VANDANA INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL

SECTOR 10, DWARKA

Nothing is more powerful for your future than being a gatherer of good ideas
and information.

Dear Scholars,
Summer is a great time to expand your knowledge and learn something new.
The world is your classroom. Though the term ‘holiday homework’ simply
contradicts itself, it depends on the intensity of work assigned and the level of
the learners pertaining to their curriculum priorities, which ought to be met.

Thus diagnosing the child’s aspirations and future pursuits, holiday homework
gives a dimension and edge to the learners to hold on to their career goals and
shape their identities and overall outlook towards this competitive life.

A perpetual quest for knowledge being our underlying objective, the holiday
homework designed by us is neither exhaustive nor tedious. It caters to
stimulate both, a learner’s creativity and critical thinking skills.

In peroration, we, as educators, aim at making the learners feel at ease and yet
getting the work done by employing strategies that would benefit all and
sundry.

I wish you all a joyous holiday. Relax, unwind and learn something new every
day.

Best Wishes
Academic Director
 CLASS XI STREAM: SCIENCE

CHEMISTRY
1. Revise the chapters taught in class : Some Basic Concept of Chemistry and
Structure of atom
2. Assignment of both chapters are given below make a separate copy and
complete the assignment Need to submit the copy after vacation.

SOME BASIC CONCEPT OF CHEMISTRY

1. A measured temperature on Fahrenheit scale is 200 °F. What will this reading be on
Celsius scale?
(i) 40 °C
(ii) 94 °C
(iii) 93.3 °C
(iv) 30 °C
2. What will be the molarity of a solution, which contains 5.85 g of NaCl(s) per 500 mL?
(i) 4 mol L–1
(ii) 20 mol L–1
(iii) 0.2 mol L–1
(iv) 2 mol L–1
3. If 500 mL of a 5M solution is diluted to 1500 mL, what will be the molarity of the
solution obtained?
(i) 1.5 M
(ii) 1.66 M
(iii) 0.017 M
(iv) 1.59 M
4. The number of atoms present in one mole of an element is equal to Avogadro
number. Which of the following element contains the greatest number of atoms?
(i) 4g He
(ii) 46g Na
(iii) 0.40g Ca
(iv) 12g He
5. If the concentration of glucose (C6H12O6) in blood is 0.9 g L–1 , what will be the molarity
of glucose in blood?
(i) 5 M
(ii) 50 M
(iii) 0.005 M
(iv) 0.5 M
6. What will be the molality of the solution containing 18.25 g of HCl gas in 500 g of
water?
(i) 0.1 m
(ii) 1 M
(iii) 0.5 m
(iv) 1 m
7. One mole of any substance contains 6.022 × 1023 atoms/molecules. Number of
molecules of H2SO4 present in 100 mL of 0.02M H2SO4 solution is ______.
(i) 12.044 × 1020 molecules
 (ii) 6.022 × 1023 molecules
(iii) 1 × 1023 molecules
(iv) 12.044 ×1023 molecules
8. What is the mass percent of carbon in carbon dioxide?
(i) 0.034%
(ii) 27.27%
(iii) 3.4%
(iv) 28.7%
9. The empirical formula and molecular mass of a compound are CH 2O and 180 g
respectively. What will be the molecular formula of the compound?
(i) C9H18O9
(ii) CH2O
(iii) C6H12O6
(iv) C2H4O2
10. If the density of a solution is 3.12 g mL-1, the mass of 1.5 mL solution in significant
figures is _______.
(i) 4.7g
(ii) 4680 × 10-3 g
(iii) 4.680g
(iv) 46.80g
11. Which of the following statements about a compound is incorrect?
(i) A molecule of a compound has atoms of different elements.
(ii) A compound cannot be separated into its constituent elements by physical
methods of separation.
(iii) A compound retains the physical properties of its constituent elements.
(iv) The ratio of atoms of different elements in a compound is fixed.
12. Which of the following statements is correct about the reaction given below:
4Fe(s) + 3O2 (g) → 2Fe2O3(g)
(i) Total mass of iron and oxygen in reactants = total mass of iron and oxygen in
product therefore it follows law of conservation of mass.
(ii) Total mass of reactants = total mass of product; therefore, law of multiple
proportions is followed.
(iii) Amount of Fe 2 O 3 can be increased by taking any one of the reactants (iron or
oxygen) in excess.
(iv) Amount of Fe 2 O 3 produced will decrease if the amount of any one of the
reactants (iron or oxygen) is taken in excess.
13. Which of the following reactions is not correct according to the law of conservation of
mass.
(i) 2Mg(s) + O2(g) → 2MgO(s)
(ii) C3H8(g) + O2(g) → CO2(g) + H2O(g)
(iii) P4(s) + 5O2(g) → P4O10(s)
(iv) CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O (g)
14. Which of the following statements indicates that law of multiple proportion is being
followed.
(i) Sample of carbon dioxide taken from any source will always have carbon and
oxygen in the ratio 1:2.
(ii) Carbon forms two oxides namely CO2 and CO, where masses of oxygen which
combine with fixed mass of carbon are in the simple ratio 2:1.
(iii) When magnesium burns in oxygen, the amount of magnesium taken for the
reaction is equal to the amount of magnesium in magnesium oxide formed.
(iv) At constant temperature and pressure 200 mL of hydrogen will combine with 100
mL oxygen to produce 200 mL of water vapour.
 Multiple Choice Questions (Type-II)
In the following questions two or more options may be correct.
1. One mole of oxygen gas at STP is equal to _______.
(i) 6.022 × 1023 molecules of oxygen
(ii) 6.022 × 1023 atoms of oxygen
(iii) 16 g of oxygen
(iv) 32 g of oxygen
2. Sulphuric acid reacts with sodium hydroxide as follows :
H2SO4 + 2NaOH ⎯→ Na2SO4 + 2H2O
When 1L of 0.1M sulphuric acid solution is allowed to react with 1L of 0.1M sodium
hydroxide solution, the amount of sodium sulphate formed and its molarity in the
solution obtained is
(i) 0.1 mol L-1
(ii) 7.10 g
(iii) 0.025 mol L-1
(iv) 3.55 g
3. Which of the following pairs have the same number of atoms?
(i) 16 g of O2 (g) and 4 g of H2(g)
(ii) 16 g of O2 and 44 g of CO2
(iii) 28 g of N2 and 32 g of O2
(iv) 12 g of C(s) and 23 g of Na(s)
4. Which of the following solutions have the same concentration?
(i) 20 g of NaOH in 200 mL of solution
(ii) 0.5 mol of KCl in 200 mL of solution
(iii) 40 g of NaOH in 100 mL of solution
(iv) 20 g of KOH in 200 mL of solution
5. 16 g of oxygen has same number of molecules as in
(i) 16 g of CO
(ii) 28 g of N2
(iii) 14 g of N2
(iv) 1.0 g of H2
6. Which of the following terms are unitless?
(i) Molality
(ii) Molarity
(iii) Mole fraction
(iv) Mass percent
7. One of the statements of Dalton’s atomic theory is given below:
“Compounds are formed when atoms of different elements combine in a fixed ratio”
Which of the following laws is not related to this statement?
(i) Law of conservation of mass
(ii) Law of definite proportions
(iii) Law of multiple proportions
(iv) Avogadro law

