All The Current Questions in The BANK

CLOSED BOOK
AIRCRAFT INSTRUMENTS
Question Answer Choice

1 Outside air temperature gauge is located at the root of a. True a 1613

the left wing outside the cockpit. b. False.

2 Attitude indication is invalid when the Attitude a. True a 1620

Indicator is held "caged". b. False

3 Where is the static pressure source, for the instruments,
located?
a. Both sides of fuselage, just aft of engine cowling. b 90
b. Both sides of rear fuselage.
c. Port side of fuselage, just aft of baggage compartment door.
d. Starboard side of fuselage, just aft of baggage compartment
door.

4 Accelerometer is powerd by 18-28 V DC drawn directly a. True b 1612

from the aircraft battery. b. False.

5 When checking the altimeter before take off it should a. 25 feet. c 14

read within ____ of the runway elevation: b. 50 feet.
c. 75 feet.
d. 100 feet.

6 Which instruments require static pressure for their a. VSI, altimeter, turn and slip c 281
operation? b. DI, AI
c. ASI, VSI, altimeter.
d. RPM, suction, DI.

7 When resetting the DI, the aircraft should be: a. Straight and level. b 307
b. Straight and level and speed constant.
c. It does not matter.
d. On the ground.

8 Maximum warm up time for the Attitude Indicator is: a. 30 Sec d 1611
b. 90 Sec
c. 2 minutes
d. 3 minutes

AIRCRAFT SYSTEMS
Question Answer Choice

9 What are the best rate of climb and best angle of climb a. 65, 85 c 1615
speeds for SMK? b. 65, 90
c. 85, 65
d. 90, 70

10 What is the maximum acceptable MAG drop during a. 100 RPM, max difference 50 RPM. d 74
engine run up checks? b. 125 RPM, max difference 75 RPM.
c. 100 RPM, max difference 75 RPM.
d. 200 RPM, max difference 50 RPM.

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11 When must the air conditioner be switched off in SMK a. On take off. d 1540
aircraft? b. On landing.
c. Before aerobatics.
d. During engine related emergencies.

12 What will happen to the propeller pitch angle in case of a. Go to fine pitch a 1545
oil pressure loss? b. Go to course pitch
c. Become a fixed pitch propeller with the existing pitch angle

13 What are the pre-selected flap positions? a. 0,10,20,30,40 c 1550

b. 10,20,38
c. 0,10,20,38
d. 10,15,20,30

14 Manual trimming in QSMK is:- a. Not possible a 1598

b. Possible
c. Available to the right seat occupant only
d. Possible but the trimmers will be very hard to move.

15 What is total fuel quantity for each tank and how much a. 20 gals, 2 gals d 1551
is unuseable? b. 21 gals, 2.5 gals.
c. 23.5 gals, 2.0 gals.
d. 23.5 gals, 2.5 gals.

16 What is engine over-boosting? a. Throttle opened beyond full forward position d 1614
b. Induction of compressed fuel air mixture into the engine
c. MAP more than the atmospheric pressure
d. MAP more than the RPM

17 What is the normal oil pressure range for SMK? a. 55-95 psi. a 73
b. 30-60 psi.
c. 55-60 psi.
d. 55-125 psi.

18 Abort speed is a. 65 b 1627

b. 60
c. 70
d. 75

19 The QSMK canopy can be held in partially open a. 1000 RPM b 1597
position till a maximum of: b. 1100 RPM
c. 1800 RPM
d. 2000 RPM

20 In QSMK aircraft the red fuel warning light indicates a. Only 10 gals fuel is available. c 1533
that: b. Only 20 gals fuel is available
c. Fuel selector is off.
d. None of the above.

21 The stall warning on QSMK includes: a. Audio horn and nose fishtailing. d 1566
b. Heavy buffet and wing drop.
c. Pitch up.
d. Audio horn and airframe buffet.

22 What is the design cruise speed limit and engine RPM a. 155kts/2400 RPM. d 71
for SMK. b. 126kts/2700 RPM.
c. 126kts/2400 RPM.
d. 154kts/2700 RPM.

23 When the ALT voltage is reading at "0" position, it a. Battery is fully charged. c 1552
indicates that: b. Battery is fully discharged.
c. Alternator is not charging.
d. Alternator is over charging.

24 How many times may a circuit breaker be reset after a. Twice. b 447
popping? b. Once.
c. Never.
d. Three times.

25 How to insert a new waypoint in G950 a. d 4

b.
c.
d.

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 CLOSED BOOK
26 If the PFD fails MFD can be used as PFD by pressing a. Display Backup Switch b 290
b. Emergency Display Switch
c, Dual Display Switch
D. None of the above

27 The _____button is pressed for toggling between _____, a. TMR/REF, Stop watch, reverse timer & Coordinates d 6
_____ & _____ b. CDI, Nav-1, Nav-2 & GPS
c. XPDR, Code, S/by & Off
d. None of the above

28 No aerobatic maneuvers are permissible with: a. Any luggage in the baggage compartment or the rear seat. a 283
b. More than 100 kg load in the baggage compartment.
c. More than 50 kg load in the baggage compartment.
d. More than 200 kg load in the baggage compartment.

29 What is the nose leg oleo extension? a. 6 inches. c 107

b. 4 fingers.
c. 3-4 inches.
d. 9 inches.

30 The unuseable fuel in SMK aircraft is: a. 2.5 gals per tank. a 104
b. 5 gals per tank.
c. 10 gals per tank.
d. None.

31 In case of throttle linkage failure what will happen to the a. It will remain at the last setting a 98
engine power? b. It will reduce to 1500 RPM
c. It will reduce to idle
d. It will go to full power

32 What is the maximum useable fuel for QSMK aircraft? a. 40 gals d 1536
b. 40 gals per tank
c. 42 gals per tank
d. 21 gals per tank

33 Call recording of 2.5 min can be played back pressing a. True b 88

MAN SQ switch B. False

34 Selecting the Avionics switch off will turn off the PFD. a. True b 1599
b. False

35 Which indication will be unreliable if the static vent a. DI, AI, VSI. b 456
becomes blocked? b. VSI, altimeter, ASI.
c. ASI, VSI, DI.
d. Suction gauge, VSI, DI.

36 The illumination of alternator warning light indicates a. The alternator has overheated d 463
that: b. Battery is fully charged
c. The alternator will automatically reset after three minutes
d. The alternator has failed and the electrical power is being
provided by the battery.

37 What is the maximum speed with the flap extended in a. 85 KIAS c 485
the SMK? b. 90 KIAS for 10 - 30 degrees, 110 KIAS for 10 degrees
c. 105 KIAS for 20 - 38 degrees, 130 KIAS for 10 degrees
d. 110 KIAS.

38 The attitude indicator in the QSMK incorporates a gyro a. Electrical power. a 75

driven by: b. Suction.
c. None.

39 The fuel flow indicator in the QSMK indicates fuel flow a. Measuring the differential pressure across the fuel divider c 1534
by: b. Measuring the amount of fuel flowing back to the tanks
c. A fuel flow transducer sensing the fuel flow
d. None of the above.

40 What is the maximum permitted engine oil temperature? a. 225°F c 94

b. 107°C
c. 245°F
d. 450°F

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 CLOSED BOOK
APPROACH PLATES
Question Answer Choice

41 What are the UHF and VHF Guard frequencies? a. 243.8 and 121.5 b 1315
b. 243.0 and 121.5
c. 243.0 and 121.0
d. 218.2 and 121.5

42 You are asked by ATC to 'Ident', what should you do? a. Select STBY and reset code c 1316
b. Acknowledge with your callsign only
c. Press ident key on the PFD
d. Reselect the code and select STBY.

FOB
Question Answer Choice

43 When may simulated instrument flight be carried out? a. At any time. c 210
b. In VFR.
c. In VFR with a safety observer.
d. In IMC only.

44 Who is responsible for monitoring the weather and a. The Sqn Supervise. a 597
declaring a flying phase? B. The Unit Commander.
C. The operations staff.
D. ATC.

45 Flight times recorded in the Form-781 are: a. Take off to landing. a 250
b. Chock to chock.
c. Take off to landing plus 5 minutes.
d. Whatever you want.

46 For which flights is it compulsory to carry a IFG? a. For no mission. c 437

b. Training missions only.
c. For all missions.
d. For IF mission.

47 Takeoff may be carried after lining up from any link a. 16 L a 436

between B to E for runway B. 16 R
c. 34 R
d. 34 L

48 With regard to collision avoidance and "right of way", a. Aircraft in distress have right of way. d 358
which statement(s) is/are true? b. Aircraft with most maneuvreability shall yield.
c. Head on aircraft shall each alter to the right.
d. All of the above.

49 Smoking is prohibited on the tarmac within 50 meters of a. True a 336

any parked aircraft and inside any hangar or an aircraft. b. False

50 What are the Special VFR limits for the SMK? a. Ceiling - 700' / visibility - 3 km. a 319
b. Ceiling - 1000' / visibility - 5 km.
c. Ceiling - 1500' / visibility - 8 km.
d. Clear of cloud /in sight of ground - minimum 100' AGL.

51 After being inoculated, vaccinated or receiving any a. OC d 146

injection of any kind including dental injections get b. Academy Commander
clearnce for flying from c. Doctor
d. Flight Surgeon

52 If any pilot has received medical care he may only be a. The Flight Commander. d 45
scheduled to fly with the approval of : b. The Squadron Commander.
c. The Wing Commander.
d. The Flight Surgeon.

53 The minimum aircrew rest period is: a. 8 hours. a 42

b. 12 hours.
c. 14 hours.
d. 10 hours.

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 CLOSED BOOK
54 Pilot who has not flown a particular type in the last 30 a. 30 a 149
days is to have a dual check with a qualified instructor b. 60
(QFI) c. 15

55 All pilots are to be given a thorough night flying check- a. True a 153
out once a year regardless of currency. b. False

56 Who is responsible for ensuring that an aircrew a. The doctor. c 196

member's annual physical check is carried out? b. Squadron staneval.
c. The individual.
d. Training officer.

57 What is the minimum time allowed for uninterrupted a. 12 hours. b 155

rest? b. 8 hours.
C. 10 hours.
D. 14 hours.

58 What is the go-around height on a PFL (in the training a. 100 feet AGL. c 47
area) if you have not been specifically authorised? b. 250 feet AGL.
c. 500 feet AGL.
d. 200 feet AGL.

INSTRUCTIONAL KNOWLEDGE
Question Answer Choice

59 Leaving the control column hands free, during the a. True. a 1572
incipient stage of QSMK spin, will automatically b. False.
recover the aircraft.

60 While reducing from full power to 25"/ 2500 RPM, the a. First retard throttle and then reduce RPM a 1592
recommended procedure is to: b. First reduce RPM and then retard throttle
c. Any of the above two sequences can be followed
d. None of the above is correct

61 While leaning the mixture for best power; advance a. 200 degree C drop in peak EGT d 1594
mixture lever till you achieve: b. 400 degree C drop in peak EGT
c. 150 degree F drop in peak EGT
d. 100 degree F drop in peak EGT

62 During practice forced landing on QSMK; loss of a. Throttle idle, speed brakes out b 1595
engine power is simulated by : b. 1600-1800 RPM, Full Flaps
c. 1000-1100 RPM, Full Flaps
d. Shut down the engine for realistic simulation.

63 How do you control speed on the base leg? a. With attitude. a 406
b. With power.
c. You don't consider speed on base leg.
d. Just keep altitude constant.

64 What should be checked before raising the flap on a Go- a. The runway is clear. c 407
around? b. Full power is set.
c. Airspeed 70 kts or more, positive rate of climb and a
minimum of 200 ft AGL.
d. The radio call is complete.

65 What is the PFL high key height for any airfield? a. 4000 ft QNH. d 70
b. 3500 ft QNH.
c. 4000 ft AGL.
d. 2500 ft AGL.

66 If not cleared to land, by what height must you a. No limit. b 136

commence the go-around? b. 100’ AGL.
c. 200’ AGL.
d. 2700’ QNH.

67 Stall speed during a steep turn will be: a. Same as basic stall speed. c 1568
b. Lesser than basic stall speed.
c. 1.4 times the Vso.

68 Turn and Slip indicator always indicates the correct a. True. a 1569
direction of spin. b. False.

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 CLOSED BOOK
69 An overshoot of aim point during final stages of a forced a. Pitching nose down d 1593
landing can be controlled by: b. Reducing power
c. One 360 degree turn
d. S turns/ Using flap/ Side slip

70 What is the final approach speed for a short landing in a. 50 kts. b 128
QSMK? b. 65 kts.
c. 55 kts.
d. 60 kts.

71 Considering the QSMK spin characteristics altitude lost a. 700' c 1573

per spin rotation is: b. 500-600'
c. 300-400'
d. 400-500'

72 Recommended speeds for loop, Roll over the Top, a. 140, 150, 130, 120 kts a 1580
clover leaf and stall turn are: b. 140, 150, 120, 130 kts
c. 140, 130, 150, 120 kts
d. 140, 155, 130, 120 kts

73 What is the correct method of instruction in 30 a. Demonstrate, practise, grade. d 227

Squadron? b. Teach (follow through), practise, grade.
c. Demonstrate, teach (follow through), grade.
d. Demonstrate, teach (follow through), practise, grade.

74 The recovery actions from an erect spin on the QSMK a. Throttle full open, opposite rudder, control column neutral c 1575
include: b. Throttle idle, opposite rudder, control column fully forward
c. Throttle idle, opposite rudder, control column neutral
d. Throttle full open, rudder neutral, full in spin aileron.

75 The ___ provides the most reliable indication of spin a. Attitude indicator c 1619
direction. b. Direction indicator
c. Turn needle
d. None of the above

76 Recovery initiated during the first 360 degree turn of the a. True. a 1577
spin is called incipient spin recovery. b. False.

77 Average height lost in recovery from a six turn spin and a. True . a 1578
ensuing dive is 2800'. b. False.

78 In the HASELL checks performed before aerobatics, the a. 2000’ AGL. a 116
height must be sufficient to recover by: b. 2000’ QNH.
c. 4000’ QNH.
d. 4500’ AGL.

79 During a steady spin the QSMK ASI reads: a. 57-67 kts b 1574
b. 70-80 kts
c. 80-90 kts
d. None of the above is true.

80 QSMK exhibits ____ type of spin. a. Oscillatory. b 1570

b. Steady Errect.
C. Inverted steady.
D. Erect oscillatory.

81 Manoeuvering the QSMK aircraft above 143 kts may a. Overstress a 1583
result in: b. Engine overspeed
c. Canopy flying off
d. None of the above.

82 When does the stall warning typically activate on SMK a. At the stall c 455
aircraft? b. 0 - 5 kts above the stall speed
c. 5 - 10 kts above the stall speed
d. It depends on the aircraft attitude.

83 While increasing power during dive, exercise caution to a. Engine failure c 1582
avoid the risk of: b. CSU failure
c. Engine over-speed
d. Engine over boosting.

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 CLOSED BOOK
INSTRUMENT FLYING
Question Answer Choice

84 The procedure to follow when using a NAV aid is: a. Monitor, Tune, Identify. b 293
b. Tune, Identify, Monitor.
c. Identify, Tune, Monitor.
d. Select, Hold, Trim.

85 A rate 1 turn is: a. 3 degrees/sec. a 16

b. 90 degrees/min.
c. 6 degrees/sec.
d. 360 degrees/min.

86 The inbound leg of the holding pattern is 340 and the a. Direct b 13
aircraft heading approaching the IAF is 110 degrees: b. Teardrop.
what is the entry procedure for the standard Hold? c. Parallel.

87 What should you do when you reach the MAP and do
not see the runway environment?
a. Descend down to DA. b 10
b. Carry out the Missed Approach Procedure.
c. Fly level until above the runway and the carry out the Missed
Approach Procedure.
d. Continue until runway is in sight.

88 Holding pattern at IAF for RWY 34 is right hand. a. True b 1537

b. False

89 What information does the tail of needle give for a a. Magnetic course "TO" the station. b 5
selected VOR b. Magnetic course "FROM" the station.
c. True bearing.
d. Slant range.

90 The types of entries in the holding pattern are: a. Sector 1, Sector 2, Sector 4. c 11
b. Inbound, Outbound, Sector 4.
c. Direct, Parallel, Tear Drop.
d. Offset, Parallel.

91 Maximum angle of bank, used during an instrument a. 20°. c 292

descent, should not exceed: b. 15°.
c. 30°.
d. 25°.

92 How is a VOR/DME station identified after being a. By listening to the morse code and comparing it with the a 18
selected? appropriate chart.
b. By identifying the radial on the controller.
c. No need, they are identified automatically.
d. By double-checking the selected frequency.

93 What is meant by the term MDA? a. Marginal Deviation Indicator. d 20

b. Maximum Descent Angle.
c. Minimum Deviation Altitude.
d. Minimum Descent Altitude.

94 Where is the Missed Approach Point on an ILS/DME a. At the DH. a 23

approach? b. At the MDA.
c. At the IM.
d. At the OM.

95 When is the compass unserviceable? a. When it reads east b 412

b. When there is an air bubble in the fluid at the top of the bowl
c. When it reads differently from the DI
d. When it does not move smoothly during a turn

96 A localiser only approach uses a DH since it is a a. True. b 317

precision approach. b. False.
c. Depends on the weather.
d. If you have DME available.

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97 When are you allowed to descend on the ILS glideslope? a. When both localiser and glideslope bar are within half scale a 422
deflection.
b. When speed reaches 80 kts after completing landing checks.
c. When you have ATC clearance.
d. When the GS flag is visible.

98 What instrument checks should you carry out as you taxi a. Needle left, ball right, DI decreasing, AI steady. a 310
to the runway? b. Needle left, ball left, AI steady.
c. Needle left, ball right, DI increasing, AI steady.
d. No checks required.

99 How many degrees are represented by the ILS deviation a. 1½°. b 285
bar from centre to full deflection? b. 2½°.
c. 4°.
d. 4½°.

