FS SC M2 Test Paper Key

FS+ Science Mathayom 2
Test paper answer key
Chapter 1 Human Body Systems
Questions
1. The diagram below shows part of the human respiratory system.
Which of the following parts are represented by X, Y and Z?

X Y Z
A Trachea Alveolus Bronchus
B Bronchiole Bronchus Trachea
C Trachea Bronchus Bronchiole
D Bronchiole Trachea Bronchus
2. What is the function of the cartilage in the walls of the trachea?

A Traps dust and harmful microorganisms and prevents them from entering
the body.
B Ensures a passageway for air entering the body.
C Supports and prevents the trachea from collapsing.
D Produces mucus which lubricates the lungs.
3. The diagram below shows part of the human respiratory system.
1 | Science Mathayom 2
What happens when structure P becomes flat?
A The volume of the thoracic cavity decreases.
B Air is forced out of the lungs.
C The air pressure in the thoracic cavity increases.
D The ribcage moves upwards and outwards.
4. The diagram below shows a model of the human respiratory system.
Which of the following will happen when structure X is pulled and deflated
downwards?
A Air from outside enters into the balloons.
B The air pressure in the bell jar increases.
C The volume of air enclosed by the bell jar and the rubber sheet
decreases.
D The air pressure in the balloons increases.
5.
W – Oxyhemoglobin releases oxygen to the body cells.
X – Oxygen diffuses from the alveoli into the blood capillaries.
Y – Oxygenated blood is transported around the body.
Z – Oxygen combines with hemoglobin to form oxyhemoglobin.
Which of the following is the correct sequence of transport of oxygen by

blood?
A X, Z, W, Y
B X, Z, Y, W
C Y, X, Z, W
D Z, W, X, Y
6. Which of the following substances in cigarette smoke which are harmful to
the respiratory system?
I Nicotine
II Nitrogen
III Tar
A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II and III
7. Which of the following organs are excretory organs?
A P and R
B R and S
C P and Q
D Q and S
8. Which pairs is correctly matched between the excretory organ and its
excretory substances?
Excretory organs Excretory substances
A Lungs Carbon dioxide, water
B Kidneys Water, carbon dioxide, urea
C Skin Water, mineral salts, carbon dioxide
D Lungs Carbon dioxide, urea, water
9. The diagram below shows the structure of the human skin.
Which of the following shows the function of structure X?

A Secretes an oily liquid
B Produces sweat
C Excretes carbon dioxide
D Detects temperature change
10. What is the main function of urinary bladder?

A Removes waste products from the blood
B As temporary storage for the urine
C Carries urine from the kidney to the bladder
D Increases the formation of the urea
11. Which of the following shows the sequence of organs involved in converting
urea into urine before passing out from the body?
A Kidney → urethra → bladder → ureter
B Kidney → ureter → bladder → urethra
C Kidney → bladder → ureter → urethra
D Kidney → bladder → urethra → ureter
12. The diagram below shows the human urinary system.
What is the function of X?

A Channels urine to the kidney
B Channels urine out of the body
C Channels urine to the urinary bladder
D Stores urine
13. The diagram below shows a human heart.
P Q
A Aorta Pulmonary artery
B Pulmonary vein Aorta
C Pulmonary artery Pulmonary vein
D Pulmonary vein Pulmonary artery
14. Which of the following is the function of the human heart?

A To pump the blood to the whole body
B To excrete oxygen
C To exchange gases
D To digest food
15. The human circulatory system is a double circulatory system because

A The heart receives oxygenated and deoxygenated blood.
B The heart is divided into the left and right halves.
C The blood passes through the lungs twice.
D The blood flows through the heart twice in one complete circuit of the
body.
16. Which of the following is true about artery?

Size of the Rate of blood Function
lumen flow
A Big Fast Carries oxygenated blood
B Big Slow Carries blood into the heart
C Small Slow Carried blood out of the heart
D Small Fast Carried blood out of the heart
17. Which of the following is the correct pathway of blood flow in the
circulatory system?
A Left atrium → left ventricle → lungs → right ventricle → right atrium
B Left atrium → left ventricle → right ventricle → right atrium → lungs
C Right atrium → right ventricle → lungs → left atrium → left ventricle
D Right atrium → right ventricle → left atrium → left ventricle → lungs
18. The diagram below shows the process of gaseous diffusion occurring in the
alveolus.
Which of the following correctly states the contents of the blood at P and
Q?
P Q
A Oxygenated blood containing no Deoxygenated blood containing
carbon dioxide carbon dioxide
B Deoxygenated blood containing Oxygenated blood containing no
carbon dioxide carbon dioxide
C Deoxygenated blood containing Oxygenated blood containing a lot
no carbon dioxide of carbon dioxide
D Oxygenated blood containing a Deoxygenated blood containing no
lot of carbon dioxide carbon dioxide
19. What makes the concentration of carbon dioxide high in the alveolus?
A Carbon dioxide diffuses into the alveolus.
B Carbon dioxide diffuses into the blood capillary.
C Oxygen diffuses from the blood capillary.
D Oxygen diffuses into the alveolus.
20. The diagram below shows a cell found in the human body.
Which of the following shows the correct function for the cell?
A Sends nerve impulses
B Stores and transport materials
C Causes movement by contraction
D Covers the external surfaces of the body
21. What is the function of the Node of Ranvier?

A Receives impulses
B Serves as an insulating layer
C Conducts impulses away from the cell body
D Helps to speed up the transmission of impulses
22. The information below shows the pathway of a nerve impulse when a boy
accidentally touched a hot kettle.
Stimulus → X → Sensory neuron → Y → Motor neuron → Z → Response
Which of the following correctly represents X, Y and Z?
X Y Z
A Brain Effector Receptor
B Effector Brain Receptor
C Receptor Effector Brain
D Receptor Brain Effector
Chapter 2 Human Reproduction
Questions
1. The diagram below shows the structure of a male reproductive organ.
Which of the following is represented by W, X, Y and Z?
W X Y Z
A Testis Urethra Urethra Penis
B Sperm Prostate Testis Penis
duct
C Sperm Scrotum Testis Urethra
duct
D Scrotum Penis Urethra Testis
2. Which of the following organs produces sperms?

A Penis
B Testes
C Sperm duct
D Scrotum
3. Which of the following is the function of the urethra?

A Stores sperms
B Places sperms in the vagina
C Protects the testes
D Carries sperms and urine out of the body
4. Each sperm is made up of
I a middle piece
II a long tail
III a gland
IV a head
A I, II and III only

B I, II and IV only
C II, III and IV only
D I, II, III and IV
5. The diagram below shows the human reproductive system.
Which is true about Y and Z?

Y Z
A Dilated during Produces female gametes
childbirth
B Dilated during Directs and moves the egg cells to
childbirth the uterus
C Produces female gametes Dilated during
childbirth
D Place where the fetus Produces female gametes
develops and grows
6. Which of the following structures will secrete mucus that enhances sperm
movement into the uterus?
A Vagina
B Cervix
C Fallopian tube
D Bladder
7. Why is an ovum larger than a sperm?
A The ovum contains more vacuoles.
B The ovum contains more genetic materials.
C The ovum contains more food reserve.
D The ovum contains more waste products.
8. Which of the following is true about puberty?

I Only males experience acne problem during puberty.
II Teens usually gain weight and height during puberty.
III Both males and females may experience the growth of pubic hair during
puberty.
A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II and III
9. The diagram below shows the thickening process of the uterine wall in a
menstrual cycle.
Fertilization will most likely occur in phase labelled

A W
B X
C Y
D Z
10. The diagram below shows the changes in the uterus lining during a menstrual
cycle.
Which of the following shows the correct match between the changes in the
uterine lining and the phases of a menstrual cycle?
A B Ans = B
C D
11. Which of the following personal hygienic habits should be practiced during
menstruation?
I Have a bath regularly.
II Change the sanitary pad every eight hours.
III Discard the used sanitary pad properly.
A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II and III
12. The process of releasing the mature ovum from the ovary is called
A ovulation
B fertilization
C implantation
D parturition
13. What is the process taken place when a male gamete fuses with a female
gamete?
A Ovulation
B Fertilization
C Implantation
D Germination
14. The diagram below shows the process of fusion between an ovum and a sperm
cell.
What is formed immediately after the process above?

A A zygote
B A fetus
C An embryo
D A baby
15. The diagram below shows a female reproductive system.
Where does fertilization and development of embryo each take place?

Fertilization Development of embryo
A K L
B K M
C L M
D M N
16. How long is the normal period of gestation in humans?

A 34 weeks
B 40 weeks
C 45 weeks
D 48 weeks
17. The diagram below shows a fetus developing in the womb.
Answer = B
Which of the labelled parts, A, B, C or D, allows exchange of gases and

nutrients?
18. The following information is regarding a problem faced by a married couple.
- The wife is unable to get pregnant.
- Blocked Fallopian tube
What is the problem?

A Menopause
B Gestation
C Menstruation
D Sterility
19. The diagram below shows a fetus developing in the womb.
Which of the following actions by the mother threatens the life of the
fetus?
A Drinking more water
B Doing light exercise
C Eating regularly
D Taking drugs
20. The table below shows the function of two birth control devices, Y and Z.
Birth control device Function
Y Prevents sperms from entering the uterus
Z Prevents implantation
What is represented by Y and Z?

Y Z
A Condom Diaphragm
B Diaphragm IUD
C IUD Spermicide
D Spermicide Condom
Chapter 3 Mixtures
Questions
1. Which of the following statements is true about evaporation?

I Evaporation occurs at any temperature of a liquid.
II Evaporation occurs on the surface of a liquid.
III Evaporation can be used to separate a soluble solid from a liquid.
A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II and III
2. P is a method used to separate sand and salt solution while Q is a method

used to obtain salt from seawater. Which of the following is true about P and
Q?
P Q
A Boiling Neutralization
B Filtration Evaporation
C Melting Respiration
D Distillation Boiling
3. The diagram below shows a method of separating a certain mixture.
This method can be used to obtain

A salt from a salt solution
B water from a salt solution
C sand from a mixture of sand and sugar
D sugar from a mixture of sand and sugar
4. Which of the following requires distillation?
A To separate sand from water
B To remove plastics from garbage
C To extract metal from its oxide
D To obtain pure water from polluted water
5. Which of the following substances can be purified by steam distillation?

A Common salt
B Essential oil
C Iodine
D Tin ore
6. Which of the following methods can be used to separate two components

based on their solubilities in two different immiscible liquids?
A Chromatography
B Solvent extraction
C Crystallization
D Distillation
7. Which method is used by forensic scientists to identify unknown

substances?
A Solvent extraction
B Evaporation
C Simple distillation
D Chromatography
8. Diesel and kerosene can be separated by fractional distillation because they

have different
A colors
B proton numbers
C boiling points
D densities
9. The diagram below shows two beakers, X and Y, each containing 50 ml of
water.
The water in X has one spoonful of sugar dissolved in it. The water in Y has
five spoonfuls of sugar dissolved in it so that no more sugar can be dissolved
in the water. Which of the following statements are true?
I Beaker X contains a concentrated sugar solution.

II Beaker Y contains a saturated sugar solution.
III Beaker X contains a dilute sugar solution.
A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II and III
10. What are the factors that affect the solubility of a substance?
I The size of the solute
II The temperature of the solvent
III The volume of the solvent
A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II and III
11. The diagram below shows a graph comparing the solubilities of three
different salts, P, Q and R, in water.
Which of the following statements is true?

A The solubility of R increases the most quickly with the decrease in
temperature.
B The three salts have different solubilities at all temperatures.
C P and Q have the same solubility at 50°C.
D The solubility of P is not influenced by temperature.
12. The diagram below shows an experiment conducted to study the solubility of
salt.
Which of the following substances are the solute, solvent and solution?
Solute Solvent Solution

A Salt Salt solution Water
B Salt Water Salt solution
C Water Salt Salt solution
D Salt solution Salt Water
13. Which of the following ways increase the solubility of salt in the water?
I Stir the solvent faster
II Use cold water
III Use fine salt
A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II and III
14. What happens when a few small crystals of copper(II) sulfate is dissolved in
a dilute copper(II) sulfate solution?
A It becomes a saturated solution.
B It has less solvent particles.
C It becomes cloudy.
D It becomes more concentrated.
15. Somsri carried out a test and found that she can dissolve more sugar than
salt in the same volume of water at room temperature. What conclusion can
be made from the test?
A Sugar and salt can dissolve in water at room temperature.
B Sugar has a higher rate of dissolving than salt.
C Sugar has a higher solubility in water than salt.
D Sugar has smaller particles than salt.
16. 7.2 g of glucose is dissolved in 184.5 g of water. What is the mass

percentage of glucose in the solution?
A 3.50%
B 3.76%
C 3.90%
D 96.24%
17. What is the mass/volume percentage concentration of 65 ml sodium chloride

solution containing 780 mg of sodium chloride, in g/ml %?
A 0.12%
B 1.2%
C 2.4%
D 50.7%
Chapter 4 Forces
Questions
1. The diagram below shows three forces are applied on a stationary object.
What is the resultant force applied on the object?

