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Tài liệu ôn thi học kì II lớp 11 môn Tiếng Anh

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Tài liệu ôn thi học kì II lớp 11 môn Tiếng Anh
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PRO 3M/PRO3MPLUS – BỘ KHÓA HỌC GIÚP 2K3 TỰ TIN DÀNH 9+ MÔN TIẾNG ANH
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PRO 3M/PRO3MPLUS – BỘ KHÓA HỌC GIÚP 2K3 TỰ TIN DÀNH 9+ MÔN TIẾNG ANH
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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI KHẢO SÁT LỚP 11 HỌC KÌ II


TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN TRÃI NĂM HỌC 2018 – 2019
MÔN ANH VĂN
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút
Mã đề thi 132
Họ, tên thí sinh:..........................................................................
Số báo danh:...............................................................................

SECTION A: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (16 points)


Mark the letter A, B, C or D on the answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. analyses B. bases C. relaxes D. impresses
Question 2: A. considerate B. delegate C. appropriate D. contaminate

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on the answer sheet to indicate the word that differs in the position of the
main stress in the following questions.
Question 3: A. argument B. employee C. category D. difference
Question 4: A. universal B. horizontal C. potential D. preferential
Question 5: A. psychology B. environmental C. impossible D. photography

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on the answer sheet to indicate the correct answers to each of the following
questions.
Question 6: _______, the disaster would not have happened.
A. Had you have obeyed the orders B. You had obeyed the orders
C. You obeyed the orders D. Had you obeyed the orders
Question 7: . _______ had booked in advance were allowed in.
A. Only who B. Only those who
C. Only who were those D. Only were those who
Question 8: My father gave me ______ as a birthday present on my birthday.
A. a digital useful alarm clock B. an alarm useful digital clock
C. a useful alarm digital clock D. a useful digital alarm clock
Question 9: I don't suppose anyone will volunteer, ______?
A. does he B. do I C. will they D. won’t they
Question 10: The number of the people who ________ cars _______ increasing.
A. owns/ are B. owns/is C. own/are D. own/is
Question 11: The activities of the international marketing researcher are frequently much broader than
_____.
A. the domestic marketer has B. the domestic marketer does
C. those of the domestic marketer D. that which has the domestic marketer
Question 12: Many people and organizations have been making every possible effort in order to save
______ species.
A. endangered B. dangerous C. fearful D. threatening
Question 13: Sorry for being late. I was ______ in the traffic for more than an hour.
A. carried on B. held up C. put off D. taken after
Question 14: I don’t care what you do about job. It’s no _____ of mine.
A. importance B. feeling C. matter D. concern
Question 15: Please use the parking spaces _______ for visitors.
A. be designating B. are designating C. were designated D. designated

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Tài liệu ôn thi học kì II lớp 11 môn Tiếng Anh
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Question 16: The company received __________complaints about the quality of its products.
A. continual B. continued C. continuous D. continuing
Question 17: I was just ______to go out when you telephoned.
A. around B. about C. thinking D. planned
Question 18: Don’t ________ to conclusions; we don’t yet know all the relevant facts.
A. run B. rush C. jump D. hurry
Question 19: ______ the time change, it will now be getting dark an hour earlier.
A. Despite B. Owing to C. Just as D. Instead of
Question 20: ______ one day by a passing car, the dog never walked properly again.
A. Having injured B. Injuring C. Injured D. To be injured
Question 21: : Such that the firefighters could not get near it.
A. hot was the fire B. the heat of the fire
C. was the heat of the fire D. the fire was hot
Question 22: “It Jane you saw at the cinema last night. She was studying in the library with me”.
A. couldn’t be B. mustn’t have been C. shouldn’t have been D. can’t have been
Question 23: ________ have made communication faster and easier through the use of email and the
Internet is widely recognized.
A. It is that computers B. That computers
C. Computers that D. That it’s computers
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each
of the following exchanges.
Question 24: Minh: “Sorry, I’m late Mike.” - Mike: “_____________.”
A. Well, it’s worth a try B. Not on my account
C. No, I wouldn’t mind at all D. That’s all right
Question 25: . Susan: “Sorry, Brian is not here” Peter: “ _____________”
A. Would you like to leave a message? B. Can I take a message then?
C. Can I speak to Brian, please? D. Can I leave a message, then?

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 26: He accused her of talking through her hat and refused to accept a word of what she said.
A. talking sense B. talking too low C. talking non-sense D. talking tough
Question 27: We had never experienced this kind of holiday before and had no idea what to expect.
A. happened B. known C. noticed D. spent

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions..
Question 28: Some people still think it is impolite for men not to stand up when a woman comes into the
room.
A. chivalrous B. efficacious C. vigorous D. competent
Question 29: These were the people who advocated using force to stop school violence.
A. openly criticized B. strongly condemned C. publicly supported D. publicly said
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 30: Paul congratulated Anna on having been passed the entrance examination
A. congratulated B. on C. having D. been passed
Question 31: Pollution is a topic of such important today that even elementary school children are well-
informed about its danger.
A. important B. elementary C. well-informed D. its
Question 32: If either of you take a vacation, we will not be able to finish the work.
A. either B. take C. will not D. the work

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Question 33: In an essay writing in 1779, Judith Sargeant Murray promoted the cause of women's education.
A. In an essay B. writing
C. women's education D. the cause of
Question 34: She asked why did Mathew look so embarrassed when he saw Carole.
A. why B. did Mathew look C. so embarrassed D. saw
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
Universally acclaimed as America’s greatest playwright, Eugene O’Neill was born in 1888
in the heart of the theater district in New York City. As the son of an actor he had early exposure to the
world of the theater. He attended Princeton University briefly in 1906, but returned to New York to
work in a variety of jobs before joining the crew of a freighter as a seaman. Upon returning from voyages
to South Africa and South America, he was hospitalized for six months to recuperate from
tuberculosis. While he was recovering, he determined to write a play about his adventures on the sea. He
went to Harvard, where he wrote the one-act Bound East for Cardiff. It was produced on Cape Cod by the
Provincetown Players, an experimental theater group that was later to settle in the famous Greenwich
Village theater district in New York City. The Players produced several more of his one-acts in the years
between 1916-1920. With the full- length play Beyond the Horizon, produced on Broadway in 1920,
O’Neill’s success was assured. The play won the Pulitzer prize for the best play of the year. O’Neill was
to be awarded the prize again in 1922, 1928, and 1957 for Anna Christie, Strange Interlude, and Long
Day’s Journey Into Night. Although he didn’t receive the Pulitzer prize for it, Mourning becomes
Electra, produced in 1931,is arguably his most lasting contribution to the American theatre. In 1936, he
was awarded the Nobel Prize.
O’Neill’s plays, forty-five in all, cover a wide range of dramatic subjects, but several themes
emerge, including the ambivalence of family relationships, the struggle between the sexes, the
conflict between spiritual and material desires, and the vision of modern man as a victim of
uncontrollable circumstances. Most of O’Neill’s characters are seeking for meaning in their lives.
According to his biographers, most of the characters were portraits of himself and his family. In a sense,
his work chronicled his life.
Question 35: We can infer from information in the passage that O’Neill’s plays were not _.
A. autobiographical B. controversial C. popular D. optimistic
Question 36: This passage is a summary of O’Neill’s
A. work and life B. life C. family D. work
Question 37: How many times was O’Neill awarded the Pulitzer Prize?
A. Five B. Three C. Four D. One
Question 38: The word “briefly” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to_ _.
A. without enthusiasm B. on scholarship C. seriously D. for a short time
Question 39: The word “It” in paragraph 1 refers to_ _.
A. theater district B. one-act play C. theater group D. Harvard
Question 40: The word “struggle” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to_ _.
A. conflict B. denial C. appreciation D. influence
Question 41: Where in the passage does the author indicate the reason for O’Neill’s hospitalization?
A. Lines 4-5 B. Lines 11-12 C. Lines 6-9 D. Lines 2-3
Question 42: What does the author mean by the statement in paragraph 2: “According to his
biographers, most of the characters were portraits of himself and his family. In a sense, his work
chronicled his life”?
A. His biographers took pictures of him with his family.
B. His biography contained stories about him and his family.
C. He had paintings of himself and members of his family.
D. He used his family and his own experiences in his plays.

