FLT 2 Solutions

What A Test 2023 Full Length Test 2 (FLT-2)
1. She was an activist in the Indian Freedom Movement. She was known for
the revival of handicrafts and handloom industry in India and thus was
popularly called 'Hathkargha Maa'. She was instrumental in establishing
institutions like Lady Irwin College, National School of Drama and All India
Women Conference. She was honored by Indian Government with Padma
Vibhushan. She was:
(a) Margaret Cousins

(b) Kamala Devi Chattopadhyay
(c) Raj Kumari Amrit Kaur
(d) Sarojini Naidu
Answer: (b)
Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay was a freedom fighter, social reformer, and
theatre actor who was the driving force behind the post-independence revival
of Indian handicrafts, handlooms, and theatre. She appeared in the Kannada
film Mrichhakatika, based on Sudraka's play of the same name, and the
Hindi film Tansen in the early 1930s.Most Indians are familiar with
Kamaladevi, a figure who revived Indian handicrafts and nurtured the
majority of India's national institutions dedicated to the promotion of dance,
drama, art, theatre, music, and puppetry.
2. With reference to modern Indian history, ‘Sattichaura Massacre’ and

‘Bibighar Massacre’ are related to which of the following events?
(a) Direct action day, 1946
(b) Revolt of 1857
(c) Chittagong armory raid ,1930
(d) Deccan Riots ,1875
Answer: (b)
Sattichaura Massacre is a known incident when it comes to the history of
the 1857 Revolt. Despite the familiarity, the names of the martyrs of the
massacre are not yet known to all. After the demise of Peshwa Bajirao II
(who was exiled to Bithoor after the Third Anglo-Maratha War) on 28
January 1851, the colonial regime applied the infamous Doctrine of Lapse
and refused to recognize Nana Saheb as his heir. The commanding officer of
Kanpur, Major General Hugh Wheeler, was confident of his position.The
revolt began in Kanpur on midnight of 4 June 1857. Several Britishers lost
their lives. They were caught unaware. The scene turned tragic on 7 June
1857, whence more than 12 British officials were killed. Upon looking at the
dead bodies, the city was called the ‘City of Desolation’. Not only did the
participants loot the treasury, but they also broke the jail gates and helped
free the ones captured by the colonial regime. Government offices were burnt
down. Telegraph wires were also disrupted. The local people participated in
the revolt and many of those are said to have belonged to the Dalit
community of Nawabganj.On 14 June 1857, the Britishers decided to move
to Allahabad via boats. Upon the news of Indians being massacred arriving,
nearly 1000 Britishers, including women and children, were killed. Nana
Saheb rescued some of them and took them to Savada Kothi, and later
moved to cantonment quarters at Bibighar. As revenge for the incident, an
e-mail: contact@atishmathur.com www.atishmathur.com telegram: https://t.me/csepaper2atish

attack was launched by Major General Henry Havelock. They burnt Savada
Kothi that including Nana Sahib’s daughter Mainawati. The colonial regime
again cemented its control over Kanpur. Nana Sahib was forced to flee, many
leaders were hanged and around 144 Indian soldiers were hanged on a
massive banyan tree in the Bibighar premises. On 31 May 1860 Brigadier
Jwala Prasad and his allies Samadhan Mallah, Lochan Mallah, and Budhu
Chaudhary were hanged at a pipal tree on the banks of Ganga River at the
Sattichaura Ghat. They were hanged on the accusation of murder during the
First War of Independence.
3. Consider the following:
Organization Founder
1. Mukti Mission Pandita Ramabai
2. Ved Samaj K. Sridharalu Naidu
3. Dharma Sabha Radhakant Deb
4. Tabernacle of New Keshub Chandra Sen
Dispensation
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1,2 and 4 only
(d) 1,2,3 and 4 only
Answer: (d)
All pairs are correctly matched.
• In 1898, Pandita Ramabai set up the Mukti Mission in Khedgaon in
Pune. The mission sheltered widows and poor women and encouraged
them to become literate and financial independent.
• Veda Samaj was established by Keshab Chandra Sen and K.
Sridharalu Naidu when the former visited Madras in 1864. K.
Sridharalu Naidu later visited Calcutta to study the Brahmo Samaj
movement and when he returned, he renamed the Veda Samaj as
Brahmo Samaj of Southern India in 1871. He translated the books of
Brahmo Dharma into Tamil and Telugu and undertook missionary
tours to propagate the faith. However, Naidu’s untimely death in 1874
in an accident led to several schisms into this organization.
• Dharma Sabha was formed in 1830 in Calcutta by Radhakanta Deb.
The organization was established mainly to counter the ongoing social
reform movements led by protagonists such as Raja Ram Mohun Roy
and Henry Derozio.
• In 1881 Keshab founded the Church of the New Dispensation (Naba
Bidhan) for the purpose of establishing the truth of all the great
religions in an institution that he believed would replace them all.
When he died in 1884, the Brahmo Samaj began to decline.

4. Consider the following statements:
1. Mahatma Gandhi never served as the president of Indian National Congress.
2. Before 1947, Annie Besant was the only female of foreign nationality to serve
as president of Indian National Congress.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d)
Statement 1 is incorrect. Mahatma Gandhi served as INC president at 1924
Belgaum session. Nellie Sengupta (Englishwoman) served as INC president in
1933 Calcutta session. So, statement 2 is incorrect too.
5. The term “abwabs” in British India referred to:

(a) Revenue collected by Mansabdars from their Jagirs.
(b) Revenue paid by the peasant as extra-legal charges to the zamindar.
(c) Revenue paid by the peasant to revenue farmers at the rates decided by the
British.
(d) Revenue paid by the smaller zamindars to the British through the bigger
zamindars.
Answer: (b)
Under the Permanent Settlement system, the nawabs were used to collect
revenue from the zamindars. Some of them were big landlords who controlled
large areas and had their own armed retainers and others were smaller
zamindars, who paid revenue either directly to the state or through the bigger
zamindars. Peasants undertook cultivation and paid the zamindars at customary
rates, which often varied from subdivision to subdivision, and also sometimes
extralegal charges called abwabs were collected from them by the zamindars.
Abwabs are the cess collected from the peasants in addition to land revenues.
6. “We were provided with a machine with all brakes and no engine” – This
statement was said by Jawaharlal Nehru in context of which of the following
acts?
(a) Government of India Act, 1935
(b) Government of India Act, 1919
(c) The Foreigners Act 1946
(d) Rowlatt Act, 1919
Answer: (a)
Jawahar Lal Nehru mentions Government of India Act 1935 as the “Charter of
Slavery” and compares it with a “machine with all brakes, no engine”.

7. Consider the following leaders:
1. Barin Kumar Ghosh
2. Bagha Jatin
3. Surya Sen
4. Taraknath Das
Which of the above were actively associated with Jugantar group?
(a) 1,2 and 3 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
Answer: (d)
All 4 were associated with Jugantar group. Jugantar or Yugantar was one of
the two main secret revolutionary trends operating in Bengal for Indian
independence. This association, like Anushilan Samiti, started in the guise
of suburban fitness club. Several Jugantar members were arrested, hanged,
or deported for life to the Cellular Jail in Andaman and many of them joined
the Communist Consolidation in the Cellular Jail.
8. Arrange the following events in the chronological order of their occurrence:
1. Breakout of the Royal Indian Navy mutiny
2. Cabinet Mission Plan Arrives in India
3. Clement Atlee becomes Prime Minister in Britain
4. INA trials begin at Red fort
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 4-1-3-2
(b) 3-4-1-2
(c) 4-3-2-1
(d) 3-2-4-1
Answer: (b) 3-4-1-2
• Clement Atlee became Prime Minister in July,1945
• INA trials began in November, 1945
• Navy Mutiny broke out on February 18th, 1946
• Cabinet Mission arrived in India on 24 March, 1946
9. With reference to ‘Serampore Mission (1800-1845)’ during British colonial

rule in India, consider the following:
1. It was a Christian mission led by William Carey, Joshua Marshman and
William Ward.
2. British discouraged the growth of missionary activity in India during the
first decade of 19th century.
3. Serampore was not under British rule when the mission was established
in 1800.
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1,2 and 3 only

Answer: (d)
Serampore Mission (1800-1845) was India's first Christian missionary
organisation. William carey and his two associates established this mission
on 10 January 1800. The Mission started preaching the message of Jesus
from two places in Hughli district. The mission led to establishment of a
printing press and university later on.
The Serampore Mission Press was a book and newspaper publisher that
operated in Serampore, Danish India, from 1800 to 1837.The Press was
founded by William Carey, William Ward, and other British Baptist
missionaries at the Serampur Mission.
The British government, highly suspicious of missionaries, discouraged
missionary work in their Indian territoriesHowever, since Serampore was
under Danish rule, the missionaries and the Press were able to operate
freely. It was only after the 1813 Act that British allowed missionaries to
settle in India.
10. With reference to Indian history, the term ‘Girmitiya’ is used to refer to:
(a) System of payment of land revenue
(b) Indentured labour transported to work in British colonies
(c) Treasury agent of East India Company
(d) Trade guild of traditional artisans
Answer:(b)
Girmitiyas, also known as Jahajis, were indentured laborers from British
India transported to work on plantations in Fiji, South Africa, Eastern Africa,
Malaysia, Singapore, and the Caribbean as part of the Indian indenture
system.
11. With reference to Buddhist literature in India, consider the following:
1. Majority of the Hinayana texts were in Prakrit, while the Mahayana texts
were mostly in Sanskrit
2. ‘Milindpahno’ is a Buddhist doctrine consisting of the chronicles of an
Indo-Greek King
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b)
Scriptures of Mahayana Buddhism were written Sanskrit whereas scriptures
of Hinayana Buddhism were written in Pali. So Statement 1 is incorrect
Milinda-panha, (Pali: “Questions of Milinda”) is a lively dialogue on Buddhist
doctrine with questions and dilemmas posed by King Milinda—i.e.,
Menander, Greek ruler of a large Indo-Greek empire in the late 2nd century
BCE—and answered by Nagasena, a senior monk. Hence statement 2 is
correct.

12. Uttarmerur inscription gives us important information related to:
(a) King Kharvela of Kalinga
(b) Local self-governance of Cholas
(c) Justice delivery system under Ashoka
(d) Land grants of Satvahanas
Answer:(b)
Uttaramerur lies in present-day Kanchipuram district, approximately 90 km
southeast of Chennai. Today, it is a small town and had a population of
roughly 25,000 in the census of 2011. It is known for its historic temples
built during Pallava and Chola rule. The famous inscription from Parantaka
I’s reign is found on the walls of the Vaikunda Perumal Temple. The
inscription gives details of the functioning of the local sabha, i.e. the village
assembly. A sabha was an assembly exclusively of brahmans and had
specialised committees tasked with different things. The Uttaramerur
inscription details how members were selected, the required qualifications,
their roles and responsibilities, and even the circumstances in which they
could be removed. Describing how the sabha shall be constituted, the
inscription says, “There will be 30 wards. Everyone living in these 30 wards
would assemble and select one representative for the village assembly.”
It then goes on to describe what the qualifications for such a representative
must be. These include ownership of a certain amount of land, having a
house, being between the age of 35 and 70 and “knowing mantras and
Brahmanas” (from the Vedic corpus). An exception can be made on land
ownership if the person has learnt at least “one Veda and four Bhashyas”
One must also be “well-versed in business” and “virtuous”. What the
Uttaramerur inscription details is a system of local self-government, outside
the direct authority of the king. Furthermore, for all intents and purposes,
the inscription is like a constitution – it describes both the responsibilities of
members of the sabha as well as the limitations to the authority of these
members. If the rule of law (rather than rule by personal diktat) is an
essential component of a democracy, the Uttaramerur inscription describes
a system of government which follows just that.
13. With reference to Sangam age in India, consider the following:
1. There is no contribution of female poets in Sangam literature
2. Pattini cult worship was established by a Chola king
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d)
Statement 1 is incorrect: There were women poets like Avvaiyar,
Nachchellaiyar, and Kakkaipadiniyar who flourished and contributed to
Tamil literature.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Pattini cult i.e. The worship of Kannagi as an
ideal wife, was started by Senguttuvan, the ruler of Chera.

Literary Work Written By

1. Devichandraguptam Vaishakhdutta
2. Kathasaritsagar Somadeva
3. Daskumarcharitam Bhasa
4. Mudrarakshas Shudraka
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
Answer: (a)
Vishakhadatta was an Indian Sanskrit poet and playwright. Only two of his
plays, the Mudrārākṣasa and the Devichandraguptam are known to us.
Both Devichandraguptam and Mudrarakshas were written by him.
Hence Pair 1 is correct, while Pair 4 is incorrect.
The Kathāsaritsāgara ("Ocean of the Streams of Stories") is a famous 11th-

century collection of Indian legends, histories and folk tales as retold in
Sanskrit by the Shaivite Somadeva. Pair 2 is correct
Dashakumaracharita is a prose romance in Sanskrit, attributed to Dandin

(दण्डी), believed to have flourished in the seventh to eighth centuries CE.
Hence Pair 3 is incorrectly matched.
15. Arrange the following dynasties in the chronological order of their

independent rule:
1. Maitrakas of Vallabhi
2. Western Chalukyas or Chalukyas of Kalyani
3. Vakatakas of Deccan
4. Yadavas of Devagiri
(a) 4-1-3-2
(b) 3-4-1-2
(c) 3-1-2-4
(d) 3-2-4-1
Answer: (c) 3-1-2-4

Vakataka dynasty, Indian ruling house originating in the central Deccan in
the mid-3rd century CE, the empire of which is believed to have extended
from Malwa and Gujarat in the north to the Tungabhadra in the south and
from the Arabian Sea in the west to the Bay of Bengal in the east.

The Maitraka dynasty that belong to Maitrak Gurjar clan ruled western India
(now Gujarat) from approximately 475 to approximately 776 CE from their
capital at Vallabhi.
The Western Chalukya Empire ruled most of the western Deccan, South
India, between the 10th and 12th centuries. This Kannadiga dynasty is
sometimes called the Kalyani Chalukya after its regal capital at Kalyani,
today's Basavakalyan in the modern Bidar District of Karnataka state.
Yadava dynasty, rulers of a 12th–14th-century Hindu kingdom of central
India in what is now the Indian state of Maharashtra.
16. Consider the following about Sanchi Stupa:
1. Beautifully decorated gateways called ‘Toranas’ were added to the stupa
by Shunga dynasty rulers
2. The relics of two chief disciples of the Buddha–Sariputta and Maha
Moggallana are also placed in nearby stupas at the complex.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
The Shunga dynasty introduced the idea of torans as beautifully decorated
gateways to the stupas. The torans were intricately carved with figures and
patterns and were evidence of Hellenistic influence. They were added to
Sanchi Stupa in 1st century BC
The relics of two chief disciples of the Buddha–Sariputta and Maha
Moggallana- are kept at Stupa Number 3 in the Sanchi complex.
17. Consider the following statements about ‘Retail Direct Scheme’ launched
recently by Reserve Bank of India:
1. Retail investors are now able to buy Government Securities in both
primary as well as secondary markets.
2. It will help in reducing the cost of borrowing for government
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)
Retail individual investors were allowed to purchase G-secs only in the
secondary market. In 2021, with the retail direct scheme they can now
purchase it in the primary market as well. So, statement 1 is correct.
This step will reduce the borrowing cost for the government as it broadens
the base of investors willing to buy G-secs and allows government to tap into
retail savings. Hence statement 2 is also correct.

18. Consider the following statements with respect to the economic phenomenon
of ‘Bank Run’:
1. Bank runs happen when a large number of people start making
withdrawals from a bank.
2. Bank run happens after a bank has gone bankrupt
3. Cash reserve ratio (CRR) can be used as a tool to tackle bank runs.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3 only
Answer: (b)
A bank run or run on the bank occurs when many clients withdraw their
money from a bank, because they believe the bank may fail in the near
future. Statement 1 is correct
Statement 2 is incorrect. Bank run happens in anticipation or fear of a bank
going insolvent or bankrupt. It does not happen post that
Statement 3 is correct. CRR and deposit insurance are tools to tackle bank
runs. Bank run was in news due to recent failure of Silicon Valley Bank in
USA.
19. Consider the following statements regarding ‘Surety Bonds’:
1. Surety bonds can be issued for infrastructure projects and government
procurements.
2. Bonds can be used as a substitute for bank guarantee
3. They aim to reduce indirect cost for contractors
4. Issuance of these bonds will be regulated by SEBI

(a) 1,2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1 only
Answer:(a)
Government has allowed the use of surety insurance bonds as a substitute
for bank guarantees in case of infrastructure projects, government
procurement and for gold imports. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Statement 3 is correct as surety bonds will be a cheaper alternative to

contractors than opting for expensive bank guarantees for a project.
Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) has also

released final guidelines to ensure orderly development of surety insurance
business in India. Statement 4 is incorrect. IRDAI regulates surety bond
issuance and not SEBI.

20. Which of the following can be accounted under ‘revenue receipts’ of central
government?
1. A public sector enterprise paying dividend to central government

2. Income tax collected from citizens
3. Disinvestment of a public sector enterprise
4. Proceeds from sale of government land
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
Answer:(b)
1 and 2 are revenue receipts

While 3 and 4 are capital receipts as sale of land or disinvestment results in
destruction of an asset
21. Consider the following statements about Universal services obligation fund
(USOF):
1. It is a Statutory fund under Information Technology Act,2000.
2. It has been incorporated to provide telecom services in remote areas
Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)
Statement 1 is Incorrect: USOF is a non-lapsable fund, deposited into the
Consolidated Fund of India. The Indian Telegraph Act, 2003 provides
statutory status to the Universal Service Obligation Fund (USOF).
Statement 2 is Correct: Providing telecom services in rural areas may not

always be commercially viable and this fund supports telecom providers to
setup services in those areas.
22. ‘Quito Adjustment’ – a term recently seen in news, relates best to which of
the following?
(a) Carbon border adjustment mechanism as imposed by European Union
(b) Adjustment made to Montreal protocol on Ozone depleting substances
(c) Shift in Biodiversity targets set at Aichi under Convention on Biological
Diversity
(d) Technological intervention to curb illegal wildlife trade as per CITES
convention
Answer: (b)
The Quito Adjustment is made to the Montreal Protocol in the 13th Meeting
of the Parties at Quito, Ecuador in 2018. It aims high to avoid 1ºC of future
warming.
23. Consider the following statements about ‘Angel Tax’:
1. It is a tax levied on startup companies when they receive investments in
excess of their ‘fair market value’
2. This tax is applicable to funds received from both foreign as well as
domestic investors.
Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)
Angel taxes are taxes on funds raised by startups if they exceed the fair
market value of the company. It is a 30% tax that is levied on the funding
received by startups from an external investor. Section 56(2) VII B of the
Income Tax Act colloquially known as the angel tax was first introduced in
2012. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
An angel investor is an individual who provides financial backing to early-
stage startups or entrepreneurs, typically in exchange for equity in the
company. Angel investors are typically high-net-worth individuals who invest
their own personal funds, rather than investing on behalf of a firm or
institution.
The angle tax provision states that when an unlisted company, such as a
start-up, receives equity investment from a resident for issue of shares that
exceeds the face value of such shares, it will be counted as income for the
start-up and be subject to income tax under the head ‘Income from other
Sources’ for the relevant financial year.

However, with the latest amendment in Budget 2023, the government has
proposed to also include foreign investors in the ambit, meaning that when a
start-up raises funding from a foreign investor, that too will now be counted
as income and be taxable. Hence statement 2 is also correct.
24. With reference to Indian economy, consider the following:

1. Tax to GDP ratio of India’s economy has steadily increased in the last 5
years.
2. Budget 2023-24 estimates that net tax collections from GST will be
higher than that collected via Corporation tax.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b)
As is evident from the graph, tax to GDP ratio has not shown a steady
increase, hence statement 1 is incorrect.
Budget 2023 puts an estimate of Rs 9.5 Lakh crore collection for GST and
Rs 9.2 Lakh crore collection for corporate tax. In revised estimates of FY23
too GST had higher collection than corporate tax. So, statement 2 is correct,
for better understanding refer below image.

25. With reference to ‘Extra Budgetary Resources’ in Indian economy, select the
most suitable explanation:
(a) It is not counted as part of Fiscal Deficit of central government
(b) It is accounted for in the public debt of India
(c) Both (a) and (b) are correct
(d) Neither (a) nor (b) is correct
Answer: (c)
According the budget document, “Extra budgetary resources (EBRs) are
those financial liabilities that are raised by Public Sector Undertakings for
which repayment of entire principal and interest is done from Government
budget,” Such borrowings are made by state-owned firms to fund
government schemes but are not part of the official budget calculations.
Extra budget borrowing is excluded from the fiscal deficit calculations, but
at the same time, are added to the total debt of the government. Hence
option (c) is the most suitable choice.
In recent years, several CPSUs have raised resources from the market by
issuing Government of India-Fully Serviced Bonds (GoIFSB) for which the
repayment of both principal and interest is to be done from the Budget. This
means that though the borrowing is not a part of the consolidated fund of

India, the interest payment for such borrowings are made out of the
consolidated fund.
26. Which of the following best describes the term ‘Merchanting Trade’:
(a) Selling goods at a no profit – no loss price
(b) Facilitating trade from one foreign location to another foreign location,
while acting as an intermediary.
(c) Carrying out trade between countries having a free trade agreement, but
not bound by the rules of the said agreement
(d) Trade carried out with a contract between a buyer looking to invest and a
seller wanting to sell their goods in the near future.
Answer:(b)
Merchanting trade Transaction is the kind of transaction where the
shipment of goods commences from one foreign country and terminates in
another foreign country without touching the Domestic Tariff Area (DTA) of
the domestic country.
New foreign trade policy of India talks about “Facilitation of merchanting
trade – shipment of goods from one foreign country to another with the aid of
Indian intermediary and sans contact with Indian ports — and a step to
reduce transaction costs for smaller firms, which have a major share in
India’s goods exports”
27. With reference to Peatlands, consider the following statements:
1. They are the largest natural terrestrial carbon store.
2. They are only found in permanent frost regions of the world.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer:(a)
Statement 1 is correct: Peatlands are the largest natural terrestrial carbon
store; the area covered by near-natural peatland worldwide sequesters 0.37
gigatonnes of carbon dioxide a year – storing more carbon than all other
vegetation types in the world combined.
Statement 2 is not correct: They are mostly found in permafrost regions

towards the poles and at high altitudes, in coastal areas,
beneath tropical rainforest and boreal forests. Countries with the largest
peatland areas are – Russia, Canada, Indonesia, USA, Finland etc.
28. Consider the following statements regarding organic farming in India:

1. Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is the regulator of
organic foods in India
2. Any food to be sold as ‘organic’ in India must be certified through National
Program for Organic Production (NPOP) only
3. The NPOP certification scheme is run by Ministry of Commerce.

(a) 1 only

(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3 only
Answer:(c)
Statement 1 is correct. Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI)

has the mandate to regulate manufacture, distribute, sell or import “organic
foods” as per the provisions laid under Section 22 of the Food Safety
Standards Act, 2006.
Statement 2 is incorrect and Statement 3 is correct

There are 2 Certification Systems:
1. National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP)
NPOP grants organic farming certification through a process of third-party
certification.
It is implemented by Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export
Development Authority (APEDA), Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
2. Participatory Guarantee System for India (PGS)

PGS is another process of certifying organic products.The certification is in
the form of a documented logo or a statement.It is implemented by the
Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare.The organic farmers have full
control over the certification process.PGS certification is only for farmers or
communities that can organise and perform as a group. Individual farmers
or groups of farmers smaller than five members are not covered under PGS.
PGS is applicable on on-farm activities comprising of crop production,
processing and livestock rearing, etc.
Off-farm processing activities such as storage, transport and value addition
activities by persons/agencies other than PGS farmers away from the group
are not covered under PGS.
Organic foods are also required to comply with the requirements of labelling
of FSSAI in addition to that of NPOP or PGS-India.
29. “Fostering Effective Energy Transition 2022” report was released by which of
the below organization?
(a) International Energy Agency
(b) World Energy Council
(c) World Economic Forum
(d) International Renewable Energy Agency
Answer: (c)
World Economic Forum (WEF) has released a report named Fostering
Effective Energy Transition 2022, which calls for urgent action by both
private and public sectors to ensure a resilient energy transition to address
the challenges to environmental sustainability, energy security and energy
justice and affordability.
30. Consider the following statements about logistics sector in India:
1. Logistic costs in India are more than 25% of its GDP
2. India does not feature in the top 50 countries on World Bank’s logistics
performance index

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d)
Shri Narendra Modi at the launch of National Logistics Policy said- We must
bring the logistic cost from 13 percent to single digit as soon as possible.
Logistics cost in India is estimated to be around 13-16% of its GDP, hence
statement 1 in incorrect
India recently improved in the logistics ranking of the World Bank by

jumping 6 places to Rank 38 out of 139 countries in the 7th edition of
Logistics Performance Index (LPI 2023). So, statement 2 is incorrect too.
31. With reference to Capital Expenditure (Capex) in an economy, consider the

following:
1. Capex includes money spent on creation of assets like roads, schools,
hospitals etc.
2. Loans given to foreign governments are not included in Capex.
3. Purchase of shares by a government is included in Capex.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Answer: (d)
Capital expenditure always creates an asset or tends to reduce liabilities.
Capital expenditure refers to the estimated expenditure in a fiscal year
which creates assets for the government and causes reduction in liabilities
for the government. For example: expenditure on lands and building,
purchase of shares, expenditure on machinery and equipment.
Similarly, repayment of principal amount on loans – reduces liability and is
also a part of capex.
Statement 1 is correct as roads, schools etc are long term assets and hence
included in capex
Statement 2 is incorrect. A loan is an asset to the lender and is thus
included in capex
Statement 3 is correct – Shares are an asset and are included in capex
32. Consider the following, with respect to ‘Social Media Influencers’ in India:
1. Freebies/Gifts received by them are subject to 10% Tax deducted at
source.
2. Currently there are no guidelines that regulate advertisements,
promotions or endorsements by influencers on social media.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a)
Statement 1 is correct. Social media influencers need to pay TDS on free gifts
from 1st July 2022. In a new provision introduced in the Finance Act, 2022,
a 10% tax deducted at source (TDS) is now applicable for benefits or
perquisites that exceed Rs 20,000 in a year under Section 194R of the
Income-tax Act, 1961 (ITA).
Statement 2 is incorrect. Government recently announced endorsement
guidelines for celebrities and social media influencers mandating disclosure
of benefits if they are promoting a product or a brand through their social
media platforms. Failing to do so will attract a penalty up to Rs50 lakh. In
addition, the disclosures must be prominently and clearly displayed with
terms such as advertisement, sponsored or paid promotion, as part of their
endorsements.
33. Which of the following can increase India’s exposure to global economic
shocks?
(a) RBI switching to a fixed currency exchange rate system
(b) Allowing full capital account convertibility
(c) Reducing customs duty to promote exports
(d) Tightening norms for FDI/FPI investments in Indian markets
Answer: (b)
Developing countries are usually cautious in opening up their capital
account. This is because inflows and outflows of the foreign and domestic
capital, which are prone to volatility, can lead to excessive
appreciation/depreciation of their currency and impact the monetary and
financial stability.
India’s prudence in opening up its capital account was lauded after the
currency crisis in East Asian countries in 1997 exposed the problems arising
from the potent combination of high current account imbalances,
dependence on short-term capital flows and the whimsical nature of these
flows. The SS Tarapore committee’s report on fuller capital account
convertibility released in 2006 argued that even countries that had
apparently comfortable fiscal positions have experienced currency crises and
rapid deterioration of the exchange rate, when the tide turns.
34. Consider the following about Secretary-General of Rajya Sabha in India:
1. They are appointed by the President of India.
2. They hold a rank equivalent to the Cabinet Secretary of India.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b)

Statement 1 is incorrect: Rajya Sabha secretary general is appointed by
Chairman of Rajya Sabha and not the President
Statement 2 is correct: They enjoy rank equal to the highest civil servant i.e.
Cabinet secretary.
35. With reference to Indian law, which of the following statements is true about
“Plea bargaining”?
(a) The Code of Criminal Procedure does not have any provisions related to
it.
(b) Under plea bargain, defendant pleads guilty to a lesser offence, and it
involves negotiations with the prosecution.
(c) It is available for all types of crime, including those which are punishable
with death sentence.
(d) Under plea bargain, the defendant pleads guilty to all the charges levied
against him by the prosecution to skip the long process of trial.
Answer: (b)
Plea bargaining is the system of negotiating an agreement between the
prosecution and defense where the defendant pleads guilty to a lesser
offence and it involves pre-trial negotiations with the prosecution. It may
involve bargaining on the charge or in the quantum of sentence. Plea bargain
is recognized by code of criminal procedures for offences that have a jail
term up to a maximum of 7 years.
36. With reference to 10th Schedule of constitution of India, consider the

following statements:
1. Presiding officer of the house can disqualify a member on the grounds of
defection only after consultation with the Election Commission of India.
2. Presiding officers’ decision over cases related to anti-defection cannot be
questioned in any court of law.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d)
Statement 1 is incorrect: Presiding officer of the house disqualifies a member
of the house on the ground of defection, but consultation with the Election
commission is not necessary.
Statement 2 is incorrect: In the Kihoto Hollohan case (1993), the Supreme

Court ruled that the Presiding officer’s decision is subject to judicial review.
37. Consider the following statements regarding the ‘preventive detention’ law in
India:
1. The Constitution of India prescribes that the preventive detention cannot
exceed beyond the maximum period of three months under any
circumstance.

2. Both the Centre and the States can enact laws on the matters regarding
preventive detention.
3. Article 22 provides protection against preventive detention only to Indian
citizens and not to foreigners.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
Answer: (b)
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution provides that detention of a

person cannot exceed three months. However, in certain circumstances it
can be extended if an Advisory Board reports sufficient cause for its
extension.
Statement 2 is correct: Both the Centre and the States can make laws on the
preventive detention. The Centre has exclusive rights to make a law of
preventive detention on the matters connected with defense,
foreign affairs and the security of India. On the matters pertaining to
security of the State, maintenance of public order and maintenance of
supplies and services essential to the community, both the Centre
and the States can concurrently enact laws.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Protection under Article 22 regarding preventive

detention is applicable to both- Indian citizens and the foreigners.
38. Consider the following statements with reference to various forms of

government:
1. Presidential System offers greater harmony between the Legislature and
the Executive than the Parliamentary system.
2. The Government in Parliamentary System is more responsible than the
Government in a Presidential System

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b)
The parliamentary system ensures harmonious relationships and

cooperation between the legislative and executive organs of the government.
The executive is a part of the legislature and both are interdependent at
work. As a result, there is less scope for disputes between the two organs.
The Legislative and the Executive powers are separated in the Presidential
system, there may arise a frequent dispute between these two organs.
Thus, Parliamentary system offers greater harmony between the Legislature
and the Executive than the Presidential system. So, Statement 1 is not
correct.

In a parliamentary system, Government is responsible to the legislature
because the Parliament can remove the Government through a no-
confidence motion. In the presidential form of Government, there is a
separation of power between the executive and the legislature. So, the
Executive is not responsible to the legislature.
Thus, the Government in Parliamentary System is more responsible than the
Government in a Presidential System. Statement 2 is correct.
39. The term “Corporate Sustainability Reporting Directive (CSRD) ” sometimes

seen in news is related to which of the following organizations?
(a) G20
(b) BRICS
(c) European Union
(d) ASEAN
Answer: (c)
Corporate Sustainability Reporting Directive of European Union is an
ambitious and comprehensive package of measures to help improve the flow
of money towards sustainable activities across the European Union. It
enables the investors to re-orient investments towards more sustainable
technologies and businesses.
40. Consider the following statements with reference to Indian polity:

1. Any person, who may or may not be a member of the Parliament, if
preferred by the party having a majority in the Lok Sabha, can become the
Prime Minister.
2. The constitution explicitly states that the council of ministers is
collectively responsible to the House of People.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)
Any person who is not a member of Parliament can be appointed as Prime

Minister when he/she holds a majority in the house. A person appointed in
such a manner will have to get himself/herself elected for either house of
Parliament within six months of his/her appointment. So, Statement 1 is
correct.
Article 75 of the Constitution of India explicitly mentions that “The Council
of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People.” So,
Statement 2 is correct.
41. Who among the following can declare an area to be a ‘Scheduled Area’
under Article 244 of the Constitution of India?
(a) Parliament through a constitutional amendment act

(b) State legislature by enacting a law
(c) President by an order
(d) Governor by a notification

Answer: (c)
The specification of “Scheduled Areas” to a State is by a notified order of the
President after consultation with the State Government concerned.

1. In the Environment Performance Index 2022, India was ranked last
among 180 countries.
2. In the Climate Change Performance Index 2023, India was ranked among
top 10 countries.
Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)
Statement 1 is correct: In the recently released Environment Performance

Index-2022, India was at the last i.e., at 180th position among 180 countries.
The Environment Performance Index (EPI) is an international ranking
system that measures environmental health and sustainability of countries.
The EPI, a biennial index, was started in 2002 as Environmental
Sustainability Index by the World Economic Forum in collaboration
with the Yale Center for Environmental Law and Policy and the Columbia
University Center for International Earth Science Information Network.
Also Climate Change Performance Index 2023: India ranked 8th in the list.
The Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) 2023 released which was
published by three environmental nongovernmental organizations viz.
Germanwatch, NewClimate Institute. So, statement 2 is correct.
43. With reference to Governor of a state, consider the following statements:

1. The President can remove a Governor on the recommendation of cabinet
ministers.
2. Constitution of India neither mentions the procedure nor the grounds of
the removal of the Governor of a state.
3. The President must remove the Governor if the state legislature passes a
resolution to that effect with special majority.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Answer: (c)
Statement 1 is correct: The President, has the power to remove a Governor at
any time. As per the constitution Governor holds his/her office subject to
the pleasure of the President.

Statement 2 is correct: The Constitution does not lay down any
grounds/process upon which a governor may be removed by the President.
Statement 3 is incorrect: There is no such provision in the Constitution or

any statute. The state government is not involved in the removal process as
per the provisions of the Constitution.
44. With reference to the cultivation of Opium in India, consider the following
statements:
1. Opium cultivation is illegal in India.
2. Private sector is not allowed to cultivate or sell opium in India.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d)
Opium cultivation is highly regulated, but not illegal in India.

The opium poppy can be cultivated only in such tracts as are notified by the
Government. At present these tracts are confined to three States,viz. Madhya
Pradesh, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh. Mandsaur district of Madhya
Pradesh and Chittorgarh and Jhalawar Districts of Rajasthan constitute
about 80% of the total area. At present, the cultivation and processing of
poppy and opium is controlled by the provisions of The Narcotic Drugs and
Psychotropic Substances (NDPS) Act and Rules. So, statement 1 is incorrect
India has recently opened up the highly regulated sector of producing and
processing opium to private players. Bajaj Healthcare has become the first
company to win tenders for producing concentrated poppy straw that is used
to derive alkaloids that are the active pharmaceutical ingredient in pain
medication and cough syrups. So statement 2 is incorrect.
45. Consider the following, with respect to ‘Collegium System’ in the Indian
judiciary:
1. For selection of Supreme Court Judges, the collegium consists of 5
seniormost Supreme Court judges (including the Chief Justice of India)
2. For selection of High Court Judges, the collegium consists of 3
seniormost High Court judges (including the Chief Justice of that High
Court)
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a)
As per the 3rd Judges Case, 1998 – SC appointments are to be done by a

collegium of 5 seniormost judges of SC including the Chief Justice of India.

So, statement 1 is correct.
Statement 2 is incorrect as HC collegium consists of 3 seniormost SC judges

and not HC judges.
46. Which of the following is incorrect regarding Parliamentary Committees in
India?
(a) Estimates committee draws all its members from Lok Sabha and no
minister can be a part of it.
(b) Select committees are formed for a specific purpose, like to deliberate on
a certain bill. When the Bill is disposed of, that select committee no
longer will exist.
(c) Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC) is formed by members of both the
houses and its recommendations are binding on the government.
(d) Departmentally Related Standing Committees (DRSC) can not have any
minister as their member. If a member of a DRSC becomes a minister, he
ceases to be a member of that committee.
Answer: (c)
Recommendations of JPC are not binding on the government. Rest all
statements are correct.
47. Consider the following regarding contempt of court in India:
1. Parliament of India has enacted The Contempt of Courts Act,1971 which
provides the punishment for contempt of Supreme Court and High Court
in India.
2. The Constitution of India, does not explicitly provide any contempt power
to Supreme Court and the High Courts.
3. As per the Constitution, state governments can make a law about
Contempt of court, excluding contempt of the Supreme Court.

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
Answer: (c)
Statement 1 is correct.
Statement 2 in incorrect. Constitution via articles 129 and 215 explicitly
provides SC and HC with contempt powers.
Statement 3 is correct. Entry 14 of Concurrent list states “Contempt of
court, but not including contempt of the Supreme Court.” Hence states are
empowered to enact laws on this subject.
48. With respect to elections to Rajya Sabha in India, which of the following is
incorrect?
(a) The elections are held by a system of open ballot and whips can be
issued by political parties.
(b) An election candidate must be an ‘ordinary resident’ of the state from
which he/she is seeking election to the upper house.

(c) Vacancies arising due to resignation, death or disqualification are filled
up through by polls, and those elected serve only the remainder of their
predecessors’ term.
(d) Any person younger than 30 years of age cannot become the member of
the upper house.
Answer: (b)
In 2001 the government amended the law relating to the Rajya Sabha
elections with an open voting system and the removal of domiciliary
requirements for contesting the polls.
Hence Option (a) is correct, while (b) is incorrect
https://www.deccanherald.com/state/karnataka-politics/rajya-sabha-polls-
congress-issues-whip-won-t-withdraw-second-candidate-1114954.html
The Rajya Sabha is not subject to dissolution, but as nearly as possible one-
third of the members thereof retire on the expiration of every second year in
accordance with the provisions made in that behalf under the
Representation of the People Act, 1951.The term of office of a member (both
elected and nominated) is six years. However, a member elected/ nominated
to fill a casual vacancy holds office for the remainder of the term of his
predecessor. Option (c) is correct.
As per the article 84 of constitution, option(d) is correct too.
49. According to the Constitution of India, the expression ‘Territory of India’
includes which among the following?
1. The territories of the states
2. The Union territories
3. The territories that may be acquired by government of India at any time.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d)
According to Article 1 of the Constitution, the expression ‘Territory of India’
includes not only the territories of the states but also union territories and
territories that may be acquired by the Government of India at any future
time. Thus all 3 are correct.
50. Which of the following best describes the concept of ‘positive liberty’?
(a) Freedom from interference by others.
(b) Absence of obstacles, barriers, or constraints.
(c) Availability of opportunities to express one’s self and flourish.
(d) Absolute exercise of free will.
Answer: (c)
Negative liberty is the absence of obstacles, barriers or constraints. One has
negative liberty to the extent that actions are available to one in this negative
sense. Positive liberty is the possibility of acting — or the fact of acting — in

such a way as to take control of one’s life and realize one’s fundamental
purposes. While negative liberty is usually attributed to individual agents,
positive liberty is sometimes attributed to collectivities, or to individuals
considered primarily as members of given collectivities.
Hence option(c) is best suited.
51. Noble’s Helen, Kaiser-E-Hind and Blue Mormon are types of:
(a) Fishes
(b) Butterflies
(c) Turtles
(d) Deer
Answer: (b)
• Extremely rare Noble’s Helen butterfly was recorded for the first time
in India from the Namdapha National Park in Arunachal Pradesh.
• Also, Arunachal Pradesh has approved the large, brightly coloured
Kaiser-i-Hind as the State butterfly.
• The blue Mormon is a large swallowtail butterfly found in South India
and Sri Lanka. It has a status of 'State butterfly' in the Indian state of
Maharashtra.
52. With reference to the ecological pyramid consider the following statements:
1. Pyramid of Biomass of an aquatic ecosystem is generally inverted in
shape.
2. Pyramid of Energy in any ecosystem is always upright.
3. Pyramid of Numbers in any ecosystem can never be inverted.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer:(a)
The aquatic ecosystem's biomass pyramid is inverted. The biomass of

primary producers in this area is significantly lower than that of
zooplankton, which is lower than that of small fish and large fish, which
have the highest biomass. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The pyramid of Energy is always upright. Both the energy availability and
the net productivity steadily decline when the energy is transferred from one
trophic level to the next. Only 10% of energy is transferred from one trophic
level to another tropical level in the food chain. The remaining energy is
lost through the organism's metabolic activities such as heat production,
respiration. So, Statement 2 is correct.
An inverted pyramid of numbers can be found in a tree/parasite ecosystem

where the community contains a few producers with a very large biomass
that support a large number of smaller consumers. Example: A lot of
parasites, birds and animals being dependent on 1 tree for nutrition.
So, Statement 3 is not correct.

S.No. National Park (NP) Located In

1. Inderkilla NP Uttarakhand
2. Vansda NP Gujarat
3. Murlen NP Manipur
4. Shiroi NP Mizoram
Which of the above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 3 and 4 only
Answer: (c)
The correct mapping is:
Inderkilla NP Himachal Pradesh
Vansda NP Gujarat
Murlen NP Mizoram
Shiroi NP Manipur
So, only 2 is correctly matched.
54. In India, world’s first liquid-mirror telescope developed for astronomical
research is set up at:
(a) Ooty
(b) Ladakh
(c) Nainital
(d) Gangtok
Answer: (c)
The International Liquid-Mirror Telescope (ILMT) has been set up at the
Devasthal Observatory campus owned by Aryabhatta Research Institute of
Observational Sciences (ARIES), Nainital in Uttarakhand.
It will observe asteroids, supernovae, space debris, and all other celestial
objects from an altitude of 2,450 meters in the Himalayas.
India, Canada, Belgium, Poland and Uzbekistan are the main countries to
collaborate on setting up the ILMT. It was designed and built at Advanced
Mechanical and Optical Systems Corporation and Centre Spatial de Liège in
Belgium. It is world’s first liquid-mirror telescope, that was commissioned for
astronomy. Other liquid-telescopes were previously built either to track
satellites or were used for military purposes.
55. Xerophytes are predominantly found in which of the following climate

types?
(a) Tropical rainforest
(b) Temperate oceanic climate
(c) Continental climate
(d) Dry desert Climate
Answer: (d)

Xerophytes are a group of plants that have evolved adaptations to survive in
deserts where dry or arid environments exist with little available water. They
can thrive in these harsh conditions due to a variety of physical and
physiological adaptations, such as water-storing stems, deep roots to access
underground water sources, and specialized leaf structures that reduce
water loss through transpiration. Xerophytes are most likely to be found in
desert environments, where rainfall is low and temperatures can be extreme.
56. UNFCCC termed three critical problems faced by Earth as "Triple Planetary
Crisis”. These problems are:
(a) Climate Change, Sea level rise, Land degradation
(b) Pollution, Land degradation, Sea level rise
(c) Climate change, Pollution, Biodiversity loss
(d) Pollution, Biodiversity loss, Land degradation
Answer: (c)
Triple Planetary Crisis is a terminology and framework adopted by the
United Nation system to describe the three intersecting and global
environmental crises of: Pollution, Climate crisis and Biodiversity loss
57. With reference to Eutrophication, consider the following statements:

1. It can occur more readily in stagnant water than flowing waters.
2. It is found predominantly in oligotrophic lakes.
3. It may lead to population explosion of plants like duckweed.

(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b)
Eutrophication is the process in which a water body becomes overly
enriched with nutrients, leading to plentiful growth of simple plant life. The
excessive growth (or bloom) of algae and plankton in a water body are
indicators of this process. Eutrophication is a serious environmental concern
since it often results in the deterioration of water quality and the depletion of
dissolved oxygen in water bodies. Eutrophic waters can eventually become
“dead zones” that are incapable of supporting life.
Eutrophication is a natural process that results from accumulation of
nutrients in lakes or other bodies of water. Since this accumulation is slow
in a flowing water body, Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
Oligotrophic lakes carry low levels of nutrients; have lower productivity and
clear water. Oligotrophic lakes carry a very large amount of oxygen while
eutrophic lakes carry very low amounts of oxygen. Water is usually clear,
non-turbid or of very low turbidity in an oligotrophic lake. Thus,
Eutrophication is not possible in these lakes. Hence, statement 2 is not
correct.
As with many other aquatic plants, duckweeds grow best in water with high
levels of nitrogen and phosphate. Eutrophication of a body of water can

produce these conditions and encourages the growth of duckweeds. Hence,
statement 3 is correct.
58. With reference to the 'India Plastic Pact', consider the following statements:
1. India is the first Asian country to develop a plastic pact for building a
circular system for plastics.
2. It is a joint collaboration between the World Wildlife Fund (WWF) India
and the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII).

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)
India becomes the first Asian country to launch the India Plastics Pact which
targets to enable businesses to transition towards a circular economy for
plastics by 2030. This is an initiative between the Confederation of Indian
Industry (CII) and WWF India to keep plastic packaging out of the natural
environment. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct.
59. Consider the following statements regarding the Koronivia Joint Work on
Agriculture (KJWA):
1. It is the only program to focus on agriculture and food security under
United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
2. It was established at the UNFCCC - COP26 summit in Glasgow

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a)
Recently, as per reports, India raised objections to discussions under KJWA.
KJWA is a landmark decision recognizing the unique potential of agriculture
in tackling climate change.
The KJWA was established at the 23rd Conference of the Parties (COP) in Fiji
in 2017. The KJWA is the only program to focus on agriculture and food
security under UNFCCC.
Hence statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.
60. Which one of the following statements is correct about ''Earth’s Axial tilt''?
(a) Axial tilt has an impact on the length of day and night on Earth.
(b) It has no effect on the seasons on earth.
(c) Earth has the largest axial tilt in the solar system.
(d) Without axial tilt, equator would have had lesser temperature than at the
poles.
Answer: (a)
Axial tilt determines the length of daylight at any point on the earth. The
23.5 degrees of tilt and the position of the north pole relative to the sun

matters in this case. When the pole is tilted towards the sun, daylight is
longer than when it is pointed away and vice-versa.
Option (a) is correct.
Due to axial tilt, the sun shines on different latitudes at different angles
throughout the year. This causes the seasons on Earth.
Uranus has the largest axial tilt in the solar system. Its axis is tilted about
98 degrees.
Without axial tilt, equator would have had more temperature than the poles
and not otherwise. It would still be warm at the equator and cold at the
poles.
61. Consider the following statements with reference to the Western

Disturbances in India:
1. The inflow of western disturbances moves under the influence of westerly
jet streams from the Mediterranean Sea.
2. It influences winter weather conditions over most parts of the Northern
Plains.
3. It brings abundant rain in the summer months.

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c)
Western disturbances are storms that originate in the Caspian or

Mediterranean Sea and bring non-monsoonal rainfall to northwest India,
according to the Indian Meteorological Department. These cyclonic
disturbances are weather phenomena of the winter months brought in by
the westerly Jet streams which flow from the Mediterranean region.
This winter rain is beneficial for Rabi crops in Northern Plains.
So, Statement 1 is correct , Statement 2 is correct and Statement 3 is
incorrect.
62. Consider the following statements with reference to Eco-Sensitive Zone

(ESZ):
1. ESZ must be at least 1 km around any protected wildlife area.
2. The size of ESZ around any protected area need not be uniformly fixed.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)
Recently, the Supreme Court had directed that each protected area, every
national park and wildlife sanctuary in India would establish an Eco-

sensitive zone (ESZ) of at least 1 kilometre starting from its demarcated
boundaries where there is no mining construction and other new
establishment projects will be allowed. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The size of ESZ is not uniformly fixed around any protected area, all national
parks and sanctuaries, because it could have variable width and extent.
According to Wildlife Conservation Strategy 2002, Lands falling within 10 km
(maximum) of the boundaries of National Parks and Sanctuaries can be
notified as eco-fragile zones. So, Statement 2 is Correct.
63. Which of the following statement best explains the significance of the
Clarion-Clipperton Zone?
(a) Disputed territory between Russia and Ukraine
(b) A submarine region in the Pacific Ocean estimated to contain abundant
metallic nodules.
(c) A heavily militarized region in Arctic Ocean.
(d) A dead zone resulted from oxygen depletion in oceanic water in the Gulf
of Mexico.
Answer: (b)
In the Pacific Islands region, the manganese nodule deposits with the
greatest abundance and concentration of metals are found. While they occur
in all oceans, the Clarion-Clipperton Fracture Zone – CCZ (a submarine
region in the Pacific Ocean) deposits are among the richest, containing high
grade and high abundance nodules.
64. Consider the following statements about Tropical evergreen forests:

1. Tropical evergreen forests are rich in fertile soils, which helps in the
luxurious growth of tropical rainforests.
2. They are considered as ‘lungs’ of the Earth due to their vast potential of
acting as a carbon sink.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b)
Evergreen Forest are often called the lungs of the planet for their role in
absorbing carbon dioxide, a greenhouse gas, and increasing local humidity.
Even though the Tropical rain forest has luxuriant vegetation of all kinds,
the soil in this forest is very poor.
The soil is highly acidic. The high temperature and moisture of tropical
rainforests cause dead organic matter in the soil to decompose more quickly
than in other climates, thus releasing and losing its nutrients rapidly.

The high volume of rain in tropical rainforests washes nutrients out of the
soil more quickly than in other climates.
Thus statement 1 is incorrect while statement 2 is correct.
65. Arrange the following eastward flowing rivers of India from North to South:
1. Brahmani
2. Subarnarekha
3. Penner
4. Vaigai

(a) 2-1-3-4
(b) 2-1-4-3
(c) 1-3-4-2
(d) 1-2-3-4
Answer: (a)
Rivers have been highlighted in the below map
66. Ong, Tel, Mand, Ib are tributaries of which of the following rivers?
(a) Mahanadi
(b) Narmada

(c) Vamsdhara
(d) Nagavali
Answer: (a)
67. With reference to ocean currents, consider the following statements:

1. They help in the distribution of solar radiation across the Earth.
2. They can lead to the formation of fog and storms in certain regions.
3. Some ocean currents help in the formation of deserts.

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d)
Statement 1 is correct. Ocean currents are the in-charge of transporting heat

from the Equator to the poles. As a result, it contributes to climate balance.
Currents in the ocean serve as a conveyor belt. Warm water flows from the
equator to the poles, whereas cold water flows from the poles to the tropics.
It also aids in the distribution of solar radiation across the Earth's surface.
Statement 2 is correct. Fog and storms are noticed at the junction of the
warm and cold ocean currents due to a change in temperature in a limited
space.
Statement 3 is correct: Cold Ocean currents have a direct effect on desert

formation in west coast regions of the tropical and subtropical continents.
68. Consider the following statements with reference to Mica:

1. Mica can be found in all three major rocks varieties- igneous, sedimentary
and metamorphic.
2. In India, Jharkhand is the leading producer of Mica

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a)
Statement 1 is correct: Mica is a non- metallic mineral. Mica, any of a group

of hydrous potassium, aluminum silicate minerals. It is a type of
phyllosilicate, exhibiting a two-dimensional sheet or layer structure. Among
the principal rock-forming minerals, micas are found in all three major rock
varieties—igneous, sedimentary, and metamorphic
Statement 2 is incorrect: Andhra Pradesh is the leading Mica producer in

India.
69. Which of the following is an appropriate description of increase in Cropping

Intensity?
(a) When a greater number of crops are cultivated in a particular area during
a specific period.
(b) When crops with less maturity period are replaced by plantation crops
(c) When the investment per unit of land increases substantially.
(d) When large amounts of fertilizers and pesticides are used over a land
area.
Answer: (a)
Cropping intensity refers to the number of crops grown on a piece of land
during a certain period of time. By growing more crops in the same area
during a specific time period, the intensity of cropping increases. This can be
achieved through multiple cropping systems or intercropping, where
different crops are grown together or sequentially in the same field. It
maximizes land use and increases productivity.
70. The Tropic of Cancer passes through which of the following states?
1.Odisha
2.Tripura
3.Mizoram
4.Assam
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
Answer:(b)
The Tropic of Cancer passes through eight states in India: Gujarat (Jasdan),
Rajasthan (Kalinjarh),Madhya Pradesh (Shajapur), Chhattisgarh (Sonhat),
Jharkhand (Lohardaga), West Bengal (Krishnanagar),Tripura (Udaipur) and
Mizoram (Champhai) in that order. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
71. "Lisbon Declaration" sometimes seen in news is related to:

(a) declaration issued by the Commonwealth Prime Ministers' Conference on
the issue of India's continued membership of the Commonwealth of Nations
(b) declaration signed by the countries of the European Union to stand with
Ukraine in times of war and conflict.
(c) declaration signed at the United Nations Ocean Conference to scale up
actions against maritime pollution and habitat loss.
(d) first international declaration underlining the importance of primary
health care
Answer: (c)
Recently, all 198 members of the United Nations unanimously adopted the
Lisbon Declaration on ocean conservation. Participants at the conference
also agreed to work on preventing, reducing, and controlling marine
pollution. It includes:
• Nutrient pollution
• Untreated wastewater
• Solid waste discharges
• Hazardous substances
• Emissions from the maritime sector, including shipping, shipwrecks
• Anthropogenic underwater noise
72. Consider the following statement with reference to the Montreux Record:
1. Wetlands listed under it receive financial and technical assistance.
2. A site can be added to or withdrawn from the Record only with the
consent of the country in whose territory it is located.
3. Keoladeo National Park and Loktak Lake are the only two sites in India
listed under it.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d)
The Montreux Record, under the Ramsar Convention, is a register of wetland

sites on the List of Ramsar wetlands of international importance where
changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to
occur as a result of technological developments, pollution or other human
interference.
The Contracting Party may particularly benefit from receiving financial and
technical assistance as a result of listing on the Montreux Record. The
Montreux Record thus is an important tool to draw international attention
and conservation effort to Ramsar Sites. So, statement 1 is correct.
The Montreux Record should be used to identify priority locations for
positive national and international conservation attention. Sites may only be
added to or withdrawn from the Record with the consent of the Contracting
Parties in whose territory they are located. So, statement 2 is correct.
Only two Indian sites are listed under it, i.e., Keoladeo National Park and
Loktak Lake. Chilika Lake from Odisha was removed from the Montreux

record due to the successful restoration of the site. So, statement 3 is
correct.
73. With reference to the Battery Waste Management Rules, 2022 in India,
which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) These do not prescribe any responsibility to the consumer.

(b) These are applicable to automotive batteries and industrial batteries only.
(c) These provide for the disposal of used batteries in landfills and
incineration.
(d) The producers and battery importers are responsible for the collection
and recycling of battery wastes.
Answer: (d)
The Battery Waste Management Rules, 2022 replaces the Batteries
(Management and Handling) Rules, 2001.
Under the new rules, it will be the responsibility of consumers to discard
Waste Batteries separately from other waste streams, especially from mixed
waste, and domestic waste streams and to ensure that Waste Battery is
disposed off in an environment-friendly manner by giving it to an entity
engaged in collection or refurbishment or recycling.
The rules cover all types of batteries, viz. Electric Vehicle batteries, portable
batteries, automotive batteries, and industrial batteries.
Extended Producers Responsibility (EPR) mandates that all waste batteries
to be collected and sent for recycling/refurbishment, and it prohibits
disposal in landfills and incineration. To meet the EPR obligations,
producers may engage themselves or authorize any other entity for the
collection, recycling, or refurbishment of waste batteries.
The rules function based on the concept of Extended Producer Responsibility
(EPR) where the producers (including importers) of batteries are responsible
for the collection and recycling/refurbishment of waste batteries and the use
of recovered materials from wastes into new batteries.
Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
74. Which of the following are correct about ‘endorheic lakes’?

(a) They contain conditions unsuitable for formation of algal bloom.
(b) They are landlocked lakes with no outward drainage into large water
bodies
(c) Lakes formed by the deformation and resulting lateral and vertical
movements of the Earth's crust
(d) Lakes formed by the intentional damming of rivers and streams or the
subsequent filling of abandoned excavations by either ground water,
precipitation, or a combination of both.
Answer: (b)
Endorheic lakes are landlocked lakes where water does not drain into large
water bodies. The only way water can leave such a lake is by evaporation
into the air above or by seepage into the rock below. Endorheic lakes form
when endorheic basins fill with water from surrounding streams or local
rains. Examples: Lonar Lake , Sambhar Lake in India
75. Which of the following has/have been labelled as the ‘Forever Chemicals’?
(a) Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane (DDT)

(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Chlorofluorocarbons
(d) Perfluoroalkyl and Polyfluoroalkyl Substances
Answer: (d)
According to a recent study, scientists have found that rainwater from many
places across the globe is contaminated with Per- and Polyfluoroalkyl
Substances (PFAs).Further, they are called Forever chemicals because of
their tendency to stick around in the atmosphere, rainwater, and soil for
long periods of time. PFAs are also listed in the Stockholm Convention.
They are man-made chemicals used to make nonstick cookware, water-

repellent clothing, stain-resistant fabrics, cosmetics, firefighting forms, and
many other products that resist grease, water, and oil.
They cause a variety of health risks that are attributed to PFA exposure,
including decreased fertility, developmental effects in children, interference
with body hormones, increased cholesterol levels, and increased risk of some
cancers.
76. Consider the following statements regarding CITES (the Convention on

International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora):
1. CITES was conceptualized in 1963 at a meeting of the United Nations

Environment Programme that came into force in 1975.
2. CITES is neither legally binding on the Parties nor it take the place of
national laws.
3. Species that are in danger of extinction are kept in Appendix 3 of CITES.

(a) 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None of the above
Answer: (d)
Statement 1 is incorrect: CITES was conceptualized in 1963 at a meeting of
the (IUCN) International Union for Conservation of Nature. It came into force
in 1975 and consists of 183 member-countries till date that abide by CITES
regulations by implementing legislation within their own borders to enforce
those regulations. Located in Geneva, Switzerland, the CITES is
administered by the United Nations under its UNEP (United Nations
Environment Programme) Wing
Statement 2 is incorrect: Although CITES is legally binding on the Parties, it
does not take the place of national laws. Rather, it provides a framework to
be respected by each Party, which has to adopt its own
domestic legislation to ensure that CITES is implemented at the national
level.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Appendices I, II and III to the Convention are lists
of species afforded different levels or types of protection from over-
exploitation. CITES Appendix-I has Species that are in danger of extinction.
CITES Appendix-II has Species that aren’t facing imminent extinction but

need monitoring so that any trade doesn’t become a threat. Species that are
protected in at least one country are kept in CITES Appendix-III.
77. “The Critical Wildlife Habitats (CWHs)” are defined as areas that are
required to be kept as inviolate for the purposes of wildlife conservation.
They are so defined under which of the following acts?
(a) Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers Act, 2006
(b) Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
(c) Environment Protection Act, 1986
(d) Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960
Answer:(a)
The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of

Forest Rights) Act, 2006 defines “critical wildlife habitat” as such areas of
National Parks and Sanctuaries where it has been specifically and clearly
established, case by case, on the basis of scientific and objective criteria,
that such areas are required to be kept as inviolate for the purposes of
wildlife conservation.
78. In which of the following regions of India are you most likely to come across
the hump-backed mahseer, in its natural habitat?
(a) Chambal river
(b) Cauvery basin
(c) Ganges basin
(d) Brahmaputra
Answer:(b)
Hump-backed mahseer, (also called tiger of water) is a critically endangered
species of freshwater fish endemic to the Western Ghats of India. It is
restricted to the Kaveri River basin. It can be distinguished from other
mahseer from the prominent hump on its back, and its bright orange caudal
fin. It is considered a high-quality game fish, and has been proclaimed by
anglers as "the largest and hardest fighting freshwater fish in the world".
79. During sunrise and sunset, the sun appears reddish in colour than during
the day time. Which one of the following is the reason behind this?
(a) Light of longer wavelength scatters more than the light of shorter
wavelengths
(b) Refraction of sunlight by the water and dust particles in the troposphere
(c) Light of shorter wavelength scatters more than the light of longer
wavelengths
(d) Refraction of light by the stratospheric clouds
Answer: (c)
The light from the Sun travels through Earth’s atmosphere and it undergoes
scattering before it reaches us. The extent of scattering is not uniform for all
colors. Light of shorter wavelengths, such as violet, blue, green and yellow
undergoes greater scattering than those of longer wavelengths, such as
orange and red.

1. The genetic information is transferred from messenger RNA (mRNA) to
DNA in case of transcription.
2. Information encoded in mRNA directs the addition of amino acids during
protein synthesis in case of Translation.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b)
Transcription is the process of copying genetic information from one strand

of DNA into RNA (and not vice-versa)
So, statement 1 is not correct.
Translation is the process through which information encoded

in messenger RNA (mRNA) directs the addition of amino acids
during protein synthesis. Translation takes place on ribosomes
in the cell cytoplasm, where mRNA is read and translated into the
string of amino acid chains that make up the synthesized protein.
So, statement 2 is correct.

1. A superconductor is a material which conducts electricity with no
resistance.
2. Superconductivity occurs only at very high temperatures.
3. Superconductors exhibit exclusion of the magnetic field from their inside.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c)
A superconductor is a material that can conduct electricity with no
resistance. So, statement 1 is correct.
Most superconductors work at temperatures well below 200 K, or –73°C.
So, statement 2 is not correct.
When a material makes the transition from the normal to the
superconducting state, it actively excludes magnetic fields from its interior.
This is called the Meissner effect. So, statement 3 is correct.
82. Which one of the following statements is correct with reference to the
“GigaMesh” which has sometimes seen in the news recently?
(a) It is a web-based portal for Issuing of Licenses and Registration
certificates PM-WANI scheme
(b) It is a multi-beam E-band Radio that is able to communicate from one
tower to multiple towers simultaneously
(c) It is the new brand name of National Optic Fibre Network to facilitate the
delivery of e-governance

(d) A flagship fiber grid program to provide internet access to improve
education and health facilities.
Answer:(b)
GigaMesh is the world's first multi-beam E-band Radio that can
communicate simultaneously from one tower to multiple towers while
delivering multi GBPS throughput to each of these towers. It was developed
by Astrome, supported by AI & Robotics Technology Park (ARTPARK), the
Technology Innovation Hub (TIH) at the Indian Institute of Science (IISc),
which aims to chart the future for millimeter wave wireless communication
on Earth and in space.
A single GigaMesh device can provide up to forty links with 2+ Gbps
capacity, communicating up to a range of ten kilometers. This flexibility in
range makes it suitable for both decongesting the dense urban networks and
extending rural coverage. So, Option (b) is correct.
83. Consider the following statements with reference to the Quantum Frontier
Mission :
1. It aims to initiate research in the understanding and control of quantum
mechanical systems.
2. It is an initiative of the Department of Science and Technology.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans:(a)
The Quantum Frontier mission of the Prime Minister's Science, Technology,

and Innovation Advisory Council (PM-STIAC) aims to initiate work in
understanding and controlling quantum mechanical systems with many
degrees of freedom as one of the great contemporary challenges in
fundamental science and technology. Building excellence in the quantum
frontier through this mission is essential for national security and
developing quantum computers, quantum chemistry, quantum
communication, new materials, quantum sensors, and quantum
cryptography. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Quantum Frontier mission is an initiative of Prime Minister's Science,
Technology, and Innovation Advisory Council (PM-STIAC). It is not the
initiative of the Department of Science and Technology. So, Statement 2 is
incorrect.
84. Consider the following statements with reference to the LiFi technology:
1. It is a wireless technology that uses the infrared and visible light
spectrum.
2. It provides high-speed data transmission compared to traditional
broadband services.
3. It is unidirectional in transmitting data.

(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b)
LiFi is a wireless communication technology that uses the infrared and

visible light spectrum for high-speed data communication.
A LiFi network uses the light from LED lamps to send data to a device and
infrared light from the device to transmit data back. Multiple lights can be
added to a single network allowing you to move around space from light to
light without disrupting the connection. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Li-Fi technology gives extra features compared to traditional Wi-Fi networks,

like the increased bandwidth frequency, faster transmission speeds, and not
being affected by network latency due to high traffic.
Like radio waves, visible light is part of the electromagnetic spectrum. The
difference is that viable light has a spectrum 10,000 times larger than radio
waves. This means LiFi has the potential for enormous capacity. Instead of
transmitting information via one data stream, visible light would make it
possible to simultaneously transmit the same information using thousands
of data streams. So, Statement 2 is correct.
A unidirectional network connection is a connection on which a device may
only transmit data or only receive data, but not both. That is, a source can
transmit data to one or many destinations, but the destination(s) cannot
transmit data back to the source because it is unable to receive. LiFi is a
bidirectional wireless system that simultaneously transmits data in both
uplink and downlink. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
85. Which one of the following statements is correct with reference to ‘Society
5.0’ ?
(a) It envisions a form of socialist economy, where property is owned by
communes and not individuals.
(b) It foresees civil society organizations to provide certain goods and services
to people who need them at an appointed time
(c) It envisages a sustainable, inclusive socio-economic system powered by
digital technologies
(d) It anticipates a meta-community that recognizes the urgent need to
redesign the value systems, reward systems, and social contracts
underpinning modern society
Answer:(c)
The concept of Society 5.0 emerged in Japan as a strategic national political
initiative. It emerged as a Japanese government program in which the
government wishes to establish a better, super-smart and more prosperous
human-centered society with the support of technological innovations; thus,
it envisages a sustainable, inclusive socio-economic system powered by
digital technologies. Society 5.0 is Japan’s new blueprint for a super-smart
society that envisions completely transforming the Japanese way of life.
In Society 5.0, autonomous vehicles and drones will bring goods and
services to people in depopulated areas. Customers can choose the size,
color and fabric of their clothing online directly from the garment factory
before being delivered by drone. A doctor can consult her patients in the
comfort of their homes via a special tablet. So, Option (c) is correct.

86. With reference to Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) project,
consider the following statements:
1. ONDC promotes open networks for all aspects of exchange of goods and
services over digital networks.
2. ONDC is not platform-centric, consumers can purchase using any
platform.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)
Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) is a freely accessible
government-backed platform that aims to democratise e-commerce by
moving it from a platform-centric model to an open network for buying and
selling of goods and services.
Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) is an initiative to promote open
networks for all aspects of exchanging goods and services over digital or
electronic networks. So, Statement 1 is correct.
ONDC, a UPI of e-commerce, seeks to democratise digital or electronic
commerce, moving it from a platform-centric model to an open network.
ONDC plans to enable sellers and buyers to be digitally visible and transact
through an open network.
The new framework aims at promoting open networks developed on open-
sourced methodology, using open specifications and open network protocols
independent of any specific platform. So, Statement 2 is correct.
87. Consider the following statements regarding antimicrobial resistance:

1. Antimicrobial resistance is not a natural process, but misuse of antibiotics
in humans and animal feed is the main cause.
2. Antibiotic Resistance occurs when, genetic changes in bacteria cause the
earlier effective drugs used to treat the infection to become less effective.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer:(b)
Antimicrobials – including antibiotics, antivirals, antifungals and

antiparasitics – are medicines used to prevent and treat infections in
humans, animals and plants.
Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR) occurs when bacteria, viruses, fungi and
parasites change over time and no longer respond to medicines making
infections harder to treat and increasing the risk of disease spread, severe
illness and death.
As a result of drug resistance, antibiotics and other antimicrobial medicines
become ineffective and infections become increasingly difficult or impossible
to treat.

AMR occurs naturally over time, usually through genetic changes.
Antimicrobial resistant organisms are found in people, animals, food, plants
and the environment (in water, soil and air). They can spread from person to
person or between people and animals, including from food of animal origin.
Antibiotic / Antimicrobial resistance happens when germs like bacteria and

fungi develop the ability to defeat the drugs designed to kill them. That
means the germs are not killed and continue to grow. Resistant infections
can be difficult, and sometimes impossible, to treat. But this resistance is
natural, whereas misuse of antibiotics in humans and animals only
accelerates the process. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
Drugs/ Medicines are designed to kill the bacteria which infect human
beings. Antibiotic resistance (ABR) is developed in bacteria when they
develop the ability to survive exposure to antibiotics designed to kill them.
So, Statement 2 is correct.
88. The State of Inequality in India Report was released by:

(a) NITI Aayog
(b) Reserve Bank Of India
(c) Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister
(d) Department of Economic Affairs , Ministry of Finance
Answer: (c)
The State of Inequality in India Report was released by Economic Advisory
Council to the Prime Minister (EAC-PM). The report has been written by the
Institute for Competitiveness and presents a holistic analysis of the depth
and nature of inequality in India. The report compiles information on
inequities across sectors of health, education, household characteristics,
and the labour market. As the report presents, inequities in these sectors
make the population more vulnerable and trigger a descent into
multidimensional poverty.
89. With reference to Sowa-Rigpa, consider the following statements:

1.It is a traditional system of medicine that originated in Tibet.
2.It is formally recognized and promoted as traditional medical system by
the Government of India.

(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both1and2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)
Statement 1 is correct: Sowa-Rigpa is a traditional system of medicine

practised in the Himalayan belt of India. It originated in Tibet and popularly
practiced in countries namely, India, Nepal, Bhutan, Mongolia, and Russia.
Statement 2 is correct: Sowa Rigpa is formally recognized and promoted as

traditional medical system by the Government of India.
90. Which of the following is/are the most likely effects of increased carbon
dioxide concentration in the atmosphere?
1.Increase in water-use efficiency allowing plants to grow in water scarcity

2.Increased rate of photosynthesis
3.Improved nitrogen fixation allowing plants to grow in nutrient-poor soil
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a)1 only
(b)1 and 3 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
Answer:(d)
Carbon fertilization (or CO2 fertilization) is the response of plants to elevated

concentrations of CO2.
Due to increased CO2 concentration, the rate of photosynthesis increases
and the stomatal conductance decreases (due to partial closure of stomata).
Thus, the transpiration rate may be reduced and consequently, water-use
efficiency increases, allowing many species to grow successfully in regions of
water scarcity.Under higher atmospheric CO2 conditions, plants allocate a
greater proportion of photosynthate to roots. Greater root production is
expected to enhance mycorrhizal development and fixation in root nodules,
thereby enabling the plants to grow in nutrient-poor soils.
91. With reference to Crime & Criminal Tracking Network and Systems (CCTNS),
consider the following statements:
1.CCTNS is a Mission Mode Project under the National e-Governance Plan.
2.National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) is the central nodal agency for
managing the nationwide implementation of CCTNS.
3.CCTNS also provides for a citizen‘s interface to provide basic services to
citizens.

(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d)
Statement 1 is correct: CCTNS is a Mission Mode Project under the National
e-Governance Plan of Government of India. It has been conceptualized and
sponsored by the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA).
Statement 2 is correct: National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) is the central

nodal agency for managing the nationwide implementation of this project
and the respective State Crime Records Bureau (SCRB), the State Nodal
Agency for implementation in the State.
Statement 3 is correct: CCTNS also provides for a citizen‘s interface to

provide basic services to citizens.
The scope of CCTNS spans all 36 States and Union Territories and covers all
Police Stations (14,000+ in number) and all Higher Police Offices (6,000+ in
number) in the country. The CCTNS project includes vertical connectivity of
police units (linking police units at various levels within the States – police
stations, district police offices, state headquarters, other police formations
through state headquarters and SCRB, to NCRB at GOI level) as well as

horizontal connectivity, linking police functions at State and Central level to
external entities.
92. Houthi rebels, frequently in news, are based in which of the following
countries?
(a)Iraq
(b)Yemen
(c)Lebanon
(d)Libya
Answer:(b)
Houthi insurgency in Yemen is a military rebellion pitting Shia Houthis
against the Yemeni military that began in Northern Yemen and has since
escalated into a full-scale civil war.
93. Arrange the following passes from west to east:

1.Jelep la
2.Lipulekh pass
3.Diphu pass
4.Shipki la

(a)4-2-1-3
(b)2-4-1-3
(c)1-4-3-2
(d)4-1-2-3
Answer: (a) 4-1-2-3

Shipki la – Himachal Pradesh
Lipulekh pass – Uttarakhand
Jelep la – Sikkim
Diphu pass – Arunachal Pradesh
94. Which of the following statements about the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima
Yojana (PMFBY) is/are correct?
1.Its objective is to stabilize the income of farmers to ensure their
continuance in farming.
2.Under the scheme, only food crops damages are covered.
3.The scheme covers post-harvest losses due to hail storms and unseasonal
rainfall.

(a)3 only
(b)1 and 2 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c)
Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) aims at supporting sustainable
production in agriculture sector by way of providing financial support to
farmers suffering crop loss/damage arising out of unforeseen events
stabilizing the income of farmers to ensure their continuance in farming.

Apart from food crops (Cereals, Millets and Pulses), Oilseeds and Annual
Commercial /Annual Horticultural crops are also included in crop
insurance.The scheme provides add on coverage for crop loss due to attack of
wild animals, which will be implemented on a pilot basis; along with post-
harvest losses arising due to hail storms, unseasonal and cyclonic rainfalls.
95. With reference to the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016, consider
the following statements:
1.The Act replaced the Persons with Disabilities Act, 1995
2.The Act provides for reservation in higher education, government jobs and
poverty alleviation schemes for persons with benchmark disabilities.
3.The Act recognizes persons with blood disorders - Thalassemia,
Hemophilia and Sickle Cell Disease as 'persons with disabilities' under the
Act.

(a)2 only
(b)1 and 2 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
Answer:(d)
Statement 1 is correct: The Act replaced the Persons with Disabilities (Equal
Opportunities, Protection of Rights and Full Participation) Act, 1995. It fulfils
the obligations to the United National Convention on the Rights of Persons
with Disabilities (UNCRPD), to which India is a signatory.
Statement 2 is correct: Additional benefits such as reservation in higher

education (not less than 5%), government jobs (not less than 4 %),
reservation in the allocation of land, poverty alleviation schemes (5%
allotment) etc. have been provided for persons with benchmark disabilities.
Statement 3 is correct: The types of disabilities have been increased from

existing 7 to 21 and the Central Government will have the power to add
more types of disabilities. The 21 disabilities are given below:- Blindness,
Low-vision, Leprosy Cured persons, Hearing Impairment (deaf and hard of
hearing), Locomotor Disability, Dwarfism, Intellectual Disability, Mental
Illness, Autism Spectrum Disorder, Cerebral Palsy, Muscular Dystrophy,
Chronic Neurological Conditions, Specific Learning Disabilities, Multiple
Sclerosis, Speech and Language disability, Thalassemia, Hemophilia, Sickle
Cell Disease, Multiple Disabilities including deaf-blindness, Acid Attack
victim, Parkinson's disease.
96. Consider the following statements regarding the Coastal Regulation Zones
(CRZs) in India:
1.Coastal Regulation Zone notification is issued under Environment
Protection Act, 1986.
2.It includes intertidal zone and area up to 5000 meters from the High Tide
Line (HTL).
3.Projects related to development of atomic energy are prohibited in the
Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZs).

(a)1 only

(b)2 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
Answer:(a)
Statement 1 is correct: CRZ notification are provided in Environment

Protection Act, 1986.
Statement 2 is not correct: Central Government declares the coastal

stretches of seas, bays, estuaries, creeks, rivers and backwaters which are
influenced by tidal action (in the landward side) upto 100 metres from the
High Tide Line (HTL) and the land between the Low Tide Line (LTL) and the
HTL (known as Inter-tidal zone) as Coastal Regulation Zone.
Statement 3 is not correct: Activities that can cause damage to the coastal
ecosystem are prohibited in the Coastal Regulation Zone except: those
directly related to water front or directly needing foreshore facilities and
Projects of Department of Atomic Energy.
97. With reference to the International Court of Justice, consider the following
statements:
1. It is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations.
2. It can hear a dispute only when requested to do so by one or more States.
3. It can try individuals accused of war crimes or crimes against humanity.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct answer: (a)

Statement 1 is correct: ICJ is the principal judicial organ of the United
Nations. It was established by the United Nations Charter, which was signed
in 1945.
Statement 2 is correct: Only States are eligible to appear before the Court in
contentious cases. The Court has no jurisdiction to deal with applications
from individuals, non-governmental organizations, corporations or any other
private entity. It cannot provide them with legal advice or help them in their
dealings with national authorities. The Court can only hear a dispute when
requested to do so by one or more States. It cannot deal with a dispute on its
own initiative. Neither is it permitted, under its Statute, to investigate and
rule on acts of sovereign States as it chooses. Judgments delivered by the
Court (or by one of its Chambers) in disputes between States are binding
upon the parties concerned.
Statement 3 is not correct: ICJ has no jurisdiction to try individuals accused

of war crimes or crimes against humanity.
98. Consider the following statements regarding various computer malwares:

1. A worm is a type of malware that propagates by inserting a copy of itself
into and becoming part of another program.

2. A computer virus are standalone software and does not require a host
program or human help to propagate.
3. A Trojan horse spreads by pretending to be a useful software while
secretly containing malicious instructions.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct answer: (b)

Statement 1 is not correct: A computer virus is a type of malware that
propagates by inserting a copy of itself into and becoming part of another
program. It spreads from one computer to another, leaving infections as it
travels. Viruses can range in severity from causing mildly annoying effects to
damaging data or software and causing denial-of-service (DoS) conditions.
Almost all viruses are attached to an executable file, which means the virus
may exist on a system but will not be active or able to spread until a user
runs or opens the malicious host file or program. When the host code is
executed, the viral code is executed as well.
Statement 2 is not correct: Computer worms are similar to viruses in that

they replicate functional copies of themselves and can cause the same type
of damage. In contrast to viruses, which require the spreading of an infected
host file, worms are standalone software and do not require a host program
or human help to propagate. To spread, worms either exploit a vulnerability
on the target system or use some kind of social engineering to trick users
into executing them. A worm enters a computer through a vulnerability in
the system and takes advantage of file-transport or information-transport
features on the system, allowing it to travel unaided.
Statement 3 is correct: Unlike viruses, Trojans don’t self-replicate. Instead, a

Trojan horse spreads by pretending to be useful software or content while
secretly containing malicious instructions. It is more useful to think of
“Trojan” as an umbrella term for malware delivery, which hackers use for
various threats.
99. Which of the following protocols is associated with handling and use of
'living modified organisms resulting from modern biotechnology'?
(a) Cartagena Protocol
(b) Nagoya Protocol
(c) Kyoto Protocol
(d) Hague Protocol
Answer: (a)
Objective of the Cartagena Protocol is to contribute to ensuring an adequate

level of protection in the field of the safe transfer, handling and use of 'living
modified organisms resulting from modern biotechnology' that may have
adverse effects on the conservation and sustainable use of biological
diversity, taking also into account risks to human health, and specifically
focusing on transboundary movements.

1. Drug Price Control Order (DPCO), 2013 has been issued under the
Essential Commodities Act, 1955
2. All the drugs in India are subject to price control under DPCO, 2013.
3. Drug prices are monitored and controlled by the Central Drugs Standard
Control Organization (CDSCO).

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer:(a)
Statement 1 is correct: Drug Price Control Orders (DPCO) are issued by the
Government, in the exercise of the powers conferred under section 3 of the
Essential Commodities Act, 1955, for enabling the Government to declare a
ceiling price for essential and life-saving medicines (as per a prescribed
formula) so as to ensure that these medicines are available at a reasonable
price to the general public. The latest Drug Price Control Order (DPCO-2013)
was issued on 15.05.2013.
Statement 2 is not correct: National List of Essential Medicines (NLEM)

forms the basis of deciding which medicines should come under price
control via DPCO.
Statement 3 is not correct: Drug prices are monitored and controlled by the
National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA).

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What A Test 2023 Full Length Test 2 (FLT-2)

(a) Margaret Cousins

2. With reference to modern Indian history, ‘Sattichaura Massacre’ and

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Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

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Which of the statements given above are correct?

5. The term “abwabs” in British India referred to:

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9. With reference to ‘Serampore Mission (1800-1845)’ during British colonial

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The Kathāsaritsāgara ("Ocean of the Streams of Stories") is a famous 11th-

Dashakumaracharita is a prose romance in Sanskrit, attributed to Dandin

15. Arrange the following dynasties in the chronological order of their

Answer: (c) 3-1-2-4

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Select the correct answer using the code given below:

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Statement 3 is correct as surety bonds will be a cheaper alternative to

Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) has also

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1. A public sector enterprise paying dividend to central government

1 and 2 are revenue receipts

Which of the above statements are correct?

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Statement 2 is Correct: Providing telecom services in rural areas may not

Which of the above statements are correct?

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24. With reference to Indian economy, consider the following:

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Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Statement 2 is not correct: They are mostly found in permafrost regions

28. Consider the following statements regarding organic farming in India:

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

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Statement 1 is correct. Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI)

Statement 2 is incorrect and Statement 3 is correct

2. Participatory Guarantee System for India (PGS)

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India recently improved in the logistics ranking of the World Bank by

31. With reference to Capital Expenditure (Capex) in an economy, consider the

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

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Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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36. With reference to 10th Schedule of constitution of India, consider the

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Statement 2 is incorrect: In the Kihoto Hollohan case (1993), the Supreme

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Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution provides that detention of a

Statement 3 is incorrect: Protection under Article 22 regarding preventive

38. Consider the following statements with reference to various forms of

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

The parliamentary system ensures harmonious relationships and

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39. The term “Corporate Sustainability Reporting Directive (CSRD) ” sometimes

40. Consider the following statements with reference to Indian polity: