protein, vitamin, mineral or water. of protein digestion will not occur, all of fat digestion
11) Haustra are pocket-like sacs of the small 28) The eight essential amino acids are ones will cease, and nucleic acid digestion will not occur.
intestine. the body cannot make and must be Bicarbonate-rich pancreatic juice helps neutralize the
12) The segment of the colon to which the consumed through our diet. acidic chyme entering the small intestine from the
appendix is attached is the cecum. 29) Fat is used as the major fuel for making stomach. Without the alkaline environment in the
13) The anal canal has a voluntary sphincter ATP during cellular respiration in most body small intestine, enzymatic activity would not occur.
formed by smooth muscle only. cells. 3) Discuss why an acidic pH is necessary for the
14) Teeth function in mastication. 30) Optimal health of tissues is achieved stomach's activities to be accomplished.
15) The enamel found on teeth is heavily when HDL and LDL are present in equal Answer:
mineralized with calcium salts and amounts within the bloodstream. Hydrochloric acid makes the stomach
comprises the hardest substance within the 31) The body's thermostat, which constantly contents acidic. Acid is necessary for the
entire body. regulates body temperature, is located within activation of pepsinogen into pepsin. Pepsin
16) Wisdom teeth typically emerge later in the hypothalamus. is the active protein-digesting enzyme that
life around age 30-40. 32) Watery stools that result when food begins protein digestion in the stomach.
17) Pancreatic enzymes are released into the residue is rushed through the large intestine Without the acidic environment, about half
stomach to break down all categories of before sufficient water has been reabsorbed, of the process of protein digestion would not
digestible foods. causing dehydration and electrolyte be able to occur.
18) Bile is produced by the liver but stored imbalance, is called constipation. 4) Explain the role of the hormones cholecystokinin
in the gallbladder. and secretin in regulating the release of bile and
19) Digestive activities are mostly 14.5 Essay Questions pancreatic juices.
controlled by reflexes of the Answer:
parasympathetic nervous system. 1) Describe the four layers of the GI tract. When chyme enters the small intestine, it
20) The involuntary phase of swallowing is Answer: stimulates the mucosa cells to produce the
called the buccal phase. 1. Mucosa is the moist innermost layer; it hormones cholecystokinin and secretin.
lines the cavity of the organ. These hormones travel in the bloodstream to
DIGESTIVE SYSTEM
their target organs: the pancreas, liver, and gallbladder. The pancreas 14.4 Matching Questions
responds to cholecystokinin by releasing enzyme-rich pancreatic juice and Match the following nutrients with their associated digestive enzymes:
secretin causes the secretion of bicarbonate-rich pancreatic juice. The liver A. Pepsin • Protein
responds to secretin by releasing bile while cholecystokinin stimulates the B. Nuclease • Lactose
gallbladder to release stored bile. C. Lipase • Starch
5) What is the difference between the basal metabolic rate (BMR) and the total D. Lactase • Fat
metabolic rate (TMR)? Which one should dieters focus on for weight loss? E. Amylase • Nucleic Acids
Answer: F. Stomach • Organ where carbohydrate absorption occurs
Basal metabolic rate (BMR) is the amount of heat produced by the body at G. Esophagus • Organ where starch digestion begins
rest based on the amount of energy, or kilocalories, needed to operate per
H. Small intestine • Tube through which food is propelled to the stomach but
hour. Essential life operations include breathing, heartbeat, kidney
lacks a digestive role
functions, etc. Total metabolic rate (TMR) is the total amount of
I. Large intestine • Organ where protein digestion begins
kilocalories needed for the body to perform all of the ongoing activities.
Muscular activity increases TMR. Dieters should focus on the TMR and
J. Mouth • Organ where pancreatic enzymes and bile enter the
reduce the kilocalorie intake by 20 percent or more to induce weight loss. alimentary canal
6) Discuss the mechanisms by which body cells generate adenosine triphosphate • Organ where bacteria synthesize vitamin K
(ATP). • Organ where defecation reflex is initiated
Answer: K. Mechanical • Placement of food into the mouth
Cellular respiration includes all of the oxygen-dependent processes by breakdown
which energy from the breakdown of glucose is captured within chemical L. Propulsion • Peristalsis moves food from one organ to the next
bonds which unite adenosine diphosphate (ADP) and inorganic phosphate M. Defection • Transport of food products from the lumen of the GI tract
into the body's preferred metabolic fuel, adenosine triphosphate (ATP). One to the blood or lymph
process, glycolysis, energizes each glucose molecule so that it can be split N. Ingestion • Physically fragmenting food particles into smaller particles
into two pyruvic acid molecules to yield ATP. The Krebs cycle, located O. Absorption • Elimination of indigestible food residues from the GI tract
within the mitochondria, produces all the carbon dioxide and water that as feces
results during cellular respiration, and it yields a small amount of ATP as P. Digestion • Enzymatic reactions that hydrolyze food particles into
well. The electron transport chain, also located within the mitochondria, is their building blocks
the primary producer of ATP. Hydrogen atoms removed during glycolysis
and the Krebs cycle are delivered to the protein carriers of the electron
transport chain, which form part of the mitochondrial cristae membranes.
There the hydrogen atoms are split into their positive ions and negative
electrons. The electrons then travel from carrier to carrier in a series of steps
that enable phosphate to attach to ADP to form ATP.
7) Describe how these chemical reactions assist with blood sugar homeostasis: ANSWER KEY:
gluconeogenesis, glycogenolysis, and glycogenesis.
Answer: EAEDBCBADCAEEEBABCBCDDBCBACDBDCBBDACBADACDBBCCBBAD
Gluconeogenesis is a reaction in which the liver uses non-carbohydrates DDCADEBEDCABCAACCBDBDADCCDBBABBECECDCBCEBDECCDADDA
sources (such as fats and proteins) to produce glucose. Glycogenolysis is a EBAAC
reaction in which the liver breaks down stored glycogen and turns it into
glucose. Both of these reactions response to hormones that are meant to TFTTFFTFFTFTFTTFFTTFTFTTFTTTFFTF
raise blood sugar levels. Glycogenesis is a reaction in which the liver turns
excess glucose in the blood into a large polysaccharide called glycogen. ADECBHJGFHIINLOKMP
This type of reaction removes glucose from the blood and lowers blood
sugar levels.
DIGESTIVE SYSTEM
Chapter 15 The Urinary System Answer: A 6) The peritubular capillaries are indicated
15.1 Multiple Choice Part I Questions Page Ref: 514 by ________.
Bloom's: 1) Knowledge A) Label N
4) A calyx is indicated by ________. B) Label M
A) Label G C) Label O
B) Label F D) Label L
C) Label A E) Label K
D) Label B Answer: A
E) Label C Page Ref: 515
Answer: C Bloom's: 1) Knowledge
Page Ref: 514 7) The glomerular capsule (Bowman's
Bloom's: 1) Knowledge capsule) is indicated by ________.
A) Label G
B) Label F
C) Label A
D) Label I
E) Label C
Answer: C
Page Ref: 515
Bloom's: 1) Knowledge
Using Figure 15.1, identify the following: 8) The proximal convoluted tubule is
1) The ureter is indicated by ________. indicated by ________.
A) Label E A) Label M
B) Label A B) Label N
C) Label G C) Label O
D) Label F D) Label I
E) Label B E) Label F
2) The renal cortex is indicated by Answer: A
________. Page Ref: 515
A) Label F Bloom's: 1) Knowledge
B) Label G 9) The efferent arteriole is indicated by
C) Label D ________.
D) Label E A) Label D
E) Label A B) Label C
Answer: B C) Label L
Page Ref: 514 Using Figure 15.2, identify the following: D) Label K
Bloom's: 1) Knowledge 5) The nephron loop, or loop of Henle, is E) Label B
3) The renal pelvis is indicated by indicated by ________. 10) The cortical radiate artery is indicated
________. A) Label I by ________.
A) Label E B) Label J A) Label E
B) Label A C) Label K B) Label A
C) Label G D) Label M C) Label I
D) Label F E) Label O D) Label M
E) Label B E) Label D
URINARY SYSTEM
Answer: E A) hepatic artery Page Ref: 518
Page Ref: 515 B) renal artery Bloom's: 1) Knowledge
Bloom's: 1) Knowledge C) renal vein 20) Filtrate contains everything in blood
11) The glomerulus is indicated by D) glomerulus plasma except for ________.
________. Answer: B A) water
A) Label F Page Ref: 513 B) blood proteins
B) Label I Bloom's: 1) Knowledge C) solutes
C) Label K 16) The functional unit of the kidney that D) electrolytes
D) Label O filters blood and forms urine is the Answer: B
E) Label M ________. Page Ref: 517
Answer: D A) glomerulus Bloom's: 1) Knowledge
Page Ref: 515 B) nephron 21) Specific gravity is the term used to
Bloom's: 1) Knowledge C) renal pyramid compare how much heavier urine is than
12) The medial indentation where the ureter, D) renal pelvis ________.
blood vessels, and nerves are connected to Answer: B A) distilled water
the Page Ref: 513 B) milk
kidney is called the ________. Bloom's: 1) Knowledge C) saliva
A) renal capsule 17) The blood vessel directly feeding the D) blood
B) renal column glomerulus with blood from the cortical Answer: A
C) renal pyramid radiate artery Page Ref: 519
D) renal hilum is the ________. Bloom's: 1) Knowledge
Answer: D A) peritubular capillary 22) The tube connecting each kidney to the
Page Ref: 513 B) efferent arteriole urinary bladder is the ________.
Bloom's: 1) Knowledge C) renal vein A) urethra
13) There are three regions of the kidney; D) afferent arteriole B) calyx
the outermost region is known as the Answer: D C) ureter
________. Page Ref: 514, 515 D) ductus (vas) deferens
A) renal medulla Bloom's: 1) Knowledge Answer: C
B) renal cortex 18) Filtrate formed during glomerular Page Ref: 520
C) renal pelvis filtration is captured by the ________. Bloom's: 1) Knowledge
D) renal hilum A) renal pyramid 23) The smooth triangular region of the
14) Renal (medullary) pyramids are B) renal hilum urinary bladder base that is outlined by the
separated by extensions of cortex-like tissue C) glomerular (Bowman's) capsule openings of
called the D) renal column the two ureters and the urethra is called the
________. 19) The process that removes ions such as ________.
A) renal columns potassium and hydrogen from the blood and A) trigone
B) renal pelvis places B) calyx
C) renal hilum them into the nephron for removal from the C) pelvis
