General Electrical

Q1. What is Power Transmission?

ANS- Power transmission is the transfer of electrical energy from
its point of generation to the point of application to perform
useful works.

Q 2.What is Corona in Transmission Lines?

ANS- Corona in transmission lines is the phenomenon of ionisation
of air surrounding the conductor carrying high voltage. When the
applied voltage in the transmission line is greater than the critical
voltage, the air around the conductor becomes ionised due to
excess electric field and thus corona occurs.

Q3. What is ACSR?

ANS- Aluminium Conductor Steel Reinforced (ACSR) is a type of
cable used in overhead lines for power transmission over long
distances. The outer strands are of Aluminium while the central
strand is of Steel. Steel strand in the centre increases the
mechanical strength of the cable while Aluminium in good for its
light weight and high conductivity.

Q4. What is Sag?

ANS- Sag in transmission line is defined as the vertical difference in
level between points of support and lowest point of the
conductor. A point of support is most commonly transmission
towers.
Q5. What is an Insulator?
ANS- An electrical insulator is a material which does not allow free
flow of electrons. According to valence band theory, for insulators
the energy gap between conduction band and valence band is
greater than 6eV. It is used in an electrical system to prevent
unwanted flow of current to the earth from its supporting points.

Q6. What are the factors on which sag depends?

ANS- Factors affecting Sag are-
(i) Conductor weight- Sag of the conductor is directly proportional
to its weight.
(ii) Span – Sag is directly proportional to the square of the span
length. Longer span gives more sag.
(iii) Tension -The sag is inversely proportional to the tension in the
conductor.
(iv) Wind – It increases sag in the inclined direction.
(v) Temperature – The sag is reduced at low temperatures and is
increases at higher temperatures.

Q7. Why do over head transmission lines possess

capacitance?
ANS- A capacitor is a basic arrangement of two conductors
separated by an insulating medium. Now if we look at the
overhead transmission lines there is potential difference between
the conductors. The conductors get charged in the same way as
the parallel plates of a capacitor. Thus two conductors of overhead
line separated by air medium (insulator) possess the property of
capacitance.
Q8. Why bundled conductors are employed in transmission
lines?
ANS- There are several advantages of using bundled conductors-
(i) Line inductance of bundled conductors are less compared to
non-bundled conductors which in turn increases the maximum
power transfer capabilities of the line. Also voltage regulation of
the line is increased due to decreased line reactance.
(ii) Bundled conductors reduces the effect of CORONA due to the
use of several no. of conductors the voltage gradient around them
is reduced thus reducing effect of corona.
(iii) Since corona is reduced, line losses are minimised and so line
efficiency is increased.
(iv) Bundled conductors reduces skin effect and thus current
carrying capacity of line increases compared to single conductor.

Q9. Why transmission line conductors are stranded?

ANS- Stranded conductors consist of steel strand at the centre
which provides high tensile strength to it and consist of aluminium
strand in the outer layer which provides high conductivity to it.
Thus stranded conductors are basically used to provide flexibility
to it.
Also due to steel reinforcement the strength of the conductor is
highly increased which makes it easy to hang over transmission
towers.
Q10. What is The Difference between Contactor and Fuse?
ANS- A fuse is just a conducting wire which melts when extra
current flows through it and thus protects the equipment ahead in
the circuit.
While a contractor is an electromechanical switch which breaks
the circuit when it gets overloaded and makes it again when
normal condition prevails in the circuit.
A fuse cannot remake the circuit in normal condition. It needs to
changed once operated.

Q.11. What is Tariff? What are its requirements? What are the
procedures to impose tariff?
ANS- Tariff refers to the amount of money the consumer has to
pay for making the power available to them at their homes. In
other words, the tariff is the methods of charging a consumer for
consuming electric power.

Q.12. What is power factor? How it could be improved?

ANS- Power factor (PF) of an AC electrical power system is defined
as the ratio of working power (measured in kilowatts, kW)
absorbed by the load to the apparent power (measured in kilovolt
amperes, kVA) flowing through the circuit.
There are three main ways to improve power factor:
(i) Capacitor bank- Since practical loads are lagging in nature and
so capacitor which is a leading load is used to reduce the phase
difference between voltage and current.
(ii) Synchronous condensers- These are basically 3 phase
synchronous motor with no load attached to its shaft. The
synchronous motor has the characteristics of operating under any
power factor leading, lagging or unity depending upon the
excitation.
There are several other methods also which improves the power
factor of the circuit.

Q13. What is a Tunnel diode? LED? Photo diode? Zener diode?

Varactor diode?
ANS- (i) A Tunnel diode is a heavily doped p-n junction diode in
which the electric current decreases as the voltage increases. In
these diodes, electric current is caused by “Tunnelling”.
(ii) A light-emitting diode (LED) is a semiconductor device that
emits light when an electric current is passed through it. Light is
produced when the particles that carry the current (known as
electrons and holes) combine together within the semiconductor
material.
(iii) A photodiode is a semiconductor p-n junction device that
converts light into an electrical current. The current is generated
when photons are absorbed in the photodiode.
(iv) A Zener diode is a heavily doped semiconductor device that is
designed to operate in the reverse direction. It not only allows
current to flow from anode to cathode but also, in the reverse
direction on reaching the Zener voltage.
(v) Varactor diode is a type of diode whose internal capacitance
varies with respect to the reverse voltage. It always works in
reverse bias condition and is a voltage-dependent semiconductor
device.
Q14. What is depletion layer in a PN junction diode? Draw a full
wave rectifier circuit having two nos. of diode only. Write down
its limitation.
ANS- (i) The depletion region, also called depletion layer, is an
insulating region within a conductive, doped semiconductor
material where the mobile charge carriers have been diffused
away, or have been forced away by an electric field. The only
elements left in the depletion region are ionized donor or acceptor
impurities.
(ii)

Limitations of two diode full wave rectifier are:

(a) Cost of centre tap transformer is high which makes the circuit
costly.
(b) This rectifier is difficult to locate the center tap on the
secondary winding.
(c) The DC output is small as using each of diode utilized only one-
half of the transformer secondary voltages.
(d) High PIV rating diodes are required for this circuit which
increases the size of diode and also its cost.

Q15. Classify crystals as per their structure atoms, conductivity.

ANS- Crystal structure is a description of the ordered arrangement
of atoms, ions or molecules in a crystalline material. The unit cell
completely reflects the symmetry and structure of the entire
crystal.
Q.16. Draw a neat sketch of a Underground cable & describe the
function of its various parts.
ANS-
NEAT SKETCH:

(i) CONDUCTOR- Conductors are the only power carrying path in a

power cable.
(ii) INSULATION- Provided to insulate the conductor from other
parts of the cable. Mainly made of PVC, XLPE.
(iii) INNER SHEATH- It works as a binder for insulated conductors
together in multi-core power cables and provides bedding to
armour.
(iv) ARMOUR- It is used mainly for providing an earthing shield to
the current-carrying conductors as well as it is also used for
earthing purposes of the cable for safety.
(v) OUTER SHEATH- This is the outermost cover of the cable
normally made of PVC (Poly Vinyl Chloride), RUBBER (Various
Types of Rubber), and often the same material as the bedding. It is
provided over the armour for overall mechanical, weather,
chemical, and electrical protection.

Q.17. Draw a sketch of a triple core triple stranded cable.

ANS-

Q.18. '7x22 Copper PVC wire' : Decode the meaning the quotation.
ANS-
Q.19. Draw a line diagram of a Transmission & distribution line,
begin from generating station.
ANS-
Q.20. Draw a neat sketch of a 132/25 kV traction sub-station,
indicate its significant equipments with their position &
functions.
ANS-
Q.21. Explain with diagram the band theory of conducting
materials.
ANS- Band theory diagram is given below:

Conduction band- It is the region where if electrons are present

then they have sufficient energy to move freely. Electrons jump
from valence band to conduction band by gaining energy.
Valence band- The valence band is simply the outermost electron
orbital of an atom of any specific material that electrons actually
occupy.
(i) METALS- Valence band and conduction band overlap in metals
and so there are ample no. of free electrons present in metals for
conduction.

(ii) semi-conductors- Valence band and conduction band have very

small energy gap and so the electrons can jump to conduction
band when little energy (close to 1eV) is supplied to it.

(iii) Insulators- There is a large energy gap between the valence

and conduction band and so no free electrons are there in the
material.
Q.22. Draw & explain the rectification process in Bridge rectifier?
ANS-

A bridge rectifier is shown in figure. There are four diodes D1, D2,
D3 and D4 used in the circuit, which are connected to form a
network. The input ends A and C of the network are connected to
the secondary ends S1 and S2 of the transformer. The output ends
B and D are connected to the load resistance RL.
During positive input half cycle of the arc voltage, the point A is
positive with respect to C. The diodes D1 and D3 are forward biased
and conduct, whereas the diodes D2 and D4 are reverse biased and
do not conduct.

Hence, current flows along S1ABCDS2 through RL. During negative

half cycle, the point C is positive with respect to A. The diodes D2
and D4 are forward biased and conduct, whereas the diodes D1
and D3 are reverse biased and they do not conduct. Hence, current
flows along S2CBADS1 through RL. The same process is repeated
for subsequent half cycles. It can be seen that current flows
through RL in the same direction, during both half cycles of the
input a.c. signal.

Q.23. What is String efficiency of insulator?

ANS- The string efficiency is defined as the ratio of voltage across
the string to the product of the number of strings and the voltage
across the unit adjacent string.

Q.24. Differentiate between

(i) Fuse vs relay
ANS- A fuse is an autonomous protection device that interrupts
the circuit when the current is too high. It is a onetime device
primarily for protection and safety. It has two terminals that are
normally connected in a near short but when activated the device
becomes non-continuous with a near perfect open circuit.
A relay is a device that interrupts the circuit too. But it is controlled
by external signal requiring at least two more terminals. The
normal state can be an electrical connection but it can also be an
interruption (open circuit). It can be operated a nearly unlimited
number of times, limited by mechanical wear-out.
(ii) Fuse vs Circuit breaker
ANS- While a fuse is made of a piece of metal that melts when
overheated, circuit breakers on the other hand, have internal
switch mechanisms that can be tripped by an unsafe surge of
electricity.
Fuses can be quicker for interrupting the flow of power, but when
they melt they must be replaced; circuit breakers on the other
hand just need to be reset.

(iii) CB vs relay.
ANS- (i) The Relay is a switching device which gives a signal to the
circuit breaker as soon as the fault occurs in the power system.
Circuit breaker breaks the circuit automatically when receives the
signal from the relay.
(ii) The Relay does not break the contact. It only senses the error
and sends the signal to the circuit breaker.
Circuit breaker breaks the circuit contacts.
(iii) The Relay is a switching and sensing device.
The Circuit breaker is an isolating or disconnecting device.
(iv) Relays operate on low power input voltage.
The Circuit breaker is an automatic on load device.
(iv) VCB vs SF6 CB
ANS-
DESCRIPTION VCB SF6
MV (Medium High Voltage and
a. Voltage Voltage) from 11kV EHV application
up to 33 kV above 11kV to 1010
application
kV
b. Arc Quenching Vacuum SF6 Gas
Medium
10^-2 to 10^-6 torr 2 – 2.5 bar SF6 gas
vacuum pressure is pressure to be
c. Medium Pressure
maintained in the maintained
vacuum camper
In VCB, there is no SF6 gas can be
chance of re-filling refilled upon
process, upon failure decreasing in gas
d. Refilling of vacuum we pressure. The
should replace the process is just like
vacuum container. filling air to your car
Therefore in VCB we tire.
do replacement
e. Working Principle Free electron cannot SF6 Gases are
be formed in absorbed the free
vacuum, Since the electron, which is
vacuum filled In developed by the
between the male electric arc. Basically
and female contact.
Sulphur hexafluoride
Whenever the circuit
(SF6) is an inert,
breaker interrupts, heavy gas having
the arc will be
 quenched by good dielectric and
vacuum. arc extinguishing
properties. It has
high die-electric
strength and
outstanding arc
quenching
characteristics.

Q.25. Write down the chemical reaction a Lead acid cell during
charging & discharging?
ANS-
(i) Charging a lead-acid battery:
AT CATHODE: PbSO4 + 2e- => Pb + SO42-.
AT ANODE: PbSO4 + 2H2O => PbO2 + SO42- + 4H- + 2e-.
COMBINING BOTH: 2PbSO4 + 2H2O => PbO2 + Pb + 2H2SO4.
(ii) Discharging a lead-acid battery:
AT CATHODE: Pb + SO42- => PbSO4 + 2e-.
AT ANODE: PbO2 + SO42- + 4H- + 2e- => PbSO4 + 2H2O.
COMBINING BOTH: PbO2 + Pb + 2H2SO4 => 2PbSO4 + 2H2O.
MCQ

1. Transmission & Distribution :

Q1. By which of the following method electric power may be
transmitted from one location to another location?

(a) Under Ground System (b) Overhead system

(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above.

ANS- (c) Both (a) and (b).

Q 2. Which of the following transmission line have more initial

cost?
(a) Overhead Transmission (b) Underground transmission
(c) Both have almost the same initial cost.
(d) None of the above.

ANS- (b) Unground cables.

Q 3. Name the cable or conductor which connects the distributor

to the consumer terminals.

(a)Service Mains (b) Distributor

(c) Feeders (d) None of the above.

ANS- (a) SERVICE MAINS.

Q 4. Which of the following are the constants of the transmission

lines?
(a) Inductance (b) Capacitance
(c)Resistance (d) All of the above

ANS- (d) ALL OF THE ABOVE.

Q5. The phenomenon of rising in voltage at the receiving end of
the open-circuited or lightly loaded line is called as:
(a) Roman Effect (b) Skin Effect
(c) Corona Effect (d) Ferranti Effect

ANS- (d) FERRANTI EFFECT.

Q6. The operating voltage of high tension cables is up to

(a) 1 – 11 kV (b) 11 – 20 kV
(c) 11 – 33 kV (d) above 33 Kv

ANS- (a) 1-11 Kv.

Q 7. Which of the following methods is used for laying of

underground cables?
(a) Direct laying (b) Solid system
(c) Draw-in-system (d) All of the Above.

ANS- (d) ALL OF THE ABOVE.

Q8. Which of the following is the source of heat generation in the

cables?
(a) Dielectric losses in cable insulation (b) Conductor losses
(c) Sheath loses (d) All of the above.

ANS- (d) ALL OF THE ABOVE.

Q 9. Due to which of the following reasons Underground cables

should not be operated too hot?
(a) The oil may lose its viscosity and it may start drawing off from
higher levels.
(b) Expansion of the oil may cause the sheath to burst.
(c) Unequal expansion may create voids in the insulation which will
lead to ionization.
(d) All of the above.

ANS- (d) ALL OF THE ABOVE.

Q10. Besides a method of trial and error, which of the following

methods is employed for the solution of network problems in an
interconnected system?
(a) Kirchhoff’s laws (b) Superposition of currents
(c) Thevenin’s theorem (d) All of the above

ANS- (d) ALL OF THE ABOVE.

Q11. A booster is a :
(a) Synchronous generator (b) Shunt-wound generator
(c) Series wound generator (d) None of the above.

ANS- (c) SERIES-WOUND GENERATOR.

Q 12. Which of the following D.C. distribution system is the

simplest and lowest in cost?
(a) Radial system (b) Inter-connected system
(c) Ring system (d) Any of the above.

ANS- (a) RADIAL SYSTEM.

Q13. Which of the following faults is most likely to occur in cables?

(a) Breakdown of cable insulation (b) Cross or short-circuit fault
(c) None of the above. (d) Any of (a) & (b).

ANS- (d) ANY OF (a) AND (b).

Q14. High voltage transmission lines use
(a) Suspension insulators (b) Pin insulators
(c) Any of the above (d) None of the above

ANS- (a) SUSPENSION INSULATOR.

Q 15. Multi core cables generally use

(a) Square conductors (b) Rectangular conductors
(c) Sector-shaped conductors. (d) Circular conductors.

ANS- (c) SECTOR-SHAPED CONDUCTORS.

Q 16. The material commonly used for insulation in high voltage

cables is
(a) Rubber (b) Paper (c) Lead (d) Any of the above.

ANS- (b) PAPER.

Q 17. High voltage overhead lines are generally made of :

(a) A.C.S.R. conductors (b) Copper conductors
(c) Aluminium conductors (d) Any of the above

ANS- (a) ACSR CONDUCTOR.

.

Q 18. The power factor of industrial loads is generally

(a) Unity (b) Lagging
(c) Leading (d) Any of the above.

ANS- (b) LAGGING.

Q19. The material generally used for the armour of high voltage
cables is
(a) Copper (b) Brass
(c) Aluminium (d) Steel

ANS- (d) STEEL.

Q20. In transmission lines, the cross-arms are made of
(a) Steel (b) Wood
(c) R.C.C (d) Either Steel or Wood

ANS- (a) STEEL.

2. SPEED CONTROL METHODS OF TRACTION MOTOR

Q 21. Which speed control method is preferred for constant torque

drive?
(a) Field control. (b) Armature voltage control.
(c) Mechanical loading system. (d) None of above.

ANS- (b) ARMATURE VOLTAGE CONTROL.

Q.22. While operating on variable frequency supplies, the AC

motor requires variable voltage in order to :
(a) Protect the insulation.
(b) Avoid effect of saturation.
(c) Improve the capabilities of the inverter.
(d) Protect thyristor from dV / dt.

ANS- (b) AVOID EFFECT OF SATURATION.

Q.23.The concept of V/f control of inverters driving induction

motors results in
(a) Constant torque operation. (b) Speed reversal.
(c) Reduced magnetic loss (d) Harmonic elimination.

ANS- (a) CONSTANT TORQUE OPERATION.

.
Q.24. V/f is maintained constant in the following case of speed
control of induction motor:
(a) Below base speed with voltage control.
(b) Below the base speed with frequency- control.
(c) Above base speed with frequency control.
(d) None of these.

ANS- (b) BELOW THE BASE SPEED WITH FREQUENCY CONTROL.

Q.25. Which of the following methods is used to control speed of

25 kV, 50 Hz single phase traction system?
(a) Reduced current method.
(b) Tap changing control of transformer.
(c) Series parallel operation of motors.
(d) All of the above.

ANS- (b) TAP CHANGING CONTROL OF TRANSFORMER.

Q.26. Speed control by variation of field flux results in __________.

(a) Constant power drive. (b) Constant torque drive.
(c) Variable power drive. (d) None of the above.

ANS- (a) CONSTANT POWER DRIVE.

Q.27. Which braking is not possible in series motor?

(a) Regenerative braking. (b) Dynamic braking.
(c) Counter current braking. (d) Rheostat braking.

ANS- (a) REGENERATIVE BRAKING.

Q28. In VVVF method of speed control, which one is variable?
(a) Voltage. (b) Frequency.
(c) Both of (a) & (b). (d) None of the above.

ANS-(c) BOTH (a) AND (b).

Q.29. In VVVF method of speed control is ___________.

(a) Constant torque method. (b) Constant power method.
(c) Both (a) & (b). (d)None of the above.

ANS- (a) CONSTANT TORQUE METHOD.

Q.30. Which of the following braking systems on the locomotives

is costly?
(a) Regenerative braking on electric locomotives.
(b) Vacuum braking on diesel locomotives.
(c) Vacuum braking on steam locomotives.
(d) All braking systems are equally costly.

ANS- (a) REGENERATIVE BRAKING ON ELECTRIC LOCOMOTIVE.

Q.31. For given maximum axle load tractive efforts of AC.

locomotive will be :
(a) Less than that of D.C. locomotive.
(b) More than that of D.C. locomotive.
(c) Equal to that of D.C. locomotive.
(d) None of the above.

ANS- (b) MORE THAN THAT OF DC LOCOMOTIVES.

Q.32. The friction at the track is proportional to
(a) 1/speed. (b) 1 /(speed)2 (c) Speed. (d)None of the above.

ANS- (c) SPEED.

3. MAGNETISM
33. Indicate which of the following material does not retain
magnetism permanently.
(a) Soft iron (b) Stainless steel
(c) Hardened steel (d) None of the above.

ANS- (a) SOFT IRON.

34. The ratio of intensity of magnetization to the

magnetization force is known as
(a) Flux density (b) Magnetic Susceptibility
(c) Relative permeability (d) None of the above.

ANS- (b) MAGNETIC SUSCEPTIBILITY.

35.Which of the following is not a unit of flux?

(a) Maxwell (b) Tesla (c) Weber (d) All of the above

ANS- (b) TESLA.

36. A permeable substance is one

(a) Which is a good conductor. (b) Which is a bad conductor.
(c) Which is a strong magnet.
(d) Through which the magnetic lines of force can pass very easily.

ANS- (d) THROUGH WHICH THE MAGNETIC LINES OF FORCE CAN

PASS VERY EASILY.

37 . For which of the following is magnetic susceptibility negative?

(a) Paramagnetic and Ferromagnetic materials
(b) Paramagnetic Materials only
(c) Ferromagnetic Materials only
(d) Diamagnetic Materials.

ANS-(d) DIAMAGNETIC MATERIAL.

38.The magnetic reluctance of a material
(a) Decreases with increasing cross sectional area of material
(b) Increases with increasing cross-sectional area of material
(c) Does not vary with increasing cross-sectional area of material
(d) Any of the above.

ANS- (a) DECREASES WITH INCREASING CROSS SECTIONAL AREA

OF MATERIAL.

39. A long magnet is cut into two parts such that the ratio of their
lengths is 2:1. What is the ratio pole strength of both the section?
(a) 1:2 (b) 2:1 (c) 4:1 (d) Equal

ANS- (d) EQUAL.

40. When the speed at which a conductor is moved through a

magnetic field is increased, the induced voltage:
(a) Increases (b) Decreases
(c) Remain constant (d) Reaches zero.

ANS- (a) INCREASES.

41. The magnetism left in the iron after exciting field has been
removed is known as
(a) Permeance (b) Residual magnetism
(c) Susceptance (d) Reluctance.

ANS- (b) RESIDUAL MAGNETISM.

42. Susceptibility is positive for

(a) Nonmagnetic substances (b) Diamagnetic substances
(c) Ferromagnetic substances (d) None of the above

ANS- (c) FERROMAGNETIC MATERIAL.

4. ECBC

43.ECBC stands for :

(a) Energy conservation building code.
(b) Efficient conservation building code.
(c) Efficiency conservation building code.
(d) Energy conservation bureau code.

ANS- (a) ENERGY CONSERVATION BUILDING CODE.

44.BEE stands for :

(a) Bureau of energy efficiency.
(b) Biology of energy efficiency.
(c) Beauty of energy efficiency.
(d) Biological energy efficiency.

ANS- (a) BUREAU OF ENERGY EFFICIENCY.

45.ECBC was launched in the year

(a) 2007 (b)2009 (c)2005 (d)2006

ANS- (a) 2007-27 MARCH

46. ECBC is applicable to all building or building complexes that

have connected load of
(a) 120Kw (b) 100Kw (c) 130Kw (d) 140Kw

ANS- (b) 100KW.

47.EPI stands for :

(a) Energy Performance Index.
(b) Efficiency Performance Index.
(c) Energy Proficiency Index.
(d) Energy Priority Index.
ANS- (a) ENERGY PERFORMANCE INDEX.
48. U value is the measure of
(a) Magnetic loss (b) Heat loss
(c) Mechanical loss (d) Electrical loss.

ANS- (b) HEAT LOSS.

49. ECBC is applicable for:

(a) Only private building (b) Only Govt building
(c)) Both Govt and private building (d) None of the above.

ANS- (a) ONLY PRIVATE BUILDINGS.

50. ECBC was launched by

(a) ministry of power (b) ministry of science
(c) Ministry of environment (d) ministry of education.

ANS- (a) MINISTRY OF POWER.

5. WIRING DIAGRAM OF HOUSE

51. Which set of rules are to be verified on the completion of wiring

on any new installation?
(a) Indian electricity rules,1950 (b) Indian electricity rules, 1956
(c) Indian electricity rules,1960 (d) None of these.

ANS- (b) INDIAN ELECTRICITY RULES, 1956.

52. What is the maximum load that can be connected in a circuit

connecting only lighting points?
(a) 500 Watts (b) 750 Watts (c) 800 Watts (d) 1000 Watts

ANS- (a) 500 Watts.

53. Which among these is a type of batten wiring?

1. Using metal-sheathed wiring 2. Using TRS or PVC wires
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of these.

ANS- (c) BOTH 1 AND 2.

54. what is the factor of safety for current rating in a power

installation ?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 1.5

ANS- (a) 2.

55. what is the maximum load permitted in a power circuit?

(a) 3000W ( b) 4500W (c) 2000W (d) 5000W

ANS- (a) 3000W.

56. What is the permissible tolerance to low and medium voltage
according to IE Rules 1956?
(a) ±6% of declared value (b) ±5% of declared value
(c) ±4.5% of declared value (d) ±3% of declared value

ANS- (a) ±6% of declared value.

57. What is the maximum no. of lighting points that can be

connected in a circuit?
(a) 10 (b) 8 (c) 11 (d) 9

ANS- (b) 8.

58. The leakage current must not be ___________ of the maximum

supply current?
(a) 1/4000 (b) 1/4500 (c) 1/5000 (d) 1/3000

ANS- (c) 1/5000.

59. In an electric line, a switch is connected to which of the

following wire?
(a) Earth (b) Phase (c) Neutral (d) Not connected.

ANS- (b) PHASE.

60. What is an electrical schedule?

(i). A list or a plan of a building providing information of number of
points in each room.
(ii).The list of all the electrical components required for a particular
room.
(iii).The list of all the electrical components along with their prices.

(a) Only (i) (b) only (ii)

(c) Both (ii) and (iii) (d) none of these.
ANS- (a) ONLY (i).
61. Peak to peak value of a sine wave is
(a) Equal to the maximum or phase value of sine wave.
(b) Twice the maximum or phase value of sine wave.
(c) Half of the maximum or phase value of sine wave.
(d) Four times the maximum or phase value of sine wave.

ANS- (b) TWICE THE MAXIMUM OR PHASE VALUE OF SINE WAVE.

62. When an ac power is applied to a reactive load, then the

voltage is
(a) In phase with the current.
(b) 900 out of phase with the current.
(c) 1800 out of phase with the current.
(d) 2700 out of phase with the current.

ANS- (b) 900 OUT OF PHASE WITH THE CURRENT.

63. In an A.C. circuit power is dissipated in :

(a). Resistance only (b) Inductance only
(c) Capacitance only (d) None of the above.

ANS- (a) RESISTANCE ONLY.

64. In a pure inductive circuit if the supply frequency is reduced to

1/2, the current will
(a) Be reduced by half (b) Be doubled
(c) Be four times as high (d) Be reduced to one fourth.

ANS- (b) BE DOUBLED.

65. The time constant of a series R-C circuit is given by
(a) R/C (b) RC2 (c) RC (d) R2C

ANS- (c) RC.

6. Generation, Tariff, CB, Relay & Protection system

66. World Energy Needs are rising due to _________

(a) Deforestation (b) increasing population and Industrialization.
(c) Inflation (d) natural calamities.

ANS- (b) INCREASING POPULATION AND INDUSTRIALIZATION.

67. The availability of Renewable energy sources is _____

(a) Uncertain (b) constant (c) high (d) regular.

ANS- (a) UNCERTAIN.

68. Renewable energy-based power plants have ______

(a) Negligible fuel cost (b) low energy availability
(c) Negligible production capacity (d) low fuel storage tanks.

ANS- (a) NEGLIGIBLE FUEL COST.

69. Most of the Renewable energy sources are ________

(a) location-specific (b) universally available
(c) Highly efficient (d) polluting.

ANS- (a) LOCATION SPECIFIC.

70. The most nuclear fuel used in the world is________________

a) Thorium – 232 (b) Uranium – 238
(c) Uranium – 235 (d) Plutonium – 239.

ANS- (c) URANIUM-235.

71. Energy in the form of heat and light is obtained from________
(a) Biomass (b) Fossil fuels (c) The Sun (d) Wind.

ANS- (c) THE SUN.

72. Trapped heat inside the earth is known as_______________

(a) Heat energy (b) Kinetic energy
(c) Geothermal energy (d) Thermal energy.

ANS- (c) GEOTHERMAL ENERGY.

73. A Solar cell is an electrical device that converts the energy of

light directly into electricity by :
(a) Photovoltaic effect (b) Chemical effect
(c) Atmospheric effect (d) Physical effect.

ANS- (a) PHOTOVOLTAIC EFFECT.

74. The main composition of bio-gas is _______________

(a) Methane (b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Nitrogen (d) Hydrogen.

ANS- (a) METHANE.

75. Which Ministry is mainly responsible for research and

development in renewable energy sources such as wind power,
small hydro, biogas and solar power?

(a) Human Resource Development.

(b) Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
(c) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy.
(d) Health and Family Welfare.

ANS- (c) MINISTRY OF NEW AND RENEWABLE ENERGY.

76. The most abundantly available fossil fuel in India is _____
(a) Coal (b) Natural Gas (c) Petroleum (d) Oil.

ANS- (a) COAL.

77. Which of the following states of India has high potentials for
solar energy?
(a) West Bengal (b) Odisha (c) Rajasthan (d) Karnataka.

ANS- (c) RAJASTHAN.

78. Which of the following is a non-renewable energy resource?

(a) Coal (b) Water (c) Wind (d) Solar.

ANS- (a) COAL.

79. The source of energy used for satellites is __________

(a) Solar Cells (b) Edison Cells (c) Fuel Cells (d) Chemical Cells.

ANS- (a) SOLAR CELLS.

80. In solar cells _________ material is used

(a) Copper (b) Silver (c) Silicon (d) None of the above.

ANS- (c) SILICON.

81. In an open loop control system :

(a) Output is independent of control input.
(b) Output is dependent on control input.
(c) Only system parameters have effect on the control output.
(d) None of the above.

ANS- (a) OUTPUT IS INDEPENDENT OF CONTROL INPUT.

82. A closed loop system is distinguished from open loop system
by which of the following?
(a) Servomechanism (b) Feedback
(c) Output pattern (d) Input pattern.

ANS- (b) FEEDBACK.

83. ______________ is a closed loop system.

(a) Auto-pilot for an aircraft (b) Direct current generator
(c) Car starter (d) Electric switch.

ANS- (a) AUTO-PILOT FOR AN AIRCRAFT.

84. Advantages of open loop control system is/are :

(a) Simple and economical. (b) Accurate.
(c) Reliable. (d) all of the above.

ANS- (a) SIMPLE AND ECONOMICAL.

85. Which of the following are the disadvantages of a closed loop

control system?
(a) Reduces the overall gain. (b) Complex and costly.
(c) Oscillatory response. (d) All of the above.

ANS- (d) ALL OF THE ABOVE.

86. Which of the following is/are the disadvantages of an open

loop control system?
(a) Inaccurate. (b) Unreliable.
(c) Both 1 and 2. (d) None of the above.

ANS- (c) BOTH 1 AND 2.

87.Out of the following which one is conventional source of
energy?
(a) Tidal power (b) Wind power
(c) Geo-thermal power (d) Hydel power.

ANS- (d) HYDEL POWER.

88. Pulverised coal is :

(a) Coal free from ash.
(b) Smoke free coal.
(c) coal which burns for long time.
(d) coal broken into fine particles.

ANS- (d) COAL BROKEN INTO FINE PARTICLES.

89. Coal used in power plant is known as :

(a) Steam coal (b) Coke (c) Charcoal (d) Soft coal.

ANS- (a) STEAM COAL.

90. Load factor of a Power station is :

(a) =1 (b) <1 (c) >1
(d) None of the above.

ANS- (b) <1.

91. Load curve helps in deciding:

(a) Total installation capacity of the plant.
(b) Capacity of the Generating unit.
(c) Operating schedule of the Generating unit.
(d) All of the above.

ANS- (d) ALL OF THE ABOVE.

92. Load factor of a power station the ratio between:
(a) Max. Demand: Avg. load (b) Avg. load: Max. Demand
(c) Max. Demand: Plant capacity (d) Any of the above.

ANS- (b) AVG. LOAD: MAX. DEMAND.

93. In a load curve the highest point represents as :

(a) Peak demand (b) Avg. demand
(c) Diversity factor (d) All of the above.

ANS- (a) PEAK DEMAND.

94. Running cost of power plant is determined by:

(a) Cost of fuel or energy (b) Cost of equipments installed
(c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of the above.

ANS- (a) COST OF FUEL OR ENERGY.

95. Basically a lighting arrester is a :

(a) Surge diverter (b) surge arrester
(c) Surge reflector (d) surge absorber.

ANS- (a) SURGE DIVERTER.

96. A lightning arrester provides:

(a) Low impedance path (b) high impedance path
(c) Low resistance path (d) high resistance path.

ANS- (a) LOW IMPEDANCE PATH.

97. Lighting arrester is used in power system to protect electrical
equipment against:
(a) Direct stroke of lightning.
(b) Overvoltage due to indirect lightning stroke.
(c) Power frequency overvoltage.
(d) Over current due to lightning.

ANS- (b) OVERVOLTAGE DUE TO INDIRECT LIGHTNING STROKE.

98. Which of the following is the protective device against

lightning overvoltage:
(a) Rod gap (b) Surge absorber
(c) Horn gap (d) All of the above.

ANS- (d) ALL OF THE ABOVE.

99. Impulse ratio of lightning arrester should be:

(a) high (b) low (c) medium (d) very high.

ANS- (b) LOW.

100. In substation the most commonly seen arrester is :

(a) Rod gap (b) Metal oxide type.
(c) Horn gap (d) All of these.

ANS- (b) METAL OXIDE TYPE.

101. The primary function of fuse is to :
(a) Open the circuit (b) protect the appliance
(c) Protect the line
(d) Prevent excessive current flow from the circuit.

ANS- (d) PREVENT EXCESSIVE CURRENT FLOW FROM THE

CIRCUIT.

102. Resistance Earthing is employed for the voltage range

between
(a) 3.3 to 11kV (b) 11 to 33 kV (c) 33 to 66 kV (d) 66 to 132 kV.

ANS- (a) 3.3 TO 11KV.

103. The method of neutral grounding affects the:

(a) Positive sequence network.
(b) Negative sequence network.
(c) Zero sequence networks.
(d) Both positive & Zero sequence network.

ANS- (c) ZERO SEQUENCE NETWORKS.

104. The purpose of Earthing Electrical appliances is :

(a) To Ensure that the appliance save the current.
(b) To safety against shock.
(c) To Ensure that the appliance get the full voltage.
(d) Any of the above.

ANS- (b) TO SAFETY AGAINST SHOCK.

105. What should be the value of Earthing resistance for large
power station?
(a) 1ohm (b) 0.5 ohm (c) 2 ohm (d) 5 ohm.

ANS- (b) 0.5 OHMS.

106. In IS standard colour code for earth wire is

(a) Black ( b) yellow (c) Green (d) None of the above.

ANS- (c) GREEN.

107. What type of Earthing is used for Transmission line?

(a) Plate (b) Pipe (c) Strip (d) Both Plate & strip.

ANS- (c) STRIP.

108. A circuit breaker normally operates

(a) When the power is to be supplied.
(b) When the line is to be tested.
(c) When the switch is to be put on.
(d) Whenever fault occurs in the line.

ANS- (d) WHENEVER FAULT OCCURS IN THE LINE.

109. Sparking between contacts can be e reduced by inserting

(a) a capacitor in series with contactor.
(b) a register in the line.
(c) a capacitor in parallel with contacts.
(d) a reactor in the line.

ANS- (c) A CAPACITOR IN PARALLEL WITH CONTACTS.

110. In CB the contact space is ionised by
(a) Field emission from the contact surface.
(b) Thermal eruption from the contact surface.
(c) Thermal ionization of gas.
(d) Any of the above.

ANS- (d) ANY OF THE ABOVE.

111. Arc voltage in CBE is :

(a) Legging the arc current why 900.
(b) Leading the arc current by 900.
(c) In the phase with the arc current
(d) Lagging the arc current by 1800.

ANS- (b) LEADING THE ARC CURRENT BY 900.

112. The rate of rise of re-striking voltage are depends on :

(a) Type of CB. (b) Capacitance of system only.
(c) Inductance of system only.
(d) Inductance and capacitance of the systems.

ANS- (d) INDUCTANCE AND CAPACITANCE OF THE SYSTEMS.

113. Main purpose of oil in is:

(a) To provide insulation (b) provide cooling off contacts
(c) Quenching arc (d) none of the above.

ANS- (a) TO PROVIDE INSULATION.

114. Air used in air blast CB must :
(a) Be free from moisture (b) Be free from moisture
(c) Have less CO2 (d) Have oil mist.

ANS- (d) HAVE OIL MIST.

115. The re-striking voltage is measured in :

(a) RMS value (b) peak value
(c) Instantaneous value. (d) Average value.

ANS- (b) PEAK VALUE.

116. Which of the following circuit breaker is generally used in

railway electrification?
(a) Air blast (b) minimum oil
(c) Bulk oil circuit breaker (d) SF6 type.

ANS- (a) AIR BLAST.

117. Which of the following circuit breaker has the lowest

operating voltage?
(a) SF6 type (b) Air break (c) air blast (d) minimum oil.

ANS- (b) AIR BREAK CB.

118. The rating of circuit breaker is usually determined on the basis

of ______fault.
(a) Symmetrical fault (b) line to line fault
(c) Single line to ground fault (d) double line to ground fault.

ANS- (a) SYMMETRICAL FAULT.

119. When voltage is high but current is low and has to be
interrupted, then the circuit breaker preferred is
(a) Air breaks (b) Vacuum (c) Oil CB (d) Air blast.

ANS- (b) VACUUM.

120. Current rating is not necessary in case of

(a) Isolator (b) C.B. (c) fuse (d) Load break switch.

ANS- (a) ISOLATORS.

121. The actuating quantity for relay is

(a) Magnetic (b) Frequency
(c) Phase angle (d) Any of the above..

ANS- (d) ANY OF THE ABOVE.

122. A bimetallic strips in a thermal relay consists of two metal strip

of different
(a) Specific heat (b) Thermal conductivity
(c) Coefficient of expansion (d) All of the above.

ANS- (c) COEFFICIENT OF EXPANSION.

123. Buchholz’s relay is located on

(a) conservator tank (b) Transformer tank itself
(c) Between pipe containing main tank &conservator
(d) Installed in CB.

ANS- (c) BETWEEN PIPE CONTAINING MAIN TANK

&CONSERVATOR.
124. Buchholz’s relay protects transformer from
(a) Over current fault (b) over voltage fault
(c) Internal fault (d) Any of the above.

ANS- (c) INTERNAL FAULTS.

125. Relay used for short transmission line is

(a) Reactance relay (b) Impedance relay
(c) Mho relay (d) IDMT relay.

ANS- (a) REACTANCE RELAY.

126. Moh relay is usually employed for the protection of

(a) short line (b) medium line
(c) long line (d) Any of the above.

ANS- (c) LONG LINE.

127. Differential relays are used for protection of

(a) Alternator (b) Transformer
(c) Any of the (a) &(b) (d)None of the above.

ANS- (c) ANY OF (a) AND (b).

7. Electronics

1. When a pure semiconductor is heated, its resistance:

(a) Goes up (b) Goes down
(c) Remain same (d) cannot say.

ANS- (b) GOES DOWN.

2. In semiconductor current conduction is possible due to:

(a) Holes only (b) Free electrons only
(c) Both (a)& (b) (d) None of these.

ANS- (c) BOTH (a) AND (b).

3. The barrier voltage at PN junction for Ge semiconductor is :

(a) 5eV (b) 3eV (c) 7eV (d) 7eV.

ANS- (c) 7Ev.

4. A PN junction diode acts as :

(a) A controlled switch (b) Unidirectional switch
(c) Bidirectional switch (d) Any of the above.

ANS- (b) UNIDIRECTIONAL SWITCH.

5. The leakage current in a PN junction diode is due to the:

(a) Majority carrier (b) Minority carrier
(c) Junction capacitance (d) Any of the above.

ANS- (b) MINORITY CARRIERS.

6. The lowest frequency could pass through a low-pass filter is :
(a) 1 Hz (b) 10 Hz (c) 1MHz (d)10 MHz .

ANS- (a) 1 Hz.

7. All pas filter are designed to provide :

(a) Group delay (b) Time delay
(c) Phase delay (d) Phase shift.

ANS- (d) PHASE SHIFTS.

8. A crystal diode is a _____________ device.

(a) Linear (b) Non-linear
(c) Amplifying (d) None of the above.

ANS- (b) NON LINEAR DEVICE.

9. A Zener diode is used as :

(a) An amplifier (b) A rectifier
(c) A voltage regulator (d) None of the above.

ANS- (c) A VOLTAGE REGULATOR.

10. In a breakdown region a Zener diode is behaves like a :

(a) Constant Voltage (b) Constant current
(c) Constant resistance (d) None of the above.

ANS- (a) CONSTANT VOLTAGE.

11. A PN junction, that radiates light instead of heat is known as :
(a) LED (b) Photo diode
(c) Photo cell (d) Any of the above.

ANS- (a) LED.

12. To full-wave rectification minimum nos. of diodes required are :

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) Cannot say.

ANS- (a) 2.

13. A MOSFET differs from JFET mainly because :

(a) Of power rating (b)The MOSFET has two gates
(c) The JFET has one P-N junction (d) None of the above.

ANS- (c) THE JFET HAS ONE P-N JUNCTION.

14. The gate voltage in a JFET at which drain current become zero
is called _________ Voltage.
(a)Saturation (b) Pinch off
(c) Active (d) Cut-off.

ANS- (b) PINCH OFF.

15. A JFET has high input impedance because

(a) It is made of semiconductor material.
(b) Input is reverse biased.
(c) Of impurity atoms.
(d) None of the above.

ANS- (b) INPUT IS REVERSE BIASED.

16. A JFET is a ____ driven device
(a) Current (b) Voltage
(c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of the above.

ANS- (b) VOLTAGE.

17. A MOSFET has _ _____________terminals.

(a) Two (b) Three (c) Four (d) Five.

ANS- (b) THREE.

18. In a FET, there are __________ Nos. of PN junctions.

(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four.

ANS- (b) TWO.

19. An SCR behaves as :

(a) Unidirectional switch (b) Bi- directional switch
(c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of the above.

ANS- (a) UNIDIRECTIONAL SWITCH.

20. An SCR has ________ Nos. of PN junctions.

(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four.

ANS- (c) THREE.

21. The nos. of semiconductor layers on SCR are ________.

(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four.

ANS- (d) FOUR.

22. An SCR is made of ___.
(a) Ge (b) Si (c) C (d) None of the above.

ANS- (b) Si.

23. An SCR is called ___

(a) Triac (b) Diac (c) Thyristor (d) Any of the above.

ANS- (c) THYRISTOR.

24. The control element of a SCR is ______
(a) Cathode (b) Anode (c) Gate (d) Anode supply.

ANS- (c) GATE.

25 . An SCR is a ___ ________ triggered device.

(a) Current (b) Voltage
(c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of the above.

ANS- (a) CURRENT.

26. The nos. of depletion layers in a Transistor is/are:

(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four.

ANS- (b) TWO.

27. A transistor has _________ nos. of PN junctions.

(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four.

ANS- (b) TWO.

28. The base of Transistor is ______ doped.
(a) High (b) Low
(c) Moderate (d) Any of the above.

ANS- (b) LOW.

29. Ina PNP transistor current carriers are:

(a) Acceptor ions (b) Donner ions
(c) Free electrons (d) Holes.

ANS- (d) HOLES.

30. A transistor is a _____________operated device.

(a) Current (b) Voltage
(c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of the above.

ANS- (a) CURRENT.

31. The input impedance of a transistor is :

(a) High (b) Low (c) Moderate (d) Almost zero.

ANS- (b) LOW.

32. Choose the correct statement

(a) IGBTs have higher switching losses as compared to BJTs
(b) IGBTs have secondary breakdown problems
(c) IGBTs have lower gate drive requirements
(d) IGBTs are current controlled devices.

ANS- (c) IGBTs HAVE LOWER GATE DRIVE REQUIREMENTS.

33. The approximate equivalent circuit of an IGBT consists of
(a) a BJT & a MOSFET (b) a MOSFET & a MCT
(c) two BJTs (d) two MOSFETs.

ANS- (a) A BJT & A MOSFET.

34. An IGBT is also known as :

(a) MOIGT (Metal oxide insulated gate transistor).
(b) COMFET (Conductively- modulated FET).
(c) GEMFET (Grain modulated FET).
(d) all of the mentioned.

ANS- (d) ALL OF THE MENTIONED.

35. The body of an IGBT consists of a

(a) p-layer (b) n-layer (c) p-n layer (d) metal.

ANS- (a) P-LAYER.

36. The GTO (gate turn-off thyristor) is a :

(a) p-n-p-n device (b) p-n-p device
(c) p-metal-n device (d) p-n single junction device.

ANS- (a) P-N-P-N DEVICE.

37. The GTO can be turned off

(a) by a positive gate pulse. (b) by a negative gate pulse.
(c) by a negative anode-cathode voltage.
(d) by removing the gate pulse.

ANS- (b) BY A NEGATIVE GATE PULSE.

38. Latching current for the GTOs is ________ as compared to CTs
(Conventional thyristors).
(a) more (b) less (c) constant (d) cannot be said.

ANS- (a) MORE.

39. GTO stands for:

(a) Gate turn off (b) gate tune on
(c) Nota (d) Both of them.

ANS- (a) GATE TURN OFF.

8. Logic Gates

40. According to Boolean theorem: A+1 = ?

(a) A (b)0 (c) 1 (d) A'.

ANS- (c) 1.

41. According to Boolean theorem: A(A+B) = ?

(a) A (b)AB (c) 1 (d) A+B.

ANS- (a) A.

42. The Boolean function (A+BC) is the reduced form of :

(a) (A+B)(A+C) (b)AB+BC
(c) A'B+AB'C (d) (A+C)B

ANS- (a) (A+B)(A+C)

43. Operation carried out by a NOT gate is also known as :

(a) Inverting (b) Converting
(c) Reverting (d) Reversing.

ANS- (a) INVERTING.

44. A table that shows the result of Logic operations is known as :

(a) Logic table (b) System Table
(c) Truth Table (d) Any of the above.

ANS- (c) TRUTH TABLE.

45. Which one is the Universal gate :
(a) NOT gate (b) OR gate (c) AND gate (d) NAND gate.

ANS- (d) NAND GATE.

46. This is a truth table for :

Inputs Output
A B (Y)
0 0 0 (a)AND
Gate
0 1 0 (b) OR
gate
1 0 0 (c)NOR
gate
1 1 1 (d)NAND
gate.

ANS- (a) AND GATE.