A 1N
B 2N
C 8N
D 14 N
2. The diagram below shows a load is attached to the end of a rope. The rope is
applied with a force of 360 N.
What is the magnitude and direction of the resultant force acting on the
load?
Magnitude Direction
A 75 N Upward
B 75 N Downward
C 645 N Upward
D 645 N Downward
3. Two forces are applied to act on an object in four different situations as
shown in the following diagrams. In which of the following situations is the
object at rest?
A
4. An object is moving at a constant velocity. What happens to the object when

a force of 7 N is applied in the direction of the moving object?
A The velocity of the object decreases.
B The velocity of the object increases.
C The object will continue to move with the same constant velocity.
D The resultant force is in the opposite direction as the velocity of the
object.
5. The diagram below shows the pressure in a liquid at points P, Q, R and S.
Which of the following statements is true?

A The pressure in a liquid depends on the depth of the liquid only.
B The pressure of liquid decreases with depth.
C When the depth of the depth increases, its density also increases.
D The pressure at a certain depth in the liquid is the same at all points of
the same depth.
6. An object is at the depth of 280 m from the surface of the water. If the
density of water is 997 kg m-3 and the strength of gravity is 9.8 N kg-1, what
is the pressure exerted by the water on the object?
A 34.9 Pa
B 2.8 x 104 Pa
C 2.74 x 104 Pa
D 2.7 x 106 Pa
7. An object weighs 1.45 N. Its weight becomes 1.15 N when it is immersed in

water. What is the buoyant force acting on the object?
A 0.3 N
B 0.5 N
C 2.6 N
D 3.0 N
8. When we put an object into water, it displaces some of the water. Which of
the following statements describes this condition?
A The density of the object decreases.
B The object experiences an upward force which is equal to the
gravitational force.
C The buoyant force acting on the object is equal to the weight of the
water displaced.
D The total volume of the object is greater than the volume of water
displaced.
9. The diagram below shows a man pushing a trolley on two different surfaces,
P and Q.
The trolley moves more easily on surface P compared to surface Q. Which of

the following descriptions is true?
A The surface area of P is bigger.
B The surface of Q is rougher.
C The surface of P is harder.
D Friction on surface P is higher than surface Q.
10. Which of the following involves the smallest magnitude of frictional force?
A B Answer: D
C D
11. Which of the following is an advantage of friction?

A It wears down moving machine parts.
B It reduces force.
C It enables us to hold a glass.
D It produces excessive heat.
12. Which of the following is the way to decrease friction?
A Laying rough surfaces
B Applying lubricants
C Using raised patterns
D Using rubber hand gloves
13. Which of the following increases friction?

A Using ball bearings
B Using rollers
C Using sandpaper
D Applying lubricants
14. Which of the following activities requires low in frictional force?

A Holding a bowl
B Playing a violin
C Cycling
D Launching a rocket
15. Which of the following objects are designed to minimize friction?
P Q
R S
A P and Q
B P and S
C Q and R
D R and S
16. What would happen if there were no gravitational force on the Earth?
A Objects could not be lifted from the ground.
B Objects would drift off into outer space.
C Machines would not be able to function.
D Road accidents would occur more frequently.
17. Which of the following shows how the frictional force is useful in our daily
activities?
A Friction allows bullet trains to move at high speed.
B Friction enables us to move heavy objects.
C Friction prevents parked cars from sliding down slopes.
D Friction causes the wear and tear of moving machine parts.
18. Which of the following statements best describes the kinetic friction?
A The friction that acts on two surfaces in contact that are not moving.
B The friction that acts on two surfaces in contact that are moving.
C The friction that acts on an object moving at a constant velocity.
D The friction that acts on a moving object when the resultant force acting
on it is zero.
19. The diagram below shows a lever balanced by two objects, X and Y.
If the weight of Y is increased to 10 N, what is the weight of X in order to

balance the lever?
A 7.5 N
B 20 N
C 30 N
D 150 N
20. The diagram below shows the reactions of three charged polystyrene balls,
P, Q and R when a negatively charged glass rod is brought near to them.
Based on the above observation, which of the following pairs of polystyrene

balls when brought near together will show attraction and repulsion?
Show repulsion Show attraction
A P Q and R
B R P and R
C P and R Q
D Q and R P
21. The diagram below shows the reactions of four charged polystyrene balls, K,
L, M and N when they are brought near to one another.
Which of the following pairs of polystyrene balls possess the same type of
charges?
A K and N, L and M
B K and L, M and N
C N and L, K and M
D K and N, K and M
Chapter 5 Motion
Questions
1. Which of the following is not a physical quantity?

A Speed
B Volume
C Plenty
D Power
2. A scalar quantity is
A a physical quantity with magnitude only
B a physical quantity with direction only
C a physical quantity with magnitude and direction
D a physical quantity with either magnitude or direction
3. Which of the following pairs is correct?

Quantity Type of quantity
A Weight Scalar
B Velocity Vector
C Momentum Scalar
D Density Vector
4. Which of the following quantities is categorized as a scalar quantity?

A 25 m s-1, West
B 26°C
C 10 m, upward
D 9.8 m s-2
5. The diagram below shows a scaled vector. A: pls make the

arrow 5 cm long.
Scale 1 cm : 5 km
What is the magnitude and direction of the vector above?

A 5 km, to the left
B 25 km, to the left
C 5 km, to the right
D 25 km, East
6. Which of the following is true about displacement?
A The distance traveled per unit time.
B The total distance traveled by an object in a period of time.
C The length of the path traveled by an object in a specific direction.
D The length of the actual path traveled by an object from one location to
another.
Based on the diagram below, answer questions 7 to 9.
A: pls make
scale 1 cm : 1
km (online)
7. The diagram above shows a car traveling from point A to point B. What is the
total distance traveled by the car?
A 3.5 km
B 7 km
C 20.5 km
D 41 km
8. What is the displacement of the car?

A 3.5 km
B 10.5 km
C 20.5 km
D 41 km
9. Which of the following scaled vector diagrams can represent the
displacement of the car using the scale of 1 cm : 1 km?
A
Answer = B
A: the arrow is
2.5 cm long
A: the arrow is
3.5 cm long
A: the arrow is
3.5 cm long
A: the arrow is
3.5 cm long
10. A truck travels 7 km northwards, followed by another 3 km northwards. The
magnitude of its distance and displacement is
Distance Displacement
A 4 km 4 km
B 4 km 10 km
C 10 km 4 km
D 10 km 10 km
11. What is the difference between speed and velocity?

A Velocity is the distance traveled with a direction while speed is the
distance traveled without a direction.
B Velocity is the total distance traveled for a period of time while speed is
the distance traveled per hour.
C Velocity is the rate of change of displacement while speed is the rate of
change of distance.
D Velocity is a scalar quantity while speed is a vector quantity.
12. A car travels at a constant speed of 12.5 m s-1 for 600 seconds. What is the
total distance traveled by the car?
A 48 m
B 125 m
C 7500 m
D 8500 m
13. A vehicle travels 25 km in 40 minutes. What is the average speed of the

vehicle?
A 0.63 m s-1
B 10.42 m s-1
C 625 m s-1
D 1000 m s-1
Based on the diagram below, answer questions 14 and 15.
A: pls make the
diagram in scale
1 cm : 100 m
14. The diagram above shows the path traveled by a car from X to Y through Q
and R. If the car took 90 seconds to travel from X to Y, what is the average
speed of the car?
A 4.67 m s-1
B 6.67 m s-1
C 13.78 m s-1
D 18.45 m s-1
15. If the car took 90 seconds to travel from X to Y, what is the average
velocity of the car?
A 4.67 m s-1 to the South-West of X
B 6.67 m s-1 to the South-East of X
C 13.78 m s-1 to the South-West of X
D 18.45 m s-1 to the South-East of X
Chapter 6 Work and Energy
Questions
1. A box is pushed with a force of 40 N for a distance of 5 m. Calculate the

work done.
A 8J
B 20 J
C 45 J
D 200 J
2. The diagram below shows a load being pulled up a slope.
Which of the following is true about the work done in pulling up the load?
I Work is done to overcome the force of friction between the base of the
load and the surface of the slope.
II Work is done to overcome gravitational force.
III Work done will be less if the load is pushed up the slope instead of being
pulled up.
A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II and III
3. A girl with a mass of 36 kg carries a box of 6 kg. She walks up a staircase of

height of 6 m. What is the work done by the girl?
A 70 J
B 252 J
C 1800 J
D 2520 J
4. A worker does 1600 J of work to carry a load to a height of 8 m. What is the
weight of the load?
A 20 N
B 200 N
C 400 N
D 12 800 N
5. The diagram below shows a student with a mass of 65 kg walks up the stairs
in 20 seconds.
Calculate the power of the student used to walk up the stairs. [g = 10 N kg-1]
A 20 W
B 195 W
C 390 W
D 1 300 W
6. Somchai uses a crowbar to lift a rock. Which of the following shows the way
to use the least force to lift the rock?
A
B Answer = B
C
7. The diagram below shows four machines with different power used to lift a
load up to a vertical height of 5 m.
Which of the following machines can lift the load up in the shortest time?
A P
B Q
C R
D S
8. How do simple machines make work easier?

I Increase the force needed to do the work.
II Change the direction of the force.
III Reduce the displacement needed to do the work.
A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II and III
9. Which of the following devices does not make use of the principle of a lever?
A Scissors
B Bottle opener
C Broom
D Knife
10. Which of the following is true about simple machines?
A A pulley is used to lift a load.
B A lever is used to lift up or lower down objects.
C A wedge is used to cut things into pieces.
D A screw is used to move a load to a higher spot.
11. The kinetic energy possessed by a moving object depends on

A the location of the moving object
B the speed of the moving object
C the direction the moving object.
D the height at which the object is moving.
12. The diagram below shows a man carrying out an activity.
What form of energy is increasing?

A Kinetic energy
B Potential energy
C Sound energy
D Heat energy
13. The following information shows the characteristics of two forms of energy,
P and Q.
P – Produced when an object vibrates
Q – Possessed by a moving object
Which of the following are P and Q?

P Q
A Kinetic energy Sound energy
B Sound energy Kinetic energy
C Heat energy Potential energy
D Potential energy Heat energy
14. The diagram below shows a ball rolls down an inclined plane.
Which of the following is correct about the potential energy and kinetic
energy at position Z?
Kinetic energy Potential energy
A Minimum Minimum
B Minimum Maximum
C Maximum Minimum
D Maximum Maximum
15. The diagram below shows a ball rolling down a slope.
At which position is the potential energy of the ball equal to its kinetic
energy?
A K
B L
C M
D N
16. What form of energy is stored in a stretched rubber band?

A Kinetic energy
B Potential energy
C Mechanical energy
D Chemical energy
Chapter 7 Earth
Questions
1. The diagram below shows the layers of the Earth.
Layer X is
A crust
B mantle
C outer core
D inner core
2. The information describes one of the layers of the Earth.

• Makes up about 70% of the Earth’s mass
• Made up of silicon, magnesium, oxygen and iron
What is the layer above?

A Crust
B Mantle
C Outer core
D Inner core
3. Which of the following is not true about the crust?

A It is made up of rocks and minerals.
B It is covered by water, sand, soil and ice.
C Its continents are about 3500 km thick.
D It makes up less than 1% of the Earth’s mass.
4. What are the processes that help shape the surface of the Earth?
I Erosion
II Deposition
III Weathering
A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II and III
5. What is weathering?
A The process where a rock is broken down into ice.
B The process where a rock is broken down into smaller pieces.
C The process where a rock is broken down into minerals.
D The process where a rock is broken down into boulders.
6. Which of the following are the causes of physical weathering?

I Temperature
II Living things
III Wind
A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II and III
7. How do plants contribute to weathering?

A When the roots grow into cracks of rocks
B When the plants absorb water from rocks
C When the leaves decompose and dissolve the rocks
D When the plants change the pH of soil
8. What is the main cause of erosion on the Earth?

A Water
B Living organisms
C Gravity
D Temperature
9. Which of the following is true about deposition?
A Movement of sediments continues until the sand dunes are formed.
B Movement of sediments slows or stops and the sediments are later
dropped.
C Rocks and soil materials are transported by natural agents.
D Rocks are broken down by chemical reactions.
10. Energy sources can be classified into two major groups, renewable and non-
renewable. Which of the following pairs is correctly classified?
Renewable energy source Non-renewable energy source
A Biomass Coal
B Geothermal Solar
C Petroleum Natural gas
D Coal Geothermal
11. Which of the following energy sources is non-renewable?

A Oil shale
B Biomass
C Running water
D Wind
12. Given are examples of energy sources.
Coal Petroleum Natural gas
These type of energy sources can be grouped as

A radioactive substances
B fossil fuels
C geothermal
D biomass
13. The following statements are about an energy source.
• Organic materials that come from plants and animals
• Widely available
• Renewable
Which of the following energy sources is described by the above

statements?
A Biomass
B Coal
C Petroleum
D Oil shale
14. The following describes an energy source.

• Unlimited supply
• Does not cause pollution
• The primary source of energy that is the origin of almost all the
energy on Earth
The energy source that fits the description above best is

A The Sun
B Waves
C Hydrogen
D Geothermal energy
15. The diagram below shows a type of energy source from the sea bed.
What is the disadvantage of using this type of source?

A Provides extra energy
B The cost of using this source is very high compared to other sources.
C This energy source is hard to get.
D The use of this energy source causes pollution.
16. The following are some sources of energy and their description. Which one is
given correctly?
Energy sources Description
A Coal Energy obtained from underground heat.
B Wind Energy obtained from the moving air.
C Geothermal Energy obtained from the remains of
plants and animals that lived millions of
years ago.
D Waves Energy obtained from streams and rivers.
17. Which of the following is a step which helps in conserving the sources of
energy?
A Use personal vehicles more often
B Use electrical appliances which require higher power
C Recycle papers
D Increase the consumption of fossil fuels
Chapter 8 Soil
Questions
1. Which of the following is not true about soil?

A It is a mixture of organic materials and water only.
B The organic materials found in the soil are the decaying living matter.
C The amount of water in the soil affects the amount of air.
D There are weathered rocks found in the soil.
2. Which type of soil is the most suitable to grow crops?

A Silt
B Clay soil
C Loamy soil
D Sandy soil
3. A person collects a type of soil from a place. The size range of the soil is
less than 0.002 mm. The soil could be
A silt
B clay soil
C loamy soil
D sandy soil
4. The darker colored soil usually contains more

A minerals
B humus
C decomposers
D sediments
5. The information describes the characteristics of a type of soil structure.

- Flat peds that lie horizontally in the soil
- Mostly occurs in horizon A as the result of
compaction
Which of the following types of soil structure fits the characteristics

above?
A Blocky
B Granular
C Platy
D Columnar
6. Why is organic matter an important part of soil?

A Decreases water infiltration into the soil
B Breaks down chemical pollutants
C Converts nitrogen in the air
D Serves as a reservoir of nutrients in the soil
7. Which of the following soil properties is important in determining the

amount of water retained?
A Soil color
B Soil structure
C Soil texture
D Soil consistency
8. Soil consistency depends on

A proportion of the sand, silt and clay
B size ranges of soil
C soil moisture content
D amount of minerals
9. Which type of soil has the highest water holding capacity?

A Silt
B Clay soil
C Loamy soil
D Sandy soil
10. Which horizon of a soil profile contains more humus?

A Horizon A
B Horizon B
C Horizon C
D Horizon O
11. The following information describes a layer of a soil profile.
- Plant roots and small animals are found.
- Dark in color
This layer is
A Horizon A
B Horizon B
C Horizon C
D Horizon O
12. Which of the following statements is true about horizon R?

A This horizon is usually light colored and low in organic matter.
B This horizon is made up of masses of hard rock.
C This horizon is composed of organic matter.
D This horizon is the most productive layer of soil.
13. Which of the following factors affect the formation of soil?

I Climate
II Topography
III Biotic
A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II and III
14. The following describes some stages in the formation of soil.
P - Humus forms.
Q - The plants and animals die and decay.
R - The rock weathers.
S - Humus and weathered rock mix and form soil.
T - Animals such as insects and worms begin to appear.
U - The plants begin to grow.
Which of the following shows the stages in the formation of soil correctly?
A R, T, U, Q, P, S
B R, U, T, Q, P, S
C U, T, Q, R, P, S
D U, R, T, Q, P, S
15. Which of the following are the uses of soil?
I Serves as the main foundation in construction.
II Serves as habitat for many insects and other organisms.
III Used in making ceramics and pottery.
A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II and III
16. Which of the following is not a method to improve soil?

A Incorporates cover crops to add organic matter to the soil.
B Adjusts soil pH by adding ground limestone or sulfur compounds.
C Add extra pesticides to reduce the number of pests in the soil.
D Practices contour tillage and terracing to reduce soil erosion
Chapter 9 Water
Questions
1. The water beneath the surface of the ground is called

A surface water
B groundwater
C reservoir
D runoff
2. Which of the following is true about surface water?

A The water that collects in the zone of saturation.
B It includes seas and oceans only.
C Streams and oceans are fresh water.
D The excess water flows across the surface into nearby streams, canals
or ponds.
3. Which of the following are the sources of fresh water?

I Streams
II Canals
III Oceans
A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II and III
4. About what percentage of Earth’s water is salt water?

A 0.7%
B 3%
C 90%
D 97%
5. Water becomes groundwater when

A water evaporates from the surface of the Earth.
B water seeps into the zone of saturation.
C water seeps into the zone of aeration.
D water is not absorbed by the surrounding area.
6. What is the water table?
A The boundary between the zone of aeration and the zone of saturation.
B The water collects on the surface of the Earth.
C The bottom of the zone of saturation.
D The top of the zone of aeration.
7. Which of the following is the main reason why seawater is not suitable as
drinking water?
A It contains a high content of sodium chloride.
B It contains microorganisms.
C It does not have any taste and smell.
D It does not have any dissolved minerals.
8. Which of the following are the uses of water?

I Irrigation
II Combustion
III Bathing
A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II and III
9. Which of the following can help in conserving water?

I Wash only full loads of clothes in washing machines.
II Collect rainwater to water plants.
III Use a water hose to wash a car.
A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II and III
10. Which of the following hazards are caused by water?
I Land subsidence
II Landslides
III Sinkholes
A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II and III
11. Which of the following can cause surface water flooding?

I Heavy rainfall
II Prolonged wet weather
III Most of the ground is paved.
A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II and III
12. Which of the following is not a negative effect of soil erosion?

A Reduces soil quality
B Increases sedimentation in streams and rivers
C Clogs the waterways and causes flooding
D Improves water quality
13. Which of the following factors will lead to landslides?

I Earthquakes
II Volcanic eruptions
III Drought
A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II and III
14. Which of the following is true about land subsidence?
A The gradual sinking of the ground due to the removal of groundwater and
oil from the ground.
B The formation of a hole in the ground when the soil below it collapses.
C The movement of soil down a slope.
D The prolonged period of abnormally low rainfall, leading to water loss in
the ground.
15. Which of the following human activities can cause sinkholes?

I Extraction of groundwater
II Mining
III Construction
A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II and III

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Chapter 1 Human Body Systems

1. The diagram below shows part of the human respiratory system.

Which of the following parts are represented by X, Y and Z?

2. What is the function of the cartilage in the walls of the trachea?

3. The diagram below shows part of the human respiratory system.

4. The diagram below shows a model of the human respiratory system.

Which of the following is the correct sequence of transport of oxygen by

7. Which of the following organs are excretory organs?

Which of the following shows the function of structure X?

10. What is the main function of urinary bladder?

12. The diagram below shows the human urinary system.

What is the function of X?

14. Which of the following is the function of the human heart?

15. The human circulatory system is a double circulatory system because

16. Which of the following is true about artery?

21. What is the function of the Node of Ranvier?

Stimulus → X → Sensory neuron → Y → Motor neuron → Z → Response

Which of the following correctly represents X, Y and Z?

1. The diagram below shows the structure of a male reproductive organ.

Which of the following is represented by W, X, Y and Z?

2. Which of the following organs produces sperms?

3. Which of the following is the function of the urethra?

A I, II and III only

5. The diagram below shows the human reproductive system.

Which is true about Y and Z?

8. Which of the following is true about puberty?

Fertilization will most likely occur in phase labelled

What is formed immediately after the process above?

Where does fertilization and development of embryo each take place?

16. How long is the normal period of gestation in humans?

17. The diagram below shows a fetus developing in the womb.

Which of the labelled parts, A, B, C or D, allows exchange of gases and

What is the problem?

19. The diagram below shows a fetus developing in the womb.

What is represented by Y and Z?

1. Which of the following statements is true about evaporation?

2. P is a method used to separate sand and salt solution while Q is a method

3. The diagram below shows a method of separating a certain mixture.

This method can be used to obtain

5. Which of the following substances can be purified by steam distillation?

6. Which of the following methods can be used to separate two components

7. Which method is used by forensic scientists to identify unknown

8. Diesel and kerosene can be separated by fractional distillation because they

I Beaker X contains a concentrated sugar solution.

Which of the following statements is true?

Solute Solvent Solution

16. 7.2 g of glucose is dissolved in 184.5 g of water. What is the mass

17. What is the mass/volume percentage concentration of 65 ml sodium chloride

What is the resultant force applied on the object?

4. An object is moving at a constant velocity. What happens to the object when

Which of the following statements is true?

7. An object weighs 1.45 N. Its weight becomes 1.15 N when it is immersed in

The trolley moves more easily on surface P compared to surface Q. Which of

11. Which of the following is an advantage of friction?

13. Which of the following increases friction?

14. Which of the following activities requires low in frictional force?

15. Which of the following objects are designed to minimize friction?

If the weight of Y is increased to 10 N, what is the weight of X in order to

Based on the above observation, which of the following pairs of polystyrene

1. Which of the following is not a physical quantity?

3. Which of the following pairs is correct?