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1.
Which of the following are elements of Taylorism, also known as scientific

management? (you must correctly check all that apply).
A. Managers should drive workers through strict monitoring, discipline, and even
threats.
B. To motivate workers, getting the human conditions of work are just as important as
getting the technical condition right.
C. Jobs should be broken into small, standardized, repetitive tasks
D. Managers, not workers, are seen as having the knowledge and expertise to find the
one best way to do each job.
CD
2. Which of the following are typically features of a high-road HR strategy? (you must
correctly check all that apply).
A. Unquestioned supervisor authority
B. Low levels of profitability
C. Labor or trade unions
D. Employee autonomy and discretion
E. Employee training
F. Above-average pay and benefits
DEF
3. True or false: There is one personal managerial style that is best in all situations.
A. True
B. False
B
4. True or false: All organizations in the same competitive space have to have the same
type of HR strategy.
A. True
B. False
B
5. Which of the following is not an example of labor being a derived demand?
A. Offering flexible work schedules because this is what workers with family
responsibilities wants.
B. Offering flexible work schedules because customers with family responsibilities want
extended hours of operation.
C. Offering flexible work schedules because customers do not expect immediate
response to their inquiries.
A
6. Which of the following are required for HR to be strategic? (check all that apply)
A. HR tasks are a line manager's responsibility, with help from an HR partner.
B. HR needs to be an expert in every business function.
C. HR is focused on organizational needs, not just on the administration of HR policies
D. HR tasks are primarily the responsibility of an HR staff person, perhaps with input
from line managers.
AC
7. True or false: No matter how one thinks the employment relationship works, high-
road HR strategies are always seen as desirable.
A. True
B. False
B
8. Though there are exceptions because organizations can choose their HR strategy, a
low-road HR strategy typically tries to support a business strategy based on competing
on _____?
cost
9. True or false: managers cannot be leaders, and leaders cannot be managers.
A. True
B. False
B
Why is job analysis an important process?
A. Because it puts work tasks together into sensible jobs and identifies job requirements
that serve as the basis for hiring employees.
B. Because it provides a performance rating for each employee that serves as the basis
for compensation and rewards.
C. Because it reveals the strengths and weaknesses of employees that serve as the
basis for training employees and establishing developmental goals.
A
11. Which best describes the foundational assumptions of Taylorism, also known as
scientific management?
A. To manage workers effectively, managers need to pay attention to psychological and
social conditions, not just technical conditions.
B. Workers want to earn income in the most efficient way possible, but it is managers
who best know how to structure work tasks to fulfill this goal.
C. Workers are diverse so they need to be managed in ways tailored to their own goals
and values.
D. Business owners are industrious, ambitious, thrifty, and sober; workers are not.
B
12. An HR strategy that focuses on minimizing labor costs and strictly supervising
workers is commonly called a ____ road strategy.
low
13. An HR strategy that emphasizes employee engagement and discretion can be

summed up by which phrase?
A. "If you don't like it, let's talk about it."
B. "If you don't like it, quit."
A
14. An organization's strategy for managing people is determined...
A. Solely by organizational choices and values without paying any attention to external
or internal factors.
B. Partly by a combination of external factors (such as competition), internal factors
(such as business strategy), but not completely because organizations have choices
about how to manage people.
C. Solely by various external factors (such as competition).
D.Solely by internal factors (such as business strategy).
B
15. True or false: In selecting a personal managerial style, managers should only pay
attention to their own strengths and weakness, not the situation or the needs of
employees.
A. True
B. False
B
16. Which is the single-best personal managerial style?
A. Coercive.
B. Authoritative
C. Affiliative
D. Democratic
E. Pacesetting
F. Coaching
G. None of the others because there is no single-best style that fits with all situations.
G
17. Economists say that labor is a derived demand. Why is this concept important for
managers to understand?
A. Because strategies, policies, and tactics for managing people are derived from a
country's legal regulations.
B. Because what employees demand can affect strategies, policies, and tactics for
managing people.
C.Because whatever affects demand for an organization's product or service can affect
strategies, policies, and tactics for managing people.
C
18. Which of the following statements are true? (you must correctly check all that apply)
A. An organization's business strategy and its HR strategy should be unrelated to each
other.
B. An organizational strategy does not completely determine an organization's HR
strategy. In other words, organizations with any type of business strategy can choose
an HR strategy that develops, rewards, and engages employees.
C. An organizational strategy based on unique goods or services is typically supported
by an HR strategy that tries to develop, reward, and engage workers.
D. An organizational strategy based on low-cost leadership is typically supported by an
HR strategy that tries to contain labor expenses and drive workers.
BCD
19. Which of the following beliefs underlies high-road human resources strategies?
A. The interests of an organization and its employees can be aligned.
B. Labor markets work reasonably well in allocating and rewarding workers.
C. The employment relationship is characterized by some important conflicts of interest
between an organization and its employees.
A
20. Which of the following beliefs typically underlies low-road human resources
strategies?
A. A business serves society best by satisfying market demand for its goods and
services and providing high financial returns for shareholders.
B. Corporations are a part of society and should serve not just shareholders and
customers, but other stakeholders, too.
A
21. When determining the best way to motivate employees, why shouldn't managers
rely solely on HR staff for directions. (check all that apply)
A. Managers know their employees best.
B. People are unique so there are various drivers of motivation.
C. Work can mean different things to different people, so there are various drivers of
motivation.
D. It's not a manager's job to motivate workers, they should be self-motivated.
E. HR is just a pencil-pushing function.
ABC
22. In the video lesson "The Many Meanings of Work," how many different ways of
thinking about work were presented?
A. One
B. Two
C. Five
D. More than five
D
23. True or false: Work is what it is. Some jobs are lousy, but we can't do anything to
change that.
A. True
B. False
B
24. Mainstream economic theorizing sees work as a lousy activity that workers tolerate
in order to earn income. One way that work is seen as lousy is as a pain cost (e.g., hot,
dangerous, boring, stressful). A second way is as an _________ cost.
opportunity
25. One of the key concerns that emerges from economic analysis of workers is a
concern with opportunism. Which is the best definition of opportunism?
A. Not giving full work effort in one's job.
B. Pursuing one's own self-interest even when they run counter to others' interest.
C. The cost that comes from missing an opportunity to do something.
B
26. If workers behave in ways consistent with standard economic models, solution(s) to
principal-agent problems include... (check all that apply)
A. Autonomy
B. Financial incentives
C. Monitoring
D. Peer pressure
BC
27. True or false: Setting compensation incentives involves finding the right balance
between risk and insurance.
A. True
B. False
A
28. True or false: To overcome problems of private information, organizations can only
use screening strategies, not signaling strategies.
A. True
B. False
B
29. The amount of work an individual wants to sell to an employer is called labor _____.
supply
30. Labor is a special commodity because... (check all that apply)
A. It is traded in economic markets.
B. It has productive value.
C. It involves people.
BC
31. True or false: For individuals who believe that labor markets are perfectly or ideally
competitive, the best protection against worker exploitation is competition for workers
among employers, not a labor union or a government law.
A. True
B. False
A
32. True or false: Efficiency, equity, and voice can be useful for managers to think about
because it's one way of summarizing workers' interests.
A. True
B. False
A
33. Most individuals in modern societies need to work for pay in order to survive. So this
means that which of the following are important for managers? (you must check all that
apply)
A. People only work for money (that is, money is the sole motivator for all workers).
B. Financial stress can take on extra meaning in the workplace.
C.Work can seem like a curse (the way it's always been, the way it will always be).
BC
34. Economic theorizing sees work as both a pain cost and an opportunity cost. This is
useful for managers because...
A. ...this means workers will never want to work hard.
B. ...this means that there are never any psychological rewards from working.
C. ...this means that managers have to compensate workers for these costs in order to
get them to work hard.
C
35. Marginal analysis from economics teaches managers... (you must check all that
apply)
A. ...that it's particular challenging to motivate someone when the last extra hour that
you want someone to work is right on the edge of whether they want to work more or
not.
B. ...that what it takes to hire or retain the last needed worker strongly influences
compensation and other elements of the job for everyone in that position.
C. Work is a lousy activity tolerated to earn income.
D....to think about the additional benefit compared to the additional cost of a possible
managerial decision.
ABD
36. Economic theory predicts that if an employer pays a fixed wage or salary rather than
performance-based pay, workers will...
A. shirk
B. complain
C. work hard
D. quit
A
37. Which of the following is needed for an economic contest or tournament to be an
effective incentive mechanism that motivates high work effort?
A. A known prize that is large enough to compensate for extra effort.
B. A clear pay-for-performance program that rewards each worker's effort.
C. Insurance against excessive income loss.
A
38. Which of the following are possible unintended consequences using financial
incentives to motivate workers? (you must check all that apply)
A. Employees worker harder than without incentives
B. Reduced non-monetary (Intrinsic) motivation
C. Overstimulation
D. "If you don't like it, quit"
E. Poor teamwork
F. "What gets measured gets done"
BCEF
39. True or false: Principal-agent problems can always be solved by additional
monitoring.
A. True
B. False
B
40. True or false: When evaluating a signal of private information, it's important to
consider whether the signal is easy for others to imitate.
A. True
B. False
A
41. Economics highlights worker self-interest. This is important for raising managerial
awareness of... (you must check all that apply)
A. Strategic use of private information
B. Shirking and loafing
C. Shareholder value
D. Principal-agent problems
ABD
42. It is useful for managers to understand what affects labor supply because...
A. ...this helps managers understand workers' decision-making processes about where
and when to work, and under what conditions.
B. ...this helps managers understand what might happen if the organization needs to
add more employees to supply more goods to its customers.
A
43. The question of whether employers and employees really are economic and legal
equals is... (you must check all that apply)
A. ...an issue that is largely ignored in high-road HR strategies.
B. ...the subject of intense debates going back more than 100 years.
C. ...an issue that is largely ignored in pluralist, Marxist, radical, and critical critiques of
approaches that favor labor market competition for setting wages and other terms and
conditions of employment.
D. ...important because it determines whether or not employees need the protection of
laws and labor unions.
ABD
44. Perfect competition is an important issue to consider because...
A. ...employers need to recruit and retain employees and this happens in labor markets
with labor traded like a commodity.
B. ...if labor markets truly are perfectly competitive, then interventions like labor unions
or government regulation will not distort (a) the allocation of labor to its best uses, and
(b) the rewarding of employees with pay equal to the value they produce.
C....if labor markets truly are perfectly competitive, then the invisible hand of free market
competition is the best way to (a) allocate labor to its best uses, and (b) reward
employees with pay equal to the value they produce
C
45. True or false: Even for individuals who are well-off and claim they are not working
for money, money can be important as a sign of self-worth and the value or respect
given to them by the organization.
A. True
B. False
A
46. An economic or monetary focus on work highlights the importance of extrinsic
motivation. A psychological, non-monetary focus highlights the importance of _______
motivation.
intrinsic
47. What job characteristics tend to promote positive job attitudes among employees?
(check all that apply)
A. Financial incentives
B. Task significance
C. Skill variety
D. Task identity
E. Autonomy
BCDE
48. True or false: When workers use their work to shape their identity, they do so solely
by labeling themselves with various identifiers (e.g., "I am a ____ working for _____.").
A. True
B. False
B
Sociology usefully draws our attention to the influence of ______ institutions in the
workplace, such as norms and culture.
social
50. Employees are believed to conform with norms and other social pressures in order
to... (check all that apply)
A. ...earn high income.
B. ...avoid being harassed and ostracized.
C....achieve a sense of belonging.
BC
51. True or false: Treating work as a commodity results in society placing value on work
that is seen as a precious commodity, which then devalues women's caring activities
that are traditionally done in the household for no pay.
A. True
B. False
A
52. True or false: Thinking about work as serving others is irrelevant for managers.
A. True
B. False
B
53. The component of justice that focuses on the fairness of outcomes is called
_______ justice.
distributive
54. The component of justice that focuses on the fairness of policies and rules is called
_______ justice.
procedural
55. When managing a work group, before applying insights from economics,
psychology, sociology, or other academic disciplines, managers should first make sure
that...
A. the assumptions of that perspective fit with my own values.
B. the assumptions of that perspective fit with the values of the work group.
C. there isn't more practical advice available because blogs, business magazines, and
other non-academic sources don't rely on any assumptions.
B
56. The vast complexity of work means that...
A. each employee you manage might have a different motivational factor, but each
person will only have one.
B. each employee you manage might have a different combinations of multiple
motivational factors.
B
57. Managers should be trying to create conditions that result in...
A. ...employees who are satisfied with their job.
B. ...employees who are committed to their organization.
C. ...employees who are engaged in their job.
C
58. To promote intrinsic motivation among workers they manage, managers should
promote which needs? (you must check all that apply)
A. Competence
B. Financial security
C. Social belonging
D. Autonomy
ACD
59. True or false: To promote positive job attitudes, managers should only be concerned
with the characteristics of each job.
A. True
B. False
B
60. To help feel good about ourselves, we identify with certain groups and in doing so,
we emphasize the positive nature of their own group ("in-group") compared to others
("out-groups"). Which of the following does not result from this.
A. Inter-group conflict.
B. Differences between those groups we identify with and those we do not are
magnified.
C. Discrimination against out-group members by in-group members.
D. Free-rider problems in groups such that some group members do not fully contribute.
D
61. To derive personal identity from belonging to an occupation, employees will...
A. ...not worry about conforming to societal or peer expectations for that occupation.
B. ...behave in ways that conform to societal or peer expectations for that occupation,
even if the organization wishes them to behave differently.
C. ...behave in ways that conform to societal or peer expectations for that occupation,
unless the organization wishes them to behave differently.
B
62. Consider an employee who (a) is only concerned with distributive justice, but not
other aspects, and (b) believes she is working harder than her co-workers but getting
paid the same. The employee's manager should expect her to... (you must check all that
apply)
A. ...ask for a raise.
B. ...do nothing.
C. ...reduce her effort to match that of her co-workers.
D. ...complain about the fairness of the policies for determining pay.
AC
63. Some questions that can help managers think about employee perceptions of
procedural justice include: (you must check all that apply)
A. Did the procedure result in fair outcomes?
B. During the procedure, did the manager treat the employee with respect?
C. Has an employee been able to express his/her views and feelings during the
procedure?
D. Has the procedure been free of bias?
E. Has the procedure been applied consistently?
CDE
64.Managers should only apply insights from psychology after they examine their
workers and see...
A. ...self-interested individuals working for money.
B. ...individuals focused on obtaining intrinsic rewards and avoiding frustration.
C. ...conscious-status individuals who are also concerned with norms or peer pressure.
B
65. Norms or peer pressure can come from many sources, including... (you must check
all that apply)
A. ...the worker as an individual.
B. ...work group.
C. ...organization.
D. ...country.
BCD
66. True or false: Various forms of social norms will always support managers in
eliciting desired work behaviors.
A. True
B. False
B
67. True or false: Because of biological differences, women are naturally suited to care
for others, and this justifies an enduring, unequal sexual division of labor.
A. True
B. False
B
68. For managers, what is the relevance of seeing work as caring for and serving
others? (you must check all that apply)
A. Caring for and serving others isn't real work so it has little to do with managers.
B. Workers who value caring or serving might be demotivated if they feel that these
meanings of work are devalued by an organization or a society.
C. Workers who value caring or serving might be motivated if a manager provides
opportunities for fulfilling these goals, either directly or indirectly.
BC
69. Managers should... (check all that apply)
A. Set appropriate performance objectives and help them achieve these objectives.
B. Determine the knowledge, skills, and abilities (KSA) required of their team.
C. Micro-manage their team and assume they know best.
D. Take all the credit.
AB
70. True or false: A manager should use employee engagement scores for his/her work
group over time and in comparison with other work groups to watch for warning signs of
problems in the work group.
A. True
B. False
A
71. When managing in a unionized environment, managers need to remember two
words. Bilateral and _______.
proactive
72. True or false: When you are dealing with someone else, it's their problem, not yours,
if they have an audience that is watching.
A. True
B. False
B
73. Does the law see the employment relationship like any other economic transaction?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Sort of
C
74. Employment-at-will requires... (check all that apply)
A. That workers have the legal right to work for whoever they want, when they want, for
whatever compensation they can obtain, and quit whenever they please.
B. That organizations have the legal right to hire whoever they want, at whatever
compensation workers will agree to, and fire workers at any time for any reason.
C. That everyone who is willing to work is guaranteed a job.
AB
75. True or false: True employment-at-will rarely exists.
A. True
B. False
A
76. Unjust dismissal laws typically restrict the discipline and discharge of employees
unless this is related to... (check all that apply)
A. ...job performance.
B. ...a lack of work.
C. ...faulty information.
D....a desire to lower labor costs
AB
77. Employment law pertains to the rights of workers as ________.
individuals
78. Labor law pertains to the rights of workers as ________.
groups
79. True or false: In the United States, labor law only applies to workplaces where there
are labor unions or formal labor union activity such as an organizing drive.
A. True
B. False
B
80. True or false: Managers should manage defensively such that they primarily try to
avoid legal action.
A. True
B. False
B
81. Managers should... (you must check all that apply)
A. Overlook the importance of humility, civility, and integrity.
B. Recognize and reward performance.
C. Hire and/or develop staff with the needed the knowledge, skills, and abilities (KSAs).
D. Do everyone else's job.
BC
82. When managing in a unionized workplace, managers should... (you must check all
that apply)
A. Blame the union if the relationship is adversarial or uncooperative.
B. Respect employee voice and the bilateral nature of the relationship with unions.
C. Follow any required bargaining or consultation procedures.
BC
83. What does it mean to be a good front stage, backstage manager? (you must check
all that apply)
A. When you are dealing with someone else, think about whether you have an audience
and what the audience expects.
B. Use the privacy of the backstage to exchange information, talk frankly, explore
options, and problem solve.
C. Get caught up in the emotions of front stage performances.
D. When you are dealing with someone else, engage in perspective taking by
considering whether they have an audience and what that audience expects.
E. Shut people out and make backroom deals.
ABD
84. True or false: When thinking about protections against unjust or unfair "adverse
employment actions," this only applies to employee terminations.
A. True
B. False
B
85. True or false: Employment-at-will is useful as a functional benchmark for managers
to think about what they can and cannot legally do as a manager.
A. True
B. False
A
86. There's an asymmetry in the extent to which employment-at-will exists in most
countries because...
A. ...employees cannot quit for any reason but organizations can fire someone for any
reason.
B....employees can quit for any reason but organizations cannot fire someone for any
reason.
B
87. From a pluralist industrial relations perspective, laws are needed to balance
efficiency, equity, and voice because... (you must check all that apply)
A. ...conflicts of interests in the employment relationship mean that managers cannot be
relied on to look out for the welfare of employees.
B. ....the interests of employees are more important than the interests of employers.
C. ...employers typically have greater bargaining power than individual employees.
AC
88. Which one(s) of these are associated with the free market perspective on workplace
law and regulation? (you must check all that apply)
A. The role of the law should be limited to the smooth functioning of the employment
relationship by providing orderly rules that facilitate economic transactions such as
enforceable contracts and protections for property rights.
B. Employment and labor laws are largely unnecessary because labor markets fairly
reward employees.
C. Some employment laws are useful to push companies toward win-win, high-road HR
practices, and prevent the worst abuses that undermine good employers.
AB
89. True or false: In the United States, there are no federal requirements for sick leave,
paid holidays or vacations, or breaks, but some states require breaks based on time at
work.
A. True
B. False
A
90. U.S. labor law... (you must check all that apply)
A. ...requires organizations to bargain in good faith with labor unions that represent a
majority of workers.
B. ...protects workers joining together to increase their bargaining power and exercise
voice, even without the presence of an actual labor union.
C. ...provides for orderly procedures for determining when workers want to be
represented by a union.
D. ...protects the right of employees to strike in all occupations, including in the entire
public sector.
ABC
91. True or false: Many countries outside of the United States have greater protections
against unjust dismissal, require employment contracts, and mandate a variety of leave
benefits.