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Question 43: According to the passage, which of O’Neill’s plays was most important to the
American theatre?
A. Beyond the Horizon B. Mourning becomes Electra
C. Long Day’s Journey Into Night D. Anna Christie
Question 44: The author mentions all of the following as themes for O’Neill’s plays EXCEPT___.
A. adventures at sea B. life in college
C. relationships between men and women D. family life
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the words
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Why is it that many teenagers have the energy to play computer games until late at night but can’t find the
energy to get out of bed (45) ________ for school? According to a new report, today’s generation of
children are in danger of getting so (46)_______ sleep that they are putting their mental and physical health
at (47)_______. Adults can easily survive on seven to eight hours’ sleep a night, (48)_______teenagers
require nine or ten hours. According to medical experts, one in five youngsters (49)________ anything
between two and five hours’ sleep a night less than their parents did at their age.
This (50) _____ serious questions about whether lack of sleep is affecting children’s ability to
concentrate at school. The connection between sleep deprivation and lapses in memory, impaired reaction
time and poor concentration is well (51) _______. Research has shown that losing as little as half an hour’s
sleep a night can have profound effects (52) ______how children perform the next day. A good night’s sleep
is also crucial for teenagers because it is while they are asleep (53)______ they release a hormone that is
essential for their ‘growth spurt’ (the period during teenage years when the body grows at a rapid rate). It’s
true that they can, to some (54) ______, catch up on sleep at weekends, but that won’t help them when they
are dropping off to sleep in class on a Friday afternoon.
By Tim Falla and Paul ADavies, Solutions Advanced. OUP
Question 45: A. behind time B. about time C. in time D. at time
Question 46: A. few B. less C. much D. little
Question 47: A. jeopardy B. threat C. risk D. danger
Question 48: A. or B. because C. whereas D. so
Question 49: A. puts B. gets C. brings D. makes
Question 50 : A. raises B. rises C. results D. comes
Question 51: A. organized B. arranged C. established D. acquired
Question 52: A. in B. on C. to D. at
Question 53: A. at which B. which C. where D. that
Question 54: A. rate B. extent C. level D. point

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
Continents and ocean basins represent the largest identifiable bodies on Earth. On the solid portions of
the planet, the second most prominent features are flat plains, elevated plateaus, and large mountain ranges.
In geography, the term “continent” refers to the surface of continuous landmasses that together comprise
about 29.2% of the planet’s surface. On the other hand, another definition is prevalent in the general use of
the term that deals with extensive mainlands, such as Europe or Asia, that actually represent one very large
landmass. Although all continents are bounded by water bodies or high mountain ranges, isolated mainlands,
such as Greenland and India-Pakistan areas are called subcontinents. In some circles, the distinction between
continents and large islands lies almost exclusively in the size of particular landmass.

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Tài liệu ôn thi học kì II lớp 11 môn Tiếng Anh
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The analysis of compression and tension in the earth’s crust has determined that continental structures
are composed of layers that underlie continental shelves. A great deal of disagreement among geologists
surrounds the issue of exactly how many layers underlie each landmass because of their distinctive mineral
and chemical composition. It is also quite possible that the ocean floor rests on the top of unknown
continents that have not yet been explored. The continental crust is believed to have been formed by means
of a chemical reaction when lighter materials separated from heavier ones, thus settling at various levels
within the crust. Assisted by the measurements of the specifics within crust formations by means of
monitoring earthquakes, geologists can speculate that a chemical split occurred to form the atmosphere, sea
water, and the crust before it solidified many centuries ago.
Although each continent has its special features, all consist of various combinations of components that
include shields, mountain belts, intracratonic basins, margins, volcanic plateaus, and block vaulted belts. The
basic differences among continents lie in the proportion and the composition of these features relative to the
continent size. Climatic zones have a crucial effect on the weathering and formation of the surface features,
soil erosion, soil deposition, land formation, vegetation, and human activities.
Mountain belts are elongated narrow zones that have a characteristic folded sedimentary organization of
layers. They are typically produced during substantial crustal movements, which generate faulting and
mountain building. When continental margins collide, the rise of a marginal edge leads to the formation of
large mountain ranges, as explained by the plate tectonic theory. This process also accounts for the
occurrence of mountain belts in ocean basins and produces evidence for the ongoing continental plate
evolution.

Question 55: What does this passage mainly discuss?


A. Continental drift and division B. Various definitions of the term “continent”
C. Continental structure and crust D. Scientific analyses of continental crusts
Question 56: According to the passage, how do scientists define continents?
A. As masses of land without divisions B. As extensive bodies of land
C. As the largest identifiable features D. As surgical compositions and ranges
Question 57: In the first paragraph, the word “bounded” is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. covered B. convened C. delimited D. dominated
Question 58: The author of the passage implies that the disagreement among scientists is based on the fact
that
A. each continent has several planes and shelves
B. continents have various underlying layers of crust
C. continents undergo compression and experience tension
D. continents have different chemical makeup
Question 59: The word “specifics” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to______.
A. specialties B. speculations C. exact details D. precise movements
Question 60: The author of the passage implies that ___________.
A. it is not known exactly how the continental crust was formed
B. geologists have neglected the exploration of the ocean floor
C. scientists have concentrated on monitoring earthquakes
D. the earth’s atmosphere split into water and solids
Question 61: According to the passage, what are the differences in the structure of continents?
A. The proportional size of continents to one another
B. Ratios of major components and their comparative size
C. The distinctive features of their elements
D. Climatic zones and their effect on the surface features
Question 62: In the last paragraph, the phrase “This process” refers to ___________.
A. continental collision B. mountain ranges C. the rise of margins D. plate tectonic theory
Question 63: The author of the passage implies that ___________.
A. the process of mountain formation has not been accounted for
B. mountain ranges on the ocean floor lead to surface mountain building
C. faulting and continental margins are parts of plate edges

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Tài liệu ôn thi học kì II lớp 11 môn Tiếng Anh
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D. the process of continent formation has not been completed


Question 64: The word “evidence” in the last line is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. eventually B. confirmation C. exemplification D. challenge

SECTION B: OPEN- CLOSE QUESTIONS (4 points)


I. Rewrite each of the following sentences so that it has a similar meaning to the original one (1 points):
Question 1: The film didn’t come up to my expectations.
The film fell ______________________________________.
Question 2: He is the richest person I’ve ever known.
I have never _______________________________________.
Question 3: The fridge is completely empty.
There is _________________________________________.
Question 4: But for your help, I couldn’t have finished my project.
Had _________________________________________________.
Question 5: We know that feudalism lasted for hundreds of years in Europe.
Feudalism __________________________________________.
II. Paragraph writing (3 pts.):
Write a paragraph (about 120 words) about disadvantages of using the Internet too much.

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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI KHẢO SÁT LỚP 11 LẦN II


TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN TRÃI NĂM HỌC 2018 – 2019
MÔN ANH VĂN
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút

Họ, tên thí sinh:..........................................................................


Số báo danh:...............................................................................

SECTION A: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (16 points)

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on the answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. reserve B. conserve C. observe D. preserve
Question 2: A. southern B. smooth C. thrive D. breathe

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on the answer sheet to indicate the word that differs in the position of the
main stress in the following questions.
Question 3: A. common B. machine C. police D. polite
Question 4: A. application B. generation C. pessimistic D. contractual
Question 5: A. disadvantage B. dissatisfaction C. representative D. anniversary
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on the answer sheet to indicate the correct answers to each of the following
questions.
Question 6: I was most ______ of his efforts to help me during the crisis.
A. appreciation B . appreciable C. appreciate D. appreciative
Question 7: The problem is believed ________ at the meeting last week.
A. to have discussed B. to have been discussed C. to discuss D. to be discussed
Question 8: When she died, she gave _________ all her money to a charity for cats.
A. off B. on C. away D. out
Question 9: It is a ___________ .
A. blue polyester sleeping bag B. polyester sleeping blue bag
C. blue sleeping polyester bag D. sleeping blue polyester bag
Question 10: There's a good film _______ town.
A. in on B. on in C. at D. over
Question 11: I thought you said she was going away the next Sunday,_______ ?
A. didn't you B. wasn't she C. wasn't it D. didn't I
Question 12: It was in 1989_________ the Berlin Wall collapsed.
A. which B. that C. what D. when
Question 13: I asked her _________she understood what I was saying.
A. if B. even if C. if not D. if only
Question 14: Oil shale is a soft, fine-grained sedimentary rock _______ oil and natural gas are obtained.
A. is from B. from which C. from D. is which
Question 15: Birds all over the world migrate distances up to ______ of miles.

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A. a thousand B. thousand C. thousands D. some thousand


Question 16: He was going to ask her but he ______ and said nothing.
A. got cold feet B. got his feet wet C. had feet of clay D. put his feet up
Question 17: The Louisiana Territory, an area ______ the size of France, was bought by the United States from
France for $15,000,000 in 1803.
A. than more four times B. more than four times
C. four times as large as D. is four times as large as
Question 18: The Pyramids are perhaps the most famous of the seven ______ of the ancient world.
A. structures B. spectacles C. wonders D. constructions
Question 19: The girl standing among many other students ____ a scholarship to Columbia University.
A. was rewarded B. were awarded C. were rewarded D. was awarded
Question 20: Out ______ when the bell rang.
A. run the children B. do the children run C. ran the children D. did the children run
Question 21: I've applied for several jobs. I don't want to ______.
A. be a good egg B. have an egg on my face
C. kill the goose that lay the golden eggs D. put all my eggs in one basket
Question 22: We must adopt firm policy on punctuality. We can’t have people ____ late all the time.
A. arriving B. arrive C. to arrive D. to have arrived
Question 23: ______ the French army was defeated at the battle of Dien Bien Phu came a complete surprise
to all over the world.
A. Why B. Which C. What D. That
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 24: Jill: . "What's your favourite pastime?" Tim: "_______________"
A. My past time is nice. B. Ok, I like it.
C. I beg your pardon. D. I worked hard in the past .
Question 25: (After a party at Mary’s house). Bill: ______
Mary: Thanks for your compliment. Good night!
A. You are a good cooker. Good night! B. You are a good cook. Good night!
C. Long time no see. Good night! D. Many happy returns. Good night!

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 26: Relaxation therapy teaches one not to fret over small problems.
A. get involved in B. worry about C. look for D. get angry about
Question 27: The emergence of supersonic travel opened new horizon for the military, tourism, and
commerce.
A. profitable B. urgency C. explosion D. appearance

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions..
Question 28: The government has decided that the publication of the report would be “contrary to the
public interest".
A. urbane B. agreeable C. unpleasant D. despicable

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Question 29: Some animals make identical sounds when they sense danger. Thus, they appear to be
communicating to each other.
A. loud B. different C. similar D. frightening
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 30: Don't tell her about the job until you know for sure — we don't want to rise her hopes.
A. Don’t tell B. for C. hopes D. rise
Question 31: Teenagers is greatly influenced by not only their parents but also their peers.
A. is B. by C. parents D. peers
Question 32: It is the ASEAN Para Games that disabled athletes have an opportunity to have
their talents and efforts recognised.
A. disabled B. the ASEAN Para Games C. an opportunity D. recognised
Question 33: Because they had spent too many time considering the new contract, the students lost the
opportunity to lease the apartment.
A. Because they had B. too many time
C. the students lost the D. considering
Question 34: Our Spanish professor would like us spending more time in the laboratory practicing our
pronunciation.
A. Spanish professor B. would like us spending C. time in the D. practicing
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
Life expectancy is the period of time that a person can expect to live. Life expectancy varies greatly
between genders and cultures. It used to be that women had a lower life expectancy than men (1 in every 4
women died in childbirth), but now they live an average of four to five years longer than men. Life
expectancy has been increasing rapidly over the last centuries. With the advent of such modern miracles as
sewers, medicine and a greater understanding of how diseases are spread, our life expectancy has increased
by 25 – 30 years.
In developing countries like Swaziland, where there is a high HIV/AIDS rate, life expectancy is as
low as 32,6 years. In developed countries like Australia, life expectancy rates as high as 81 years. There are
an increasing number of factors which can cancel out the disadvantages you have. The one that we are
looking at now is how your career can affect your life expectancy. Choosing the wrong career can result in a
shorter life!
If you want your career to positively influence your life expectancy, you have to be made of money.
That’s right. Rich people in wealthy areas of England and France live 10 years longer than the people in
poorer areas. Having a successful career has its drawbacks, too if the result of hard work its stress.
Stress can lead to a number of psychological disorders such as depression, anxiety, fatigue, tension
and aggression. These conditions may result in a lack of concentration and an increase in serious injuries at
work. They can also lead to high blood pressure and heart attacks which seriously affect life expectancy.
If you are worried that your job might decrease your life expectancy, you probably need to avoid
careers on “dangerous jobs” list such as timber cutters, pilots, construction workers, roofer, truck drivers.
So if you don’t want to kick the bucket at an early age, choose a career in something other than
timber cutting, but above all, remember to relax.
From Pre-Essence Reading by Rachel Lee, Longman

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Question 35: According to the passage, all of the following are true EXCEPT _______.
A. Our life expectancy has increased by 25 – 30 years because there are fewer wars today.
B. In the past, women’s life expectancy was lower than that of men.
C. Life expectancy varies greatly depending on genders and cultures
D. There has been a dramatic increase in average life expectancy over the last centuries
Question 36: The average life expectancy is 32,6 years in _______.
A. Swaziland B. France C. Australia D. England
Question 37: Why does an increase in stress lead to an increase in workplace accidents?
A. Workers like to take sick leave and stay home.
B. It leads to a decrease in concentration and depression.
C. Workers don’t care as much about their jobs.
D. Workers are too busy to observe safety regulations.
Question 38: According to the passage, which of following is true if you have a successful career?
A. You can buy an expensive car B. Your life expectancy increases by a decade
C. You can afford to exercise and eat well D. You can spend most of your day in an office
Question 39: It can be inferred from the paragraph 3 that the disadvantage of a successful career is that
_______.
A. You won’t have to take a job on the “dangerous jobs” list
B. You are at the greater risk of being a victim of crime
C. There is a high number of work – related injuries
D. You are more likely to be under stress.
Question 40: Why does the author think that you should remember to relax?
A. Because stress can decrease your life expectancy B. Because relaxing will make you feel better
C. Because relaxing will improve your career D. Because you have completed the reading
Question 41: The phrase “kick the bucket” in the passage is closest in meaning to “_______”
A. die B. relax C. live D. succeed
st
Question 42: What is the main idea of the 1 paragraph?
A. Stress negatively affects life expectancy
B. Making a bad career choice will make your life shorter
C. Life expectancy has increased greatly over the last few centuries
D. Stress results in lower life expectancy
Question 43: The word “They” in bold in paragraph 1 refers to _______.
A. cultures B. genders C. women D. woman
Question 44: The passage mainly discusses _______
A. The definition of life expectancy
B. The comparison of life expectancy between women and men
C. The importance of a successful career
D. The effects of a career on one’s life expectancy

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the words or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

HOW TRANSPORTATION AFFECTS OUR LIFE?


Without transportation, our modern society could not (45) ______. We would have no metal, no coal and
no oil nor would we have any (46) ______ made from these materials. (47) ______ we would have to spend
most of our time (48) ______ food and food would be (49) ______ to the kinds that could grow in the
climate and soil of our neighborhood.
Transportation also (50) ______ our lives in other ways. Transportation can speed a doctor to the (51)
______ of a sick person, even if the patients’ lives on an isolated farm. It can take police to the (52) ______
of a crime within a moments of being noticed. Transportation (53) ______ teams of athletes to compete in
national and international sports contests. In time of (54) ______ transportation can rush aid to persons in
areas stricken by floods, families and earthquakes.
Question 45: A. establish B. exist C. take place D. happen
Question 46: A. producers B. production C. products D. productivity
Question 47: A. Even B. Besides C. Although D. However
Question 48: A. rising B. taking C. buying D. raising
Question 49: A. connected B. focused C. limited D. related
Question 50: A. influences B. makes C. affects D. effects
Question 51: A. way B. part C. body D. side
Question 52: A. scene B. place C. location D. site
Question 53: A. brings B. fetches C. enables D. gets
Question 54: A. disasters B. accidents C. problems D. wars

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
Rent control is the system whereby the local government tells building owners how much they can
charge their tenants in rent. In the United States, rent controls date back to at least World War II. In 1943
the federal government imposed rent controls to help solve the problem of housing shortages during
wartime. The federal program ended after the war, but in some locations, including New York City, controls
continued. Under New York's controls, a landlord generally cannot raise rents on apartments as long as the
tenants continue to renew their leases. In places such as Santa Monica, California, rent controls are more
recent. They were spurred by the inflation of the 1970's, which, combined) with California's rapid
population growth, pushed housing prices, as well as rents, to record levels. In 1979 Santa Monica's
municipal government ordered landlords to roll back their rents to the levels charged in 1978. Future rents
could only go up by two-thirds as much as any increase in the overall price level.
In any housing market, rental prices perform three functions: (1) promoting the efficient
maintenance of existing housing and stimulating the construction of new housing, (2) allocating existing
scarce housing among competing claimants, and (3) rationing use of existing housing by potential renters.
One result of rent control is a decrease in the construction of new rental units. Rent controls have
artificially depressed the most important long-term determinant of profitability - rents. Consider some
examples. In a recent year in Dallas, Texas, with a 16 percent rental vacancy rate but no rent control laws,
11,000 new housing units were

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built. In the same year, in San Francisco, California, only 2,000 units were built. The major difference? San
Francisco has only a 1.6 percent vacancy rate but stringent rent control laws. In New York City, except for
government-subsidized construction, the only rental units being built are luxury units, which are exempt
from controls. In Santa Monica, California, new apartments are not being constructed. New office rental
space and commercial developments are, however. They are exempt from rent controls.
Question 55: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The construction of apartments in the United States.
B. Causes and effects of rent control
C. The fluctuations of rental prices
D. The shortage of affordable housing in the United States.
Question 56: The word "They" in paragraph 1 refers to_________
A. the tenants B. their leases C. places D. rent controls.
Question 57: Which of the following was NOT a reason for the introduction of rent controls in Santa
Monica, California?
A. Rapid population growth B. Inflation
C. Economic conditions during wartime D. Record-high housing prices
Question 58: The phrase "roll back" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to__________
A. credit B. measure C. vary D. reduce
Question 59: The word "stimulating" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to_________
A. experimenting with B. identifying
C. estimating D. encouraging
Question 60: It can be inferred that the purpose of rent control is to___________
A. protect tenants B. promote construction
C. increase vacancy rates D. decrease sales of rental units
Question 61: The word "depressed" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to__________
A. saddened B. created C. lowered D. defeated
Question 62: The information in the last paragraph supports which of the following statements?
A. San Francisco has eliminated its rent control laws.
B. Rent control leads to a reduction in the construction of housing units
C. Luxury apartments are rarely built when there is rent control
D. There is a growing need for government-subsidized housing.
Question 63: According to the passage, which of the following cities does NOT currently have rent controls?
A. Santa Monica B. Dallas C. San Francisco D. New York City
Question 64: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT exempt from rent control?
A. Luxury apartments B. Commercial development
C. Moderately priced apartments D. Office space
SECTION B: OPEN- CLOSE QUESTIONS (4 points)
I. Rewrite each of the following sentences so that it has a similar meaning to the original one (1 points):
Question 1: I don’t intend to apologize to either of them.
→ I have ____________________________________________________________
Question 2: He didn't study his lessons very carefully, so he gets bad marks now.
→ If he _________________________________________
Question 3: "Don't forget to phone the office," she told him.
→ She _________________________________________

Question 4: He didn’t become a teacher of English until 2001.

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→ Not ________________________________________
Question 5: Nobody remained on the ship after the captain had left it.
 The captain ______________________________________
II. Paragraph writing (3 pts.):
Write a paragraph of 120-150 words to express your opinions on the following statement:

“Playing sports should be encouraged among teenagers.”

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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI KHẢO SÁT LỚP 11 HỌC KÌ II


TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN TRÃI NĂM HỌC 2018 – 2019
MÔN ANH VĂN
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút
Mã đề thi 132
Họ, tên thí sinh:..........................................................................
Số báo danh:...............................................................................

SECTION A: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (16 points)


Mark the letter A, B, C or D on the answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. analyses B. bases C. relaxes D. impresses
Question 2: A. considerate B. delegate C. appropriate D. contaminate

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on the answer sheet to indicate the word that differs in the position of the
main stress in the following questions.
Question 3: A. argument B. employee C. category D. difference
Question 4: A. universal B. horizontal C. potential D. preferential
Question 5: A. psychology B. environmental C. impossible D. photography

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on the answer sheet to indicate the correct answers to each of the following
questions.
Question 6: _______, the disaster would not have happened.
A. Had you have obeyed the orders B. You had obeyed the orders
C. You obeyed the orders D. Had you obeyed the orders
Question 7: . _______ had booked in advance were allowed in.
A. Only who B. Only those who
C. Only who were those D. Only were those who
Question 8: My father gave me ______ as a birthday present on my birthday.
A. a digital useful alarm clock B. an alarm useful digital clock
C. a useful alarm digital clock D. a useful digital alarm clock
Question 9: I don't suppose anyone will volunteer, ______?
A. does he B. do I C. will they D. won’t they
Question 10: The number of the people who ________ cars _______ increasing.
A. owns/ are B. owns/is C. own/are D. own/is
Question 11: The activities of the international marketing researcher are frequently much broader than
_____.
A. the domestic marketer has B. the domestic marketer does
C. those of the domestic marketer D. that which has the domestic marketer
Question 12: Many people and organizations have been making every possible effort in order to save
______ species.
A. endangered B. dangerous C. fearful D. threatening
Question 13: Sorry for being late. I was ______ in the traffic for more than an hour.
A. carried on B. held up C. put off D. taken after
Question 14: I don’t care what you do about job. It’s no _____ of mine.
A. importance B. feeling C. matter D. concern
Question 15: Please use the parking spaces _______ for visitors.
A. be designating B. are designating C. were designated D. designated

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Question 16: The company received __________complaints about the quality of its products.
A. continual B. continued C. continuous D. continuing
Question 17: I was just ______to go out when you telephoned.
A. around B. about C. thinking D. planned
Question 18: Don’t ________ to conclusions; we don’t yet know all the relevant facts.
A. run B. rush C. jump D. hurry
Question 19: ______ the time change, it will now be getting dark an hour earlier.
B. Despite B. Owing to C. Just as D. Instead of
Question 20: ______ one day by a passing car, the dog never walked properly again.
B. Having injured B. Injuring C. Injured D. To be injured
Question 21: : Such that the firefighters could not get near it.
A. hot was the fire B. the heat of the fire
C. was the heat of the fire D. the fire was hot
Question 22: “It Jane you saw at the cinema last night. She was studying in the library with me”.
A. couldn’t be B. mustn’t have been C. shouldn’t have been D. can’t have been
Question 23: ________ have made communication faster and easier through the use of email and the
Internet is widely recognized.
A. It is that computers B. That computers
C. Computers that D. That it’s computers
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each
of the following exchanges.
Question 24: Minh: “Sorry, I’m late Mike.” - Mike: “_____________.”
A. Well, it’s worth a try B. Not on my account
C. No, I wouldn’t mind at all D. That’s all right
Question 25: . Susan: “Sorry, Brian is not here” Peter: “ _____________”
A. Would you like to leave a message? B. Can I take a message then?
C. Can I speak to Brian, please? D. Can I leave a message, then?

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 26: He accused her of talking through her hat and refused to accept a word of what she said.
B. talking sense B. talking too low C. talking non-sense D. talking tough
Question 27: We had never experienced this kind of holiday before and had no idea what to expect.
A. happened B. known C. noticed D. spent

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions..
Question 28: Some people still think it is impolite for men not to stand up when a woman comes into the
room.
A. chivalrous B. efficacious C. vigorous D. competent
Question 29: These were the people who advocated using force to stop school violence.
A. openly criticized B. strongly condemned C. publicly supported D. publicly said
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 30: Paul congratulated Anna on having been passed the entrance examination
A. congratulated B. on C. having D. been passed
Question 31: Pollution is a topic of such important today that even elementary school children are well-
informed about its danger.
A. important B. elementary C. well-informed D. its
Question 32: If either of you take a vacation, we will not be able to finish the work.
A. either B. take C. will not D. the work

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Question 33: In an essay writing in 1779, Judith Sargeant Murray promoted the cause of women's education.
A. In an essay B. writing
C. women's education D. the cause of
Question 34: She asked why did Mathew look so embarrassed when he saw Carole.
A. why B. did Mathew look C. so embarrassed D. saw
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
Universally acclaimed as America’s greatest playwright, Eugene O’Neill was born in 1888
in the heart of the theater district in New York City. As the son of an actor he had early exposure to the
world of the theater. He attended Princeton University briefly in 1906, but returned to New York to
work in a variety of jobs before joining the crew of a freighter as a seaman. Upon returning from voyages
to South Africa and South America, he was hospitalized for six months to recuperate from
tuberculosis. While he was recovering, he determined to write a play about his adventures on the sea. He
went to Harvard, where he wrote the one-act Bound East for Cardiff. It was produced on Cape Cod by the
Provincetown Players, an experimental theater group that was later to settle in the famous Greenwich
Village theater district in New York City. The Players produced several more of his one-acts in the years
between 1916-1920. With the full- length play Beyond the Horizon, produced on Broadway in 1920,
O’Neill’s success was assured. The play won the Pulitzer prize for the best play of the year. O’Neill was
to be awarded the prize again in 1922, 1928, and 1957 for Anna Christie, Strange Interlude, and Long
Day’s Journey Into Night. Although he didn’t receive the Pulitzer prize for it, Mourning becomes
Electra, produced in 1931,is arguably his most lasting contribution to the American theatre. In 1936, he
was awarded the Nobel Prize.
O’Neill’s plays, forty-five in all, cover a wide range of dramatic subjects, but several themes
emerge, including the ambivalence of family relationships, the struggle between the sexes, the
conflict between spiritual and material desires, and the vision of modern man as a victim of
uncontrollable circumstances. Most of O’Neill’s characters are seeking for meaning in their lives.
According to his biographers, most of the characters were portraits of himself and his family. In a sense,
his work chronicled his life.
Question 35: We can infer from information in the passage that O’Neill’s plays were not _.
A. autobiographical B. controversial C. popular D. optimistic
Question 36: This passage is a summary of O’Neill’s
A. work and life B. life C. family D. work
Question 37: How many times was O’Neill awarded the Pulitzer Prize?
A. Five B. Three C. Four D. One
Question 38: The word “briefly” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to_ _.
A. without enthusiasm B. on scholarship C. seriously D. for a short time
Question 39: The word “It” in paragraph 1 refers to_ _.
A. theater district B. one-act play C. theater group D. Harvard
Question 40: The word “struggle” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to_ _.
A. conflict B. denial C. appreciation D. influence
Question 41: Where in the passage does the author indicate the reason for O’Neill’s hospitalization?
A. Lines 4-5 B. Lines 11-12 C. Lines 6-9 D. Lines 2-3
Question 42: What does the author mean by the statement in paragraph 2: “According to his
biographers, most of the characters were portraits of himself and his family. In a sense, his work
chronicled his life”?
A. His biographers took pictures of him with his family.
B. His biography contained stories about him and his family.
C. He had paintings of himself and members of his family.
D. He used his family and his own experiences in his plays.

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Question 43: According to the passage, which of O’Neill’s plays was most important to the
American theatre?
A. Beyond the Horizon B. Mourning becomes Electra
C. Long Day’s Journey Into Night D. Anna Christie
Question 44: The author mentions all of the following as themes for O’Neill’s plays EXCEPT___.
A. adventures at sea B. life in college
C. relationships between men and women D. family life
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the words
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Why is it that many teenagers have the energy to play computer games until late at night but can’t find the
energy to get out of bed (45) ________ for school? According to a new report, today’s generation of
children are in danger of getting so (46)_______ sleep that they are putting their mental and physical health
at (47)_______. Adults can easily survive on seven to eight hours’ sleep a night, (48)_______teenagers
require nine or ten hours. According to medical experts, one in five youngsters (49)________ anything
between two and five hours’ sleep a night less than their parents did at their age.
This (50) _____ serious questions about whether lack of sleep is affecting children’s ability to
concentrate at school. The connection between sleep deprivation and lapses in memory, impaired reaction
time and poor concentration is well (51) _______. Research has shown that losing as little as half an hour’s
sleep a night can have profound effects (52) ______how children perform the next day. A good night’s sleep
is also crucial for teenagers because it is while they are asleep (53)______ they release a hormone that is
essential for their ‘growth spurt’ (the period during teenage years when the body grows at a rapid rate). It’s
true that they can, to some (54) ______, catch up on sleep at weekends, but that won’t help them when they
are dropping off to sleep in class on a Friday afternoon.
By Tim Falla and Paul ADavies, Solutions Advanced. OUP
Question 45: A. behind time B. about time C. in time D. at time
Question 46: A. few B. less C. much D. little
Question 47: A. jeopardy B. threat C. risk D. danger
Question 48: A. or B. because C. whereas D. so
Question 49: A. puts B. gets C. brings D. makes
Question 50 : A. raises B. rises C. results D. comes
Question 51: A. organized B. arranged C. established D. acquired
Question 52: A. in B. on C. to D. at
Question 53: A. at which B. which C. where D. that
Question 54: A. rate B. extent C. level D. point

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
Continents and ocean basins represent the largest identifiable bodies on Earth. On the solid portions of
the planet, the second most prominent features are flat plains, elevated plateaus, and large mountain ranges.
In geography, the term “continent” refers to the surface of continuous landmasses that together comprise
about 29.2% of the planet’s surface. On the other hand, another definition is prevalent in the general use of
the term that deals with extensive mainlands, such as Europe or Asia, that actually represent one very large
landmass. Although all continents are bounded by water bodies or high mountain ranges, isolated mainlands,
such as Greenland and India-Pakistan areas are called subcontinents. In some circles, the distinction between
continents and large islands lies almost exclusively in the size of particular landmass.

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The analysis of compression and tension in the earth’s crust has determined that continental structures
are composed of layers that underlie continental shelves. A great deal of disagreement among geologists
surrounds the issue of exactly how many layers underlie each landmass because of their distinctive mineral
and chemical composition. It is also quite possible that the ocean floor rests on the top of unknown
continents that have not yet been explored. The continental crust is believed to have been formed by means
of a chemical reaction when lighter materials separated from heavier ones, thus settling at various levels
within the crust. Assisted by the measurements of the specifics within crust formations by means of
monitoring earthquakes, geologists can speculate that a chemical split occurred to form the atmosphere, sea
water, and the crust before it solidified many centuries ago.
Although each continent has its special features, all consist of various combinations of components that
include shields, mountain belts, intracratonic basins, margins, volcanic plateaus, and block vaulted belts. The
basic differences among continents lie in the proportion and the composition of these features relative to the
continent size. Climatic zones have a crucial effect on the weathering and formation of the surface features,
soil erosion, soil deposition, land formation, vegetation, and human activities.
Mountain belts are elongated narrow zones that have a characteristic folded sedimentary organization of
layers. They are typically produced during substantial crustal movements, which generate faulting and
mountain building. When continental margins collide, the rise of a marginal edge leads to the formation of
large mountain ranges, as explained by the plate tectonic theory. This process also accounts for the
occurrence of mountain belts in ocean basins and produces evidence for the ongoing continental plate
evolution.

Question 55: What does this passage mainly discuss?


A. Continental drift and division B. Various definitions of the term “continent”
C. Continental structure and crust D. Scientific analyses of continental crusts
Question 56: According to the passage, how do scientists define continents?
A. As masses of land without divisions B. As extensive bodies of land
C. As the largest identifiable features D. As surgical compositions and ranges
Question 57: In the first paragraph, the word “bounded” is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. covered B. convened C. delimited D. dominated
Question 58: The author of the passage implies that the disagreement among scientists is based on the fact
that
A. each continent has several planes and shelves
B. continents have various underlying layers of crust
C. continents undergo compression and experience tension
D. continents have different chemical makeup
Question 59: The word “specifics” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to______.
A. specialties B. speculations C. exact details D. precise movements
Question 60: The author of the passage implies that ___________.
A. it is not known exactly how the continental crust was formed
B. geologists have neglected the exploration of the ocean floor
C. scientists have concentrated on monitoring earthquakes
D. the earth’s atmosphere split into water and solids
Question 61: According to the passage, what are the differences in the structure of continents?
A. The proportional size of continents to one another
B. Ratios of major components and their comparative size
C. The distinctive features of their elements
D. Climatic zones and their effect on the surface features
Question 62: In the last paragraph, the phrase “This process” refers to ___________.
A. continental collision B. mountain ranges C. the rise of margins D. plate tectonic theory
Question 63: The author of the passage implies that ___________.
A. the process of mountain formation has not been accounted for
B. mountain ranges on the ocean floor lead to surface mountain building
C. faulting and continental margins are parts of plate edges

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D. the process of continent formation has not been completed


Question 64: The word “evidence” in the last line is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. eventually B. confirmation C. exemplification D. challenge

SECTION B: OPEN- CLOSE QUESTIONS (4 points)


I. Rewrite each of the following sentences so that it has a similar meaning to the original one (1 points):
Question 1: The film didn’t come up to my expectations.
The film fell short of my expectations.
Question 2: He is the richest person I’ve ever known.
I have never known a richer person than him
/I have never known such a richer person before.
Question 3: The fridge is completely empty.
There is nothing left in the fridge.
Question 4: But for your help, I couldn’t have finished my project.
Had you not helped me, I couldn’t have finished my project.
Had it not been for your helped, I couldn’t have finished my project.
Question 5: We know that feudalism lasted for hundreds of years in Europe.
Feudalism is known to have lasted for hundreds of years in Europe.
II. Paragraph writing (3 pts.):
Write a paragraph (about 120 words) about disadvantages of using the Internet too much.

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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI KHẢO SÁT LỚP 11 LẦN II


TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN TRÃI NĂM HỌC 2018 – 2019
MÔN ANH VĂN
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút
Họ, tên thí sinh:..........................................................................
Số báo danh:...............................................................................

SECTION A: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (16 points)

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on the answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. reserve B. conserve C. observe D. preserve
Question 2: A. southern B. smooth C. thrive D. breathe

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on the answer sheet to indicate the word that differs in the position of the
main stress in the following questions.
Question 3: A. common B. machine C. police D. polite
Question 4: A. application B. generation C. pessimistic D. contractual
Question 5: A. disadvantage B. dissatisfaction C. representative D. anniversary
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on the answer sheet to indicate the correct answers to each of the following
questions.
Question 6: I was most ______ of his efforts to help me during the crisis.
A. appreciation B . appreciable C. appreciate D. appreciative
Question 7: The problem is believed ________ at the meeting last week.
A. to have discussed B. to have been discussed C. to discuss D. to be discussed
Question 8: When she died, she gave _________ all her money to a charity for cats.
A. off B. on C. away D. out
Question 9: It is a ___________ .
A. blue polyester sleeping bag B. polyester sleeping blue bag
C. blue sleeping polyester bag D. sleeping blue polyester bag
Question 10: There's a good film _______ town.
A. in on B. on in C. at D. over
Question 11: I thought you said she was going away the next Sunday,_______ ?
A. didn't you B. wasn't she C. wasn't it D. didn't I
Question 12: It was in 1989_________ the Berlin Wall collapsed.
A. which B. that C. what D. when
Question 13: I asked her _________she understood what I was saying.
A. if B. even if C. if not D. if only
Question 14: Oil shale is a soft, fine-grained sedimentary rock _______ oil and natural gas are obtained.
A. is from B. from which C. from D. is which
Question 15: Birds all over the world migrate distances up to ______ of miles.
A. a thousand B. thousand C. thousands D. some thousand
Question 16: He was going to ask her but he ______ and said nothing.

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A. got cold feet B. got his feet wet C. had feet of clay D. put his feet up
Question 17: The Louisiana Territory, an area ______ the size of France, was bought by the United States from
France for $15,000,000 in 1803.
A. than more four times B. more than four times
C. four times as large as D. is four times as large as
Question 18: The Pyramids are perhaps the most famous of the seven ______ of the ancient world.
A. structures B. spectacles C. wonders D. constructions
Question 19: The girl standing among many other students ____ a scholarship to Columbia University.
A. was rewarded B. were awarded C. were rewarded D. was awarded
Question 20: Out ______ when the bell rang.
A. run the children B. do the children run C. ran the children D. did the children run
Question 21: I've applied for several jobs. I don't want to ______.
A. be a good egg B. have an egg on my face
C. kill the goose that lay the golden eggs D. put all my eggs in one basket
Question 22: We must adopt firm policy on punctuality. We can’t have people ____ late all the time.
A. arriving B. arrive C. to arrive D. to have arrived
Question 23: ______ the French army was defeated at the battle of Dien Bien Phu came a complete surprise
to all over the world.
A. Why B. Which C. What D. That
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 24: Jill: . "What's your favourite pastime?" Tim: "_______________"
A. My past time is nice. B. Ok, I like it.
C. I beg your pardon. D. I worked hard in the past .
Question 25: (After a party at Mary’s house). Bill: ______
Mary: Thanks for your compliment. Good night!
A. You are a good cooker. Good night! B. You are a good cook. Good night!
C. Long time no see. Good night! D. Many happy returns. Good night!

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 26: Relaxation therapy teaches one not to fret over small problems.
A. get involved in B. worry about C. look for D. get angry about
Question 27: The emergence of supersonic travel opened new horizon for the military, tourism, and
commerce.
A. profitable B. urgency C. explosion D. appearance

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions..
Question 28: The government has decided that the publication of the report would be “contrary to the
public interest".
A. urbane B. agreeable C. unpleasant D. despicable

Question 29: Some animals make identical sounds when they sense danger. Thus, they appear to be
communicating to each other.

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A. loud B. different C. similar D. frightening


Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 30: Don't tell her about the job until you know for sure — we don't want to rise her hopes.
A. Don’t tell B. for C. hopes D. rise
Question 31: Teenagers is greatly influenced by not only their parents but also their peers.
A. is B. by C. parents D. peers
Question 32: It is the ASEAN Para Games that disabled athletes have an opportunity to have
their talents and efforts recognised.
A. disabled B. the ASEAN Para Games C. an opportunity D. recognised
Question 33: Because they had spent too many time considering the new contract, the students lost the
opportunity to lease the apartment.
A. Because they had B. too many time
C. the students lost the D. considering
Question 34: Our Spanish professor would like us spending more time in the laboratory practicing our
pronunciation.
A. Spanish professor B. would like us spending C. time in the D. practicing
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
Life expectancy is the period of time that a person can expect to live. Life expectancy varies greatly
between genders and cultures. It used to be that women had a lower life expectancy than men (1 in every 4
women died in childbirth), but now they live an average of four to five years longer than men. Life
expectancy has been increasing rapidly over the last centuries. With the advent of such modern miracles as
sewers, medicine and a greater understanding of how diseases are spread, our life expectancy has increased
by 25 – 30 years.
In developing countries like Swaziland, where there is a high HIV/AIDS rate, life expectancy is as
low as 32,6 years. In developed countries like Australia, life expectancy rates as high as 81 years. There are
an increasing number of factors which can cancel out the disadvantages you have. The one that we are
looking at now is how your career can affect your life expectancy. Choosing the wrong career can result in a
shorter life!
If you want your career to positively influence your life expectancy, you have to be made of money.
That’s right. Rich people in wealthy areas of England and France live 10 years longer than the people in
poorer areas. Having a successful career has its drawbacks, too if the result of hard work its stress.
Stress can lead to a number of psychological disorders such as depression, anxiety, fatigue, tension
and aggression. These conditions may result in a lack of concentration and an increase in serious injuries at
work. They can also lead to high blood pressure and heart attacks which seriously affect life expectancy.
If you are worried that your job might decrease your life expectancy, you probably need to avoid
careers on “dangerous jobs” list such as timber cutters, pilots, construction workers, roofer, truck drivers.
So if you don’t want to kick the bucket at an early age, choose a career in something other than
timber cutting, but above all, remember to relax.
From Pre-Essence Reading by Rachel Lee, Longman

Question 35: According to the passage, all of the following are true EXCEPT _______.
A. Our life expectancy has increased by 25 – 30 years because there are fewer wars today.
B. In the past, women’s life expectancy was lower than that of men.
C. Life expectancy varies greatly depending on genders and cultures

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D. There has been a dramatic increase in average life expectancy over the last centuries
Question 36: The average life expectancy is 32,6 years in _______.
A. Swaziland B. France C. Australia D. England
Question 37: Why does an increase in stress lead to an increase in workplace accidents?
A. Workers like to take sick leave and stay home.
B. It leads to a decrease in concentration and depression.
C. Workers don’t care as much about their jobs.
D. Workers are too busy to observe safety regulations.
Question 38: According to the passage, which of following is true if you have a successful career?
A. You can buy an expensive car B. Your life expectancy increases by a decade
C. You can afford to exercise and eat well D. You can spend most of your day in an office
Question 39: It can be inferred from the paragraph 3 that the disadvantage of a successful career is that
_______.
A. You won’t have to take a job on the “dangerous jobs” list
B. You are at the greater risk of being a victim of crime
C. There is a high number of work – related injuries
D. You are more likely to be under stress.
Question 40: Why does the author think that you should remember to relax?
A. Because stress can decrease your life expectancy B. Because relaxing will make you feel better
C. Because relaxing will improve your career D. Because you have completed the reading
Question 41: The phrase “kick the bucket” in the passage is closest in meaning to “_______”
A. die B. relax C. live D. succeed
st
Question 42: What is the main idea of the 1 paragraph?
A. Stress negatively affects life expectancy
B. Making a bad career choice will make your life shorter
C. Life expectancy has increased greatly over the last few centuries
D. Stress results in lower life expectancy
Question 43: The word “They” in bold in paragraph 1 refers to _______.
A. cultures B. genders C. women D. woman
Question 44: The passage mainly discusses _______
A. The definition of life expectancy
B. The comparison of life expectancy between women and men
C. The importance of a successful career
D. The effects of a career on one’s life expectancy
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the words or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

HOW TRANSPORTATION AFFECTS OUR LIFE?


Without transportation, our modern society could not (45) ______. We would have no metal, no coal and
no oil nor would we have any (46) ______ made from these materials. (47) ______ we would have to spend
most of our time (48) ______ food and food would be (49) ______ to the kinds that could grow in the
climate and soil of our neighborhood.
Transportation also (50) ______ our lives in other ways. Transportation can speed a doctor to the (51)
______ of a sick person, even if the patients’ lives on an isolated farm. It can take police to the (52) ______
of a crime within a moments of being noticed. Transportation (53) ______ teams of athletes to compete in

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national and international sports contests. In time of (54) ______ transportation can rush aid to persons in
areas stricken by floods, families and earthquakes.
Question 45: A. establish B. exist C. take place D. happen
Question 46: A. producers B. production C. products D. productivity
Question 47: A. Even B. Besides C. Although D. However
Question 48: A. rising B. taking C. buying D. raising
Question 49: A. connected B. focused C. limited D. related
Question 50: A. influences B. makes C. affects D. effects
Question 51: A. way B. part C. body D. side
Question 52: A. scene B. place C. location D. site
Question 53: A. brings B. fetches C. enables D. gets
Question 54: A. disasters B. accidents C. problems D. wars

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
Rent control is the system whereby the local government tells building owners how much they can
charge their tenants in rent. In the United States, rent controls date back to at least World War II. In 1943
the federal government imposed rent controls to help solve the problem of housing shortages during
wartime. The federal program ended after the war, but in some locations, including New York City, controls
continued. Under New York's controls, a landlord generally cannot raise rents on apartments as long as the
tenants continue to renew their leases. In places such as Santa Monica, California, rent controls are more
recent. They were spurred by the inflation of the 1970's, which, combined) with California's rapid
population growth, pushed housing prices, as well as rents, to record levels. In 1979 Santa Monica's
municipal government ordered landlords to roll back their rents to the levels charged in 1978. Future rents
could only go up by two-thirds as much as any increase in the overall price level.
In any housing market, rental prices perform three functions: (1) promoting the efficient
maintenance of existing housing and stimulating the construction of new housing, (2) allocating existing
scarce housing among competing claimants, and (3) rationing use of existing housing by potential renters.
One result of rent control is a decrease in the construction of new rental units. Rent controls have
artificially depressed the most important long-term determinant of profitability - rents. Consider some
examples. In a recent year in Dallas, Texas, with a 16 percent rental vacancy rate but no rent control laws,
11,000 new housing units were
built. In the same year, in San Francisco, California, only 2,000 units were built. The major difference? San
Francisco has only a 1.6 percent vacancy rate but stringent rent control laws. In New York City, except for
government-subsidized construction, the only rental units being built are luxury units, which are exempt
from controls. In Santa Monica, California, new apartments are not being constructed. New office rental
space and commercial developments are, however. They are exempt from rent controls.
Question 55: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The construction of apartments in the United States.
B. Causes and effects of rent control
C. The fluctuations of rental prices
D. The shortage of affordable housing in the United States.
Question 56: The word "They" in paragraph 1 refers to_________
A. the tenants B. their leases C. places D. rent controls.

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Question 57: Which of the following was NOT a reason for the introduction of rent controls in Santa
Monica, California?
A. Rapid population growth B. Inflation
C. Economic conditions during wartime D. Record-high housing prices
Question 58: The phrase "roll back" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to__________
A. credit B. measure C. vary D. reduce
Question 59: The word "stimulating" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to_________
A. experimenting with B. identifying
C. estimating D. encouraging
Question 60: It can be inferred that the purpose of rent control is to___________
A. protect tenants B. promote construction
C. increase vacancy rates D. decrease sales of rental units
Question 61: The word "depressed" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to__________
A. saddened B. created C. lowered D. defeated
Question 62: The information in the last paragraph supports which of the following statements?
A. San Francisco has eliminated its rent control laws.
B. Rent control leads to a reduction in the construction of housing units
C. Luxury apartments are rarely built when there is rent control
D. There is a growing need for government-subsidized housing.
Question 63: According to the passage, which of the following cities does NOT currently have rent controls?
A. Santa Monica B. Dallas C. San Francisco D. New York City
Question 64: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT exempt from rent control?
A. Luxury apartments B. Commercial development
C. Moderately priced apartments D. Office space
SECTION B: OPEN- CLOSE QUESTIONS (4 points)
I. Rewrite each of the following sentences so that it has a similar meaning to the original one (1 points):
Question 1: I don’t intend to apologize to either of them.
→ I have no intention of apologising to either of them/
I have no intention to apologise to either of them.
Question 2: He didn't study his lessons very carefully, so he gets bad marks now.
→ If he had studied his lesson very carefully, he wouldn't get bad marks now.
Question 3: "Don't forget to phone the office," she told him.
→ She reminded him to phone the office.
Question 4: He didn’t become a teacher of English until 2001.
→ Not until 2001 did he become a teacher of English.

Question 5: Nobody remained on the ship after the captain had left it.
 The captain was the last person to leave the ship/ that left the ship.
II. Paragraph writing (3 pts.):
Write a paragraph of 120-150 words to express your opinions on the following statement:

“Playing sports should be encouraged among teenagers.”

PRO 3M/PRO3MPLUS – BỘ KHÓA HỌC GIÚP 2K3 TỰ TIN DÀNH 9+ MÔN TIẾNG ANH

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