D) renal capsule body as urine is known as ________. D) hilum
Answer: A A) glomerular filtration 24) Inflammation of the urethra is called
Page Ref: 513 B) tubular reabsorption ________.
Bloom's: 1) Knowledge C) tubular secretion A) pyelonephritis
15) The blood vessel carrying blood from D) osmosis B) urethritis
the aorta into the kidney is the ________. Answer: C C) cystitis
URINARY SYSTEM
D) glomerulonephritis B) the thirst mechanism A) acidosis
Answer: B C) the renin-angiotensin mechanism B) normal
Page Ref: 523 D) glomerular filtration C) alkalosis
Bloom's: 1) Knowledge Answer: B D) physiological acidosis
25) The involuntary sphincter that keeps the Page Ref: 526 34) A strong acid will dissociate and liberate
urethra closed when urine is not being Bloom's: 1) Knowledge more ________ ions in water than a weak
passed is 30) Highly sensitive cells within the acid.
called the ________. hypothalamus that react to changes in blood A) bicarbonate
A) external urethral sphincter composition B) hydrogen
B) internal anal sphincter and cause the release of antidiuretic C) sodium
C) internal urethral sphincter hormone (ADH) when appropriate are called D) potassium
D) ileocecal sphincter ________. Answer: B
Answer: C A) thermoreceptors Page Ref: 530
Page Ref: 523 B) baroreceptors Bloom's: 1) Knowledge
Bloom's: 1) Knowledge C) mechanoreceptors 35) The kidneys can help maintain a rising
26) The inability to voluntarily control the D) osmoreceptors blood pH by excreting ________ ions and
external urethral sphincter is known as Answer: D reabsorbing ________ ions by the tubule
________. Page Ref: 526 cells.
A) incontinence Bloom's: 1) Knowledge A) bicarbonate; hydrogen
B) urinary retention 31) The abnormal condition that results from B) carbon dioxide; oxygen
C) urgency the lack of ADH release, causing huge C) ammonia; carbonic acid
D) hyperplasia amounts of D) hydrogen; bicarbonate
Answer: A very dilute urine to be voided, is called Answer: A
Page Ref: 524 ________. Page Ref: 531
Bloom's: 1) Knowledge A) diabetes insipidus Bloom's: 1) Knowledge
27) The process of emptying the urinary B) glomerulonephritis 36) The need to urinate frequently at night,
bladder is known as voiding or ________. C) diabetes mellitus which plagues over 50% of the elderly, is
A) urgency D) urethritis called
B) incontinence Answer: A ________.
C) micturition Page Ref: 527 A) nocturia
D) nocturia Bloom's: 1) Knowledge B) incontinence
Answer: C 32) The hormone released by the posterior C) urgency
Page Ref: 523 pituitary to prevent excessive water loss in D) cystitis
Bloom's: 1) Knowledge the urine is Answer: A
28) About two-thirds of body fluid is found ________. Page Ref: 533
within living cells; this fluid is called the A) aldosterone Bloom's: 1) Knowledge
________. B) cortisol 37) Untreated streptococcal infections in
A) lymph C) antidiuretic hormone (ADH) childhood that can lead to the kidney
B) plasma D) insulin infection
C) extracellular fluid or ECF Answer: C characterized by antigen-antibody
D) intracellular fluid or ICF Page Ref: 526 complexes clogging the glomerular filters is
29) The driving force for water intake is Bloom's: 1) Knowledge known as
________. 33) Arterial blood pH above 7.45 is ________.
A) metabolism considered to be ________. A) cystitis
URINARY SYSTEM
B) hypospadias 5) The triangular regions of the kidneys that B) distal convoluted tubule,
C) urethritis are striped in appearance and separated by nephron loop (loop of Henle),
D) glomerulonephritis the renal columns are the ________. proximal convoluted tubule
38) A feeling that it is necessary to void, A) renal cortex C) nephron loop (loop of Henle),
which is experienced more regularly in the B) renal fascia proximal convoluted tubule, distal
elderly, is known as ________. C) renal (medullary) pyramids convoluted tubule
A) urgency D) renal pelvis D) proximal convoluted tubule,
B) nocturia E) calyces nephron loop (loop of Henle), distal
C) frequency 6) As venous blood is drained from the convoluted tubule
D) urethritis kidney, which path does it follow ________. E) distal convoluted tubule,
A) cortical radiate veins, arcuate proximal convoluted tubule,
15.2 Multiple Choice Part II Questions veins, interlobar veins, renal vein nephron loop (loop of Henle)
B) renal vein, interlobar veins, 10) The portion of the renal tubule closest to
1) Which one of the following is NOT one segmental veins, arcuate veins the glomerulus is the ________.
of the functions of the kidneys? C) arcuate veins, cortical radiate A) collecting duct
A) manufacture urine veins, interlobar veins, renal vein B) proximal convoluted tubule
B) convert vitamin D from its D) renal vein, segmental veins, (PCT)
inactive to its active form interlobar veins, arcuate veins, C) glomerular (Bowman's) capsule
C) dispose of metabolic waste cortical radiate veins D) distal convoluted tubule (DCT)
products E) cortical radiate veins, arcuate E) nephron loop (loop of Henle)
D) produce hormones that assist in veins, interlobar veins, segmental 11) Most nephrons are located within the
digestion veins, renal vein renal ________.
E) regulate blood volume 7) Items in the blood that are NOT filtered A) pelvis
2) Which organ filters blood, regulates will travel from the glomerulus to the B) calyces
blood volume and chemical makeup? ________. C) medulla
A) kidney A) glomerular (Bowman's) capsule D) pyramids
B) ureter B) afferent arteriole E) cortex
C) liver C) efferent arteriole 12) The percentage of filtrate eventually
D) urinary bladder D) proximal convoluted tubule reabsorbed into the bloodstream is closest to
E) urethra E) nephron loop (loop of Henle) ________.
3) Which one of the following terms 8) The capillary bed surrounding the renal A) 10%
describes the location of the kidneys? tubule is the ________. B) 25%
A) suprarenal A) afferent arteriole C) 50%
B) retroperineal B) segmental arteries D) 80%
C) adrenal C) peritubular capillaries E) 99%
D) intraperitoneal D) cortical radiate arteries 13) Of the capillary beds associated with
E) retroperitoneal E) glomerular capillaries each nephron, the one that is both fed and
4) What region of the kidney is deep to the 9) Starting from the glomerular capsule, the drained by arterioles is the ________.
renal cortex? correct order of the renal tubule regions is A) peritubular capillaries
A) renal fascia ________. B) pyramidal capillaries
B) renal medulla A) proximal convoluted tubule, C) glomerulus
C) renal column distal convoluted tubule, nephron D) Henle capillaries
D) calyx loop (loop of Henle) E) Bowman's capillaries
E) renal hilum
URINARY SYSTEM
14) Filtrate typically does NOT contain E) creatinine A) ureter
________. 20) Determine the possible cause of bile B) trigone
A) water pigments in the urine ________. C) prostate gland
B) blood proteins A) diabetes mellitus D) urethra
C) glucose B) kidney infection E) collecting duct
D) ions C) hypertension 26) The average adult urinary bladder is
E) amino acids D) kidney stones moderately full with ________ of urine
15) The nonselective, passive process E) liver disease within it.
performed by the glomerulus that forms 21) Dilute urine would have a specific A) 100 mL
blood plasma without blood proteins is gravity closest to ________. B) 500 mL
called ________. A) 0.005 C) 1 liter
A) micturition B) 1.001 D) 2 liters
B) tubular secretion C) 1.010 E) 1 gallon
C) glomerular filtration D) 1.020 27) The voluntarily controlled sphincter
D) tubular reabsorption E) 1.030 fashioned by skeletal muscle at the point
E) glomerular reabsorption 22) Renal calculi can lead to ________. where the urethra passes through the pelvic
16) Nitrogenous waste products, such as A) hematuria floor is called the ________.
urea and uric acid, are ________. B) diabetes mellitus A) internal urethral sphincter
A) filtered and usually reabsorbed C) bilirubinuria B) internal anal sphincter
B) filtered but poorly reabsorbed D) ketonuria C) external urethral sphincter
C) not filtered E) hepatitis D) trigone
D) not filtered but often reabsorbed 23) Why is the trigone of the urinary bladder E) detrusor sphincter
E) only secreted clinically important? 28) The process of emptying the urinary
17) Which one of the following is NOT a A) The trigone is longer in males bladder is referred to as voiding or
substance typically reabsorbed by the than in females. ________.
tubules under normal healthy conditions? B) Infections tend to persist in the A) nocturia
A) glucose trigone. B) filtration
B) urea C) Females have a trigone but C) urethritis
C) amino acids males lack the trigone. D) incontinence
D) sodium D) The prostate gland is present in E) micturition
E) water males in the trigone. 29) In males, the urethra is part of both the
18) In a 24-hour period, a typical volume of E) Both sperm and urine pass urinary system and ________.
urine production is ________. through the trigone in males. A) endocrine system
A) 0.5 L 24) The urinary bladder is able to expand as B) digestive system
B) 0.9 L urine accumulates within it due to the C) immune system
C) 1.4 L presence of ________. D) respiratory system
D) 2.0 L A) simple squamous epithelium E) reproductive system
E) 3.4 L B) transitional epithelium 30) The micturition reflex forces urine into
19) Which one of the following substances C) stratified squamous epithelium the upper part of the ________.
is normally found in urine? D) pseudostratified epithelium A) urethra
A) blood proteins E) sphincters B) ureter
B) red blood cells 25) Urine is transported from the urinary C) urinary bladder
C) hemoglobin bladder to the outside of the body by the D) kidney
D) white blood cells ________. E) rectum
URINARY SYSTEM
31) In one 24-hour period, the kidneys of an 36) The main hormone that acts on the E) Angiotensin II causes blood
average-sized healthy adult filter kidneys to regulate sodium ion vessels to vasodilate.
approximately ________ through their concentration of the extracellullar fluid 41) The chemical buffer system that
glomeruli into the tubules. (ECF) is ________. includes carbonic acid and its salt, which
A) 10-15 liters of blood plasma A) ADH ties up the H+ released by strong acids, is
B) 50-75 liters of blood plasma B) renin called the ________.
C) 100-125 liters of blood plasma C) secretin A) phosphate buffer system
D) 150-180 liters of blood plasma D) aldosterone B) protein buffer system
E) 200-240 liters of blood plasma E) epinephrine C) ionic buffer system
32) Who has the highest percentage of water 37) Antidiuretic hormone prevents excessive D) bicarbonate buffer system
in the body? water loss by promoting water reabsorption E) carbonic buffer system