A. True
B. False
A
92. HR should do more than just make sure that managers are complying with
organizational policies and with legal regulations. In other words, HR should not be the
HR ______.
police
1. True or False: All systems are open.
A. True
B. False
B
2. Systems have.. (check all that apply)
A. Inputs
B. Outputs
C. Throughputs
D. None of the above
ABC
3. Which of the following is not a tip for hiring?
A. Avoiding conflicts to spare feelings
B. Hiring carefully
C. Learning from others
D. Using data
A
4. True or False: Embracing technology is crucial to the hiring process
A. True
B. False
A
5. True or False: By using systems theory we can see the inter-relatedness of the
organization and complexity of the many facets of recruitment
A. True
B. False
A
6. Comparing Delta and American Airlines represents which external force?
A. Competitors
B. Threat of Substitution
C. Globalization
D. Geography
A
7. Which of the following is not an example of an internal force?
A. Employee development
B. Turnover
C. Current labor profile
D. Labor market
D
8. Which is not one of the paths of competitive advantage that were talked about?
A. Brand Recognition
B. Customer Intimacy
C. Product Leadership
D. Operational Excellence
A
9. Walmart has which competitive advantage?
A. Customer Intimacy
B. Operational Excellence
B
10. What is the first step in workforce planning?
A. Data Analysis
B. Evaluation
C. Strategy
D. Data Collection
C
11. Which is not an advantage of an internal approach?
A. Less Expensive
B. New Ideas
C. Motivating
D. Train for specific needs
B
12. True or False: Promote within whenever possible
A. True
B. False
A
13. Which of the following are solutions to labor shortages?
A. Temporary labor
B. Outsource
C. Reassign Work
D. Replace with Technology
E. All of the Above
E
14. What factors should you consider when deciding how to handle labor shortage?
A. How many workers?
B. What job did they work?
C. The reason people left
D. How many workers? -and- What job did they work?
D
15. What are examples of trends in the workforce?
A. Workforce Skills Gap
B. Lack of Workforce Diversity
C. National Competition
A
16. Select all of the examples of a core competency
A. Relationship Management
B. Leadership and Navigation
C. Ethical Practice
D. Communication
ABCD
17. Which of the following is not a method of job analysis?
A. Job Observation
B. Job performance
C. Critical Incident Analysis
D. Training
D
18. True or False: Job observation is a good method for job analysis for jobs done
mentally
A. True
B. False
B
19. What is knowledge?
A. Required factual information
B. Personality traits or legal requirements
C. External capability of performing a task
D. Internal capacity to perform a task
A
20. Select the components you need to perform a job
A. Motivation
B. Efficiency
C. Mental Capacity
ABC
21. What are the cons of structured questionnaires?
A. Time to develop
B. Can only be given to one employee at a time
C. Distortion of responses
AC
22. What is a pros of job observation?
A. Actual exposure to the job
B. Good for jobs done mentally
C. Requires some training time
A
23. Is the ripple effect a potential disadvantage of an internal or external approach?
A. Internal
B. External
A
24. Which of the following are advantages of hiring internally?
A. Encourages long-term commitment
B. Nice PR for organizations
C. Increases diversity
D. Allows for new ideas
AB
25. True or False: external hires are 81% more likely to be fired from their new jobs than
were those who had been promoted from within the firm
A. True
B. False
B
26. What is an option during a labor shortage?
A. Force someone to retire
B. Fire an employee you don't like
C. Reassign Work
D. Outsource
CD
27. True or False: Global competition is a trend in the workforce
A. True
B. False
A
28. What are disadvantages of an external approach?
A. Hurts morale
B. Lack of fresh ideas
C. Less expensive
A
29. What does workforce planning do?
A. Align workforce requirements to strategic plans
B. Identify and implement workforce shortage and reduction strategies
C. Discover where gaps exist between current and future competency requirements
D. None of the other
ABC
30. Apple uses what competitive advantage?
A. Customer Intimacy
B. Operational Excellence
C
31. Which of the following would increase recruiter effectiveness?
A. Diversity and Sensitivity Skills
B. Timely Feedback
C. Working Alone
D. Great Communication Skills
ABD
32. What impacts the persuasiveness of a recruitment message?
A. Media Richness
B. Personal Focus
C. Providing in depth information
D. Both A and B
D
33. What impacts the brand and reputation of a company?
A. Size and Age
B. Profitability
C. Location
D. All of the above
D
34. True or False: The source of the recruitment message should be credible and an
expert
A. True
B. False
A
35. True or False: Knowledge of the law is only necessary in an employee relations role
or HR generalist role
A. True
B. False
B
36. What percentage of job seekers use their mobile device to search for a job once a
week or more?
A. 56%
B. 68%
C. 88%
B
37. Based off the lecture, what are the best ways to attract passive candidates? Select
all that apply.
A. Job Postings
B. Employment Branding
C. Social Media Presence
D. Cold Calling
ABC
38. Besides referrals, what is the next best way to find passive candidates?
A. Former Employees
B. LinkedIn
C. Professional Networks
D. Candidate Relationship management tools
B
39. True or False: Having a positive candidate experience can be a strategy to attract
passive candidates
A. True
B. False
A
40. True or False: There is no law against using social media in the recruiting process
A. True
B. False
A
41. True or False: Training is important to creating an effective recruiter
A. True
B. False
A
42. What are potential targets for company's doing targeted recruiting?
A. Race
B. Gender
C. Students
D. All of the above
D
43. Select the challenges for mobile device usage recruitment
A. Time
B. Testing
C. Text/Content
D. All of the above
D
44. What popular social media website is used in sourcing for recruitment? (also find
passive candidates)
A. Facebook
B. Twitter
C. LinkedIn
C
45. True or False: There is a federal law that prohibits the use of social media in the
recruitment or background check process.
A. True
B. False
B
46. What is the purpose of an affirmative action plan?
A. to fill a quota of minorities
B. to punish employers
C. to improve employment outcomes for groups that have been traditionally
underrepresented
C
47. What is the traditional EEOC definition for diversity?
A. differences in gender, race, and age
B. all the ways in which we differ
C. different attitudes, perspectives and backgrounds among applicants
A
48. True or False: Diversity recruiting is a trend
A. True
B. False
B
49. Inclusion is about...
A. quantity
B. quality chất lượng
C. quantity and quality
D. none of the other
B
50. Select the factors that affect global markets
A. education-human capital
B. culture
C. political-legal system
D. US unemployment rate
ABC
51. Which of the following competencies were talked about in the lecture that recruiters
should analyze when selecting candidates?
A. Team-Based
B. Firm- Based
C. Job- Based
D. All of the above
D
52. At which step is the background check part of the recruiting process?
A. First
B. Second
C. Last
D. A background check is not part of the screening process.
C
53. Which of the below options is NOT a type of interview?
A. Technology
B. Panel
C. Automatic
D. Structured
E. In Person
F. Phone screen
C
54. Personality Inventory and Cognitive Ability Test can be used in the selection
process.
A. True
B. False
A
55. Certain characteristics of a recruiter don't have an influence on the attitudes and
behaviors of the applicants.
A. True
B. False
B
56. True or False: 46% of reference and credential verification revealed a discrepancy
A. True
B. False
A
57. Failure to obtain information that could have been easily been accessed during the
hiring process could result in
A. Disparate treatment
B. The employee suing the company
C. Negligent hiring
C
58. What is the definition of disparate treatment?
a. An intentional act that discriminates against an individual based on protected class
B. Neutral policies and practices that adversely affect protected classes (that could not
be justified by business necessity).
C. Accidentally making minorities feel excluded
A
59. Select all that are protected by the EEOC
A. Race
B. Sex
C. Pregnancy
D. Age
ABCD
60. A test cannot be valid if it is not reliable
A. True
B. False
A
61. "Tell me about a time when you made a mistake" is what type of interview question?
A. Situational
B. Behavioral
C. Knowledge
B
62. True or False: Structured interviews can be valid predictors of job performance
A. True
B. False
A
63. What is the #1 ability needed for interviewing?
A. To be able to listen
B. To be a people person
C. To be welcoming
D. To be organized
A
64. What is the number one step to a good hire?
A. Job analysis, Identify KSAO, and job description
B. Just job analysis
C. Determining the selection method
A
65. True or False: Validity is only situation-specific
A. True
B. False
B
66. What are the pros of metrics?
A. Provide a snapshot in time
B. Insightful
C. Good for dashboards and KPIs
AC
67. You should discuss candidates between interviews to make sure everyone is on the
same page.
A. True
B. False
B
68. What does the offer package consist of? Check all that apply
A. offer letter
B. employment agreement
C. job description
D. Training Manual
ABC
69. Employers will require applicants to pass each station before moving on if they are
using this type of selection:
A. Multiple Hurdle Model
B. Compensatory Model
C. Standard Interview
A
70. True or False: Metrics are the measurements of efficiency, performance, progress
or quality.
A. True
B. False
A
71. True or False: Applicant Tracking systems can be used to organize candidates who
apply to a position
A. True
B. False
A
72. A background check can consist of... Check all that apply.
A. Drug Screen
B. Credit Check
C. Criminal Background Check
ABC
73. Firm based competencies are...
A. How well will the candidate fit into the organizational culture
B. The specific capabilities that the job will require over the next few years
C. The candidate has the skills to lead his or her prospective team, and how do they
overlap with other members' skills
A
74. Workers reporting substance use and abuse... (check all that apply)
A. have higher rates of turnover and absenteeism
B. are more likely to have missed two + days of work in the past month due to illness or
injury
C. are most likely to steal
AB
75. What laws apply to background checks? Select all that apply
A. Ban the Box
B. Fair Credit Reporting Act
C. EEOC
ABC
76. True or False: Users are encouraged to use selection procedures which are just
valid.
A. True
B. False
B
77. How can you avoid bias?
A. Training
B. You cannot avoid bias
C. Using one assessor
A
78. "What would you do if an employee lied to you" is an example of what kind of
interview question?
A. Knowledge
B. Situational
C. Behavioral
D. Other
B
79. True or False: You should complete an evaluation after each interview.
A. True
B. False
A
80. True or False: A job description should be included in the offer package
A. True
B. False
A
81. What is employee engagement?
A. How happy employees are at their jobs.
B. How long an employee has worked at his or her job?
C. How hard employees work for an organization and how long they intend to stay.
D. How much an employee likes the manager and co-workers.
C
82. Being clear about the culture of your organization is an important part of socializing
a new hire, true or false?
A. True
B. False
A
83. What is one stage of the new hire socialization process?
A. Going out with co-workers.
B. Understanding where you, as a new employee, fit in the organizational context.
C. Completing all new hire paperwork.
D. Doing well on the first performance review.
B
84. There is a good return on investment for having higher employee engagement in
your organization, true or false?
A. True
B. False
A
85. Which one of these is NOT a cost when replacing an employee?
A. Separation costs
B. Vacancy costs
C. Replacement costs
D. Training costs
E. Performance costs
E
86. We know a good onboarding program should be about a year, more or less
depending on the position. But when should a manager make sure to check in with the
new hire? (Check the one that isn't correct.)
A. First Day
B. Day Five
C. One month
D. Ninety Days
E. Six months
F. One Year
G. Two Years
G
87. When beginning the process of creating your onboarding program, with whom
should you start the discussion?
A. Your manager
B. The new hire
C. Human Resources
D. Your team
C
88. When should onboarding begin?
A. On the new hire's first day.
B. At the time of the offer for the position.
C. During the new hire's first week.
D. Timing isn't that important, just get it on the new hire's schedule soon.
B
89. We want onboarding to be individualized. So it's best to make sure that the new
employee is signed up ahead of time for all the appropriate groups to which the new
hire belongs (like the women's leadership group, or the LGBT employee group, etc.).
True or false?
A. True
B. False
B
90. It can be difficult to create an individualized onboarding process. But what is the
most important thing to think of as you create your onboarding program?
A. Make sure you get the new hire paperwork done.
B. Introduce the new hire to the organization's leader.
C. Be intentional about designing the human relationship.
D. Make the process super fun.
C
91. What is the first step in getting ready for your new hire's first day?
A. Prepare yourself.
B. Talk with the new hire.
C. Get your team ready.
D. Set up a welcoming environment.
E. Talk with HR about paperwork.
A
92. Is it important to pre-schedule time with your new hire during the first week of
employment?
A. Yes, put it on both your calendars.
B. If possible, but if emergencies come up try for some time in the first month.
C. No, just make sure you have a meeting with the new hire in the first month.
A
93. It is important that the new hire not make mistakes as that will reflect poorly on his
or her first performance review, true or false?
A. True
B. False
B
94. You want your team to be involved with the new hire onboarding process. But if
there are concerns your team has with the new hire, they should do the following:
A. Keep it to themselves, this is a new employee and things are bound to get better.
B. Talk with the other team members about the concern to see if the concern is shared.
C. Bring the concern to you so you can help resolve it.
D. Talk directly with the new hire and explain how things are done on the team.
C
95. What is the best way to be sure that you are ready for the new hire's first day?
A. Ask others to help.
B. Create and use an onboarding checklist.
C. Talk with human resources.
D. Ask the new hire what they need.
B
96. Job satisfaction and employee engagement are the same thing.
A. True
B. False
B
97. A strong driver for both job satisfaction and employee engagement is:
A. Pay and benefits
B. The team of people you work with
C. Where the job is located
D. The employee relationship with the direct supervisor
D
98. Individual development plans must be designed for each individual, even when all
your team members are working on the same projects and outcomes, true or false?
A. True
B. False
A
99. A sample Individual Development Plan (IDP) was discussed in this lesson. What
was NOT one of the four parts of that sample IDP?
A. Goals
B. Strategies
C. Action Steps
D. Planning
E. Resources/Support
D
100. Which of the following are reasons why you should talk with your new hire about
your organization's performance review system during the early days of onboarding?
A. Such a discussion will help the new hire know what is expected in the position.
B. Such a discussion will create a communication channel for you and the new hire.
C. Such a discussion helps both you and the new hire to think about what
documentation you will want to collect d. for the review.
D. Such a discussion creates a sense of longevity with the organization for the new hire
as they begin to think of the future early on in their career.
E. All of the above.
E
1. The toolset for performance management includes all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Providing positive and corrective feedback
B. Definition of managing people
C. Setting clear expectations with the employee
D. Building development plans
B
2. "Good performance management is the single largest contributor to organizational
effectiveness."
A. True
B. False
A
3. Which of the following statistics is NOT accurate from the survey on performance
management effectiveness?
A. 85% of employees focus on the "right" things defined by organization goals.
B. 43% reported performance management process increased employee performance.
C. 51% said planning process needed work.
A
4. True or False: While there are many sources of culture difference in performance
management, they are many key principles that are culture "neutral."
A. True
B. False
A
5. Which of the following was NOT listed in the lecture as an example of culture types?
A. Group
B. Collectivist
C. Individualistic
A
6. Which of the following is TRUE about performance reviews?
A. Reviews are strategic.
B. Reviews focus on individual development and ratings.
C. Reviews are a dynamic process.
B
7. Which of the purposes listed for effective performance management systems would
most likely be of use when terminations occur?
A. Legal
B. Strategic
C. Administrative
D. Rewards
A
8. Which of the following was listed as a design element for performance management
systems?
A. Top Management buy in.
B. Frontline buy in.
C. Non comprehensive - used for non senior management positions
A
9. Workforce planning and succession planning data is the only useful data form
performance management systems. True or False?
A. True
B. False
B
10. Which of the following was not listed as an external group impacted by an
organizations performance management system?
A. Families.
B. Customers.
C. Suppliers.
D. Stockholders.
C
11. Which of the following is NOT part of strategic performance management?
A. Multi-rater assessment.
B. The performance review.
C. Annual feedback sessions.
D. Performance planning.
B
12. Which of the following IS NOT a role of HR in the performance management
planning process?
A. Ongoing feedback.
B. Developing performance standards.
C. Conduct performance management training for managers.
D. Review job descriptions.
A
13. As a manager you want to avoid the "perils" of ineffective performance
management. Which of the following is NOT a peril associated with specifically with
managers?
A. Less motivated employees.
B. Unfair / inconsistent performance ratings.
C. More turnover in the department.
D. Lower stock price.
D
14. Performance management training may address performance improvement plans
and individual development plans. The difference between the two is that improvement
plans deal with a current performance deficiency, while the individual development
deals with growth. True or False?
A. True
B. False
A
15. In the Case Study in the video regarding the strategy change in financial institution,
the role of HR in implementing the new strategy was discussed. Which of the following
actions was the role of the senior management team and NOT HR?
A. Revised recruiting to incorporate new strategy.
B. Conducted organizational SWOT analysis.
C. Revised training to incorporate new strategy.
D. Revised job descriptions to incorporate new skills and job requirements associated
with new strategy.
B
16. Which of the following is NOT part of a performance management mindset?
A. Performance management should be viewed as bottom line issue.
B. Performance management should be viewed as an event.
C. Performance management is about development of employees.
B
17. When performance is aligned with mission, strategy and goals, it can have a
positive effect on which of the following?
A. Customer satisfaction
B. Profitability
C. Employee satisfaction
D. All of the above answers are correct
D
18. Which of the following are NOT "culture neutral", from a performance management
perspective?
A. Individualistic type of organization
B. Aligning team and organizational goals
C. Providing clear expectations
A
19. Senior management wants to develop a more strategic approach to performance
management. Which of the follow shifts are needed to accomplish the transition?
A. Have the managers drive the performance management program rather than just
HR.
B. Hold managers accountable for ongoing feedback for their employees.
C. Use data to assess organizational strengths.
D. All of the above answers are correct.
D
20. A strategic performance management system seeks to achieve which of the
following?
A. Allow employees to get larger increases.
B. Become more effective in document performance for legal and administrative
purposes.
C. Align mission, strategy and values with team and individual goals.
D. Become more efficient in the administrative functions of performance management.
C
21. As a member of the senior management team, you want to make sure there is
consistency among the managers in various departments and no poorly written reviews
with language that could cause legal in performance ratings. Which or the following
design elements from the lecture would best accomplish those objectives?
A. HR or management oversight.
B. Transparency.
C. Comprehensive.
D. None of the answers are correct.
A
22. Which of the following is a positive impact of performance management on the
employees as discussed in the lecture?
A. Decreased motivation due to no flexibility in their jobs.
B. All of the above.
C. Better understanding of the job duties and performance standards.
D. Larger increases in compensation.
C
23. Which of the following is NOT an ongoing performance activities outlined in the
strategic performance management model?
A. Employee coaching.
B. Monitoring employee performance.
C. Discussing the Job descriptions.
D. Two way communication on performance activities.
C
24. Which of the following training topics would help to best solve an issue of favoritism
in the review process?
A. Rater error training.
B. Training on documenting performance.
C. Handling difficult performance discussions.
D. Performance review training.
A
25. Which of the following is NOT a performance management best practice?
A. Automate when possible for efficiency and better analytics.
B. Have employees give reviews to their peers.
C. Have a process to give employees a "voice" for input on performance management
process.
D. Ensure performance management processes are communicate to all employees.
B
26. According to the lesson, when looking at performance, we often use results
_____________.
A. to infer behavior.
B. when behaviors are not easily observed.
C. to infer behavior and/or when behaviors are not easily observed.
C
27. When defining performance we focus on:
A. Results.
B. Behaviors.
B
28. A bank teller knowing all of the products a bank offers is an example of ________?
A. Employee Motivation.
B. Declarative Knowledge.
C. Procedural Knowledge.
B
29. You have an employee you know has done a good job in the past and has received
good reviews. The job has not changed but lately their performance has not been good
as before. Using the concept from class of "diagnose before you prescribe," which of
the following would you focus on?
A. Procedural Knowledge - I would have the employee review procedures.
B. Declarative Knowledge - I would send the employee to training.
C. Motivation - Coaching - I would have a discussion with the employee on why their
performance has fallen off.
C
30. Which of the following was NOT listed as best HR practices in this lesson?
A. Work/Life Balance.
B. Inclusive Environment.
C. Corporate branding
D. Rewarding Employees.
C
31. Managers who are measuring an employee's punctuality, how well the employee
works with others and the employee's communication skills are demonstrating which
performance approach?
A. Results
B. Behavior
C. Traits
B
32. Information about the job, broad areas of responsibilities and day to day duties best
describes which of the following?
A. Objectives
B. Job Description
C. Accountabilities
D. Goals
C
33. Which of the following is an example of an effective performance objective?
A. Increase Sales
B. Increase sales by 10%
C. Increase sales by 10% by end of quarter
D. Increase overall sales by 10% over last year by the end of this calendar year.
D
34. One of the characteristics of performance objectives is that they should be limited to
3 to 5 maximum. Why is this an important?
A. More objectives would make it difficult to convey a strong sense of priority for the
desired objectives.
B. None of the above
C. It is too hard to come up with more than three objectives.
D. Employees don't like a lot of objectives because they have to work harder.
A
35. Which statement best describes the difference between a performance standards
and performance objectives?
A. Performance standards effect all employees in a single position while objectives are
unique to the individual.
B. There is no difference.
C. Performance standards are unique to the individual, objectives effect all employees
in a single position.
A
36. In this type of comparative system, employees are rated according on a normal
curve with only percentage of performers at the top, middle and bottom.
A. Paired comparison.
B. Forced distribution.
C. Simple rank order.
B
37. Gathering examples of performance in which employees performed very effectively
or not effectively is known as:
A. Critical Incidents method.
B. Simple Ranking.
C. Essay.
A
38. If you were to select (in order) the best performer, then the worst, the second best
and then the second worst until you met in the middle you would be using which of the
following methods?
A. Alternating rank ordering.
B. Simple rank order.
C. Forced distribution.
D. MBO's.
A
39. As manager I want to make sure my employees are focused on their goals and
aligned with corporate strategy. Which method would best meet my needs.
A. Essay.
B. Forced distribution.
C. MBO's.
D. None of the above.
C
40. Which of the methods has become a somewhat controversial method?
A. Essay.
B. Forced Distribution.
C. MBO's.
D. Simple rating.
B
41. Performance reviews can only be formal reviews and should never be informal. True
or false?
A. True
B. False
B
42. Which of the following should be a part of a general performance discussion?
A. Set clear expectations for the employee and the position.
B. Add new data to surprise the employee.
C. Discuss both past and future behavior.
D. Contain a recap of prior discussions.
ACD
43. Organizations depend on performance review data for many reasons. Which of the
follow is an example of an organizational use of performance review data?
A. individual development and growth plans.
B. leadership development and succession planning.
C. individual training plans.
D. individual compensation increases.
B
44. When doing a employee performance review, which of the following is important to
make sure it part of the review?
A. Inflate the rating or be vague so the employee will not be demotivated.
B. Focus mostly on past behavior so the employee realizes what a great job they have
done.
C. Delegate to the employee the task of determining how he/she will improve
performance.
D. Have a fair amount of focus on the future, as part of the discussion.
D
45. Performance reviews should only be about rewarding employees. True or False
A. True
B. False
B
46. When you need to have a difficult feedback discussion, which of the following
should be TRUE of that discussion?
A. Be sympathetic to the employee's issues.
B. Enhance self-esteem.
C. Include alternative behavioral options for the employee to improve upon.
C
47. "Feedback is like a shot" was talked about in the video. Why?
A. We get shots once a year.
B. Feedback, like a shot, should be given by a professional.
C. We love getting feedback!
D. Feedback helps us to get better.
D
48. As a manager you want to get feedback from other sources (Multi rater feedback)
with your sales employees who are located in store locations each with three other
employees. Which of the following sources would you want to make SURE to get
feedback from?
A. Customers.
B. Customers and employee.
C. Customers and peers.
D. Customers, peers and the employee.
D
49. People who give multi rater feedback should do all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Provide feedback that includes behavioral examples.
B. Provide examples of positive behavior.
C. Provide performance that was observed.
D. Provide feedback on the employee's personality.
D
50. One of the easiest and most cost effective ways to build employee confidence,
develop competence and improve performance is to give your employees feedback on
a regular and ongoing basis. True or False?
A. True
B. False
A
51. Which of the following were described as intentional errors when rating employees?
A. Being a "tough grader."
B. Rating everyone the same.
C. Assigning additional "traits" to an employee.
D. Being an "easy grader."
ABD
52. Which of the following are unintentional errors?
A. Recency / Primacy.
B. Sampling error.
C. Varying standards.
D. Strictness error.
ABC
53. Which of the following are effective strategies to minimize legal issues in
performance management?
A. Have HR and/or senior managers provide oversight of final reviews.
B. Provide training that contains insight on rater errors and why they occur.
C. Inflate employee ratings to make employees look good.
D. Provide calibration training to managers who conduct reviews.
ABD
54. Which of the following are tips for minimizing rater errors?
A. Oversight by others in the organization (HR - Senior managers).
B. Managers Justify ratings.
C. Monitor across departments and manager for overall consistency.
D. Hire managers who have experience.
ABC
55. Providing training to employees who have performance issues is an effective way to
minimize legal risk. True or false?
A. True
B. False
A
56. Performance reviews have a number of purposes, which of the following would NOT
be considered a purpose of the performance review?
A. To build a case against an employee in order to terminate the employee.
B. Platform for feedback.
C. Identifies areas for development.
D. Motivational tool.
A
57. Employees generally want the same out of the review process as managers do.
Which of the following represents what employees want from the review process?
A. Job enrichment and career opportunities.
B. Feedback on a regular basis.
C. Involvement in goal setting.
D. Writing their own Job descriptions.
ABC
58. What is the NOT an advantage of a common window approach?
A. Gives manager an opportunity to review all at their employees at the same time.
B. Is easier to allocate salary increases based on performance.
C. More likely manager will accurately assess / compare employee performance.
D. The common window approach can be time consuming if the manager has a large
number of employees.
D
59. Which of the following components of feedback is considered ineffective (avoid
this)?
A. Feedback should be given in the form of a feedback "sandwich" (e.g. You did great,
but ...).
B. Identify consequences for not improving performance.
C. Feedback must be verifiable.
D. Give feedback privately.
A
60. Which of the following are desired characteristics in the person selected to give
feedback in the multi-rater process?
A. Increases legal liability because non-managers are involved in the process.
B. Someone who has observed the employees behavior.
C. Someone who will be brutally honest with the employee.
D. Conveys a strong commitment to the performance management process.
ABD
61. There are a number of pro's and con's for multi-rater feedback. Which of the
following are reasons why we might want to use multi-rater feedback?
A. It reduces manger's workload, because they will not be the only one involved in the
performance review process.
B. Employees will have a chance to receive feedback from other people besides their
managers.
C. Multi rater feedback decreases potential bias.
D. Multi rater feedback provides a platform for managers to discuss difficult issues.
BCD
62. Feedback is a key ingredient in helping employees grow. Without feedback it is
difficult to understand areas for development. Which of the following costs do we suffer
when we do NOT give employees feedback?"
A. Employees are not given direction on "development opportunities" (areas to
improve).
B. Chronic poor performance.
C. Employees have an inaccurate perception of their performance.
D. Consistent lateness.
ABC
63. Which of the following are considered intentional errors in the performance
evaluation process?
A. Leniency and strictness errors.
B. Similar to me / different from me errors.
C. Recency / primacy effect errors.
D. Sampling error.
A
64. Managers sometimes inflate and deflate ratings for various reasons. Which of the
following best describes the actual impact of rater inflation / deflation (i.e. a reason why
we should NOT inflate/deflate ratings)?
A. Inflating ratings will give a well deserved raise and will increase performance.
B. Inflating ratings does not give employees to get accurate feedback. Thus, the
employee is denied the opportunity to actually improve performance.
C. Deflating employee errors will teach employees a lesson and send a message that
you are a tough manager.
D. Inflating rating will create better performance because the employee will feel better.
B
65. Three of the following are typically components of "rater error training." Which of the
following components is NOT a typical part of "rater error training" programs as
discussed in our video lessons?
A. Understand different types of rater errors/distortions and why managers commit
these errors.
B. Big picture overview of the performance management system.
C. Calibration and frame of reference training.
D. Understanding of the compensation system.
D
66. Which of the following was stated in video concerning culture and strategy?
A. Culture eats strategy for breakfast.
B. Strategy eats culture for breakfast.
A
67. "How we do things around here" is a definition of which of the following?
A. Strategy.
B. Culture.
C. HR Processes.
B
68. Which of the following would describe attributes of culture in an organization?
A. Goals.
B. Corporate citizenship, norms and morés.
C. Mission.
B
69. What is not one of the 3 R's of Civility?
A. Restraint.
B. Respect.
C. Responsibility.
D. Reality.
D
70. Which of the following was not listed under the "R" of Restraint?
A. Active listening.
B. Acting on values.
C. Emotional regulation.
A
71. According to the statistic in the lecture, 50% of US employees have stated they
were bullied or witnessed such behaviors. True or False?
A. True
B. False
A
72. Which of the following was listed an impact on teams in a culture of incivility?
A. Interpersonal Conflicts.
B. Increased anxiety.
C. Decreased individual performance.
D. Decreased job satisfaction.
A
73. One of the consequences of an uncivil culture is people are afraid to speak up for
fear of consequences. True or False?
A. True
B. False
A
74. Which of the following is not a hard cost of incivility to organizations?
A. Increased absenteeism.
B. Increased turnover.
C. Decreased workers compensation claims.
C
75. A civil, positive culture can produce positive results that could be seen as a
"dividend" to the organization. True of False
A. True
B. False
A
76. Servant Leadership focuses on which of the following?
A. Scarcity.
B. Values.
C. Coercion.
B
77. In the cultural "audit," a gap analysis looks at the difference between your cultural
vision and your desired vision. True or False?
A. True
B. False
A
78. In the "quilt of civility" one of the items was workplace design. Which of the following
were mentioned as part of workplace design?
A. What is on the walls in the organization.
B. Geographic Locations.
C. Cubes vs offices.
AC
79. To create civility in a culture you must do which of the following?
A. Enforce it.
B. Let it occur naturally.
A
80. "Walk the talk" means:
A. Our deeds follow our words.
B. Management by Walking Around (MWA).
A
81. The reasoning behind the quote "culture eats strategy for breakfast" is best
described as:
A. Culture will undermine the strategy if employees are not on board.
B. Culture is far more important than any strategy.
C. Senior managers do not value strategy.
A
82. In one of our video lectures, we used a parking sign as potential symbol of culture. It
read Reserved "Executive Parking Only" . What does this say about the culture of that
organization?
A. Employee focused.
B. Customer focused.
C. Hierarchy focused.
C
83. One of our lectures discussed the "3 R's" as a model for civility. This was a way to
strengthen the organization's cultural immunity system. Which of the below is/are
sign(s) of respect? (choose all that apply)
A. Active listening.
B. Inclusion of others.
C. Pro-activity.
D. Direct communication with positive tone and non verbals.
ABD
84. "Do unto others as they would have done unto themselves" was identified as:
A. The Customer Rule.
B. The Platinum Rule.
C. The Golden Rule.
B
85. The hard costs of incivility are more easily quantifiable or identified. Which of the
following is a hard cost of incivility?
A. Difficulty hiring and attracting applicants.
B. Quit and stay employees.
C. Reputation in the market place.
D. Costs of recruiting and retaining.
D
86. Which of the following would be considered "organizational civility dividends"
resulting from a positive workforce culture?"
A. Increased employee turnover.
B. Employer of choice.
C. Increased share price.
D. Customers as promoters.
BCD
87. Which of the following organizational strategies is most effective in building a
positive culture?
A. Innovation
B. Strengths based / Appreciative inquiry approach
C. Product excellence
B
88. Leaders in organizations that embrace civility are held accountable for all of the
following EXCEPT:
A. Modeling behaviors.
B. Reinforcing desired behaviors.
C. Coaching employees on positive behaviors.
D. Ensuring attendance policies are enforced.
D
89. Building civility into the fabric of your HR practices is the key to linking performance
and culture. Which of the following was NOT part of the fabric?
A. Treat the employee with respect during the termination process.
B. Have your marketing plan include culture.
C. Have recruiters include culture in the recruiting materials.
D. During exit interviews ask the question of why the started to look elsewhere.
B
90. Allowing for mistakes is a sound strategy for a positive culture.
A. True
B. False
A
1. A job description for administrative assistants may include "answering the telephone
and transferring calls" under:
A. Job context
B. Job title
C. KSAs
D. Job duties
D
2. The process of producing a job description is called:
A. Job descriptioning
B. Job analysis
C. Job evaluation
D. Job describing
B
3. Which of the following statements about benchmarking is FALSE?
A. When some external jobs match best on job titles, and other external jobs match best
on job descriptions, then it's better to benchmark on job titles rather than job
descriptions.
B. Ideally, benchmarks should match educational requirements of the organization's job
with the educational requirements of the external benchmark's job.
C. The US Bureau of Labor Statistics produces estimates of pay in different
occupations.
D. Some external benchmarks are better than others, and when calculating the
benchmark average, you may put extra weight on better benchmarks.
A
4. Suppose your organization wants to match pay on the external labor market. Which
one of these statements is TRUE?
A. The typical job entrant without experience will begin below the market median pay
for that job.
B. The typical job entrant without experience will begin at the market median pay for
that job.
C. The typical job entrant without experience will begin above the market median pay
for that job.
A
5. Which of the following is NOT a best practice for compensation surveys, for the
purposes of complying with anti-trust law?
A. Making sure the data are sufficiently old.
B. Making sure that no one big survey respondent is the main driver of the benchmark
data.
C. Administering the survey yourself.
C
6. Suppose that a new technology makes coal mining much safer. What affect will this
have on labor supply and labor demand?
A. Labor supply will decrease
B. Labor demand will decrease
C. Labor demand will increase
D. The labor supply and labor demand curves will both change
E. Neither curve will change
F. Labor supply will increase
F
7. Suppose that several large companies simultaneously announce that they're going to
invest heavily in public infrastructure, raising the price of steel and iron ore. What will
happen to the quantity and price (wages) for iron miners?
A. The labor supply and labor demand curves will both change
B. Labor demand will shift left: iron miners' wages will decline and the quantity of miners
will also decline.
C. Labor supply will shift left: iron miners' wages will increase and the quantity of miners
will decrease.
D. Labor demand will shift right: iron miners' wages will rise and the quantity of miner
will increase.
E. Neither curve will change
F. The labor supply curve will shift right: iron miners' wages will decrease and the
quantity of miners will increase.
D
8. Which of the following is TRUE about pay ranges?
A. The pay range will give the difference in pay between two adjacent grades.
B. The pay range will give the difference in pay between the least paid person in a
grade and the second-least paid person in the pay grade.
C. The pay range will give the difference in pay between the lowest grade and the
highest grade.
D. The pay range will give the difference in pay between the least-paid person in a
grade and the most-paid person in that grade.
D
9. When we draw our salary structure, a movement from left to right corresponds to:
A. A raise, as you're getting an increase in pay within the same grade.
B. A demotion, as you're getting demoted from a high grade to a lower grade.
C. A pay reduction, as you're getting a reduction in pay within the same grade.
D. A promotion, as you're getting promoted from a low grade to a higher grade.
D
10. Which of the statements about pay policy lines are TRUE?
A. They go through the midpoints of the pay ranges.
B. They go through the tops of the pay ranges.
C. They go through the bottoms of the pay ranges.
D. They are only used to benchmark pay for the middle grades, and are not used to
determine pay at high or low grades.
A
11. The pay rates for the jobs that you benchmark are called:
A. The pay structure's pay policy rates.
B. The pay structure's grades.
C. The pay structure's ranges.
D. The pay structure's control rates.
D
12. Which of the following statements about merit-based raise criteria are TRUE?
A. Merit-based raise criteria would typically give the largest raises to people low in the
pay range, and with high evaluations.
B. Merit-based raise criteria cannot avoid paying people above the maximum of the pay
range.
C. Merit-based raise criteria would typically give the largest raises to people high in the
A
13. Which of the following pay structures pays employees a premium for additional
occupational licenses and education?
A. Skills-based structures
B. Competency-based structures
C. Job-based structures
A
14. Which of the following is a purpose of broadbanding?
A. Flexibility in lateral job assignments.
B. Flexibility in pay.
C. Flexibility in allowing multiple career ladders.
D. All of the above.
E. None of the above.
D
15. Which of the following is NOT an element of the pay mix?
A. Base cash
B. Short term incentives
C. Long-term incentives
D. Key performance indicators
E. Benefits
D
16. Which of the following statements about the Strategic Messaging Model is NOT
correct?
A. Messaging includes how we communicate the pay mix to employees.
B. Mix includes relative allocation of compensation across the pay mix.
C. Money includes the value of the total compensation package.
D. In general, we choose our money, mix, and messaging before we choose whom we
want to attract, retain, and motivate.
D
17. A job description for a truck driver may list "basic truck maintenance skills" under:
A. KSAs
B. Job duties
C. Job context
D. Job summary
E. Job title
A
18. Suppose your organization wants to match pay on the external labor market. Using
surveys, you find that the median pay in the external market for that job is $35,000 per
year. Which of the following is true?
A. The bottom of the pay range for that job should be $35,000 per year.
B. The top of the pay range for that job should be $35,000 per year.
C. The typical employee for that job should earn about $35,000 per year.
D. The cap in pay for employees in that job should end at $35,000 per year.
E. Entry-level employees for that job should begin at $35,000 per year.
C
19. Which of the following statements about compensation surveys is FALSE?
A. For compliance, compensation departments should use third-parties to administer
surveys.
B. For compliance, compensation departments should make sure pay survey data are
more than three months old.
C. For best accuracy, compensation departments should make sure that internal jobs
and benchmarked jobs are in the same industry and geography.
D. For best accuracy, compensation departments should make sure that internal jobs
and benchmarked jobs have the same job titles.
D
20. Suppose that some new technology (like Coursera!) instantly made it cheap and
easy for anyone to become a lawyer. What effect will this have on labor supply and
labor demand?
A. Labor demand will increase
B. Neither curve will change
C. Labor demand will decrease
D. Labor supply will increase
E. The labor supply and labor demand curves will both change
F. Labor supply will decrease
D
21. Consider the following statements about employees who are promoted. Which is
NOT true?
A. Employees who are promoted will change job grades.
B. Employees who are promoted can go from relatively high on their grade's pay range
to being relatively low of the new grade's pay range.
C. Employees who are promoted will generally see an increase in base pay.
D. An employee who is promoted will get a new pay range, with the maximum of the
pay range corresponding to base plus the total possible incentive pay.
D
22. Which of the following statements about pay structures and internal benchmarks is
NOT correct?
A. Pay tends to increase in job grades because higher grades tend to have workers with
greater skills and experience.
B. Pay tends to increase in job grades because higher grades tend to have workers
whose productivity is associated with greater revenue.
C. The control rates tell you the pay at benchmarked jobs.
D. The pay policy line must perfectly intersect all of the control rates.
D
23. Using a typical merit-based raise criteria, which of the following employees would
likely get the largest annual raise?
A. An employee high on the pay range, with high evaluations.
B. An employee low on the pay range, with high evaluations.
C. An employee who has not been recently promoted, but has been receiving high
evaluations for a long time.
D. An employee in the middle of the pay range with average evaluations.
B
24. Which of the following statements about pay bands is NOT true?
A. They typically span multiple non-contiguous grades within the same ladder (e.g.
associates are levels 1-3 and 7-9).
B. They typically combine multiple contiguous grades.
C. They typically combine jobs that are roughly similar in job level, prestige, and pay.
A
25. Employees who perform well are given raises. This is an example of a performance
evaluation being tied to which element of the pay mix?
A. Benefits and Perks
B. LTIs
C. STIs
D. Base pay
E. Non-Monetary
D
26. A good performance evaluation can lead to a boost in any of the following
EXCEPT?
A. STIs
B. Base pay
C. Benefits and Perks
D. MBOs
E. LTIs
D
27. Suppose a company decides to separate performance evaluations from raises.
Which of the following is a common reason that a company would do so?
A. The company is concerned that tying pay to evaluations can impede the ability of
evaluations to serve as a coaching tool.
B. Tying pay to performance evaluations encourages poor performers to stay.
C. The company is concerned that tying pay to performance evaluation makes it difficult
for managers and employees to communicate openly about development goals.
A
28. Managers conducting performance evaluations tend to overweight instances that
occurred in the last week more than those that happened six months ago. This is an
example of what kind of bias?
A. Recency
B. Halo
C. Anchoring
D. Horn
E. Primacy
F. Spillover
A
29. In advance of a measurement period, a performance evaluation sets specific
performance targets for employees, and ties pay to the achievement of those targets.
This evaluation is an example of
A. Management by Objectives (MBO)
B. A Realistic evaluation
C. Critical Incidents evaluation
D. Behaviorally-Anchored Rating Scale (BARS)
A
30. Which of the following is NOT an example of a Key Performance Indicator?
A. Year-end bonus
B. Total dollar value of sales generated
C. Units produced
D. Average customer service score
A
31. Which of the following statements about tournament incentives is accurate?
A. Tournament incentives encourage employees to share best practices
B. Tournament incentives helps maintain the effectiveness of incentives when outside
factors affect many employees' productivity
C. Tournament incentives work well when employees work together in teams
B
32. A factory line worker is paid a piecerate, or a rate per unit he or she produces.
When the materials and components that the line worker receives are faulty, the line
worker's performance suffers. This is an example of the
A. Measurement problem
B. Metering problem
C. Alignment problem
D. Control problem
D
33. A call center wants to identify how many calls a customer service representative
should take in a given hour. To do so, they use historical data, finding that a customer
service representatives can be expected to service an average of six calls per hour. By
benchmarking productivity, they are trying to solve
A. The measurement problem
B. The alignment problem
C. The control problem
D. The metering problem
D
34. What is the relationship between pay and performance when a job only pays a base
rate, without STIs?
A. Flat
B. Accelerated
C. Linear (negative slope)
D. Linear (positive slope)
A
35. Which of the following statement is TRUE?
A. A share is only valuable if its price goes up.
B. A dividend of "$1 per share" means you need to pay $1 to purchase a share of the
stock.
C. Both of the above.
D. None of the above.
D
36. Which of the following definitions is correct?
A. The strike price is the market price of the stock on the date that the employee
exercises the option to purchase the stock.
B. The vesting period represents the period of time over which the options become
allowed to be exercised.
B
37. Which of the following statements about non-qualified stock options (NQSOs) is
accurate?
A. Employers cannot deduct NQSOs as a business expense, employees do not pay
taxes when they exercise NQSOs.
B. Employers can deduct NQSOs as a business expense, employees do pay taxes
when they exercise NQSOs.
C. Employers cannot deduct NQSOs as a business expense, employees do pay taxes
D. Employers can deduct NQSOs as a business expense, employees do not pay taxes
B
38. Which of the following is sometimes referred to as Golden Handcuffs?
A. bonuses
B. commissions
C. stock options
D. pensions
C
39. The differences between the stock price and the stock option's strike price is:
A. The time value
B. The intrinsic value
C. The vesting period
B
40. Employees who receive high performance evaluations for their prior year's
accomplishments are awarded a fixed cash award. This is an example of tying
evaluations to what element of the pay mix?
A. Non-Monetary
B. Long Term Incentives
C. Short Term Incentives
D. Perks
E. Base pay
C
41. Which of the following scenarios illustrates the halo bias?
A. The evaluator knows that the employee has EXCELLENT reliability. This
contaminates his ratings for the employee's technical skills, customer service skills, and
willingness to help others. The latter ratings are now biased UPWARD.
B. The evaluator knows that the employee has POOR technical skills. This
contaminates her ratings for the employee's reliability, customer service skills, and
C. The evaluator knows that the employee has POOR technical skills. This
willingness to help others. The latter ratings are now biased DOWNWARD.
D. The evaluator knows that the employee has EXCELLENT reliability. This
A
42. What performance metric might be found on Behaviorally-Anchored Rating Scale?
A. The employee's customer satisfaction scores are at least 4.5 out of 5.0.
B. The employee displays courtesy and patience when speaking to frustrated
customers.
C. The employee generates $10 million in new business.
B
43. Which of the following are examples of a Key Performance Indicators?
A. Average customer service score
B. Total dollar value of sales generated
C. Year-end bonus
D. Units produced
ABD
44. Which of the following statements about tournament incentives is accurate? (check
all that apply)
A. Tournament incentives work well when employees work together in teams
B. Tournament incentives promote competition between employees
C. Tournament incentives help maintain the effectiveness of incentives when outside
D. Tournament incentives encourage employees to share best practices
BC
45. When India was a British Colony, the British tried to reduce the population of cobras
by providing incentives for people to hunt them. They did so by providing a bounty for
dead cobras. However, this led people to begin breeding snakes, so that they may be
slaughtered and delivered for bounty. Ultimately, this incentive suffered from the
A. Control problem
B. Alignment problem
C. Measurement problem
D. Metering problem
B
46. salesperson is paid 1% of revenue generated up to $1,000,000, 2% of revenue
generated up to $2,000,000, and 3% of revenue generated thereafter. This is an
example of what kind of an incentive?
A. Flat
B. Accelerated tăng tốc
C. Linear (positive slope)
D. Linear (negative slope)
B
47. Which of the following statements is true?
A. Phantom shares work like stock grants, except the criteria for granting them is known
only to the firm.
B. Performance shares are only issued after a stock reaches a certain price.
C. Stock options are only issued after a stock reaches a certain price.
B
48. When an employee joins her organization, she gets an option to purchase 1000
shares with a strike price of $2 per share, and these shares vest over four years. One
year later, the stock price is $3 per share. Two years later, the stock price is $4 per
share. The employee then quits and exercises any vested options. Which of the
following statements is true?
A. The employee exercises the option, purchasing 250 shares at $3 per share, and 250
shares at $4 per share.
B. The employee exercises the option to purchase 500 shares, paying $2 per share.
C. The employee exercises the option to purchase 1000 shares, paying $4 per share.
D. The employee exercises the option to purchase 500 shares, paying $4 per share.
E. The employee exercises the option to purchase 1000 shares, paying $2 per share.
F. The employee cannot exercise any options.
B
49. Which of these employees is most likely to receive a stock option that is qualified
under the IRS Code Section 409A, meaning that any incentives would qualify as an
incentive stock option (ISO)?
A. A Chief Financial Officer whose compensation package includes a stock option
grant.
B. A programmer whose compensation package includes a stock option grant.
C. A barista who participates in his employer's employee stock option purchase
program.
A
50. Use the website http://www.dol.gov/whd/minwage/america.htm to look up minimum
wages in the United States on January 1st, 2016. Which of the following would be true
of employers and workers covered by the Fair Labor Standards Act?
A. Employers in Alabama may pay workers $5 per hour.
B. Employers in Alabama must pay workers more than the federal rate of $7.25 per
hour.
C. Employers in Alabama must pay workers at least the federal rate of $7.25 per hour.
C
51. Which of the following requires employers to bargain in good faith over wages with
workers' elected bargaining representative?
A. EEO
B. NLRA national labor relation act
C. FLSA
D. FMLA
B
52. Which person may be paid a salary?
A. Someone making $400 per week, whose job duties exempt them from the FLSA.
B. Someone making $800 per week, whose job duties exempt them from the FLSA.
Fair labor standards act luật tiêu chuẩn lao động
C. Someone making $400 per week, whose job duties DO NOT exempt them from the
FLSA.
D. Someone making $800 per week, whose job duties DO NOT exempt them from the
FLSA.
B
53. Suppose that you're analyzing jobs for Crescendo Coffee, a major coffee retail
chain. Assuming each of these people pass the salary test, which person is least likely
to be exempted from the FLSA?
A. A network engineer who maintains the computer systems.
B. A shift supervisor who primarily serves as a barista, and sometimes supervises one
other employee.
C. A district manager for the New England area.
D. The Chief Human Resource Officer.
B
54. Which of the following statements is TRUE of an administrative assistant?
A. They would need to be paid the minimum wage, but not overtime. Their job duties
are not exempt from the FLSA.
B. They may be paid a salary.
C. Their job is exempt from the FLSA.
D. They would need to be paid overtime, but not a minimum wage. Their job duties are
not exempt from the FLSA.
E. They must be paid minimum wage and overtime. Their job duties are not exempt
from the FLSA.
E
55. In US federal law, which of the following is NOT a federal statutory benefit?
A. Twelve weeks unpaid leave for childbirth or adoption
B. Six weeks paid leave for childbirth or adoption
C. OASDI
B
56. Which statement about worker's compensation is TRUE?
A. It supplements compensation for employees who work on weekends and holidays.
B. It requires employers to reimburse employees' work-related expenses.
C. It supplements income for workers injured on the job.
D. It's administered at the federal level.
C
57. Which of the following are NOT beneficiaries of supplementary income under
OASDI? OASDIontario association of school districts international hiệp hội các học khu
quốc tế ở ontario
A. The disabled
B. Veterans
C. Retirees over the age of 65
D. The immediate family of deceased workers (e.g. widows and widowers)
B
58. A company that stages haunted houses is looking to hire cast members who are
enthusiastic about the horror genre. One of the perks that they offer is a huge zombie-
themed party for just the cast after the performances are done, which is easy since the
company already has make-up, props, and the haunted house. There are some general
reasons that the company may decide to pay for a party rather than provide higher cash
rewards? Which of the below is NOT a reason.
A. It's cheaper for the company than the cast members to throw a party
B. The party would attract the "right" kind of worker
C. The party would also bring revenue to the company
C
59. Consider a company that has a relatively high degree of job security and a pay mix
that benchmarks compensation at the 75th percentile for base pay and benefits.
However, unlike competitors, it does not offer short-term incentives or long-term
incentives. What message mostly is likely to accompany this pay mix?
A. The company values employees who are risk-loving.
B. The company values initiative and autonomy.
C. The company values a loyal, stable, risk-averse workforce.
D. The company values individual performance.
C
60. Which of the following definitions is not correct?
A. A premium is a regular fee paid by the employer or insuree to purchase coverage
B. A co-insurance is a percent of the cost of health care that the insuree must pay after
the deductible is met.
C. A HDHP is a High-Density Healthcare Provider. HDHP high deductible helath plan
D. An HMO is a group of healthcare providers that provide coverage on a prepaid basis
C
61. Which of the following statements about the Affordable Care Act are TRUE?
A. A firm with 20 FTE employees would receive a tax penalty if it does not offer health
insurance.
B. A firm with 200 FTE employees would receive a tax credit if it offers health insurance.
C. A firm with 20 FTE employees would receive a tax credit if it offers health insurance.
C
62. True or False: defined contribution plans are generally tax advantaged because
savings can accumulate without capital gains tax.
A. True
B. False
A
63. True or false: defined contribution plans are generally tax advantaged because upon
retirement, withdrawals are treated as capital gains rather than ordinary income.
A. True
B. False
B
64. Which of the following investment vehicles is least likely to lose 5% of its value?
A. A US treasury bond
B. A stock market index fund
C. A high-yield bond fund
A
65. Which of the following statutes provides job-protected unpaid leave for new
parents?
A. FMLA family and medical leave act Luật nghỉ phép gia đình và y tế
B. FLSA
C. EEO
D. NLRA
A
66. Which of the following would be TRUE of someone recognized by the FLSA as a
trainee?
A. The trainee would not provide immediate benefit to their employer.
B. The trainee's job duties would be exempt under the FLSA.
C. The trainee's employer would be not covered under the FLSA.
D. The trainee must not be paid more than $455 per week.
E. All of the above.
F. None of the above.
A
67. There are a several reasons firms use employer-sponsored pension plans. One
reason is that it allows employees to defer compensation until retirement, when they're
taxed at a relatively low rate. Second, by participating in an employer's plan, the
employer may be able to negotiate lower management fees with service providers.
These two specific reasons illustrate what two general reasons that firms provide
employer-sponsored pension plans, rather than cash? Mark the best answer
A. They attract the right kind of worker
B. They're cheaper for firms to provide than for workers
C. They're cheaper for firms to provide than for workers and they enjoy returns to scale
D. They provide benefits to firms
E. They're motivational symbolic benefits
C
68. Suppose that, for some condition, an insuree has a $1,000 deductible and 50%
coinsurance until a $10,000 cap. The health care provider's fees amount to $600. What
is the insuree's liability?
A. $600
B. $0
C. $1,000
D. $300
A
69. Which of the following statements about the ACA health insurance exchange
marketplaces are correct?
A. All states have their own state-specific health insurance exchanges.
B. All states participate in the health insurance exchange created by the federal
government.
C. Some states create health insurance exchanges, and other states defer to an
exchange set up by the federal government.
C
70. True or False: Defined contribution plans are generally tax advantaged because
they allow you to defer taxable income until you're in a lower tax bracket.
A. True
B. False
A
71. Li Li's pension fund mandates that she will receive $1800 per month for the rest of
her life. This is an example of what kind of fund?
A. Defined Contribution (e.g. 401k)
B. Defined Benefit
C. Simplified Employee Pension
B
72. Pierre's pension plan allows him to choose the amount of his contribution and how
his contributions are invested. The better his chosen investments perform, the more
money he'll have in his plan's account when he retires. This is an example of what kind
of a pension plan?
A. Defined Contribution (e.g. 401k)
B. Social Security
C. Defined Benefit
A
73. Which of the following is generally regarded as a best practice?
A. Shifting the allocation of a pension fund away from stocks and toward investment
grade bonds as workers approach retirement age.
B. Actively picking individual stocks with a pension fund.
C. Choosing funds with high management fees.
A
74. Which of the following is a TRUE statements about ERISA? ERISA Employee
Retirement Income Security Act Đạo luật đảm bảo thu nhập về hưu nhân viên
A. ERISA provides minimum standards of fiduciary responsibility for employers that
provide pension plans.
B. ERISA requires that employers that offer pension plans contribute at least 3% of an
employee's salary.
C. ERISA requires that employers provide access to a qualified pension plan.
A
75. Non-monetary rewards are valuable to:
A. only employers
B. to both employees and employers
C. only employees
D. nobody, because non-monetary rewards do not involve cash compensation
B
76. Examples of gaining individual growth through non-monetary rewards include:
A. Making a good guess at how to perform better
B. Having a mentor at work or elsewhere
C. Getting feedback from your manager or coworkers
BC
77. Employees must receive less cash compensation to also receive a non-monetary
reward.
A. True. Non-monetary rewards cost the company money, and are generally offset by
lower cash compensation
B. False. In most cases non-monetary rewards are offered in addition to a fair level of
cash compensation
B
78. An employer might decide to offer a non-monetary reward because:
A. Everybody else was doing it. The company didn't want to get left behind
B. It might show a special value and/or uniqueness of the company
C. It might aid in employee retention
BC
79. The most important non-monetary reward for employees is:
A. Flexibility
B. Bringing a pet dog to work
C. Being able to work part-time
D. Each employee has their own unique needs and preferences, so the importance of
non-monetary rewards will vary by individual
D
80. A heartfelt thank-you is an effective form of recognition
A. TRUE. It can mean a lot when you have worked on something, and it is noticed and
appreciated by others.
B. FALSE. A thank-you doesn't cost anything, so it does not have very much value to
anyone.
A
81. Recognition programs include:
A. Sales awards, to acknowledge selling success
B. Performance awards, to acknowledge a job well done
C. Service awards, to acknowledge continued employment
ABC
82. Examples of workplace flexibility include:
A.Part-time work schedule
B. Taking a short leave-of-absence to handle a family emergency
C. Not showing up to work whenever I feel like staying home
AB
83. Training programs:
A. Rarely work when it involves oversight from someone else
B. Are expensive and generally do not work
C. Can be on-the-job, or in a classroom
C
84. Training is only worthwhile if it leads to a promotion
A. TRUE. It must lead to a promotion
B. FALSE. It can be worthwhile if it helps you do your job better
B
85. Formal program designs are always best for non-monetary rewards.
A. TRUE. Formal program designs are always best
B. FALSE. Informal and formal program designs can both work well.
B
86. Benefits of an informal approach to non-monetary rewards include:
A. The manager can often approve the non-monetary reward
B. Implementation can be quick
C. There are generally no issues of inequity across managers
AB
87. Non-monetary rewards should always be avoided when:
A. Everyone can't benefit
B. Employees work in multiple locations
C. Most employees work part-time
D. There isn't a clear reason to totally avoid non-monetary rewards. Non-monetary
rewards help in so many ways
D
88. Non-monetary rewards are best when:
A. The company tailors them to their own unique needs and values
B. They only include the most common non-monetary rewards found at other
companies
C. Everyone can participate all the time
A
89. Non-monetary rewards:
A. Are worth it. Go for it!
B. Can cause too many problems and should be avoided
C. Generally lead to employee dissatisfaction
A
90. Non-monetary rewards are:
A. Always less important than cash compensation
B. Always more important than cash compensation
C. Only important when you are newly hired
D. Important to both employees and employers
D
91. From an employee's perspective, non-monetary rewards are:
A. Valuable to each employee based upon their preferences
B. Important, and might include a good company reputation
C. A nuisance, and take up valuable time at work
D. Hard to understand
AB
92. When it comes to Non-Monetary Rewards, employers think:
A. This is a big waste of time
B. It will cost way too much money
C. We can offer non-monetary rewards so that we can reduce employee compensation
D. This might be a good way to show our company culture and values
D
93. For recognition to be effective it should:
A. Recognize something important
B. Include a cash award
C. Be given by the CEO
D. Be done in a way that is meaningful in the culture
AD
94. Learning at work is:
A. Great, but my manager should see me doing it
B. Great, as it is a way to learn more about my job and other jobs
C. Fine, as long as it doesn't lead to extra work
D. Fine, as long as it does not take too long
B
95. Employees who want work flexibility:
A. Might prefer to work on a part-time schedule
B. Are sometimes people dealing with family emergencies
C. Could be anyone. Almost all of us need work flexibility at some point
D. Are lazy and do not want to work very hard
ABC
96. In implementation, non-monetary rewards program designs:
A. Can be informal, and set up between a manager and the employee
B. Should be very formalized, and include many details, options and approvals
C. Can be formal, and set up by the company, likely including written guidelines or
practices
D. Must be kept confidential, and implemented occasionally
AC
97. Can things go wrong with non-monetary reward programs?
A. Yes, despite best intentions.
B. Maybe, but you have to be very unlucky
C. Not really. Problems mostly occur in cash compensation programs
A
98. The benefits of being an Employer of Choice include:
A. Employees like working for your company
B. Likely to have a great reputation
C. Probably make it easier to recruit new employees
D. Guarantees business success
ABC
99. Non-monetary rewards are:
A. Very common, but often customized
B. Valued by employees
C. Valuable to employers
D. All of the above
D
KEY 396
abc
QN=1 When determining the best way to motivate employees, why shouldn't managers
rely solely on HR staff for directions. (check all that apply)
a. Managers know their employees best.
b. People are unique so there are various drivers of motivation.
c. Work can mean different things to different people, so there are various drivers of
motivation.
d. It's not a manager's job to motivate workers, they should be self-motivated.
e. HR is just a pencil-pushing function.
d
QN=2 In the video lesson "The Many Meanings of Work," how many different ways of
thinking about work were presented?
a. One
b. Two
c. Five
d. More than five
b
QN=3 True or false: Work is what it is. Some jobs are lousy, but we can't do anything to
change that.
a. True
b. False
b
QN=4 Mainstream economic theorizing sees work as a lousy activity that workers
tolerate in order to earn income. One way that work is seen as lousy is as a pain cost
(e.g., hot, dangerous, boring, stressful). A second way is as an _________ cost.
a. pain
b. opportunity
c. real
d. production
a
QN=5 Which of the following is not an example of labor being a derived demand?
a. Offering flexible work schedules because this is what workers with family
responsibilities want.
b. Offering flexible work schedules because customers with family responsibilities want
c. Offering flexible work schedules because customers do not expect immediate
responses to their inquiries.
bd
QN=6 Which of the following are required for HR to be strategic? (check all that apply)
a. HR tasks are primarily the responsibility of an HR staff person, perhaps with input
from line managers.
b. HR is focused on organizational needs, not just on the administration of HR policies.
c. HR needs to be an expert in every business function.
d. HR tasks are a line manager's responsibility, with help from an HR partner.
b
QN=7 True or false: No matter how one thinks the employment relationship works, high-
road HR strategies are always seen as desirable.
a. True
b. False
a
QN=8 Though there are exceptions because organizations can choose their HR
strategy, a low-road HR strategy typically tries to support a business strategy based on
competing on _____?
a. cost
b. value
c. price
d.strategic advantages
b
QN=9 True or false: managers cannot be leaders, and leaders cannot be managers.
a. True
b. False
a
QN=10 Why is job analysis an important process?
a. Because it puts work tasks together into sensible jobs and identifies job requirements
that serve as the basis for hiring employees.
b. Because it provides a performance rating for each employee that serves as the basis
for compensation and rewards.
c. Because it reveals the strengths and weaknesses of employees that serve as the
basis for training employees and establishing developmental goals.
b
QN=11 Which best describes the foundational assumptions of Taylorism, also known as
scientific management?
a. To manage workers effectively, managers need to pay attention to psychological and
social conditions, not just technical conditions.
b. Workers want to earn income in the most efficient way possible, but it is managers
who best know how to structure work tasks to fulfill this goal.
c. Workers are diverse so they need to be managed in ways tailored to their own goals
and values.
d. Business owners are industrious, ambitious, thrifty, and sober; workers are not.
a
QN=12 An HR strategy that emphasizes employee engagement and discretion can be
summed up by which phrase?
a. "If you don't like it, let's talk about it."
b. "If you don't like it, quit."
