Science 8 Reviewer

Directions: Choose the letter of the correct answer. Write your answers on a
separate sheet of paper.

1. The following organs are part of the human digestive system

EXCEPT:
A. mouth
B. esophagus
C. small Intestine
D. gastrovascular cavity
2. In which part of the digestive system does the breaking down of food into tinier
pieces occur?
A. mouth
B. stomach
C. small intestine
D. large Intestine

3. Which of the following helps in the digestion of food in the mouth?

A. amylase
B. bile
C. protease
D. saliva
4. What enzyme aids the digestion of lipids in the small intestine?
A. amylase
B. gastric enzyme
C. lipase
D. pepsin
5. Which tiny structures line the internal surface of the small intestine to increase
its surface area for the absorption of nutrients?
A. bile ducts
B. cilia
C. salivary glands
D. villi
6. What is the largest internal organ of the human body?
A. heart
B. gall bladder
C. liver
D. stomach
7. Which of the following is produced by the liver?
A. amylase
B. bile
C. pepsin
D. renin
8. Which organ stores bile and pumps it into duodenum?
A. appendix
B. colon
C. gall bladder
D. pancreas
9. What is the result of chemical digestion of carbohydrates?
A. amino acid
B. bile
C. fatty acids
D. simple sugars
10. Where does absorption of nutrients mostly occur?
A. stomach
B. small intestine
C. large intestine
D. all the above
11. What aids the passage of food through the digestive tract?
A. pull from the anus
B. chemical absorption
C. movement of the cilia
D. wavelike muscle contractions
12. What is the main work of the digestive system?
A. fights disease
B. regenerates cells
C. breaks down food.
D. distributes energy throughout the body.
13. Which of the following is the correct order of the digestive tract?
A. mouth → rectum → esophagus → rectum → anus → small intestine
→ large intestine
B. mouth → stomach → esophagus → rectum → anus → small intestine
→large intestine
C. mouth → esophagus → stomach → small intestine → large intestine
→ rectum → anus
D. mouth → esophagus → stomach → small intestine → anus
→ large intestine → rectum
11. Which factor controls hereditary traits?
A. cells C. genes
B. chromosomes D. parents
12. Which phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur?
A. G1 phase C. S phase
B. G2 phase D. M phase
13. Which stage in the life of a cell is spent most?
A. cytokinesis phase C. mitotic phase
B. interphase D. synthesis phase
14. Which statement describes what happens during karyokinesis?
A. DNA replication C. doubling of cell size
B. division of nucleus D. synthesizing enzymes for mitosis
15. Humans have diploid chromosome number (2N) which is equal to 46
chromosomes. What is the chromosome number of each daughter cell produced
during meiosis?
A. 1 C. 46
B. 23 D. 92
16. Which factor controls hereditary traits?
A. cells C. genes
B. chromosomes D. parents
17. Which phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur?
A. G1 phase C. S phase
B. G2 phase D. M phase
18. Which stage in the life of a cell is spent most?
A. cytokinesis phase C. mitotic phase
B. interphase D. synthesis phase
19. Which statement describes what happens during karyokinesis?
A. DNA replication C. doubling of cell size
B. division of nucleus D. synthesizing enzymes for mitosis
20. Humans have diploid chromosome number (2N) which is equal to 46
chromosomes. What is the chromosome number of each daughter cell produced
during meiosis?
A. 1 C. 46
B. 23 D. 92
For items 21 – 22, refer to the statement below.
Solanum tuberosum or potato has a chromosome number of 24 (2N).
21. How many chromosomes are there during metaphase?
A. 12 C. 36
B. 24 D. 48
22. How many daughter cells are there by the end of telophase?
A. 1 C. 12
B. 2 D. 24
23. Which stage of mitosis where the chromatids of chromosomes separate and
begin
to move away from each other?
A. anaphase C. prophase
B. metaphase D. telophase
24. There are 64 chromosomes of a fern plant. After mitosis, each daughter cell
formed will have how many chromosomes?
A. 2 C. 32
B. 4 D. 64
25. Which diagram correctly represents the process of meiosis?

26. The following statements are true about meiosis EXCEPT:

A. It occurs in reproductive cells.
B. It results in four haploid (N) daughter cells.
C. Exchanging of genetic material does not occur.
D. Pulling apart of homologous pairs of chromosomes occurs.

27. What information is provided to complete column 3 under meiosis?

A. 2 – 2N or diploid C. 4 – 2N or diploid
B. 2 – 2N or haploid D. 4 – N or haploid
28. What process is shown in the illustration of chromosomes below?
29. What is the substage of prophase I where the pairing of chromosomes begins?
A. diplotene C. pachytene
B. leptotene D. zygotene
30. Which stage of your development as a human being when you were just one
cell?
A. baby C. infant
B. fetus D. zygote
31. Which is the correct series of cellular stages in spermatogenesis?
A. spermatids – spermatocytes - spermatozoa
B. spermatids – spermatozoa - spermatocytes
C. spermatocytes – spermatozoa - spermatids
D. spermatocytes – spermatids - spermatozoa
32. Which process does the creation of polar bodies happen?
A. cytokinesis
B. mitosis
C. oogenesis
D. spermatogenesis
33. Which of the following is involved in the maturation of sperms?
A. growth of primary spermatocytes through mitosis
B. formation of ovum from primary oocytes through meiosis
C. creation of polar bodies from primary oocytes through meiosis
D. development of spermatids from primary spermatocytes through meiosis II
34. How many spermatozoa are produced after a primary spermatocyte undergo
spermatogenesis?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
35. Which statement is TRUE about oogenesis?
A. Polar bodies degenerate.
B. Ovum produced is diploid.
C. Primary oocyte is haploid.
D. Secondary oocyte is diploid.
36. Which statement is FALSE about spermatogenesis?
A. The secondary spermatocytes are haploid.
B. It takes place in the testes of male animals.
C. Each primary spermatocyte becomes four diploid spermatids.
D. Each primary spermatocyte becomes four haploid spermatids.
37. Which is produced by each primary oocyte after oogenesis?
A. four ova
B. one ovum
C. one polar body and three ova
D. three polar bodies and one ovum
38. Which of the following are formed after gametogenesis?
A. body cells
B. gonads
C. sex cells
D. somatic cells
39. What is the role of the polar bodies during oogenesis?
A. It increases the number of sperms.
B. It increases the number of egg cells.
C. It weakens the ovum during fertilization.
D. It removes the excess haploid sets of chromosomes.
40.Which statement is FALSE about acrosome?
A. It is a cap-like structure.
B. It contains digestive enzymes.
C. It develops on the head of the ovum.
D. Its enzymes break the outer sheath of the ovum.
41.The following are the common physical characteristics of people with Klinefelter
syndrome EXCEPT:
A. small testes
B. breast enlargement
C. increased muscle mass
D. presence of few hair on the body and face
42. What is the number of the altered chromosome in Patau syndrome?
A. 5
B. 13
C. 18
D. 21
43.Which is correct about spermatogenesis and oogenesis?
A. spermatogenesis: 1 sperm; oogenesis: 2 eggs
B. spermatogenesis: 2 sperms; oogenesis: 1 egg
C. spermatogenesis: 4 sperms; oogenesis: 1 egg
D. spermatogenesis: 8 sperms; oogenesis: 4 eggs
44.Which one indicates a normal human male?
A. X chromosome
B. XX chromosomes
C. XY chromosomes
D. XXY chromosomes
45.The following are the significance of meiosis EXCEPT:
A. genetic variability
B. sex cell formation
C. asexual reproduction
D. normal chromosomal number upkeep
answer key
1. D
2. A
3. D
4. A
5. D
6. C
7. B
8. C
9. D
10. B
11. D
12. C
13. C
14. B
15. D
16.C
17.C
18. B
19. B
20. B
21. B
22. B
23. A
24. D
25. D
26. C
27. D
28. C
29. D
30. D
31. D
32. C
33. D
34. B
35. A
36. C
37. D
38. C
39. D
40. C
41. c
42. b
43. c
44. c
45. c