A) adult male in the ________. 42) Which of these chemicals dissociates
B) adult female A) glomerulus completely and liberates all the hydrogen
C) infant B) proximal convoluted tubule ions when Dissolved in water?
D) elderly female C) distal convoluted tubule A) strong acids
E) elderly male D) collecting duct B) weak acids
33) Which one of the following is NOT one E) urinary bladder C) neutral substances
of the major roles of the kidneys in normal 38) Aldosterone does NOT directly or D) weak bases
healthy adults? indirectly regulate ________. E) strong bases
A) excretion of nitrogen-containing A) sodium 43) Which system removes excess carbon
wastes B) chlorine dioxide from the blood?
B) maintenance of water balance of C) magnesium A) urinary system
the blood D) potassium B) respiratory system
C) maintenance of electrolyte E) glucose C) digestive system
balance of the blood 39) What stimulates the release of renin D) cardiovascular system
D) conversion of ammonia to from the juxtaglomerular (JG) apparatus? E) endocrine system
bicarbonate ion A) high blood pressure 44) When blood pH begins to rise, the
E) ensuring proper blood pH B) high blood sodium levels respiratory control centers in the brain are
34) Which of the following is the major C) low blood pressure ________.
stimulus for the thirst mechanism? D) low blood potassium levels A) accelerated
A) hunger E) high blood volume B) depressed
B) decreased urination 40) What role does angiotensin II play in C) not effected
C) increased osmolarity of blood restoring blood pressure to normal? D) shut off
plasma A) Angiotension II promotes E) controlled by the kidneys
D) defecation tubular reabsorption of sodium 45) How does the urinary system respond to
E) increased saliva production from the filtrate. blood that has become acidic?
35) Extracellular fluid is found everywhere B) Angiotensin II promotes tubular A) secrete more hydrogen ions only
in the body EXCEPT ________. reabsorption of both sodium and B) breathing rate increases
A) within living cells water from the filtrate. C) reabsorb more bicarbonate ions
B) blood plasma C) Angiotensin II causes blood only
C) interstitial fluid vessels to vasoconstrict. D) breathing rate decreases
D) cerebrospinal fluid D) Angiotensin II promotes tubular E) both secrete more hydrogen ions
E) humors of the eye and lymph reabsorption of water from the and reabsorb more bicarbonate ions
filtrate.
URINARY SYSTEM
46) The need to get up during the night to inflame the urinary tract and cause urethritis 14) The urethra, which carries urine exiting
urinate is called ________. and cystitis is ________. the urinary bladder by peristalsis, is
A) hypospadias A) streptococcus typically shorter in females than in males.
B) frequency B) staphylococcus 15) The involuntary internal urethral
C) nocturia C) Escherichia coli sphincter is composed of skeletal muscle.
D) urgency D) Mycobacterium tuberculosis 16) The fluid stored inside cells is referred
E) glomerulonephritis E) Clostridium botulinum to as extracellular fluid (ECF).
47) The degenerative condition in which 17) Excess blood plasma in the bloodstream
blisterlike sacs (cysts) containing urine form 15.3 True/False Questions initiates the thirst mechanism to restore fluid
on the kidneys and obstruct urine drainage is 1) The kidneys are situated in a balance.
called ________. retroperitoneal position and found between 18) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) causes
A) cystitis the T12 and L3 vertebrae. increased water loss through the urine.
B) dysuria 2) The structural and functional units of the 19) The most important trigger for
C) hypospadias kidney are the renal (medullary) pyramids. aldosterone release is the renin-angiotensin
D) epispadias 3) The lumen surfaces of the tubule cells mechanism,mediated by the renal tubules.
E) polycystic kidney within the proximal convoluted tubule are 20) Blood buffers are important in
48) Hypospadias is a condition of male covered with microvilli. maintaining blood pressure.
children that involves ________. 4) The region of the renal tubule closest to 21) The bicarbonate buffer system prevents
A) atrophied prostate the glomerular capsule is the distal changes in blood pH through the action of
B) opening of the urethra on the convoluted tubule. carbonic acid and its salt, sodium
ventral surface of the penis 5) The peritubular capillary bed arises from bicarbonate.
C) cysts on the kidneys the afferent arteriole. 22) When blood pH becomes too acidic, the
D) closing of the foreskin over the 6) Blood proteins and blood cells are too tubule cells of the kidneys excrete
end of the penis large to pass through the filtration bicarbonate ions and retain hydrogen ions.
E) inflammation of the glomerulus membrane and should not be found in 23) Sexually transmitted infections (STIs)
49) Childhood streptococcal infections that filtrate. are primarily infections of the reproductive
go untreated can lead to ________. 7) Tubular reabsorption begins in the tracts but may also cause urinary tract
A) renal calculi glomerulus. infections.
B) glomerulonephritis 8) Most reabsorption occurs in the proximal 24) Incontinence is often the final outcome
C) urethritis convoluted tubule of the nephron. of the urinary system during the aging
D) cystitis 9) Tubular secretion moves items from the process.
E) nocturia blood of the peritubular capillaries to the
50) Control of the voluntary urethral filtrate for elimination in the urine. 15.5 Essay Questions
sphincter in normal children is related to 10) A diet rich in proteins such as eggs, 1) Explain how tubular reabsorption and
________. cheese, and whole-wheat products produces tubular secretion are nearly opposite
A) intelligence urine with an alkaline pH. processes.
B) nervous system development 11) Urine has a specific gravity closest to Answer:
C) enzymatic regulation 1.001 when excessive fluids are consumed. Tubular reabsorption is the process
D) hormone regulation 12) Urine moves down the ureters into the by which the body reclaims
E) muscular development urinary bladder due to gravitational pull substances within the filtrate that it
51) From childhood through late middle age, alone. wants to keep. Most reabsorption is
one of the most common bacteria to infect 13) Urine may routinely contain sodium, an active process using membrane
and potassium, proteins, and red blood cells. carriers.
URINARY SYSTEM
Substances that are typically reabsorbed include amino acids, pressure within the afferent arteriole or changes in solute content
glucose, and ions. Most reabsorption occurs in the proximal of the filtrate. The JG cells respond to these changes by releasing
convoluted tubules. Tubular secretion is the opposite process. With renin into the blood. Renin catalyzes reactions that lead to
secretion, substances such as hydrogen ions, potassium ions, and angiotensin II production, which then acts directly on the blood
creatinine are removed from the peritubular capillaries into the vessels to cause vasoconstriction as well as aldosterone release.
tubules to be eliminated in urine. Aldosterone then causes the reabsorption of sodium and water,
2) Describe the normal characteristics of freshly-voided urine in a healthy leading to increased blood volume and blood pressure.
adult. 6) Describe how the bicarbonate buffer system functions to maintain pH.
Answer: Answer:
Urine is a pale, straw-colored liquid that progressively becomes a The bicarbonate buffer system utilizes carbonic acid and its salt,
darker yellow color as it becomes more concentrated. The yellow sodium bicarbonate. When blood is too acidic, the bicarbonate ions
color is a result of the presence of urochrome pigment, a by- of the salt act as a base and tie up more hydrogen ions. Thus, more
product of hemoglobin breakdown. Urine is more concentrated carbonic acid is formed. A strong acid is changed to a weak acid
than water with a specific gravity that ranges from 1.001 at its which has less of an effect on pH. Under alkaline conditions,
most dilute to l.035 at its most concentrated. Urine is sterile and carbonic acid releases more hydrogen ions to bind with the
slightly aromatic. Urine often has an acidic pH of around 6 but can hydroxide ions released by the strong base. A strong base is
be either acidic or basic depending on metabolism or diet. Urine changed to a weak base which has less of an effect on pH.
normally contains water, sodium and potassium ions, urea, uric
acid, creatinine, ammonia, and bicarbonate ions, as well as other 15.4 Matching Questions
ions that the body needs to dispose. Identify the process that occurs in the kidney.
3) Trace the pathway of a red blood cell through the kidney from the renal A. Tubular reabsorption • Water and solutes are forced from the blood
artery to the renal vein. into the glomerular capsule of the nephron
Answer: • Water, glucose, amino acids, and needed
Red blood cells are not filtered by the glomerulus since they are ions are moved from the filtrate back into
too large to pass through the filtration membrane. Instead, red the blood
blood cells travel through the renal artery, segmental artery, B. Glomerular Filtration • Aldosterone promotes sodium and thus
interlobar artery, arcuate artery, cortical radiate artery, afferent water to move from the filtrate through the
arteriole, glomerulus, and on to the efferent arteriole. Then, the red tubule cells into the blood
blood cell continues its travels to the peritubular capillaries and • Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) promotes the
exits the kidney via the cortical radiate vein, arcuate vein, movement of water from the filtrate back
interlobar vein, and the renal vein. into the blood of the peritubular capillaries
4) Compare and contrast filtrate from blood plasma. C. Tubular Secretion • Unneeded substances such as potassium,
Answer: urea, and creatinine are moved from the
Filtrate and blood plasma both contain water and solutes. Filtrate is blood of the peritubular capillaries into the
essentially blood plasma without the blood proteins. However, filtrate
filtrate differs from blood plasma since blood proteins are too large • Opposite process to tubular reabsorption.
to fit through the filtration membrane of the glomerulus.
5) Explain the renin-angiotensin mechanism.
Answer:
The renin-angiotensin mechanism is the most important trigger for
the release of aldosterone. It is mediated by the juxtaglomerular
(JG) apparatus of the renal tubules. The JG apparatus consists of
modified smooth muscle cells that are stimulated by low blood
URINARY SYSTEM & REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM

A. Renal vein • Cup-shaped extensions of the pelvis that Chapter 16 The Reproductive System
enclose the tips of the renal 16.1 Multiple Choice Part I Questions
B. Renal Medulla • Outer, lighter region of the kidney
C. Calyces • Blood is transported away from the kidney
in this vessel
D. Renal Pelvis • Cortex-like extensions that separate the
renal pyramids
E. Renal (medullary) • Darker, reddish-brown internal area of the
Pyramids kidney
F. Renal Columns • Triangular regions with a striped
appearance
G. Renal Cortex • Flat, basin like cavity medial to the renal
hilum of the kidney
H. Ureter • Tube that drains urine from the kidney to
the urinary bladder
• Muscular sac suitable for temporary urine
storage
I. Urethra • Transports urine and and sperm in males
• Contains three layers of smooth muscle
known as the detrusor muscle
J. Urinary Bladder • Contains an area called the trigone formed
by the opening of the ureters and urethra
• Micturition reflex causes this organ to go
into contractions
Using Figure 16.1, identify the following:
1) The testis is indicated by ________.
A) Label L
ANSWER KEY: B) Label J
C) Label I
EBACBACABEDDBABBDCCBACABCACDBDACCBAADADAEBCACCDBE D) Label K
ECBCBBCEEBABBDBCEEADCDCADDECCDABBECEBBBC E) Label C
2) The epididymis is indicated by ________.
TFTFFTFTTFTFFTFFFFTFTFTT A) Label J
B) Label K
BAACC C) Label L
D) Label A
CGAFBEDHJIJJJ E) Label B
3) The prostate gland is indicated by ________.
A) Label E
B) Label D
C) Label A
D) Label B
URINARY SYSTEM & REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM

E) Label G C) Label G 15) The enlarged tip of the penis is called
4) The ejaculatory duct is indicated by D) Label F the ________.
________. E) Label H A) glans penis
A) Label L 9) The vaginal orifice is indicated by B) shaft
B) Label F ________. C) scrotum
C) Label H A) Label I D) prepuce (foreskin)
D) Label C B) Label J 16) The male external genitalia include the
E) Label G C) Label G ________ and the ________.
5) The urethra is indicated by ________. D) Label F A) testes; ductus (vas) deferens
A) Label C E) Label D B) spermatic cord; glans penis
B) Label D 10) The myometrium of the uterus is C) penis; scrotum
C) Label B indicated by ________. D) seminal glands (vesicles);
D) Label A A) Label C ejaculatory duct
E) Label F B) Label I 17) The helmet-like region of the sperm that
C) Label H is similar to a large lysosome and assists
D) Label G penetration of the egg is called the
E) Label F ________.
11) The gonads produce sex cells, also A) flagellum
known as ________, B) midpiece
A) zygotes C) spermatid
B) interstitial cells D) acrosome
C) gametes 18) The process that streamlines spermatids
D) spermatids into sperm is known as ________.
12) Sperm are formed in tightly coiled tubes A) mitosis
called seminiferous tubules that are found B) spermiogenesis
within each ________. C) oogenesis
A) spermatic cord D) spermatogenesis
B) testis 19) The hormone testosterone is produced
C) ductus (vas) deferens by the ________ cells of the testes.
6) The uterine (fallopian) tube is indicated
D) epididymis A) spermatogonia
by ________.
13) The glands that produce a thick, B) oogonia
A) Label B
yellowish secretion which nourishes and C) seminiferous
B) Label D
C) Label H activates sperm are the ________. D) interstitial
A) bulbo-urethral glands 20) The female reproductive organs, known
D) Label E
B) prostate as ________, produce both eggs (ova) and
E) Label J
C) seminal glands (vesicles) hormones such as estrogen and
7) The ovary is indicated by ________.
D) ejaculatory duct progesterone.
A) Label J
14) The ________ gland surrounds the A) follicles
B) Label H
C) Label I upper portion of the urethra just below the B) uterine (fallopian) tubes
junction with the urinary bladder. C) testes
D) Label A
A) ejaculatory D) ovaries
E) Label B
B) seminal 21) A mature ovarian follicle that is ready to
8) The clitoris is indicated by ________.
C) bulbo-urethral be ejected from an ovary is called a
A) Label C
B) Label I D) prostate ________.
REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM
A) primary oocyte 28) The fatty, rounded area overlying the 34) The hormone produced by the corpus
B) vesicular (Graafian) follicle pubic symphysis of a female is the luteum that helps maintain pregnancy is
C) ovum ________. called ________.
D) corpus luteum A) vestibule A) estrogen
22) The ducts or tubes responsible for B) perineum B) testosterone
receiving the ovulated oocyte and providing C) mons pubis C) progesterone
the site for fertilization are the ________. D) vulva D) relaxin
A) uterine (fallopian) tubes 29) The external genitalia of a female are 35) Days 6-14 of the uterine (menstrual)
B) vagina also known as the ________. cycle are known as the ________ phase.
C) ductus (vas) deferens A) clitoris This phase concludes with ovulation.
D) uterus B) vestibule A) secretory
23) An oocyte is viable up to ________ C) vulva B) luteal
hours after ovulation. D) perineum C) proliferative
A) 2 30) The process of creating female gametes D) menstrual
B) 24 is called ________. 36) The pigmented area of a female's breast
C) 48 A) spermatogenesis that surrounds the nipple is the ________.
D) 104 B) oogenesis A) areola
24) The narrow outlet of the uterus that C) spermiogenesis B) lactiferous sinus
protrudes into the vagina is the ________. D) cleavage C) lactiferous duct
A) infundibulum 31) The hormone that promotes a small D) lobule
B) cervix number of primary follicles within the ovary 37) The process by which the acrosome
C) hymen to grow and mature each month is membranes of sperm break down is known
D) ampulla ________. as ________.
25) The ligament that anchors the anterior A) luteinizing hormone (LH) A) the acrosomal reaction
portion of the uterus is called the ________. B) estrogen B) cleavage
A) suspensory ligament C) follicle-stimulating hormone C) ovulation
B) ovarian ligament (FSH) D) implantation
C) broad ligament D) testosterone 38) A fertilized egg, which represents the
D) round ligament 32) Ovulation occurs in response to the first cell of a new individual, is called a
26) The innermost mucosa layer of the release of an anterior pituitary hormone ________.
uterus is called the ________. known as ________ hormone. A) blastocyst
A) endometrium A) antidiuretic B) zygote
B) perimetrium B) thyroid-stimulating C) fetus
C) myometrium C) luteinizing D) embryo
D) epimetrium D) follicle-stimulating 39) The early stage of embryonic
27) Burrowing of the fertilized egg into the 33) The follicle-cell capsule surrounding an development during which rapid mitotic cell
endometrium lining of the uterus is called ovulated secondary oocyte is called the divisions occur as the zygote travels down
________. ________. the uterine (fallopian) tube is called
A) ovulation A) corona radiata ________.
B) implantation B) morula A) the acrosomal reaction
C) cleavage C) polar body B) cleavage
D) fertilization D) blastocyst C) fertilization
D) implantation
REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM
40) Of the two functional areas of the 46) The period of life between 10 and 15 D) epididymis, seminal glands
blastocyst, the three primary germ layers years of age is known as ________. It is (vesicles), ductus (vas) deferens,
form from the ________. during this time that the reproductive organs ejaculatory duct, urethra
A) amnion grow to their adult size and become E) ductus (vas) deferens,
B) morula functional under the influence of hormones. epididymis, seminiferous tubule,
C) inner cell mass A) adulthood urethra, seminal vesicles
D) trophoblast B) menarche 5) Androgens such as testosterone are
41) The hormone that causes pelvic C) puberty produced by the ________.
ligaments and the pubic symphysis to relax, D) menopause A) seminiferous tubules of the
widen, and become more flexible during testis
pregnancy is called ________. 16.2 Multiple Choice Part II Questions B) interstitial cells of the testis
A) estrogen C) epididymis
B) progesterone 1) The male gonads have both sperm- D) bulbo-urethral glands
C) relaxin producing and testosterone-producing E) prostate
D) luteinizing hormone (LH) functions and are called ________. 6) Peristaltic waves squeeze sperm from the
42) The series of events that expel the infant A) testes epididymis along to the outside of the male's
from the uterus are referred to collectively B) sperm body during ________.
as________. C) ovaries A) vasectomy
A) labor D) ovum B) circumcision
B) menarche E) gametes C) spermatogenesis
C) menstruation 2) Which of the following is NOT a part of a D) ejaculation
D) menopause male's testis? E) erection
43) The infant is delivered during the second A) seminiferous tubule 7) Maturing sperm gain their ability to swim
stage of labor known as the ________ stage. B) ejaculatory duct while in the ________.
A) dilation C) interstitial cells A) seminiferous tubules
B) parturition D) rete testis B) epididymis
C) placental E) lobules C) ductus deferens
D) expulsion 3) The exocrine function of the testes is D) ejaculatory duct
44) The placenta and its attached fetal ________. E) urethra
membranes, expelled from the uterus during A) testosterone production 8) The spermatic cord houses the ________.
the placental stage of labor, are collectively B) ovum fertilization A) urethra
referred to as ________. C) sperm production B) ejaculatory duct
A) the vertex position D) embryo nutrition C) ductus (vas) deferens
B) the afterbirth E) estrogen production D) epididymis
C) dystocia 4) Trace the pathway of sperm through the E) seminal glands (vesicles)
D) parturition duct system during ejaculation ________. 9) The distal portion of the male urethra that
45) Failure of the testes to descend into the A) epididymis, ductus (vas) runs the length of the penis is the ________.
scrotum is a condition known as ________. deferens, ejaculatory duct, urethra A) prostatic urethra
A) phimosis B) epididymis, ductus (vas) B) membranous urethra
B) cryptorchidism deferens, seminiferous tubules, C) spongy urethra
C) hermaphroditism ejaculatory duct D) intermediate urethra
D) orchiditis C) seminiferous tubule, ductus E) bulbo-urethra
(vas) deferens, epididymis, 10) Which one of the following is NOT a
ejaculatory duct, urethra component of semen?
REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM
A) sperm D) FSH causes the testes to enlarge D) spermiogenesis
B) seminal fluid in size. E) ovulation
C) prostatic fluid E) FSH stimulates estrogen 21) The entire process of spermatogenesis
D) bulbo-urethral fluid production in males. takes approximately ________.
E) epididymal fluid 16) The primitive stem cell of A) 25-50 days
11) Thick, clear mucus that cleanses the spermatogenesis, which is found on the B) 64-72 days
urethra of acidic urine is produced by the periphery of each seminiferous tubule, is C) 120 days
________. called a ________. D) 1 year
A) testes A) spermatogonium E) 15 years
B) seminal glands (vesicles) B) spermatid 22) Which one of the following is NOT one
C) prostate C) primary spermatocyte of the secondary sex characteristics typical
D) bulbo-urethral glands D) secondary spermatocyte of males?
E) epididymis E) sperm A) deepening voice
12) Milky-colored fluids secreted from the 17) Which statement regarding meiosis is B) increased growth of body hair
prostate ________. correct? C) enlargement of skeletal muscle
A) nourish sperm A) Meiosis produces four gametes. mass
B) activate sperm B) Meiosis consists of one nuclear D) development of breast tissue
C) cleanse the urethra division only. E) thickening of bones
D) neutralize urine C) Meiosis produces two daughter 23) Fertilization usually occurs in the
E) are endocrine only cells. ________.
13) The spongy tissue of the penis fills with D) Meiosis occurs in all cells of the A) ovary
blood during sexual excitement and causes body. B) vesicular (Graafian) follicle
the penis to enlarge and become rigid during E) Meiosis produces cells C) uterine (fallopian) tubes
________. genetically identical to the parent D) uterus
A) erection cell. E) vagina
B) circumcision 18) What results from spermiogenesis? 24) The process by which a mature egg is
C) ejaculation A) four spermatogonia ejected from the ovary is called ________.
D) emission B) four spermatids A) emission
E) parturition C) two sperm B) menses
14) Circumcision for males removes the D) two spermatids C) fertilization
________. E) four sperm D) ovulation
A) glans penis 19) Each spermatid and each ovum have E) parturition
B) shaft of the penis ________. 25) On which day of the female's uterine
C) scrotum A) 23 pairs of chromosomes (menstrual) cycle does ovulation typically
D) prepuce B) 23 chromosomes occur?
E) ductus (vas) deferens C) 46 pairs of chromosomes A) day 7
15) What effect does follicle-stimulating D) 46 chromosomes B) day 14
hormone (FSH) have on males? E) 2n chromosomes C) day 21
A) Male testes are not influenced 20) The process in which sperm are D) day 24
by FSH. streamlined into a head, midpiece, and tail is E) day 28
B) FSH functions solely in females. called ________. 26) The superior rounded region of the
C) FSH stimulates sperm A) spermatogenesis uterus above the entrance of the uterine
production in males. B) acrosomal reaction (fallopian) tubes
C) oogenesis is called the ________.
REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM
A) body C) LH causes secondary sex E) parathyroid hormone
B) fundus characteristics to develop in a 37) Which one of the following is NOT one
C) cervix female. of the secondary sex characteristics seen in
D) corpus D) LH stimulates primary follicles young women?
E) mons pubis in a female's ovary to grow each A) enlargement of the accessory
27) Which layer of the uterus serves as the month. organs of reproduction
site of implantation? E) LH triggers ovulation in a B) breast development
A) fundus female. C) appearance of axillary and pubic
B) cervix 32) Which of the following cells could be hair
C) myometrium fertilized? D) decreased fat deposits beneath
D) endometrium A) polar body the skin
E) perimetrium B) primary oocyte E) widening and lightening of the
28) What is NOT a true statement C) secondary oocyte 38) The corpus luteum is a special glandular
concerning the vagina? D) oogonium structure of the ovaries that primarily
A) The vagina serves as the birth E) corpus luteum produces ________.
canal. 33) The hormone(s) responsible for A) estrogen
B) The distal end of the vagina is secondary sex characteristics in females B) progesterone
partially enclosed by the hymen. is/are ________. C) testosterone
C) The vagina is the female organ A) estrogens D) interstitial cell-stimulating
of copulation. B) progesterone hormone
D) The innermost lining of the C) follicle-stimulating hormone E) luteinizing hormone
vagina sloughs off periodically. D) human chorionic gonadotropin 39) The mammary glands are modified
E) The vagina is situated between E) testosterone ________.
the rectum and urinary bladder. 34) How long are the typical female's A) ceruminous glands
29) During oogenesis, an oogonium directly ovarian and uterine (menstrual) cycles? B) sebaceous glands
gives rise to ________. A) 7 days C) areolar glands
A) an ovum B) 14 days D) lacrimal glands
B) a primary oocyte C) 28 days E) sweat glands
C) a secondary oocyte D) 40 days 40) The clusters of specific glands that
D) a first polar body E) 60 days produce milk when a woman is lactating are
E) a second polar body 35) Days 15-28 of the uterine (menstrual) called
30) The inner mucosal layer of the uterus cycle are known as ________. ________.
that is sloughed off approximately every 28 A) the menstrual phase A) lactiferous ducts
days is called the ________. B) the secretory phase B) areolar glands
A) endometrium C) menses C) mammary glands
B) myometrium D) the proliferative phase D) alveolar glands
C) perimetrium E) implantation E) lactating glands
D) epimetrium 36) What hormone(s) stimulates the growth 41) From fertilization to week 8 of
E) hypometrium of the endometrium during the proliferative pregnancy, the conceptus is called
31) What effect does luteinizing hormone phase of the uterine (menstrual) cycle? ________.
(LH) have on a female? A) estrogens A) a fetus
A) LH promotes enlargement of the B) progesterones B) an embryo
female's breasts. C) insulin C) a baby
B) LH has no effect on a female. D) testosterone D) a zygote
REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM
E) a morula B) second 53) What is the effect of oxytocin during
42) For fertilization to be accomplished, C) third parturition?
sperm release enzymes to break down the D) fourth A) Oxytocin increases contractions
corona radiata from their ________. E) fifth of the uterus.
A) mitochondria 48) An embryo is known as a fetus by the B) Oxytocin inhibits contractions
B) acrosomes ________ week of pregnancy. of the uterus.
C) flagella A) first C) Oxytocin causes pelvic
D) DNA B) second ligaments and the pubic symphysis
E) cytoplasm C) fourth to relax.
43) A fertilized egg is known as a D) ninth D) Oxytocin promotes lordosis of
________. E) twelfth the lumbar curvature.
A) primary oocyte 49) The hormone produced by the placenta E) Oxytocin causes difficulty
B) zygote that causes the pelvic ligaments and pubic breathing (dyspnea).
C) morula symphysis to relax, widen, and become 54) The stage of labor that involves the
D) blastocyte more flexible to ease birth passage is called delivery of the infant is the ________.
E) secondary oocyte ________. A) dilation stage
44) The tiny ball of 16 cells found freely A) renin B) expulsion stage
floating in the uterine cavity is called a B) relaxin C) secretory phase
________. C) progesterone D) placental stage
A) blastocyst D) chorion E) postpartum stage
B) zygote E) gonadotropin 55) Male sex chromosomes are represented
C) morula 50) Parturition is another term for as ________.
D) placenta ________. A) XX
E) trophoblast A) menopause B) XO
45) The primary germ layer that gives rise to B) menses C) XY
the mucosae and associated glands is the C) fertilization D) XZ
________. D) menstruation E) YY
A) ectoderm E) childbirth 56) The first menstrual period, which
B) blastocyst 51) Parturition occurs approximately how usually occurs at approximately age 13, is
C) mesoderm many days after a woman's last menstrual called ________.
D) endoderm cycle ________. A) menses
E) morula A) 180 days B) menstruation
46) The fluid-filled sac surrounding the fetus B) 240 days C) menopause
is the ________. C) 280 days D) menarche
A) amnion D) 315 days E) menogen
B) placenta E) 330 days 57) Menopause, which ends childbirth
C) chorionic villi 52) The presence of more oxytocin receptors ability, is considered to have occurred when
D) umbilical cord in the uterus leads to weak, irregular a woman ________.
E) mesoderm contractions known as ________. A) misses her first period
47) The placenta is usually functioning to A) dystocia B) misses two periods in a row
deliver nutrients and oxygen to, and remove B) Braxton Hicks C) turns 50
waste from, the embryonic blood by the C) menopause D) has gone a year without
________ week of pregnancy. D) cryptorchidism menstruation
A) first E) C-section E) has had a hysterectomy
REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM
16.3 True/False Questions 14) Progesterone and estrogen glands to grow and secrete
1) The interstitial cells of the testes produce promote secondary sex nutrients into the uterine cavity.
androgens such as testosterone. characteristics in males. 27) Progesterone, in combination
2) Sperm are matured and 15) Ovaries contain many tiny with estrogen, produces secondary
ejaculated from the epididymis and saclike structures called ovarian sex characteristics in a female.
ductus (vas) deferens, which are the follicles, each of which consists of 28) Ovulation usually occurs on or