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b
QN=13 An organization's strategy for managing people is determined...
a. Solely by organizational choices and values without paying any attention to external
or internal factors.
b. Partly by a combination of external factors (such as competition), internal factors
(such as business strategy), but not completely because organizations have choices
about how to manage people.
c. Solely by various external factors (such as competition).
d.Solely by internal factors (such as business strategy).
b
QN=14 True or false: In selecting a personal managerial style, managers should only
pay attention to their own strengths and weakness, not the situation or the needs of
employees.
a. True
b. False
f
QN=15 Which is the single-best personal managerial style?
a. Coercive.
b. Authoritative
c. Affiliative
d. Democratic
e. Pacesetting
f. None of the others because there is no single-best style that fits with all situations.
c
QN=16 Economists say that labor is a derived demand. Why is this concept important
for managers to understand?
a. Because strategies, policies, and tactics for managing people are derived from a
country's legal regulations.
b. Because what employees demand can affect strategies, policies, and tactics for
managing people.
c.Because whatever affects demand for an organization's product or service can affect
strategies, policies, and tactics for managing people.
bcd
QN=17 Which of the following statements are true? (you must correctly check all that
apply)
a. An organization's business strategy and its HR strategy should be unrelated to each
other.
b. An organizational strategy does not completely determine an organization's HR
strategy. In other words, organizations with any type of business strategy can choose
an HR strategy that develops, rewards, and engages employees.
c. An organizational strategy based on unique goods or services is typically supported
by an HR strategy that tries to develop, reward, and engage workers.
d. An organizational strategy based on low-cost leadership is typically supported by an
HR strategy that tries to contain labor expenses and drive workers.
a
QN=18 Which of the following beliefs underlies high-road human resources strategies?
a. The interests of an organization and its employees can be aligned.
b. Labor markets work reasonably well in allocating and rewarding workers.
c. The employment relationship is characterized by some important conflicts of interest
between an organization and its employees.
a
QN=19 Which of the following beliefs typically underlies low-road human resources
strategies?
a. A business serves society best by satisfying market demand for its goods and
services and providing high financial returns for shareholders.
b. Corporations are a part of society and should serve not just shareholders and
customers, but other stakeholders, too.
bc
QN=20 Most individuals in modern societies need to work for pay in order to survive. So
this means that which of the following are important for managers? (you must check all
that apply)
a. People only work for money (that is, money is the sole motivator for all workers).
b. Financial stress can take on extra meaning in the workplace.
c.Work can seem like a curse (the way it's always been, the way it will always be).
c
QN=21 Economic theorizing sees work as both a pain cost and an opportunity cost.
This is useful for managers because...
a. ...this means workers will never want to work hard.
b. ...this means that there are never any psychological rewards from working.
c. ...this means that managers have to compensate workers for these costs in order to
get them to work hard.
abd
QN=22 Marginal analysis from economics teaches managers... (you must check all that
apply)
a. ...that it's particular challenging to motivate someone when the last extra hour that
you want someone to work is right on the edge of whether they want to work more or
not.
b. ...that what it takes to hire or retain the last needed worker strongly influences
compensation and other elements of the job for everyone in that position.
c. Work is a lousy activity tolerated to earn income.
d....to think about the additional benefit compared to the additional cost of a possible
managerial decision.
a
QN=23 Economic theory predicts that if an employer pays a fixed wage or salary rather
than performance-based pay, workers will...
a. shirk
b. complain
c. work hard
d. quit
a
QN=24 Which of the following is needed for an economic contest or tournament to be
an effective incentive mechanism that motivates high work effort?
a. A known prize that is large enough to compensate for extra effort.
b. A clear pay-for-performance program that rewards each worker's effort.
c. Insurance against excessive income loss.
bcef
QN=25 Which of the following are possible unintended consequences using financial
incentives to motivate workers? (you must check all that apply)
a. Employees worker harder than without incentives
b. Reduced non-monetary (Intrinsic) motivation
c. Overstimulation
d. "If you don't like it, quit"
e. Poor teamwork
f. "What gets measured gets done"
b
QN=26 True or false: Principal-agent problems can always be solved by additional
monitoring.
a. True
b. False
a
QN=27 True or false: When evaluating a signal of private information, it's important to
consider whether the signal is easy for others to imitate.
a. True
b. False
abd
QN=28 Economics highlights worker self-interest. This is important for raising
managerial awareness of... (you must check all that apply)
a. Strategic use of private information
b. Shirking and loafing
c. Shareholder value
d. Principal-agent problems
a
QN=29 It is useful for managers to understand what affects labor supply because...
a. ...this helps managers understand workers' decision-making processes about where
and when to work, and under what conditions.
b. ...this helps managers understand what might happen if the organization needs to
add more employees to supply more goods to its customers.
abd
QN=30 The question of whether employers and employees really are economic and
legal equals is... (you must check all that apply)
a. ...an issue that is largely ignored in high-road HR strategies.
b. ...the subject of intense debates going back more than 100 years.
c. ...an issue that is largely ignored in pluralist, Marxist, radical, and critical critiques of
approaches that favor labor market competition for setting wages and other terms and
conditions of employment.
d. ...important because it determines whether or not employees need the protection of
laws and labor unions.
c
QN=31 Perfect competition is an important issue to consider because...
a. ...employers need to recruit and retain employees and this happens in labor markets
with labor traded like a commodity.
b. ...if labor markets truly are perfectly competitive, then interventions like labor unions
or government regulation will not distort (a) the allocation of labor to its best uses, and
(b) the rewarding of employees with pay equal to the value they produce.
c....if labor markets truly are perfectly competitive, then the invisible hand of free market
competition is the best way to (a) allocate labor to its best uses, and (b) reward
employees with pay equal to the value they produce
c
QN=32 Managers should be trying to create conditions that result in...
a. ...employees who are satisfied with their job.
b. ...employees who are committed to their organization.
c. ...employees who are engaged in their job.
acd
QN=33 To promote intrinsic motivation among workers they manage, managers should
promote which needs? (you must check all that apply)
a. Competence
b. Financial security
c. Social belonging
d. Autonomy
a
QN=34 True or false: To promote positive job attitudes, managers should only be
concerned with the characteristics of each job.
a. False
b. True
d
QN=35 To help feel good about ourselves, we identify with certain groups and in doing
so, we emphasize the positive nature of their own group ("in-group") compared to others
("out-groups"). Which of the following does not result from this.
a. Inter-group conflict.
b. Differences between those groups we identify with and those we do not are
magnified.
c. Discrimination against out-group members by in-group members.
d. Free-rider problems in groups such that some group members do not fully contribute.
b
QN=36 To derive personal identity from belonging to an occupation, employees will...
a. ...not worry about conforming to societal or peer expectations for that occupation.
b. ...behave in ways that conform to societal or peer expectations for that occupation,
even if the organization wishes them to behave differently.
c. ...behave in ways that conform to societal or peer expectations for that occupation,
unless the organization wishes them to behave differently.
ac
QN=37 Consider an employee who (a) is only concerned with distributive justice, but not
other aspects, and (b) believes she is working harder than her co-workers but getting
paid the same. The employee's manager should expect her to... (you must check all that
apply)
a. ...ask for a raise.
b. ...do nothing.
c. ...reduce her effort to match that of her co-workers.
d. ...complain about the fairness of the policies for determining pay.
cde
QN=38 Some questions that can help managers think about employee perceptions of
procedural justice include: (you must check all that apply)
a. Did the procedure result in fair outcomes?
b. During the procedure, did the manager treat the employee with respect?
c. Has an employee been able to express his/her views and feelings during the
procedure?
d. Has the procedure been free of bias?
e. Has the procedure been applied consistently?
b
QN=39 Managers should only apply insights from psychology after they examine their
workers and see...
a. ...self-interested individuals working for money.
b. ...individuals focused on obtaining intrinsic rewards and avoiding frustration.
c. ...conscious-status individuals who are also concerned with norms or peer pressure.
a
QN=40 Norms or peer pressure can come from many sources, EXCEPT
a. ...the worker as an individual.
b. ...work group.
c. ...organization.
d. ...country.
b
QN=41 True or false: Various forms of social norms will always support managers in
eliciting desired work behaviors.
a. True
b. False
b
QN=42 True or false: Because of biological differences, women are naturally suited to
care for others, and this justifies an enduring, unequal sexual division of labor.
a. True
b. False
bc
QN=43 For managers, what is the relevance of seeing work as caring for and serving
others? (you must check all that apply)
a. Caring for and serving others isn't real work so it has little to do with managers.
b. Workers who value caring or serving might be demotivated if they feel that these
meanings of work are devalued by an organization or a society.
c. Workers who value caring or serving might be motivated if a manager provides
opportunities for fulfilling these goals, either directly or indirectly.
bc
QN=44 Managers should... (you must check all that apply)
a. Overlook the importance of humility, civility, and integrity.
b. Recognize and reward performance.
c. Hire and/or develop staff with the needed the knowledge, skills, and abilities (KSAs).
d. Do everyone else's job.
bc
QN=45 When managing in a unionized workplace, managers should... (you must check
all that apply)
a. Blame the union if the relationship is adversarial or uncooperative.
b. Respect employee voice and the bilateral nature of the relationship with unions.
c. Follow any required bargaining or consultation procedures.
abd
QN=46 What does it mean to be a good front stage, backstage manager? (you must
check all that apply)
a. When you are dealing with someone else, think about whether you have an audience
and what the audience expects.
b. Use the privacy of the backstage to exchange information, talk frankly, explore
options, and problem solve.
c. Get caught up in the emotions of front stage performances.
d. When you are dealing with someone else, engage in perspective taking by
considering whether they have an audience and what that audience expects.
e. Shut people out and make backroom deals.
b
QN=47 True or false: When thinking about protections against unjust or unfair "adverse
employment actions," this only applies to employee terminations.
a. True
b.False
a
QN=48 True or false: Employment-at-will is useful as a functional benchmark for
managers to think about what they can and cannot legally do as a manager.
a. True
b. False
b
QN=49 There's an asymmetry in the extent to which employment-at-will exists in most
countries because...
a. ...employees cannot quit for any reason but organizations can fire someone for any
reason.
b....employees can quit for any reason but organizations cannot fire someone for any
reason.
ac
QN=50 From a pluralist industrial relations perspective, laws are needed to balance
efficiency, equity, and voice because... (you must check all that apply)
a. ...conflicts of interests in the employment relationship mean that managers cannot be
relied on to look out for the welfare of employees.
b. ....the interests of employees are more important than the interests of employers.
c. ...employers typically have greater bargaining power than individual employees.
ab
QN=51 Which one(s) of these are associated with the free market perspective on
workplace law and regulation? (you must check all that apply)
a. The role of the law should be limited to the smooth functioning of the employment
relationship by providing orderly rules that facilitate economic transactions such as
enforceable contracts and protections for property rights.
b. Employment and labor laws are largely unnecessary because labor markets fairly
reward employees.
c. Some employment laws are useful to push companies toward win-win, high-road HR
practices, and prevent the worst abuses that undermine good employers.
a
QN=52 True or false: In the United States, there are no federal requirements for sick
leave, paid holidays or vacations, or breaks, but some states require breaks based on
time at work.
a. True
b.False
abc
QN=53 U.S. labor law... (you must check all that apply)
a. ...requires organizations to bargain in good faith with labor unions that represent a
majority of workers.
b. ...protects workers joining together to increase their bargaining power and exercise
voice, even without the presence of an actual labor union.
c. ...provides for orderly procedures for determining when workers want to be
represented by a union.
d. ...protects the right of employees to strike in all occupations, including in the entire
public sector.
a
QN=54 True or false: Many countries outside of the United States have greater
protections against unjust dismissal, require employment contracts, and mandate a
variety of leave benefits.
a. True
b. False
c
QN=55 HR should do more than just make sure that managers are complying with
organizational policies and with legal regulations. In other words, HR should not be the
HR ______.
a. managers
b. regulators
c. police
d. supervisors
cd
QN=56 Which of the following are elements of Taylorism, also known as scientific
management? (you must correctly check all that apply).
a. To motivate workers, getting the human conditions of work are just as important as
getting the technical conditions right.
b. Managers should drive workers through strict monitoring, discipline, and even threats.
c. Managers, not workers, are seen as having the knowledge and expertise to find the
one best way to do each job.
d. Jobs should be broken into small, standardized, repetitive tasks.
adf
QN=57 Which of the following are typically features of a high-road HR strategy? (you
must correctly check all that apply).
a. Employee autonomy and discretion
b. Unquestioned supervisor authority
c. Labor or trade unions
d. Above-average pay and benefits
e. Low levels of profitability
f. Employee training
b
QN=58 True or false: There is one personal managerial style that is best in all
situations.
a. True
b. False
b
QN=59 True or false: All organizations in the same competitive space have to have the
same type of HR strategy.
a. True
b. False
a
QN=60 Which of the following is not an example of labor being a derived demand?
a. Offering flexible work schedules because this is what workers with family
responsibilities want.
b. Offering flexible work schedules because customers with family responsibilities want
c. Offering flexible work schedules because customers do not expect immediate
responses to their inquiries.
cd
QN=61 Which of the following are required for HR to be strategic? (check all that apply)
a. HR needs to be an expert in every business function.
b. HR tasks are primarily the responsibility of an HR staff person, perhaps with input
from line managers.
c. HR is focused on organizational needs, not just on the administration of HR policies.
d. HR tasks are a line manager's responsibility, with help from an HR partner.
b
QN=62 True or false: No matter how one thinks the employment relationship works,
high-road HR strategies are always seen as desirable.
a. True
b. False
c
QN=63 One of the key concerns that emerges from economic analysis of workers is a
concern with opportunism. Which is the best definition of opportunism?
a. The cost that comes from missing an opportunity to do something.
b. Not giving full work effort in one's job.
c. Pursuing one's own self-interests even when they run counter to others' interests.
ab
QN=64 If workers behave in ways consistent with standard economic models,
solution(s) to principal-agent problems include... (check all that apply)
a. Financial incentives
b. Monitoring
c. Autonomy
d.Peer pressure
a
QN=65 True or false: Setting compensation incentives involves finding the right balance
between risk and insurance.
a. True
b. False
b
QN=66 True or false: To overcome problems of private information, organizations can
only use screening strategies, not signaling strategies.
a. True
b. False
bc
QN=67 Labor is a special commodity because... (check all that apply)
a. It is traded in economic markets.
b. It has productive value.
c. It involves people.
a
QN=68 True or false: For individuals who believe that labor markets are perfectly or
ideally competitive, the best protection against worker exploitation is competition for
workers among employers, not a labor union or a government law.
a. True
b.False
a
QN=69 True or false: Efficiency, equity, and voice can be useful for managers to think
about because it's one way of summarizing workers' interests.
a. True
b. False
a
QN=70 True or false: Even for individuals who are well-off and claim they are not
working for money, money can be important as a sign of self-worth and the value or
respect given to them by the organization.
a. True
b.False
d
QN=71 The job characteristics the tend to promote positive job attitudes among
employees DOES NOT include:
a. Skill variety
b. Task identity
c. Task significance
d. Financial incentives
b
QN=72 True or false: When workers use their work to shape their identity, they do so
solely by labeling themselves with various identifiers (e.g., "I am a ____ working for
_____.").
a. True
b.False
bc
QN=73 Employees are believed to conform with norms and other social pressures in
order to... (check all that apply)
a. ...earn high income.
b. ...avoid being harassed and ostracized.
c....achieve a sense of belonging.
a
QN=74 True or false: Treating work as a commodity results in society placing value on
work that is seen as a precious commodity, which then devalues women's caring
activities that are traditionally done in the household for no pay.
a. True
b. False
b
QN=75 True or false: Thinking about work as serving others is irrelevant for managers.
a. True
b. False
a
QN=76 True or false: A manager should use employee engagement scores for his/her
work group over time and in comparison with other work groups to watch for warning
signs of problems in the work group.
a. True
b. False
b
QN=77 True or false: When you are dealing with someone else, it's their problem, not
yours, if they have an audience that is watching.
a. True
b. False
c
QN=78 Does the law see the employment relationship like any other economic
transaction?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Sort of
c
QN=79 Employment-at-will DOES NOT require...
a. That workers have the legal right to work for whoever they want, when they want, for
whatever compensation they can obtain, and quit whenever they please.
b. That organizations have the legal right to hire whoever they want, at whatever
compensation workers will agree to, and fire workers at any time for any reason.
c. That everyone who is willing to work is guaranteed a job.
a
QN=80 True or false: True employment-at-will rarely exists.
a. True
b. False
ab
QN=81 Unjust dismissal laws typically restrict the discipline and discharge of employees
unless this is related to... (check all that apply)
a. ...job performance.
b. ...a lack of work.
c. ...faulty information.
d....a desire to lower labor costs
b
QN=82 True or false: Managers should manage defensively such that they primarily try
to avoid legal action.
a. True
b. False
b
QN=83 When managing a work group, before applying insights from economics,
psychology, sociology, or other academic disciplines, managers should first make sure
that...
a. the assumptions of that perspective fit with my own values.
b. the assumptions of that perspective fit with the values of the work group.
c. there isn't more practical advice available because blogs, business magazines, and
other non-academic sources don't rely on any assumptions.
b
QN=84 The vast complexity of work means that...
a. each employee you manage might have a different motivational factor, but each
person will only have one.
b. each employee you manage might have a different combinations of multiple
motivational factors.
ab
QN=85 Managers should... (check all that apply)
a. Set appropriate performance objectives and help them achieve these objectives.
b. Determine the knowledge, skills, and abilities (KSA) required of their team.
c. Micro-manage their team and assume they know best.
d. Take all the credit.
a
QN=86 True or false: In the United States, labor law only applies to workplaces where
there are labor unions or formal labor union activity such as an organizing drive.
a. False
b. True
costs
Though there are exceptions because organizations can choose their HR strategy, a
low-road HR strategy typically tries to support a business strategy based on competing
on _____?
low
An HR strategy that focuses on minimizing labor costs and strictly supervising workers
is commonly called a ____ road strategy.
supply
The amount of work an individual wants to sell to an employer is called labor _____.
intrinsic
An economic or monetary focus on work highlights the importance of extrinsic
motivation. A psychological, non-monetary focus highlights the importance of _______
motivation.
social
Sociology usefully draws our attention to the influence of ______ institutions in the
workplace, such as norms and culture.
distributive
The component of justice that focuses on the fairness of outcomes is called _______
justice.
procedural
The component of justice that focuses on the fairness of policies and rules is called
_______ justice.
proactive
When managing in a unionized environment, managers need to remember two words.
Bilateral and _______.
individuals
Employment law pertains to the rights of workers as ________.
groups
Labor law pertains to the rights of workers as ________.
ac
QN=1 What are the cons of structured questionnaires?
a. Time to develop
b. Can only be given to one employee at a time
c. Distortion of responses
a
QN=2 What is a pros of job observation?
a. Actual exposure to the job
b. Good for jobs done mentally
c. Requires some training time
a
QN=3 Is the ripple effect a potential disadvantage of an internal or external approach?
a. Internal
b. External
ab
QN=4 Which of the following are advantages of hiring internally?
a. Encourages long-term commitment
b. Nice PR for organizations
c. Increases diversity
d. Allows for new ideas
b
QN=5 True or False: external hires are 81% more likely to be fired from their new jobs
than were those who had been promoted from within the firm
a. True
b. False
cd
QN=6 What is an option during a labor shortage?
a. Force someone to retire
b. Fire an employee you don't like
c. Reassign Work
d. Outsource
a
QN=7 True or False: Global competition is a trend in the workforce
a. True
b. False
a
QN=8 What are disadvantages of an external approach?
a. Hurts morale
b. Lack of fresh ideas
c. Less expensive
abc
QN=9 What does workforce planning do?
a. Align workforce requirements to strategic plans
b. Identify and implement workforce shortage and reduction strategies
c. Discover where gaps exist between current and future competency requirements
d. None of the other
c
QN=10 Apple uses what competitive advantage?
a. Customer Intimacy
b. Operational Excellence
c. Product Leadership
a
QN=11 True or False: Training is important to creating an effective recruiter
a. True
b. False
d
QN=12 What are potential targets for company's doing targeted recruiting?
a. Race
b. Gender
c. Students
d. All of the other
d
QN=13 Select the challenges for mobile device usage recruitment
a. Time
b. Testing
c. Text/Content
d. All of the other
c
QN=14 What popular social media website is used in sourcing for recruitment? (also
find passive candidates)
a. Facebook
b. Twitter
c. LinkedIn
b
QN=15 True or False: There is a federal law that prohibits the use of social media in the
recruitment or background check process.
a. True
b. False
c
QN=16 What is the purpose of an affirmative action plan?
a. to fill a quota of minorities
b. to punish employers
c. to improve employment outcomes for groups that have been traditionally
underrepresented
a
QN=17 What is the traditional EEOC definition for diversity?
a. differences in gender, race, and age
b. all the ways in which we differ
c. different attitudes, perspectives and backgrounds among applicants
b
QN=18 True or False: Diversity recruiting is a trend
a. True
b. False
b
QN=19 Inclusion is about...
a. quantity
b. quality
c. quantity and quality
d. none of the other
abc
QN=20 Select the factors that affect global markets
a. education-human capital
b. culture
c. political-legal system
d. US unemployment rate
a
QN=21 True or False: Applicant Tracking systems can be used to organize candidates
who apply to a position
a. True
b.False
abc
QN=22 A background check can consist of... Check all that apply.
a. Drug Screen
b. Credit Check
c. Criminal Background Check
a
QN=23 Firm based competencies are...
a. How well will the candidate fit into the organizational culture
b. The specific capabilities that the job will require over the next few years
c. The candidate has the skills to lead his or her prospective team, and how do they
overlap with other members' skills
ab
QN=24 Workers reporting substance use and abuse... (check all that apply)
a. have higher rates of turnover and absenteeism
b. are more likely to have missed two + days of work in the past month due to illness or
injury
c. are most likely to steal
abc
QN=25 What laws apply to background checks? Select all that apply
a. Ban the Box
b. Fair Credit Reporting Act
c. EEOC
b
QN=26 True or False: Users are encouraged to use selection procedures which are just
valid.
a. True
b. False
a
QN=27 How can you avoid bias?
a. Training
b. You cannot avoid bias
c. Using one assessor
b
QN=28 "What would you do if an employee lied to you" is an example of what kind of
interview question?
a. Knowledge
b. Situational
c. Behavioral
d. Other
a
QN=29 True or False: You should complete an evaluation after each interview.
a. True
b. False
a
QN=30 True or False: A job description should be included in the offer package
a. True
b. False
a
QN=31 Comparing Delta and American Airlines represents which external force?
a. Competitors
b. Threat of Substitution
c. Globalization
d. Geography
d
QN=32 Which of the following is not an example of an internal force?
a. Employee development
b. Turnover
c. Current labor profile
d. Labor market
a
QN=33 Which is not one of the paths of competitive advantage that were talked about?
a. Brand Recognition
b. Customer Intimacy
d. Operational Excellence
b
QN=34 Walmart has which competitive advantage?
a. Customer Intimacy
b. Operational Excellence
d. None of the above
c
QN=35 What is the first step in workforce planning?
a. Data Analysis
b. Evaluation
c. Strategy
d. Data Collection
b
QN=36 Which is not an advantage of an internal approach?
a. Less Expensive
b. New Ideas
c. Motivating
d. Train for specific needs
a
QN=37 True or False: Promote within whenever possible
a. True
b. False
e
QN=38 Which of the following are solutions to labor shortages?
a. Temporary labor
b. Outsource
c. Reassign Work
d. Replace with Technology
e. All of the Above
d
QN=39 What factors should you consider when deciding how to handle labor shortage?
a. How many workers?
b. What job did they work?
c. The reason people left
d. How many workers? -and- What job did they work?
a
QN=40 What are examples of trends in the workforce?
a. Workforce Skills Gap
b. Lack of Workforce Diversity
c. National Competition
abcd
QN=41 Select all of the examples of a core competency
a. Relationship Management
b. Leadership and Navigation
c. Ethical Practice
d. Communication
b
QN=42 Which of the following is not a method of job analysis?
a. Job performance
b. Training
c. Job Observation
d. Critical Incident Analysis
b
QN=43 True or False: Job observation is a good method for job analysis for jobs done
mentally
a. True
b. False
a
QN=44 What is knowledge?
a. Required factual information
b. Personality traits or legal requirements
c. External capability of performing a task
d. Internal capacity to perform a task
abc
QN=45 Select the components you need to perform a job
a. Motivation
b. Efficiency
c. Mental Capacity
abd
QN=46 Which of the following would increase recruiter effectiveness?
a. Diversity and Sensitivity Skills
b. Timely Feedback
c. Working Alone
d. Great Communication Skills
d
QN=47 What impacts the persuasiveness of a recruitment message?
a. Media Richness
b. Personal Focus
c. Providing in depth information
d. Both A and B
d
QN=48 What impacts the brand and reputation of a company?
a. Size and Age
b. Profitability
c. Location
d. All of the above
a
QN=49 True or False: The source of the recruitment message should be credible and
an expert
a. True
b. False
b
QN=50 True or False: Knowledge of the law is only necessary in an employee relations
role or HR generalist role
a. True
b. False
b
QN=51 What percentage of job seekers use their mobile device to search for a job once
a week or more?
a. 56%
b. 68%
c. 88%
abc
QN=52 Based off the lecture, what are the best ways to attract passive candidates?
Select all that apply.
a. Job Postings
b. Employment Branding
c. Social Media Presence
d. Cold Calling
a
QN=53 True or False: Having a positive candidate experience can be a strategy to
attract passive candidates
a. True
b. False
a
QN=54 True or False: There is no law against using social media in the recruiting
process
a. True
b. False
d
QN=55 Which of the following competencies were talked about in the lecture that
recruiters should analyze when selecting candidates?
a. Team-Based
b. Firm- Based
c. Job- Based
d. All of the above
c
QN=56 At which step is the background check part of the recruiting process?
a. First
b. Second
c. Last
d. A background check is not part of the screening process.
c
QN=57 Which of the below options is NOT a type of interview?
a. Technology
b. Panel
c. Automatic
d. Structured
In Person
Phone screen
a
QN=58 Personality Inventory and Cognitive Ability Test can be used in the selection
process.
a. True
b. False
b
QN=59 Certain characteristics of a recruiter don't have an influence on the attitudes and
behaviors of the applicants.
a. True
b. False
a
QN=60 True or False: 46% of reference and credential verification revealed a
discrepancy
a. True
b. False
c
QN=61 Failure to obtain information that could have been easily been accessed during
the hiring process could result in
a. Disparate treatment
b. The employee suing the company
c. Negligent hiring
a
QN=62 What is the definition of disparate treatment?
a. An intentional act that discriminates against an individual based on protected class
b. Neutral policies and practices that adversely affect protected classes (that could not
be justified by business necessity).
c. Accidentally making minorities feel excluded
abcd
QN=63 Select all that are protected by the EEOC
a. Race
b. Sex
c. Pregnancy
d. Age
a
Qn=64 A test cannot be valid if it is not reliable
a. True
b. False
b
QN=65 "Tell me about a time when you made a mistake" is what type of interview
question?
a. Situational
b. Behavioral
c. Knowledge
a
QN=66 True or False: Structured interviews can be valid predictors of job performance
a. True
b. False
a
QN=67 What is the #1 ability needed for interviewing?
a. To be able to listen
b. To be a people person
c. To be welcoming
d. To be organized
a
QN=68 What is the number one step to a good hire?
a. Job analysis, Identify KSAO, and job description
b. Just job analysis
c. Determining the selection method
d. None of the above
b
QN=69 True or False: Validity is only situation-specific
a. True
b. False
ac
QN=70 What are the pros of metrics?
a. Provide a snapshot in time
b. Insightful
c. Good for dashboards and KPIs
b
QN=71 You should discuss candidates between interviews to make sure everyone is on
the same page.
a. True
b. False
abc
QN=72 What does the offer package consist of? Check all that apply
a. offer letter
b. employment agreement
c. job description
d. Training Manual
a
QN=73 Employers will require applicants to pass each station before moving on if they
are using this type of selection:
a. Multiple Hurdle Model
b. Compensatory Model
c. Standard Interview
a
QN=74 True or False: Metrics are the measurements of efficiency, performance,
progress or quality.
a. True
b. False
c
QN=75 What is employee engagement?
a. How happy employees are at their jobs.
b. How long an employee has worked at his or her job?
c. How hard employees work for an organization and how long they intend to stay.
d. How much an employee likes the manager and co-workers.
a
QN=76 Being clear about the culture of your organization is an important part of
socializing a new hire, true or false?
a. True
b. False
b
QN=77 What is one stage of the new hire socialization process?
a. Going out with co-workers.
b. Understanding where you, as a new employee, fit in the organizational context.
c. Completing all new hire paperwork.
d. Doing well on the first performance review.
a
QN=78 There is a good return on investment for having higher employee engagement
in your organization, true or false?
a. True
b. False
e
QN=79 Which one of these is NOT a cost when replacing an employee?
a. Separation costs
b. Vacancy costs
c. Replacement costs
d. Training costs
e. Performance costs
e
QN=80 We know a good onboarding program should be about a year, more or less
depending on the position. But when should a manager make sure to check in with the
new hire? (Check the one that isn't correct.)
a. First Day
b. Day Five
c. Ninety Days
d. One Year
e. Two Years
c
QN=81 When beginning the process of creating your onboarding program, with whom
should you start the discussion?
a. Your manager
b. The new hire
c. Human Resources
d. Your team
b
QN=82 When should onboarding begin?
a. On the new hire's first day.
b. At the time of the offer for the position.
c. During the new hire's first week.
d. Timing isn't that important, just get it on the new hire's schedule soon.
b
QN=83 We want onboarding to be individualized. So it's best to make sure that the new
employee is signed up ahead of time for all the appropriate groups to which the new
hire belongs (like the women's leadership group, or the LGBT employee group, etc.).
True or false?
a. True
b. False
c
QN=84 It can be difficult to create an individualized onboarding process. But what is the
most important thing to think of as you create your onboarding program?
a. Make sure you get the new hire paperwork done.
b. Introduce the new hire to the organization's leader.
c. Be intentional about designing the human relationship.
d. Make the process super fun.
a
QN=85 What is the first step in getting ready for your new hire's first day?
a. Prepare yourself.
b. Talk with the new hire.
c. Get your team ready.
d. Set up a welcoming environment.
e. Talk with HR about paperwork.
a
QN=86 Is it important to pre-schedule time with your new hire during the first week of
employment?
a. Yes, put it on both your calendars.
b. If possible, but if emergencies come up try for some time in the first month.
c. No, just make sure you have a meeting with the new hire in the first month.
b
QN=87 It is important that the new hire not make mistakes as that will reflect poorly on
his or her first performance review, true or false?
a. True
b, False
c
QN=88 You want your team to be involved with the new hire onboarding process. But if
there are concerns your team has with the new hire, they should do the following:
a. Keep it to themselves, this is a new employee and things are bound to get better.
b. Talk with the other team members about the concern to see if the concern is shared.
c. Bring the concern to you so you can help resolve it.
d. Talk directly with the new hire and explain how things are done on the team.
b
QN=89 What is the best way to be sure that you are ready for the new hire's first day?
a. Ask others to help.
b. Create and use an onboarding checklist.
c. Talk with human resources.
d. Ask the new hire what they need.
b
QN=90 Job satisfaction and employee engagement are the same thing.
a. True
b. False
d
QN=91 A strong driver for both job satisfaction and employee engagement is:
a. Pay and benefits
b. The team of people you work with
c. Where the job is located
d. The employee relationship with the direct supervisor
a
QN=92 Individual development plans must be designed for each individual, even when
all your team members are working on the same projects and outcomes, true or false?
a. True
b. False
d
QN=93 A sample Individual Development Plan (IDP) was discussed in this lesson. What
was NOT one of the four parts of that sample IDP?
a. Goals
b. Strategies
c. Action Steps
d. Planning
e. Resources/Support
e
QN=94 Which of the following are reasons why you should talk with your new hire about
your organization's performance review system during the early days of onboarding?
a. Such a discussion will help the new hire know what is expected in the position.
b. Such a discussion will create a communication channel for you and the new hire.
c. Such a discussion helps both you and the new hire to think about what
documentation you will want to collect d. for the review.
Such a discussion creates a sense of longevity with the organization for the new hire as
they begin to think of the future early on in their career.
e. All of the above.
b
QN=1 The toolset for performance management includes all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Providing positive and corrective feedback
b. Definition of managing people
c. Setting clear expectations with the employee
d. Building development plans
a
QN=2 "Good performance management is the single largest contributor to
organizational effectiveness."
a. True
b. False.
a
QN=3Which of the following statistics is NOT accurate from the survey on performance
management effectiveness?
a. 85% of employees focus on the "right" things defined by organization goals.
b. 43% reported performance management process increased employee performance.
c. 51% said planning process needed work.
a
QN=4 True or False: While there are many sources of culture difference in performance
management, they are many key principles that are culture "neutral."
a. True
b. False
a
QN=5 Which of the following was NOT listed in the lecture as an example of culture
types?
a. Group
b. Collectivist
c. Individualistic
b
QN=6 Which of the following is TRUE about performance reviews?
a. Reviews are strategic.
b. Reviews focus on individual development and ratings.
c. Reviews are a dynamic process.
a
QN=7 Which of the purposes listed for effective performance management systems
would most likely be of use when terminations occur?
a. Legal
b. Strategic
c. Administrative
d. Rewards
a
QN=8 Which of the following was listed as a design element for performance
management systems?
a. Top Management buy in.
b. Frontline buy in.
c. Non comprehensive - used for non senior management positions
b
QN=9 Workforce planning and succession planning data is the only useful data form
performance management systems. True or False?
a. True
b. False
c
QN=10 Which of the following was not listed as an external group impacted by an
organizations performance management system?
a. Families.
b. Customers.
c. Suppliers.
d. Stockholders.
b
QN=11Which of the following is NOT part of strategic performance management?
a. Multi-rater assessment.
b. The performance review.
c. Annual feedback sessions.
d. Performance planning.
a
QN=12 Which of the following IS NOT a role of HR in the performance management
planning process?
a. Ongoing feedback.
b. Developing performance standards.
c. Conduct performance management training for managers.
d. Review job descriptions.
d
QN=13 As a manager you want to avoid the "perils" of ineffective performance
management. Which of the following is NOT a peril associated with specifically with
managers?
a. Less motivated employees.
b. Unfair / inconsistent performance ratings.
c. More turnover in the department.
d. Lower stock price.
a
QN=14 Performance management training may address performance improvement
plans and individual development plans. The difference between the two is that
improvement plans deal with a current performance deficiency, while the individual
development deals with growth. True or False?
a. True
b. False
b
QN=15 In the Case Study in the video regarding the strategy change in financial
institution, the role of HR in implementing the new strategy was discussed. Which of the
following actions was the role of the senior management team and NOT HR?
a. Revised recruiting to incorporate new strategy.
b. Conducted organizational SWOT analysis.
c. Revised training to incorporate new strategy.
d. Revised job descriptions to incorporate new skills and job requirements associated
with new strategy.
b
QN=16 Which of the following is NOT part of a performance management mindset?
a. Performance management should be viewed as bottom line issue.
b. Performance management should be viewed as an event.
c. Performance management is about development of employees.
d
QN=17 When performance is aligned with mission, strategy and goals, it can have a
positive effect on which of the following?
a. Customer satisfaction
b. Profitability
c. Employee satisfaction
d. All of the other answers are correct
a
QN=18 Which of the following are NOT "culture neutral", from a performance
management perspective?
a. Individualistic type of organization
b. Aligning team and organizational goals
c. Providing clear expectations
d
QN=19 Senior management wants to develop a more strategic approach to
performance management. Which of the follow shifts are needed to accomplish the
transition?
a. Have the managers drive the performance management program rather than just HR.
b. Hold managers accountable for ongoing feedback for their employees.
c. Use data to assess organizational strengths.
d. All of the other answers are correct.
c
QN=20 A strategic performance management system seeks to achieve which of the
following?
a. Allow employees to get larger increases.
b. Become more effective in document performance for legal and administrative
purposes.
c. Align mission, strategy and values with team and individual goals.
d. Become more efficient in the administrative functions of performance management.
a
QN=21 As a member of the senior management team, you want to make sure there is
consistency among the managers in various departments and no poorly written reviews
with language that could cause legal in performance ratings. Which or the following
design elements from the lecture would best accomplish those objectives?
a. HR or management oversight.
b. Transparency.
c. Comprehensive.
d. None of the answers are correct.
c
QN=22 Which of the following is a positive impact of performance management on the
employees as discussed in the lecture?
a. Decreased motivation due to no flexibility in their jobs.
b. All of the other.
c. Better understanding of the job duties and performance standards.
d. Larger increases in compensation.
c
QN=23 Which of the following is NOT an ongoing performance activities outlined in the
strategic performance management model?
a. Employee coaching.
b. Monitoring employee performance.
c. Discussing the Job descriptions.
d. Two way communication on performance activities.
a
QN=24 Which of the following training topics would help to best solve an issue of
favoritism in the review process?
a. Rater error training.
b. Training on documenting performance.
c. Handling difficult performance discussions.
d. Performance review training.
b
QN=25 Which of the following is NOT a performance management best practice?
a. Automate when possible for efficiency and better analytics.
b. Have employees give reviews to their peers.
c. Have a process to give employees a "voice" for input on performance management
process.
d. Ensure performance management processes are communicate to all employees.
c
QN=26 According to the lesson, when looking at performance, we often use results
_____________.
a. to infer behavior.
b. when behaviors are not easily observed.
c. to infer behavior and/or when behaviors are not easily observed.
b
QN=27 When defining performance we focus on:
a. Results.
b. Behaviors.
b
QN=28 A bank teller knowing all of the products a bank offers is an example of
________?
a. Employee Motivation.
b. Declarative Knowledge.
c. Procedural Knowledge.
c
QN=29 You have an employee you know has done a good job in the past and has
received good reviews. The job has not changed but lately their performance has not
been good as before. Using the concept from class of "diagnose before you prescribe,"
which of the following would you focus on?
a. Procedural Knowledge - I would have the employee review procedures.
b. Declarative Knowledge - I would send the employee to training.
c. Motivation - Coaching - I would have a discussion with the employee on why their
performance has fallen off.
c
QN=30 Which of the following was NOT listed as best HR practices in this lesson?
a. Work/Life Balance.
b. Inclusive Environment.
c. Corporate Branding.
d. Rewarding Employees.
b
QN=31 Managers who are measuring an employee's punctuality, how well the
employee works with others and the employee's communication skills are
demonstrating which performance approach?
a. Results
b. Behavior
c. Traits
c
QN=32 Information about the job, broad areas of responsibilities and day to day duties
best describes which of the following?
a. Objectives
b. Job Description
c. Accountabilities
d. Goals
d
QN=33 Which of the following is an example of an effective performance objective?
a. Increase Sales
b. Increase sales by 10%
c. Increase sales by 10% by end of quarter
d. Increase overall sales by 10% over last year by the end of this calendar year.
a
QN=34 One of the characteristics of performance objectives is that they should be
limited to 3 to 5 maximum. Why is this an important?
a. More objectives would make it difficult to convey a strong sense of priority for the
desired objectives.
b. None of the other
c. It is too hard to come up with more than three objectives..
d. Employees don't like a lot of objectives because they have to work harder.
a
QN=35 Which statement best describes the difference between a performance
standards and performance objectives?
a. Performance standards effect all employees in a single position while objectives are
unique to the individual.
b. There is no difference.
c. Performance standards are unique to the individual, objectives effect all employees in
a single position.
b
QN=36 In this type of comparative system, employees are rated according on a normal
curve with only percentage of performers at the top, middle and bottom.
a. Paired comparison.
b. Forced distribution.
c. Simple rank order.
a
QN=37 Gathering examples of performance in which employees performed very
effectively or not effectively is known as:
a. Critical Incidents method.
b. Simple Ranking.
c. Essay.
a
QN=38 If you were to select (in order) the best performer, then the worst, the second
best and then the second worst until you met in the middle you would be using which of
the following methods?
a. Alternating rank ordering.
b. Simple rank order.
c. Forced distribution.
d. MBO's.
c
QN=39 As manager I want to make sure my employees are focused on their goals and
aligned with corporate strategy. Which method would best meet my needs.
a. Essay.
b. Forced distribution.
c. MBO's.
d. None of the other.
b
QN=40 Which of the methods has become a somewhat controversial method?
a. Essay.
b. Forced Distribution.
c. MBO's.
d. Simple rating.
b
QN=41 Performance reviews can only be formal reviews and should never be informal.
True or false?
a. True
b. False
acd
QN=42 Which of the following should be a part of a general performance discussion?
a. Set clear expectations for the employee and the position.
b. Add new data to surprise the employee.
c. Discuss both past and future behavior.
d. Contain a recap of prior discussions.
b
QN=43 Organizations depend on performance review data for many reasons. Which of
the follow is an example of an organizational use of performance review data?
a. individual development and growth plans.
b. leadership development and succession planning.
c. individual training plans.
d. individual compensation increases.
d
QN=44 When doing a employee performance review, which of the following is important
to make sure it part of the review?
a. Inflate the rating or be vague so the employee will not be demotivated.
b. Focus mostly on past behavior so the employee realizes what a great job they have
done.
c. Delegate to the employee the task of determining how he/she will improve
performance.
d. Have a fair amount of focus on the future, as part of the discussion.
b
QN=45 Performance reviews should only be about rewarding employees. True or False
a. True
b. False
c
QN=46 When you need to have a difficult feedback discussion, which of the following
should be TRUE of that discussion?
a. Be sympathetic to the employee's issues.
b. Enhance self-esteem.
c. Include alternative behavioral options for the employee to improve upon.
d
QN=47 "Feedback is like a shot" was talked about in the video. Why?
a. We get shots once a year.
b. Feedback, like a shot, should be given by a professional.
c. We love getting feedback!
d. Feedback helps us to get better.
d
QN=48 As a manager you want to get feedback from other sources (Multi rater
feedback) with your sales employees who are located in store locations each with three
other employees. Which of the following sources would you want to make SURE to get
feedback from?
a. Customers.
b. Customers and employee.
c. Customers and peers.
d. Customers, peers and the employee.
d
QN=49 People who give multi rater feedback should do all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Provide feedback that includes behavioral examples.
b. Provide examples of positive behavior.
c. Provide performance that was observed.
d. Provide feedback on the employee's personality.
a
QN=50 One of the easiest and most cost effective ways to build employee confidence,
develop competence and improve performance is to give your employees feedback on
a regular and ongoing basis. True or False?
a. True
b. False
abd
QN=51 Which of the following were described as intentional errors when rating
employees?
a. Being a "tough grader."
b. Rating everyone the same.
c. Assigning additional "traits" to an employee.
d. Being an "easy grader."
abc
QN=52 Which of the following are unintentional errors?
a. Recency / Primacy.
b. Sampling error.
c. Varying standards.
d. Strictness error.
abd
QN=53 Which of the following are effective strategies to minimize legal issues in
performance management?
a. Have HR and/or senior managers provide oversight of final reviews.
b. Provide training that contains insight on rater errors and why they occur.
c. Inflate employee ratings to make employees look good.
d. Provide calibration training to managers who conduct reviews.
abc
QN=54 Which of the following are tips for minimizing rater errors?
a. Oversight by others in the organization (HR - Senior managers).
b. Managers Justify ratings.
c. Monitor across departments and manager for overall consistency.
d. Hire managers who have experience.
a
QN=55 Providing training to employees who have performance issues is an effective
way to minimize legal risk. True or false?
a. True
b. False
a
QN=56 Performance reviews have a number of purposes, which of the following would
NOT be considered a purpose of the performance review?
a. To build a case against an employee in order to terminate the employee.
b. Platform for feedback.
c. Identifies areas for development.
d. Motivational tool.
abc
QN=57 Employees generally want the same out of the review process as managers do.
Which of the following represents what employees want from the review process?
a. Job enrichment and career opportunities.
b. Feedback on a regular basis.
c. Involvement in goal setting.
d. Writing their own Job descriptions.
d
QN=58 What is the NOT an advantage of a common window approach?
a. Gives manager an opportunity to review all at their employees at the same time.
b. Is easier to allocate salary increases based on performance.
c. More likely manager will accurately assess / compare employee performance.
d. The common window approach can be time consuming if the manager has a large
number of employees.
a
QN=59 Which of the following components of feedback is considered ineffective (avoid
this)?
a. Feedback should be given in the form of a feedback "sandwich" (e.g. You did great,
but ...).
b. Identify consequences for not improving performance.
c. Feedback must be verifiable.
d. Give feedback privately.
bcd
QN=60 Which of the following are desired characteristics in the person selected to give
feedback in the multi-rater process?
a. Increases legal liability because non-managers are involved in the process.
b. Someone who has observed the employees behavior.
c. Someone who will be brutally honest with the employee.
d. Conveys a strong commitment to the performance management process.
bcd
QN=61 There are a number of pro's and con's for multi-rater feedback. Which of the
following are reasons why we might want to use multi-rater feedback?
a. It reduces manger's workload, because they will not be the only one involved in the
performance review process.
b. Employees will have a chance to receive feedback from other people besides their
managers.
c. Multi rater feedback decreases potential bias.
d. Multi rater feedback provides a platform for managers to discuss difficult issues.
abc
QN=62 Feedback is a key ingredient in helping employees grow. Without feedback it is
difficult to understand areas for development. Which of the following costs do we suffer
when we do NOT give employees feedback?"
a. Employees are not given direction on "development opportunities" (areas to improve).
b. Chronic poor performance.
c. Employees have an inaccurate perception of their performance.
d. Consistent lateness.
a
QN=63 Which of the following are considered intentional errors in the performance
evaluation process?
a. Leniency and strictness errors.
b. Similar to me / different from me errors.
c. Recency / primacy effect errors.
d. Sampling error.
b
QN= 64 Managers sometimes inflate and deflate ratings for various reasons. Which of
the following best describes the actual impact of rater inflation / deflation (i.e. a reason
why we should NOT inflate/deflate ratings)?
a. Inflating ratings will give a well deserved raise and will increase performance.
b. Inflating ratings does not give employees to get accurate feedback. Thus, the
employee is denied the opportunity to actually improve performance.
c. Deflating employee errors will teach employees a lesson and send a message that
you are a tough manager.
d. Inflating rating will create better performance because the employee will feel better.
d
QN=65 Three of the following are typically components of "rater error training." Which of
the following components is NOT a typical part of "rater error training" programs as
discussed in our video lessons?
a. Understand different types of rater errors/distortions and why managers commit these
errors.
b. Big picture overview of the performance management system.
c. Calibration and frame of reference training.
d. Understanding of the compensation system.
a
QN=66 Which of the following was stated in video concerning culture and strategy?
a. Culture eats strategy for breakfast.
b. Strategy eats culture for breakfast.
b
QN=67 "How we do things around here" is a definition of which of the following?
a. Strategy.
b. Culture.
c. HR Processes.
b
QN=68 Which of the following would describe attributes of culture in an organization?
a. Goals.
b. Corporate citizenship, norms and morés.
c. Mission.
d
QN=69 What is not one of the 3 R's of Civility?
a. Restraint.
b. Respect.
c. Responsibility.
d. Reality.
a
QN=70 Which of the following was not listed under the "R" of Restraint?
a. Active listening.
b. Acting on values.
c. Emotional regulation.
a
QN=71 According to the statistic in the lecture, 50% of US employees have stated they
were bullied or witnessed such behaviors. True or False?
a. True
b. False
a
QN=72 Which of the following was listed an impact on teams in a culture of incivility?
a. Interpersonal Conflicts.
b. Increased anxiety.
c. Decreased individual performance.
d. Decreased job satisfaction.
a
QN=73 One of the consequences of an uncivil culture is people are afraid to speak up
for fear of consequences. True or False?
a. True
b. False
c
QN=74 Which of the following is not a hard cost of incivility to organizations?
a. Increased absenteeism.
b. Increased turnover.
c. Decreased workers compensation claims.
a
QN=75 A civil, positive culture can produce positive results that could be seen as a
"dividend" to the organization. True of False?
a. True
b. False
b
QN=76 Servant Leadership focuses on which of the following?
a. Scarcity.
b. Values.
c. Coercion.
a
QN=77 In the cultural "audit," a gap analysis looks at the difference between your
cultural vision and your desired vision. True or False?
a. True
b. False
ac
QN=78 In the "quilt of civility" one of the items was workplace design. Which of the
following were mentioned as part of workplace design?
a. What is on the walls in the organization.
b. Geographic Locations.
c. Cubes vs offices.
a
QN=79 To create civility in a culture you must do which of the following?
a. Enforce it.
b. Let it occur naturally.
a
QN=80 "Walk the talk" means:
a. Our deeds follow our words.
b. Management by Walking Around (MWA).
a
QN=81 The reasoning behind the quote "culture eats strategy for breakfast" is best
described as:
a. Culture will undermine the strategy if employees are not on board.
b. Culture is far more important than any strategy.
c. Senior managers do not value strategy.
c
QN=82 In one of our video lectures, we used a parking sign as potential symbol of
culture. It read Reserved "Executive Parking Only" . What does this say about the
culture of that organization?
a. Employee focused.
b. Customer focused.
c. Hierarchy focused.
abd
QN=83 One of our lectures discussed the "3 R's" as a model for civility. This was a way
to strengthen the organization's cultural immunity system. Which of the below is/are
sign(s) of respect? (choose all that apply)
a. Active listening.
b. Inclusion of others.
c. Pro-activity.
d. Direct communication with positive tone and non verbals.
b
QN=84 "Do unto others as they would have done unto themselves" was identified as:
a. The Customer Rule.
b. The Platinum Rule.
c. The Golden Rule.
d
QN=85 The hard costs of incivility are more easily quantifiable or identified. Which of the
following is a hard cost of incivility?
a. Difficulty hiring and attracting applicants.
b. Quit and stay employees.
c. Reputation in the market place.
d. Costs of recruiting and retaining.
bcd
QN=86 Which of the following would be considered "organizational civility dividends"
resulting from a positive workforce culture?"
a. Increased employee turnover.
b. Employer of choice.
c. Increased share price.
d. Customers as promoters.
b
QN=87 Which of the following organizational strategies is most effective in building a
positive culture?
a. Innovation
b. Strengths based / Appreciative inquiry approach
c. Product excellence
d
QN=88 Leaders in organizations that embrace civility are held accountable for all of the
following EXCEPT:
a. Modeling behaviors.
b. Reinforcing desired behaviors.
c. Coaching employees on positive behaviors.
d. Ensuring attendance policies are enforced.
b
QN=89 Building civility into the fabric of your HR practices is the key to linking
performance and culture. Which of the following was NOT part of the fabric?
a. Treat the employee with respect during the termination process.
b. Have your marketing plan include culture.
c. Have recruiters include culture in the recruiting materials.
d. During exit interviews ask the question of why the started to look elsewhere.
a
QN=90 Allowing for mistakes is a sound strategy for a positive culture.
a. True
b. False
D
QN=1 Which of the following is NOT an element of the pay mix?
a. Base cash
b. Short term incentives
c. Long-term incentives
d. Key performance indicators
e. Benefits
D
QN=2 Which of the following statements about the Strategic Messaging Model is NOT
correct?
a. Messaging includes how we communicate the pay mix to employees.
b. Mix includes relative allocation of compensation across the pay mix.
c. Money includes the value of the total compensation package.
d. In general, we choose our money, mix, and messaging before we choose whom we
want to attract, retain, and motivate.
A
QN=3 A job description for a truck driver may list "basic truck maintenance skills" under:
a. KSAs
b. Job duties
c. Job context
d. Job summary
e. Job title
C
QN=4 Suppose your organization wants to match pay on the external labor market.
Using surveys, you find that the median pay in the external market for that job is
$35,000 per year. Which of the following is true?
a. The bottom of the pay range for that job should be $35,000 per year.
b. The top of the pay range for that job should be $35,000 per year.
c. The typical employee for that job should earn about $35,000 per year.
d. The cap in pay for employees in that job should end at $35,000 per year.
e. Entry-level employees for that job should begin at $35,000 per year.
D
QN=5 Which of the following statements about compensation surveys is FALSE?
a. For compliance, compensation departments should use third-parties to administer
surveys.
b. For compliance, compensation departments should make sure pay survey data are
more than three months old.
c. For best accuracy, compensation departments should make sure that internal jobs
and benchmarked jobs are in the same industry and geography.
d. For best accuracy, compensation departments should make sure that internal jobs
and benchmarked jobs have the same job titles.
D
QN=6 Suppose that some new technology (like Coursera!) instantly made it cheap and
easy for anyone to become a lawyer. What effect will this have on labor supply and
labor demand?
a. Labor demand will increase
b. Neither curve will change
c. Labor demand will decrease
d. Labor supply will increase
e. The labor supply and labor demand curves will both change
f. Labor supply will decrease
D
QN=7 Consider the following statements about employees who are promoted. Which is
NOT true?
a. Employees who are promoted will change job grades.
b. Employees who are promoted can go from relatively high on their grade's pay range
to being relatively low of the new grade's pay range.
c. Employees who are promoted will generally see an increase in base pay.
d. An employee who is promoted will get a new pay range, with the maximum of the pay
range corresponding to base plus the total possible incentive pay.
D
QN=8 Which of the following statements about pay structures and internal benchmarks
is NOT correct?
a. Pay tends to increase in job grades because higher grades tend to have workers with
greater skills and experience.
b. Pay tends to increase in job grades because higher grades tend to have workers
whose productivity is associated with greater revenue.
c. The control rates tell you the pay at benchmarked jobs.
d. The pay policy line must perfectly intersect all of the control rates.
B
QN=9 Using a typical merit-based raise criteria, which of the following employees would
likely get the largest annual raise?
a. An employee high on the pay range, with high evaluations.
b. An employee low on the pay range, with high evaluations.
c. An employee who has not been recently promoted, but has been receiving high
evaluations for a long time.
d. An employee in the middle of the pay range with average evaluations.
A
QN=10 Which of the following statements about pay bands is NOT true?
a. They typically span multiple non-contiguous grades within the same ladder (e.g.
associates are levels 1-3 and 7-9).
b. They typically combine multiple contiguous grades.
c. They typically combine jobs that are roughly similar in job level, prestige, and pay.
C
QN=11 Employees who receive high performance evaluations for their prior year's
accomplishments are awarded a fixed cash award. This is an example of tying
evaluations to what element of the pay mix?
a. Non-Monetary
b. Long Term Incentives
c. Short Term Incentives
d. Perks
e. Base pay
A
QN=12 Which of the following scenarios illustrates the halo bias?
a. The evaluator knows that the employee has EXCELLENT reliability. This
b. The evaluator knows that the employee has POOR technical skills. This
c. The evaluator knows that the employee has POOR technical skills. This contaminates
her ratings for the employee's reliability, customer service skills, and willingness to help
others. The latter ratings are now biased DOWNWARD.
d. The evaluator knows that the employee has EXCELLENT reliability. This
B
QN=13 What performance metric might be found on Behaviorally-Anchored Rating
Scale?
a. The employee's customer satisfaction scores are at least 4.5 out of 5.0.
b. The employee displays courtesy and patience when speaking to frustrated
customers.
c. The employee generates $10 million in new business.
C
QN=14 Which of the following are NOT an example of a Key Performance Indicators?
a. Average customer service score
b. Total dollar value of sales generated
c. Year-end bonus
d. Units produced
BC
QN=15 Which of the following statements about tournament incentives is accurate?
(check all that apply)
a. Tournament incentives work well when employees work together in teams
b. Tournament incentives promote competition between employees
c. Tournament incentives help maintain the effectiveness of incentives when outside
d. Tournament incentives encourage employees to share best practices
B
QN=16 When India was a British Colony, the British tried to reduce the population of
cobras by providing incentives for people to hunt them. They did so by providing a
bounty for dead cobras. However, this led people to begin breeding snakes, so that they
may be slaughtered and delivered for bounty. Ultimately, this incentive suffered from the
a. Control problem
b. Alignment problem
c. Measurement problem
d. Metering problem
B
QN=17 A salesperson is paid 1% of revenue generated up to $1,000,000, 2% of
revenue generated up to $2,000,000, and 3% of revenue generated thereafter. This is
an example of what kind of an incentive?
a. Flat
b. Accelerated
c. Linear (positive slope)
d. Linear (negative slope)
B
QN=18 Which of the following statements is true?
a. Phantom shares work like stock grants, except the criteria for granting them is known
only to the firm.
b. Performance shares are only issued after a stock reaches a certain price.
c. Stock options are only issued after a stock reaches a certain price.
B
QN=19 When an employee joins her organization, she gets an option to purchase 1000
shares with a strike price of $2 per share, and these shares vest over four years. One
year later, the stock price is $3 per share. Two years later, the stock price is $4 per
share. The employee then quits and exercises any vested options. Which of the
following statements is true?
a. The employee exercises the option, purchasing 250 shares at $3 per share, and 250
shares at $4 per share.
b. The employee exercises the option to purchase 500 shares, paying $2 per share.
c. The employee exercises the option to purchase 1000 shares, paying $4 per share.
d. The employee exercises the option to purchase 500 shares, paying $4 per share.
e. The employee exercises the option to purchase 1000 shares, paying $2 per share.
f. The employee cannot exercise any options.
A
QN=20 Which of these employees is most likely to receive a stock option that is
qualified under the IRS Code Section 409A, meaning that any incentives would qualify
as an incentive stock option (ISO)?
a. A Chief Financial Officer whose compensation package includes a stock option grant.
b. A programmer whose compensation package includes a stock option grant.
c. A barista who participates in his employer's employee stock option purchase
program.
A
QN=21 Which of the following statutes provides job-protected unpaid leave for new
parents?
a. FMLA
b. FLSA
c. EEO
d. NLRA
a
QN=22 Which of the following would be TRUE of someone recognized by the FLSA as
a trainee?
a. The trainee would not provide immediate benefit to their employer.
b. The trainee's job duties would be exempt under the FLSA.
c. The trainee's employer would be not covered under the FLSA.
d. The trainee must not be paid more than $455 per week.
e. All of the other.
f. None of the other.
C
QN=23 There are a several reasons firms use employer-sponsored pension plans. One
reason is that it allows employees to defer compensation until retirement, when they're
taxed at a relatively low rate. Second, by participating in an employer's plan, the
employer may be able to negotiate lower management fees with service providers.
These two specific reasons illustrate what two general reasons that firms provide
employer-sponsored pension plans, rather than cash? Mark the best answer
a. They attract the right kind of worker
b. They're cheaper for firms to provide than for workers
c. They're cheaper for firms to provide than for workers and they enjoy returns to scale
d. They provide benefits to firms
e. They're motivational symbolic benefits
A
QN=24 Suppose that, for some condition, an insuree has a $1,000 deductible and 50%
coinsurance until a $10,000 cap. The health care provider's fees amount to $600. What
is the insuree's liability?
a. $600
b. $0
c. $1,000
d. $300
C
QN=25 Which of the following statements about the ACA health insurance exchange
marketplaces are correct?
a. All states have their own state-specific health insurance exchanges.
b. All states participate in the health insurance exchange created by the federal
government.
c. Some states create health insurance exchanges, and other states defer to an
exchange set up by the federal government.
A
QN=26 True or False: Defined contribution plans are generally tax advantaged because
they allow you to defer taxable income until you're in a lower tax bracket.
a. True
b. False
B
QN=27 Li Li's pension fund mandates that she will receive $1800 per month for the rest
of her life. This is an example of what kind of fund?
a. Defined Contribution (e.g. 401k)
b. Defined Benefit
c. Simplified Employee Pension
A
QN=28 Pierre's pension plan allows him to choose the amount of his contribution and
how his contributions are invested. The better his chosen investments perform, the
more money he'll have in his plan's account when he retires. This is an example of what
kind of a pension plan?
a. Defined Contribution (e.g. 401k)
b. Social Security
c. Defined Benefit
A
QN=29 Which of the following is generally regarded as a best practice?
a. Shifting the allocation of a pension fund away from stocks and toward investment
grade bonds as workers approach retirement age.
b. Actively picking individual stocks with a pension fund.
c. Choosing funds with high management fees.
A
QN=30 Which of the following is a TRUE statements about ERISA?
a. ERISA provides minimum standards of fiduciary responsibility for employers that
provide pension plans.
b. ERISA requires that employers that offer pension plans contribute at least 3% of an
employee's salary.
c. ERISA requires that employers provide access to a qualified pension plan.
D
QN=31 Non-monetary rewards are:
a. Always less important than cash compensation
b. Always more important than cash compensation
c. Only important when you are newly hired
d. Important to both employees and employers
AB
QN=32 (Check all) From an employee's perspective, non-monetary rewards are:
a. Valuable to each employee based upon their preferences
b. Important, and might include a good company reputation
c. A nuisance, and take up valuable time at work
d. Hard to understand
D
QN=33 When it comes to Non-Monetary Rewards, employers think:
a. This is a big waste of time
b. It will cost way too much money
c. We can offer non-monetary rewards so that we can reduce employee compensation
d. This might be a good way to show our company culture and values
AD
QN=34 (Check all) For recognition to be effective it should:
a. Recognize something important
b. Include a cash award
c. Be given by the CEO
d. Be done in a way that is meaningful in the culture
B
QN=35 Learning at work is:
a. Great, but my manager should see me doing it
b. Great, as it is a way to learn more about my job and other jobs
c. Fine, as long as it doesn't lead to extra work
d. Fine, as long as it does not take too long
ABC
QN=36 (Check all) Employees who want work flexibility:
a. Might prefer to work on a part-time schedule
b. Are sometimes people dealing with family emergencies
c. Could be anyone. Almost all of us need work flexibility at some point
d. Are lazy and do not want to work very hard
AC
QN=37 (Check all) In implementation, non-monetary rewards program designs:
a. Can be informal, and set up between a manager and the employee
b. Should be very formalized, and include many details, options and approvals
c. Can be formal, and set up by the company, likely including written guidelines or
practices
d. Must be kept confidential, and implemented occasionally
A
QN=38 Can things go wrong with non-monetary reward programs?
a. Yes, despite best intentions.
b. Maybe, but you have to be very unlucky
c. Not really. Problems mostly occur in cash compensation programs
D
QN=39 The benefits of being an Employer of Choice DOES NOT include:
a. Likely to have a great reputation
b. Probably make it easier to recruit new employees
c. Employees like working for your company
d. Guarantees business success
D
QN=40 Non-monetary rewards are:
a. Very common, but often customized
b. Valued by employees
c. Valuable to employers
d. All of the other
A
QN=41 A heartfelt thank-you is an effective form of recognition
a. True
b. False
C
QN=42 Examples of workplace flexibility DOES NOT include:
a. Part-time work schedule
b. Taking a short leave-of-absence to handle a family emergency
c. Not showing up to work whenever I feel like staying home
B
QN=43 Training programs:
a. Rarely work when it involves oversight from someone else
b. Can be on-the-job, or in a classroom
c. Are expensive and generally do not work
B
QN=44 Training is only worthwhile if it leads to a promotion
a. True
b. False
D
QN=45 A job description for administrative assistants may include "answering the
telephone and transferring calls" under:
a. Job context
b. Job title
c. KSAs
d. Job duties
B
QN=46 The process of producing a job description is called:
a. Job descriptioning
b. Job analysis
c. Job evaluation
d. Job describing
A
QN=47 Which of the following statements about benchmarking is FALSE?
a. When some external jobs match best on job titles, and other external jobs match best
on job descriptions, then it's better to benchmark on job titles rather than job
descriptions.
b. Ideally, benchmarks should match educational requirements of the organization's job
with the educational requirements of the external benchmark's job.
c. The US Bureau of Labor Statistics produces estimates of pay in different occupations.
d. Some external benchmarks are better than others, and when calculating the
benchmark average, you may put extra weight on better benchmarks.
A
QN=48 Suppose your organization wants to match pay on the external labor market.
Which one of these statements is TRUE?
a. The typical job entrant without experience will begin below the market median pay for
that job.
b. The typical job entrant without experience will begin at the market median pay for that
job.
c. The typical job entrant without experience will begin above the market median pay for
that job.
C
QN=49 Which of the following is NOT a best practice for compensation surveys, for the
purposes of complying with anti-trust law?
a. Making sure the data are sufficiently old.
b. Making sure that no one big survey respondent is the main driver of the benchmark
data.
c. Administering the survey yourself.
F
QN=50 Suppose that a new technology makes coal mining much safer. What affect will
this have on labor supply and labor demand?
a. Labor supply will decrease
b. Labor demand will decrease
c. Labor demand will increase
d. The labor supply and labor demand curves will both change
e. Neither curve will change
f. Labor supply will increase
D
QN=51 Suppose that several large companies simultaneously announce that they're
going to invest heavily in public infrastructure, raising the price of steel and iron ore.
What will happen to the quantity and price (wages) for iron miners?
a. The labor supply and labor demand curves will both change
b. Labor demand will shift left: iron miners' wages will decline and the quantity of miners
will also decline.
c. Labor supply will shift left: iron miners' wages will increase and the quantity of miners
will decrease.
d. Labor demand will shift right: iron miners' wages will rise and the quantity of miner will
increase.
e. Neither curve will change
f. The labor supply curve will shift right: iron miners' wages will decrease and the
quantity of miners will increase.
D
QN=52 Which of the following is TRUE about pay ranges?
a. The pay range will give the difference in pay between two adjacent grades.
b. The pay range will give the difference in pay between the least paid person in a grade
and the second-least paid person in the pay grade.
c. The pay range will give the difference in pay between the lowest grade and the
highest grade.
d. The pay range will give the difference in pay between the least-paid person in a
grade and the most-paid person in that grade.
D
QN=53 When we draw our salary structure, a movement from left to right corresponds
to:
a. A raise, as you're getting an increase in pay within the same grade.
b. A demotion, as you're getting demoted from a high grade to a lower grade.
c. A pay reduction, as you're getting a reduction in pay within the same grade.
d. A promotion, as you're getting promoted from a low grade to a higher grade.
A
QN=54 Which of the statements about pay policy lines are TRUE?
a. They go through the midpoints of the pay ranges.
b. They go through the tops of the pay ranges.
c. They go through the bottoms of the pay ranges.
d. They are only used to benchmark pay for the middle grades, and are not used to
determine pay at high or low grades.
D
QN=55 The pay rates for the jobs that you benchmark are called:
a. The pay structure's pay policy rates.
b. The pay structure's grades.
c. The pay structure's ranges.
d. The pay structure's control rates.
A
QN=56 Which of the following statements about merit-based raise criteria are TRUE?
a. Merit-based raise criteria would typically give the largest raises to people low in the
b. Merit-based raise criteria cannot avoid paying people above the maximum of the pay
range.
c. Merit-based raise criteria would typically give the largest raises to people high in the
A
QN=57 Which of the following pay structures pays employees a premium for additional
occupational licenses and education?
a. Skills-based structures
b. Competency-based structures
c. Job-based structures
D
QN=58 Which of the following is a purpose of broadbanding?
a. Flexibility in lateral job assignments.
b. Flexibility in pay.
c. Flexibility in allowing multiple career ladders.
d. All of the other.
e. None of the other.
D
QN=59 Employees who perform well are given raises. This is an example of a
performance evaluation being tied to which element of the pay mix?
a. Benefits and Perks
b. LTIs
c. STIs
d. Base pay
e. Non-Monetary
D
QN=60 A good performance evaluation can lead to a boost in any of the following
EXCEPT?
a. STIs
b. Base pay
c. Benefits and Perks
d. MBOs
e. LTIs
A
QN=61 Suppose a company decides to separate performance evaluations from raises.
Which of the following is a common reason that a company would do so?
a. The company is concerned that tying pay to evaluations can impede the ability of
evaluations to serve as a coaching tool.
b. Tying pay to performance evaluations encourages poor performers to stay.
c. The company is concerned that tying pay to performance evaluation makes it difficult
for managers and employees to communicate openly about development goals.
A
QN=62 Managers conducting performance evaluations tend to overweight instances
that occurred in the last week more than those that happened six months ago. This is
an example of what kind of bias?
a. Recency
b. Halo
c. Anchoring
d. Horn
e. Primacy
f. Spillover
A
QN=63 In advance of a measurement period, a performance evaluation sets specific
performance targets for employees, and ties pay to the achievement of those targets.
This evaluation is an example of
a. Management by Objectives (MBO)
b. A Realistic evaluation
c. Critical Incidents evaluation
d. Behaviorally-Anchored Rating Scale (BARS)
A
QN=64 Which of the following is NOT an example of a Key Performance Indicator?
a. Year-end bonus
b. Total dollar value of sales generated
c. Units produced
d. Average customer service score
B
QN=65 Which of the following statements about tournament incentives is accurate?
a. Tournament incentives encourage employees to share best practices
b. Tournament incentives helps maintain the effectiveness of incentives when outside
c. Tournament incentives work well when employees work together in teams
D
QN=66 A factory line worker is paid a piecerate, or a rate per unit he or she produces.
When the materials and components that the line worker receives are faulty, the line
worker's performance suffers. This is an example of the
a. Measurement problem
b. Metering problem
c. Alignment problem
d. Control problem
D
QN=67 A call center wants to identify how many calls a customer service representative
should take in a given hour. To do so, they use historical data, finding that a customer
service representatives can be expected to service an average of six calls per hour. By
benchmarking productivity, they are trying to solve
a. The measurement problem
b. The alignment problem
c. The control problem
d. The metering problem
A
QN=68 What is the relationship between pay and performance when a job only pays a
base rate, without STIs?
a. Flat
b. Accelerated
c. Linear (negative slope)
d. Linear (positive slope)
D
QN=69 Which of the following statement is TRUE?
a. A share is only valuable if its price goes up.
b. A dividend of "$1 per share" means you need to pay $1 to purchase a share of the
stock.
c. Both of the other.
d. None of the other.
B
QN=70 Which of the following definitions is correct?
a. The strike price is the market price of the stock on the date that the employee
exercises the option to purchase the stock.
b. The vesting period represents the period of time over which the options become
allowed to be exercised.
B
QN=71 Which of the following statements about non-qualified stock options (NQSOs) is
accurate?
a. Employers cannot deduct NQSOs as a business expense, employees do not pay
taxes when they exercise NQSOs.
b. Employers can deduct NQSOs as a business expense, employees do pay taxes
c. Employers cannot deduct NQSOs as a business expense, employees do pay taxes
d. Employers can deduct NQSOs as a business expense, employees do not pay taxes
C
QN=72 Which of the following is sometimes referred to as Golden Handcuffs?
a. bonuses
b. commissions
c. stock options
d. pensions
B
QN=73 The differences between the stock price and the stock option's strike price is:
a. The time value
b. The intrinsic value
c. The vesting period
B
QN=74 Which of the following requires employers to bargain in good faith over wages
with workers' elected bargaining representative?
a. FMLA
b. NLRA
c. FLSA
d. EEO
B
QN=75 Which person may be paid a salary?
a. Someone making $400 per week, whose job duties exempt them from the FLSA.
b. Someone making $800 per week, whose job duties exempt them from the FLSA.
c. Someone making $400 per week, whose job duties DO NOT exempt them from the
FLSA.
d. Someone making $800 per week, whose job duties DO NOT exempt them from the
FLSA.
e. None of the other.
C
QN=76 Suppose that you're analyzing jobs for Crescendo Coffee, a major coffee retail
a. The Chief Human Resource Officer.
b. A network engineer who maintains the computer systems.
c. A shift supervisor who primarily serves as a barista, and sometimes supervises one
other employee.
d. A district manager for the New England area.
E
QN=77 Which of the following statements is TRUE of an administrative assistant?
a. They would need to be paid overtime, but not a minimum wage. Their job duties are
b. They would need to be paid the minimum wage, but not overtime. Their job duties are
c. They may be paid a salary.
d. Their job is exempt from the FLSA.
e. They must be paid minimum wage and overtime. Their job duties are not exempt
from the FLSA.
D
QN=78 Which statement about worker's compensation is TRUE?
a. It supplements compensation for employees who work on weekends and holidays.
b. It requires employers to reimburse employees' work-related expenses.
c. It's administered at the federal level.
d. It supplements income for workers injured on the job.
A
QN=79 A company that stages haunted houses is looking to hire cast members who are
a. The party would also bring revenue to the company
b. The party would attract the "right" kind of worker
c. It's cheaper for the company than the cast members to throw a party
C
QN=80 Consider a company that has a relatively high degree of job security and a pay
mix that benchmarks compensation at the 75th percentile for base pay and benefits.
a. The company values individual performance.
b. The company values employees who are risk-loving.
c. The company values a loyal, stable, risk-averse workforce.
d. The company values initiative and autonomy.
A
QN=81 True or False: defined contribution plans are generally tax advantaged because
savings can accumulate without capital gains tax.
a. True
b. False
B
QN=82 True or false: defined contribution plans are generally tax advantaged because
upon retirement, withdrawals are treated as capital gains rather than ordinary income.
a. True
b. False
B
QN=83 Non-monetary rewards are valuable to:
a. only employers
b. to both employees and employers
c. only employees
d. nobody, because non-monetary rewards do not involve cash compensation
A
QN=84 Examples of gaining individual growth through non-monetary rewards DOES
NOT include:
a. Making a good guess at how to perform better
b. Having a mentor at work or elsewhere
c. Getting feedback from your manager or coworkers
B
QN=85 Employees must receive less cash compensation to also receive a non-
monetary reward.
a. True. Non-monetary rewards cost the company money, and are generally offset by
lower cash compensation
b. False. In most cases non-monetary rewards are offered in addition to a fair level of
cash compensation
A
QN=86 The reason an employer might decide to offer a non-monetary reward DOES
NOT include:
a. Everybody else was doing it. The company didn't want to get left behind
b. It might show a special value and/or uniqueness of the company
c. It might aid in employee retention
D
QN=87 The most important non-monetary reward for employees is:
a. Flexibility
b. Bringing a pet dog to work
c. Being able to work part-time
d. Each employee has their own unique needs and preferences, so the importance of
non-monetary rewards will vary by individual
B
QN=88 Formal program designs are always best for non-monetary rewards.
a. TRUE. Formal program designs are always best
b. FALSE. Informal and formal program designs can both work well.
C
QN=89 Benefits of an informal approach to non-monetary rewards DOES NOT include:
a. The manager can often approve the non-monetary reward
b. Implementation can be quick
c. There are generally no issues of inequity across managers
D
QN=90 Non-monetary rewards should always be avoided when:
a. Everyone can't benefit
b. Employees work in multiple locations
c. Most employees work part-time
d. There isn't a clear reason to totally avoid non-monetary rewards. Non-monetary
rewards help in so many ways
A
QN=91 Non-monetary rewards are best when:
a. The company tailors them to their own unique needs and values
b. They only include the most common non-monetary rewards found at other companies
c. Everyone can participate all the time
A
QN=92 Non-monetary rewards:
a. Are worth it. Go for it!
b. Can cause too many problems and should be avoided
c. Generally lead to employee dissatisfaction
C
Q1: Which of the following definitions is not correct?
A. A premium is a regular fee paid by the employer or insuree to purchase coverage
B. A co-insurance is a percent of the cost of health care that the insuree must pay after
the deductible is met.
C. A HDHP is a High-Density Healthcare Provider
D. An HMO is a group of healthcare providers that provide coverage on a prepaid basis
C
Q2: Which of the following statements about the Affordable Care Act are TRUE?
A. A firm with 20 FTE employees would receive a tax penalty if it does not offer health
insurance.
B. A firm with 200 FTE employees would receive a tax credit if it offers health insurance.
C. A firm with 20 FTE employees would receive a tax credit if it offers health insurance.
A
Q5: Which of the following investment vehicles is least likely to lose 5% of its value?
A. A US treasury bond
B. A stock market index fund
C. A high-yield bond fund
B
Q6: In US federal law, which of the following is NOT a federal statutory benefit?
A. Twelve weeks unpaid leave for childbirth or adoption
B. Six weeks paid leave for childbirth or adoption
C. OASDI
C
Q7: Which statement about worker's compensation is TRUE?
A. It supplements compensation for employees who work on weekends and holidays.
B. It requires employers to reimburse employees' work-related expenses.
C. It supplements income for workers injured on the job.
D. It's administered at the federal level.
B
Q8: Which of the following are NOT beneficiaries of supplementary income under
OASDI?
A. The disabled
B. Veterans
C. Retirees over the age of 65
D. The immediate family of deceased workers (e.g. widows and widowers)
C
Q9: Consider a company that has a relatively high degree of job security and a pay mix
that benchmarks compensation at the 75th percentile for base pay and benefits.
A. The company values employees who are risk-loving.
B. The company values initiative and autonomy.
C. The company values a loyal, stable, risk-averse workforce.
D. The company values individual performance.
C
Q10: A company that stages haunted houses is looking to hire cast members who are
A. It's cheaper for the company than the cast members to throw a party
B. The party would attract the "right" kind of worker
C. The party would also bring revenue to the company
C
Q11: Use the website http://www.dol.gov/whd/minwage/america.htm to look up
minimum wages in the United States on January 1st, 2016. Which of the following
would be true of employers and workers covered by the Fair Labor Standards Act?
A. Employers in Alabama may pay workers $5 per hour.
B. Employers in Alabama must pay workers more than the federal rate of $7.25 per
hour.
C. Employers in Alabama must pay workers at least the federal rate of $7.25 per hour.
B
Q12: Which of the following requires employers to bargain in good faith over wages with
workers' elected bargaining representative?
A. EEO
B. NLRA
C. FLSA
D. FMLA
B
Q13: Which person may be paid a salary?
A. Someone making $400 per week, whose job duties exempt them from the FLSA.
B. Someone making $800 per week, whose job duties exempt them from the FLSA.
C. Someone making $400 per week, whose job duties DO NOT exempt them from the
FLSA.
D. Someone making $800 per week, whose job duties DO NOT exempt them from the
FLSA.
B
Q14: Suppose that you're analyzing jobs for Crescendo Coffee, a major coffee retail
A. A network engineer who maintains the computer systems.
B. A shift supervisor who primarily serves as a barista, and sometimes supervises one
other employee.
C. A district manager for the New England area.
D. The Chief Human Resource Officer.
E
Q15: Which of the following statements is TRUE of an administrative assistant?
A. They would need to be paid the minimum wage, but not overtime. Their job duties
are not exempt from the FLSA.
B. They may be paid a salary.
C. Their job is exempt from the FLSA.
D. They would need to be paid overtime, but not a minimum wage. Their job duties are
E. They must be paid minimum wage and overtime. Their job duties are not exempt
from the FLSA.
ABC
Q16: Recognition programs include:
A. Sales awards, to acknowledge selling success
B. Performance awards, to acknowledge a job well done
C. Service awards, to acknowledge continued employment
D
Q17: Non-monetary rewards are:
A. Always less important than cash compensation
B. Always more important than cash compensation
C. Only important when you are newly hired
D. Important to both employees and employers
AD
Q18: From an employee's perspective, non-monetary rewards are:
A. Valuable to each employee based upon their preferences
B. Hard to understand
C. A nuisance, and take up valuable time at work
D. Important, and might include a good company reputation
D
Q19: When it comes to Non-Monetary Rewards, employers think:
A. It will cost way too much money
B. We can offer non-monetary rewards so that we can reduce employee compensation
C. This is a big waste of time
D. This might be a good way to show our company culture and values
BD
Q20: For recognition to be effective it should:
A. Be given by the CEO
B. Be done in a way that is meaningful in the culture
C. Include a cash award
D. Recognize something important
A
Q21: Learning at work is:
A. Great, as it is a way to learn more about my job and other jobs
B. Great, but my manager should see me doing it
C. Fine, as long as it doesn't lead to extra work
D. Fine, as long as it does not take too long
ABD
Q22: Employees who want work flexibility:
A. Might prefer to work on a part-time schedule
B. Are sometimes people dealing with family emergencies
C. Are lazy and do not want to work very hard
D. Could be anyone. Almost all of us need work flexibility at some point
CD
Q23: In implementation, non-monetary rewards program designs:
A. Must be kept confidential, and implemented occasionally
B. Should be very formalized, and include many details, options and approvals
C. Can be informal, and set up between a manager and the employee
D. Can be formal, and set up by the company, likely including written guidelines or
practices
A
Q24: Can things go wrong with non-monetary reward programs?
A. Yes, despite best intentions.
B. Maybe, but you have to be very unlucky
C. Not really. Problems mostly occur in cash compensation programs
BCD
Q25: The benefits of being an Employer of Choice include:
A. Guarantees business success
B. Likely to have a great reputation
C. Probably make it easier to recruit new employees
D. Employees like working for your company
D
Q26: Non-monetary rewards are:
A. Very common, but often customized
B. Valued by employees
C. Valuable to employers
D. All of the above

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Which of the following are elements of Taylorism, also known as scientific

13. An HR strategy that emphasizes employee engagement and discretion can be

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