100 While being radar vectored, the pilot R/T responses a. Only repeat all headings given by ATC. d 25
must: b. Only repeat all altitudes given by ATC.
c. Only repeat altimeter settings given by ATC.
d. Repeat all headings, altitudes (departing and assigned) and
altimeter settings given by ATC.

101 The rate of descent required on an instrument approach: a. Is greater with a tailwind. a 26
b. Is greater with a headwind.
c. Is not affected by wind.
d. Is always 500 fpm.

102 When is the turn back to the fix started if a holding a. Turn back to the fix at the DME distance. a 413
pattern has a DME limit on the outbound leg? b. Turn back to the fix after one minute has elapsed.
c. Depends on ATC clearance.
d. It does not matter.

103 While on radar vectors, the controller clears you to an a. Yes. a 302
altitude below the MSA for your sector. Should you b. No.
accept? c. Only in IMC.
d. Only in VFR.

104 On a VOR/DME approach your IAS has been very
accurate at 100 knots, but as you approach 5 DME you
notice you will be 200 feet high. What must you do to
reach the MDA?
a. Lower the nose on the AI and accept speed increase. b 56
b. Lower the nose to increase the rate of descent and reduce
power to control the speed.
c. Use the flaps and accept the speed reduction.
d. Carry out the missed approach procedure.

105 What should you do if you are still IMC when you reach a. Level off and accept a speed reduction. c 57
your MDA one mile before the MAP on a VOR/DME b. Carry out the missed approach procedure.
approach? c. Level off and apply extra power to maintain 100 kts until the
MAP.
d. Descend down to the DH.

106 Descent below MDA is authorised when: a. You reach 2.0 nm c 59

b. ATC informs that you can
c. Visual reference with the runway environment has been
established and the pilot can carry out a safe landing
d. The CDI is less than half deflection.

107 A navigation aid (such as VOR/DME or ILS) should be: a. Considered reliable if the CDI does not show on the PFD c 60
with morse code identification not being required.
b. Considered reliable if the CDI / GS Red Cross does not show
on the PFD with morse code identification not being required.
c. Considered reliable only if the morse code identification is
correct and no CDI or GS Red Cross show on the PFD
d. Considered reliable if the morse code makes any 3 or 4 letter
identification code.

108 What is the definition of CAVOK? a. Visibility 15km+, no cloud below 1000 feet, no b 61
thunderstorms.
b. Visibility 10km+, no cloud below 5000 feet, no
thunderstorms, no precipitation, no shallow fog or low drifting
snow.
c. Visibility 8km+, no cloud below 10000 feet, no fog, no
precipitation, no thunderstorms.
d. Visibility 8km+, no cloud below 5000 feet, no precipitation.

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109 Localiser false or erratic signals can result from a. True. a 296
industrial activity and broadcast transmitters. b. False.

110 At the check point for the VOR/DME the bearing a. ±4°. a 312
should be: b. ±2°.
c. ±5°.
d. ±3°.

111 If your TAS is 120 knots and the crosswind component a. 11°. b 301
of the wind is 16 knots what is the approximate drift b. 8°.
correction? c. 3°.
d. 5°.

112 The first action to recover from an unusual attitude is: a. Level the wings. c 315
b. Fly level.
c. Control speed.
d. Mayday call.

113 During ILS approach the final approach course a. automatically comes on top of CDI b 184
b. has to be manually set on top of CDI
c. is not required to be set on top
d. none of the above

114 If you encounter a full glideslope or localiser deflection
during an ILS approach you should:
a. Carry out the missed approach immediately. a 304
b. Use 20° intercept to regain the localiser or 5% of altitude
change to intercept glidepath.
c. Revert to another approach.
d. Revert to the localiser only.

115 As you fly directly over the VOR/DME station the DME a. Zero (0.0). d 54
will read: b. Dashes (----).
c. 399.99.
d. Your altitude in thousands of feet divided by 6.

116 Clearance for the approach includes clearance for the a. True. b 309
published missed approach. b. False.
c. Only for a precision approach.
d. Only for a non-precision approach.

117 If the weather is so bad that a missed approach is likely, a. With radar before the approach is flown. a 314
the pilot should request missed approach instructions: b. With tower at 15 DME or when handed over.
c. On the overshoot into the published missed approach.
d. At minimas.

118 What speed should you maintain on final approach for a. 85 kts. b 313
an ILS until the DH? b. 100 kts.
c. 70 kts.
d. 60 kts.

119 Is the QSMK cleared for flight in known icing a. No. a 127
conditions? b. Yes.

120 At the Intial Approach Fix (IAF) you complete two a. Make a 360 degree rate one turn. c 55
holding patterns and arrive back at the fix (IAF) at b. Make a 180 degree turn, fly outbound for 30 seconds and
15:28, your EAT is 15:32. In the event of a then turn back to the fix.
communication failure you should: c. Make a 180 degree turn, fly outbound for 1 minute and then
turn back to the fix.
d. Make one more hold.

121 With regard to holding, clearance for the approach a. No clearance to hold. a 53
includes: b. Clearance to hold.
c. Clearance to hold only if required for cadet pilot training.
d. Clearance to hold up to 3 minutes only.

122 Clearance for an approach includes clearance to use the a. True. b 308
holding airspace. b. False.

123 Your heading approaching the holding fix is 070°. The a. Direct a 306
inbound holding course is 090°. The entry procedure is: b. Tear drop
c. Parallel
d. Sector

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124 The missed approach point for any precision approach is: a. The middle marker. c 305
b. Full deflection of the glideslope or localiser.
c. When Decision Height is reached.
d. The published DME.

125 At the check point for the VOR/DME, range should be: a. 0.6nm ± .1nm. b 311
b. 0.5nm ± .5nm.
c. 0.4nm ± .1nm.
d. 0.3nm ± .1nm.

LOP
Question Answer Choice

126 How many aircraft can hold in visual hold west of a. 1. c 241
AlUdied b. 2.
c. 3.
d. 4.

127 With the VTP at Al-Kharj active, pilots will maintain a. 1750'. b 475
___ until past the departure end of the runway when b. 2000'.
conducting a go-around from a missed approach. c. 2500'.
d. 3500'.

128 If there are 3 aircraft in the Al-Khor traffic pattern a. Yes. b 144
(runway 14) when you join direct cross wind b. No.
c. Yes, if you are the SOF.
d. Only if you are in a hurry.

129 Can Alkhor be nominated as an alternate at Met a. No. c 238

Briefing? b. Yes.
c. Only with a VFR forecast.
d. Only for CT missions.

130 At what altitude do we fly while transit back from Al- a. 2000' QNH. a 361
Khor till North Gate? B. 1500' QNH.
C. 2500' AGL.
D. 1000' QNH.

131 After take off at AlUdied, what altitude do we maintain a. 2500 feet. c 239
until the Shamal Interchange is reached when transiting b. 2000 feet.
to Alkhor? c. 1500 feet.
D. No limit - keep climbing.

132 What is the maximum number of aircraft allowed in the a. 8. b 133

Al-Khor traffic pattern? b. 4 plus 1 a/c for Holding overhead (total 5).
C. 5 plus 1 a/c for full stop (total 6).
D. 3.

133 What height should you fly in the Visual Hold? a. 1500’ QNH. b 140
b. 1000’ QNH.
c. 2000’ QNH.
D. No laid down height.

134 What is the transit speed between Al Udied and Al- a. 120 kts. a 141
Khor? B. 100 kts.
C. 90 kts.
D. No laid down speed.

135 What is the maximum number of hours an IP may fly in a. 70. a 130
a month? b. 55.
c. 60.
d. No limit.

136 After take off what height must you climb to before a. 1200 feet. c 234
turning on the transit from Alkhor to AlUdied? b. 1500 feet.
c. 1000 feet.
d. 2000 feet.

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137 Which taxiway is to be used when taxiing back to the a. Whichever one is available. b 440
HAS 4340? b. H-1
c. H
d. H-2

138 If you cannot contact ATC ground frequency, may you a. Yes, but do not enter H-1 taxiway. b 169
start to taxi? B. No.
C. Yes, you are cleared to taxi to the holding point of the
runway in use.
D. No, contact ATC on tower frequency.

139 While recovering direct from Delta area, maintain ___ a. 2000', 1000' a 1608
feet till South Gate and then descend to ____ feet after b. 2500', 1000'
ATC Clearance. c. 1000', 500'
d. 1500', 1000'

140 E link is acceptable take off positions for runway 16R? a. True b 174
b. False

141 Which aircraft has top priority? a. Landing VFR. d 175

b. Touch and go.
c. Departing.
d. Landing IFR.

142 QSMK follows left hand traffic pattern at doha a. 17L and 35R. c 182
b. 17R and 35R.
c. 17R and 35L.
d. 17L and 35L.

143 QSMK aircraft taxiing in opposite directions may pass a. Right; back. b 35
on H-1 taxiway. Both aircraft are to move to their ___ b. Right; out.
and the aircraft taxiing ___ is to stop: c. Left; out.
d. Left; back.

144 How would you join from Alkhor if there are three a. Maintain 2000 feet and descent to 900 on deadside. a 183
aircraft in the pattern for runway 33 at KAMA? B. On right base.
C. Overhead at 4000 feet.
D. PFL.