terminal portions of the male duct an immature egg surrounded by about day 14 of the uterine
system. one or more layers of follicle cells. (menstrual) cycle.
3) The ejaculatory duct passes 16) The fundus of the uterus 29) Oocytes are viable for 48-72
through the prostate gland. protrudes into the vagina. hours once ovulated from the
4) During ejaculation, peristalsis 17) Oocytes are carried toward the ovary.
moves sperm from the epididymis uterus both by cilia and peristalsis. 30) The rapid mitotic cell division
and ductus (vas) deferens into the 18) The innermost layer of the that occurs after the fertilization of
urethra. uterus is called the myometrium. an egg is known as cleavage.
5) The portion of the male urethra 19) The hymen is a thin fold of 31) The inner cell mass of the
that is surrounded by the prostate is mucosa that encloses the distal end blastocyst forms a large fluid-filled
called the intermediate of the vagina. sphere.
(membranous) urethra. 20) In a female, the labia minora 32) The endoderm gives rise to the
6) The seminal glands (vesicles) are two outer, hair-covered folds of nervous system and the epidermis
produce a milky fluid that activates skin that enclose the delicate, hair- of the skin.
sperm. free folds called the labia majora. 33) Beginning at the ninth week of
7) The bulbo-urethral glands are 21) The vagina functions both as development, the embryo is
located inferior to the prostate the birth canal and also as the referred to as a fetus.
gland and produce a thick, clear female's organ of copulation. 34) Parturition includes delivery of
mucus secretion that aids 22) The diamond-shaped region of both the infant and the placenta.
lubrication during sexual a female's external genitalia found 35) The cervix typically dilates to
intercourse. between the anterior end of the about 10 cm during the dilation
8) Between 2 and 5 mL of sperm labial folds, the anus posteriorly, stage of labor.
are released during each ejaculation and the ischial tuberosities is called 36) The placenta and its attached
event. the perineum. fetal membranes, delivered during
9) Viable sperm cannot be 23) The cyclic changes that occur the placental stage of labor, are
produced at temperatures below monthly in the ovary constitute the called the afterbirth.
body temperature. ovarian cycle. 37) When a year has passed
10) An erection results from blood 24) A primary oocyte undergoes without menstruation, a woman has
filling the spongy erectile tissues of meiosis to produce a secondary reached menarche.
the penis. oocyte and a polar body.
11) One primary spermatocyte 25) Ovulation occurs in response to
completes two divisions of meiosis a surge of luteinizing hormone
to produce four sperm. (LH) near the end of the
12) Spermatids are functional proliferative phase of the uterine
sperm. (menstrual) cycle.
13) The acrosome helps a sperm 26) During the secretory phase of
penetrate the follicle cells that the uterine (menstrual) cycle,
surround the egg. progesterone causes endometrial
REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM
16.5 Essay Questions
16.4 Matching Questions 1) Trace the pathway of sperm from their production to their exit from the
Identify the cell or stage of production: body during ejaculation.
Answer:
A. Urethra • Cell released from the female’s ovary Sperm are formed in the seminiferous tubules of the testes. Sperm
during ovulation that can potentially be are matured in the epididymis where they gain the ability to swim.
fertilized During ejaculation, peristaltic waves squeeze sperm from the
B. Secondary Oocyte • Cell undergoes spermiogenesis in males epididymis to the ductus (vas) deferens. The ductus (vas) deferens
to become sperm enters the pelvic cavity and travels to the posterior side of the
C. Ductus (vas) deferens • Cell that gives rise to an ovum if urinary bladder where it empties into an ejaculatory duct. Each
fertilized ejaculatory duct travels through the prostate gland to merge with
D. Spermatogonium • Stem cell in males the urethra. Ejaculation carries the sperm through the prostatic
E. Oogonium • Cell ruptured from a vesticular (Graafian) urethra, intermediate part of the urethra (membranous urethra), and
follicle in females spongy (penile) urethra to exit the body.
F. Scrotum • Process that streamlines spermatids into 2) Describe the effects of luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating
sperm hormone (FSH) on the testes.
Answer:
G. Spermiogenesis • Stem cell in females
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) prods the seminiferous tubules
H. Polar body • Process that creates ova in females
of the testes to produce sperm. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
I. Sperm • Cell that has been streamlined into a
stimulates the interstitial cells of the testes secrete testosterone.
head, midpiece, and tail through the
Testosterone enhances spermatogenesis, the process of making
process of spermiogenesis
sperm.
J. Ovum • Cell produced by meiosis II when the 3) Describe the process of spermatogenesis.
secondary oocyte is penetrated by a Answer:
sperm Spermatogenesis is sperm production that begins during puberty
K. Oogenesis • Functional male gametes and continues throughout life. The process is begun by primitive
L. Prostate • Tiny cell produced by oogenesis stem cells called spermatogonia. From birth until puberty,
M. Testis • Duct connecting epididymis to spermatogonia undergo mitotic division to increase the number of
ejaculatory duct stem cells. During puberty, FSH causes each division of
• Organ that produces testosterone and spermatogonium into one stem cell (type A cell) and one type B
spem cell that becomes a primary spermatocyte. The primary
• Tube described as prostatic, intermiediate spermatocytes then undergo meiosis to secondary spermatocytes,
(membranous) or spongy (penile) which then form four spermatids. The spermatids streamline and a
N. Spermatid • Sac of skin found hanging outside the tail is formed during spermiogenesis, after which they are mature
abdominal cavity enough to fertilize an ovum and are called sperm.
O. Uterine (fallopian) tube • Birth canal 4) What hormones promote ovulation? Describe how the levels of these
P. Uterus • Organ that is typical site of implantation hormones change in the days prior to ovulation
Q. Ovary • Duct that provides a site for fertilization Answer:
R. Vulva • Organ that produces eggs Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) promotes the development of
S. Hymen • External genitalia of a female a primary follicle and the start to the ovulation process each month.
T. Vagina • Fold of mucous membrane that partially Follicle development takes approximately 14 days and ovulation
encloses the distal end of the vagina occurs at that time. Just prior to ovulation, a secondary anterior
pituitary
REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM
gland hormone called luteinizing hormone (LH) suddenly spikes in
production and leads to ovulation. During the time while the follicle is
growing and developing, prior to ovulation, estrogen levels continue to rise.
5) Describe the events of embryonic development from conception until the
fetal stage, including development of the primary germ layers.
Answer:
A fertilized egg (zygote) undergoes rapid mitotic cell division in a
stage called cleavage. Cleavage provides the building blocks for
constructing the embryo, which develops until it has about 100
cells and then hollows out to form a blastocyst. The blastocyst has
two areas: the trophoblast and the inner cell mass. The inner cell
mass forms three primary germ layers which are the ectoderm, the
endoderm, and the mesoderm. The ectoderm gives rise to the
nervous system, the epidermis, and the skin. The endoderm forms
the mucosae and associated glands. The mesoderm gives rise to
everything else. The trophoblast develops projections called
chorionic villi which form the placenta along with tissues from the
mother's uterus. By the eighth week, all the organ systems have
been laid down and the embryo looks distinctly human. Beginning
in the ninth week, the embryo is referred to as a fetus.
6) List and describe the three stages of labor.
Answer:
Stage 1 is the dilation stage, which extends from the appearance of
true contractions until full dilation of the cervix (dilation to about
10 cm in diameter). Usually the amnion ruptures during this stage,
which is the longest part of labor and lasts for 6 to 12 hours. Stage
2 is the expulsion stage. It extends from full dilation to delivery of
the infant. In this stage, the infant passes through the cervix and
vagina to the outside of the body. This stage takes 20 minutes to 2
hours. Stage 3 is the placental stage, which usually lasts about 15
minutes, culminating in delivery of the placenta.
ANSWER KEY:
DACEADEEADCBCDACDBDDBABBDABCCBCCACCAABBCCADB
BCABCABDBCCEDBADCAAEBDBDCDBBDDBAECACBADBEDBB
BCDACDBECBABCDD
TFTTFFTTFTTFTFFTTFTTFTFTFTFTFTTTTTTFTFTFFTTTTF
BNBDBGEKIJIHCMALF
TPOQRS
REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM

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ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY

CHAPTER 1: HUMAN BODY PARTS

CHAPTER 2: BASIC CHEMISTRY

CHAPTER 2: BASIC CHEMISTRY

CHAPTER 2: BASIC CHEMISTRY

CHAPTER 2: BASIC CHEMISTRY

CHAPTER 2: BASIC CHEMISTRY

CHAPTER 3: CELLS AND TISSUES

CHAPTER 3: CELLS AND TISSUES

CHAPTER 3: CELLS AND TISSUES

CHAPTER 3: CELLS AND TISSUES

CHAPTER 3: CELLS AND TISSUES

A. Site of protein synthesis • Cilia

CHAPTER 3: CELLS AND TISSUES

CHAPTER 3: CELLS AND TISSUES

CHAPTER 4: SKIN AND BODY MEMBRANES

CHAPTER 4: SKIN AND BODY MEMBRANES

CHAPTER 4: SKIN AND BODY MEMBRANES

CHAPTER 5: SKELETAL SYSTEM

CHAPTER 7: THE NERVOUS SYSTEM

CHAPTER 7: THE NERVOUS SYSTEM

CHAPTER 7: THE NERVOUS SYSTEM

CHAPTER 7: THE NERVOUS SYSTEM

A. Smooth Muscle Tissue • Voluntary muscle tissue

CHAPTER 7: THE NERVOUS SYSTEM

CHAPTER 7: THE NERVOUS SYSTEM

CHAPTER 7: THE NERVOUS SYSTEM

CHAPTER 7: THE NERVOUS SYSTEM

CHAPTER 7: THE NERVOUS SYSTEM

CHAPTER 7: THE NERVOUS SYSTEM

CHAPTER 7: THE NERVOUS SYSTEM

CHAPTER 7: THE NERVOUS SYSTEM

CHAPTER 7: THE NERVOUS SYSTEM

CHAPTER 7: THE NERVOUS SYSTEM

CHAPTER 7: THE NERVOUS SYSTEM

CHAPTER 9: THE ENDOCRINE SYSTEM

CHAPTER 9: THE ENDOCRINE SYSTEM

CHAPTER 9: THE ENDOCRINE SYSTEM

CHAPTER 9: THE ENDOCRINE SYSTEM

CHAPTER 9: THE ENDOCRINE SYSTEM

CHAPTER 9: THE ENDOCRINE SYSTEM

CHAPTER 10: BLOOD

CHAPTER 10: BLOOD

CHAPTER 10: BLOOD

CHAPTER 10: BLOOD

CHAPTER 10: BLOOD

CHAPTER 10: BLOOD & CHAPTER 11: CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM

CHAPTER 12: THE LYMPATHIC SYSTEM AND BODY DEFENSES

CHAPTER 12: THE LYMPATHIC SYSTEM AND BODY DEFENSES

CHAPTER 12: THE LYMPATHIC SYSTEM AND BODY DEFENSES

CHAPTER 12: THE LYMPATHIC SYSTEM AND BODY DEFENSES

CHAPTER 12: THE LYMPATHIC SYSTEM AND BODY DEFENSES

CHAPTER 12: THE LYMPATHIC SYSTEM AND BODY DEFENSES

CHAPTER 12: THE LYMPATHIC SYSTEM AND BODY DEFENSES

CHAPTER 12: THE LYMPATHIC SYSTEM AND BODY DEFENSES

CHAPTER 12: THE LYMPATHIC SYSTEM AND BODY DEFENSES

CHAPTER 12: THE LYMPATHIC SYSTEM AND BODY DEFENSES

CHAPTER 12: THE LYMPATHIC SYSTEM AND BODY DEFENSES

CHAPTER 12: THE LYMPATHIC SYSTEM AND BODY DEFENSES

CHAPTER 12: THE LYMPATHIC SYSTEM AND BODY DEFENSES

URINARY SYSTEM & REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM

URINARY SYSTEM & REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM