t ... J ,,.. . .. • •\ - •.

J11 ®!Wffl®®Cftiiti¢1,':®1$§1'UI
Time : 3 Hrs.
[ TEST-2 ) MM : 720

[PHYSICS]
Choose the correct answe r :
1. y
Two port,cles A and B are executing uniform circular
mot1011 on concentric and copltinar paths as shown
in figure Tin c period of revolution of A nnd 8 arc
- 50m O
4 s and 4.5 s respectively. Al t = 0 they are on ~ . --+--+c-- -X
same hne as shown. The time at which A will pass
A 4 mis
B again is 3 mis
B - 30m

(1) 10 m

(2) 8 m

(3) 6 m

(4) 12 m

4. A particle P is moving on a circular path centred at

(1) 9 s (2) 18 s
0 as shown in figure. 0 and A are two observers
(3) 27 s (4) 36 s observing the particle P. If angular velocity of P at
this instant w.r.t O is w, then angular velocity of P
2. When a ball is projected with speed 40✓2 m/s at
w.r.t A at the same instant is
an angle of 45° with horizontal, its vertical velocity
after first bounce becomes half that of vertical velocity
at the time of projection. The horizon tal range after
V
first bounce is
(1) 40 m A ···············•··············· p
0
(2) 160 m

(3) 80 m

(4) 100 m
3. Two particles A and B are positioned as shown in (1) co
co
(2) 2
figure. If A and B start simultaneously towards origin
with respective velocities 4 m/s and 3 mis, then (l)
(3) 2 w (4) 3
closest distance between them is

Space for Rough Work

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 5 A particle starts moving from rest on a circular path (1) 2✓5 s (2) 2..fi s
of radius 100 m with constant rate of change of
speed 1 rnls 2 • A ccel eration o f the particle at (3) 4✓5 s (4 ) 4 ✓3 s
t = 10 s is
(1 ) 1 m/s 2 11 . A particle is at position ( 6i + 10 J) m at rest. It starts
(2) 2 m/s 2
(3) ✓'3 m/s 2 (4) ✓2 m/s 2 moving with acceleration ( 4i - 5 J) m/s2 · At what
6. A particle is thrown up with 40 mis at an angle 30° time it will cross the x-axis?
with horizontal from the top of a tower of (2) 1 s
(1) 4 s
height 60 m. Horizontal range of the particle is
(g = 10 m/s 2 ) (3) 2 s (4) 5 s

12. A ball is projected at an angle 60° with ho~izontal at

(1) 30 ✓'3 m (2) 120 m
initial velocity 20 mis . The speed of particle when
(3) 60 m (4) 120✓'3 m velocity makes an angle 45° with horizontal is nearly

7. Your friend is moving with speed v due east and you (1) 10 mis
are moving with same speed due north. Velocity of
(2) 14 mis
your friend as seen by you is
(1) v../2 North-East (2) v North-East (3) 7 mis
(4) 16 mis
(3) v../2 South-East (4) v South-East
13. A person A is in a vehicle moving at a constant
8. A body of mass 2 kg is projected at angle of 30° speed in horizontal straight line. He throws a ball
with horizontal and speed 20 mis from ground. The vertically upward with respect to vehicle . Another
magnitude of change in velocity during total time of person B is standing on the road . Which of the
flight is (g = 1O m/s 2) following is correct regarding path of the ball?
(1) 10 mis (2) 40 m/s (1) Both A and B will observe straight line path
(3) 20 m/s (4) 30 mis (2) A will observe straight line and B will observe
9. Two vectors have magnitudes 8 N and 16 N. Wh ich parabolic path
of the following is not possible for magnitude of their
(3) Both A and B will observe parabolic path
resultant vector?
(4) A will observe parabolic path and B will observe
(1) 6 N (2) 20 N
straight line path
(3) 15 N (4) 9 N
14. A fighter plane is flying horizontally at speed
10. A particle is moving on a circular path of radiu·s 120 km/minute at height of 8 km. The horizontal
distance of fighter plane from target from where it
20 m. ff the particle starts from rest and its speed should release a bomb to hit the target is
1t
varies with time t as v = 2t mis, then time taken to (1) 80 km (2) 40 km
complete two revolutions is (3) 8 km (4) 4 km

Space for Rough Work

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 (1) 60° (2) 30°
15. A particle is thrown horizontally with 20 mis from the
2 (4) 75•
top of a tower of height 20 m (g = 10 m/s }. Angle (3) 45°
with horizontal al which it will hit the ground is
20. A particle Is located at po sition (3i + 4})m and
(1 ) 30" (2) 60°

(3) 53• (4) 45° starts from rest under acceleration (21 - j)ms-2 .
16. Two vectors have sum of their magnitude 36 unit.
then at what time its position will be ( 19i - 4 ])m?
Their vector sum has magnitude 24 unit and
resultant vector is perpendicular to smaller vector. 1
Magnitudes of these two vectors are (1) 2 s (2) - s
2
(1) 20. 16 (2) 22, 14 (4) 5 s
(3) 4 s
(3) 26, 10 (4) 27, 9
21 . A ball is projected at an angle 45° with horizontal
17. An oblique projectile projected from ground takes from a point on ground 10 rn away from a vertical
time 4 s to travel from P to Q while takes 2 s to wall. It just crosses the wall to land on the ground
travel from S to T. Height h of level ST from level PQ at a distance 40 m from the wall on other side. Then
is the height of the wall is

y<;:::,.{ (1) 4 m

(3) 10 m
(2) 8 m

(4) 20 m

p i........ ·-·-·J . . . . . . . ... . . . . .\ Q 22. A particle is projected from suitable height from

(1) 10 m (2) 15 m ground with velocity ii = (al+ 6])mts. Take y-axis

along vertical and x-axis along horizontal. At what
(3) 12.5 m (4) 8.5 m
time velocity is perpendicular to initial velocity?
• - - - (g = 10 m/s2 )
18. A vector A= 2i + 3j +6k makes an angle of I~ with
positive direction of x-axis. p is equal to 3
(1) 0.2 s (2) - s
7
. -12
(1) tan-1 3. (2) Sin - 5 1
7 7 (3) 3s (4) - s
9

(3) cos- 1 3. (4) cos- 1~ 23. A particle is moving with constant speed over circle
7 7
x2 + ,j- = 50, with speed ✓ 10 mis. Acceleration of
19. A particle moves under gravity such that at any time the particle, when it is at point (5, 5) is (in rn/s2 )
t the vertical and horizontal position from projection
(1) ; - j (2) -i - j
point are given as y = (10t - 5t2) and x = 10✓ 3t
respectively. Then angle of projection with horizontal 1- 1 - -1 • 1 -
(3) ✓2 i - ✓2 j (4) ✓2 i - ✓2 j
is

Space for Rough Work

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24. In uniform circular motion for a particle if r , a and 28. In circular motion, acceleration is given by tangential
component a 1 and radial component a2, then which
v are respectively radius vector, acceleration and of the following is correct?
velocity of particle, then which one rs constant?
(1) Both a1 and a2 are rate of change of speed
[Where w is angular velocity]
(2) a2 only gives rate of change of speed
• -I
• --+
(1) rXV (2) 8 XV (3) a 1 only gives rate of change of speed

(3) j; X :1 (4)· All of these

(4) Both a1 and a2 change dire:tion of motion
29. Which of the following quantities is a vector quantity?
25. A particle moves with constant angular acceleration
k over circular path starting from rest. If radius of (1) Pressure (2) Moment of inertia
circle is unit then time at which tangential and radial (3) Current density (4) Finite angle
acceleration both are equal in magnitude is
(1) k (2) ✓k • • •
30. Two forces A and B are acting at a point. If A is
1 reversed, the new resultant becomes perpendicular
(3) -
✓ k (4) k 312 to the initial resultant. Then
26. Two particles A and 8 are moving over circle such
• •
that angle ~t centre L AOB remains 60°. If speed of
(1) A and B are of different magnitudes and at an
• -I
angle 120°
each A and 8 is V, then relative velocity of A with
• •
respect to 8 is
(2) IA I = I8 I and are not collinear
__..,·····•·" ···~.... .. B -I -I

.. . (3) I A I = IBI and are collinear

( 0 }v -I •
(4) A and B are of different magnitudes but at an
angle 60°
···...........................•····· A
(1) v./3 (2) V
31 . There is a vector given A= (3i + 4 J) by rotating

(3) v../2 (4) v./3 about tail in x - y plane so that it becomes

2 • A A

-I • -I B = 4i + 3j, then which is correct?

27. Resultant R of two vectors A and B is normal to
• •
A and its magnitude is same as A . Angle between (1) Should be rotated 16° anticlockwise
• •
A and a is (2) Should be rotated 37° clockwise
(1) 135° (2) 45° (3) Should be rotated 16° clockwise
(3) 90° (4) 37° (4) Should be rotated 53° clockwise

Space for Rough Work

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32 A particle is projected with velocity u at angle ll with
. 1 36. A particle has pos1tIon ; = 2/i + (1 0 - 41 2 )j, then
honzontal The ratio of range and maximum height ic:
path of the particle Is
4 ._When it is projected at angle 02 with horim~
with same speed, the ratio of range and maximum (1) Circular (2) Elliptical
,/

. h . 2 T tane, . .i (3) Parabolic (4) Straight lrne

heIg t Is . hen - - will be equal t('
tan02 37. A body is projected from ground for maximum
(1) 4 (2) 2 horizonta! range, then ratio of radii of curvature at the
point of projection and highest point i~
(3) 1
2
(4) .!. (1) 1 : 1 (2) 2✓
2 :1
4
33. Two particles projected from ground towards each (3) 1: ✓2 (4) 2 . 1

other with velocities 40 mis and 20-✓2 mis at angles
30° and 45° with horizontal respectively. Separation
between projection points is 108 m. Both collide after
time (Given: ✓ 3 = 1.7)
(1) 4 s (2) 3 s
38. A ball is at same height after time 11 and 12 from
point of projection in ground to ground projectile
motion, then the height of the point from ground is
1
(2) 2gt1t2

(3) 2 s (4) 1 s 1
(4) 4gt1/2
34. A vehicle is accelerating from rest at rate of
2 m/s2 in straight line. At that instant particle is 39. A ball is projected at an angle of 60° with initial
projected vertically upward with respect to vehicle at velocity u. The range on the horizontal ground is
40 mis. The distance of point where particle hits the 100 m. If velocity of projection is increased by 20%
ground from vehicle at the time of reaching the in second projection at same angle with horizontal.
ground is then horizontal range is
(1) 120 rn (2) 144 m
(1) 40 m
(3) 140 m (4) 169 rn
(2) 20 m
40. Two particles A and B are thrown from ground with
(3) 64 m
(4) 32 m
velocities uA and u8 respectively. Air resistance Is
neglected. If a graph is plotted by taking their
35. Two particles A and B are projected at angles 30°
relative position along x-axis and time along y-axis,
and 45° with horizontal at respective velocities 20 mis
nature of graph for the duration they are in air is
and 1o.fi mis, then acceleration of A with respect
(1) Parabola
to B will be
(2) Straight line
(1) Zero (2) -g
(3) Ellipse

(3) -2g (4) _£!._ (4) Hyperbola

2
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41 A car is moving along East with 20 mi s. A bus is (1) t, + 12 (2) t2 - t,
moving along 60° North of East at same speed .
Velocity of car w.r.t the bus is
(3) _!iL_
(1) 20 mis 60° North of East /1 + t2
(2) 20 mis 60° South of East 44. A steamer can cross 100 m wide river in a time of
(3) 20 mis due East 10 s along the shortest path. If river curren t speed
is 1O mis, then shortest time to cross the river is
(4) 20 m/s due North

42. Rain Is falling at angle of 45° east of vertical. A (1) 5 s (2) 5✓2. s
person moving due east at 10 mis observes rainfall
vertically downward. Then speed of raindrops w.r.t (3) 10✓2. s (4) 4 s
ground is
45. Water current in a river from east to west has speed
(2) 10✓2 mis of 4 mis. A boat starts moving at 10 m/s from south
(1) 10✓3 mis
bank to reach north bank. If boat started al 30° with
(3) 5✓3 mis current, the drift of boat in crossing 40 m wide river
(4) 5 m/s
is nearly
43. A person swims along the flow of river through
distance x in time t1 and return back in time t2 . The (1) 20✓3m (2) 20 m
time in which he will swim the same distance in still
(3) 100 m (4) 50 m
water will be

[CHEMISTRY]
46. Select correct diagram about acidic strength of
oxides
CO Increase N
2 2O5
Increase
CO2 ----Np5 (3)
r Decrease 1 Decrease
(1) SiO Decrease P0
!Increase tDecrease 2 4 10

. Decrease p
S1O2 4 0 10

Decrease CO Decrease
CO2 ----Np5 N20 5

l
2

(2)
r Decrease Decrease
(4) !Increase 1 Decrease

. Increase p SiO 4 Decrease p

S1O2 2 4 0 10
40 10

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47.
..,., .. ·- -
.

non-metals are present in

(1) p-block
'
.
··" , •. ::ro"
, . ' .

In mod ern periodic ta ble, both metals and

-'~' -..1~~0: .-;.. J:·. .-~- :~ . "...,·'"':.x•.-;;-n...:All

(2) d-block
54
. ...

A neutral atom Ar
following procc!;s .
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1s converted lo Ar 3 · by the I
Ar(g) ~ Ar'(g)
(3) 1st group (4) f-block
The correct order of E 1, E7 and E3 energies are
48. The correct order of 1s1 ionization potential of Li, Be,
Band C 1s (1) E1 < E 2 < E 3 (2) E 1 > E 2 > E 3

(1) C > Be > B > Li (2) C > B > Be > Li (3) E 1 = E2 = E3 {4) E 1 > E2 < E3

(3) C > B > Li > Be (4) B > C > Be > Li 55. The electron affinity values for the halogens show the
following trends
4 9. Which of the following group of modern periodic table
has maximum number of elements? (1) F < Cl > Br > I (2) F < Cl < Br < I
(1) 1"1 group (2) 3 rd group (3) F > Cl > Br > I (4) F < Cl > Br < I
(3) 10th group (4) 18th group 56 . The X-X bond length is 1.00 A and C - C bond
length is 1.54 A. The C-X bond length is likely to
50. Which one of these is a group 18 element?
be
(1 ) [Xe]6s2
(1) 0.80 A (2) 1.18 A
(2) [XeJ4t1 4 5d16s2
(3) 1.57 A (4) 1.68 A
(3) [Ar]3d10 4s24p6
57. In the following electronic configuration:
(4) [Ar]3d7 4 s2 14
ns2 (n - 1)d0 - 2 (n - 2)t° -
51. Negative enthalpy change is not possible for which If (n - 1) = 6, the configuration will be of
of the following changes?
(1) Lanthanides (2) d-Block
(1) X
3
i9>•
x2 +19> (2) X2<9>• X\9i
(3) Actinides (4) s-Block
(3) x(g>• x-<9> (4) x-<9>• x2-c9, 58. Be and Mg have positive electron gain e nthalpy
52. Observe IP 1 , IP2 , IP3 and IP4 for element A, B, C (or, zero value of electron affinity) because
and 0 . Identify which element has 3 electrons in
(1) Be and Mg have [He}2 s 2 and (N e ]3s2
outermost shell (all values are in kJ/mole)?
configuration respectively. Hence, extra electron
(1) 786, 1577, 3231, 4355 (for A} will be added in vacant p-subshell
(2) 737, 1450, 7732, 10540 (for B) (2) 2s and 3s orbitals are half filled to their capacity
(3) 495, 4562, 6912, 9544 (for C) (3) Be and Mg are electronegative elements
(4) 800, 2427, 3659, 25025 (for D} (4) Be and Mg have large radii
53. Which of the following has the highest screening 59. The ionic radii of isoelectronic species N3-, 0 2 - and
effect for last electron? F- are respectively given by
(1) Fluorine (F) (2) Oxygen (0) (1) 1.36, 1.40, 1.71 (2) 1.36, 1.71 , 1.40

(3) Carbon (C) (4) Nitrogen (N) (3) 1.71 , 1.40, 1.36 (4) 1.71, 1.36, 1.40
Space for Rough Work

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 60. Mulliken scale of electronegativity uses the concerit 65 If uncerta inty in position and rnorn1::ntum are •~qua!
of then L111c11rtainty in velocity Is
(1) Electron affinity and electronegot1v1ty of P.1ultng
(2) Electron affinity and atomic size
(1) l
(3) Electron affinity and ionisation potential
(3) 1 ft,
(4) Electron affinity and bond energy 2m~7r
6J. Wh ich among the following s ta temen ts is/are 66. Wh a l a re the v a lues of the orb1t.l l <1ngular
correct? momentum of an electron in the orbitals 1 s , 3s, 3d
2
(a) '11 represents the atomic orbitals and 2p?

(b) The number of peaks in radial probability (1) 0, 0, ✓6/i, ✓2.h (2) 1, 1. ✓41t, -./2.h
distribution is (n - I)
(c) Radial probability density p"I(r) = 4nr2R~I(r) (3) 0, 1, -J6h. ✓3h (4) 0. 0 , .fiot,, ✓6/r
(d) A node is a point in space where the wave 67. In which of the following pairs. probability of finding
function ('II) has zero amplitude the electron in xy plane is zero for both orbitals?
(1) a only (2) a & b
(1) 3dyz• 4d,..2 - y2 (2) 2pz, 4d/
(3) a, b & c (4) a, b, c & d
62. A dye absorbs a photon of wavelength A and re--€mits (3) 4dzx, 3pz (4) 3dzx, 4dxy
the same energy into two photons of wavelengths >-.1 68. The value of (n + I + m} for electron in the ground
and ;i.7 respectively. The wavelength >. is related to >
,, state of H-atom is
and ½ as
(1) 2 (2) 1
>-.,>..2 (3) 4
(1) A =-~'---,- (4) 3
(},, + '"·2 )2
69. According to Rutherford, size of nucleus Is ,n the
"-1A2 order of
(3) A = ;.._, + A2
(1) 10- 5 A
63. Which of the following orbitals has 2 nodal planes? (2) 10-13 A
(1) 2px (2) 2py
(3) 10- 1s A

(3) 3d.,__,.. (4) 10~ A

64. If the kinetic energy of a particle is doubled , de- 70. If wavelength of the first line of the Balmer series of
Broglie wavelength becomes hydrogen atom is 656.1 nm, then wavelength of the
second line of this series would be
(1) 2 times (2) 4 times
(1) 218.7 nm (2) 328 nm
1
(3) ..fi. times (4) ..fi. times (3) 486 nm (4) 640 nm
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71 Threshold frequency of a metal is f • When light of
0
frequency ,. = 2f0 is incident on the metal plate , (3) n=2. I = 1, m = 0, s = 1
2
maximum velocity of electron emitted is v 1. When
1
frequency o f inciden t radiation is 5f 0, maximum (4) n = 3, I = 2, m = -3, s = +
2
velocity of emitted electron is v 2 • Then ~ shall be 76. Pauli's exclusion principle states that
V2
(1) Nucleus of an atom contains no negative charge
(1) 1 4 (2) 1 · 2
(3) 2 1 (2) Electrons move in circular orbits around the
(4) 3 : 1
nucleus
72 In iron atom , how many electrons have quantum
numbers n 3 and I 2? = = (3) Electrons occupy orbitals of lowest energy

(1) 2 (2) 4 (4) All the four quantum numbers of two electrons in
an atom cannot be same
(3) 6 (4) 8
77. The concept of orbital is a result of
73. The orbital diagram in which both Pauli's exclusion
principle and Hund's rule are violated (1) Schrodinger's wave equation

1
<) OIJ 11 I 1 I (2) Bohr's atomic model
(3) Photoelectric effect

(2) OIJ 1~ I 1~ I (4) Sommerfetd's atomic model

78. If an electron is travelling with the speed of 200 mis
(3) [IT] 1 1 1 1 1 within 1 m/s uncertainty, what is the theoretical
uncertainty in its position (in µm) (µm : micrometer)?

(4) OI] 1~11~ 11 (1) 14.5 (2) 29

74. Which of the following statements is correct about (3) 58 (4) 114
node? 79. Consider the graph given below:

iL
(1 ) Number of angular nodes = n - I - 1
(2) Number of radial nodes = I
(3) Total number of nodes = n - 1

(4) Number of nodal planes in dz2 =2 Q-+

P & Q can be (as per Bohr's model)
75. Which of the following set of quantum numbers is
impossible for an electron in an atom? (1) P =Energy; Q =Principal quantum number
1 (2) P = Radius; Q = Number of protons
(1) n = 1. I =0, m =0, s = +2 (3) P = Velocity; Q = Square of principal quantum
number
-1
(2) n =9, I =7, m = -6. s = 2 (4) P = Energy; Q = Number of protons

Space for Rough Work

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80 Which of the following has the largest de-Broglie 1 times of sµeed uf hqt1l
(3)
wavelength (all have equal velocity)? 179
(1) CO'- molecule (2) NH 3 molecule times of speed of lig ht
(4)
(3) Electron (4) Proton 137 th
An electron in an atom juni;.>s in w c h a way al ,ts
87
81 Splitting of sp ectral lines under the influence of
magnetic field Is called kinetic energy changes from x to % The change in
(1) Zeeman effect (2) Slark effect
potential energy will be
(3) Photoelectric ~ffecl (4) Moment of inertia
3 -3
82. A hydrogen atom in the ground state is excited by (1) -x (2) - x
2 8
monochromatic radiation of wavelength ,, A. The
3 -3
resulting spectrum consists of maximum 15 different (4) - x
(3) -x 4
lines. Whal is the wavelength (A) of radiation? 4 d

(Given : RH= 109737 cm-1 ) 88. On the basis of Bohr's model, the radius of the 3'
orbit for H atom is
(1) 937.3 A (2) 1025 A
(1) Equal to radius of first orbit
(3) 1236 A (4) 2000 A
(2) Three times the radius of first o rbit
83. Line spectra is characteristic of (3) Five times the radius of first o rbit
(1) Molecules (2) Atoms (4) Nine times the radius of first orbit
(3) Radicals (4) Compounds 89. Bohr's atomic model could not explain
18
84. If the ionisation energy of He+ is 19.6 x 10- J per (i) Zeeman & Stark effect
atom then the energy of Be 3 • ion in the second
(ii) Spectrum of multielectronic species
stationary state is
(1) - 4 .9 x 10- 18 J (2) -44.1 X 10- l8 j (iii) Transition of electron in H-atom

(3) -11 025 x 10-18 J (4) - 19.6 x 10- 18 J (1) (i) & (iii)

85. Number of waves produced by an electron in one (2) (i), (ii) & (iii)
complete revolution in n th orbit is (3) Only (i)
(1) n (2) n2 (4) (i) & (ii)
(3) (n + 1) (4) (2n + 1)
90. The ratio of specific charge of a proton a nd an
86. Velocity of an electron in Hydrogen atom (in ground a-particle is
state) is equal to (1) 2 : 1

(1)
1 times of speed of light (2) 1 : 2
274
(3) 1 : 4
(2)
1 times of speed of light (4) 1 : 1
256
Space for Rough Work

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 Test-2(CodeD) -.: ; . -· ....
- All India Aakash Test Serles for MedlcaJ-2019

[BIOLOGY]
91 . All viruses 97. Select the correct option and fill up the blanks ,
11
(a) Contain protein the following statements.

(b) Contain DNA

a. Th e (I) reproduce by asexua l spores
(c) Are susceptible to antibiotics
called con,dia but con idia as well as fru1t1ng
(d) Are intracellular parasites
bodies are found in (II)
Choose correct option
(1) (a) & (d) (2) (b) & (c) b. Lichens are very good --'-
(11--'I)_
-- indicators.
(3) (a) & (b) (4) (b) & (d)
92. Which one is the wrong pairing for the disease and c. The most notorious organism is __
(IV_)_ that
its causal organism?
causes malaria which has a staggering effect on
(1) White rust of crucifers - Albugo candida human population.
(2) Black rust of wheat - Puccinia graminis
(3) Loose smut of wheat - Ustilago nuda (I) (II) (Ill) (IV)

(4) Early blight of potato - Phytophthora infestans (1) Deutero- Basidiomy- Water P/asmodium
mycetes cetes pollution
93. Protein particles that cause diseases by misfolding
(2) Phycom- Ascomy- Water Entamoeba
other proteins are ycetes cetes pollutlon
(1) Virusoid (2) Prions (3) Deutero- Basidio- Air Entamoeba
mycetes mycetes pollution
(3) Satellite RNA (4) Capsid
(4) Deutero- Ascomy- Air Plasmodium
94. Potato spindle tuber disease causing organism is mvcetes cetes pollution
different from HIV as the former
98. Body of lichen consists of two dissimilar organisms.
(1) Contains RNA (2) Has no capsid
Choose the correct option w.r.t. component which
(3) Has only protein (4) Both (1) & (3) form bulk of the thallus
95. Mycorrhiza exhibits the phenomenon of
(a) Autotrophic component
(1) Commensalism (2) Mutualism
(b) Prepare food for fungi
(3) Competition (4) Antagonism
96. VAM (c) Form sexual reproductive structures
(1) Forms fungal sheath around root (d) Provide shelter & absorb mineral nutrients
(2) Fungal hypha grows intracellularly
(e) Mostly belongs to ascomycetes or sometimes
(3) Fungal hypha destroys cortical cells to reach basidiomycetes
phloem of the plant
(1) Five (2) T'v\-0
(4) Forms hartig net in the intercellular spaces of
cortex (3) Three (4) One

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99 Choose the correct option w.r.t phagic reproduction 103. How many of the following symptoms/diseases are:
(1) Prophage is not formed caused by viruses?

(2) Nucleic acid enters host cell Tetanus, Mumps, Cholera, Influenza,
Citrus canker, Leaf rolling & curling, Typhoid,
(3) Envelope enters host
Herpes, Yellowing & vein clearing.
(4) Shown by HIV
(1) Five (2) Eight
100. _ _ _ crystallised the TMV and found it to be
largely composed of (3) Six (4) Four
- -- - -
~ 104. How many of following fungi have medicinal
(1) lvanowsky, RNA
importance for humans?
(2) Beijerinck, DNA
Amanita phalloides, Monascus purpureus,
(3) Twort, protein Penicillium chrysogenum, Trichoderma
(4) Stanley, protein polysporum, Gibbere/la fujikuroi, Bacillus
licheniformis.
101 . Structurally complete mature and infectious virus is
called (1) Too (2) Three

(1) Viroid (2) Virion (3) Four (4) Five

(3) Virusoid (4) Prion 105. Viruses

102. Read the given statements & select an option
stating which ones are true (T).or false (F).
a. Chrysophytes are microscopic & float passively
in water currents.
b. The pigments of euglenoids & flagellated
protozoans are identical to those present in
higher plants.
c. In ciliated protozoans, the co-ordinated
movement of rows of cilia causes the water
laden with food to be steered into the gullet.
(1) Have metabolic machinery to generate ATP
(2) Lack genetic material for replication
(3) Are inert outside their specific host cell
(4) Always have specialised protein coat covered by
an envelope
106. Read the following statements :
(a) Karyochorisis does not involve breakage of
nuclear membrane
(b) Unicisternal golgi bodies

d. In general, viruses that infect animals have either (c) Constitute a unique kingdom of heterotrophic
single or double stranded RNA or double organisms
stranded DNA. (d) No motile cells in the life cycle
a b C d Choose correct option w.r.t. fungi
(1) T T T T (1) (a) & (d)

(2) F F T T (2) (b) & (d)

(3) T F T T (3) (c) & (d)

(4) T T F T (4) (a), (b) & (c)

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 107. Fungal bodies in which entire cell gets transformed 112. Members of fungi
into reproductive structures are known as (a) Show chemoaulolrophy
(1) Holocarpic (2) Eucarpic (b) Store glycogen
(3) Monocentric (4) Polycentric (c) Possess sterol in membranes
108. Gametangia form ation is absent but sexual (d) Are mainly aquatic
reproduction is present in Choose incorrect statement(s)
(1) Mucor (2) Altemana ; (1) (b) & (c) (2) (a) & (d)
(3) Rhizopus (4) Agaricus (3) (a), (c) & (d) (4) All are incorrect
109. Match the following columns. 113. A model organism used for the genetic analysis is
a. Imperfect fungi (i) Claviceps (1) Pink bread mould (2) Black bread mould
b. Club fungi (ii) Altemaria (3) Water mould (4) Green mould
c. Sac fungi (iii) Saccharomyces 114. The synthetic class deuteromycetes is composed of
{iv) Puffballs asexual stages of fungi, some of them have affinities
to
(v) Aspergil/us
(1) Phycomycetes (2) Oomycetes
(vi) Trichodenna
(3) Zygomycetes (4) Ascomycetes
(vii) Bracket fungi
115. Choose the odd one w.r.t. fungal group
(1) a(ii, vii), b(iv, v), c(i, iii, vi)
(1) Truffles
(2) a(i, iii, vi), b(iv, v), c(ii, vii)
(2) Morels
(3) a(i, ii , iii), b(iv, v), c(vi, vii)
(3) Drosophila of plant kingdom
(4) a(ii, vi), b(iv, vii), c(i, iii, v)
(4) Toadstools
·110. Site of karyogamy and meiosis in sac fungi is
116. Correctly match the Column-I & Column-II w.r.t.
(1) Ascus mother cell
members of slime moulds
(2) Ascospore
Column-I Column-II
(3) Ascus
a. Asexual reproduction (i) Binary fission
(4) Ascocarp
b. Sexual reproduction (ii) Spore formation
111 . Asexual & sexual spores found in fungi respectively c. Vegetative (iii) Fusion of myxamoebae
are reproduction
(1) Conidia & zoospores (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii)
(2) Oospores & ascospores (2) a(iii), b(ii), c(i)
(3) Sporangiospores & basidiospores (3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i)
(4) Ascospores & basidiospores (4) a(i), b(iii), c(ii)
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(1 J B1Jt11111 n1u•,nr•v·m (2) Re;mxluct:on

vv (2) erta:! m0v!d
(3) Purl Lull (3) Cell wall ccmposit on
(4) Brai:. E:t fung
11 8 ChcYJS~ th'-! incorrect option (.! ) Locomotory structures

124 Select a wrong set

Class Perfect spores Imperfect spores Organ Fc;lturc
~

Protists
(, ) Egg fungi Oospore Zoospores Cell wall Erllbth!lit'~ \\ 1?~
(1) Diatoms
(~) Club fungi Basidio~pores UretJospores s1l1 c,1
(3) Coniug::ihon Zygosporo Planospores Lie loll'Jilu
Flagella i ri ,,
hmg, (2) Dinoflagcllates • \I 1 • 1 , ,

only
(4) Sac fungi Ascospores Conid1a Pclliclc 1--IJke lhr,r b,,
(3) Euglcnoids "1
11 9 Cl " 1m1cilf composition of cell wall is of taxonomic llcx1bl1!
~rynrfir,;mce in fungi. N-acetylglucosamine is solely (4) Slime moulds Pl.:ismod1um Ot:.irs snor,•~ ~:
pwscnt ,n the cell wall of tips
(1 ) Al/Jugo (2) Synchytrium 125. "Though they are photosynthetic rn presenct: of
(3) m11zopus (4) Phytophthora sunlight. when deprived of sunlight they behave li~e
heterotrophs by predntrng an other ~ni.iller
17.0 Myc:clium of lligl,cr fungi rs organisms" This statement ,s related to
(1) 8ri111cllod :md asopt;:itc (1) Ocsm1ds
(2) f31 ;111cl1ed nnd sr.ptate (2) Red dino0ngellatcs

(3) Counoc:ytic n11d unbranched (3) Euglenoids

(,\) S\:l)tJlu :,mf Ullbr:inclled (4) Slime moulds

121. Sleeping :;ickncss ,s caused by 126. Members of prot,sta

(1) Paramoecwm (2) Leishmania (a) Are m1croscop1c organisms

(3) Trypaoosoma (4) EntumoebJ (b) May have plastids

(c) Are mostly aquatic
122 Chrysophyta includes
(1) Golden algne nnd armoured prot1sts (d) Possess 70 S cytoplasmic ribosomes

Choose the correct option

(2) Diatoms and d~smids
(1) (a). (b) & (c) (2) (b), (c) & (d)
(3) Spindle organisms and diatoms
(3) (a). (b) & (d) (4) (c) & (d)
(4) oesmids and \\h1r1ing whips
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 131 Choose '.he o dd one w.r.t members of pyrrophvla
121 Choose the in correct match
, 1) C1hatcd protozo,H1s Ac lively moving organisms ( 1) Gony,,u/ax (2) Noc /1/uca

(2) Manne amoeboid protozoc1ns - Siliceous skeleton (3) Gymnodmwm (4) Physarum

(3) Sporozoans - Malarial parasite 132. Dinoflagellates show/are

(4) Flagellated protozoans - Free living organisms only (1) Mainly parasitic
(2) Responsible for toxic red tide that harm shell
128 Euglena shows/possesses
fishes
(1) Two nagella
' (3) Bioluminescence
(2) Longitudinal meiotic cell division
(4 ) Monotrichous condition
(3) Reserve food material is paramylon
133. Choose the correct option w .r.t. features of shme
(4) Both (1) & (3) moulds showing similarity with fungi (F), pla ntae (P)
129. How many of the given below features are associated and animalia (A} respectively
with members of chrysophy1a? a. Wall-less vegetative phase
(a) Chief 'producers' in the oceans b. Fruiting bodies
(b) Shows photoautotrophic nutrition c. Mitospore formation
(c) Zygote develops into an auxospore d. Cellulosic cell wall
(d) Form gritty soil (1) F(b, c), P(d), A(a) (2) F(a}. P(b), A(c, d )
(e) Diatoms may be pennate type or centric type (3) F(b), P(a, c), A(d) (4) F(b}, P(c}, A(a. d )
depending upon the symmetry
134. Identify the correct s tateme nt w . r.t sap ro phytic
(1) Three (2) Five protists
(3) Four (4) Two (1) The plasmodium differentia tes & form s fruiting
130. How many of the following statements are correct bodies under favourable conditions
regarding the class basidiomycetes? (2) The spores are dispersed by water & air curre nts
a. Clamp connections occur between adjacent cells (3) The plasmodium is f o rmed u nder su itable
b Prim a ry m ycelium is w e ll develope d a nd conditions
elaborate (4) The spores possess true w alls but can survive
c. Secondary mycelium develops fruiting bodies, only for few months
called basidiocarps 135. Mark the incorrect statement regard ing fungi.
d. Some members produce multinucleate gametes (1) Some of the factors affecting growth of fungi are
called coenogametes temperature, aeration and m oisture
e. Sexual reproduction is by gametangial contact (2) Fungi show great d iversity in m orpho logy and
or gametangial conjugation habitat
f. Hyphae are septate with dolipore septa (3) Fungi are more abundant in substrates w ith low
(1 ) Too (2) Three sugar content and low temperature
(3) Four (4) Five (4) Fungi are mainly te rrestrial

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 142 Neuroglial cells exhibit
136 Bats differ from birds in that (2) Exc1tabd1ty
(1) Cell division
(1) Their skin 1s unique in possessing hair (4) Extensibility
(3) c onductivity
(2) Fertilisation is internal and choose the correct option
143 Match the columns
(3) They are homeothermal and endothermal . w.r.t. epithelial tissue and location
(4) Endoskeleton is bony Column-II
Column- I
137. Notochord in chordates is Location
Epithelial tissue •
A B C (i) Epidermis of skin
a. Cuboidal
(1) Solid Mesodermal Ventral to nerve cord (ii) Inner lining of blood
b. Ciliated
Ventral to nerve cord vessels
(2) Hollow Mesodermal
(iii) Lining of stomach and
(3) Hollow Ectodermal Dorsal to gut c. Columnar
intestine
(4) Solid Ectodermal Dorsal to nerve cord
(iv) Inner lining of fallopian
138. Which of the following fish possesses pelvic d. Squamous
tubes
claspers?
e. Keratinised (v) Lining of pancreatic
(1) Exocoetus (2) Hippocampus
squamous duct
(3) Scofiodon (4) Labeo
(1) a(v), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii), e(i)
139. Which of the following is a secretion of exocrine
gland? (2) a(v), b(iii). c(ii), d(i), e(iv)
(1) Glucagon (2) lns~lin (3) a(iv), b(v), c(iii), d(ii). e(i)

(3) Aldosterone (4) Mucus (4) a(v), b(iii), c(iv). d(ii) e(i)

140. Tubular parts of nephron are lined by 144. Read the characteristics given below
(1) Pseudostratified epithelium I. Fusiform in appearance
(2) Cuboidal epithelium II. Not under the control of our will
(3) Columnar epithelium
Ill. Unbranched
(4) Stratified non-Keratinised squamous epithelium
IV. Uninucleated
141 . Parental care is seen in
These can be found in
a. Bufo b. Hemidactylus
C. Hippocampus d. /chthyophis (1) Unstriated, voluntary muscles

e. Macropus (2) Visceral muscles

(1) Only a, c (2) a, b & d (3) Striated voluntary muscles

(3) c, d & e (4) b, c & e (4) Cardiac muscles
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145 Which of the following is the correct pairing of a
150 In which of the following the genus name. rts lwo
body pnrt and the kind of muscle tissue that moves
it? characters and ,ts clas~/phylu m are corrt-Llly
matched?
(1 ) Biceps of upper arm - Striated, smooth muscle
Genus Two characters Class/Phylum
(2) Intestine - Involuntary, smooth muscle
(1 ) Pr,slls (i) Skin rs covered Osteichthyes
(3) Abdo minal wall - Multinucleated , smooth with cycloid/ctcno1d
muscle scales.

(4) Heart wall - Involuntary, unstriated muscle (ii) Air bladder present

146. What would happen to the joint if we cut ligaments (2) Pteropus (i) Skin possess Mammalia
present at a joint? hair

(1) It will become freely movable (ii) Aquatic

(2) It will become fixed (3) Salamandra (i) Tympanum . Amphibia

represents ear
(3) The joint becomes unstable
(ii) Oviparity
(4) It becomes slightly movable
(4) Naja (i) Fertilisation Reptilia
147. What type of tissue is blood?
internal
(1) Loose connective tissue
(ii) Tympanum
(2) Dense connective tissue represents ear
(3) Areolar tissue 151 . Which of the following match is incorrect?
(4) Specialised connective tissue
(1) Ca/oles - Garden Lizard
148. Choose the correct set of animals exhibiting direct
development and presence of dicondylic skull. (2) Che/one - Tortoise

(1) lchthyophis, Hy/a, Crocodi/us (3) Chameleon - Tree Lizard

(2) Ba/aenoptera, Omithorhynchus, Pteropus (4) Bangarus - Krail
(3) Delphinus, Aptenodytes, Nephron
152. Choose wrong statement from the following :
(4) Corvus, Struthio, Testudo
(1) Long bones in birds are pneumatic
149. Chameleon differs from Ca/ates in that
(2) Reptiles are poikilothermal
(1) It is oviparous and development is direct
(2) It is poikilothermal (3) Air bladder in chondrichthyes regulat~s buoyancy
(3) It has prehensile tail (4) Air-sacs are avascular so are not involved in
(4) It shows shedding of mesodermal scales exchange of gases

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 153 Which of the following features are prese nt in 157 Salivary glands are
chordates? (1) Unicellular glands
( 1) Dorsal heart, pharynx perforated by gill slits and (2) Multicellular, endocrine glands
dorsal nervous system (3) Unicellular, exocrine glands
(2) Ventral heart, the presence of post anal tail and (4) Multicellular, exocrine glands
paired pharyngeal gill-slits . b w are some vertebrates in a box.
158. Given e I0
(3) Ventral heart, absence of post anal tail and
presence of paired pharyngeal gill slits Petromyzon, Safamandra, Exocoetus, Pristis,

(4) Dorsal heart, notochord present and solid Cfarias

nervous system se the correct class from the given options
Ch oo . b .
whose members are more than one 1n num er in the
154. Which of the following is not a key characteristic of
fishes? given box.
(1) Chondrichthyes
(1) Vertebral column
(2) Osteichthyes
(2) Gills
(3) Cyclostomata
(3) Heart with one atria and one ventricle
(4) Amphibia
(4) Tympanic membrane
159. c omplete the following analogy
155. Which of the following statements is false?
Nerve : neuron : : cartilage :
(1) Dense irregular connective tissue that has
(1) Marrow
fibroblasts and many fibres that are oriented
differently are present in skin (2) Skeleton

(2) Compound epithelium covers the dry surface of (3) Osteocyte

the skin and has protective function
(3) Epithelial tissue is rich in intercellular matrix and
is vascular
(4) Skin is connected to muscles by areolar
connective tissue
(4) Chondrocyte
160. Mark the false statement w.r.t. animal tissues.
(1) Some of the columnar or cuboid al cells get
specialised for secretion and form glandular
epithelium

156. The periosteum is a membrane that does which of (2) Exocrine glands secrete their secretions directly
the following? over epithelial surface without ducts

(1) Covers the bone (3) In epithelial tissues, specialised j unctions

provide structural and functional links between
(2) Contains marrow
its individual cells
(3) Produces red blood cells
(4) Chondrocytes are enclosed in small cavities
(4) Increases the length of bones (lacunae) present within the matrix

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entify the given statements as true (T) or False (F). Choose the correct match of the nome o f ;:inir-1.:i• n
161 Id
A T ig ht junct ions facil ita te th e ce l ls to (Co lumn - I ) w i th orw c l 1Jrac te m , t1c g1 ✓ e 11 i n
commurnec'llc with each other by connccll119 the (Column-II) and the phylurniclass ,n (Colum•· -111 ) to
plasma membranes of adjoining cells. for rapid which it belongs
transfer of ions small molecules and so metimes Colum n -I Column-// C o l umn -Ill
bigger molecules
(1) Hippocc1m p us G 1ll-s llts arc C h ondric h:hyc:~
s. Simple epithelium covers the moist surface of
separa te and
buccal cavity, pharynx, muscle and lining of
ducts of salivary glands. covered
by operculum
c Cell junctions h;ld smooth muscle fibres and
Notochord is Urocho, d ata
(2) Branch10s-
they are bundled together in a connective tissue
sheath. toma present in
larval ta il
D. Cartilage is present in tip of nose, limbs a nd Ostcrchthycs
(3) Pterophy llum Contains air
hands in adu lts.
bladder
A B C D which regulate s
(1) F F T F buoyancy
(2) T F T F (4) lchfhyophis Body covered Amphibia
by dry and
(3) F F T T
cornified skin
(4) T F T T
165. Match the following columns .
162. Find out the correct statement about neural tissue.
C olumn-I Column-II
(1) Arrival of the disturbance at the neuron's
endings, triggers events that can cause only a. These poss ess (i) Trygon
stimulation of adjacent neuroglial cells or neurons electric organs

(2) Neuroglial cells make up more than one half of b. Animals of this class (ii) Cyclos tomata
the volume of neural tissue in our body are poikilothermal
(3) When a neuroglial cell is suitably stimulated, an C. These contain poison (iii) Torpedo
electrical disturbance is generated which swiftly sting
travels along its plasma membrane
d. All these migrate for (iv) Chondrichthyes
(4) Oligodendrocytes form myelin sheath around spawning to fresh
nerve fibres of peripheral neural system water
163. A set of connective tissue is
(v) Petromyzon
(1) Areolar tissue. smooth muscles, adipose tissue (1) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii)
(2) Ligament, Adipose tissue, Tendons
(2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(3) Cartilage, bone, skeletal muscles (3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(v)
(4) Blood , smooth muscles, lymph
{4) a(iv), b{iii), c(i), d{v)

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 r t class of vcrtcbrn tes exhibiting 1111
166 - Which of the following is the function of mast cells
172. ! ~:li'; :tion and homeotl1ermy is ernal
of areolar connective tissue'>
(1) Amphibia
(1) They me phagocytic in nature
(2) Mammalia
(2) They secrete maximum amount of the matrix
(3) Reptilia
(3 ) They secrete fibres of structural proteins called
collagen or elastin (4) Aves
(4) They secrete histamine, serotonin and heparin . n of long bones occurs at/in
173. Elongat10
167 (1) Epiphyseal plate, composed of bone cells
. Tendons differ from ligaments in that the tendons/are
(1) Dense regular connective tissue (2) Diaphysis, composed of bone cells
(2) Composed of both elastic and collagen fibres (3) Epiphyseal plate, composed of cartilage cells
(3) Attach skeletal muscles to bones (4) Red bone marrow
(4) Attach one bone to another
174. Read the statements 'A' & ·~ ··, where 'R' is the
168. Select the options which include incorrect reason given for the statement A.
statements w.r.t. simple epithelium. A. Petromyzon is included in the division Agnatha.
I. It lines body cavities, small ducts and alveoli of R. It is a jawless vertebrate.
lungs
Choose the correct option.
II. Found in the wall of blood vessels
(1) Statement and reason are true in themselves but
Ill. It has protective function as it does in our skin the reason does not explain the statement
IV. Consists of two or more cell layers (2) Statement is true but the reason is false
(1) Ill & IV only (2) I & Ill only (3) Both the statement and reason are true and
(3) I & IV only (4) II & Ill only reason explains the statement
169. Hyaline cartilage is present in (4) Statement is false but the reason is an accepted
(1) Pubic symphysis (2) Ear pinna fact

(3) Eustachian tube (4) Nasal septum 175. Cartilage present at the tip of nose is

170. Which of the following does not belong to (1) Hyaline (2) Calcified
chondrichthyes? (3) Elastic (4) White fibrous
(1) Carcharodon (2) Pristis 176. Torpedo and Trygon differ from Scoliodon because
(3) Sco/iodon (4) Clarias (1) Their skin is tough containing minute placoid
171 . Mark the odd one w.r.t. air sacs. scales
(1) Aptenodytes (2) In males, pelvic fins possess claspers
(2) Neophron (3) Their pectoral fins are not sharply demarcated
from the body
(3) Pteropus
(4) Their five pairs of gill slits are lateral in position
(4) Columba
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177. Birds have reptilian anc~stry, because 179 Which of the following statements is false abou t
(1) Birds possess scales on their hindl1mbs lance let?

(2) They show egg laying ability ( 1) It is present exclusively in marine waters

(3) They nre able to maintain a constant body (2) The notochord extends from head to tail region
temperature and 1s persistent throughout their life
(4) Fertilisation is internal (3) It is a vertebrate because it Ila~ a notochord

178. How will you distinguish lchthyophis from Rana? (4) It is often referred to as protocho rd ale
l
180. Omithorhynchus differs from Macropus as 1
I
(1) It is a tailless amphibian
(2) It has two pairs of limbs. Body is divisible into (1) Has external ears or pinnae
head and trunk
(2) Is viviparous
(3) It is a limbless amphibian
(3) Does not possess mammary gla nd s
(4) Heart is three chambered and it is a cold
blooded animal (4) Lays eggs

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Space for Rough Work

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