145 Before initiating a practice spin always ensure that the a. 300' AGL d 1617
height is sufficient to complete recovery by : b. 1000' AGL
c. 5000' AGL
d. 3000' AGL

146 At what height do we fly inbound to Al-Udied from a. 1500 feet. c 192
Gates? b. 2000 feet.
c. 1000 feet.
d. 2500 feet.

147 What speed should be flown in the Visual Hold? a. 100 kts. a 137
B. 70 kts.
C. 85 kts.
D. Full power and accept speed.

148 Who is responsible for monitoring the weather and a. The Sqn Supervisor. a 65
declaring a flying phase? B. The Unit Commander.
C. The operations staff.
D. ATC.

149 What is the maximum crosswind allowed for Solo cadet? a. 10 kts b 1543
b. 8 kts
c. 12 kts
d. 20 kts

150 When do you call Barzaan on recovery from Alkhor? a. At point Shamal. a 235
b. At 10 DME.
c. At 8 DME.
d. Crossing Alkhor road.

151 Al-Khor airfield has max height limit of? a. Ground to 2500’. a 167
b. Ground to 3500’.
c. Ground to 2000’.
D. No limit.

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152 At what height do we fly direct to the training area till a. 1000 feet. a 191
zoning out? b. 1500 feet.
c. 2000 feet.
d. 2500 feet.

153 What is the minimum separation on approach between a. 6000’. c 145

QSMK aircraft? b. 5000'.
c. 3000'.
d. No limit.

154 What is the maximum altitude allowed in area? a. 5500’. a 168

b. 4500’.
c. 5000’.
d. No limit.

155 If ATC is not available at Al-Khor, can we continue a. No. a 161

operations from that airfield? b. Yes.
c. Yes, maximum 2 aircraft in the traffic pattern.
d. Yes, but no Cadet flying.

156 Avoid PC-21 joining Points Wicket and Mazra by 3 Nm. a. True a 1606
b. False.

157 If you have an engine emergency what IFF code should a. 7500. c 600
you squawk? b. 7600.
c. 7700.
d. 1200.

158 How many aircraft can be in the Circuit during night a. 3 a 1605
flying. b. 4
c. 5
d. 6

159 After landing, who should you info on the radio of your a. Ops Room a 593
landing? b. Flight Lines

160 Are IMC operations permitted at Al Khor? a. Yes. b 66

b. No.
c. Only if Riyadh Radar is operational.
d. Emergencies only.

SAFETY EQUIPMENT
Question Answer Choice

161 Where is the first aid kit located in the SMK aircraft? a. In the baggage compartment a 1525
b. Under the left seat
c. Under the right seat
d. Beneath the instrument panel

162 In the SMK aircraft the fire extingusher is located in the: a. Engine compartment c 1601
b. Battery compartment
c. Baggage compartment
d. Left seat.

163 The PLB is designed as a direct communication, to the a. 406 Mhz a. 1526
_____ MHz Search and Rescue satellite system. b. 243 Mhz

164 What frequency available with PLB is for voice a. True b 480
communication b. False

SOP
Question Answer Choice

165 What Approach Category is the SMK aircraft? a. B. d 269

b. C.
c. D.
d. A.

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166 What is the normal IF holding pattern speed for QSMK? a. 70 kts. c 272
b. 85 kts.
c. 100 kts.
d. Any speed.

167 Anti-collision/Landing lights may be switched OFF to a. True a 1524

avoid disorientation when in mist or clouds during night b. False

168 Pilots are to avoid flying through the wake of large a. 3, 2 a 19

aircraft. No approaches are to be made behind a landing b. 5, 3
aircraft and no take-offs behind a departing aircraft c. 1, 2
within ___ minutes for heavy aircraft and ___ minutes d. 2, 5
for medium aircraft.

169 What is the maximum Head wind allowed with a cadet a. 25 kts. b 251
at the controls? b. 20 kts.
c. 15 kts.
d. 10 kts.

170 What is the maximum crosswind component for normal a. 13 kts. d 255
operations b. 20 kts.
c. 25 kts.
D. 15 Kts

171 Practice instrument missions are flown from: a. Any seat. c 273
b. Left seat.
c. Right seat.
d. Back seat.

172 On receiving a flashing red from ATC when airborne, a. Do not land at this airfield. a 279
what is your action? b. Land immediately.
c. Do not land. Fly another pattern.
d. Do a touch and go.

173 What is the maximum crosswind and tailwind a. 10kts / 10kts. c 117
component for landing? b. 15kts / 10kts.
c. 15kts / 7kts.
D. 10kts / 5kts.

174 When an EFATO is initiated the pilot must call ____ a. "Practice", "Practice Over". b 1542
and ____ when the exercise is over. b. "Fan Stop", "Climbing away".
c. "EFATO", "Out".
d. No calls are required.

175 Any pilot holding Green rating will automatically be a. 11th Month b 1523
downgraded to White rating if he has not undergone IRT b. 12th Month
during the ______ month. c. 13th Month
d. 3 Month from expiry

176 The Pre Flight inspection is valid for: a. All daily servicings b 7
b. 24 hours
c. 72 hours
d. 4 hours

177 What is the maximum tail wind component for SMK a. 10 kts. b 124
aircraft? b. 7 kts.
c. 15 kts.
d. No limit.

178 Who must be present before an aircraft is taxied into its a. ATC. b 64
parking slot at Shelter? b. Crew chief.
c. Fireman.
d. Another pilot.

179 If you see a red flare fired from the caravan while you a. Ignore it, the PC 9 behind you doesn't have landing gear c 63
are on short final, what should you do? down.
b. Ignore it, the mobile controller is trying to scare you.
c. Go around.
d. Divert.

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180 Can we take off on runway 34 with a surface wind of a. Yes. b 129
150°/12kts? b. No.
c. Yes, if solo.
d. Yes, if you are the SOF.

181 A flashing white light observed while airborne means: a. Land at this airfield. a 62
b. Give way to other traffic.
c. Do not land at this airfield.
d. Return for landing.

182 A flashing red light observed while on the ground means: a. Return to the ramp. c 36
b. Stop.
c. Taxi clear of the runway immediately.
d. Shut down.

183 What is the minimum height for initiating a go-around a. 50 feet AGL. b 240
from a practice EFATO? b. 100 feet AGL.
c. 200 feet AGL.
d. No minimum.

184 What is the maximum crosswind allowed for cadet a. 10 kts. c 254
landings with IP? b. 7 kts.
c. 13 kts.
D. 5 kts.

185 Non-bold face emergencies are to be handled: a. Using the FRC. a 370
B. Doing it from memory.
C. Doing it from memory and then using the FCC.
D. Doing certain parts from memory and using the FCC for the
rest.

186 What is the maximum taxi speed when clear of the a. 20 kts. a 248
ramp? B. 10 kts.
C. Fast walking speed.
D. No limit.

187 What is the minimum spacing for taxiing directly a. 100 metres. b 246
behind another aircraft? b. 150 feet.
C. 50 feet.
D. One aircraft length.

188 What is the inflight minimum fuel? a. 10 gallons. a 245

b. 1/4 in each tank.
c. 1/10th in each tank.
d. No published minimum.

189 What checks must be done from memory? a. None. c 244

b. Bold Face.
c. Bold Face and airborne checks.
d. All checks.

190 What is the maximum altitude for the SMK? a. 500 feet. d 243
b. 5500 feet.
c. 6500 feet.
d. 10,000 feet.

191 A post mission walk-around is to be made on the a. Following a suspected bird strike. d 28
following occasions: b. When a heavy landing is suspected.
c. If the mission was flown as a solo.
d. After every mission.

192 Pre Spin brief is to include; a. Type, direction and intended number of turns, d 29
b. Recovery actions
c. Actions in the event of intercom failure or other emergency.
d. All of the above

193 Are pilots allowed to do checks while taxiing? a. Yes. b 388

b. No.
c. Yes, but only clear of the ramp.
d. Yes, but only when you are qualified.

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 CLOSED BOOK
194 Who is responsible for lookout during simulated IF? a. Both pilots. c 373
b. The flying pilot.
c. The non-flying pilot.
d. Depends on the phase of flight.

195 Does descent below 500' AGL on a PFL in the training a. Yes. a 236
area require specific authorisation? b. No.
c. Only with a cadet on board.
d. Only on SCR missions.

196 What is the maximum taxi speed on sharp corners and a. 5 kts. c 385
on the ramp? b. 8 kts.
c. 10 kts.
d. 12 kts.

197 What is the minimum height for initiating a practise a. 200' AGL. b 390
engine failure after take off? b. 300' AGL.
c. 500' AGL.
d. It does not matter.

198 When should you make a MAYDAY call? a. When unsure of ground position d 395
b. If you suspect a serious problem.
c. For all Bold Face emergencies.
d. When there is a chance that you may have to do a forced
landing.

199 If the aircraft is overstressed : a. Continue the mission as normal d 397

b. Continue if no damage was caused
c. Abort the mission
d. Abort the mission and carry out a controllability check
before landing.

200 What must you do if you see a solid red light while a. Stop. a 405
taxiing? b. Return to the ramp.
c. Cleared to taxi.
d. Taxi clear of the runway immediately.

STANEVAL
Question Answer Choice

201 All IP Proficiency evaluations are to include: a. Low level flying. b 643
b. A check of Instructional Technique (IT).
c. A No-Flap pattern.

202 What is the ground test required for Annual Eval are a. CAP Quiz, Open Book c 630
b. Close Book
c. All of the above

203 Pilot who has not flown a particular type in the last 30 a. False. b 633
days is to have a dual check with a qualified instructor b. True.
(QFI)

204 In the interest of flight safety a pilot has to obtain a. After he has taken any drug /medication d 637
medical clearance for flying duties, in any of the b. After being inoculated, vaccinated
following circumstances c. After donating blood
d. All of the above

205 If a pilot has not completed his required Proficiency a. May fly in a degraded supervised status a 639
evaluation by the end of the due month: b. A waiver to continue flying is to be applied for.
C. Fly one CT mission then the evaluation as soon as possible.

206 The validity period of indoctrination and decompression a. 1 c 646

chamber tests will be ____years b. 2
c. 3

207 How much notice is given for a evaluation mission? a. 2 hours d 1299
b. None
c. After landing from the first mission
d. That necessary for a normal mission.

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 CLOSED BOOK
208 If a pilot has not completed his IF evaluation by the end a. He must not fly again until the evaluation is flown. c 640
of the due month (Basic Month): b. A waiver is to be applied for.
c. He is to be restricted from IFR and Night Flying until the
evaluation is flown.

209 The pass mark for OPEN and CLOSED book written a. 100% / 95%. c 642
evaluations is: b. 85% / 100%.
c. 85% / 85%.

210 IP's may perform in-flight duties without a current a. They have approval from the flight surgeon. b 41
annual medical provided: b. Never.
c. They are no later than one month.
d. They have the approval of the Squadron Commander.

211 A Q- or U grade on evaluation items requires the a. No action if there is only one low grade. c 634
following action: b. A repeat evaluation.
c. Remedial action and possible re-evaluation.

SYLLABUS
Question Answer Choice

212 If a mission cannot be completed, what is the procedure? a. The mission is completed before the next mission is flown. b 224
b. The mission is reflown completely.
c. Only the uncompleted portion of the mission is flown.
d. The cadet is grounded.

213 Mission grades of 65-70% are considered as overall a. Good b 233

_______ b. Poor
c. Fail
d. Very Good

214 After how many DNCO(M) missions will a cadet be a. 1 c 215

recommended for suspension? b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

215 What is the minimum amount of time to be spent on a a. 20 minutes. b 217

pre-flight brief for cadet missions? b. 30 minutes.
c. No laid down criteria.
d. Preflight briefing is not required.

216 When are cadets to have a routine instructor change? a. After Mission 5. a 218
b. After Mission 6.
c. After a Mission 3 or 4.
d. There is no such thing as a "routine instructor change".

217 Can SCR 10 be flown by any IP? a. No. a 221

b. Yes.
c. Sometimes.
d. If the instructor feels that he has enough experience.

218 Screening & Streaming comprises of a. 10 + 25 Flying sorties a 33

b. 11 + 25 Flying sorties

219 If a cadet does not fly for more than 5 days, he may be : a. Given a flex mission a 1623
b. Interviewed by the IP
c. Warned by the flight commander
d. Scheduled for the next training sortie without any
additional action.

220 When a mission is graded FAIL the overall comments at a. Red ink. a 214
the end of the mission write-up must be written in: b. Blue ink.
c. Black ink.
d. Only items below level 2 in red ink.

TR MANUAL
Question Answer Choice

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 CLOSED BOOK
221 What is the minimum height above ground and speed a. 100’, 70kts. c 113
for retracting the flaps after a go around? b. 100’, 60kts.
c. 200’, 70kts.
d. 300’, 70kts.

222 What is the maximum angle of bank for the turn onto a. 20 deg. b 426
final approach? b. 30 deg.
c. 40 deg.
d. 45 deg.

223 What is the scan on final approach? a. Centreline, aimpoint, airspeed. a 427
b. Centreline, airspeed.
c. Airspeed, aimpoint.
d. Centreline, aimpoint.

224 When are FIEL checks to be done? a. Every 15 minutes. c 435

b. At Top of Climb.
c. Both A and B are correct.
d. At least once during a mission.

225 What anticipation is used for rolling out of a 30 deg a. 5 deg. b 429
turn? b. 10 deg.
c. 15 deg.
d. 20 deg.

226 What is the approximate power setting for cruise at 100 a. 20"MAP / 2200 RPM b 433
kts in SMK? b. 20"MAP / 2500 RPM.
c. 23"MAP / 2300 RPM.

227 When climbing to 5500 ft, when should lookout weaves a. Every 500'. b 434
be done? b. At 3000, 4000 and 5000 ft QNH.
C. At 3500 ft and 4500 ft QNH.
D. Just before levelling off.

AIRCRAFT INSTRUMENTS
Question Answer Choice

228 What are the temperature limitations for the battery a. 60/71 degrees centigrade. a 1535
LOW/HI warning lights? b. 80/71 degrees centigrade.
c. 50/81 degrees centigrade.
d. 45/71 degrees centigrade.

229 Under high temperature conditions the pressure a. Lower than your actual altitude. a 318
altimeter may indicate? b. Higher than your actual altitude.
c. Not affected.
d. Impossible to say.

230 How many preset channels can be stored in the COM 3 a. 24 b 1532
radio on SMK? b. 32
c. 34
d. 20

231 The PFD in QSMK can display Map. a. True a 1541

b. False

232 What is the power supply for the turn and slip indicator a. 6v DC from the emergency battery. d 89
on SMK? b. 24v DC from the aircraft battery.
c. 12v DC direct from the aircraft generator.
d. 18 to 28v DC from the main bus bar.

233 The ILS glide slope bar is displayed inside the CDI a. True. b 1538
b. False.

AIRCRAFT SYSTEMS
Question Answer Choice

234 How is the propellor driven on SMK aircraft? a. By direct drive from the engine crankshaft. a 473
b. Through a reduction gearbox from the engine crankshaft.
c. Through a set of planetary gears.
d. Indirectly by exhaust gas from the outlet manifold.

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 OPEN BOOK
235 If the database of the GPS is not updated, the GPS will: a. Provide navigational information. a 1554
b. Stop functioning.
c. Not acquire satellites.
d. All of the above.

236 The electric trim motors operates on ____ volts DC. a. 28V c 482
b. 24V
c. 12V
d. 32V

237 The Design manoeuvring speed (Va) for QSMK is ___ . a. 115 KIAS b 484
b. 143 KIAS
c. 143 KTAS
d. 196 KIAS

238 The rudder pedals turn the nosewheel through ___ either a. 5 deg b 471
side of neutral. b. 40 deg
c. 15 deg
d. 20 deg

239 The compression ratio of the SMK engine is: a. 6:1 c 81

b. 10:1
c. 8.5:1
d. 5:1

240 Impulse coupling is provided on the left magneto of the a. True. a 77

SMK engine. b. False.

241 What is the purpose of shroud tubes installed on top of a. To house the mechanism for valves operation. a 1544
the engine? b. To supply fuel to the cylinders.
c. To supply oil for lubrication of the spark plugs.
d. None of the above.

242 Considering the wheel brake system of QSMK, what a. Complete brake failure. b 1546
will be the effect of left master cylinder failure? b. Left brake failure for both occupants.
c. Left brake failure for left occupant.
d. None of the above.

243 How is the QSMK engine cooled? a. Through water circulation. b 1547
b. Through air circulation.
c. Air conditioning air.
d. Heat exchange with the fuel.

244 The diameter of the QSMK propeller is? a. 72 inches b 1548

b. 76 inches
c. 72.5 inches
d. 78 inches

245 The S/By battery life for PFD/MFD is a. 45 min a 86

b. 35 minutes
c. 40 seconds
d. 20 Min

246 For start up with a APU what additional action needs to a. Select the CB inside battery compartment to "IN" position. a 1553
be taken? B. Keep alternator on during start.
C. Put both mags on and then crank the engine.
D. None of the above

247 The Textron Lycoming engine in the QSMK is ____ . a. Air-cooled, fuel injected and has 6 cylinders. a 483
b. Water-cooled, fuel injected and has 4 cylinders.
c. Air-cooled, carburetted and has 6 cylinders.
d. Water-cooled, carburetted and has 4 cylinders.

248 What major accessories are driven by the QSMK engine? a. Engine driven fuel pump, oil pump, MAGs, AC compressor, a 1556
alternator
b. Fuel pump, oil pump, reduction gear box for the propeller,
AC compressor, alternator
c. Fuel pump, oil pump, hydraulic pump, alternator.

249 Fuel, under gravity, runs from tanks to the: a. Fuel pump. b 1558
b. Fuel selector valve.
C. Engine.
D. None of the above

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 OPEN BOOK
250 The recommended pressures for the main and the nose a. 25,30 psi d 1559
tyres are: b. 35,30 psi
c. 25,35 psi
d. 30,30 psi

251 What is the direction of the crank shaft rotation (as a. Clockwise. a 1560
viewed from the cockpit). b. Anti-clockwise

252 The small air scoop adjacent to the external canopy a. ECS b 1600
opening handle, on the right side of the cockpit, b. Cooling of the Avionic & Display Screens
provides air for: c. Battery cooling
d. Cockpit ventilation.

253 PFD is protected by the CB marked: a. ON c 1610

b. ENG INST
c. PFD
d. EL INST

254 The PFD operates on 28V DC power. a. True b 1625

b. False

255 You can select VHF distress frequency by pressing and a. True a 1630
holding frequency flip flop key for 2 sec

256 IN overspeed condition the flyweights tilt outward, and a. True b 1631
raise the pilot valve which increases oil flow to increase b. False
propeller pitch and increase engine RPM.

257 The impulse coupling on the _____ magneto produces a a. Right, Advanced d 1632
strong b, Left, Advanced
________ignition spark to facilitate starting. c. Right, Retarded
d. Left , Retarded

258 What is the ignition sequence of cylinders in the QSMK a. 1,2,3,4,5,6 c 1549
engine? b. 2,1,3,4,6,5
c. 1,4,5,2,3,6
d. 6,5,4,3,2,1

259 The QSMK has two aerials on the leading edge of the a. HF radio fit for delivery flights. c 87
vertical stabliser. What are they for? b. DME calibration equipment.
c. VHF NAV reciever.
d. Civil Defence radio fit.

260 What is the inherent lag of the VSI? a. 10 sec c 110

b. 15 sec
c. 6-9 sec
d. 3-4 sec

261 The SMK engine is: a. 4 cylinders, horizontally opposed. d 105

b. 6 cylinders, in line.
c. 4 cylinders, in line.
d. 6 cylinders, horizontally opposed.

262 The wing span of SMK is: a. 27 ft c 102

b. 30 ft
c. 29 ft
d. 23 ft

263 What type of brakes are fitted to the SMK? a. Mechanical. b 101
b. Hydraulic.
c. Pneumatic.
d. Hydro-pneumatic.

264 The transponder in the ALT mode transmits IFF code a. True. a 100
and altitude information. b. False.

265 What type of oil is used for SMK engine? a. Mil L 808. c 99
b. Mil H 8082.
c. Mil L 6082.
d. Mil H 6082.

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 OPEN BOOK
266 What is the maximum all up weight and baggage area a. 1200kg, 100 kg a 95
load for the SMK? b. 1200kg, 300 kg
c. 1200lbs, 100 lbs
d. 2400lbs, 120 lbs

267 What is the rated output for the SMK engine? a. 145 BHP. d 82
b. 200 BHP.
c. 250 BHP.
d. 260 BHP.

268 Active frequency of Comm and Nav are depicted by a. Green a 91

_____ colour b. Blue
c. White
d. White Rectangle

269 The pilot can counter any rolling tendency by trimming a. True. b 474
the ailerons in SMK? b. False.

270 During normal operation electrical power is supplied to a. Battery. b 445

the busbar by : b. Alternator.
c. Magnetos.

271 Magnetos are: a. The same as spark plugs in a car. b 467

b. Very high voltage generators.
c. Electrical current regulators.
d. Voltage regulators.

272 The use of differential braking allows the nosewheel to a. 20 deg c 472
castor up to ___. b. 30 deg
c. 50 deg
d. 45 deg.

273 What type of flaps are fitted to the SMK? a. Plain flaps. a 93
b. Slotted plain flaps.
c. Split flaps.
d. Slotted fowler flaps.

274 What is the function of the nosewheel steering bungee? a. To disable flight controls on ground c 470
b. To keep the nose oleo from collapsing
c. It is used for steering the aircraft on ground
d. To maintain alignment of the nose wheel.

275 What can be used to help if the static vent becomes a. Alternate air. a 458
blocked? b. Pitot heat.
c. Increase engine RPM to help clear the blockage.
d. Only use the compass for heading reference.

276 The SMK oil system is a: a. Wet sump, full pressure system a 466
b. Wet sump, gravity feed system
c. Dry sump, pressure feed system
d. Dry sump, gravity feed system

277 In the SMK aircraft, the fuel line runs from the selector a. Carburetor d 462
valve to the: b. Intake manifold
c. Wing tanks
d. Low pressure fuel filter (strainer).

278 The fuel system is a: a. Simple gravity feed system a 461

b. Pressurised system
c. Closed loop sub-atmospheric system
d. Gravity-independent positive pressure system.

279 What is the function of the fuel injector? a. It regulates fuel from the fuel tanks. d 460
b. It filters fuel before it is supplied to the pistons.
c. It regulates propellor RPM.
d. It supplies air and fuel in metered quantities to the engine.

APPROACH PLATES
Question Answer Choice

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 OPEN BOOK
280 You are asked to 'Recycle Transponder', what should a. Turn the IFF OFF and then to St BY c 1317
you do? b. Check your IFF transponder CB in
c. Select STBY, recheck and if required correct the code,
select ON/ALT
d. Select IDT and TST keys simultaneously

281 What is the Decision Height with RVR 2400FT for a a. 325'. a 280
straight-in landing ILS approach to Runway 34 at b. 430'.
AlUdied c. 620'.
D. 545'.

282 The touchdown zone elevation (TDZE) for runway 34 is: a. 125'. a 287
b. 135'.
c. 225'.
d. 145'.

283 Referring to the ILS Runway 01 at Riyadh Air Base: a. 800m. a 299
what is the CAT A visibility limit? b. 1000m.
c. 1600m.
d. 1200m.

FOB
Question Answer Choice

284 A QFI must have flown from the instructor’s seat within a. 7 d 154
the last _____days b. 30
c. 45
d. 60

285 Flying below ______ feet AGL over cities, towns, a. 1000 feet AGL. c 49
industrial areas and populated places is prohibited, b. 1500 feet AGL.
except in the course of authorized duties. c. 2000 feet AGL.
d. 2500 feet AGL.

286 For take-off and landing, VFR is defined as ceiling and a. 3000 feet and 5 km. d 43
visibility of: b. 2000 feet and 5 Km.
c. 2000 feet and 3 Km.
d. 1000 feet and 5 Km.

287 Aircrew may only donate blood with the consent of his a. OC Flying Wing a 147
_______ b. OC Sqn
c. Flt Surgeon
d. CFI

288 An oral or a written ground examination is to be a. False b 329

conducted by an Instrument Rating Examiner (IRE) / b. True
Instrument Rating Instructor (IRI) within 7 days of the
initial flight test.

289 OTD-1 (Al-Qalail). OTD-1 is used for practice firing of a. Surface to 27000 a 51
artillery, heavy machine gun and air defense weapons b. Surface to 15000
(Ground to Air). The vertical limits of the area are c. Surface to 5000
_____ level to ______feet

290 A IRE is cleared to carry out evaluations: a. When recommended by his Squadron Commander. b 649
b. After written approval of the OC Flying.
C. On approval from HQ QAEF.

291 Where are the SOF duties listed? a. SOF guide. d 1563
b. FOB.
c. 60-1.
d. Both b and c are correct.

292 Take off from 16R is prohibitted from abeam taxiways a. E2 TWY a 1539
b. F2 TWY
c. B2 TWY
d. a&b

293 No pilot is to be allowed to fly at night if he has not a. 1 a 632

flown the same type of aircraft in day light during the b. 2
preceding ___ days c. 5

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294 The calculation of DH or DA will depend on : a. Type of Aid in Use c 378
b. Instrument Rating
c. All of the above

295 Pilots are to keep a good lookout for other aircraft and a.True a 354
are to stay away at least half a nautical mile horizontally b. False
and 500 feet vertically from other aircraft

296 Egress training is required every: a. 3 months. c 350

b. 6 months
c. 12 months
d. There is no specified requirment.

297 New items for the PIF require the following action: a. Briefed at morning met by the Staneval director c 344
b. Entered in the ACIF
c. Unit Standardization Officer enters it in the PIF folder, turns
the pieces to red side
d. Briefing by Operations

298 Aircrew are not to exceed the following flying hours a. 5 hours of flying in 24 hours period but not more than four c 339
limits: sorties.
b. 70 hours of flying in a month.
c. 175 hours of flying in a quarter.
d. All of the above

299 No aircrew is to consume any type of alcohol less than a. 8. c 338

___hrs, prior to flying. b. 16.
c. 12.
d. 24.

300 a. +/- 5 Deg Heading, +/- 5 Kts, +/- 50 Ft b 334

White Rating is awarded to pilots who have passed the b. +/- 5 Deg Heading, +/- 5 Kts, +/- 100 Ft
prescribed flying and ground tests but lack the accuracy c. +/- 10 Deg Heading, +/- 10 Kts, +/- 100 Ft
and experience criteria for the award of a Green rating
which is ______ for fix wing

301 The Grade 1 diversion is issued either direct or through a. Mandatory a 328
air traffic control and is '______'. b. Advisory

302 If the weather is below published minima for the a. Commence the approach. b 211
approach, what are your actions? b. Hold or divert to an alternate.
c. Declare an emergency.
d. Do the "lost communication" procedure.

303 The correct & timely application of ATC instruction, a. Yes. a 195
VOR + 5 deg, ILS ½ scale deflection of either localizer b. No.
or glide slope is the standard for IRT for all category
pilots

304 Only designated test pilots having a minimum of “100 a. True a 208
solo hours” on the type are authorized for FCF b. False

305 Can passengers be carried on an FCF? a. No. a 207

b. Yes.
c. Only in VFR conditions.
d. Yes, cadets only.

INSTRUCTIONAL KNOWLEDGE
Question Answer Choice

306 Further aerodynamic effect of yaw is: a. Roll a 1588

b. Yaw
c. Pitch
d. None.

307 After the incipient spin stage, holding the ailerons a. Higher rate of rotation a 1571
neutral will result in a: b. Lower rate of rotation
c. Oscillatory spin
d. None of the above.

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308 By design the QSMK is reluctant to enter an inverted a. Sweep forward wing design. c 1576
spin. One of the contributing factors to this effect is: b. High mounted elevator.
c. Lack of elevator control effectiveness.
d. All of the above.

309 The height lost during a split S performed at 70 kts and a. 500 feet. c 1579
3 'G' will be: b. 800 feet.
c. 1000 feet.
d. 1500 feet.

310 Recommended "g" for loop, Roll over the Top, clover a. 3.5, 4, 3, 2 a 1581
leaf and stall turn are: b. 3.5, 4.5, 2, 2
c. 4, 4, 3, 3
d. 3.5, 4, 3, 2.5

311 Attitude is defined as a. Nose of Aircraft c 1586

b. Horizon
c. Relationship between Nose and horizon
d. None of the above

312 Application of full power alone is not sufficient to a. True. a 1567

recover QSMK out of a fully developed stall. b. False.

313 How is the rate of descent controlled during base? a. Attitude b 1589
b. Power
c. Not a consideration
d. Trim.

314 Symptoms of approaching stall are: a. Low speed with nose high attitude b 1590
b. Stall warning horn, high angle of attack and airframe buffet
c. Speed reduction with low power
d. None of the above.

315 During a constant speed glide, the rate of descent a. Increase in Mach No c 50
reduces with the altitude due to: b. Increase in EAS
c. Decrease in TAS
d. None of the above.

316 The Super Mushshak wings are swept forward by 5 a. Alleviate wing tip stall tendency d 1618
degrees to: b. Improve the spin characteristics
c. Reduce vortex drag
d. To shift the CP forward and thereby increase
maneuverability

317 For an aircraft with B/A ratio > 1.3, the in spin aileron a. True a 1621
(same as spin direction for an erect spin) has an anti- b. False
spin effect.

318 To get maximum gliding distance in a strong headwind: a. Decrease your speed to about 60 kts. d 39
b. Maintain best glide speed of 70 kts.
c. Decrease your speed to about 65 kts.
d. Increase your speed to about 90 kts.

319 On the stall you will always experience one of the a. Low IAS. d 37
following: b. Sloppy controls.
c. High nose attitude.
d. Stall warning horn.

320 Generally speaking, the obtainable loadfactor for any a. TAS b 1584
aircraft, increases with an increase in the: b. EAS
c. Mach No
d. All of the above.

321 When an aircraft is straight and level at constant a. T & W are equal. c 122
airspeed: b. L & D are equal.
c. L & W are equal.
d. L, T, D & W are equal.

322 What is the angle of bank for a rate one turn if you have a. 18°. b 126
a TAS of 90 kts? b. 16°.
c. 17°.
d. 15°.

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INSTRUMENT FLYING
Question Answer Choice

323 The first letter of an ILS identifier is always: a. OE to denote Saudi Arabia. b 294
b. I.
c. Could be any letter.
d. First letter of airport designator.

324 VOR is an abbreviation for: a. VHF Oscillating Range. c 1562

b. Vertical Omni Range.
c. VHF Omni directional radio range.
d. VHF Omni Radial.

325 What are the pitch limits for the AI installed in the a. ±80°. b 303
SMK? b. ±85°.
c. ±90°.
d. ±360°.

326 If the static vent becomes blocked while the aircraft is a. A climb. c 288
descending, the VSI will indicate: b. A descent.
c. Level flight.
b. A slow descent.

327 You are expected to correct for wind in the hold by a. Normal. c 300
applying ____ the drift correction to the outbound leg. b. Double.
c. Triple.
d. Quadruple.

328 Why do the glidepath and localiser indications appear to
be more sensitive as the range decreases?
a. As you pass the outer marker the glidepath and localiser b 24
immediately become more sensitive.
b. The width of both the localiser beam and the glideslope
beam gets smaller as you approach the runway.
c. As you pass the middle marker the glidepath and localiser
immediately become more sensitive.
d. Because the signal strength changes.

329 Why should you intercept an ILS glide path from below? a. To avoid intercepting a false glide path a 1561
b. Approaches can only be designed this way
c. The ILS reciever antenna is located on top of the aircraft
d. The glide path is too steep if you intercept it from above.

330 Using the 1 in 60 rule, an aircraft that is 1 degree off a. 6 nm. c 297
course at 120 nm is approximately ____ nm off course. b. 9 nm.
c. 2 nm.
d. 3 nm.

331 From map display which switches are required to be a. Engine, Assist b 291
selected for Leaning Mixture b.
C.
D.

332 When departing Al-Udied on an IF SCT, what speed a. 70 kts. c 1564

should be flown when climbing and the height is < 500' b. 80 kts.
AGL. c. 85 kts.
d. 100 kts.

333 Under what conditions is airframe icing most likely to a. Rain/cloud above 10,000 feet. b 284
occur? b. Visible moisture in the air at or below +5°C.
c. When the Met Office forecasts icing.
d. All of the above.

334 What is the difference between altitude and flight level? a. This concerns ATC only. b 17
b. Flight level is used above the transition layer and altitude is
used below.
c. Flight level is a new way of saying "altitude".
d. There is no difference.

335 Is it possible to plan a route on the GPS when the a. Yes b 27

aircraft is parked inside the Shelter. b. No.
c. Yes but it will take a very long time to acquire the satellites.

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336 If you travel 1nm in 30 seconds your groundspeed is a. 60 kts. b 298
____ kts. b. 120 kts.
c. 90 kts.
d. 80 kts.

337 If you are flying at 9,000 feet overhead a VOR/DME a. 9.0 DME. d 3
station what is the minimum range you would expect to b. 3.0 DME.
see? c. 0.0 DME.
d. 1.5 DME.

338 The VOR transmits a code every ____ seconds. a. 10 seconds. c 316
b. 5 seconds.
c. 7.5 seconds.
d. 30 seconds.

LOP
Question Answer Choice

339 Normal holding point for RWY 16L a. C1,D1 a 32

b. C,D
c. B,C.
d. H,G

340 For IFR or VFR missions flight planning requirements a. Flying Progam d 150
can be met by: b. Completing a flight plan.
c. Calling ATC on taxi.
d. a & b

341 While proceeding to Doha for IF mission all pilots must a. IFG d 1607
carry _______. b. PLB
c. Life Jacket
d. All of the above

342 Avoid manoeuvering inside the area bounded within a. 2.5 NM, 15 NM a 1604
_____ Nm either side of extended centerline of RWY 34 b. 5 NM, 10 NM
/16 till __________ NM.

343 Reduced (Same) Runway Separation Minima (RRSM) a, 3000 Ft a 1651

to land behind front QSMK is________ b, 4000 Ft
c. 6000 Ft

344 Clearance to cross the runway must be obtained on a. True b 1649

ground frequency before crossing. b. False

345 If sunrise is at 0530, are we night flying if we get a. No. b 194

airborne at 0515? b. Yes.
c. Only in winter.
d. Only if IFR.

346 Who may release flights on the QSMK form 781? a. Operations director. b 156
b. Unit Commander or his authorised representative.
c. Both the above and the Supervisor.
D. Any squadron pilot.

347 Visibility and cloud limits for night flying would be as a. SVFR b 1648
per the criteria of b. VFR day
c. IFR

348 No take-offs or touch-and-go behind a departing Heavy a. 2 min 3 1650

aircraft until b. 3 min
c. 5 min

349 Blindfold cockpit check is to be conducted at least on a. Before first flight in command of an aircraft. d 157
the following occasions: b. As part of ground check for regaining current status.
c. After every 60 days (especially for under training pilots).
d. All of the above

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350 After take off from runway 34R departure for Doha is a. Proceed to Northgate, from Northgate climb to 1500 for Zulu a 186
head to X-Ray
b. Proceed to Eastgate, from Eastgate climb to 1500 for direct
X-Ray
c. Proceed to Eastgate, from Eastgate climb to 2000 for direct
to X-Ray
d. Proceed direct to X-ray climbing to 1500

351 Aircrew are not to exceed ______flying hours of flying a. 175 a 159
in a quarter. b. 200
c. 90
d. 100

352 What is the minimum time before departure for filing a a. 30 minutes. c 189
flight plan? b. 45 minutes.
c. 1 hour.
d. 1 hour and 30 minutes.

353 Special VFR flight shall be operated only when cleared a. 3 KM and 1000 ft a 162
by OC Wing and in conditions less is than those b. 3.5 KM and 1000 ft
specified for VFR .For QSMK visiblity of ____ and C. 4 KM and 1500 ft
cloud base of ____ is minimum limit. D. 3 KM and 1500 ft

354 The procedure for departure RWY 34 when transiting a. At Northgate steer 355 to College, climb to 1500', from a 441
for Al-Khor is: College steer 020 for Shamal Interchng
b. At Northgate steer 355 to College, climb to 2000', from
College steer 020 for Shamal Interchng
c. At Westgate steer 360 to College, climb to 2000', from
College steer 020 for Shamal Interchng
d. At Northgate steer 270 to College, climb to 1500', from
College steer 020 for Shamal Interchng

355 How do you file a flight plan for an instrument mission a. Use normal flight plan. a 187
to Doha? b. The daily flying schedule is the flight plan.
c. Call the tower.
d. Flight plans are not required.

356 How long must an IP have been at the 30 Sqn and how a. 3 months and 25 hours. d 478
many hours flown to qualify as an Sqn Sup? b. Only has to be cleared by OC Unit
c. Done supervisor course.
d. Cleared by OC Sqn

357 What are the acceptable take off positions for runway a. C, B & D. a 172
16R? b. C, B, D & E.
c. D & B.
d. C & D.

358 How many missions can an IP fly in a one day? a. 4. c 165

b. 2.
c. 3.
d. 1.

SAFETY EQUIPMENT
Question Answer Choice

359 Never engage Starter for more then ______ a. 20 Sec b 1634
b. 10 Sec.
C.30 Sec
d. 10 min

360 During flight the on board fire extinguisher can be easily a. Both the pilots a 1603
accessed by: b. Left seat occupant
c. Right seat occupant
d. None.

361 The type of fire extinguisher carried on board the SMK a. Dry chemical type a 1602
is: b. Foam type
c. Liquid nitrogen type
d. Other.

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362 If the aircraft turns over on its back, the exit from the a. Through canopy b 242
cockpit is only possible: b. Through baggage compartment door
c. Through the avionics compartment
d. Through the side window

363 How can the seat back rest be detached from the seat
assembly for an emergency escape from the cockpit?
a. Break the seat back rest using the knife d 1622
b. Unscrew the seat assembly from the floor
c. Pull the seat adjustment handle to fully out position
d. Pull out the piano hinges to separate the seat back by
pulling up.

364 PLB uses the 406 MHz search and rescue satellite a. True a 1633
communication system and a built in GPS with b. False
accuracy of +/- 62m, and also transmits a 121.5MHz
homing signal.

SOP
Question Answer Choice

365 The Taxi light is to be switched on once ready for taxi a. True a 8
and switched off prior to engine shutdown unless it is b. False
unsafe to do so

366 Wind limitations for Cadet Training is a. HW 20kts , CW13 Kts, TW 7 Kts b 31
b. HW 15kts , CW13 Kts, TW 7 Kts
c. HW 25kts , CW15 Kts, TW 7 Kts
d. HW 15kts , CW 8 Kts, TW 3 Kts

367 Who may log actual instrument time in IMC? a. The pilot flying the aircraft. d 30
b. The aircraft captain.
c. The senior aircrew member.
d. Both a. and b. are correct.

368 During ground operation at Doha if you notice that a. COM 1 or 2 is serviceable. a 1555
COM 3 is not serviceable, you can fly back to Al-Udied B. Another aircraft is there to formate on
only if: c. UHF is serviceable.
D. GPS is serviceable.

STANEVAL
Question Answer Choice

369 Who may carry out an acceptance check on a Non- a. Squadron Commander. d 213
QAEF IP? b. Any SEFE.
c. Squadron Commander and Squadron CFI
d. Squadron Commander and nominated SEFE.

370 3 Q- grades for non-specific tasks on a flying evaluation a. A maximum overal grade of Q. c 325
requires the following action: b. A repeat evaluation within 5 working days.
c. An overall grade of Q-, 11-45 action and additional training.
d. No specific direction is given in the Vol 1.

371 Aerobatics are not to be performed within the area of a a. True a 357
control zone, irrespective of weather conditions except b. False
with permission of the ATCO.

372 The 11-45 must be signed by the Unit Commander a. 5. a 326

within ___ duty days of the completion date of the b. 10.
evaluation: c. 7.
d. 30.

373 If a pilot has not flown for > 365 days then: a. His Basic Month is to be revised. b 641
b. He must undergo Re-qualification and a Proficiency
Evaluation.
C. His Basic Month remains the same months after the IF
evaluation

374 Any additional training specified by the CFI/FLT CDR a. 7 days. b 631
on eval sheet is to be completed no later than______ b. 30 days.
after the initial evaluation. c. 10 days.

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SYLLABUS
Question Answer Choice

375 GWL 1 is awarded to a SP for :- (a) The failure of an academic test (< 60%). d 1642
(b) Failure of a boldface test (<100%).
(c) A single failure in officer qualities.
(d) All of the above

376 AWL 1 is awarded to a SP for: (a) Two consecutive poor / yellow standard overall syllabus d 1643
sortie grades.
(b) One fail / red standard overall sortie grades.
(c) Discipline issue
(d) a & b

377 Squadron Commander may authorize additional flying a, 5 a 1645

sorties when there has been a break in SP training b. 7
continuity of at least ____ consecutive working days. c. 3
d 10

378 Cadets will take the AKT-1 (Applied Knowledge Test) a.SC-8 a 1647
after ______ b. SC-5
c. SC-2
d. SC-19

379 The SP experiences disabling or disruptive nausea a, Passive Air sickness a 1646
during flight, in which the IP has to control / fly the b Active Air sickness
aircraft due to SP inability to maintain awareness is
called.

380 The cadet required only MINOR assistance to perform a. Level 2 Grade c 1641
the task safely with only SMALL errors in procedures, b. Level 1 Grade
techniques and/or accuracy. c. Level 3 Grade

381 The cadet requires FREQUENT assistance or had a. In Level 2 Grade a 1640
difficulty performing the task safely and/or accurately. b. In Level 3 Grade
He requires further instruction to correct LARGE c. In Level 1 Grade
ERROR in procedures, techniques and/or accuracy.

382 IF, Nav and Formation phases have final sortie as test a. True b 1639
mission. b. False

383 AWL 3 shall result in referral to a RC for analysis of the (a) Final check sortie with the senior supervisor d 1644
SP’s underlying problems. The options available to a RC (b) Back-course of SP.
for a SP under AWL 3 are: (c) Suspension of SP from the PFT.
(d) All of the above

384 Mission can only be failed after _______ a. SC-3 b 1587

b. SC-5

385 An IP qualification flight evaluation is required for a. True. a 335

pilots after their MQT: b. False.

386 After an IP fails a written examination: a. He is grounded until he passes the retest. d 337
b. He will be given adequate time (max 5 days) to prepare for
the retest.
c. The Eval Sheet will show both the failed and re-tested marks.
D. All of the above.

387 Monthly tests contain a minimum of ____ questions a. 10. b 340

from the master question bank: b. 25.
c. 50.
d. Doesn't matter.

388 On completion of the initial proficiency a pilot: a. Can fly syllabus missions until further notice. c 341
b. Is cleared to fly as soon as he signs the Eval Sheet.
C. Is not to fly until the Eval Sheet has been approved by theAir
Academy Commander.
D. Is grounded until his aeromedical training is completed.

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389 A Eval Officer is cleared to fly evaluation missions: a. When recommended by his Unit OC. b 342
b. When approved as a Eval Officer by the Air Academy
Commander .
c. When approved by QAEF HQ.
d. When he has passed the ground evaluation.

390 One first failure at SC-6 a Red- Air warning is given a. False a 286
b. True

391 After failing a mission the cadet requires an interview a. True a 1585
with the CFI. b. False

392 Overall grades below 65% will be given _____ 65 to a. Poor, Sat, Good a 1638
69% will be given _____and 70% and above will be b. Poor, Good, Very Good
given ______ as overall marks. c. Poor, Weak, Good

393 Overall failing mission is below_____% grades a. 65 %. a 237

b. 60 %
c. 66 %
d. 70%

394 If a cadet does not fly for more than 30 days, he will be a. 02 currency missions c 225
given : b. 01 dual check-out before the resumption of training flying
c. As many currency missions as recommended by the
squadron commander
d. None of the above.

395 WSO SP is responsible to handle all the Radio/Nav a. True a 1629

Comm Frequencies b. False

396 Students will appear in following ground tests / quizes a. GKT d 1635
during their training period b, AKT
c. BFQ
d. All of the above

397 A sortie grading sheet should be completed by the IP a. True a 1636

immediately before the debriefing to ensure that the SP b.False
is aware of his progress.

398 SC-1 to SC-3 are non graded mission. However, the a. True a 1637
SP’s performance shall be rated on each individual b. False
exercise

399 A Q- for a single specific task requires: a. Max overall grade Q, no further action. c 347
b. No restriction on the overall grade but a strong debriefing is
required.
c. Max overall grade Q-, with additional training required.
d. Max overall grade Q, with additional training required.

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