Short Answer Type Questions

1. What will be the mass of one atom of C-12 in grams?
2. How many significant figures should be present in the answer of the following
calculations?
3. What is the symbol for SI unit of mole? How is the mole defined?
4. What is the difference between molality and molarity?
5. Calculate the mass percent of calcium, phosphorus and oxygen in calcium
phosphate Ca3(PO4)2.
6. 45.4 L of dinitrogen reacted with 22.7 L of dioxygen and 45.4 L of nitrous oxide was
formed. The reaction is given below:
2N2(g) + O2(g) → 2N2O(g)
Which law is being obeyed in this experiment? Write the statement of the law?
7. If two elements can combine to form more than one compound, the masses of one
element that combine with a fixed mass of the other element, are in whole number
ratio.
(a) Is this statement true?
(b) If yes, according to which law?
(c) Give one example related to this law.
8. Calculate the average atomic mass of hydrogen using the following data :

9. Hydrogen gas is prepared in the laboratory by reacting dilute HCl with granulated
zinc. Following reaction takes place.
Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl2 + H2
Calculate the volume of hydrogen gas liberated at STP when 32.65 g of zinc reacts
with HCl. 1 mol of a gas occupies 22.7 L volume at STP; atomic mass of Zn = 65.3 u.
10. The density of 3 molal solution of NaOH is 1.110 g mL -1 . Calculate the molarity of the
solution.
11. Volume of a solution changes with change in temperature, then, will the molality of
the solution be affected by temperature? Give reason for your answer.
12. If 4 g of NaOH dissolves in 36 g of H2O, calculate the mole fraction of each
component in the solution. Also, determine the molarity of solution (specific gravity of
solution is 1g mL-1 ).
13. The reactant which is entirely consumed in reaction is known as limiting reagent. In
the reaction 2A + 4B → 3C + 4D, when 5 moles of A react with 6 moles of B, then
(i) which is the limiting reagent?
(ii) calculate the amount of C formed?

Assertion and Reason Type Questions

In the following questions a statement of Assertion (A) followed by a statement of
Reason (R) is given. Choose the correct option out of the choices given below each
question.
1. Assertion (A) : The empirical mass of ethene is half of its molecular mass.
Reason (R) : The empirical formula represents the simplest whole number ratio of
various atoms present in a compound.
(i) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(ii) A is true but R is false.
(iii) A is false but R is true.
(iv) Both A and R are false.
2. Assertion (A) : One atomic mass unit is defined as one twelfth of the mass of one
carbon-12 atom.
Reason (R) : Carbon-12 isotope is the most abundunt isotope of carbon and has
 been chosen as standard.
(i) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(ii) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(iii) A is true but R is false.
(iv) Both A and R are false.
3. Assertion (A) : Significant figures for 0.200 is 3 where as for 200 it is 1.
Reason (R) : Zero at the end or right of a number are significant provided they are
not on the right side of the decimal point.
(i) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
(ii) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(iii) A is true but R is false.
(iv) Both A and R are false.
4. Assertion (A) : Combustion of 16 g of methane gives 18 g of water.
Reason (R) : In the combustion of methane, water is one of the products.
(i) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(ii) A is true but R is false.
(iii) A is false but R is true.
(iv) Both A and R are false.

Long Answer Type Questions

1. A vessel contains 1.6 g of dioxygen at STP (273.15K, 1 atm pressure). The gas is
now transferred to another vessel at constant temperature, where pressure becomes
half of the original pressure. Calculate
(i) volume of the new vessel.
(ii) number of molecules of dioxygen.
2. Calcium carbonate reacts with aqueous HCl to give CaCl2 and CO2 according to the
reaction given below:
CaCO3 (s) + 2HCl (aq) → CaCl2(aq) + CO2(g) + H2O(l)
What mass of CaCl2 will be formed when 250 mL of 0.76 M HCl reacts with 1000 g of
CaCO3 ? Name the limiting reagent. Calculate the number of moles of CaCl2 formed
in the reaction.
3. Define the law of multiple proportions. Explain it with two examples. How does this
law point to the existence of atoms?
4. A box contains some identical red coloured balls, labelled as A, each weighing 2
grams. Another box contains identical blue coloured balls, labelled as B, each
weighing 5 grams. Consider the combinations AB, AB2, A2B and A2B3 and show that
law of multiple proportions is applicable.

STRUCTURE OF ATOM

Multiple Choice Questions (Type-I)

1. Which of the following conclusions could not be derived from Rutherford’s α -particle
scattering experiment?
▪ (i) Most of the space in the atom is empty.
▪ (ii) The radius of the atom is about 10–10 m while that of nucleus is 10–15 m.
▪ (iii) Electrons move in a circular path of fixed energy called orbits.
▪ (iv) Electrons and the nucleus are held together by electrostatic forces of attraction.
2. Which of the following options does not represent ground state electronic
configuration of an atom?
▪ (i) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d8 4s2
▪ (ii) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d9 4s2
▪ (iii) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10 4s1
▪ (iv) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d5 4s1
3. The probability density plots of 1s and 2s orbitals are given in Fig. 2.1:

The density of dots in a region represents the probability density of finding electrons
in the region.
On the basis of above diagram which of the following statements is incorrect?

▪ (i) 1s and 2s orbitals are spherical in shape.

▪ (ii) The probability of finding the electron is maximum near the nucleus.
▪ (iii) The probability of finding the electron at a given distance is equal in all directions.
▪ (iv) The probability density of electrons for 2s orbital decreases uniformly as distance
from the nucleus increases.
4. Which of the following statement is not correct about the characteristics of cathode
rays?
▪ (i) They start from the cathode and move towards the anode.
▪ (ii) They travel in straight line in the absence of an external electrical or magnetic
field.
▪ (iii) Characteristics of cathode rays do not depend upon the material of electrodes in
cathode ray tube.
▪ (iv) Characteristics of cathode rays depend upon the nature of gas present in the
cathode ray tube.
5. Which of the following statements about the electron is incorrect?
▪ (i) It is a negatively charged particle.
▪ (ii) The mass of electron is equal to the mass of neutron.
▪ (iii) It is a basic constituent of all atoms.
▪ (iv) It is a constituent of cathode rays.
6. Which of the following properties of atom could be explained correctly by Thomson
Model of atom?
▪ (i) Overall neutrality of atom.
▪ (ii) Spectra of hydrogen atom.
▪ (iii) Position of electrons, protons and neutrons in atom.
▪ (iv) Stability of atom.
7. Two atoms are said to be isobars if.
▪ (i) they have same atomic number but different mass number.
▪ (ii) they have same number of electrons but different number of neutrons.
▪ (iii) they have same number of neutrons but different number of electrons.
▪ (iv) sum of the number of protons and neutrons is same but the number of protons is
different.
8. The number of radial nodes for 3p orbital is __________.
▪ (i) 3
▪ (ii) 4
▪ (iii) 2
▪ (iv) 1
9. Number of angular nodes for 4d orbital is __________.
▪ (i) 4
▪ (ii) 3
▪ (iii) 2
▪ (iv) 1
10. Which of the following is responsible to rule out the existence of definite paths or
trajectories of electrons?
▪ (i) Pauli’s exclusion principle.
▪ (ii) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle.
▪ (iii) Hund’s rule of maximum multiplicity.
▪ (iv) Aufbau principle.
11. Total number of orbitals associated with third shell will be __________.
▪ (i) 2
▪ (ii) 4
▪ (iii) 9
▪ (iv) 3
12. Orbital angular momentum depends on __________.
▪ (i) l
▪ (ii) n and l
▪ (iii) n and m
▪ (iv) m and s
13. Chlorine exists in two isotopic forms, Cl-37 and Cl-35 but its atomic mass is 35.5.
This indicates the ratio of Cl-37 and Cl-35 is approximately
▪ (i) 1:2
▪ (ii) 1:1
▪ (iii) 1:3
▪ (iv) 3:1
14. The pair of ions having same electronic configuration is __________.
▪ (i) Cr3+, Fe3+
▪ (ii) Fe3+, Mn2+
▪ (iii) Fe3+, Co3+
▪ (iv) Sc3+, Cr3+
15. For the electrons of oxygen atom, which of the following statements is correct?
▪ (i) Zeff for an electron in a 2s orbital is the same as Zeff for an electron in a 2p orbital.
▪ (ii) An electron in the 2s orbital has the same energy as an electron in the 2p orbital.
▪ (iii) Zeff for an electron in 1s orbital is the same as Zeff for an electron in a 2s orbital.
▪ (iv) The two electrons present in the 2s orbital have spin quantum numbers m S but of
opposite sign.
16. If travelling at same speeds, which of the following matter waves have the shortest
wavelength?
▪ (i) Electron
▪ (ii) Alpha particle (He2+)
▪ (iii) Neutron
▪ (iv) Proton

Multiple Choice Questions (Type-II)

In the following questions two or more options may be correct.

1. Identify the pairs which are not of isotopes?

2. Out of the following pairs of electrons, identify the pairs of electrons present in
degenerate orbitals :
3. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers are correct?

4. In which of the following pairs, the ions are iso-electronic?

▪ (i) Na+, Mg2+
▪ (ii) Al3+, O–
▪ (iii) Na+, O2-
▪ (iv) N3–, Cl–
5. Which of the following statements concerning the quantum numbers are correct?
▪ (i) Angular quantum number determines the three dimensional shape of the orbital.
▪ (ii) The principal quantum number determines the orientation and energy of the
orbital.
▪ (iii) Magnetic quantum number determines the size of the orbital.
▪ (iv) Spin quantum number of an electron determines the orientation of the spin of
electron relative to the chosen axis.

Short Answer Type Questions

1. Arrange s, p and d sub-shells of a shell in the increasing order of effective nuclear
charge (Zeff) experienced by the electron present in them.
2. Show the distribution of electrons in oxygen atom (atomic number 8) using orbital
diagram.
3. Nickel atom can lose two electrons to form Ni2+ ion. The atomic number of nickel is
28. From which orbital will nickel lose two electrons.
4. Which of the following orbitals are degenerate?
3dxy, 4dxy, 3dz , 3dyz, 4dyz, 4dz
2 2

5. Calculate the total number of angular nodes and radial nodes present in 3p orbital.
6. The arrangement of orbitals on the basis of energy is based upon their (n+l ) value.
Lower the value of (n+l ), lower is the energy. For orbitals having same values of
(n+l), the orbital with lower value of n will have lower energy.
I. Based upon the above information, arrange the following orbitals in the increasing
order of energy.
(a) 1s, 2s, 3s, 2p
(b) 4s, 3s, 3p, 4d
(c) 5p, 4d, 5d, 4f, 6s
(d) 5f, 6d, 7s, 7p
II. Based upon the above information, solve the questions given below :
(a) Which of the following orbitals has the lowest energy?
4d, 4f, 5s, 5p
(b) Which of the following orbitals has the highest energy?
5p, 5d, 5f, 6s, 6p
7. Which of the following will not show deflection from the path on passing through an
electric field?
Proton, cathode rays, electron, neutron.
8. An atom having atomic mass number 13 has 7 neutrons. What is the atomic number
of the atom?
9. Wavelengths of different radiations are given below :
λ(A) = 300 nm λ(B) = 300 μm λ (C) = 3 nm λ = 0 (D) 30 A°
Arrange these radiations in the increasing order of their energies.
10. The electronic configuration of valence shell of Cu is 3d 104s1 and not 3d94s2. How is
this configuration explained?
11. The Balmer series in the hydrogen spectrum corresponds to the transition from n 1 = 2
to n2 = 3,4,………. This series lies in the visible region. Calculate the wave number of
line associated with the transition in Balmer series when the electron moves to n = 4
orbit.
(RH = 109677 cm–1)
12. According to de Broglie, matter should exhibit dual behaviour, that is both particle
and wave like properties. However, a cricket ball of mass 100 g does not move like a
wave when it is thrown by a bowler at a speed of 100 km/h. Calculate the
wavelength of the ball and explain why it does not show wave nature.
13. What is the experimental evidence in support of the idea that electronic energies in
an atom are quantized?
14. Out of electron and proton which one will have, a higher velocity to produce matter
waves of the same wavelength? Explain it.
15. A hypothetical electromagnetic wave is shown in Fig. 2.2. Find out the wavelength of
the radiation.

16. Chlorophyll present in green leaves of plants absorbs light at 4.620 ×

1014 Hz. Calculate the wavelength of radiation in nanometer. Which part of
the electromagnetic spectrum does it belong to?
17. What is the difference between the terms orbit and orbital?
18. Table-tennis ball has a mass 10 g and a speed of 90 m/s. If speed can be measured
within an accuracy of 4% what will be the uncertainty in speed and position?
19. The effect of uncertainty principle is significant only for motion of
microscopic particles and is negligible for the macroscopic particles. Justify the
statement with the help of a suitable example.
20. Hydrogen atom has only one electron, so mutual repulsion between electrons is
absent. However, in multielectron atoms mutual repulsion between the electrons is
significant. How does this affect the energy of an electron in the orbitals of the same
principal quantum number in multielectron atoms?

Assertion and Reason Type Questions

 In the following questions a statement of Assertion (A) followed by a statement of
Reason (R) is given. Choose the correct option out of the choices given below each
question.

1. Assertion (A) : All isotopes of a given element show the same type of
chemical behaviour.
Reason (R) : The chemical properties of an atom are controlled by the number of
electrons in the atom.

▪ (i) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

▪ (ii) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
▪ (iii) A is true but R is false.
▪ (iv) Both A and R are false.
2. Assertion (A) : Black body is an ideal body that emits and absorbs radiations of all
frequencies.
Reason (R) : The frequency of radiation emitted by a body goes from a
lower frequency to higher frequency with an increase in temperature.

▪ (i) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

▪ (ii) Both A and R are true but R is not the explanation of A.
▪ (iii) A is true and R is false.
▪ (iv) Both A and R are false.
3. Assertion (A) : It is impossible to determine the exact position and exact momentum
of an electron simultaneously.
Reason (R) : The path of an electron in an atom is clearly defined.

▪ (i) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

▪ (ii) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
▪ (iii) A is true and R is false.
▪ (iv) Both A and R are false.

Long Answer Type Questions

1. What is photoelectric effect? State the result of photoelectric effect experiment that
could not be explained on the basis of laws of classical physics. Explain this effect
on the basis of quantum theory of electromagnetic radiations.
2. Threshold frequency, ν0 is the minimum frequency which a photon must possess to
eject an electron from a metal. It is different for different metals. When a photon of
frequency 1.0 × 1015s-1 was allowed to hit a metal surface, an electron having 1.988 ×
1019 J of kinetic energy was emitted. Calculate the threshold frequency of this metal.
Show that an electron will not be emitted if a photon with a wavelength equal to 600
nm hits the metal surface.
3. When an electric discharge is passed through hydrogen gas, the
hydrogen molecules dissociate to produce excited hydrogen atoms. These excited
 atoms emit electromagnetic radiation of discrete frequencies which can be given
by the general formula

What points of Bohr’s model of an atom can be used to arrive at this formula? Based
on these points derive the above formula giving description of each step and each
term.
4. Calculate the energy and frequency of the radiation emitted when an electron jumps
from n = 3 to n = 2 in a hydrogen atom.
5. Why was a change in the Bohr Model of atom required? Due to which
important development (s), concept of movement of an electron in an orbit was
replaced by, the concept of probability of finding electron in an orbital? What is
the name given to the changed model of atom?
PHYSICS
Experiment A1(a) To measure the diameter of a small spherical/cylindrical body Using
vernier callipers
Experiment A1 (c) To measure the dimensions of a given rectangular body of Known mass
and hence to determine its density.
Experiment A 2(a) To measure the diameter of a given wire using a screw gauge and to
find its volume.
Experiment A4 To determine radius of curvature of a given spherical surface by a
spheromrter.
Experiment A 6 To find the weight of a given body using parallelogram law of Vectors.
Experiment A 7 Using a simple pendulum, plot L-T and L-T 2 graphs. Hence, find

the effective length of second’s pendulum using appropriate graph.

Experiment B2 To find the force (or spring) constant of a helical spring by plotting
a graph between load and extension.
Experiment B7 To study the relationship between temperature of a hot body and

time by plotting a cooling curve.

Activities
Activity 2 To determine the mass of a given body using a metre scale by
principle of moments.

Activity 5 To study the variation in the range of projectile with angle of

Projectile with angle of projection.
Activity 7 To study dissipation of energy of a simple pendulum by plotting a
graph between square of amplitude and time.

Activity B5 To determine the coefficient of viscosity of a given liquid by

measuring the terminal velocity of a spherical body.
Activity B6 (a) To study the effect of load on depression of a suitable clamped

metre scale loaded in the middle.

Motion in Straight line
Q1. A person moves 30m north and then 20m towards east and finally 30√2 m in
southwest direction. The displacement of the person from the origin will be

(a) 10 m along north (b) 10 m long south

(c)10 m along west (d) Zero
Q2. An athlete completes one round of a circular track of radius R in 40 sec. What will be
his displacement at the end of 2 min. 20sec

(a) Zero (b) 2R

(c)2π (d) 7πR
Q3. An automobile travelling with a speed of 60 km/h, can brake to stop within a distance
of 20m. If the car is going twice as fast, i.e. 120 km/h, the stopping distance will be
(a) 20 m (b) 40 m

(c)60m (d) 80m

Q4. Stopping distance of a moving vehicle is directly proportional to
(a) Square of the initial velocity
(b) Square of the initial acceleration

(c) The initial velocity

(d) Mass of the vehicle
Q5. The numerical ratio of displacement to the distance covered is always
(a) Less than one

(b) Equal to one

(c) Equal to or less than one
(d) Equal to or greater than one
Q6. One car moving on a straight road covers one third of the distance with 20 km/hr. The
average speed is

(a) 40 km/hr (b) 80 km/hr

(c)46/2/3 km/hr (d) 36 km/hr
Q7. Two cars A and B at rest at same initially. If A starts with uniform velocity of 40 m/sec
and B starts in the same directions with constant acceleration of 40 m/s2, then B will catch
A after how much time
(a) 10 sec (b) 20 sec
(c)30 sec (d) 35 sec

Q8. Acceleration of a particle changes when

(a) Direction of velocity changes
(b) Magnitude of velocity changes
(c) Both of above

(d) Speed changes

Q9. The displacement of a particle is proportional to the cube of time elapsed. How does
the acceleration of the particle depends on time obtained
(a) a α t2
(b) a α 2t
(c)a α t3
(d) a α 6t
Q10. The displacement of a particle is given by x = (t – 2)2 where x is in metre and t in
second . The distance covered by the particle in the first 4 second is

(a) 4 m (b) 8 m
(c)12 m (d) 16m
Q11. Assertion (A) : Displacement of an object is the vector sum of area under velocity
time graph.

Reason (R): Displacement is a vector quantity.

Q12. Assertion (A) : Relative velocity between two object moving in mutually opposite
directions is equal to sum of the velocities of two objects.
Reason (R): Relative velocity between two objects may be equal to difference in velocities
of the two objects.
Q13. Two particles begin to fall freely from rest from the top of a tower within a gap of 1 s.
How long after the first particle begins to fall, the two particles be 15 m apart?
Q14. A balloon is ascending at the rate of 4.9 m s-1. A package is dropped from the
balloon, when situated at a height of 245 m. How long does it take the package to reach
the ground? What is its final velocity?
Q15. Show that for a particle having uniform linear motion, the velocity of the particle is
equal to the slope of the position-time graph with time axis.
Q16. A body starting from rest accelerates uniformly along a straight line at the rate of 10
m s-2 for 5 s. It moves for 2 s with uniform velocity of 50 m s-1. Then it retards uniformly
and comes to rest in 3 s. Draw velocity – time graph of the body and find the total distance
travelled by the body.
Q17. Answer questions number (a) –(e) on the basis of your understanding of the
following paragraph and the relatedS studied concepts:

A ball is projected from the ground level in vertically upward direction with an initial
velocity u. The ball goes up to a maximum height H and then starts moving downward.
Finally the ball falls back on the ground. It is given that motion of the bull under the action
of gravity alone and effect of air resistance, if any, is negligible.

(a) What is the value of maximum height (H) up to which the ball goes?
(b) What time does the ball take to reach the highest point during its motion?
(c) After what time does the ball falls back on the ground?
(d) Draw position – time graph for entire motion of the ball. What is the shape of the
graph?

(e) Draw speed-time and velocity-time graph for entire motion of the ball.S
Q18. A point object is thrown vertically upwards at such a speed that it returns to the
thrower after 6 s. With what speed was it thrown up and how high did it rise? Plot
speedtime graph for the object and use it to find the distance travelled by it in the last
second of its journey. Take g = 10 m s-2.
Motion in two dimension
Q1. An athlete completes one round of a circular track of radius 10 m in 40 sec. The
distance covered by him in 2 min 20 sec is.

(a) 70 m (b) 140 m

(c)110 m (d) 220 m
Q2. A body of mass m is moving in a circle of radius r with a constant speed v. The force on
the body is mv2/r and is directed towards the centre. What is the work done by this force
in moving the body over half the circumference of the circle.

(a) mv2/r x πr (b) Zero

(c)mv2/r2
(d) πr2/mv2
Q3. Two particles of equal masses are revolving in circular paths of radii r1 and r2

respectively with the same speed. The ratio of their centripetal forces is
(a) r2 /r1 (b) √r2/√r1
(c)(r1)2/(r2)2
(d) (r2)2/(r1)2
Q4. The maximum range of a gun on horizontal terrain is 16 km. If g = 10m/s2. What must
be the muzzle velocity of the shell
(a) 200m/s (b) 0.33 km
(c)100m/s (d) 50 m/s
Q5. A bullet is to be fired with a speed of 2000 mn-1 to hit a target 200 m away on a level

ground. If g = 10 ms-2, the gun should be aimed

(a) Directly at the target (b) 5 cm below the target
(c)5 cm above the target (d) 2 cm above the target
(e)2 cm below the target

Q6. A bullet is fired with a velocity u making an angle of 600 with the horizontal plane. The
horizontal component of the velocity of the bullet when it reaches the maximum height is
(a) U (b)0
(c)√3u/2 (d) u/2
Q7. Which of the following sets of factors will affect the horizontal distance covered by an

athlete in a long – jump event

(a) Speed before he jumps and his weight
(b) The direction in which he leaps and the initial speed
(c) The force with which he pushes the ground and his speed

(d) None of these

Q8. A projectile is projected with kinetic energy K. If it has the maximum possible
horizontal range , then its kinetic energy at the highest point will be
(a) 0.25 K (b) 0.5 K

(c)0.75 K (d) 1.0 K

Q9. A projectile is fired at an angle of 450 with the horizontal. Elevation angle of the
projectile at its highest point as seen from the point od projection, is
(a) Tan -1(√3/2) (b) 450
(c)600 (d) tan-1 1/2

BIOLOGY
1. Write the practicals in the practical file done in the class.
2. Prepare a project on the topic after being discussed.
3. Complete the assignments of the chapters done in the class.
4. Learn the chapters done and practice the diagrams.
Assignment 1
Lesson - The Living World

Multiple choice question

1. Select the correctly written scientific name of Mango which was first described by Carolus
Linnaeus.
(a) Mangifera indica Car. Linn.
(b) Mangifera indica Car. Linn.
(c) Mangifera Indica Car. Linn.
(d) Mangifera indico Car Linn.
2. Which of the following is against the rule of ICBN?
(a) Hand written scientific names should be underlined..
(b) Every species should have a generic name and a specific epithet.
(c) Scientific names are in Latin and should be italicised..
(d) Generic and specific names should be written starting with small letters.
3. Taxonomic hierarchy refers to
(a) stepwise arrangement of all categories for classification of plants and animals.
(b) a group of senior taxonomists who decide the nomenclature of plants and animals.
(c) a list of botanists or zoologists who have worked on taxonomy of a species or group.
(d) classification of species based on fossil record.
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS:
4. What is hierarchical classification?
5. What is the objective of ICBN?
6. Which are the two components of scientific name?
7. Explain the benefits of scientific name.
8. Give any two examples of plant taxa.
9. Write the names of any two plant families.
10. Write the scientific names of human, dog and mango.
11. Write any two species which belong to genus Solanum.
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS:
12. In a given habitat we have 20 plant species and 20 animal species. Should we call it as
'diversity' or biodiversity'? Justify your answer.
13. Why biologists do not favour common names? Discuss briefly.
14. List out the advantages of binomial nomenclature.
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS:
15. Brassica campestris Linn.
(i) Give the common name of the plant.
(ii) What do the first two parts of the name denote?
(iii) Why are they written in italics?
(iv) What is the meaning of Linn written at the end of the name?
16.Define a taxon. What is meant by taxonomic hierarchy? Give a flow diagram from the
lowest to highest category for a plant and an animal, What happens to the number of
individuals - number of shared characters as we go up the taxonomic h

Assignment 2
Lesson - Biological classification

Multiple choice question

1.Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in

(a) using flagella for locomotion.
(b) having a contractile vacuole for removing excess water.
(c) using pseudopodia for capturing prey.
(d) having two types of nuclei.

2. Which of the following organisms are known as chief producers in the oceans?
(a) Dinoflagellates
(b) Diatoms
(c) Cyanobacteria
(d) Euglenoids

3. Select the wrong statement.

(a) Cell wall is present in members of fungi and plantae.
(b) Mushrooms belong to basidiomycetes.
(c) Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding structures in sporozoans.
(d) Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the cell in all Kingdoms except Monera

4. After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores are produced exogenously in

(a) Agaricus.
(b) Alternaria.
(c) Neurospora.
(d) Saccharomyces.

VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS:

5. Kingdom-Monera was added to theclassification system by whom and why?

6. Which bacteria are called the true becteria? Give reason.

7. Contractile vacuoles present in ciliated protozoans are present for what purpose?

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS:

8. Bacteria show mixotrophic nutrition. Explain.

9. Write a short note on reproduction by conjugation.

10. Archaebacteria are called primitive as prokaryotes. Why? Identify the name of
any two archaebacteria based on the environment they are found in.

11. Explain the tissue structure of fungal cell.

12. Which class includes club fungi? List its two features.

13. Give the name of any two plant and animal viral diseases.

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS:

14.Differentiate between the classes of kingdom-Fungi based on following points.

(i) Habitat
(ii) Cell structure
(iii) Reproduction

15. Classify viruses on the basis of host cell they infect.

16. Explain the structure of bacteriophage.

Assignment 3
Lesson - Animal Kingdom

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:

1. In some animal groups, the body is found divided into compartments with at least some
organs/ organ repeated. This characteristic feature is named
a. Segmentation
b. Metamerism
c. Metagenesis
d. Metamorphosis
2. Given below are types of cells present in some animals. Each one is specialized to
perform a single specific function except
a. Choanocytes
b. Interstitial cells
c. Gastrodermal cells
d. Nematocytes
3. Which one of the following sets of animals share a four chambered heart?
a. Amphibian, Reptiles, Birds
b. Crocodiles, Birds, Mammals
c. Crocodiles, Lizards, Turtles
d. Lizards, Mammals, Birds
4. Which of the following pairs of animals has non glandular skin
a. Snake and Frog
b. Chameleon and Turtle
c. Frog and Pigeon
d. Crocodile and Tiger
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS:
5. Identify the phylum in which adults exhibit radial symmetry and larva exhibit bilateral
symmetry.
6. What is the importance of pneumatic bones and air sacs in Aves?
7. What is metagenesis? Mention an example which exhibits this phenomenon.
8. What is the role of feathers?
9. Which group of chordates possess sucking and circular mouth without jaws?
10. Give one example each for an animal possessing placoid scales and that with cycloid
scales.
11. Mention two modifications in reptiles required for terrestrial mode of life.
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS:
12. Differentiate between:
a. Open circulatory system and closed circulatory system
b. Oviparous and viviparous characteristic
c. Direct development and Indirect development
13. Sort out the animals on the basis of their symmetry (radial or bilateral) coelenterates,
ctenophores, annelids, arthropods, and echinoderms.
14. There has been an increase in the number of chambers in heart during evolution of
vertebrates. Give the names of the class of vertebrates having two, three or four-chambered
heart.
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS:
15. Give three major differences between chordates and non-chordates and draw a
schematic sketch of a chordate showing those features.
16. What is the relationship between germinal layers and the formation of body cavity in
case of coelomate, acoelomates and pseudocoelomates?

HOME SCIENCE
1. Solve your Periodic Test-1 paper in your class register

2. List 10 foods that you commonly eat. Identify the food groups to which each food
belongs. Then list the macronutrients and micronutrients present in the foods listed.
Identify the foods which are the richest source of energy.
3. You wish to arrange a farewell party for class XII students. Identify your resources and
state the points you will keep in
mind at each stage of the management process in organising the party.
4. List out the aspects in which you agree with your friends but disagree with parents and
teachers.

PHYSICAL EDUCATION
1. Make a project on any one of the following topics:
a. Olympic Games b. Various Career Options in Physical Education and Sports

c. Importance of Yoga d. Yogic Kriyas (Shat Karmas) e. Regional Sports of India

Instructions for the project work:
• Make a project of at least 8-10 pages and attach it in a file/folder.
• A project should include all the information about the topic with creative ideas and
pictures.
• Student should also make a poster on A4 size sheet on the same topic with innovative
ideas
2. Learn to play any 2 regional games and find the history of any one such game.

3. Gather any 20 sports news from any newspaper/ magazine and attach them in a file.
4. Do the following practical work in physical education practical file.
a. Practical-1 (Track and Field)
- Introduction and History of Track and Field

- Marking of a 400 M Track along with picture of a track.

- Track and Field Events Flow Chart
- Write down about any one Throwing and Jumping Event and add the pictures related to
it.
Instructions for the file work:

• Students should make this practical in their physical education practical file only.
• Use colored pen or black pen for the headings and sub-headings and blue pen for writing
the main
content of the topic.

• Add or draw pictures related to the topic such as picture of a standard track, jumping pit,
throwing area, techniques etc.
• Use of Artificial intelligence websites to complete work is strictly prohibited and if found
will not be

Considered.

ENGLISH
Instructions.
• Do the holiday homework in a scrap book.
• Make an attractive book jacket for the scrap book.
• Include a index page.
• Relevant Pictures to be added in the portfolio section.

• Appropriate Headings and subheadings to be given.

• Write the Learning Outcomes at the end of the project.
1. Poster Making:
● Tourism Department, Government of Uttaranchal has launched an ambitious plan to
develop adventure sports and eco tourism activities in the state. Prepare a suitable poster
for display at important public places /publication in newspapers.
● You are the school captain at Holy Heart school, Vasant Nagar Lucknow. Your school
is organising a two-day fete and blood donation camp. Prepare a poster for the same,
including all essential details.

● Department of Science and Technology, Government of India, is organising a science

exhibition in your school. Make an attractive poster announcing the event and inviting the
general public to visit it.
2. Classified Advertisement:

● Paste cuttings of classified advertisement on the following topics-

○ Sale/Purchase of Property
○ To let/for rent
○ Situation Vacant/ wanted
○ Sale/Purchase of old vehicles.

● Paste minimum 3 from each category.

3. Portfolio based on the chapter- We are not afraid to die if we are all together.
Imagine that you are in a virtual voyage, undertake a virtual visit of a ship and note down
the details to make a project with the topic -Sea Voyage .Use these links –
https://youtu.be/HAmCsiNcMYw
https://youtu.be/HmfdIpKi8u0
b) Watch any famous English movie on Shipwreck,eg:-Titanic and use the information in your
project.

4. Revise the syllabus done in class

MATHS
1. Make a creative portfolio on any topic of class xi
2. Write history of any one great mathematician
3. Make a formula notebook of class xi
4. Do the assignments which will be sent during summer vacations
 FOOD NUTRITION
1. Identify the problems of adjustments of adolescents and suitable ways to overcome with it.

2. Frame 5 slogans to promote healthy food and discourage junk food among children.

3. Prepare power point presentation on any one nutritional related programmes

ARTIFICIAL INTELLIGENCE
1. Complete portfolio work till Entrepreneurship skills.

2. Create mind map of all the chapters learned in AI copy.

COMPUTER SCIENCE
1. Write(in notebook) and implement(on system) textbook questions/answers of Boolean logic,
getting started with Python and Problem solving.

2. Create a 2-4 minutes self explanatory video on any one chapter from April-May syllabus.