ĐỌC HIỂU CHỌN A, B, C, D

READING 1:
Certainly no creature in the sea is odder than the common sea cucumber. All
living creature, especially human beings, have their peculiarities, but everything about
the little sea cucumber seems unusual. What else can be said about a bizarre animal
that, among other eccentricities, eats mud, feeds almost continuously day and night but
can live without eating for long periods, and can be poisonous but is considered
supremely edible by gourmets?
For some fifty million years, despite all its eccentricities, the sea cucumber has
subsisted on its diet of mud. It is adaptable enough to live attached to rocks by its tube
feet, under rocks in shallow water, or on the surface of mud flats. Common in cool
water on both Atlantic and Pacific shores, it has the ability to suck up mud or sand and
digest whatever nutrients are present.
Sea cucumbers come in a variety of colors, ranging from black to reddish –
brown to sand – color and nearly white. One form even has vivid purple tentacles.
Usually the creatures are cucumber – shaped – hence their name – and because they are
typically rock inhabitants, this shape, combined with flexibility, enables them to
squeeze into crevices where they are safe from predators and ocean currents.
Although they have voracious appetites, eating day and night, sea cucumbers
have the capacity to become quiescent and live at a low metabolic rate-feeding
sparingly or not at all for long periods so that the marine organisms that provide their
food have a chance to multiply. If it were not for this faculty, they would devour all
the food available in a short time and would probably starve themselves out of
existence.
But the most spectacular thing about the sea cucumber is the way it defends itself.
It major enemies are fish and crabs, when attacked; it squirts all its internal organs into
the water. It also casts off attached structures such as tentacles. The sea cucumber will
eviscerate and regenerate itself if it is attacked or even touched; it will do the same if
surrounding water temperature is too high or if the water becomes too polluted.
Question 1: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The reason for the sea cucumber’s name
B. What makes the sea cucumber unusual
C. How to identify the sea cucumber
 D. Places where the sea cucumber can be found
Question 2: The word “bizarre” is closest meaning to….
A. odd B. marine C. simple D. rare
Question 3: According to the passage, why is the shape of sea cucumbers important?
A. It helps them to digest their food.
B. It helps them to protect themselves from danger.
C. It makes it easier for them to move through the mud.
D. It makes them attractive to fish
Question 4: The words “this faculty” refers to the sea cucumber’s ability to…
A. squeeze into crevices B. devour all available food in a
short time
C. suck up mud or sand D. live at a low metabolic rate
Question 5: The fourth paragraph of the passage primarily discusses
A. the reproduction of sea cucumbers B. the food sources of sea cucumbers
C. the eating habits of sea cucumbers D. threats to sea cucumbers’ existence
Question 6: The phrase “casts off” is closest in meaning to…
A. grows again B. grabs C. gets rid of D. uses as a
weapon
Question 7: Which of the following would NOT cause a sea cucumber to release its
internal organs into the water?
A. A touch B. food C. unusually warm water D.
pollution

READING 2:
Human memory, formerly believed to be rather inefficient, is really more
sophisticated than that of a computer. Researchers approaching the problem from a
variety of points of view have all concluded that there is a great deal more stored in our
minds than has been generally supposed. Dr. Wilder Penfield, a Canadian
neurosurgeon, proved that by stimulating their brains electrically, he could elicit the
total recall of specific events in his subjects’ lives. Even dreams and other minor events
supposedly forgotten for many years suddenly emerged in detail.
The memory trace is the term for whatever is the internal representation of the
specific information about the event stored in the memory. Assumed to have been
made by structural changes in the brain, the memory trace is not subject to direct
observation but is rather a theoretical construct that we use to speculate about how
information presented at a particular time can cause performance at a later time. Most
theories include the strength of the memory trace as a variable in the degree of
learning, retention, and retrieval possible for a memory. One theory is that the fantastic
capacity for storage in the brain is the result of an almost unlimited combination of
interconnections between brain cells, stimulated by patterns of activity. Repeated
references to the same information support recall. Or, to say that another way,
improved performance is the result of strengthening the chemical bonds in the
memory.
Question 1: Compared with a computer, human memory is...................
A. more complex B. more limited C. less dependable D. less durable
Question 2: The word “that” refers to............................
A. the computer B. the efficiency C. the sophistication D. the memory
Question 3: According the passage, researchers have concluded that......................
A. the mind has a much greater capacity for memory than was previously believed
B. the physical basis for memory is clear
C. different points of view are valuable
D. human memory is inefficient
Question 4: How did Penfield stimulate dreams and other minor events from the past?
A. By surgery B. By electric stimulation
C. By repetition D. By chemical stimulation
Question 5: The word “elicit” is closest in meaning to...........................
A. prove B. prevent C. cause D. reject
Question 6: According to the passage, the capacity for storage in the
brain........................
A. can be understood by the examining the physiology
B. is stimulated by patterns of activity
C. has a limited combination of relationship
D. is not influenced by repetition
Question 7: The word “bonds” means….......................
A. promises B. agreements C. connections D. responsibilities
Question 8: All of the following are true of a memory trace EXCEPT
that............................
A. it is probably made by structural changes in the brain
B. it is able to be observed
C. it is a theoretical construct
D. it is related to the degree of recall

READING 3:
Tides are the periodic rise and fall of the Earth’s waters that are caused by the
Moon’s and Sun’s forces of gravity acting on the Earth .It is important to distinguish
natural tidal phenomena from huge tsunamis , with the latter being caused by
earthquakes and undersea volcanic eruptions.
The Moon is a main factor controlling ordinary tides. At the location on the Earth
closest to the Moon, it exerts a powerful gravitational pull on the water. The resulting
rise in the water produces higher tides. The water on the side of the Earth farthest away
from the Moon also gets pulled by this lunar gravity, but not as strongly. The Earth
itself has its own gravitational force that is constantly pulling waters downward, which
is why the oceans do not simply bulge out toward the Moon. Ordinary tides usually
feature high and low waters alternating in relation to the Earth’s rotation. Most shores
around the world have high waters and two low waters for each day, which last about
24 hours and 50 minutes. The difference in height between the high water and low
water is called the range of tide, and it can be quite dramatic in narrower bays
.Canada’s bays of Fundy , for example , commonly experiences the world’s most
extreme tidal ranges , with daily differences of the 16 meters.
Two other types of tides are influenced by the Sun, which is much farther away
from the Earth and exerts less than half of the Moon’s gravitational force. When the
Sun, the Moon and the Earth are directly in line, the solar and lunar gravitational forces
add up to produce higher spring tides. The range of spring tides is intensified, with
higher water marks and lower low water marks. However, when the Moon is in the
first or third quarter, it is at a 90–degree angle with the Sun in relation to the Earth .The
opposing solar and lunar forces partially cancel each other out, and the result is a lower
tide. This is called a neap tide, which comes twice a month and has lower high water
marks and higher low water marks. The range of neap tides is minimum.
 Some tides do not occur over water at all. The solid body of the Earth has slight
elasticity, so lunar and solar gravity cause it to stretch very subtly. These changes in
the Earth’s shape, although imperceptible to humans, are known as Earth tides.
Another tidal phenomenon, atmospheric tides, is caused by the Sun’s heating of the
Earth’s atmosphere. Like ordinary tides, they usually occur over 12–hour periods.
Question 1: Why does the author mention tsunamis in the passage?
A. To explain that not all tides are caused by gravity.
B. To give an example of an extreme tidal phenomenon.
C. To show that they are not related to natural tides.
D. To suggest that more categories for tides area needed.
Question 2: The word exerts in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
A. mixes with B. bring into use C. infers from D. connects with
Question 3: What can be inferred about Canada’s Bay of Fundy ?
A. It may experience tsunamis because of its extreme tides.
B. It may have a longer tide cycle because of its wide variations.
C. It may be very narrow because it has wide tidal variations.
D. It may be influenced more by gravity than other places.
Question 4: The word imperceptible in the last paragraph could best be replace by
A. not noticeable B. difficult to explain C. not generally
D. not able to be said
Question 5: What is true about the Moon’s gravitational force?
A. It pulls water on the far side of the Earth more strongly.
B. It is more than twice as powerful as that of the Sun.
C. It has reduced gravity when it is lined up with the Sun and the Earth.
D. Its force is strongest when it is located at 90 degrees to the Earth.
Question 6: Besides ordinary tides, how many other types of tide are mentioned in the
passage ?
A. two B. three C. four D. five
Question 7: Which of the following does not relate to Ordinary Tides ?
A. Receiving greatest influence from the Moon
B. Influenced by the Sun’s position relative to the Moon.
C. Taking turns the higher and lower water relating to the Earth’s rotation
 D. Having the striking range of tide in narrower bays
READING 4:
Charles Lindbergh was born in Detroit, Michigan, in 1902 but was raised on a
farm in Minnesota, where his father was elected to the U.S. Congress in 1907. From
then on, he spent his boyhood alternately in Washington, D.C. Detroit, and Little Falls,
Minnesota. Because Lindbergh exhibited exceptional mechanical talent, in 1921 he
was admitted to the University of Wisconsing to study engineering. However, the
young man was seeking more challenging endeavors, and two years later he became a
stunt pilot who performed feats at county fairs and public assemblies. This unusual and
dangerous undertaking paid off handsomely in the sense that it allowed him to gain a
diverse and well–rounded experience in aeronautics. He particularly delighted in what
he called “wing–walking” and parachute jumping.
After a year of training as a military cadet, Lindbergh completed his program at
the Brooks and Kelly airfields at the top of his class and earned the rank of captain.
Robertson Aircraft Corporation of St. Louis, Missouri, offered him employment as a
mail pilot to run the routes between St. Louis and Chicago, and Lindbergh retained his
position with the company until 1927. During this period, he set out to win the
Raymond B. Orteig prize of $25,000 to be awarded to the first pilot to fly nonstop from
New York to Paris. This ambition would irreversibly change his life and accord him a
prominent place in the history of aviation.
Embarking on the greatest adventure of his time, Lindbergh left Roosevelt Field
at 7:52 A.M. on May 20, 1927, and landed at Le Bourget Field at 5:24 P.M. the next
day. Fearing that he would be unknown when he arrived, Lindbergh carried letters of
introduction to dignitaries in Paris, but when his plane came to a stop, he was
overwhelmed by tremendous welcoming crowds. He was decorated in France, Great
Britain, and Belgium, and President Coolidge sent a specially designated cruiser, the
Memphis, to bring him back, His accomplishments in aeronautics brought him more
medals and awards than had ever been received by any other person in private life.
Question 1: Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A. A Benchmark Adventure in Aeronautics B. The Early Life
of Charles Lindbergh
C. Groundbreaking Events in Aviation D. Charles Lindbergh’s Explorations
Question 2: According to the passage, Lindbergh did not complete his degree because
he
 A. opted for the life of an exhibition pilot B. pursued training in the military
C. was seeking a sedentary life–style D. set out to win recognition
Question 3: The word “handsomely” is closest in meaning to
A. honorably B. handily C. well D. in time
Question 4: The word “undertaking ” refers to…
A. studying at the university B. exhibiting mechanical talents
C. seeking challenging endeavors D. performing feats
Question 5: The author of the passage implies that Lindbergh’s job with Robertson
Aircraft Corporation.
A. required regular intercity flights
B. was not intended as long–term employment
C. required him to perform dangerous flights
D. necessitated his running long distances
Question 6: According to the passage, how old was Lindbergh when he carried out his
challenging flight?
A. Twenty–one B. Twenty–three C. Twenty–four D. Twenty–five
Question 7: The author of the passage implies that Lindbergh did not anticipate
becoming a
A. pilot B. celebrity C. mail carrier D. army captain
Question 8: A paragraph following the passage would most probably discuss
A. the development of commercial and military aviation
B. the reaction of the government to Lindbergh’s flight
C. the effect of instant celebrity on Lindbergh
D. Lindbergh’s aircraft and engine modifications

READING 5:
The ruined temples of Angkor are perhaps one of the most impressive
Seven Wonders of the World. Located in modern day Cambodia near Lake Tonle
Sap, the largest freshwater lake in Asia, Angkor was the seat of power for the
Khmer Empire for the ninth to the fifteenth century. The ruins of Angkor are
documented as some of the most impressive ones in the world, rivaling the
pyramids of Giza in Egypt. Why this mighty civilization died out is a question that
archeologists are now only beginning to ponder. The answer, it turns out, may be
linked with the availability of fresh water.
One possible explanation for the downfall of the Khmer Empire has to do with
the inhabitant’s irrigation system. The temples and palaces of Angkor were
constructed around a series of artificial reservoirs and canals which were annually
flooded to capacity by the Mekong River. Once filled, they were used to irrigate the
surrounding paddies and farmland during the course of the year. Farmers were
completely dependent on the water for water crucial rice crop. Without consistent
irrigation, the farmers would have been unable to maintain functional crop
production.
Scientists speculate that toward the end of the Khmer Empire the hydraulic
system of the reservoirs and canals broke down. The construction of hundreds of
sandstone temples and palaces required an enormous amount of physical labor. In
addition, as the capital of Khmer Empire, Angkor contained upwards of one
hundred thousand people who resided in and around Angkor. In order to feed so
many people, the local farmers were driven to grow food more quickly and more
efficiently. After centuries of continual use, the irrigation system was pushed
beyond its capacity. Soil erosion, nutrient depletion, and loss of water led to
decrease in the food supply. With the less food available, the people of Angkor
slowly began to migrate to other parts of Cambodia, thus leaving the marvelous city
of Angkor to be swallowed by the jungle. Therefore, it is speculated that the Khmer
Empire may have fallen victim to its own decrepit infrastructure.
Question 1: The passage preceding most likely discusses .
A. architecture of ancient Asian civilization
B. religious practices of the people of Angkor
C. the form of government practiced by the Khmer Empire
D. the other six wonders of the world
Question 2: According to the passage, Lake Tonle Sap in Cambodia .
A. was unable to supply fish for the people of Angkor
B. is one of the Seven Wonders of the World
C. is an enormous body of fresh water in Asia
D. became polluted due to a population explosion
Question 3: The word “seat” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to .
A. battle B. summit C. location D. chief
Question 4: The hydraulic system of reservoirs _.
A. supplied irrigation from the Indian Ocean
B. helped transport the sandstone for constructing temples
C. were destroyed by nearby warrior’s tribes
D. became non–functional due to overuse
Question 5: The word “artificial” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to .
A. man–made B. numerous C. natural D. insincere
Question 6: The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to . .
A. reservoirs and canals B. temples and palaces
C. rice paddles D. farmland
Question 7: All of the following are mentioned as events that can affect food supply
EXCEPT .
A. reduction of nutrients B. contamination of soil
C. loss of water supply D. erosion of soil

READING 6:
The quest for sustainable sources of energy study the energy has led humans
to study the energy potential of the sun and the wind, as well as the immense power
created by dammed rivers. The oceans, too, represent an impressive source of
potential energy. For example, it has been estimated that the oceans could provide
nearly 3,000 times the energy generated by hydroelectric dams such as the Hoover
Dam. Yet, this source remains quite difficult to exploit.
But this challenge has not prevented scientists from trying. Within the last few
decades, several technologies that can transform the ocean’s immense forces into
usable electricity have been invented and introduced. Some focus on capturing the
power of the changing tides, while others rely on thermal energy created by oceans
in certain tropical regions. However, the most common and easiest-to-develop
technologies are those designed to harness the power inherent in the ocean’s waves.
There are several methods by which ocean-wave energy can be collected. All
of them work because the movement of the water that the waves induce creates
storable energy by directly or indirectly driving a power generator. In one such
technology, the changing water levels in the ocean that are produced by waves lift a
long floating tube comprised of many sections connected by hinges. As the sections
move up and down with the water, they pump a special fluid through the tube that
can be used to drive a generator. Another technique works on a similar principle,
only the floating object rocks back and forth with the motion of the water instead of
up and down. A third method of collecting wave energy relies on the rising water
from the waves to compress air in a partially submerged chamber. As the waves
rush into the chamber, they push the air out through a narrow tunnel. Located inside
this tunnel is a turbine connected to a power generator. The movement of the air
turns the turbine, which feeds energy into the generator.
The drawback to each of these concepts is that the they make it necessary to
have many pieces of machinery linked together. This presents a problem because
the larger the device, the more vulnerable it is to damage from hazardous ocean
environments, and the more likely it is to interfere with otherwise unspoiled coastal
scenery. Also, these methods demand the construction of site-specific machines that
take into consideration average local wave heights and sea conditions. Such a
requirement can be quite cost-prohibitive, because engineers must create unique
power generation mechanism for each site. In other words, the ability to get power
from waves differ from region to region.
Japan, Norway, and the UK have attempted to generate energy by capturing
the power of ocean waves. In northern Scotland, the first power plan to use wave
power, OSPREY ( Ocean Swell Powered Renewable Energy ), began operating in
1995. It followed the principle of the third method described above : waves entering
a partially submerged chamber pushed air into turbines to generate electricity. The
electricity was then transmitted to power collectors in the shore via underwater
cables. Unfortunately, the OSPREY plant was destroyed in a large storm,
highlighting an unavoidable difficulty associated with this kind of power
generation.
The potential benefits of wave-based energy are hard to ignore. Once the
proper machinery is produced and installed, the energy is free. Maintenance cost are
small, and the equipment does not pose any threats of environmental pollution. And
best of all, the amounts of energy produced are enormous.
However, these theoretical advantages have yet to be fully realized. In many
cases, a lack of government funding has inhibited the technologies from advancing.
For example, despite the relative abundance of proposed wave-power devices, many
have not been adequately tested, and most have been evaluated only in artificial
pools where they are not subjected to the harsh marine conditions that exist in actual
oceans. Protecting the equipment from the sea’s destructive forces, as well as the
fundamental task of determining feasible locations for collecting energy source are
substantial and will require more time to overcome.
Question 1: The phrase this source in the passage refers to
A. sun B. wind C. dammed rivers D. oceans
Question 2: The word exploit in the passage is closest meaning to
A. utilize B. declare C. contain D. determine
Question 3: Why does the author mention the Hoover Dam in paragraph one ?
A. To give a current example of ocean–based energy technology
B. To explain that dams are effective producers of sustainable energy
C. To draw a comparison between two sources of renewable energy
D. To show that alternative energy sources have not been successful
Question 4: According to paragraph 3, which of the following is true about wave–
power technologies?
A. Many of them use submerged objects to obtain the waves’ energy
B. Compressed air must be present for them to work properly
C. They undertake three steps in order to collect wave power
D. They rely on the water’s motion to create electricity
Question 5: According to paragraph 5, what part did the cables play in OSPREY’s
design?
A. They attached the partially submerged chamber to the sea floor
B. They generated the electricity which was then collected in turbines.
C. They conducted the electricity from the generator to the shore.
D. They provided stability during powerful ocean storms.
Question 6: The word inhibited in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. delivered B. prevented C. protected D. approved
Question 7: What can be inferred from paragraph 7 about governments?
A. They do not believe wave–energy devices can withstand ocean forces.
B. Their interests often conflict with those of the energy industries.
C. They demand much scientific research before they provide funding.
D. Their support is often essential to the success of new endeavors.
Question 8: All of these are problems associated with the collection of wave energy
EXCEPT ?
A. the difficulty of finding feasible locations
B. the destructive power of the ocean
C. the size of the equipment involved
D. the constant changing of the tides

READING 7:
Telecommuting-substituting the computer for the trip to the job-has been hailed as a
solution to all kinds of problems related to office work. For workers, it promises
freedom from the office, less time wasted in traffic, and help with child-care conflicts.
For management, telecommuting helps keep high performers on board, minimizes
tardiness and absenteeism by eliminating commutes, allows periods of solitude for
high-concentration tasks, and provides scheduling flexibility. In some areas, such as
Southern California and Seattle, Washington, local governments are encouraging
companies to start telecommuting programs in order to reduce rush-hour congestion
and improve air quality, but these benefits do not come easily. Making a
telecommuting program work requires careful planning and an understanding of the
differences between telecommuting realities and popular images.
Many workers are seduced by rosy illusions of life as a telecommuter. A computer
programmer from New York City moves to the tranquil Adirondack Mountains and
stays in contact with her office via computer. A manager comes into his Office three
days a week and works at home the other two. An accountant stays home to care for
child; she hooks up her telephone modem connections and does office work between
calls to the doctor.
These are powerful images, but they are a limited reflection of reality. Telecommuting
workers soon learn that it is almost impossible to concentrate on work and care for a
young child at the same time. Before a certain age, young children cannot recognize,
much less respect, the necessary boundaries between work and family. Additional child
support is necessary if the parent is to get any work done.
Management, too, must separate the myth from the reality. Although the media has
paid a great deal of attention to telecommuting, in most cases it is the employee’s
situation, not the availability of technology, that precipitates a telecommuting
arrangement.
That is partly why, despite the widespread press coverage, the number of companies
with work-at-home programs or policy guidelines remains small.
Question 1: What is the main subject of the passage?
A. Business management policies
B. Commuting to work
C. Extending the workplace by means of telecommutingk
D. Telecommuting for child-care purposes
Question 2: According to the passage, what is the most important tool for a
telecommuter to work at home?
A. telephone B. a camera C. a smart phone D. a computer
Question 3: The word “hailed” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. welcomed B. communicated C. considered D. arranged
Question 4: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a problem for office
employees?
A. Being restricted to the office
B. Incurring expenses for lunches and clothing
C. Taking care of sick children
D. Driving in heavy traffic
Question 5: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a problem for employers
that is potentially solved by telecommuting?
A. Employees’ lateness for work
B. Employees’ absence from work
C. Employees’ need for time to work intensively alone
D. Employees’ conflicts with second jobs
Question 6: Which of the following does the author mention as a possible
disadvantage of telecommuting?
A. Small children cannot understand the boundaries of work and play.
B. Computer technology is not advanced enough to accommodate the needs of every
situation.
C. Electrical malfunctions can destroy a project.
D. The worker often does not have all the needed resources at home.
Question 7: Which of the following is an example of telecommuting as described in
the passage?
A. A scientist in a laboratory developing plans for a space station
B. A technical writer sending via computer documents created at home
C. A computer technician repairing an office computer network
D. A teacher directing computer-assisted learning in a private school.

READING 8:
Millions of people tune into the weather forecast each evening on televisions. Most of
them imagine that the presenter does little more than arrive at the studio a few minutes
before the broadcast, read the weather, and then go home.
In fact, this imagine is far from the truth. The two-minute bulletin which we all rely on
when we need to know tomorrow’s weather is the result of a hard day’s work by the
presenter, who is actually a highly-qualified meteorologist.
Every morning after arriving at the TV studios, the first task of the days is to collect the
latest data from the national Meteorological Office. This office provides up-to-the-
minute information about weather conditions throughout the day, both in Britain and
around the world. The information is very detailed and includes predictions, satellite
and radar pictures, as well as more technical data. After gathering all the relevant
material from this office, the forecaster has to translate the scientific terminology and
maps into images and word which viewers can easily understand.
The final broadcast is then carefully planned. It is prepared in the same way as other
programmes. The presenter decides what to say and in what order to say it. Next, a
“story board” is drawn up which lay out the script word for word. What make a
weather forecast more complicated than other programmes are the maps and electronic
images which are required. The computer has to be programmed so that the pictures
appear in the correct order during the bulletin.
The time allocated for each broadcast can also alter. This is because the weather report
is screened after the news, which can vary in length. The weather forecaster doesn’t
always know how much time is available, which means that he/ she has to be
thoroughly prepared so that the material can be adapted to the time available.
Another related complication is that the weather forecast has to be a live broadcast; it
cannot be pre- recorded. Live shows are very nerve- racking for the presenter because
almost anything can go wrong. Perhaps the most worrying aspect for every weather
forecaster is getting the following day’s predictions wrong. Unfortunately for them this
is not an unusual occurrence; the weather is not always possible to predict accurately.
The weather is a national obsession in Britain, Perhaps because it is so changeable. It’s
the national talking point, and most people watch at least one daily bulletin. It can be
mortifying for a weather man or woman who has predicted rain for the morning to
wake up to brilliant sunshine. These days, a weather forecaster’s job is even more
complicated because they are replied upon to predict other environmental conditions.
For example, in the summer the weather forecast has to include the pollen count for
hay fever sufferers. Some also include reports on ultraviolet radiation intensity to help
people avoid sunburn.
The job of the weather forecaster is certainly far more complicated than just pointing at
a map and describing weather conditions. It’s a job for professionals who can cope
with stressful and demanding conditions.
Question 1: What perception do most people have a weather forecasters?
A. They have many qualifications.
B. They do a hard day’s work at the studio.
C. They always tell the truth.
D. They work very short hours.
Question 2: Meteorologists get their forecasting information from
A. The TV studio B. The country’ s main weather centre
C. Satellite and radar information D. Their office
Question 3: The phrase up- to- the- minute in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to
A. Very brief B. Very short C. ( the) most recent D. Fashionable
Question 4: The computer has to be carefully programmed
A. So that the visual are sequenced correctly
B. So that the script is visible to the presenter
C. Because the script has to be written on a story board
D. Because electric maps are used
Question 5: Weather forecasters have to know the material well because
A. The length of the report may have to change
B. The forecast may be incorporated into the news broadcast
C. The content of the report may have to change
 D. The broadcast is pre-recorded
Question 6: What does this in paragraph 6 refer to?
A. The weather forecaster’s worry
B. Reading the weather ‘live’
C. Giving a forecast that doesn’t come true
D. An accurate prediction
Question 7: The word mortifying in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. embarrassing B. enjoyable C. deceitful D. frightening
Question 8: Nowadays, weather forecasters have to
A. do experiments to determine the pollen count.
B. simply point at maps and describe weather conditions.
C. cope with professionals.
D. be able to cope under pressure.

READING 9:
Since the world became industrialized, the number of animal species that have either
become extinct or near extinction has increased. Bengal tigers, for instance, which
once roamed the jungles in vast numbers, now number only about 2,300. By the year
2025, it is estimated that they will become extinct.
What is alarming about the case of the Bengal tiger is that this extinction will have
been caused almost entirely by poachers who, according to some sources, are not
always interested in material gain but in personal gratification. This is an example of
the callousness that is contributing to the problem of extinction. Animals such as the
Bengal tiger, as well as other endangered species, are valuable parts of the world /s
ecosystem. International laws protecting animals must be enacted to ensure their
survival-and the survival of our planet.
Countries around the world have begun to deal with the problem in various ways.
Some countries, in an effort to circumvent the problem, have allocated large amounts
of land to animal reserves. They then charge admission prices to help defray the costs
of maintaining the parks, and they often must also depend on world organizations for
support. This money enables them to invest in equipment and patrols o protect the
animals. Another response to the increase in animal extinction is an international
boycott of products made from endangered species. This has had some effect, but by
itself will not prevent animals from being hunted and killed.
Question 1: What is the main topic of the passage?
A. The Bengal tiger B. International boycotts.
C. Endangered species D. Problems with
industrialization
Question 2: Which of the following could best replace the word 'case' as used in
paragraph 2?
A. Act B. Situation C. Contrast D. Trade
Question 3: The word 'poachers' as used in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by
which of the following?
A. Illegal hunters B. Enterprising researchers
C. Concerned scientists D. Trained hunters
Question 4: What does the word 'this' in paragraph 2 refer to in the passage?
A. Bengal tigers B. Interest in material gain
C. Killing animals for personal satisfaction. D. The decrease in
the Bengal tiger population
Question 5: Which of the following could best replace the word ‘allocated’ in
paragraph 3?
A. Set aside B. Combined C. Organized D. Taken off
Question 6: What does the term 'international boycott' in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. Buying and selling of animal products overseas.
B. A refusal to buy animal products worldwide
C. A global increase in animal survival.
D. Defraying the cost of maintaining national parks.
Question 7: Which of the folỉowing best describes the author's attitude?
A. Forgiving B. Concerned C. Vindictive D. Surprised

READING 10:
Though Edmund Halley was most famous because of his achievements as an
astronomer, he was a scientist of diverse interests and great skill. In addition to
studying the skies, Halley was also deeply interested exploring the unknown depths of
the oceans. One of his lesser-known accomplishments that was quite remarkable was
his design for a diving bell that facilitated exploration of the watery depths.
The diving bell that Halley designed had a major advantage over the diving bells that
were in use prior to his. Earlier diving bells could only make use of the air contained
within the bell itself, so divers had to surface when the air inside the bell ran low.
Halley's bell was an improvement in that its design allowed for an additional supply of
fresh air that enabled a crew of divers to remain underwater for several hours.
The diving contraption that Halley designed was in the shape of a bell that measured
three feet across the top and five feet across the bottom and could hold several divers
comfortably; it was open at the bottom so that divers could swim in and out at will.
The bell was built of wood, which was first heavily tarred to make it water repellent
and was then covered with a half-ton sheet of lead to make the bell heavy enough to
sink in water. The bell shape held air inside for the divers to breathe as the bell sank to
the bottom.
The air inside the bell was not the only source of air for the divers to breathe, and it
was this improvement that made Halley's bell superior to its predecessors. In addition
to the air already in the bell, air was also supplied to the divers from a lead barrel that
was lowered to the ocean floor close to the bell itself. Air flowed through a leather pipe
from the lead barrel on the ocean floor to the bell. The diver could breath the air from a
position inside the bell, or he could move around outside the bell wearing a diving suit
that consisted of a lead bell-shaped helmet with a glass viewing window and a leather
body suit, with a leather pipe carrying fresh air from the diving bell to the helmet.
Question 1: The subject of the preceding passage was most likely Halley's
A. childhood B. work as an astronomer
C. many different interests D. invention of the diving bell
Question 2: Which of the following best expresses the subject of this passage?
A. Halley's work as an astronomer
B. Haley's many different interests
C. Halley's invention of a contraption for diving
D. Halley's experiences as a diver
Question 3: Halley's bell was better than its predecessors because it
A. was bigger B. provided more air
C. weighed less D. could rise more quickly
Question 4: The expression ran low in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
A. moved slowly B. had been replenished
C. sank to the bottom D. was almost exhausted
Question 5: How long could divers stay underwater in Halley's bell?
A. Just a few seconds B. Only a few minutes
C. For hours at a time D. For days on end
Question 6: It is NOT stated in the passage that Halley's bell
A. was wider at the bottom than at the top B. was made of tarred wood
C. was completely enclosed D. could hold more than one diver
Question 7: The word its in paragraph 4 refers to
A. improvement B. Halley's bell C. source of air D. a lead barrel
Question 8: This passage would most likely be assigned reading in a course on
A. astronomy B. recreation C. oceanography D. physiology

READING 11:
Every year about two million people visit Mount Rushmore, were the faces of
four U.S presidents were carved in granite by sculptor Gutzon Borglum and his son,
the late Lincoln Borglum. The creation of the Mount Rushmore monument Line took
14 years – from 1927 to 1941 – and nearly a million dollars. There were times when
money was difficult to come by and many people were jobless. To move more than
400,000 tons of rock, Borglum hired laid-off workers from the closed-down mines in
the Black Hills area. He taught these men to dynamite, drill, carve, and finish the
granite as they were hanging in midair in his specially devised chairs, which had many
safety features. Borglum was proud of the fact that no workers were killed or severely
injured during the years of blasting and carving.
During the carving, many changes in original design had to be made to keep the
carved heads free of large fissures that were uncovered. However, not all the cracks
could be avoided, so Borglum concocted a mixture of granite dust, white lead, and
linseed oil to fill them.
Every winter, water from melting snows gets into the fissures and expands as it
freezes, making the fissures bigger. Consequently, every autumn maintenance work is
done to refill the cracks. The repairers swing out in space over a 500-foot drop and fix
the monument with the same mixture that Borglum used to preserve this national
monument for future generations.
Question 1: This passage is mainly about
A. the visitors to the Mount Rushmore monument
B. the faces at the Mount Rushmore monument
C. the sculptor of the Mount Rushmore monument
D. the creation of the Mount Rushmore monument
Question 2: According to the passage, Borglum’s son _
A. is dead B. was a president
C. did maintenance work D. spent a million dollars.
Question 3: The word ‘which’ is paragraph 1 refers to _
A. granite B. these man C. chairs D. features
Question 4: The men who Borglum hired were
A. trained sculptors B. laid-off stone masons
C. Black Hills volunteers D. unemployed miners
Question 5: It can be inferred from the passage that
A. the heads are not as originally planned B. the workers made mistakes when
blasting C. the cracks caused serious injuries D. the designs
had large fissures in them
Question 6: Borglum’s mixture for filling cracks was _
A. very expensive B. bought at the Black Hills mines
C. invented D. uncovered during carving
Question 7: Today, Mount Rushmore needs to be
A. protected from air pollution B. polished for tourists
C. restored during the winter D. repaired periodically

READING 12:
In the late 1960’s, many people in North America turned their attention to
environmental problems and new steel-and-glass skyscrapers were widely
criticized. Ecologists pointed out that a cluster of tall buildings in a city often
overburdens public transportation and parking lot capacities.
 Skyscrapers are also lavish consumers, and waster, of electric power. In one
recent year, the addition of 17 million square feet of skyscraper office space in New
York City raised the peak daily demand for electricity by 120,-000 kilowatts-
enough to supply the entire city of Albany, New York, for a day.
Glass-walled skyscrapers can be especially wasteful. The heat loss (or gain)
through a wall of half-inch plate glass is more than ten times that through a typical
masonry wall filled with insulation board. To lessen the strain on heating and air-
conditioning equipment, builders of skyscrapers have begun to use double glazed
panels of glass, and reflective glasses coated with silver or gold mirror films that
reduce glare as well as heat gain. However, mirror-walled skyscrapers raise the
temperature of the surrounding air and affect neighboring buildings.
Skyscrapers put a severe strain on a city’s sanitation facilities, too. If fully
occupied, the two World Trade Center towers in New York City would alone
generate 2.25 million gallons of raw sewage each year-as much as a city the size of
Stamford, Connecticut, which has a population of more than 109,000.
Skyscrapers also interfere with television reception, block bird flyways, and
obstruct air traffic. In Boston, in the late 1960’s some people even feared that
shadows from skyscrapers would kill the grass on Boston Common.
Still, people continue to build skyscrapers for all the reasons that they have
always built them – personal ambition, civic pride, and the desire of owners to have
the largest possible amount of rentable space.
Question 1: The main purpose of the passage is to
A. compare skyscrapers with other modern structures.
B. describe skyscrapers and their effects on the environment.
C. advocate the use of masonry in the construction of skyscrapers.
D. illustrate some architectural designs of skyscrapers.
Question 2: According to the passage, the attitude of many people in North
America towards skyscrapers could be best described as
A. unemotional B. skeptical C. critical D. bitter
Question 3: The word “overburden” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning
to
A. overwhelm B. overload C. overachieve D. overcome
Question 4: According to the passage, what is one disadvantage of skyscrapers that
have mirrored walls?
 A. The exterior surrounding air is heated. B. The windows must be cleaned daily.
C. Construction time is increased. D. Extra air-conditioning equipment is
needed.
Question 5: According to the passage, in the late 1960’s some residents of Boston
were concerned with which aspect of skyscrapers?
A. The noise from their construction
B. The removal of trees from building sites
C. The harmful effects on the city’s grass
D. The high cost of rentable office space
Question 6: The author raises issues that would most concern which of the following
groups?
A. Electricians B. Environmentalists C. Aviators D. Teachers
Question 7: In which paragraph does the author compare the energy consumption of
skyscrapers with that of a city?
A. paragraph 2 B. paragraph 3 C. paragraph 4 D. paragraph 5
Question 8: According to the passage, all of the following are mentioned as reasons
for building skyscrapers EXCEPT
A. people’s strong desire to build high.
B. people’s pride for their towns or cities
C. the greed of the owners to have more place for lease
D. the need to accommodate more people.

READING 13:
Edward Patrick Francis “Eddie” Eagan (April 26, 1897-June 14, 1967),
was an amateur boxing star of the early 1920s. He was born into a poor family in
Denver, Colorado. His father died in a railroad accident when Eagan was only a
year old. He and his four brothers were raised by his mother, who earned a small
income from teaching foreign languages.
Inspired by Frank Merriwell, the hero of a series of popular novels for boys,
Eagan pursued an education for himself as well as an interest in boxing. He attended
the University of Denver for a year before serving in the U.S. Army as an artillery
lieutenant during World War I. After the war, he entered Yale University and, while
studying there, won the U.S. national amateur heavyweight boxing title. He
graduated from Yale in 1921, attended Harvard Law School, and received a Rhodes
scholarship to the University of Oxford where he received his Master’s Degree in
1928.
While studying at Oxford, Eagan became the first American to win the British
amateur boxing championship. Eagan won his first Olympic gold medal as a light
heavyweight boxer at the 1920 Olympic Games in Antwerp, Belgium. Eagan also
fought at the 1924 Olympics in Paris as a heavyweight but failed to get a medal.
Though he had taken up the sport just three weeks before the competition, he
managed to win a second gold medal as a member of the four-man bobsled team at
the 1932 Olympics in Lake Placid, New York. Thus he became the only athlete to
win gold medals at both the Summer and Winter Olympics.
Eagan was a member of the first group of athletes inducted into the U.S.
Olympic Hall of Fame in 1983. Eagan became a respected attorney, serving as an
assistant district attorney for southern New York and as chairman of the New York
State Athletic Commission (1945-51). He married soap heiress. Margaret Colgate
and attained the rank of lieutenant colonel during World War II. He died at the age
of 70, in Rye, New York.
Question 1: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Eagan’s life shows how a wealthy student can achieve as much as a poor one.
B. Eagan’s life shows that military experience makes athletes great.
C. Eagan’s life shows that a man can be an athlete and a well-educated person.
D. Eagan’s life shows how easy it is to win two gold medals in different Olympic
sports.
Question 2: According to the passage, how did Eagan’s mother earn a living?
A. Renting rooms to immigrants B. Teaching foreign languages
C. Doing laundry and cleaning D. Writing fiction for women’s
magazines
Question 3: According to the passage, who was Frank Merriwell?
A. A teacher at Yale B. A fictional character
C. A student at Oxford D. A bobsledder at the Olympics
Question 4: The word “artillery” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
A. large weapons such as cannons B. small weapons such as pistols
C. shoulder weapons such as rifles D. tension weapons such as crossbows
Question 5: According to the passage, Eagan won all of the following EXCEPT
A. Light heavyweight boxing, Olympic gold medal
B. U.S. national amateur heavyweight boxing title.
C. British amateur boxing championship
D. Heavyweight boxing, Olympic gold medal
Question 6: According to the passage, where were the 1920 Olympic Games held?
A. In Antwerp, Belgium B. In Paris, France
C. In London, England D. In Lake Placid, New York
Question 7: According to the passage, what special honor did Eagan receive in 1983?
A. He was inducted into U.S. Olympic Hall of Fame.
B. He was promoted to lieutenant colonel in the U.S. Army.
C. He received a gold medal in four-man bobsledding
D. He was appointed assistant district attorney for Southern New York.

READING 14:
What makes it rain? Rain falls from clouds for the same reason anything falls
to Earth. The Earth’s gravity pulls it. But every cloud is made of water droplets or
ice crystals. Why doesn’t rain or snow fall constantly from all clouds? The droplets
or ice crystals in clouds are exceedingly small. The effect of gravity on them is
minute. Air currents move and lift droplets so that the net downward displacement
is zero, even though the droplets are in constant motion.
Droplets and ice crystals behave somewhat like dust in the air made visible in
a shaft of sunlight. To the casual observer, dust seems to act in a totally random
fashion moving about chaotically without fixed direction. But in fact dust particles
are much larger than water droplets and they finally fall. The cloud droplet of
average size is only 1/2500 inch in diameter. It is so small that it would take sixteen
hours to fall half a mile in perfectly still air, and it does not fall out of moving air at
all. Only when the droplet grows to a diameter of 1/125 inch or larger can it fall
from the cloud. The average raindrop contains a million times as much water as a
tiny cloud droplet. The growth of a cloud droplet to a size large enough to fall out is
the cause of rain and other forms of precipitation. This important growth process is
called “coalescence”.
Question 1: What is the main topic of the passage?
 A. The mechanics of rain. B. The climate of North America.
C. How gravity affects agriculture. D. Types of clouds.
Question 2: Which of the following best replaces the word “minute” in paragraph 1?
A. second B. tiny C. slow D. predictable
Question 3: What does “in constant motion” in paragraph 1 mean?
A. moving all the time B. always having
feeling
C. never changing D. falling down easily
Question 4: Why don’t all ice crystals in clouds immediately fall to the Earth?
A. They are balanced by the pressure of rain droplets.
B. The effect of gravity at high altitude is random.
C. They are kept aloft by air currents.
D. The heat from the Sun’s rays melts them.
Question 5: What are water droplets?
A. They are ice crystals. B. They are small drops of dew.
C. They are watery fruits. D. They are animals living on ice.
Question 6: What can be inferred about drops of water larger than 1/125 inch in
diameter?
A. They never occur.
B. They are not affected by the force of gravity.
C. In still air they would fall to the ground.
D. In moving air they fall at a speed of thirty-two miles per hour.
Question 7: What is the diameter of the average cloud droplet?
A. 1/16 inch B. 1/125 inch
C. 1/2500 inch D. one millionth of an inch
Question 8: What is an example of precipitation?
A. rain B. lightening C. wind D. thunder

READING 15:
Vitamins, taken in tiny doses, are a major group of organic compounds that
regulate the mechanisms by which the body converts food into energy. They should
not be confused with minerals, which are inorganic in their makeup. Although in
general the naming of vitamins followed the alphabetical order of their
identification, the nomenclature of individual substances may appear to be
somewhat random and disorganized. Among the 13 vitamins known today, five are
produced in the body. Because the body produces sufficient quantities of some but
not all vitamins, they must be supplemented in the daily diet. Although each
vitamin has its specific designation and cannot be replaced by another compound, a
lack of one vitamin can interfere with the processing of another. When a lack of
even one vitamin in a diet is continual, a vitamin deficiency may result.
The best way for an individual to ensure a necessary supply of vitamins is to
maintain a balanced diet that includes a variety of foods and provides adequate
quantities of all the compounds. Some people take vitamin supplements,
predominantly in the form of tablets. The vitamins in such supplements are
equivalent to those in food, but an adult who maintains a balanced diet does not
need a daily supplement. The ingestion of supplements is recommended only to
correct an existing deficiency due to unbalanced diet, to provide vitamins known to
be lacking in a restricted diet, or to act as a therapeutic measure in medical
treatment. Specifically, caution must be exercised with fat-soluble substances, such
as vitamins A and D, because, taken in gigantic doses, they may present a serious
health hazard over a period of time.
Question 1: According to the passage, vitamins are
A. food particles B. essential nutrients
C. miscellaneous substances D. major food groups
Question 2: How many vitamins must be derived from nourishment?
A. 5 B. 7 C. 8 D. 13
Question 3: The author implies that foods
A. supply some but not all necessary vitamins
B. should be fortified with all vitamins
C. are equivalent in vitamin content
D. supplement some but not all necessary vitamins
Question 4: The phrase “daily diet” is closest in meaning to
A. weight loss or gain B. sufficient quantities C.
nourishment intake D. vitamin tablets
Question 5: A continual lack of one vitamin in a person’s diet is
 A. contagious B. desirable C. preposterous D. dangerous
Question 6: With which of the following statements would the author be most likely to
agree?
A. A varied diet needs to be supplemented with vitamins.
B. An inclusive diet can provide all necessary vitamins.
C. Vitamins cannot be consistently obtained from food.
D. Vitamins should come from capsules in purified form.
Question 7: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Adopting vitamins to control weight
B. The individual’s diet for optimum health
C. Vitamin categorization and medical application
D. The place of vitamins in nutrition

READING 16:
Geothermal energy is natural heat from the interior of the Earth that is converted
to heat buildings and generate electricity. The idea of harnessing Earth’s internal heat
is not new. As early as 1904 , geothermal power was used in Italy . Today, Earth’s
natural internal heat is being used to generate electricity in 21 countries , including
Russia, Japan, New Zealand, Iceland, Mexico, Ethiopia, Guatemala, EI Salvador, the
Philippines, and the United States .Total worldwide production is approaching 9,000
MW (equivalent to nine large modern coal-burning or nuclear power plants)-double the
amount in 1980 .Some 40 million people today receive their electricity from
geothermal energy at a cost competitive with that of other energy sources. In EI
Salvador , geothermal energy is supplying 30% of the total electric energy used.
However, at the global level, geothermal energy supplies less than 0,15%of the total
energy supply.
Geothermal energy may be considered a nonrenewable energy source when rates
of extraction are greater than rates of natural replenishment. However, geothermal
energy has its origin in the natural heat production within Earth , and only a small
fraction of the vast total resource base is being utilized today. Although most
geothermal energy production involves the tapping of high heat sources, people are
also using the low-temperature geothermal energy of groundwater in some
applications.
 Geothermal Systems
The average heat flow from the interior of the Earth is very low, about 0,06%
W/m2.This amount is trivial compared with the 177 W/m2from solar heat at the surface
in the United States. However, in some areas, heat flow is sufficiently high to be useful
for producing energy . For the most part, areas of high heat flow are associated with
plate tectonic boundaries. Oceanic ridge systems (divergent plate boundaries) and areas
where mountains are being uplifted and volcanic island arcs are forming (convergent
plate boundaries) are areas where this natural heat flow is anomalously high. One such
region is located in the western, United States, where recent tectonic and volcanic
activity has occurred.
On the basis of geological criteria, several types of hot geothermal systems (with
temperatures greater than about 800C , or 1760F)have been defined, and the resource
base is larger than that of fossil fuels and nuclear energy combined. A common system
for energy development is hydrothermal convection, characterized by the circulation of
steam and / or hot water that transfers heat from depths to the surface.
Geothermal Energy and the Environment
The environmental impact of geothermal energy may not be as extensive as that
of other sources of energy , but it can be considerable. When geothermal energy is
developed at a particular site, environmental problems include on-site noise, emissions
of gas, and disturbance of the land at drilling sites, disposal sites, roads and pipelines,
and power plants. Development of geothermal energy does not require large-scale
transportation of raw materials or refining of chemicals, as development of fossil fuels
does. Furthermore, geothermal energy does not produce the atmospheric pollutants
associated with burning fossil fuels or the radioactive waste associated with nuclear
energy. However, geothermal development often does produce considerable thermal
pollution from hot waste-waters, which may be saline or highly corrosive, producing
disposal and treatment problem.
Geothermal power is not very popular in some locations among some people. For
instance, geothermal energy has been produced for years on the island of Hawaii,
where active volcanic processes provide abundant near surface heat. There is
controversy, however, over further exploration and development .Native Hawaiians
and others have argued that the exploration and development of geothermal energy
degrade the tropical forest as developers construct roads, build facilities , and drill
wells.
 In addition, religious and cultural issues in Hawaii relate to the use of geothermal
energy. For example, some people are offended by using the “breath and water of Pele”
( the volcano goddess) to make electricity. This issue points out the importance of
being sensitive to the values and cultures of the people where development is planned.
Future of Geothermal energy
At present, geothermal energy supplies only a small fraction of the electrical
energy produced in the United States. However, if developed, known geothermal
resources in the United States could produce about 20,000 MW which is about 10% of
the electricity needed for the western states. Geohydrothermal resources not yet
discovered could conservatively provide four times that amounts (approximately 10%
of total U.S electric capacity). About equivalent to the electricity produced from water
power today.
Question 1: What is true about geothermal energy production worldwide?
A. Because it is a new idea, very few countries are geothermal energy sources
B. Only countries in the Southern Hemisphere are using geothermal energy on
a large scale
C. Until the cost of geothermal energy becomes competitive, it will not be used
globally
D. Geothermal energy is already being used in a number of nations, but it is not yet
a major source of power
Question 2: The word "approaching" in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. hardly B. mostly C. nearly D. briefly
Question 3: The word "that" in the passage refers to
A. electricity B. cost C. energy D. people
Question 4: In paragraph 2, the author states that geothermal energy is considered a
nonrenewable resource because
A. The production of geothermal energy is a natural process
B. Geothermal energy comes from the Earth
C. We are not using very much geothermal energy now
D. We could use more geothermal energy than is naturally replaced
Question 5: According to paragraph 3, the heat flow necessary for the production of
geothermal energy
 A. Is like solar heat on the Earth’s surface B. Happens near tectonic plate
boundaries
C. Must always be artificially increased D. May be impractical because of its
location
Question 6: The word considerable in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. large B. dangerous C. steady D. unexpected
Question 7: In paragraph 5, the author mentions the atmospheric pollution and waste
products for fossil fuel and nuclear power
A. To introduce the discussion of pollution caused by geothermal energy
development and production
B. To contrast pollution caused by fossil fuels and nuclear power with pollution
caused by geothermal production
C. To argue that geothermal production does not cause pollution like other sources
of energy do
D. To discourage the use of raw materials and chemicals in the production of energy
because of pollution
Question 8: According to paragraph 6, the production of geothermal energy in Hawaii
is controversial for all of the following reason EXCEPT
A. The volcanoes in Hawaii could be disrupted by the rapid release of geothermal
energy
B. The rainforest might be damaged during the construction of the geothermal
energy plant
C. The native people are concerned that geothermal energy is disrespectful to their
cultural traditions
D. Some Hawaiians oppose using geothermal energy because of their religious
beliefs.

READING 17:
Although management principles have been implemented since ancient times,
most management scholars trace the beginning of modern management thought back to
the early 1900s, beginning with the pioneering work of Frederick Taylor (1856-1915)
Taylor was the first person to study work scientifically. He is most famous for
introducing techniques of time and motion study, differential piece rate systems, and
for systematically specializing the work of operating employees and managers. Along
with other pioneers such as Frank and Lillian Gilbreth, Taylor set the stage, labeling
his philosophy and methods “scientific management’. At that time, his philosophy,
which was concerned with productivity, but which was often misinterpreted as
promoting worker interests at the expense of management, was in marked contrast to
the prevailing industrial norms of worker exploitation.
The time and motion study concepts were popularized by Frank and Lillian
Gilbreth. The Gilbreths had 12 children. By analyzing his children’s dishwashing and
bedmaking chores, this pioneer efficiency expert, Frank Gilbreth, hit on principles
whereby workers could eliminate waste motion. He was memorialized by two of his
children in their 1949 book called “Cheaper by the Dozen”.
The Gilbreth methods included using stop watches to time worker movements
and special tools (cameras and special clocks) to monitor and study worker
performance, and also involved identification of “therbligs” (Gilbreth spelled
backwards) – basic motions used in production jobs. Many of these motions and
accompanying times have been used to determine how long it should take a skilled
worker to perform a given job. In this way an industrial engineer can get a handle on
the approximate time it should take to produce a product or provide a service.
However, use of work analysis in this way is unlikely to lead to useful results unless all
five work dimensions are considered: physical, psychological, social, cultural, and
power.
Question 1: The word “which” in the passage refers to
A. scientific management B. Philosophy
C. productivity D. time and motion study
Question 2: It can be inferred from the first paragraph that
A. workers welcomed the application of scientific management
B. Talor’s philosophy is different from the industrial norms
C. by the early 1900s science had reached a stage where it could be applied to the
workplace
D. workers were no longer exploited after the introduction of scientific management.
Question 3: According to the passage, Frank Gilbreth discovered how workers could
eliminate waste motion by
A. using special tools such as cameras and clocks
B. using stop watches
 C. applying scientific management principles
D. watching his children do their chores
Question 4: The word “motions” is closest in meaning to
A. stop watches B. habits C. actions D. special tools
Question 5: Where in the passage does the author comment that the principles of
scientific management were often misunderstood?
A. Lines 1-5 B. Lines 6-10 C. Lines 11-15 D. Lines 16-20
Question 6: The word “ dimensions” in line 24 is closest in meaning to
A. sizes B. extents C. aspects D. standards
Question 7: All of the following are true except
A. scientific management was concerned with productivity.
B. the beginnings of modern management thought commenced in the 19th century.
C. Frank Gilbreth’s fame was enhanced by two of his children writing a book.
D. analyzing work to increase productivity is not likely to be useful unless all of
the dimensions are considered.

READING 18:
Perhaps better known than the Cullinan Diamond is the Hope Diamond, a
valuable and blue gem with a background of more than 300 years as a world
traveler.The 112-carat blue stone later became the Hope Diamond was mined in India
sometime before the middle of the seventeenth century and was first known to be
owned by Shah Jahan, who built the Taj Mahal in memory of his beloved wife. From
India, the celebrated blue stone has changed hands often, moving from location to
location in distant corners of the world.
In the middle of the seventeenth century, a trader from France named Jean
Baptiste Tavernier acquired the large blue diamond, which was rumored to have been
illegally removed from a temple Tavemier returned to France with the big blue gem,
where the stone was purchased by the Sun King Louis XIV. Louis XIV had it cut down
from 112 to 67 carats to make its shape symmetrical and to maximize its sparkle. The
newly cut diamond, still huge by any standards, was passed down through the royal
family of France, until it arrived in the hands of Louis XVI and Marie Antoinette.
During the French Revolution, Louis XVI and his wife met their fate on the guillotine
in 1793, and the big blue diamond disappeared from public sight.
 The diamond somehow managed to get from France to England, where banker
Henry Hope purchased it from a gem dealer early in the nineteenth century. The huge
blue stone was cut into a 45.5-carat oval, and at this point it took on the name by which
it is known today. The diamond stayed in the Hope family for around a century, when
deep indebtedness brought on by a serious gambling habit on the part of one of Henry
Hope's heirs forced the sale of the diamond.
From England, the Hope Diamond may have made its way into the hands of the
Sultan of Turkey; whatever route it took to get there, it eventually went on to the
United States when American Evelyn Walsh McLean purchased it in 1911. Mrs.
McLean certainly enjoyed showing the diamond off guests in her home were
sometimes astounded to notice the huge stone embellishing the neck of Mrs. McLean’s
Great Dane as the huge pet trotted around the grounds of her Washington, D.C. home.
The Hope Diamond later became the property of jeweler Harry Winston, who
presented the stunning 45.5- carat piece to the Smithsonian in 1958. The Hope
Diamond is now taking a well-earned rest following its rigorous travel itinerary and is
on display at the Smithsonian Institution in Washington, D.C., where it has been since
1958.
Question 1: The paragraph preceding the passage most likely discussed
A. why gems are considered valuable
B. how the Hope Diamond was mined
C. a diamond other than the Hope Diamond
D. methods for mining diamonds
Question 2: The main idea of this passage is that the Hope Diamond
A. came from India B. has moved around a lot
C. has been cut several times D. now resides in the Smithsonian
Question 3: The pronoun "it" in the passage refers to
A. its shape B. the newly cut diamond
C. the royal family D. the French Revolution
Question 4: It can be inferred from the passage that the author is not certain
A. who bought the Hope Diamond in England
B. who sold the Hope Diamond in England
C. how the Hope Diamond went from France to England
D. how big the Hope Diamond was in the nineteenth century
Question 5: It can be determined from the passage that Henry Hope most likely had
how many carats cut off the Hope Diamond?
A. 21.5 B. 45 C. 66.5 D. 67
Question 6: According to the passage, Mrs. McLean
A. donated the Hope Diamond to the Smithsonian
B. let her dog wear the Hope Diamond
C. purchased the Hope Diamond from the French
D. had the Hope Diamond cut to its present size of 45.5 carats
Question 7: Which country is NOT mentioned in the passage as a place where the
Hope Diamond spent some time?
A. India B. France C. England D. Denmark
Question 8: Where in the passage does the author describe what happened to the royal
French owners of the diamond?
A. Lines 7-8 B. Lines 10-11 C. Lines 12-14 D. Lines 15-16

READING 19:
Children learn to construct language from those around them. Until about the age
of three, children tend to learn to develop their language by modeling the speech of
their parents, but from that time on, peers have a growing influence as models for
language development in children. It is easy to observe that, when adults and older
children interact with younger children, they tend to modify their language to improve
children communication with younger children, and this modified language is called
caretaker speech.
Caretaker speech is used often quite unconsciously; few people actually study
how to modify language when speaking to young children but, instead, without
thinking, find ways to reduce the complexity of language in order to communicate
effectively with young children. A caretaker will unconsciously speak in one way
with adults and in a very different way with young children. Caretaker speech tends to
be slower speech with short, simple words and sentences which are said in a higher-
pitched voice with exaggerated inflections and many repetitions of essential
information. It is not limited to what is commonly called baby talk, which generally
refers to the use of simplified, repeated syllable expressions, such as ma-ma, boo-boo,
bye-bye, wa-wa, but also includes the simplified sentence structures repeated in sing-
song inflections. Examples of these are expressions such as “ say bye-bye” or “where’s
da-da?”
Caretaker speech serves the very important function of allowing young children
to acquire language more easily. The higher-pitched voice and the exaggerated
inflections tend to focus the small child on what the caretaker is saying, the simplified
words and sentences make it easier for the small child to begin to comprehended, and
the repetitions reinforce the child’s developing understanding. Then, as a child’s
speech develops, caretakers tend to adjust their language in the response to the
improved language skills, again quite unconsciously. Parents and older children
regularly adjust their speed to a level that is slightly above that of a younger child;
without studied recognition of what they are doing, these caretakers will speak in one
way to a one-year-ago and in a progressively more complex way as the child reaches
the age of two or three.
An important point to note is that the function covered by caretaker speech, that
of assisting a child to acquire language in small and simple steps, is an unconsciously
used but extremely important part of the process of language acquisition and as such is
quite universal. It is not merely a device used by English-speaking parents. Studying
cultures where children do not acquire language through caretaker speech is difficult
because such cultures are not difficult to find. The question of why caretaker speech is
universal is not clear understood; instead proponents on either side of the nature vs.
nature debate argue over whether caretaker speech is a natural function or a learned
one. Those who believe that caretaker speech is a natural and inherent function in
humans believe that it is human nature for children to acquire language and for those
around them to encourage their language acquisition naturally; the presence of a child
is itself a natural stimulus that increases the rate of caretaker speech develops through
nurturing rather than nature argue that a person who is attempting to communicate with
a child will learn by trying out different ways of communicating to determine which is
the most effective from the reactions to the communication attempts; apparent might,
for example, learn to use speech with exaggerated inflections with a small child
because the exaggerated inflections do a better job of attracting the child’s attention
than do more subtle inflections. Whether caretaker speech results from nature or
nurture, it does play an important and universal role in child language acquisition.
Question 1: According to paragraph 1, children over the age of three
A. Learn little language from those around them
B. Are no longer influenced by the language of their parents
 C. Are influenced more and more by those closer to their own age
D. First begin to respond to caretaker speech
Question 2: The word “modeling” in paragraph 1 could best replaced by
A. demonstrating B. mimicking C. building D. designing
Question 3: It can be inferred from part.2 that people generally seem
A. To be able to adapt their language to the level of a child’s language without
thinking consciously about it
B. Quite aware of the use of caretaker speech
C. To have difficulty using caretaker speech
D. To use caretaker speech conscious by reducing the complexity of their language
Question 4: All of the following are mentioned in par.3 as characteristics of caretaker
speech EXCEPT
A. Overemphasized inflections B. The use of rhyming sounds
C. The tendency to repeat oneself D. The use of easier words and
structures
Question 5: It is indicated in paragraph 3 that parents tend to
A. Speak in basically the same way to a one-year-old and a three-year-old
B. Use language that is far above the language level of a child
C. Speak in a progressively less complex way as a child matures
D. Modify their speech according to the language development of a child
Question 6: The word “reaches” in paragraph 3 could best replaced by
A. holds on to B. takes charge of C. arrives at D. extends out to
Question 7: The word “that” in par.4 refers to
A. an important point B. the function C. caretaker
speech D. a child

READING 20:
Although noise, commonly defined as unwanted sound, is a widely recognized
form of pollution, it is very difficult to measure because the discomfort experienced by
different individuals is highly subjective and, therefore, variable. Exposure to lower
levels of noise may be slightly irritating, whereas exposure to higher levels may
actually cause hearing loss. Particularly in congested urban areas, the noise produced
as a by product of our advancing technology causes physical and psychological harm,
and detracts from the quality of life for those who are exposed to it.
Unlike the eyes, which can be covered by the eyelids against strong light, the ear
has no lid, and is, therefore, always open and vulnerable; noise penetrates without
protection.
Noise causes effects that the hearer cannot control and to which the body never
becomes accustomed. Loud noises instinctively signal danger to any organism with a
hearing mechanism, including human beings. In response, heartbeat and respiration
accelerate, blood vessels constrict, the skin pales, and muscles tense. In fact, there is a
general increase in functioning brought about by the flow of adrenaline released in
response to fear, and some of these responses persist even longer than the noise,
occasionally as long as thirty minutes after the sound has ceased.
Because noise is unavoidable in a complex, industrial society, we are constantly
responding in the same way that we would respond to danger. Recently, researchers
have concluded that noise and our response may be much more than an annoyance. It
may be a serious threat to physical and psychological health and well-being, causing
damage not only to the ear and brain but also to the heart and stomach. We have long
known that hearing loss is America’s number one nonfatal health problem, but now we
are learning that some of us with heart disease and ulcers may be victims of noise as
well. Fetuses exposed to noise tend to be overactive, they cry easily, and they are more
sensitive to gastrointestinal problems after birth. In addition, the psychic effect of noise
is very important. Nervousness, irritability, tension, and anxiety increase, affecting the
quality of rest during sleep, and the efficiency of activities during waking hours, as
well as the way that we interact with each other.
Question 1: Which of the following is the author’s main point?
A. Noise may pose a serious threat to our physical and psychological health.
B. Loud noises signal danger.
C. Hearing loss is America’s number one nonfatal health problem
D. The ear is not like the eye.
Question 2: According to the passage, what is noise?
A. Unwanted sound B. A by-product of technology
C. Physical and psychological harm D. Congestion
Question 3: Why is noise difficult to measure?
A. It causes hearing loss.
 B. All people do not respond to it in the same way.
C. It is unwanted
D. People become accustomed to it
Question 4: The word "congested" in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by
A. hazardous B. polluted C. crowded D. rushed
Question 5: It can be inferred from the passage that the eye
A. responds to fear B. enjoys greater protection than the ear
C. increases functions D. is damaged by noise
Question 6: According to the passage, people respond to loud noises in the same way
that they respond to
A. annoyance B. disease C. damage D. danger
Question 7: The word "it" in the first paragraph refers to
A. the noise B. the quality of life
C. advancing technology D. a by-product
Question 8: With which of the following statements would the author most probably
agree?
A. Noise is not a serious problem today
B. Noise is America’s number one problem
C. Noise is an unavoidable problem in an industrial society
D. Noise is a complex problem

READING 21:
Martin Luther King, Jr., is well known for his work in civil rights and for his
many famous speeches, among them is his moving “I Have A Dream” speech. But
fewer people know much about King’s childhood. M.L., as he was called, was born in
1929 in Atlanta, Georgia, at the home of his maternal grandfather. M.L.’s grandfather,
the Reverend A.D. Williams, purchased their home on Auburn Avenue in 1909, twenty
years before M.L. was born. The Reverend Williams, an eloquent speaker, played an
important role in the community since so many people’s lives centered around the
church. He allowed his church and his home to be used as a meeting place for a
number of organizations dedicated to the education and social advancement of blacks.
M.L. grew up in this atmosphere, with his home being used as a community gathering
place, and was no doubt influenced by it.
 M.L.’s childhood was not especially eventful. His father was a minister and his
mother was a musician. He was the second of three children, and he attended all-black
schools in a black neighborhood. The neighborhood was not poor, however. Auburn
Avenue was the main artery through a prosperous neighborhood that had come to
symbolize achievement for Atlanta’s black people. It was an area of banks, insurance
companies, builders, jewelers, tailors, doctors, lawyers, and other black-owner, black-
operated businesses, and services. Even in the face of Atlanta’s segregation, the
district thrived. Dr. King never forgot the community spirit he had known as a child,
nor did he forget the racial prejudice that was a seemingly insurmountable barrier that
kept black Atlanta from mingling with whites.
Question 1: What is this passage mainly about?
A. the prejudice that existed in Atlanta B. Martin Luther King’s childhood
C. Martin Luther King’s grandfather D. the neighborhood King grew up in
Question 2: The word “gathering” in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by
A. picking B. learning C. exciting D. meeting
Question 3: According to the author, King was influenced by
A. community spirit. B. black lawyers. C. his mother D. his speeches
Question 4: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to
A. achievement B. neighborhood C. segregation D. services
Question 5: According to the author, blacks in King’s neighborhood were involved in
all the following businesses and services EXCEPT.
A. dentistry B. medicine C. law D. banking
Question 6: The word “tailors” in paragraph 2 describes people who are associated
with which of the following trades?
A. flower arranging B. shoe making C. garment making D. book binding
Question 7: According to the author, M.L.
A. had a difficult childhood B. was a good musician as a child.
C. loved to listen to his grandfather speak D. grew up in a relatively rich area of
Atlanta.

READING 22:
CUTTING THE APRON STRINGS
 There is substantial evidence that students going off to college have changed
over the years. For one thing, studies show that they are emotionally closer to their
parents and their parents to them. One thing that means is that they depend on each
other more for happiness. It puts a burden on children for parents to use their children
as vehicles for their own happiness- although today’s young people seem complicit in
this arrangement, perhaps because they’ve known no other way-even if it creates
anxiety in the children. That’s one reason parents like to be involved in their children’s
college experiences, and colleges have had to devise novel ways of getting parents off
campus when they transport their kids to school.
There’s also evidence that students today seem to be choosing schools with
reference to proximity to home. The closer a student is to home, the easier it is to bring
the laundry home and to land in your old bed with tea and sympathy when you have
the sniffles. And the easier it is for parents to visit you at university whenever the
mood strikes. The amount of visiting parents do is far more than in generations past.
But in a real sense, students don’t really leave their parents behind. Their parents
go to college right along with them - in their front pockets. That is, the parents are a
speed dial away by cell phone. This, of course, significantly reduces independence. A
student doesn’t get the chance to solve minor problems on his own - he just calls Mom
or Dad. A student has initial problems getting along with a roommate? A roommate
doesn’t do laundry as often as the other roommate wishes? A student gets a C grade on
her first paper? Instead of absorbing the negative information and figuring out how to
resolve the problem or how to do better, the call gets made to home, where Mom or
Dad solves the problem, often by calling the school administration. This kind of
behavior is, sadly, commonplace today and is a mark of the lack of coping skills
among students because all the lumps and bumps have been taken out of life for them
until now.
In addition to being tethered to parents, incoming freshmen are now very heavily
connected by cell phone to classmates from high school, who are presumably at other
colleges. So there isn’t the great impetus to mix and venture forth to meet new people,
to get out of one’s comfort zone, to get drawn into new experiences, that has
traditionally marked the beginning of freshman year. The laws of physics still apply,
and it is difficult to be meeting new people and seeking novel experiences while you
are talking to your old pals.
Question 1: The provision of mobile phones for children, according to the author,
_.
 A. reduces children’s dependence on their parents
B. increases positive control by parents
C. decreases parental interference
D. increases children’s dependence
Question 2: It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that children and their parents
_.
A. emotionally need each other
B. only temporarily depend on each other
C. emotionally and physically depend on each other
D. eternally depend on each other
Question 3: The author remarks that students nowadays tend to _ .
A. refuse to go to a college that is far from home
B. go to college to satisfy their parents’ wish
C. choose an institution that is close to their home
D. choose a foreign institution rather than a domestic one
Question 4: Parents like to be involved in their children’s college experiences because
A. they are worried about the school’s carelessness
B. the school often neglects their children
C. they are afraid of being deprived of happiness
D. they find their children a source of happiness
Question 5: The word “vehicles” in the first paragraph may be replaced by
_.
A. means B. methods C. ways D. instruments
Question 6: Colleges have had to devise ways of getting parents off campus because
_.
A. children want complete freedom from their parents’ control
B. the colleges want to keep parents in the dark about their activities
C. parents tend to get more involved in their children’s schoolwork
D. teachers themselves do not want to share information with the parents
Question 7: By quoting the laws of physics, the author implies that _ .
A. one should study physics whenever possible
 B. one should never forget old relationships
C. one should only care about new relationships
D. one should build more relationships
Question 8: “Cutting the Apron Strings”, the title of the passage, can be interpreted
as .
A. parting with old relationships B. being financially independent
C. standing on your own feet D. looking for your own devices

READING 23:
Researchers in the field of psychology have found that one of the best ways to
make an important decision, such as choosing a university to attend or a business to
invest in, involves the utilization of a decision worksheet. Psychologists who study
optimization compare the actual decisions made by people to theoretical ideal
decisions to see how similar they are. Proponents of the worksheet procedure believe
that it will yield optimal, that is, the best decisions. Although there are several
variations on the exact format that worksheets can take, they are all similar in their
essential aspects.
Worksheets require defining the problem in a clear and concise way and then
listing all possible solutions to the problem. Next, the pertinent considerations that will
be affected by each decision are listed, and the relative importance of each
consideration or consequence is determined. Each consideration is assigned a
numerical value to reflect its relative importance. A decision is mathematically
calculated by adding these values together. The alternative with the highest number of
points emerges as the best decision.
Since most important problems are multifaceted, there are several alternatives to
choose from, each with unique advantages and disadvantages. One of the benefits of a
pencil and paper decision-making procedure is that it permits people to deal with more
variables than their minds can generally comprehend and remember. On the average,
people can keep about seven ideas in their minds at once. A worksheet can be
especially useful when the decision involves a large number of variables with complex
relationships. A realistic example for many college students is the question “What will
I do after graduation?” A graduate might seek a position that offers specialized
training, pursue an advanced degree, or travel abroad for a year.
 A decision-making worksheet begins with a succinct statement of the problem
that will also help to narrow it. It is important to be clear about the distinction between
long-range and immediate goals because long-range goals often involve a different
decision from short-range ones. Focusing on long-range goals, a graduating student
might revise the question above to “What will I do after graduation that will lead to a
successful career?”
Question 1: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. A tool to assist in making complex decisions.
B. A comparison of actual decisions and ideal decisions.
C. Research on how people make decisions.
D. Differences between long-range and short-range decision making.
Question 2: The word “essential” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
A. introductory B. changeable C. beneficial D. fundamental
Question 3: Of the following steps, which occurs before the others in making a
decision worksheet?
A. Listing the consequences of each solution
B. Calculating a numerical summary of each solution.
C. Deciding which consequences are most important.
D. Writing down all possible solutions.
Question 4: According to decision-worksheet theory, an optimal decision is defined as
one that.
A. has the fewest variables to consider
B. uses the most decision worksheets
C. has the most points assigned to it
D. is agreed to by the greatest number of people
Question 5: The author states in paragraph 3 that “On the average, people can keep
about seven ideas in their minds at once” to explain that
A. most decisions involve seven steps
B. human mental capacity has limitations
C. some people have difficulty making minor as well as major decisions
D. people can learn to keep more than seven ideas in their minds with practice.
Question 6: Which of the following terms is defined in the passage?
 A. Proponents (para.1) B. Optimal (para.1)
C. Variables (para.3) D. Long-range goals (para.4)
Question 7: The word “it” in paragraph 4 refers to
A. worksheet B. problem C. distinction D. decision

READING 24:
The National Automobile Show in New York has been one of the top auto
shows in the United States since 1900. On November 3 of that year, about 8,000
people looked over the “ horseless carriages”. It was opening day and the first
opportunity for the automobile industry to show off its wares to large crowd;
however, the black-tie audience treated the occasion more as a social affair than as
sales extravaganza. It was also on the first day of this show that William Mckinley
became the first U.S Present to ride in a car.
The automobile was not invented in the United States. That distinction belongs
to Germany. Nikolaus Otto built the first practical internal-combustion engine there
in 1876. Then, German engineer Karl Benz built what are regarded as the first
modern automobiles in the mid-1880s. But the United States pioneered the
merchandising of the automobile. The auto show proved to be an effective means of
getting the public excited about automotive products.
By happenstance, the number of people at the first New York show equaled
the entire car population of the United States at that time. In 1900, 10 million
bicycles and an unknown number of horse-drawn carriages provided the prime
means of personal transportation. Only about 4,000 cars were assembled in the
United States in 1900, and only a quarter of those were gasoline powered. The rest
ran on steam or electricity.
After viewing the cars made by forty car makers, the show’s audience favored
electric cars because they were quiet. The risk of a boiler explosion turned people
away from streamers, and the gasoline-powered cars produced smelly fumes. The
Duryea Motor Wagon Company, which launched the American auto industry in
1895, offered a fragrant additive designed to mask the smells of the naphtha that is
burned. Many of the 1900 models were cumbersome – the Gas mobile, the Franklin,
and the Orient, for example, steered with a tiller like a boat instead of with a
steering wheel. None of them was equipped with an automatic starter.
 These early model cars were practically handmade and were not very
dependable. They were basically toys of the well-to-do. In fact, Woodrow Wilson,
then a professor at Princeton University and later President of the United States,
predicted that automobiles would cause conflict between the wealthy and the poor.
However, among the exhibitors at the 1900 show was a young engineer named
Henry Ford. The cars he exhibited at the 1900 show apparently attracted no special
notice. But before the end of the decade, he would revolutionize the automobile
industry with his Model T Ford. The Model T, first produced in 1909, featured a
standardized design and a steamlined method of production – the assembly line. Its
lower costs made it available to the mass market.
Cars at the 1900 show ranged in price from 1,000 dollars to 1,500 dollars, or
roughly 14,000 dollars to 21,000 in today’s prices. By 1913, the Model T was
selling for less than 300 dollars , and soon the price would drop even further. “I will
build cars for the multiudes,” Ford said, and he kept his promise.
Question 1: The passage implies that the audience viewed the 1900 National
Automobile Show primarily as a(n)
A. formal social occasion
B. chance to buy automobiles at low prices.
C. opportunity to learn how to drive.
D. chance to invest in one of thirty-two automobile manufacturers.
Question 2: According to the passage, who developed the first modern car ?
A. Karl Benz B. Nikolaus Otto C. William McKinley D. Henry Ford
Question 3: Approximately how many cars were there in the United States in 1900 ?
A. 4,000 B. 8,000
C. 10 million D. An unknown number
Question 4: Approximately how many of the cars assembled in the year 1900 were
gasoline powered?
A. 32 B. 1,000 C. 2,000 D. 4,000
Question 5: According to the passage, people at the 1900 National Automobile Show
favored cars powered by
A. electricity B. naphtha C. gasoline D. steam
Question 6: The purpose of the additive mentioned in paragraph 4 was to
A. increase the speed of cars B. make engines run more efficiently
 C. hide strong smells D. make cars look better
Question 7: The word well-to-do in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to
A. good condition B. rich
C. obedient children D. good-natured people
Question 8: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as steering with
a tiller rather than with a steering wheel ?
A. a Franklin B. a Duryea C. an Orient D. a Gasmobile

READING 25:
The pain of a migraine headache can virtually disable a person who suffers from
it. Millions and millions of people suffer from migraines, although many of them do
not even recognize that a migraine is different from a regular headache. A migraine is
not at all the same as a normal headache, and it seems to have a very physical cause.
One symptom of a migraine is a precursor, which is a visual aura before an
attack. Yet only about a third of patients actually experience that, and it is therefore not
a requirement in the diagnosis. Other symptoms include increased pain when a person
moves, nausea, and sensitivity to light and sound. Scientists now believe that migraines
are caused, not by abnormal blood vessels as previously believed, but instead by a
unique electrical disorder of brain cells. Physicians used to treat migraines with
medicine to constrict blood vessels because of the belief that dilated blood vessels were
the cause.
The new research has been enhanced by imaging devices that allow scientists to
watch patients' brains during an attack. The results show that sufferers have abnormally
excitable neurons, or brain nerve cells. Prior to the attack, the neurons suddenly fire off
electrical pulses at the back of the brain, which ripple like waves on a lake after a stone
hits the water. They ripple across the top and then the back of the brain, ultimately
affecting the brain stem where the pain centers are located. The pain then generates
possibly from the brain stem itself or from blood vessels inflamed by the rapidly
changing blood flow, or perhaps from both.
Scientists have experimented by applying a powerful magnet to stimulate the
neurons and discovered that some people's brains react differently than others'. When
stimulation was applied to the brains of people who had suffered migraines, they saw
the initial aura, and some actually suffered migraines. When the same stimulation was
applied to the brains of people who had never suffered migraines, they realized no
effect and the neurons showed no change.
Scientists and doctors continue to work on the research in an attempt to find the
perfect treatment. It is considered important to treat migraines because it is believed
that prolonged untreated attacks could cause physical changes in the brain leading to
chronic pain.
Question 1: The author implies that a migraine
A. is just a strong headache.
B. can be treated with regular aspirin.
C. is caused by the same things that cause a headache
D. has a specific scientific cause, unlike a headache.
Question 2: The word “it “ in paragraph 1 refers to
A. pain B. migraine C. person D. suffering
Question 3: The prior treatment for migraines included medicine that
A. eliminated any pain. B. tightened blood vessels
C. eliminated the aura. D. eliminated
stress.
Question 4: The word enhanced in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to
A. hindered B. augmented C. described D. studied
Question 5: The new research indicates that the neurons in the brain of migraine
sufferers
A. have more electrical charge than those of people who do not suffer migraines.
B. tend to fire in an unusual pattern when a migraine begins.
C. do not react.
D. have no effect on migraines
Question 6: According to the passage, now that scientists know that unusual neurons
in certain people are the cause of migraines, they
A. know all they need to know about the cause of migraines.
B. have developed medicine to permanently reverse the neurons' charge.
C. still do not know exactly what causes the pain.
D. know that the defective neurons reside in the brain stem.
Question 7: The best title for this passage would be what?
 A. Imaging As a Means of Studying Migraines
B. How Migraines and Headaches are Different
C. New Evidence of How Migraines Are Formed
D. New Treatments for Migraines

READING 26:
Line Europeans who arrived in the Americas, the first American Indians were
immigrants. Because Indians were nomadic hunters and gatherers, they probably
arrived in search of new hunting grounds from Asia when they crossed the ice-covered
Bering Strait to Alaska. Anthropologists estimate that the entire Indian population
north of Mexico was slightly greater than 1,020,000 when the first settlers arrived from
Europe. Although Native Americans belonged to one geographic race, their cultures
and languages were only marginally similar, and by and large, they had different
ways of life. Nomadic migrations required Indians to construct shelters that did not
need to be transported, but could be easily erected from the materials found in their
new location.
Eastern Woodland Indian tribes lived in bark-covered wigwams that were shaped
like cones or domes. The frame for the hut was made of young trees firmly driven into
the ground, and then bent overhead to tie together with bark fibers or strings of animal
hides. Sheets and slabs of bark were attached to the frame to construct the roof and
walls, leaving an opening to serve as a door and to allow smoke to escape. The
Iroquois in north eastern regions built longhouses that were more spacious than
wigwams because five to a dozen families lived under one roof. During the winter,
they plastered clay to the poles of the frame to protect the inhabitants from wind and
rain.
Pueblo Indians who lived in the southwest portion of the United States in northern
Arizona and New Mexico constructed elaborate housing with several stories and many
rooms. Each family unit had only one room, and their ancestors dug shelters in the
walls of cliffs and canyons. The ground story of a Pueblo dwelling had no doors or
windows in order to prevent enemies from entering. The next level was set back the
width of one room, and the row of rooms above it was set back once again, giving their
houses the appearance of a terrace Pueblos used ladders to climb to the upper levels
and pulled them in when all family members returned for the night.
 Indians living in deserts used sandstone and clay as construction materials. Those
who lived in the valleys of rivers even made bricks of clay with wood chips to add
strength and to prevent the clay from cracking. To make roofs, Pueblos tied logs
together to make rafters and laid them across the two outside walls. On top of the
rafters, layers of tree branches, sticks, grass, and brush created a solid roof to preclude
the water from leaking inside. Pueblo dwellings were dark because windows were
often not large enough to allow much light.
Question 1: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Different Indian tribes B. Types of households among Indians
C. Types of shelters built by Indians D. Different Indian cultures
Question 2: The word “marginally” is closest in meaning to
A. markedly B. minimally C. temporarily D. tentatively
Question 3: The phrase “by and large” is closest in meaning to
A. mostly B. conversely C. occasionally D. notably
Question 4: The author of the passage implies that Indians
A. carried their construction materials to new locations
B. lived in settlements, similar to the Europeans
C. liked the climate in the Southwest
D. constructed shelters every time a tribe moved
Question 5: The author of the passage implies that Eastern Indians
A. constructed huts without roofs
B. planted trees to harvest crops
C. made fires inside their huts
D. used sheets and blankets as bedding
Question 6: The phrase “under one roof” is closest in meaning to
A. in separate sections B. in several shelters
C. comfortably D. together
Question 7: What was the main difference between the dwelling of Pueblo and
Woodland Indians?
A. The Pueblos lived in permanent structures, but the Woodland Indians lived
in transient shelters.
 B. The Pueblos used wood in their constructions, but the Woodland Indians relied
mostly on animal hides.
C. The Woodland Indians lived on flat ground, but the Pueblos lived in canyons.
D. The Woodland Indians built small shelters, but the Pueblo rooms were large.
Question 8: It can be inferred from the passage that Pueblo dwellings were designed to
protect inhabitants from
A. attacks by enemies and cold winters
B. attacks by enemies and against rain water
C. wind storms and water from rain
D. wild animals, cold winters, and desert sands.

READING 27:
The problem of cardiac arrest has become a major problem these days. A lot of
patients have acute pain after suffering from a stroke. There are plenty of medicines,
surgical methods developed in the field of medicine to treat such cardiac problems.
These solutions are time consuming and costly. In the process of rehabilitation, the
medicines also have a lot of side effects on the human body and take time to give
relief. Therefore, a lot of people go for alternative therapies that help in rehabilitation
of patients who suffer from cardiac stroke. The alternative therapies help in relieving
pain, stress and make the body healthy and fit through exercise, yoga as well as
meditation.
Those who have the cardiac complaint have to take a good care of their diet.
Also, they must look after their regular exercise in order to stay fit and make sure that
they do not take undue stress. These are some of the precautions that you need to take
while you are in the process of rehabilitation. The cardiac rehabilitation can be carried
out at the rehabilitation centers as well as at the residence of the patients. Once the
patient learns all the exercise and techniques of meditation and understands what diet
he or she should include in their meals as the instructions of the doctor’s and dieticians,
then it is possible to accomplish the rehabilitation process at home with little guidance
and monitoring. But the best results are seen at the center, where the program is given
to a group of patients together.
The alternative therapies used for cardiac rehabilitation are stress management,
physical exercises and diet. Stress management is very much essential in the
rehabilitation process because it has a lot of effects on the patient’s body. A lot of
relaxation techniques are taught to the patients that helps them in stress management,
among them meditation is one of the main focuses.
The various rehabilitation programs also give you information on how to have a
stress free lifestyle. The patients are supported and encouraged to discuss their
problems with the counselor or fellow patients. This helps them to vent their feelings
and feel comforted. Breathing exercises are also of great help for the patients who are
undergoing cardiac rehabilitation.
In addition to stress management, physical exercises are also given a lot of
importance in the rehabilitation program. The patients are asked to perform various
forms of physical exercise which are suitable to them depending on their age and the
severity of their problems. These activities include activities like walking, jogging,
cycling, and some other sports like badminton, tennis etc., to maintain their health and
keep their muscles, bones, and body tissues in a good state. Cardio exercise in a
gymnasium is also encouraged. This helps in strengthening the muscles and managing
weight.
The diet of these patients also needs to be looked upon very carefully. Such
people should stay away from alcohol and tobacco consumption in order to improve
their health. Make sure that their meals include plenty of organic foodstuffs as well as
fruits and juices. Do not include junk and oily foodstuffs in your diet because they are
very difficult to digest. The intake of calories should also be done at required level. It is
a significant fact that the patients have to understand and work accordingly.
Question 1: What does the passage primarily discuss?
A. Medical treatment of cardiac arrest
B. Alternative therapies in the treatment of cardiac arrest
C. The rehabilitation process of cardiac arrest
D. Alcohol and tobacco consumption in cardiac patients’ diet
Question 2: All of the following are mentioned as the negative aspects of medical
treatment EXCEPT
A. causing acute pains B. costing a lot of money
C. having side effects on people’s body D. prolonging over a long period of time
Question 3: The word “undue” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
A. regular B. daily C. excessive D. severe
Question 4: Which is one of the main areas focused in the stress management
program?
 A. Relaxation B. Breathing
C. Meditation D. Weight management
Question 5: According to the passage, what do people with cardiac arrest need to do to
have a stress-free life?
A. They need to meditate on their problems
B. They need to talk to others about their problems.
C. They need to stop worrying about their problems.
D. They need to deal with their problems.
Question 6: The author mentions gymnasium in the passage to imply that
A. gymnasium is an ideal place for doing cardio exercise.
B. gymnasium is also a good place for doing cardio exercise
C. gymnasium is the place for doing cardio exercise when it rains.
D. gymnasium is the only place for doing cardio exercise.
Question 7: Which of the following is NOT supported by the passage?
A. It is of vital important that patients of cardiac arrest understand and follow the
instructions from doctors and dieticians
B. Managing stress is considered the most important therapy in rehabilitation
programs.
C. The cardiac rehabilitation carried out at home of the patients is less effective than
in the rehabilitation center.
D. Patients of cardiac arrest perform different forms of physical exercise based on
their age and their health condition.

READING 28:
ACADEMICS AREN’T THE PROBLEM
Studies about how students use their time might shed light on whether they face
increased academic and financial pressures compared with earlier eras.
Based on data about how students are spending time, academic or financial
pressures don’t seem to be greater now than a generation ago. The data show that full-
time students in all types of colleges study much less now than they did a generation
ago - a full 10 hours a week less. Students are also receiving significantly higher
grades. So it appears that academic pressures are, in fact, considerably lower than they
used to be.
 The time-use data don’t suggest that students feel greater financial pressures,
either. When the time savings and lower opportunity costs are factored in, college
appears less expensive for most students than it was in the 1960s. And though there are
now full-time students working to pay while in college, they study less even when paid
work choices are held constantly.
In other words, full-time students do not appear to be studying less in order to
work more. They appear to be studying less and spending the extra time on leisure
activities or fun. It seems hard to imagine that students feeling increased financial
pressures would respond by taking more leisure.
Based on how students are spending their time, then, it doesn’t look as though
academic or financial pressures are greater now than a generation ago. The time- use
data don't speak directly to social pressures, and it may well be that these have become
more intense lately.
In one recent set of data, students reported spending more than 23 hours per week
either socializing with friends or playing on the Computer for fun. Social activities, in
person or on Computer, would seem to have become the major focus of campus life. It
is hard to tell what kinds of pressures would be associated with this change.
Question 1: Research studies have shown that pressures put on students nowadays are
.
A. much greater than the past B. not greater than the past
C. getting ever greater D. more diversified
Question 2: The study’s conclusion that students’ workload now is not greater than
before is based on ___ .
A. how students spend their time
B. what students achieve with greater load
C. how students work through college
D. what college demands from students
Question 3: Students get higher grades as ___ .
A. students study much harder
B. academic workload appears less demanding
C. academic workload appears more attractive
D. college’s facilities are much better
Question 4: All factors considered, college now seems __ .
 A. ever more expensive B. more costly
C. much more expensive D. less expensive
Question 5: The word “focus” in the last paragraph can be replaced with .
A. headline B. biggest importance
C. primary theme D. central activity
Question 6: According to the author, the fact that more full-time students are working
for pay .
A. shows that students are financially pressured
B. is not an indication of pressures
C. does not change students’ campus life
D. indicates that students are academically pressured
Question 7: Ạccording to the author, the fact that students have more time for leisure
is a proof that .
A. financial pressure on students is not a problem
B. they cannot find extra jobs
C. academic work disinterests them
D. they are active with extra-curricular activities
Question 8: The word “Academics” in the title mostly means _.
A. college students and tutors B. professors and research students
C. students’ workload in college D. graduate students’ workload

READING 29:
The official residence of the president of the United States is the White House,
located at 1600 Pennsylvania Avenue, in Washington, D.C. The Commissioners of the
District of Columbia held a meeting in 1792 and decided to hold a contest for the best
design for the Presidential House. James Hoban, an architect born in Ireland, was the
winner. His bid for the construction of the mansion asked for $200,000, but the final
cost of the building came to twice that amount. The work on the project began during
the same year, and the grounds of approximately one and a half miles west of the
Capitol Hill were chosen by Major Pierre-Charles L’Enfant, who was in charge of city
planning. However, the construction continued for several more years, and George
Washington had stepped down as president before the building was habitable. When
John Adams, the second president of the United States and his wife Abigail moved in
1800, only six rooms had been completed.
The grey sandstone walls of the house were painted white during construction,
and the color of the paint gave the building its name. The building was burned on
August 24, 1814, and James Hoban reconstructed the house for President James
Monroe and his family, who moved there in 1817. The north portico was added to the
building in 1829, water pipes were installed in 1833, gas lighting in 1848, and
electricity in 1891. In 1948, inspectors announced that the building was so dilapidated
that it was beyond repair and suggested that it was cheaper to construct a new one than
repair the existing dwelling. However, the national sentiment was to keep the original
form intact, and Congress appropriated $5million dollars for repairs. In 1961,
Jacqueline Kennedy launched a pro.4 gram to redecorate the rooms and appointed a
Fine Arts Committee to make choices of furnishing and colors.
The house of the president accords its residents a great deal of space. The living
quarters contain 107 rooms, 40 corridors, and 19 baths. The White House contains a
doctor’s suite, a dentist’s office, a large solarium, a broadcasting room, and a two-floor
basement for storage and service rooms. The office in which the president works is not
located in the White House, but in a separate building called the West Wing. The
White House stands on 16 acres of park like land and overlooks a broad lawn, flower
gardens, and wood groves.
Question 1: The word “contest” is closest in meaning to
A. hearing B. concourse C. competition D. computation
Question 2: What does the passage imply about the cost of the White House
construction?
A. It was proposed at the meeting of the commissioners.
B. It did not adhere to the original estimate.
C. It was not included in the architectural design.
D. It was considered excessive for the presidential home.
Question 3: The word “grounds” is closest in meaning to
A. high ground B. several lots C. site D. hills
Question 4: It can be inferred from the passage that
A. George Washington often used the White House steps
B. George Washington contributed to the White House design
 C. George Washington never lived in the White House
D. The White House was excluded from the city planning
Question 5: The author of the passage implies that the construction of the main White
House building continued
A. up to 1800 B. after 1800 C. until 1814 D. until 1792
Question 6: What can be inferred about the White House from the information in the
second paragraph?
A. Few changes occurred in the structure in the first half of the 20th century.
B. The building was modernized extensively during one decade.
C. Running water was installed in the second half of the 19th century.
D. Each president added new features to the building’s conveniences.
Question 7: The passage mentions all of the following White House premises
EXCEPT
A. hallways B. kitchen C. medical offices D. storage rooms

READING 30:
In the course of history, human inventions have dramatically increased the
average amount of energy available for use per person. Primitive people in cold
regions burned wood and animal dung to heat their caves, cook food, and drive off
animals by fire. The first step toward the developing of more efficient fuels was taken
when people discovered that they could use vegetable oils and animal fats in lieu of
gathered or cut wood. Charcoal gave off a more intensive heat than wood and was
more easily obtainable than organic fats. The Greeks first began to use coal for metal
smelting in the 4th century, but it did not come into extensive use until the Industrial
Revolution.
In the 1700s, at the beginning of the Industrial Revolution, most energy used in
the United States and other nations undergoing industrialization was obtained from
perpetual and renewable sources, such as wood, water streams, domesticated animal
labor, and wind. These were predominantly locally available supplies. By mid-1800s,
91 percent of all commercial energy consumed in the United States and European
countries was obtained from wood. However, at the beginning of the 20th century, coal
became a major energy source and replaced wood in industrializing countries.
Although in most regions and climate zones wood was more readily accessible than
coal, the latter represents a more concentrated source of energy. In 1910, natural gas
and oil firmly replaced coal as the main source of fuel because they are lighter and,
therefore, cheaper to transport. They burned more cleanly than coal and polluted less.
Unlike coal, oil could be refined to manufacture liquid fuels for vehicles, a very
important consideration in the early 1900s, when the automobile arrived on the scene.
By 1984, nonrenewable fossil fuels, such as oil, coal, and natural gas, provided
over 82 percent of the commercial and industrial energy used in the world. Small
amounts of energy were derived from nuclear fission, and the remaining 16 percent
came from burning direct perpetual and renewable fuels, such as biomass. Between
1700 and 1986, a large number of countries shifted from the use of energy from local
sources to a centralized generation of hydropower and solar energy converted to
electricity. The energy derived from nonrenewable fossil fuels has been increasingly
produced in one location and transported to another, as is the case with most
automobile fuels. In countries with private, rather than public transportation, the age of
nonrenewable fuels has created a dependency on a finite resource that will have to be
replaced.
Question 1: What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Applications of various fuels B. Natural resources and fossil fuels
C. A history of energy use D. A historical overview of energy rates
Question 2: The phrase “per person” is closest in meaning to
A. per capita B. per year C. per family D. per day
Question 3: The phrase “in lieu” is closest in meaning to
A. in spite B. in place C. in every way D. in charge
Question 4: The author of the passage implies that in the 1700s, sources of energy
were
A. used for commercial purposes B. used in various combinations
C. not derived from mineral deposits D. not always easy to locate
Question 5: The phrase “the latter” refers to
A. wood B. coal C. most regions D. climate zones
Question 6: The word “They” refers to
A. coal and wood B. main sources of fuel
C. natural gas and oil D. industrializing countries
Question 7: According to the passage, what was the greatest advantage of oil as fuel?
A. It was a concentrated source of energy.
 B. It was lighter and cheaper than coal.
C. It replaced wood and coal and reduced pollution.
D. It could be converted to automobile fuel.
Question 8: According to the passage, the sources of fossil fuels will have to be
replaced because
A. they need to be transported B. they are not efficient
C. their use is centralized D. their supply is limited

READING 31:
Puerto Rico, a Caribbean island rich in history and remarkable natural beauty, has
a cuisine all its own. Immigration to the island has helped to shape its cuisine, with
people from all over the world making various contributions to it. However, before the
arrival of these immigrants, the island of Puerto Rico was already known as Borikén
and was inhabited by the Taíno people. Taíno cuisine included such foods as rodents
with sweet chili peppers, fresh shellfish, yams, and fish fried in corn oil.
(1) Many aspects of Taíno cuisine continue today in Puerto Rican cooking, but it
has been heavily influenced by the Spanish, who invaded Puerto Rico in 1508, and
Africans, who were initially brought to Puerto Rico to work as slaves. (2)Taíno
cooking styles were mixed with ideas brought by the Spanish and Africans to create
new dishes. (3) Africans also added to the island’s food culture by introducing
powerful, contrasting tastes in dishes like piñon–plantains layered in ground beef. In
fact, much of the food Puerto Rico is now famous for—plantains, coffee, sugarcane,
coconuts, and oranges—was actually imported by foreigners to the island. (4)
A common assumption many people make about Puerto Rican food is that it is
very spicy. It’s true that chili peppers are popular; ajícaballero in particular is a very
hot chili pepper that Puerto Ricans enjoy. However, milder tastes are popular too, such
as sofrito. The 25 base of many Puerto Rican dishes, sofrito is a sauce made from
chopped onions, garlic, green bell peppers, sweet chili peppers, oregano, cilantro, and a
handful of other spices. It is fried in oil and then added to other dishes.
(Adapted from: Reaing Explorer 2, by Paul MacIntyre, 2009, Heinle, Cengage
Learning)
Question 1: Who lived in Puerto Rico first?
A. the Taíno people B. the Africans C. the Spanish D. the Americans
Question 2: What is the main idea of the second paragraph?
 A. Taíno dishes are important in Puerto Rican cooking.
B. Puerto Rican cooking has had many influences.
C. Food that has been imported by foreigners isn’t really Puerto Rican.
D. American foods have probably had the most influence.
Question 3: The word it in paragraph 1 refers to _
A. immigration B. Puerto Rican cuisine
C. Caribbean history D. the island’s natural beauty
Question 4: Which of the following is NOT true?
A. Many people think Puerto Rican food is spicy.
B. Puerto Rican cuisine uses a lot of chili peppers.
C. Sofrito is an extremely spicy type of food.
D. Ají caballero is a type of chili pepper.
Question 5: How is sofrito used?
A. It is eaten before meals. B. It is added to other dishes.
C. It is used when foods are too spicy. D. It is eaten as a main dish.
Question 6: Look at the four numbers (1), (2), (3), and (4) in paragraph 2 that indicate
where this sentence can be added to the passage. Where would the sentence fit best?
The Spanish extended food choices by bringing cattle, pigs, 15 goats, and sheep to the
island.
A. (1) B. (2) C. (3) D. (4)
Question 7: The word "cuisine" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
A. kind of cake B. kind of food C. style of cooking D. way of living

READING 32:
Where one stage of child development has been left out, or not sufficiently
experienced, the child may have to go back and capture the experience of it. A good
home makes this possible - for example, by providing the opportunity for the child to
play with a clockwork car or toy railway train up to any age if he still needs to do so.
This principle, in fact, underlies all psychological treatment of children in difficulties
with their development, and is the basic of work in child clinics.
The beginnings of discipline are in the nursery. Even the youngest baby is taught by
gradual stages to wait for food, to sleep and wake at regular intervals and so on. If the
child feels the world around him is a warm and friendly one, he slowly accepts its
rhythm and accustoms himself to conforming to its demands. Learning to wait for
things, particularly for food, is a very important element in upbringing, and is achieved
successfully only if too great demands are not made before the child can understand
them. Every parent watches eagerly the child's acquisition of each new skill: the first
spoken words, the first independent steps, or the beginning of reading and writing. It is
often tempting to hurry the child beyond his natural learning rate, but this can set up
dangerous feelings of failure and states of anxiety in the child. This might happen at
any stage. A baby might be forced to use a toilet too early, a young child might be
encouraged to learn to read before he knows the meaning of the words he reads. On the
other hand, though, if a child is left alone too much, or without any learning
opportunities, he loses his natural zest for life and his desire to find out new things for
himself.
Learning together is a fruitful source of relationship between children and parents.
By playing together, parents learn more about their children and children learn more
from their parents. Toys and games which both parents and children can share are an
important means of achieving this co-operation. Building-block toys, jigsaw puzzles
and crosswords are good examples.
Parents vary greatly in their degree of strictness or indulgence towards their
children. Some may be especially strict in money matters; others are severe over times
of coming home at night, punctuality for meals or personal cleanliness. In general, the
controls imposed represent the needs of the parents and the values of the community
as much as the child's own happiness and well-being.
With regard to the development of moral standards in the growing child, consistency
is very important in parental teaching. To forbid a thing one day and excuse it the next
is no foundation for morality. Also, parents should realize that "Example is better than
precept". If they are hypocritical and do not practice what they preach, their children
may grow confused and emotionally insecure when they grow old enough to think for
themselves, and realize they have been, to some extent, deceived. A sudden awareness
of a marked difference between their parents' ethics and their morals can be a
dangerous disillusion.
Question 1: The principle underlying all treatment of developmental difficulties in
children _
A. is in the provision of clockwork toys and trains
B. is to send them to clinics
 C. is to capture them before they are sufficiently experienced
D. offers recapture of earlier experiences
Question 2: Learning to wait for things is successfully taught
A. in spite of excessive demands being made
B. only if excessive demands are avoided
C. because excessive demands are not advisable
D. is achieved successfully by all children
Question 3: The encouragement of children to achieve new skills
A. should be focused on only at school B. can never be taken too far
C. will always assist their development D. should be balanced and moderate
Question 4: Parental controls and discipline _
A. serve a dual purpose
B. are designed to promote the child's happiness
C. reflect only the values of the community
D. should be avoided as far as possible
Question 5: The practice of the rule "Example is better than precept"
A. only works when the children grow old enough to think for themselves
B. would help avoid the necessity for ethics and morals
C. will free a child from disillusion when he grows up
D. is too difficult for all parents to exercise
Question 6: In the 1st paragraph, the author lays some emphasis on the role
of the in helping the child in trouble.
A. psychiatrists B. community C. family D. nursery
Question 7: The phrase 'conforming to' in the 2nd paragraph means _
A. adapting to B. accepting C. agreeing with D. following
Question 8: Hypocrisy on the part of the parents may
A. result in their children's wrong behaviour B. make their
children lose faith in them
C. disqualify their teachings altogether D. impair their children's mind
READING 33:
 Sir Anthony Van Dyck, one of the world’s greatest masters of portraiture, was
born in Antwerp and was the seventh of twelve children. His affluent father
apprenticed him to a painter when he was just a little over ten. Having become a
member of the Antwerp Guild of painters before he was nineteen, he worked in the
studio of Peter Paul Rubens for several years. In Italy, Van Dyck studied the great
Venetian masters and painted flattering portraits of gorgeous ladies and haughty nobles
in gilded velvet robes with lace and pearls. While he was sought after by the
aristocracy for his acclaimed loose brushwork, his engravings and etchings also
evinced his outstanding talent. Upon his return to Antwerp in 1628, he was influenced
by Rubens’s interpretation of the artistic form and produced numerous religious
paintings while holding an appointment as the court painter. During his tenure, he
proved that his use of color, his sensitive elegance, and his remarkable insight were
unexcelled.
His fame preceded him to England, where he was invited by King Charles I. After
years of faithful service, he was knighted in recognition of his achievements in painting
countless portraits of the king, the queen, the royal children, and the titled nobility of
England.
However, Van Dyck’s greatest piece is one of his religious works, a true
masterpiece displayed in the Antwerp gallery. This group scene exhibits his artful
polish in painting the folds of fabric, the delicacy of human skin, landscape, and other
externals, and puts him above other accomplished contemporary masters. Although
Charles paid Van Dyck a salary and granted him a pension, the painter’s extravagant
life-style and penchant for luxuries led him into debt, and he died without means.
Question 1: It can be inferred from the passage that Van Dyck was raised
A. in a large and wealthy family B. in a stable and loving household
C. by his father alone D. without good work habits
Question 2: The author of the passage implies that Van Dyck
A. had produced great paintings before he turned nineteen
B. had a great artistic talent even when he was young
C. joined other painters when he had little to occupy him
D. worked very hard in his youth to make a living
Question 3: It can be inferred from the passage that after Van Dyck left Rubens
A. he accrued considerable wealth B. he became a militant aristocrat
 C. he refined his artistic tastes and skills D. he incorporated southern styles in his
art
Question 4: The author of the passage implies that Van Dyck’s fame had largely to do
with his
A. artful portraits B. wealthy family
C. elegance in clothing D. religious beliefs
Question 5: The word “acclaimed” is closest in meaning to
A. reclaimed B. recognized C. recommended D. rectified
Question 6: How did Charles I honor Van Dyck?
A. Van Dyck painted members of the royal court.
B. Van Dyck received a noble title.
C. Van Dyck was allowed to travel widely.
D. Van Dyck displayed his work in the royal palace.
Question 7: What are the reasons given for Van Dyck’s financial decline?
A. His employer’s lack of generosity B. His ill health and lack of revenue.
C. His lavish spending D. His miserly attitudes

READING 34:
ACID DUST
“ Calcite- containing dust particles blow into the air and combine with nitric acid
in polluted air from factories to form an entirely new particle – calcium nitrate , ” said
Alexander Laskin, a senior research scientist at the Department of Energy’s Pacific
Northwest National Laboratory in Richland, Washington .These nitrates have optical
and chemical properties that are completely different from those of the originally dry
dust particles . Due to this, climate models need to be updated to reflect this chemistry.
Calcite dust is common in arid areas such as Israel, where scientists collected particles
for analysis.
Working from a mountaintop, the team collected dust that had blown in from the
northern shores of Egypt, Sinai,and southern Israel. The particles had combined with
air containing pollutants that came from Cairo.They analyzed nearly 2,00 individual
particles and observed the physical and chemical changes at the W.R Wiley
Environmental Sciences Laboratory.
 A key change in the properties of the newly formed nitrate particles is that they
begin to absorb water and retain the moisture .These wet particles can scatter and
absorb sunlight-presenting climate modelers, who need to know where the energy is
going , a new wild card to deal with . Companion studies of dust samples from the
Sahara and the Saudi coast and loess from China show that the higher the calcium in
the mineral , the more reactive they are in with nitric acid .And once the particle is
changed , it stays that way.
“When dust storms kick up these particles and they enter polluted areas , the
particles change ,” Laskin said . “To what extent this is happening globally, as more of
the world becomes industrialized , we don’t know . But now we have the laboratory
and field evidence that shows it is definitely happening . The story is much more
complicated than anybody thought .”
Question 1: What is the main idea of the passage ?
A. There is a new particle called calcium nitrate
B. Factories are polluting the environment
C. Climate models have to be updated because of the new particle calcium nitrate.
D. Calcium nitrate has chemical properties different from other dust particles.
Question 2: Why do climate models need to be updated to reflect the chemistry of
calcium nitrate ?
A. The new particles can absorb water and retain moisture.
B. The new particles can scatter and absorb sunlight.
C. To stop acid dust.
D. Both A and B.
Question 3: Do the particles react with nitric acid ?
A. No, but they continue to absorb the sun’s energy.
B. No, and the particles do not change.
C. Yes, but the changes are temporary.
D. Yes, and the changes are permanent .
Question 4: Which of the following may be true ?
A. The change of an ice age is increased. B. We may see more rainbows.
C. The greenhouse effects are increased D. Calcite dust is common in arid
areas. Question 5: Why does the passage begin with a description of the properties of
calcium nitrate?
 A. To give background information so the reader can understand the topic better.
B. Because calcium nitrate is the main idea.
C. They show how elements combine to create calcium nitrate .
D. To prove the existence of calcium nitrate
Question 6: The word “those ” in paragraph 1 refers to .
A. Nitrates B. Properties C. Particles D. Models
Question 7: It can be inferred that the word “retain ” in paragraph 3 is closest in
meaning to .
A. hold B. lose C. increase D. need
Question 8: In the third paragraph , what does the term “ wild card ” mean ?
A. An unknown card in a card game.
B. An unknown item in the scientists’ calculations
C. A large amount of acid dust.
D. A,B and C are incorrect .

READING 35:
What geologists call the Basin and Range Province in the United States roughly
coincides in its northern portions with the geographic province known as the Great
Basin. The Great Basin is hemmed in west by the Sierra Nevada and on the east Line
by the Rocky Mountains; it has no outlet to the sea. The prevailing winds in the Great
Basin are from the west. Warm, moist air from the Pacific Ocean is forced upward as it
crosses the Sierra Nevada. At the higher altitudes it cools and the moisture it carries is
precipitated as rain or snow on the western slopes of the mountains. That which
reaches the Basin is air wrung dry of moisture. What little water falls there as rain or
snow, mostly in the winter months, evaporates on the broad, flat desert floors. It is,
therefore, an environment in which organisms battle for survival. Along the rare
watercourses, cottonwoods and willows eke out a sparse existence. In the upland
ranges, pinion pines and junipers struggle to hold their own.
But the Great Basin has not always been so arid. Many of its dry, closed
depressions were once filled with water. Owens Valley, Panamint Valley, and Death
Valley were once a string of interconnected lakes .The two largest of the ancient lakes
of the Great Basin were Lake Lahontan and Lake Bonneville. The Great Salt Lake is
all that remains of the latter, and Pyramid Lake is one of the last briny remnants of the
former. There seem to have been several periods within the last tens of thousands of
years when water accumulated in these basins. The rise and fall of the lakes were
undoubtedly linked to the advances and retreats of the great ice sheets that covered
much of the northern part of the North American continent during those times.
Climatic changes during the Ice Ages sometimes brought cooler, wetter weather to mid
latitude deserts worldwide, including those of the Great Basin. The broken valleys of
the Great Basin provided ready receptacles for this moisture.
Question 1: What is the geographical relationship between the Basin and Range
Province and the Great Basin?
A. The Great Basin is west of the Basin and Range Province.
B. The Great Basin is larger than the Basin and Range Province
C. The Great Basin is in the northern part of the Basin and Range Province.
D. The Great Basin is mountainous; the Basin and Range Province is flat desert.
Question 2: According to the passage, what does the Great Basin lack?
A. Snow B. Dry air
C. Winds from the west D. Access to the ocean
Question 3: The word "prevailing" is closest in meaning to
A. most frequent B. occasional C. gentle D. most dangerous
Question 4: The word "it" refers to
A. Pacific Ocean B. air C. west D. the Great Basin
Question 5: Why does the author mention cottonwoods and willows?
A. To demonstrate that certain trees require a little of water
B. To give examples of trees that are able to survive in a difficult environment
C. To show the beauty of the landscape of the Great Basin
D. To assert that there are more living organisms in the Great Basin than there used
to be
Question 6: The words "the former" refer to
A. Lake Bonneville B. Lake Lahontan
C. the Great Salt Lake D. Pyramid Lake
Question 7: According to the passage, the Ice Ages often brought about
A. desert formation B. warmer climates C. broken valleys D. wetter weather
READING 36:
Coincident with concerns about the accelerating loss of species and habitats has
been a growing appreciation of the importance of biological diversity, the number
of species in a particular ecosystem, to the health of the Earth and human well-being.
Much has been written about the diversity of terrestrial organisms, particularly the
exceptionally rich life associated with tropical rain-forest habitats. Relatively little has
been said, however, about diversity of life in the sea even though coral reef systems are
comparable to rain forests in terms of richness of life.
An alien exploring Earth would probably give priority to the planet's dominant,
most-distinctive feature ― the ocean. Humans have a bias toward land that sometimes
gets in the way of truly examining global issues. Seen from far away, it is easy to
realize that landmasses occupy only one-third of the Earth's surface. Given that two-
thirds of the Earth's surface is water and that marine life lives at all levels of the ocean,
the total three-dimensional living space of the ocean is perhaps 100 times greater than
that of land and contains more than 90 percent of all life on Earth even though the
ocean has fewer distinct species.
The fact that half of the known species are thought to inhabit the world's rain
forests does not seem uprising, considering the huge numbers of insects that comprise
the bulk of the species. One scientist found many different species of ants in just one
tree from a rain forest. While every species is different from every other species, their
genetic makeup constrains them to be insects and to share similar characteristics with
750,000 species of insects. If basic, broad categories such as phyla and classes are
given more emphasis than differentiating between species, then the greatest diversity of
life is unquestionably the sea. Nearly every major type of plant and animal has some
representation there.
To appreciate fully the diversity and abundance of life in the sea, it helps to think
small. Every spoonful of ocean water contains life, on the order of 100 to 100,000
bacterial cells plus assorted microscopic plants and animals, including larvae of
organisms ranging from sponges and corals to starfish and clams and much more.
Question 1: Why does the author compare rain forests and coral reefs in the first
paragraph?
A. They are approximately the same size. B. They share many similar species.
C. Most of their inhabitants require water. D. Both have many different forms of
life.
Question 2: The word "bias" is closest in meaning to
 A. concern B. disadvantage C. attitude D. prejudice
Question 3: The passage suggests that most rain forest species are
A. insects B. bacteria C. mammals D. birds
Question 4: The word "there" refers to
A. the sea B. the rain forests
C. a tree D. the Earth's surface
Question 5: The author argues that there is more diversity of life in the sea than in the
rain forests because
A. more phyla and classes of life are represented in the sea
B. there are too many insects to make meaningful distinctions
C. many insect species are too small to divide into categories
D. marine life-forms reproduce at a faster rate
Question 6: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an example of microscopic
sea life?
A. Sponges B. Coral C. Starfish D. Shrimp
Question 7: Which of the following conclusions is supported by the passage?
A. Ocean life is highly adaptive.
B. More attention needs to be paid to preserving ocean species and habitats.
C. Ocean life is primarily composed of plants.
D. The sea is highly resistant to the damage done by pollutants.
Question 8: The word "dominant" is closest in meaning to
A. imperious B. chief C. impotent D. strange

READING 37:
Fifty-five delegates representing all thirteen states except Rhode Island attended
the Constitutional Convention in Philadelphia from May to September 1787. The
delegates had been instructed by the Continental Congress to revise the old Articles of
Confederation, but most believed that a stronger central government was needed. There
were differences, however, about what structure the government should take and how
much influence large states should have.
Virginia was by far the most populous state, with twice as many as people as New
York, four times as many as New Jersey, and ten times as many as Delaware. The
leader of the Virginia delegation, James Madison, had already drawn up a plan for
government, which became known as the Large State Plan. Its essence was that
congressional representation would be based on population. It provided for two or
more national executives. The smaller states feared that under this plan, a few large
states would lord over the rest. New Jersey countered with the Small State Plan. It
provided for equal representation for all states in a national legislature and for a single
national executive. Angry debate, heightened by a stifling heat wave, led to deadlock.
A cooling of tempers seemed to come with lower temperatures. The delegates
hammered out an agreement known as the Great Compromise- actually a bundle of
shrewd compromises. They decided that Congress would consist of two houses. The
larger states were granted representation based on population in the lower house, the
House of Representatives. The smaller states were given equal representation in the
upper house, the Senate, in which each state would have two senators regardless of
population. It was also agreed that there would be a single executive, the president.
This critical compromise broke the logjam, and from then on, success seemed within
reach.
Question 1: What is the main topic of the passage?
A. James Madison’s plan to create a stable structure for the government of the
United States
B. A disagreement at the Constitutional Convention and a subsequent compromise
C. The differences in population and relative power between the original states
D. The most important points of the Small State Plan
Question 2: According to the passage, how many states were represented at the
Constitutional Convention?
A. 12 B. 13 C. 14 D. 15
Question 3: It can be inferred from the passage that the Articles of Confederation
A. were supported by a majority of the delegates at the Convention
B. were revised and presented as the Large State Plan
C. allowed small states to dominate large ones
D. provided for only a weak central government
Question 4: According to the passage, in 1787 which of the following states had
FEWEST people?
A. Virginia B. Delaware C. New York D. New Jersey
Question 5: The phrase “this plan” refers to
A. the Small State Plan
B. a plan suggested by the national legislature
C. the Large State Plan
D. a compromise plan
Question 6: The word “shrewd” is closest in meaning to
A. practical B. unfair C. important D. clever
Question 7: Which of the following is NOT given in the passage as one of the
provisions of the Great Compromise?
A. There would be only one national executive.
B. The President would be elected by popular vote.
C. Each state would have two senators.
D. Congress would be divided into two bodies.

READING 38:
The biologist's role in society as well as his moral and ethical responsibility in the
discovery and development of new ideas has led to a reassessment of his social and
scientific value systems. A scientist can no longer ignore the consequences of his
discoveries; he is as concerned with the possible misuses of his findings as he is with
the basic research in which he is involved. This emerging social and political role of
the biologist and all other scientists requires a weighing of values that cannot be done
with the accuracy or the objectivity of a laboratory balance. As a member of society, it
is necessary for a biologist now to redefine his social obligations and his functions,
particularly in the realm of making judgments about such ethical problems as man's
control of his environment or his manipulation of genes to direct further evolutionary
development.
As a result of recent discoveries concerning hereditary mechanisms, genetic
engineering, by which human traits are made to order, may soon be a reality. As
desirable as it may seem to be, such an accomplishment would entail many value
judgments. Who would decide, for example, which traits should be selected for
change? In cases of genetic deficiencies and disease, the desirability of the change is
obvious, but the possibilities for social misuse are so numerous that they may far
outweigh the benefits.
 Probably the greatest biological problem of the future, as it is of the present, will
be to find ways to curb environmental pollution without interfering with man's constant
effort to improve the quality of his life. Many scientists believe that underlying the
spectra of pollution is the problem of surplus human population. A rise in population
necessitates an increase in the operations of modern industry, the waste products of
which increase the pollution of air, water, and soil. The question of how many people
the resources of the Earth can support is one of critical importance.
Although the solutions to these and many other problems are yet to be found, they
do indicate the need for biologists to work with social scientists and other members of
society in order to determine the requirements necessary for maintaining a healthy and
productive planet. For although many of man's present and future problems may seem
to be essentially social, political, or economic in nature, they have biological
ramifications that could affect the very existence of life itself.
Question 1: According to the passage, a modern scientist should be more concerned
about .
A. the consequences of his discoveries B. his basic research
C. his manipulation of genes D. the development of new ideas
Question 2: The pronoun "it" in paragraph 2 refers to _.
A. genetic engineering B. an accomplishment C. hereditary
mechanism D. a reality
Question 3: It is implied in the passage that genetic engineering .
A. will change all human traits B. is no longer desirable
C. is the most desirable for life D. may do us more harm than good
Question 4: The pronoun "they" in paragraph 2 refers to _.
A. possibilities for genetic deficiencies
B. cases of genetic deficiencies
C. discoveries concerning hereditary mechanisms
D. effects of genetic engineering misuse
Question 5: The word "which" in paragraph 3 refers to .
A. the waste products dumped into our environment
B. serious environmental pollution
C. activities of surplus human population
D. activities of an overpopulated society's industry
Question 6: According to the passage, to save our planet, biologists should work
A. with other social scientists B. accurately and objectively
C. on social and political purposes D. harder and harder
Question 7: Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word "ramifications"
in paragraph 4?
A. effective techniques B. latest developments
C. harmful consequences D. useful experiments
Question 8: What is the author's purpose in this passage?
A. To urge biologists to solve the problem of surplus human population
B. To conduct a survey of the biologist's role in society
C. To advise biologists to carry out extensive research into genetic engineering
D. To emphasize the biologist's role in solving the world's problems

READING 39:
George Washington Carver showed that plant life was more than just food for
animals and humans. Carver’s first step was to analyze plant parts to find out what
they were made of. He then combined these simpler isolated substances with other
substances to create new products.
The branch of chemistry that studies and finds ways to use raw materials from
farm products to make industrial products is called chemurgy. Carver was one of the
first and greatest chemurgists of all time. Today the science of chemurgy is better
known as the science of synthetics. Each day people depend on and use synthetic
materials made from raw materials. All his life Carver battled against the disposal of
waste materials and warned of the growing need to develop substitutes for the natural
substances being used up by humans.
Carver never cared about getting credit for the new products he created. He
never tried to patent his discoveries or get wealthy from them. He turned down many
offers to leave Tuskegee Institute to become a rich scientist in private industry. Thomas
Edison, inventor of the electric light, offered him a laboratory in Detroit to carry out
food research. When the United States government made him a collaborator in the
Mycology and Plant Disease Survey of the Department of Agriculture, he accepted the
position with the understanding that he wouldn’t have to leave Tuskegee. As an
authority on plant diseases – especially of the fungus variety – Carver sent hundreds of
specimens to the United States Department of Agriculture. At the peak of his career,
Carver’s fame and influence were known on every continent.
Question 1: With what topic is the passage mainly concerned?
A. The work and career of George Washington Carver.
B. The research conducted at Tuskegee Institute
C. The progress of the science of synthetics.
D. The use of plants as a source of nutrition
Question 2: The word “step” in paragraph 1 could best be replaced with
A. footprint B. action C. scale D. stair
Question 3: According to the passage, chemurgical can be defined as the
A. combination of chemistry and metallurgy
B. research on chemistry of the soil
C. study of the relationship between sunlight and energy
D. development of industrial products from farm products
Question 4: The phrase “getting credit” in paragraph 3 can be best replaced with
A. taking responsibility B. earning money
C. winning praise D. advertising
Question 5: Why does the author mention Thomas Edison’s offer to Carver?
A. To illustrate one of Carver’s many opportunities
B. To portray the wealth of one of Carver’s competitors
C. To contrast Edison’s contribution with that of Carver
D. To describe Carver’s dependence on industrial support
Question 6: Which of the following is NOT discussed in the passage as work done by
Carver?
A. Research on electricity B. Analysis of plant parts
C. Invention of new products D. Research on plant diseases
Question 7: One of Carver’s main concerns is most similar to which of the following
present-day causes?
A. Preventive medicine B. Recycling of used materials
C. Preservation of old buildings D. Prevention of cruelty of animals.
READING 40:
Atomic were once thought to be fundamental pieces of matter, but they are in turn
made of smaller subatomic particles. There are three major subatomic particles
neutrons, protons, and electronic. Protons and neutrons can be broken into even smaller
units, but these smaller units do not occur naturally in nature and are thought to only be
produced in manmade particle accelerators and perhaps in extreme stellar events like
supernovas. The structure of an atom can best be described as a small solar system,
with the neutrons at the center and the electrons circling them in various orbits, just as
the planets circle the sun .In reality, the structure of an atom is far more complex,
because the laws of physics are fundamentally different at the atomic level than of the
level of the observable word. The true nature of atomic structure can only be expressed
accurately through complex mathematical formulas .This explanation, however, is of
little use to most average people.
Protons and neutrons have nearly equal mass and size, but protons carry a
positive electrical charge, while neutrons carry no charge at all. Protons and neutrons
are bound together by the strong nuclear force, one of the four basic forces in the
universe. Protons and neutrons give atoms some of their most basic properties.
Elements are defined by two numbers; their atomic number , which is equal to the
number of protons they have, and their atomic weight , which is equal to total number
of their neutrons and protons. In most lighter atoms , the number of neutrons and
protons is equal , and the element is stable. In heavier atoms, however, there are more
neutrons than protons , and the element is unstable, eventually losing neutrons through
radioactive decay until a neutral state is reached.
Electrons are negatively charged particles. They are bound to their atoms through
electromagnetic attraction. Opposite electrical charges attract one another, so the
positive charge of the proton helps keep the negatively charged electron in orbit around
the nucleus of the atom. Electrons are different from neutrons in that they cannot be
broken down into smaller particles. They are also far smaller and lighter than neutrons
and protons. An electron is about one thousandth of the diameter of a proton and an
even smaller fraction of its mass. Electrons circle the protons and neutrons at the center
of the atom in orbit. These orbits are often called electron shells. The closer the orbit is
to the center of the atom, the lower its energy is. There are seven electron shells, and
each higher level can hold more electron than the previous shell. Electrons naturally
seek to occupy the lowest shell possible .So if there is space in a lower shell, an
electron will drop down to occupy that space. At temperatures higher than a few
hundred degrees, electrons will gain energy and move to a higher shell, but only
momentarily. When the electrons drop back down to their natural shell, they emit light
.This is why fires and other very hot objects seem to glow.
Electrons are also primarily responsible for many of the chemical properties of
atoms. Since electrons seek to occupy the lowest electron shell possible, they will
move from one atom to another if there is a space available in a lower electron shell.
For example, if there is an atom with an open space in its third shell, and it comes into
contact with an atom with electrons in its fourth shell, the first atom will take one of
these electrons to complete its third shell. When this happens, the two atoms will be
chemically bonded to form a molecule. Furthermore, atoms sometimes lose electrons
in collisions with other atoms. When it happens, the radio of protons and electrons in
the atom changes, and therefore, the overall electrical charge of the atom changes as
well. These atoms are called isotopes, and they have significantly different chemical
properties from their parent atoms.
Question 1: In paragraph 1, why does the author compare the structure of an atom to a
solar system?
A. To provide an explanation of atomic structure that will be easily understood.
B. To show that the complex mathematical formulas used to explain atomic
structure are inaccurate.
C. To show the influence of atomic structure on the world at the observable level.
D. To contrast the size of atoms with the size of objects at the observable level.
Question 2: According to paragraph 2, an atom’s atomic number is determined by
A. The sum of its protons and electrons.
B. The different in the mass of its neutrons and protons.
C. The strength of the bond between its protons and neutrons
D. The total number of protons it has.
Question 3: The word stable in paragraph 2 is closet in meaning to
A. Neutral B. Unchanging C. Heavy D. Equal
Question 4: According to the information in paragraph 2, what will happen if an atom
has more neutrons than protons?
A. It will not have enough of a positive electrical charge to keep its electrons in
orbit.
B. Its nucleus will explode in a supernova.
 C. It will slowly give off neutrons until the atom becomes stable.
D. Its extra neutrons will be converted into light energy.
Question 5: The phrase one another in paragraph 3 refers to
A. Particles B. Electrical charges C. Electrons D. Atoms
Question 6: According to paragraph 3, when does an atom produce light?
A. When it has more electrons than its electron shells can hold
B. When an electron drops back to its original electron shell
C. When an electron is transferred from one atom to another
D. When energy is added to the outermost electron shell
Question 7: According to the passage, all of the following are true of electrons
EXCEPT
A. Their energy levels are fixed and unchanging.
B. They are kept in orbit by electromagnetic attraction
C. They are elementary particles and cannot be broken down
D. They are considerably smaller than neutrons or protons
Question 8: According to paragraph 4, which property of electrons is responsible for
chemical bonding?
A. Their ability to break free of their atom during a collision
B. Their electromagnetic attraction to protons
C. The fact that they cannot be broken into smaller particles
D. Their tendency to occupy the lowest possible electron shell

KEY
READING 1:
Question 1. B
Bài đọc chủ yếu thảo luận về vần đề gì?
A. Lý do của tên hải sâm B. Điều gì làm cho hải sâm trở nên đặc
biệt
C. Cách để xác định/ nhận diện hải sâm D. Những nơi hải sâm có thể được tìm
thấy
Question 2. A
từ “ bizarre” gần nghĩa nhất với...
odd: kỳ lạ
marine: thuộc về đại dương
simple: đơn giản
rare: hiếm hoi/ khan hiếm
bizzarre = odd: kỳ quái
Question 3. B
Theo bài đọc, tại sao hình dạng của hải sâm rất quan trọng?
A. Nó giúp chúng tiêu hóa thức ăn
B. Nó giúp chúng bảo vệ khỏi nguy hiểm
C. Nó giúp chúng dễ dàng di chuyển trong bùn hơn.
D. Nó giúp chúng thu hút/ hấp dẫn những con cá.
Dẫn chứng: Usually the creatures are cucumber – shaped – hence their name – and
because they are typically rock inhabitants, this shape, combined with flexibility,
enables them to squeeze into crevices where they are safe from predators and ocean
currents.
Question 4. D
Từ “ this faculty” ám chỉ đến khả năng của hải sâm ...
A. chui vào đường nứt
B. tiêu thụ tất cả những thức ăn có sẵn trong thời gian ngắn
C. hút bùn hay cát
D. sống ở mật độ trao đổi chất thấp
Dẫn chứng: Although they have voracious appetites, eating day and night, sea
cucumbers have the capacity to become quiescent and live at a low metabolic rate-
feeding sparingly or not at all for long periods so that the marine organisms that
provide their food have a chance to multiply. If it were not for this faculty, they
would devour all the food available in a short time and would probably starve
themselves out of existence.
[ Mặc dù chúng là loài ăn tạp, ăn cả ngày và đêm, hải sâm có khả năng trở nên yên
lặng và ở vùng mật độ thức ăn thấp hoặc không có tí thức ăn nào suốt khoảng thời
gian dài để mà những động vật ở đáy đại dương là thức ăn của chúng có cơ hội sinh
sôi nảy nở. Nếu nó không có khả năng này, chúng sẽ tiêu thụ hết tất cả những thức
ăn có sẵn trong thời gian ngắn và sẽ chết đói]
Question 5. C
Đoạn văn thứ 4 của bài đọc chủ yếu thảo luận về vấn đề gì?
A. việc tái sản xuất của hải sâm
B. nguồn thức ăn của hải sâm
C. thói quen ăn của hải sâm
D. những mối đe dọa sự tồn tại của hải sâm
Dẫn chứng: Although they have voracious appetites, eating day and night, sea
cucumbers have the capacity to become quiescent and live at a low metabolic rate-
feeding sparingly or not at all for long periods so that the marine organisms that
provide their food have a chance to multiply. If it were not for this faculty, they
would devour all the food available in a short time and would probably starve
themselves out of existence.
Question 6. C
Cụm từ “ cast off” gần nghĩa nhất với...
A. tăng trưởng lại B. chụp lấy, bắt lấy
C. loại bỏ, trừ khử D. làm vũ khí
Dẫn chứng: It also casts off attached structures such as tentacles.
[ Nó cũng loại bỏ những sinh vật kết dính chắng hạn như xúc tua]
=> cast off = get rid of : loại bỏ, loại trừ
Question 7. B
Cái nào sau đây không làm cho hải sâm giải phóng những bộ phận bên trong vào
trong nước?
A. một cái chạm B. thức ăn
C. nước ấm bất thường D. sự ô nhiễm
Dẫn chứng: The sea cucumber will eviscerate and regenerate itself if it is attacked
or even touched; it will do the same if surrounding water temperature is too high or
if the water becomes too polluted.
[ Hải sâm sẽ tự giải phẫu và tái tạo nếu nọ bị tấn công, bị chạm phải, nó sẽ làm điều
tương tự nếu nhiệt độ vùng nước xung quanh quá cao hoặc quá ô nhiễm]
READING 2:
Question 1. A
So với máy tính trí nhớ của con người thì....
A. phức tạp hơn B. giới hạn hơn
C. ít phụ thuộc hơn D. ít bền bỉ hơn
Dẫn chứng: Human memory, formerly believed to be rather inefficient, is really
more sophisticated than that of a computer.
[ Trí nhớ của con người, vốn được cho rằng kém hiệu quả hơn, thật ra phức tạp hơn
bộ nhớ của máy tính]
Question 2. D
Từ “that” ám chỉ đến...
A. máy tính B. tính hiệu quả
C. sự phức tạp D. trí nhớ
Dẫn chứng: Human memory, formerly believed to be rather inefficient, is really
more sophisticated than that of a computer.
Question 3. A
Theo bài đọc, các nhà khoa học đã kết luận rằng...............
A. đầu óc có dung tích bộ nhớ lớn hơn so với trước đây
B. cấu tạo vật lý của bộ nhớ rất rõ ràng
C. những quan điểm khác nhau rất có giá trị
D. bộ nhớ của cong người thì không hiệu quả
Dẫn chứng: Researchers approaching the problem from a variety of points of view
have all concluded that there is a great deal more stored in our minds than has been
generally supposed.
[ Các nhà nghiên cứu đang tiếp cận vấn đề này từ nhiều khía cạnh khác nhau đều
kết luận rằng có một lượng lưu trữ nhiều hơn trong đầu óc của chúng ta so với giả
sử trước đây]
Question 4. B
Penfield đã kích thích những giấc mơ và những sự kiện nhỏ từ quá khứ như thế
nào?
A. bằng phẫu thuật B. bằng kích điện
C. bằng sự lặp đi lặp lại D. bằng chất kích thích
Dẫn chứng: Dr. Wilder Penfield, a Canadian neurosurgeon, proved that by
stimulating their brains electrically, he could elicit the total recall of specific events
in his subjects’ lives. Even dreams and other minor events supposedly forgotten for
many years suddenly emerged in detail.
[ Tiến sĩ Wilder Penfield, một bác sĩ giải phẫu thần kinh người Canada, đã chứng
minh rằng bằng cách kích thích não bộ bằng điện, ông có thể gợi ra toàn bộ những
ký ức về những sự việc cụ thể trong cuộc đời của một đối tượng nào đó. Thậm chí
những giấc mơ và những sự kiện nhỏ nhặt được cho rắng đã bị lãng quên nhiều năm
cũng đột nhiên hiện lên chi tiết.]
Question 5. C
Từ “ elicit” gần nghĩa nhất với...........................
A. chứng minh B. ngăn cản
C. gây ra D. từ chối
Dẫn chứng: Dr. Wilder Penfield, a Canadian neurosurgeon, proved that by
stimulating their brains electrically, he could elicit the total recall of specific events
in his subjects’ lives.
=> elicit = prove: gây ra
Question 6. B
Theo bài đọc thể tích lưu trữ trong não...................
A. có thể hiểu được bằng cách kiểm tra sinh lý
B. được kích thích bởi các hoạt động
C. có sự kết hợp hạn chế của các mối quan hệ
D. không bị ảnh hưởng bởi sự lặp đi lặp lại
Dẫn chứng: One theory is that the fantastic capacity for storage in the brain is the
result of an almost unlimited combination of interconnections between brain cells,
stimulated by patterns of activity. Repeated references to the same information
support recall. Or, to say that another way, improved performance is the result of
strengthening the chemical bonds in the memory.
[ Một lý thuyết cho rằng dung tích của não là kết quả của một sự kết hợp không giới
hạn giữa các tế bào não, được kích thích bởi các hoạt động. Những dữ liệu được lặp
lại của cùng một thông tin hỗ trợ gợi nhớ lại. Hoặc, nói cách khác, trí nhớ được cải
thiện là kết quả của việc tăng cường kết hợp giữa các chất trong bộ nhớ]
Question 7. C
Từ “ bonds” có nghĩa là..................
A. lời hứa B. sự đồng ý/ thỏa thuận
C. sự kết nối D. trách nhiệm
Dẫn chứng: Or, to say that another way, improved performance is the result of
strengthening the chemical bonds in the memory.
=> bonds = connections
Question 8. B
Tất cả những câu sau đây đều đúng về dấu vết của trí nhớ NGOẠI TRỪ...............
A. Nó có thể được tạo nên bởi những thay đổi về cấu trúc của não bộ
B. Nó có thể quan sát được
C. Nó là một kiến trúc lý thuyết
D. Nó liên quan đến mức độ gợi nhớ
Dẫn chứng: The memory trace is the term for whatever is the internal representation
of the specific information about the event stored in the memory. Assumed to have
been made by structural changes in the brain, the memory trace is not subject to
direct observation but is rather a theoretical construct that we use to speculate about
how information presented at a particular time can cause performance at a later
time. Most theories include the strength of the memory trace as a variable in the
degree of learning, retention, and retrieval possible for a memory.
[ Dấu vết của bộ nhớ là thuật ngữ dành cho bất cứ thứ gì là sự đại diện bên trong
của thông tin chi tiết về những sự kiện được lưu trữ trong trí nhớ. Được cho rằng
được tạo nên bởi những thay đổi trong cấu trúc của não bộ, dấu vết bộ nhớ không
phải là một vật thể để định hướng quan sát nhưng hơn cả một cấu trúc lý thuyết cái
mà chúng ta dùng để suy nghĩ về cách thông tin được trình bày như thế nào ở một
khoảng thời gian cụ thể có thể làm tái hiện lại sau đó.]

READING 3:
Question 1. C
Tại sao tác giả đề cập đến sóng thần trong bào đọc?
A. Để giải thích rằng không phải tất cả thủy triều được gây ra bởi trọng lực.
B. Để đưa ra ví dụ về hiện tượng thủy triều khắc nghiệt.
C. Để cho thấy rằng chúng không liên quan đến thủy triều tự nhiên.
D. Để đề nghị rằng nhiều loại thủy triều trong khu vực cần có.
Dẫn chứng: It is important to distinguish natural tidal phenomena from huge
tsunamis , with the latter being caused by earthquakes and undersea volcanic
eruptions.
[ Rất quan trọng để phân biệt giữa hiện tượng thủy triều bình thường và những đợt
sống thần lớn, với sóng thần do động đất và sự phun trào núi lửa dưới biển.]
=>Chọn C
Question 2. B
Từ “exerts” ở đoạn 2 gần nghĩa nhất với
A. trộn lẫn với B. đưa vào sử dụng
C. suy ra từ D. liên quan đến
The Moon is a main factor controlling ordinary tides. At the location on the Earth
closest to the Moon, it exerts a powerful gravitational pull on the water.
[ Mặt trăng là nhân tố chính gây ra thủy triều bình thường. Tại vị trí trên trái đất gần
Mặt trăng nhất, nó sử dụng trọng lực mạnh mẽ đẩy nước.]
=>exert = bring into use: sử dụng => Chọn B
Question 3. C
Có thể suy ra gì về Canada’s Bay of Fundy?
A. Nó có thể trải qua sóng thần do thủy triều cực đại.
B. Nó có thể có chu ký thủy triều dài hơn do sự đa dạng.
C. Nó có thể rất hẹp vì có nhiều thủy triều khác nhau biên độ lớn.
D. Nó có thể bị ảnh hưởng nhiều hơn bởi trọng lực so với những nơi khác.
Dẫn chứng: The difference in height between the high water and low water is called
the range of tide, and it can be quite dramatic in narrower bays .Canada’s bays of
Fundy , for example , commonly experiences the world’s most extreme tidal ranges
, with daily differences of the 16 meters.
[ Sự khác nhau về độ cao giữa nước cao và nước thấp được gọi là biên độ thủy triều,
và nó khá là kịch tính ở những vịnh hẹp hơn. Canada’s bays of Fundy , ví dụ, trải
nghiệm phổ biến những vùng thủy triều mạnh nhất thế giới, với sự khác nhau mỗi
ngày 16 mét.]
=>Chọn C
Question 4. A
Từ “imperceptible” ở đoạn văn cuối có thể được thay thế tốt nhất bởi
A. Không nhìn ra được B. Khó giải thích
C. Không chung chung D. Khó nói/ không thể nói được
These changes in the Earth’s shape, although imperceptible to humans, are known
as Earth tides.
=>imperceptible = not noticeable => Chọn A
Question 5. B
Câu nào sau đây đúng về lực hút của mặt trăng?
A. Nó đẩy nước ở phía xa Trái Đất mạnh hơn.
B. Nó mạnh hơn mặt trời gấp hai lần.
C. Nó giảm trọng lực khi mặt trăng và mặt trời thẳng hàng với nhau.
D. Lực của nó mạnh nhất khi được đặt ở 90o so với Trái Đất.
Dẫn chứng: Two other types of tides are influenced by the Sun, which is much
farther away from the Earth and exerts less than half of the Moon’s gravitational
force.
[ Hai dạng còn lại của thủy triều bị ảnh hưởng bởi Mặt Trời, xa Trái Đất hơn và sử
dụng ít hơn phân nửa trọng lực.]
=>Chọn B
Question 6. C
Bên cạnh thủy triều bình thường, đoạn văn đề cập bao nhiêu loại thủy triều nữa
trong bài đọc?
Dẫn chứng: the solar and lunar gravitational forces add up to produce higher spring
tides.
This is called a neap tide, which comes twice a month and has lower high water
marks and higher low water marks.
These changes in the Earth’s shape, although imperceptible to humans, are known
as Earth tides.
Another tidal phenomenon, atmospheric tides, is caused by the Sun’s heating of
the Earth’s atmosphere.
=>Chọn C
Question 7. B
Câu nào sau đây không liên quan đến thủy triều bình thường?
A. Nhận ảnh hưởng lớn nhất từ mặt trăng.
B. Bị ảnh hưởng bởi vị trí của mặt trời liên quan đến mặt trăng.
C. Luân phiên nước thấp hơn và cao hơn liên quan đến sự luân chuyển của Trái Đất.
D. Có phạm vị rung chuyển thủy triều ở những vịnh hẹp hơn.
Dẫn chứng: The Moon is a main factor controlling ordinary tides.
=>Chọn B

READING 4:
Question 1. B
Câu nào sau đây là tiêu đề hay nhất cho bài đọc?
A. Cuộc phiêu lưu của Benchmark đến thuật hàng không.
B. Giai đoạn đầu của đời của Charles Lindbergh
C. Những sự kiện khởi công ở hàng không.
D. Những cuộc thám hiểm của Charles Lindbergh
=>Chọn B
Question 2. A
Theo bài đọc, Lindbergh đã không hoàn thành khóa học bởi vì ông ...
A. Đã chọn cuộc sống của một phi công biểu diễn.
B. Theo đuổi đào tạo trong quân đội
C. Đang tìm kiếm một lối sống ít vận động.
D. bắt đầu được chú ý đến.
Dẫn chứng: in 1921 he was admitted to the University of Wisconsing to study
engineering. However, the young man was seeking more challenging endeavors,
and two years later he became a stunt pilot who performed feats at county fairs and
public assemblies.
=>Chọn A
Question 3. C
Từ “handsomely” gần nghĩa nhất với...
A. Đáng tôn kính B. thuận tiện/ dễ dàng
C. tốt D. đúng giờ
This unusual and dangerous undertaking paid off handsomely in the sense that it
allowed him to gain a diverse and well-rounded experience in aeronautics.
=>handsomely = well => Chọn C
Question 4. D
Từ “undertaking” ám chỉ đến
A. học đại học B. triễn lãm tài năng máy móc
C. tìm kiếm nỗ lự thách thức D. thể hiện các món nghề
However, the young man was seeking more challenging endeavors, and two years
later he became a stunt pilot who performed feats at county fairs and public
assemblies. This unusual and dangerous undertaking
=>undertaking = performing feats => Chọn D
Question 5. A
Tác giải của bài đọc ngụ ý rằng công việc của Lindbergh với tập đoàn hàng không
Robertson...........
A. Yêu câu chuyến bay thường xuyên giữa các thành phố
B. Không được dự định là công việc lâu dài.
C. Yêu câu ông thực hiện những chuyến bay nguy hiểm.
D. Cần thực hiện những chuyến bay đường dài
Dẫn chứng: Robertson Aircraft Corporation of St. Louis, Missouri, offered him
employment as a mail pilot to run the routes between St. Louis and Chicago, and
Lindbergh retained his position with the company until 1927.
=>Chọn A
Question 6. D
Theo bài đọc, Lindbergh bao nhiêu tuổi khi ông thực hiện chuyến bay đầy thử
thách?
Dẫn chứng: Charles Lindbergh was born in Detroit, Michigan, in 1902.. .Lindbergh
retained his position with the company until 1927. During this period, he set out to
win the Raymond B. Orteig prize of $25,000 to be awarded to the first pilot to fly
nonstop from New York to Paris.
=>Chọn D
Question 7. B
Tác giả của bài đọc ngụ ý rằng Lindbergh đã không biết trước việc trở thành ...
A. phi công B. người nổi tiếng
C. người đưa thư D. đội trưởng quân đội
Dẫn chứng: Fearing that he would be unknown when he arrived, Lindbergh carried
letters of introduction to dignitaries in Paris, but when his plane came to a stop, he
was overwhelmed by tremendous welcoming crowds.
=>Chọn B
Question 8. C
Đoạn văn tiếp theo của bài đọc có thể thảo luận về nội dung gì?
A. Sự phát triển của hàng không quân đội và thương mại.
B. Sự phản ứng của chính phủ với chuyến bay của Lindbergh.
C. Ảnh hưởng của sự nổi tiếng liên tục đến Lindbergh.
D. Máy bay của Lindbergh và sự sửa đổi bộ máy
Dẫn chứng: His accomplishments in aeronautics brought him more medals and
awards than had ever been received by any other person in private life.
=>Chọn C

READING 5:
Question 1. D
Bài đọc phía trước có thể thảo luận về.............
A. kiến trúc của nền văn minh cổ đại châu Á.
B. những phong tục tôn giáo của người Ăngkor
C. việc hình thành chính phủ được thực hiện bởi triều đại Khơ-me.
D. 6 kỳ quan khác của thế giới.
Dẫn chứng: The ruined temples of Angkor are perhaps one of the most impressive
Seven Wonders of the World.
=>Chọn D
Question 2. C
Theo bài đọc, hồ Tôn Lê Sáp ở Cam-pu-chia......................
A. Không thể cung ứng cá cho người Angkor
B. Là một trong 7 kỳ quan thế giới
C. Là một phần lớn của nước sạch ở châu Á.
D. Trở nên ô nhiễm do bùng nổ dân số.
Dẫn chứng: Located in modern day Cambodia near Lake Tonle Sap, the largest
freshwater lake in Asia, Angkor was the seat of power for the Khmer Empire for
the ninth to the fifteenth century.
=>Chọn C
Question 3. C
Từ “seat” ở đoạn văn 1 gần nghĩa nhất với...................
Battle: trận chiến
Summit: đỉnh núi
Location: vị trí địa lý
Chief: chính/ chủ yếu
Dẫn chứng: Located in modern day Cambodia near Lake Tonle Sap, the largest
freshwater lake in Asia, Angkor was the seat of power for the Khmer Empire for
the ninth to the fifteenth century. [ Được đặt ở thời Cam-pu-chia hiện đại gần hồ
Tôn Lê Sáp, vùng nướ sạch lớn nhất châu Á, Angkor là vị trí sức mạnh của triều đại
Khơ-me khoảng thế kỷ 9 đến 15.]
=>Chọn C
Question 4. D
Hệ thống thủy lực của các bể chứa............
A. cung cấp cho việc tưới tiêu từ Ấn Độ Dương.
B. đã giúp vận chuyển những tảng đá cát để xây dựng đền.
C. bị phá hủy bởi các bộ tộc của quân nhân gần đó.
D. trở nên vô dụng do sử dụng quá mức.
Dẫn chứng: After centuries of continual use, the irrigation system was pushed
beyond its capacity.
=>Chọn D
Question 5. A
Từ “artificial” để đoạn văn 2 gần nghĩa nhất với..............
Man-made: nhân tạo
Numerous: nhiều
Natural: tự nhiên/ thuộc về thiên nhiên
Insincere: không chân thành
=>artificial = man-made: nhân tạo
=>Chọn A
Question 6. A
Từ “they” ở đoạn 2 ám chỉ đến.............
A. những bể chứa nước và kênh đào
B. những ngôi đền và dinh thự
C. những cánh đồng
D. nông trại
Dẫn chứng: The temples and palaces of Angkor were constructed around a series of
artificial reservoirs and canals which were annually flooded to capacity by the
Mekong River. Once filled, they were used to irrigate the surrounding paddies and
farmland during the course of the year.
=>Chọn A
Question 7. B
Tất cả những ý sau được đề cập như những sự kiện có thể ảnh hưởng đến lương
thực ngoại trừ...........
A. cắt giảm chất dinh dưỡng
B. sự ô nhiễm đất
C. mất nguồn cung cấp nước
D. sự xói mòn đất
Dẫn chứng: Soil erosion, nutrient depletion, and loss of water led to decrease in the
food supply.
=>Chọn B

READING 6:
Question 1. D
Cụm từ “ this source” trong bài đọc ám chỉ đến.........................
Sun: mặt trời
Wind: gió
Rivers: sông
Oceans: đại dương
Dẫn chứng: The oceans, too, represent an impressive source of potential energy. For
example, it has been estimated that the oceans could provide nearly 3,000 times the
energy generated by hydroelectric dams such as the Hoover Dam. Yet, this source
remains quite difficult to exploit.
=>Chọn D
Question 2. A
Từ “ exploit” trong bài đọc gần nghĩa nhất với........................
Utilize: sử dụng
Declare: tuyên bố
Contain: chứa
Determine: xác nhận
=>exploit [ khai thác] = Utilize
=>Chọn A
Question 3. C
Tại sao tác giả đề cập đến Đập nước Hoover ở đoạn 1?
A. Để đưa ra ví dụ gần đây về công nghệ năng lượng dựa trên đại dương.
B. Để giải thích rằng những đập nước là nguồn sản xuất năng năng lượng bền bỉ và
hiệu quả.
C. Để phác họa sự so sánh giữa hai nguồn năng lượng có thể tái tạo.
D. Đề cho thấy rằng những nguồn năng lượng thay thế không thành công.
Dẫn chứng: For example, it has been estimated that the oceans could provide nearly
3,000 times the energy generated by hydroelectric dams such as the Hoover Dam.
=>Chọn C
Question 4. D
Theo đoạn 3, câu nào sau đây đúng về công nghệ năng lượng sóng?
A. Nhiều trong số chúng dùng vật thể ngập nước để lấy được năng lượng sóng.
B. Không khí bị nén phải tồn tại cho chúng hoạt động hiệu quả.
C. Chúng thực hiện 3 bước để thu thập năng lượng sóng.
D. Chúng dựa vào sự chuyển động của nước để tạo ra điện.
Dẫn chứng: All of them work because the movement of the water that the waves
induce creates storable energy by directly or indirectly driving a power generator.
=>Chọn D
Question 5. C
Theo đoạn 5, những dây cáp đóng vai trò là bộ phận nào trong thiết kế của
OSPREY’s?
A. Chúng đính kèm với buồng chìm một phần với đáy đại dương.
B. Chúng phát ra điện cái mà được thu thập lại trong tua bin.
C. Chúng dẫn điện từ máy phát điện đến bờ biển.
D. Chúng cung cấp sự ổn định trong suốt những cơn bão đại dương lớn.
Dẫn chứng: The electricity was then transmitted to power collectors in the shore via
underwater cables.
=>Chọn C
Question 6. B
Từ “ inhibited” trong bài đọc gần nghĩa nhất với
Inhibite: cản trở
Deliver: chuyển giao [ hàng hóa]
Prevent: ngăn chặn
Protect: bảo vệ
Approve: đồng ý
=>inhibite = prevent
=>Chọn B
Question 7. D
Có thể suy ra gì từ đoạn 7 về chính phủ?
A. Họ không tin những thiết bị năng lượng sóng có thể chịu được sức mạnh của đại
dương.
B. Sự quan tâm của họ thường mâu thuẫn với sự quan tâm của các ngành công
nghiệp năng lượng.
C. Họ yêu cầu nhiều nghiên cứu khoa học trước khi cung cấp nguồn vốn.
D. Sự ủng hộ của họ thưởng rất quan trọng đối với sự thành công của những nỗ lực
mới.
Dẫn chứng: In many cases, a lack of government funding has inhibited the
technologies from advancing.
=>Chọn D
Question 8. D
Tất cả những vấn đề sau đây liên quan đến việc thu gom năng lượng sóng ngoại trừ?
A. Sự khó khăn của việc tìm ra vị trí khả thi.
B. Năng lượng hủy diệt của đại dương
C. Kích thước của thiết bị có liên quan
D. sự thay đổi liên tục của thủy triều
Dẫn chứng: Protecting the equipment from the sea’s destructive forces, as well as
the fundamental task of determining feasible locations for collecting energy source
are substantial and will require more time to overcome.[ câu A+ B]
This presents a problem because the larger the device, the more vulnerable it is to
damage from hazardous ocean environments, and the more likely it is to interfere
with otherwise unspoiled coastal scenery.[ câu C]
=>Chọn D

READING 7:
Question 1. C
Chủ đề chính của bài đọc là gì?
A. Các chính sách quản trị kinh doanh.
B. Đi đi về về làm việc
C. Mở rộng nơi làm việc bằng các phương tiện viễn thông.
D. Viễn thông dành cho các mục đích chăm sóc trẻ em.
=>Chọn C
Question 2. D
Theo bài đọc, cái gì là công cụ quan trọng nhất cho một người làm việc ở nhà thông
qua thiết bị viễn thông?
A. điện thoại
B. camera giám sát
C. điện thoại thông minh
D. máy tính
Dẫn chứng: Telecommuting-substituting the computer for the trip to the job-has
been hailed as a solution to all kinds of problems related to office work.
=>Chọn D
Question 3. A
Từ “ hailed” ở đoạn 1 gần nghĩa nhất với....
Welcomed: chào đón
Communicated: giao tiếp
Considerated: cân nhắc, xem xét
Arranged: sắp xếp
Telecommuting-substituting the computer for the trip to the job-has been hailed as
a solution to all kinds of problems related to office work.
[ Làm việc ở nhà thông qua các thiết bị viễn thông với máy tính thay thế cho việc đi
lại đến nơi làm việc, đã được đón nhận như là một giải pháp đối với tất cả các loại
vấn đề liên quan đến làm việc trong văn phòng.]
=>hailed = welcomed
=>Chọn A
Question 4. B
Câu nào sau đây không được đề cập như vấn đề của các nhân viên văn phòng?
A. Bị giới hạn trong văn phòng.
B. Gánh chịu chi phí cho bữa ăn trưa và ăn mặc.
C. Chăm sóc trẻ ốm.
D. Lái xe lúc giao thông ùn tắc.
Dẫn chứng: local governments are encouraging companies to start telecommuting
programs in order to reduce rush-hour congestion => loại D
An accountant stays home to care for child; she hooks up her telephone modem
connections and does office work between calls to the doctor. => loại C
=>Chọn B
Question 5. D
Câu nào sau đây không được đề cập như là một vấn đề của nhân viên cái mà có thể
được giải quyết bằng cách làm việc ở nhà thông qua các thiết bị viễn thông?
A. Trễ giờ làm của nhân viên
B. Nghỉ làm / vắng mặt/ nghỉ phép
C. Cần thời gian để làm việc chuyên sâu 1 mình
D. Mâu thuẫn của nhân viên với công việc thứ hai.
Dẫn chứng: telecommuting helps keep high performers on board, minimizes
tardiness and absenteeism by eliminating commutes, allows periods of solitude for
high-concentration tasks, and provides scheduling flexibility.
=>Chọn D
Question 6. A
Câu nào sau đây tác giả đề cập như là 1 bất lợi của làm việc tại nhà thồn qua viễn
thông?
A. Trẻ nhỏ không hiểu ranh giới giữa chơi và làm việc.
B. Công nghệ máy tính không được cải tiến để đáp ứng nhu cầu cho mọi tình
huống.
C. Những trục trặc về điện tử có thể làm hỏng 1 dự án.
D. Công nhân thường không có tất cả những nguồn cần thiết khi ở nhà.
Dẫn chứng: Before a certain age, young children cannot recognize, much less
respect, the necessary boundaries between work and family.
=>Chọn A
Question 7. B
Câu nào sau đây là ví dụ của làm việc tịa nhà thông qua máy tính được miêu tả
trong bài đọc?
A. Một nhà khoa học làm việc trong phòng thí nghiệm phát triển các kế hoạch cho
trạm không gian.
B. Một người viết sách về kỹ thuật gửi những tài liệu thông qua máy tính ở nhà.
C. Một thợ sửa chữa máy tính sửa một mạng lưới máy tính văn phòng.
D. Một giáo viên hướng dẫn cách học với sự hỗ trợ của máy tính ở một trường tư.
=>Chọn B

READING 8:
Question 1. D
Nhận thức của hầu hết mọi người về một phát thanh viên dự báo thời tiết là gì?
A. Họ có nhiều bằng cấp khác nhau.
B. họ làm việc vất vả cả ngày ở phòng quay.
C. Họ luôn nói sự thật.
D. Họ làm việc rất ít giờ.
Dẫn chứng: Most of them imagine that the presenter does little more than arrive at
the studio a few minutes before the broadcast, read the weather, and then go home.
=>Chọn D
Question 2. B
Các nhà thiên văn học nhận được thông tin dự báo từ...
A. Phòng quay đài truyền hình
B. Trung tâm dự báo khí tượng trung ương
C. vệ tinh và rada thông tin
D. văn phòng của họ
Dẫn chứng: Every morning after arriving at the TV studios, the first task of the days
is to collect the latest data from the national Meteorological Office.
=>Chọn B
Question 3. C
Cụm từ “up- to – the – minute” ở đoạn 3 gần nghĩa nhất với...
A. rất ngắn gọn/ cô động
B. rất ngắn
C. gần đây nhất/ mới nhất
D. hợp xu hướng thời trang
=>up- to – the – minute = the most recent
=>Chọn C
Question 4. A
Máy tính phải được lập trình cẩn thận ...
A. để mà thiết bị trực quan được vận hành đúng
B. để mà đoạn trích dẫn có thể dễ nhìn thấy với người thuyết trình
C. bởi vì đoạn trích phải được viết trên bảng tin.
D. bởi vì bản đồ điện tử được sử dụng.
Dẫn chứng: The computer has to be programmed so that the pictures appear in the
correct order during the bulletin.
=>Chọn A
Question 5. A
Các phát thanh viên dự báo thời tiết phải biết về tài liệu rất rõ bởi vì...
A. Độ dài của bài viết có thể thay đổi.
B. Bài dự báo có thể được kết hợp thành 1 tin tức dự báo.
C. nội dung của bài viết có thể phải thay đổi.
D. bài dự báo được ghi âm lại.
Dẫn chứng: The time allocated for each broadcast can also alter.
=>Chọn A
Question 6. C
Từ “this” trong đoạn 6 ám chỉ đến cái gì?
A. Nỗi lo lắng của phát thanh viên dự báo thời tiết.
B. Việc đọc bản tin trực tiếp
C. Việc đưa ra bài dự báo không đúng
D. Sự tiên đoán chính xác.
Perhaps the most worrying aspect for every weather forecaster is getting the
following day‟s predictions wrong. Unfortunately for them this is not an unusual
occurrence; the weather is not always possible to predict accurately.
=>Chọn C
Question 7. A
Từ “ mortifying” ở đoạn cuối gần nghĩa nhất với...
Mortifying (adj): lúng túng
embarrassing : lúng túng
enjoyable: được yêu thích
deceitful: giả dối
frightening: đáng sợ
=>Mortifying = embarrassing
=>Chọn A
Question 8. D
Ngày nay các phát thanh viên dự báo thời tiết phải....
A. tiến hành thí nghiệm để xác định lượng phấn hoa
B. đơn giản chỉ vào bản đồ và mô tả điều kiện thời tiết
C. làm việc với các chuyên gia
D. có khả năng chịu được áp lực
Dẫn chứng: It‟s a job for professionals who can cope with stressful and demanding
conditions.
=>Chọn D

READING 9:
Question 1. C
Chủ đề chính của bài đọc là gì?
A. Cọp/ Hổ Bengal
B. Cuộc tẩy chay toàn cầu
C. những loại động vật bị đe dọa
D. những vấn đề với nền công nghiệp hóa
=>Chọn C
Question 2. B
Từ nào sau đây thay thế tốt nhất cho từ “case” được sử dụng ở đoạn 2.
Act: phản ứng
Situation: tình huống
Contrast: sự tương phản
Trade: thương mại
What is alarming about the case of the Bengal tiger is
[ Cái đang gây báo động về trường hợp của loài hổ Belgan là...]
=>case = situation
=>Chọn B
Question 3. A
Từ “ poachers” được sử dụng ở đoạn 2 có thể được thay thế tốt nhất bởi từ nào sau
đây?
A. thợ săn trái phép
B. các nhà nghiên cứu kinh doanh
C. các nhà khoa học quan tâm về vấn đề này
D. những thợ săn được đào tạo
poacher: thợ săn trái phép
=>poachers = Illegal hunters
=>Chọn A
Question 4. C
Từ “this” ở đoạn 2 ám chỉ đến cái gì trong bài đọc?
A. những con hổ Bengal
B. sự quan tâm đến việc lấy được nguyên liệu
C. việc giết những con vật vì thú vui cá nhân.
D. sự giảm về số lượng hổ Bengal
What is alarming about the case of the Bengal tiger is that this extinction will have
been caused almost entirely by poachers who, according to some sources, are not
always interested in material gain but in personal gratification. This is an example
of the callousness that is contributing to the problem of extinction.
[Điều gây ra cảnh báo về trường hợp của loài hổ Bengal là sự tuyệt chủng này sẽ bị
gây ra gần như hoàn toàn bởi bọn thợ săn bất hợp pháp, người mà theo như một số
nguồn, không phải lúc nào cũng quan tâm đến việc lấy được vật liệu mà chỉ vì thú
vui cá nhân. Đây là một ví dụ của sự chết dần chết mòn cái mà góp phần vào vấn đề
tuyệt chủng.]
=>Chọn C
Question 5. A
Từ nào sau đây có thể thay thế từ “ allocate” ở đoạn 3 tốt nhất?
Set aside: để phần/ để dành/ dành phần
Combined: kết hợp
Organized: tổ chức
Taken off: cởi [ quần áo, trang phục], cất cánh [ máy bay]
Some countries, in an effort to circumvent the problem, have allocated large
amounts of land to animal reserves.
[ Một số nước, đang nỗ lực tìm cách giải quyết vấn đề này, đã phân bổ vùng đất
rộng lớn cho các khu bảo tồn động vật.]
=>Chọn A
Question 6. B
Thuật ngữ “ tẩy chay toàn cầu” ở đoạn 3 ám chỉ đến cái gì?
A. Việc mua bán những sản phẩm làm từ động vật ra nước ngoài.
B. Việc từ chối mua các sản phẩm làm từ động vật trên toàn cầu.
C. Việc tăng sự sống sót của động vật trên toàn cầu.
D. Việc chi trả chi phí cho việc bảo trì các công việc quốc gia.
Another response to the increase in animal extinction is an international boycott of
products made from endangered species.
[ Một phản hồi khác về sự tăng tình trạng tuyệt chủng của động vật là cuộc tẩy chay
toàn cầu những sản phẩm được làm từ các loài động vật đang bị đe dọa.]
=>Chọn B
Question 7. B
Ý nào miêu tả đúng nhất thái độ của tác giả?
Forgiving: tha thứ
Concerned: quan tâm
Vindictive: thù hằn
Surprised: ngạc nhiên
=>Chọn B

READING 10:
Question 1. B
Chủ đề của bài đọc trước đó có thể là
A. thời thơ ấu của Halley
B. công việc như một nhà thiên văn học của Halley
C. nhiều sở thích khác nhau của Halley
D. sự phát minh chuông lặn
Dẫn chứng: Though Edmund Halley was most famous because of his achievements
as an astronomer, he was a scientist of diverse interests and great skill.
=>Chọn B
Question 2. C
Câu nào sau đây thể hiện đúng nhất chủ đề của bài đọc?
A. Công việc của Halley như là một nhà thiên văn học.
B. Nhiều sở thích khác nhau của Hally
C. Phát minh thiết bị lặn kỳ lạ
D. Kinh nghiệm của Halley như là 1 thợ lặn
Dẫn chứng: One of his lesser-known accomplishments that was quite remarkable
was his design for a diving bell that facilitated exploration of the watery depths.
=>Chọn C
Question 3. B
Quả chuông của Halley tốt hơn so với những cái chuông trước đó bởi vì nó
A. To hơn
B. Cung cấp nhiều không khí hơn
C. Trọng lượng nhẹ hơn
D. Có thể nâng lên nhanh chóng
Dẫn chứng: Halley's bell was an improvement in that its design allowed for an
additional supply of fresh air that enabled a crew of divers to remain underwater for
several hours.
=>Chọn B
Question 4. D
Cụm từ “ran low” ở đoạn 2 gần nghĩa nhất với
A. Di chuyển chậm chạp
B. Đã được làm đầy lại
C. Chìm đến đáy
D. Gần như cạn kiệt
....divers had to surface when the air inside the bell ran low. [ Thợ lặn phải trở lại
mặt nước khin không khí bên trong sắp cạn kiệt.]
=>Chọn D
Question 5. C
Những thợ lặn có thể ở dưới nước bao lâu trong cái chuông của Halley?
A. một vài giây
B. một vài phút
C. khoảng vài giờ một lần
D. khoảng vài ngày
Dẫn chứng: Halley's bell was an improvement in that its design allowed for an
additional supply of fresh air that enabled a crew of divers to remain underwater for
several hours.
=>Chọn C
Question 6. C
Câu nào không được trình bày trong bài đọc về quả chuông của Halley?
A. lớn hơn ở đáy so với ở đỉnh
B. được làm từ gỗ có quét dầu hắc
C. hoàn toàn khép kín
D. có thể chứa nhiều hơn 1 thợ lặn
Dẫn chứng: The diving contraption that Halley designed was in the shape of a bell
that measured three feet across the top and five feet across the bottom and could
hold several divers comfortably; it was open at the bottom so that divers could swim
in and out at will. The bell was built of wood, which was first heavily tarred to
make it water repellent and was then covered with a half-ton sheet of lead to make
the bell heavy enough to sink in water.
=>Chọn C
Question 7. B
Từ “its” ở đoạn 4 ám chỉ đến
A. sự cải thiện
B. chuông của Halley
C. nguồn không khí
D. thùng dẫn
The air inside the bell was not the only source of air for the divers to breathe, and it
was this improvement that made Halley's bell superior to its predecessors.
[ Không khí bên trong không phải là nguồn không khí duy nhất cho các thợ lặn để
thở mà nó là sự cải thiện đã làm quả chuông của Halley vượt trội hơn so với những
cái trước của nó.]
=>Chọn B
Question 8. C
Bài đọc này sẽ gần như được nằm trong bài đọc về
A. thiên văn học
B. sự giải trí
C. hải dương học
D. sinh lý học
=>Chọn C

READING 11:
Qution 1. D
Bài đọc này chủ yếu nói về..........
A. những du khách đến công trình núi Rushmore.
B. những khuôn mặt ở công trình núi Rushmore.
C. nhà điêu khắc công trình núi Rushmore.
D. sự sáng tạo của công trình núi Rushmore.
=>Chọn D
Question 2. A
Theo bài đọc, con trai của Borglium ......................
A. đã qua đời
B. đã từng là tổng thống
C. đã làm công việc bảo trì
D. đã tiêu một triệu đô la
Dẫn chứng: P1 [ Every year about two million people visit Mount Rushmore, were
the faces of four U.S presidents were carved in granite by sculptor Gulzon Borglum
and his son, the late Lincoln Borglum.]
=>Chọn A
Question 3. C
Từ “which” ở đoạn 1 ám chỉ đến........................
Granite: đá granit
These man: những con người này
Chairs: những cái ghế
Features: đặc điểm
Dẫn chứng: P1 [ He taught these men to dynamite, drill, carve, and finish the
granite as they were hanging in midair in his specially devised chairs, which had
many safety features.]
=>Chọn C
Question 4. D
Những người đàn ông mà Borglum đã tuyển dụng thì.............
A. là những thợ điêu khắc đã qua đào tạo
B. là những thợ điêu khắc đá đã bị sa thải
C. những tình nguyện viên ở Black Hill
D. những thợ mỏ thất nghiệp
Dẫn chứng: Borglum đã tuyển dụng những công nhân bị sa thải từ các mỏ đã đóng
cửa ở khu vực đồi Black Hills.
=> Chọn D
Question 5. A
Có thể suy ra từ bài đọc rằng...................
A. những cái đầu không theo dự định ban đầu
B. những công nhân đã mắc sai lầm khi phá đá
C. những vết nứt đã gây ra tổn thương nghiêm trọng
D. những thiết kế có những vết nứt lớn bên trong chúng
Dẫn chứng: During the carving, many changes in original design had to be made to
keep the carved heads free of large fissures that were uncovered.
=> Chọn A
Question 6. C
Hỗn hợp của Borglum để che lấp những vết nứt thì...............
A. rất tốn kém
B. được mua ở những mỏ Black Hills
C. được phát minh
D. không thể phục hồi trong quá trình chạm khắc
Dẫn chứng: However, not all the cracks could be avoided, so Borglum concocted a
mixture of granite dust, white lead, and linseed oil to fill them.
=> Chọn C
Question 7. D
Ngày nay, núi Rushmore cần được...............
A. bảo vệ khỏi ô nhiễm không khí
B. đánh bóng cho các du khách
C. lưu trữ suốt mùa đông
D. được sửa chữa định kỳ
Dẫn chứng: every autumn maintanance work is done to refill the racks.
=> Chọn D

READING 12:
Question 1. B
Mục đích chính của bài đọc là để..................
A. so sánh những tòa nhà chọc trời với những công trình kiến trúc hiện đại khác.
B. Miêu tả những tòa nhà chọc trời và ảnh hưởng của nó đến môi trường
C. biện hộ cho việc sử dụng nề trong việc xây dựng những tòa nhà chọc trời.
D. minh họa một số thiết kế kiến trúc của những tòa nhà chọc trời.
=>Chọn B
Question 2. C
Theo bài đọc, thái độ của nhiều người ở Bắc Mỹ đối với những tòa nhà chọc trời có
thể được mô tả tốt nhất như là
Unemotional: không cô xúc
Skeptical: hoài nghi
Critical: phên bình, nhận xét
Bitter: cay đắng
Dẫn chứng: In the late 1960’s, many people in North America turned their attention
to environmental problems and new steel – and – glass skycrapers were widely
criticized.
=>Chọn C
Question 3. B
Từ “overburden” ở đoạn 1 gần nghĩa nhất với.................
Overwhelm: áp đảo
Overload: quá tải
Overachieve: làm tốt hơn mong đợi
Overcome: vượt qua
Ecologists pointed out that a cluster of tall buildings in a city often overburdens
public transportation and parking lot capacities.
=>overburden = overload
=>Chọn B
Question 4. A
Theo bài đọc, một trong những bất lợi của những tòa nhà chọc trời với những bức
tường bằng kính?
A. Không khí bao quanh bên ngoài nóng bức.
B. Cửa sổ phải được làm sạch hằng ngày.
C. Thời gian xây dựng tăng lên.
D. Những thiết bị điều hòa không khí rất cần thiết.
Dẫn chứng: mirror – walled skyscapers raise the temperature of the surrounding air
and affect neighboring buildings.
=>Chọn A
Question 5. C
Theo bài đọc, cuối những năm 1960 một số dân cư ở Boston quan tâm đến khía
cạnh nào của những tòa nhà chọc trời?
A. tiếng ồn từ việc xây dựng
B. việc di dời cây ra khỏi địa điểm xây tòa nhà.
C. những ảnh hưởng tiêu cực lên cỏ ở thành phố
D. chi phí cao đối với những tòa nhà văn phòng cho thuê.
Dẫn chứng: In Boston, in the late 1960’s some people even feared that shadows
from skycrapers would kill the grass on Boston Common.
=> Chọn C
Question 6. B
Tác giả đã nêu lên vấn đề cái mà sẽ liên quan nhất đến những nhóm nào sau đây?
Electricians: thợ điện
Environmentalists: nhà môi trường học
Aviators: phi công
Teachers: giáo viên
=>Chọn B
Question 7. A
ở đoạn văn nào tác giả so sánh sự tiêu thụ năng lượng của những tòa nhà chọc trời
với sự tiêu thụ năng lượng của một thành phố.
A. đoạn 2
B. đoạn 3
C. đoạn 4
D. đoạn 5
Dẫn chứng: P2 [ In one recent year, the addition of 17 million square feet of
skyscaper office in New York City raised the peak daily demand for electricity by
120,000 kilowatts – eough to supply the entire city of Albany, New York, for a day.
=>Chọn A
Question 8. D
Theo bài đọc, tất cả những ý sau được đề cập là lý do của việc xây dựng những tòa
nhà chọc trời NGOẠI TRỪ
A. khát vọng mãnh liệt xây những tòa nhà cao tầng của con người.
B. niềm tự hào của mọi người về thị trấn và thành phố của họ.
C. sự tham lam của những chủ sở hữu có nhiều chỗ cho thuê hơn
D. nhu cầu tạo chỗ cư trú cho nhiều người hơn
Dẫn chứng: P6 [ Still, people continue to build skycrapers for all the reasons that
they have always built them – personal ambition, civic pride, and the desire of
owners to have the largest possible amount of rentable space.
=> Chọn D

READING 13:
Question 1. C
Nội dung chính của bài đọc là gì?
A. Cuộc sống của Eagan cho thấy một học sinh giàu có có thể đạt được thành tích
như một học sinh nghèo.
B. Cuộc sống của Eagan cho thấy rằng kinh nghiệm trong quân đội làm cho vận
động viên tuyệt vời hơn.
C. Cuộc sống của Eagan cho thấy một người đàn ông có thể là một vần động viên
và một người học giỏi.
D. Cuộc sống của Eagan cho thấy dễ dàng như thế nào để giành được huy chương
vàng ở các sự kiện thể thao Thế vận hội Châu Á khác nhau.
=> Chọn C
Question 2. B
Theo bài đọc, mẹ của Eagan kiếm sống bằng cách nào?
A. cho những người nhập cư thuê phòng
B. dạy ngoại ngữ
C. giặt ủi và dọn dẹp
D. viết truyện giả tưởng cho các tạp chí phụ nữ.
Dẫn chứng: He and his four brothers were raised by his mother, who earned a small
income from teaching foreign languages.
=> Chọn B
Question 3. B
Theo bài đọc, Frank Merriwell là ai?
A. một giáo viên ở Yale
B. một nhân vật giả tưởng
C. một sinh viên tại Oxford
D. một người lái xe trượt tuyết ở Thế vận hội
Dẫn chứng: Inspired by Frank Merriwell, the hero of a series of popular novels for
boys
=> Chọn B
Question 4. A
Từ “ artillery” [ súng đại bác] gần nghĩa nhất với
A. vũ khí lớn như súng thần công
B. vũ khí nhỏ như súng lục [ súng ngắn]
C. vũ khi vác trên vai như súng trường
D. vũ khi kéo căng dây như nỏ
Dẫn chứng: Army as an artillery lieutenant during World War I.
=> Chọn A
Question 5. D
Theo bài đọc, Eagan đã chiến thắng tất cả những giải này NGOẠI TRỪ
A. huy chương vàng Olympic quyền Anh hạng nhẹ
B. danh hiệu quyền Anh hạng nặng nghiệp dư quốc gia Mỹ
C. danh hiệu vô địch quyên Anh nghiệp dư Anh
D. huy chương vàng Olympic quyền Anh hạng nặng
Dẫn chứng: Eagan also fought at the 1924 Olympics in Paris as a heavyweight but
failed to get a medal.
=> Chọn D
Question 6. A
Theo bài đọc, Thế vận hội Olympic 1920 được tổ chức ở đâu?
A. Antwerp, Bỉ
B. Paris, Pháp
C. Luân Đôn , Anh
D. hồ Placid, New York
Dẫn chứng: Eagan won his first Olympic gold medal as a light heavyweight boxer
at the 1920 Olympic Games in Antwerp, Belgium.
=> Chọn A
Question 7. A
Theo bài đọc, niềm vinh dự đặc biệt gì mà Eagan đã nhận được vào năm 1983?
A. Ông ấy đã được giới thiệu vào Hội trường danh dự của Olympic Mỹ
B. Ông ấy được đề cử làm trung tá trong quân đội Mỹ
C. Ông ấy đã nhận huy chương vàng trong cuộc thi kéo xe tuyết 4 người
D. Ông ấy được chỉ định là trợ lý luật sư của quận cho phía nam New York.
Dẫn chứng: Eagan was a member of the first group of athletes inducted into the
U.S. Olympic Hall of Fame in 1983.
=> Chọn A

READING 14:
Question 1. A
Chủ đề chính của bài đọc là gì?
A. cơ chế tạo ra mưa
B. khí hậu của Bắc Mỹ
C. trọng lực ảnh hưởng như thế nào đến nông nghiệp
D. các loại mây
Dẫn chứng: What makes it rain?
=> Chọn A
Question 2. B
Từ nào thay thế tốt nhất cho từ “ minute” ở đoạn 1?
Second: giây
Tiny: nhỏ bé
Slow: chậm
Predictable: có thể đoán trước được
The droplets or ice crystals in clouds are exceedingly small. The effect of gravity on
them is minute.
[ Các giọt nhỏ hoặc các tinh thể băng cực kỳ nhỏ. Ảnh hưởng của trọng lực lên
chúng rất nhỏ.]
=> minute = tiny
=> Chọn B
Question 3. A
“ Sự chuyển động liên tục” ở đoạn 1 nghĩa là gì?
A. Luôn luôn di chuyển
B. Luôn có cảm xúc
C. Không bao giờ thay đổi
D. Rơi xuống một cách dễ dàng
Air currents move and lift droplets so that the net downward displacement is zero,
even though the droplets are in constant motion.
=> in constant motion = moving all the time
=> Chọn A
Question 4. C
Tại sao tinh thể băng trong những đám mây không rơi xuống Trái Đất ngay lập tức?
A. Chúng được cân bằng bởi áp lực của những hạt mưa.
B. Ảnh hưởng của trọng lực ở độ cao so với mặt nước biển ngẫu nhiên.
C. Chúng bị giữ trong không trung bởi các luồng không khí.
D. Nhiệt từ các tia nắng mặt trời làm chúng tan chảy.
Dẫn chứng: Air currents move and lift droplets so that the net downward
displacement is zero
=> Chọn C
Question 5. A
Những giọt nước là gì?
A. Chúng là những tinh thể băng.
B. Chúng là những giọt sương nhỏ.
C. Chúng là trái cây mọng nước.
D. Chúng là động vật sống trên băng.
Dẫn chứng: But every cloud is made of water droplets or ice crystals.
=> Chọn A
Question 6. C
Có thể suy ra điều gì từ những giọt nước có đường kín lớn hơn 1/125 inch?
A. Chúng không bao giờ xảy ra.
B. Chúng không bị ảnh hưởng bởi trọng lực.
C. Trong không khí tĩnh chúng sẽ rơi xuống mặt đất.
D. Khi di chuyển trong không khí chúng rơi với tốc độ 32 dặm/ giờ.
Dẫn chứng: Only when the droplet grows to a diameter of 1/125 inch or larger can it
fall from the cloud.
=> Chọn C
Question 7. C
Đường kính trung bình của hạt mây là?
A. 1/16 inch
B. 1/125 inch
C. 1/2500 inch
D. 1/ 1 triệu inch
Dẫn chứng: The cloud droplet of average size is only 1/2500 inch in diameter.
=> Chọn C
Question 8. A
Cái nào là ví dụ của sự kết tủa?
Rain: mưa
Lightening: sét
Wind: gió
Thunder: sấm sét
Dẫn chứng: The growth of a cloud droplet to a size large enough to fall out is the
cause of rain and other forms of precipitation.
=> Chọn A

READING 15:
Question 1. D
Theo bài đọc, vitamin là
A. thành phần của thức ăn
B. chất dinh dưỡng cần thiết
C. những hợp chất
D. nhóm thực phẩm lớn
Dẫn chứng: Vitamins, taken in tiny doses, are a major group of organic compounds
that regulate the mechanisms by which the body converts food into energy.
=> Chọn D
Question 2. C
Có bao nhiêu loại vitamin có thể lấy được từ thực phẩm?
Dẫn chứng: Among the 13 vitamins known today, five are produced in the body.
[ Trong số 13 loại vitamin được biết, có 5 loại có sẵn trong cơ thể. ]
13 – 5 = 8
=> Chọn C
Question 3. A
Tác giả ngụ ý rằng thức ăn
A. Cung cấp một vài nhưng không phải tất cả các loại vitamin cần thiết.
B. Nên được bổ sung tất cả vitamin
C. Tương ứng với vitamin
D. Bổ sung một số nhưng không phải tất cả vitamin cần thiết
Dẫn chứng: Because the body produces sufficient quantities of some but not all
vitamins, they must be supplemented in the daily diet.
=> Chọn A
Question 4. C
Từ “daily diet” [ chế độ dinh dưỡng hắng ngày] gần nghĩa nhất với
A. giảm cân hoặc tăng cân
B. số lượng vừa đủ
C. chất dinh dưỡng được hấp thu
D. các viên vitamin
=>Chọn C
Question 5. D
Việc liên tục thiếu vitamin trong chế độ dinh dưỡng của một người
Contagious: truyền nhiễm/ lây nhiễm
Desirable: ao ước
Preposterous: vo lý
Dangerous: nguy hiểm
Dẫn chứng: a lack of one vitamin can interfere with the processing of another.
When a lack of even one vitamin in a diet is continual, a vitamin deficiency may
result.
=>Chọn D
Question 6. B
Tác giả có vẻ như đồng ý với ý nào sau đây?
A. Chế độ ăn uống đa dạng cần được bổ sung vitamin
B. Một chế đọ ăn uống bao quát có thể cung cấp các vitamin cần thiết
C. Vitamin không thể lấy được từ thực phẩm cùng một lúc.
D. Vitamin nên ở dạng viên nang tinh khiết.
Dẫn chứng: The best way for an individual to ensure a necessary supply of
vitamins is to maintain a balanced diet that includes a variety of foods and provides
adequate quantities of all the compounds.
=> Chọn B
Question 7. D
Bài đọc chủ yếu thảo luận về nội dung gì?
A. Áp dụng vitamin để kiểm soát cân nặng.
B. Chế độ dinh dưỡng của một người để có sức khỏe tốt nhất
C. Việc phân loại vitamin ứng dụng y học
D. Vai trò của vitamin trong chế độ dinh dưỡng
=> Chọn D

READING 16:
Question 1. D
Câu nào đúng khi nói về việc sản xuất năng lượng địa nhiệt trên thế giới?
A. Bởi vì nó là ý tưởng mới, nên rất ít quốc gia có nguồn năng lượng địa nhiệt
B. Chỉ một số nước ở Nam Bán Cầu sử dụng năng lượng địa nhiệt quy mô lớn.
C. Cho đến khi giá của năng lượng địa nhiệt trở nên cạnh tranh , nó sẽ không được
sử dụng trên toàn cầu.
D. Năng lượng địa nhiệt đã được sử dụng ở một số quốc gia , nhưng nó vẫn chưa
phải là nguồn năng lượng chính.
Dẫn chứng: Today, Earth‟s natural internal heat is being used to generate electricity
in 21 countries , including Russia, Japan, New Zealand, Iceland, Mexico, Ethiopia,
Guatemala, EI Salvador, the Philippines, and the United States .Total worldwide
production is approaching 9,000 MW (equivalent to nine large modern coal-
burning or nuclear power plants)-double the amount in 1980 .Some 40 million
people today receive their electricity from geothermal energy at a cost competitive
with that of other energy sources. In EI Salvador , geothermal energy is supplying
30% of the total electric energy used. However, at the global level, geothermal
energy supplies less than 0,15%of the total energy supply.
=> Chọn D
Question 2. C
Từ “approaching”[ khoảng/ gần] trong bài đọc gần nghĩa nhất với
Hardly: hiếm khi
Mostly: hầu
như Nearly: gần
như Briefly: cô
động
Total worldwide production is approaching 9,000 MW
=> approaching = nearly
=> Chọn C
Question 3. B
Từ “that” trong bài đọc ám chỉ
Electricity: điện
Cost: chi phí
Energy: năng lượng
People: con người
Some 40 million people today receive their electricity from geothermal energy at a
cost competitive with that of other energy sources.
=> Chọn B
Question 4. D
Ở đoạn 2, tác giả trình bày rằng năng lượng địa nhiệt được xem như là nguồn năng
lượng không thể tái sinh bởi vì
A. Việc sản xuất năng lượng địa nhiệt là một quy trình tự nhiên.
B. Năng lượng địa nhiệt đến từ Trái Đất.
C. Ngày nay chúng ta không sử dụng nhiều năng lượng địa nhiệt.
D. Chúng ta có thể sử dụng nhiều năng lượng địa nhiệt hơn là nó được tạo ra tự
nhiên.
Dẫn chứng: Geothermal energy may be considered a nonrenewable energy source
when rates of extraction are greater than rates of natural replenishment.
=> Chọn D
Question 5. B
Theo đoạn 3, dòng nhiệt cần thiết cho việc sản xuất địa nhiệt
A. thì giống như nhiệt của mặt trời trên bề mặt trái đất.
B. xảy ra gần ranh giới mảng kiến tạo
C. phải luôn luôn được tăng lên một cách nhân tạo
D. có thể không thiết thực vì vị trí địa lý của nó.
Dẫn chứng: For the most part, areas of high heat flow are associated with plate
tectonic boundaries.
=> Chọn B
Question 6. A
Từ “ considerable” [ to lớn / đáng kể] trong bài đọc gần nghĩa với từ nào
Large: rộng lớn
Dangerous: nguy hiểm
Steady: rõ ràng / sâu sắc
Unexpected: không mong đợi/ ngoài mong đợi
Dẫn chứng: The environmental impact of geothermal energy may not be as
extensive as that of other sources of energy , but it can be considerable.
=> Chọn A
Question 7. B
Ở đoạn 5, tác giả đề cập đến ô nhiễm bầu khí quyển và chất thải của nhiên liệu hóa
thạch và năng lượng hạt nhân
A. để giới thiệu cuộc thảo luận ô nhiễm môi trường gây ra bởi sự sản xuất và phát
triển năng lượng địa nhiệt.
B. để so sánh tương phản sự ô nhiễm gây ra bởi nhiên liệu hóa thạch và năng lượng
hạt nhân với sự ô nhiễm gây ra bởi địa nhiệt.
C. để tranh luận rằng sản xuất địa nhiệt không gây ra ô nhiễm như những nguồn
năng lượng khác.
D. để ngăn chặn việc sử dụng nguyên liệu thô và hóa chất trong sản xuất năng
lượng vì ô nhiễm.
Dẫn chứng: Development of geothermal energy does not require large-scale
transportation of raw materials or refining of chemicals, as development of fossil
fuels does. Furthermore, geothermal energy does not produce the atmospheric
pollutants associated with burning fossil fuels or the radioactive waste associated
with nuclear energy. However, geothermal development often does produce
considerable thermal pollution from hot waste-waters, which may be saline or
highly corrosive, producing disposal and treatment problem.
=> Chọn B
Question 8. A
Theo đoạn 6, việc sản xuất năng lượng địa nhiệt ở Hawaii đang gây tranh cãi vì
những lý do nào sau đây NGOẠI TRỪ
A. Những núi lửa ở Hawaii có thể bị gián đoạn bởi sự tỏa ra năng lượng địa nhiệt
nhanh chóng.
B. Rừng mưa có thể bị phá hủy trong quá trình xây dựng nhà máy năng lượng địa
nhiệt
C. Người bản xứ lo ngại rằng năng lượng địa nhiệt xúc phậm đến văn hóa của họ.
D. Một số người Hawaii chống đối việc sử dụng năng lượng địa nhiệt vì lý do tôn
giáo.
Dẫn chứng: Native Hawaiians and others have argued that the exploration and
development of geothermal energy degrade the tropical forest as developers
construct roads, build facilities , and drill wells.
In addition, religious and cultural issues in Hawaii relate to the use of geothermal
energy. For example, some people are offended by using the “breath and water of
Pele” ( the volcano goddess) to make electricity.
=> Chọn A
READING 17:
Question 1. B
Từ which trong bài đọc ám chỉ đến
A. sự quản lý khoa học B. triết học
C. năng suất D. nghiên cứu thời gian và sự di chuyển
Dẫn chứng: At that time, his philosophy, which was concerned with productivity,
but which was often misinterpreted as promoting worker interests at the expense of
management, was in marked contrast to the prevailing industrial norms of worker
exploitation.
=> Chọn B
Question 2. B
Có thể suy ra từ đoạn 1 rằng
A. các công nhân đón chào sự ứng dụng của quản lý khoa học
B. triết lý của Taylor khác so với những quy tắc công nghiệp
C. đầu những năm 1900 khoa học đã đạt được một giai đoạn mà ở đó nó có thể
được áp dụng vào nơi làm việc.
D. công nhân không còn khai thác sau khi quản lý khoa học được đưa vào.
Dẫn chứng: At that time, his philosophy, which was concerned with productivity,
but which was often misinterpreted as promoting worker interests at the expense of
management, was in marked contrast to the prevailing industrial norms of worker
exploitation.
=> Chọn B
Question 3. D
Theo bài đọc, Frank Gilbreth đã khám phá ra công nhân có thể loại bỏ sự di chuyển
thừa thải bằng cách nào
A. sử dụng công cụ đặc biệt như camera và đồng hồ
B. sử dụng đồng hồ bấm giờ
C. áp dụng các quy tắc quản lý khoa học
D. trông chừng con họ làm việc nhà
Dẫn chứng: . By analyzing his children‟s dishwashing and bedmaking chores, this
pioneer efficiency expert, Frank Gilbreth, hit on principles whereby workers could
eliminate waste motion.
=> Chọn D
Question 4. C
Từ “moitons” gần nghĩa nhất với
A. đồng hồ bấm giờ B. thói quen C. hành động D. công cụ đặc biệt
=> motions = actions
=> Chọn C
Question 5. B
Ở đâu trong bài đọc tác giả có ý kiến rằng các quy tắc quản lý khoa học thường bị
hiểu sai?
Dẫn chứng: Along with other pioneers such as Frank and Lillian Gilbreth, Taylor
set the stage, labeling his philosophy and methods “scientific management‟. At that
time, his philosophy, which was concerned with productivity, but which was often
misinterpreted as promoting worker interests at the expense of management, was in
marked contrast to the prevailing industrial norms of worker exploitation.
The time and motion study concepts were popularized by Frank and Lillian
Gilbreth. The Gilbreths had 12 children.
=>Chọn B
Question 6. C
Từ “dimensions” ở dòng 24 gần nghĩa nhất với
Size: kích thước
Extents: sự mở rộng
Aspects: lĩnh vực
Standards: tiêu chuẩn
Dẫn chứng: However, use of work analysis in this way is unlikely to lead to useful
results unless all five work dimensions are considered: physical, psychological,
social, cultural, and power.
=> Chọn C
Question 7. B
Tất cả những câu sau đúng NGOẠI TRỪ
A. quản lý khoa học liên quan đến năng suất
B. sự khởi đầu của quản lý hiện đại đã được cho rằng bắt đầu vào thế kỷ 19.
C. Danh tiếng của Frank Gilbreth được tăng lên bằng việc hai người con của ông
viết 1 quyển sách.
D. việc phân tích công việc để tăng năng suất không có vẻ như là có ích nếu tất cả
các lĩnh vực không được cân nhắc.
=> Dẫn chứng: Although management principles have been implemented since
ancient times, most management scholars trace the beginning of modern
management thought back to the early 1900s,
=> Chọn B

READING 18:
Question 1. C
Đoạn văn trước bài đọc này có thể thảo luận về
A. Tại sao đá quý lại được xem là quý giá
B. Hope Diamond được khai thác như thế nào
C. Một viên kim cương khác Hope Diamond
D. Những phương pháp khai thác kim cương.
Dẫn chứng: Perhaps better known than the Cullinan Diamond is the Hope Diamond,
a valuable and blue gem with a background of more than 300 years as a world
traveler.
=>Chọn C
Question 2. B
Nội dung chính của bài đọc là Hope Diamond
A. đến từ Ấn Độ
B. đã di chuyển nhiều nơi
C. đã bị cắt nhiều lần
D. bây giờ ở Smithsonian
Dẫn chứng: Dẫn chứng: Perhaps better known than the Cullinan Diamond is the
Hope Diamond, a valuable and blue gem with a background of more than 300 years
as a world traveler.
=> Chọn B
Question 3. B
Đại từ “it” trong bài đọc ám chỉ đến
A. hình dạng của nó
B. viên kim cương mới được cắt
C. gia đình hoàng tộc
D. cuộc cách mạng Pháp
Dẫn chứng: The newly cut diamond, still huge by any standards, was passed down
through the royal family of France, until it arrived in the hands of Louis XVI and
Marie Antoinette.
=>Chọn B
Question 4. C
Có thể suy ra từ bài đọc rằng tác giả không chắc chắn
A. Ai đã mua Hope Diamond ở nước Anh
B. Ai đã bán Hope Diamond ở nước Anh
C. Bằng cách nào Hope Diamond đi từ Pháp sang Anh
D. Hope Diamond lớn như thế nào ở thế kỷ 19
Dẫn chứng: The diamond somehow managed to get from France to England, where
banker Henry Hope purchased it from a gem dealer early in the nineteenth century.
=> Chọn C
Question 5. B
Có thể xác định từ bài đọc rằng Henry Hope có thể có bao nhiêu kara cắt thành
Hope Diamond?
Dẫn chứng: Louis XIV had it cut down from 112 to 67 carats to make its shape
symmetrical and to maximize its sparkle.
112-67 = 45
=> Chọn B
Question 6. B
Theo bài đọc, bà McLean
A. Đã quyên góp Hope Diamond cho Smithsonian
B. Đã để con chó của bà đeo Hope Diamond
C. Đã mua Hope Diamond từ người Pháp
D. Đã nhờ người cắt Hope Diamond thành kích thước hiện tại 45.5 kara
Dẫn chứng: . Mrs. McLean certainly enjoyed showing the diamond off guests in her
home were sometimes astounded to notice the huge stone embellishing the neck of
Mrs. McLean‟s Great Dane as the huge pet trotted around the grounds of her
Washington, D.C. home.
=>Chọn B
Question 7. D
Đất nước nào không được đề cập trong bài đọc như là nơi mà Hope Diamond đã trải
qua?
A. Ấn Độ B. Pháp C. Anh D. Đan Mạch
=> Chọn D
Question 8. C
Ở đâu trong bài đọc mà tác giả miêu tả cái đã xảy ra với chủ hoàng gia Pháp của
viên kim cương?
Dẫn chứng: During the French Revolution, Louis XVI and his wife met their fate on
the guillotine in 1793, and the big blue diamond disappeared from public sight.
=> Chọn C

READING 19:
Question 1. C
Theo đoạn văn 1, trẻ con hơn 3 tuổi thì
A. học một chút ngôn ngữ về những thứ xung quanh chúng.
B. không còn bị ảnh hưởng bởi ngôn ngữ của bố mẹ chúng.
C. bị ảnh hưởng ngày càng nhiều hơn bởi những người gần với độ tuổi của chúng.
D. lần đầu bắt đầu phản hồi lại ngôn ngữ đã được biến đổi để phù hợp với trẻ.
Dẫn chứng: Until about the age of three, children tend to learn to develop their
language by modeling the speed of their parents, but from that time on, peers have a
growing influence as models for language development in children.
=> Chọn C
Question 2. B
Từ “modeling” ở đoạn 1 có thể được thay thế tốt nhất bởi
Demonstrating: minh họa
Mimicking: bắt chước
Building: xây dựng
Designing: thiết kế
Dẫn chứng: Until about the age of three, children tend to learn to develop their
language by modeling the speech of their parents,
[ Khoảng 3 tuổi trẻ con có xu hướng học phát triển ngôn ngữ bằng cách bắt chước
những gì bố mẹ chúng nói.]
=> modeling = mimicking
=> Chọn B
Question 3. A
Có thể suy ra từ đoạn 2 rằng con người nhìn chung có vẻ như
A. Có thể nuôi dưỡng ngôn ngữ của họ đến mức ngôn ngữ của một đứa trẻ mà
không cần suy nghĩ có ý thức về nó.
B. Khá ý thức về việc sử dụng ngôn ngữ đã được biển đổi để trẻ con hiểu
C. Có khó khăn trong việc sử dụng ngôn ngữ đã được biển đổi để trẻ con hiểu.
D. Để sử dụng ngôn ngữ đã được biển đổi để trẻ con hiểu có ý thức bằng cách giảm
đi sự phức tạp trong ngôn ngữ của họ.
Dẫn chứng: Caretaker speech is used often quite unconsciously; few people actually
study how to modify language when speaking to young children but, instead,
without thinking, find ways to reduce the complexity of language in order to
communicate effectively with young children.
=> Chọn A
Question 4. B
Tất cả những ý sau được đề cập ở đoạn 3 như là đặc điểm của ngôn ngữ người chăm
sóc NGOẠI TRỪ
A. Quá nhấn mạnh sự uốn cong
B. Việc sử dụng âm thanh có vần điệu
C. Xu hướng tự lặp đi lặp lại
D. Việc sử dụng những từ và cấu trúc dễ hơn.
Dẫn chứng: The higher-pitched voice and the exaggerated inflections tend to focus
the small child on what the caretaker is saying, => loại A
the simplified words and sentences make it easier for the small child to begin to
comprehended,=> loại D
and the repetitions reinforce the child’s developing understanding. => loại C
=> Chọn B
Question 5. D
Nó được chỉ ra ở đoạn 3 rằng bố mẹ có xu hướng
A. Nói về cơ bản cùng cách thức với trẻ 1 tuổi và 3 tuổi
B. Việc sử dụng ngôn ngữ vượt xa trình độ ngôn ngữ của trẻ con.
C. Nói theo cách ít phức tạp hơn như với trẻ trưởng thành.
D. Xác định giọng nói theo sự phát triển ngôn ngữ của trẻ con.
Dẫn chứng: Parents and older children regularly adjust their speed to a level that is
slightly above that of a younger child;
=> Chọn D
Question 6. C
Từ “reaches” ở đoạn 3 có thể đư thay thế bởi
A. giữ cho/ giữ lấy
B. chịu trách nhiệm về
C. đạt đến
D. trải rộng ra đến
Dẫn chứng: without studied recognition of what they are doing, these caretakers
will speak in one way to a one-year-ago and in a progressively more complex way
as the child reaches the age of two or three.
=>reaches = arrives at
=>Chọn C
Question 7. B
Từ “that” ở đoạn 4 ám chỉ đến
A. một điểm quan trọng
B. chức năng
C. ngôn ngữ đã được biển đổi để trẻ con hiểu
D. một đứa trẻ
Dẫn chứng: An important point to note is that the function covered by caretaker
speech, that of assisting a child to acquire language in small and simple steps,
=>Chọn B
READING 20:
Question 1. A
Ý nào sau đây là ý chính của tác giả?
A. Tiếng ồn có thể gây ra sự đe dọa nghiêm trọng đến tình trạng thể chất và tinh
thần của chúng ta.
B. Tiếng ồn lớn tín hiệu nguy hiểm
C. Mất thính giác là vấn đề sức khỏe không gây chết người số 1 ở Mỹ.
D. Tai không giồng như mắt.
Dẫn chứng: Exposure to lower levels of noise may be slightly irritating, whereas
exposure to higher levels may actually cause hearing loss.
=> Chọn A
Question 2. A
Theo bài đọc, tiếng ồn là gì?
A. âm thanh không muốn nghe
B. sản phẩm công nghệ
C. sự gây hại về thể chất và tinh thần
D. sự tắc nghẽn giao thông
Dẫn chứng: Although noise, commonly defined as unwanted sound,
=> Chọn A
Question 3. B
Tại sao âm thanh khó đo lường?
Nó gây mất thính giác
B. Tất cả mọi người không phản hồi giống nhau trong cùng một cách.
C. Nó không được mong muốn.
D. Người ta trở nên quen dần với nó.
Dẫn chứng: it is very difficult to measure because the discomfort experienced by
different individuals is highly subjective and, therefore, variable.
=> Chọn B
Question 4. C
Từ “ congested” ở đoạn 1 có thẻ được thay thế tốt nhất bởi
Hazardous: nguy hiểm
Polluted: bị ô nhiễm
Crowded: đông đúc
Rushed: vội vàng
Dẫn chứng: . Particularly in congested urban areas,
=> congested = crowded
=> Chọn C
Question 5. B
Có thể suy ra từ bài đọc rằng mắt
A. phản hồi lại sự sợ hãi
B. được bảo vệ nhiều hơn tai
C. làm tăng chức năng
D. bị phá hủy bởi tiếng ồn
Dẫn chứng: Unlike the eyes, which can be covered by the eyelids against strong
light, the ear has no lid, and is, therefore, always open and vulnerable; noise
penetrates without protection.
=> Chọn B
Question 6. D
Theo bài đọc, con người phản hồi lại tiếng ồn lớn cùng một cách mà họ phản hồi lại
Annoyance: sự tức giận
Disease: bệnh tật
Damage: sự hư hỏng/ thiệt hại
Danger: mối nguy hiểm
Dẫn chứng: Because noise is unavoidable in a complex, industrial society, we are
constantly responding in the same way that we would respond to danger.
=> Chọn D
Question 7. A
Từ “it” ở đoạn 1 ám chỉ đến
A. tiếng ồn
B. chất lượng cuộc sống
C. công nghệ cải tiến
D. sản phẩm lỗi
Dẫn chứng: Particularly in congested urban areas, the noise produced as a by
product of our advancing technology causes physical and psychological harm, and
detracts from the quality of life for those who are exposed to it.
=> Chọn A
Question 8. C
Với câu nào sau đây tác giả sẽ có thể đồng ý nhất?
A. tiếng ồn không phải là vấn đề nghiêm trọng ngày nay.
B. tiếng ồn là vấn đề số 1 ở Mỹ
C. tiếng ồn là vấn đề không thể tránh khỏi trong xã hội công nghiệp
D. tiếng ồn là một vấn đề phức tạp
Dẫn chứng: Because noise is unavoidable in a complex, industrial society, we are
constantly responding in the same way that we would respond to danger.
=> Chọn C

READING 21:
Question 1. B
Bài đọc chủ yếu nói về nội dung gì?
A. định kiến tồn tại ở Atlanta
B. thời thơ ấu của vua Martin Lurther
C. ông của vua Martin Lurther
D. làng xóm nơi vị vua lớn lên
=> Chọn B
Question 2. D
Từ gathering ở đoạn 1 có thể được thay thế tốt nhất bởi
Picking: nhặt/ đón lấy
Learning: học hỏi
Exciting: thú vị
Meeting: gặp gỡ
Dẫn chứng: He allowed his church and his home to be used as a meeting place for a
number of organizations dedicated to the education and social advancement of
blacks. M.L. grew up in this atmosphere, with his home being used as a community
gathering place, and was no doubt influenced by it.
=>Chọn D
Question 3. A
Theo tác giả, vua bị ảnh hưởng bởi
A. tinh thần cộng đồng
B. những luật sư gia đen
C. mẹ ông ấy
D. những bài diễn thuyết của ông
Dẫn chứng: He allowed his church and his home to be used as a meeting place for a
number of organizations dedicated to the education and social advancement of
blacks. M.L. grew up in this atmosphere, with his home being used as a community
gathering place, and was no doubt influenced by it.
=> Chọn A
Question 4. B
Từ “it” ơ đoạn 2 ám chỉ đến
Achievement: thành tích
Neighborhood: làng xóm
Segregation: sự tách rời
Services: các dịch vụ
Dẫn chứng: The neighborhood was not poor, however. Auburn Avenue was
the main artery through a prosperous neighborhood that had come to symbolize
achievement for Atlanta’s black people. It was an area of banks, insurance
companies, builders, jewelers, tailors, doctors, lawyers, and other black-owner,
black-operated businesses, and services.
=> Chọn B
Question 5. A
Theo tác giả, những người da đen trong làng xóm của vua được tham gia vào những
hoạt động kinh doanh và dịch vụ sau đây NGOẠI TRỪ
Dentistry: nha khoa
Medicine: ngành y
Law: ngành luật
Banking: ngân hàng
Dẫn chứng: It was an area of banks, insurance companies, builders, jewelers, tailors,
doctors, lawyers, and other black-owner, black-operated businesses, and services.
=> Chọn A
Question 6. C
Từ “ thợ may” ở đoạn 2 miêu tả những người liên quan đến công việc nào sau đây?
A. cắm hoa
B. đóng giày
C. may mặc
D. đóng sách
=> Chọn C
Question 7. D
Theo tác giả, M.L
A. có tuổi thơ khó khăn
B. từ bé đã là một nhạc sĩ tài giỏi
C. thích nghe những bài diễn thuyết của ông
D. lớn lên trong một khu xóm khá là giàu có của Atlanta.
Dẫn chứng: The neighborhood was not poor, however. Auburn Avenue was
the main artery through a prosperous neighborhood that had come to symbolize
achievement for Atlanta’s black people. It was an area of banks, insurance
companies, builders, jewelers, tailors, doctors, lawyers, and other black-owner,
black-operated businesses, and services.
=> Chọn D

READING 22:
Question 1. D
Việc cung cấp điện thoại di động cho trẻ, theo tác giả
A. giảm sự phụ thuộc của trẻ em vào bố mẹ chung
B. tăng sự kiểm soát tích cực bởi bố mẹ chúng
C. giảm sự can thiệp của bố mẹ
D. tăng sự phụ thuộc của trẻ con
Dẫn chứng: That is, the parents are a speed dial away by cell phone. This, of course,
significantly reduces independence.
=> Chọn D
Question 2. A
Có thể suy ra từ đoạn 1 rằng trẻ em và bố mẹ chúng
A. cần nhau về mặt tinh thần
B. chỉ phụ thuộc vào nhau tạm thời
C. phụ thuộc vào nhau về thể chất và tinh thần
D. phụ thuộc vào nhau ở vẻ bên ngoài
Dẫn chứng: For one thing, studies show that they are emotionally closer to their
parents and their parents to them. One thing that means is that they depend on each
other more for happiness.
=> Chọn A
Question 3. C
Tác giả lưu ý rằng học sinh ngày nay có xu hướng
A. từ chối học đại học xa nhà
B. đi học đại học để thỏa mong ước của bố mẹ
C. chọn một học viện gần nhà
D. chọn một học viện nước ngoài thay vì trong nước
Dẫn chứng: There’s also evidence that students today seem to be choosing schools
with reference to proximity to home.
=> Chọn C
Question 4. D
Bố mẹ có vẻ như tham gia vào những trải nghiệm đại học của bố mẹ bởi vì
A. chúng lo lắng về sự bất cẩn ở trường
B. trường học thường không chú ý đến học sinh của chúng
C. chúng sợ bị tước đoạt niềm vui
D. họ cảm thấy con họ như là một niềm hạnh phúc
Dẫn chứng: It puts a burden on children for parents to use their children as vehicles
for their own happiness-although today’s young people seem complicit in this
arrangement, perhaps because they’ve known no other way-even if it creates
anxiety in the children.
=> Chọn D
Question 5. A
Từ “ phương tiện” ở đoạn văn đầu tiên có thể được thay thế bởi
Means: phương tiện
Methods: phương pháp
Ways: cách thức
Instruments: công cụ
=> Chọn A
Question 6. C
Các trường đại học phải đưa ra nhiều cách để đưa bố mẹ ra khỏi khuôn viên trường
bởi vì
A. trẻ con muốn hoàn toàn tự do khỏi sự kiểm soát của bố mẹ
B. trường đại học muốn bố mẹ hoàn toàn không biết về hoạt động của bọn trẻ
C. bố mẹ có xu hướng tham gia nhiều hơn vào việc học tập của con họ ở trường.
D. bản thân các giáo viên không muốn chia sẻ thông tin với bố mẹ
Dẫn chứng: That’s one reason parents like to be involved in their children’s college
experiences, and colleges have had to devise novel ways of getting parents off
campus when they transport their kids to school.
=> Chọn C
Question 7. D
Bằng cách trích dẫn những định luật vật lý, tác giả ngụ ý rằng
A. mọi người nên học vật lý bất cứ khi nào có thể
B. mọi người không nên quên những mối quan hệ cũ
C. mọi người chỉ nên quan tâm đến những quan hệ mới
D. mọi người nên xây dựng nhiều mối quan hệ hơn
Dẫn chứng: The laws of physics still apply, and it is difficult to be meeting new
people and seeking novel experiences while you are talking to your old pals.
=> Chọn D
Question 8. C
“ Cắt bỏ dây tạp dề” tiêu đề của bài đọc có thể được phiên dịch như là
A. cắt đứt mối quan hệ cũ
B. độc lập về tài chính
C. sống tự lập/ tự đứng trên đôi chân của mình
D. tự tìm kiếm thiết bị của bạn
=>Chọn C

READING 23:
Question 1. A
Bài đọc chủ yếu thảo luận về cái gì?
A. Một công cụ hỗ trợ đưa ra những quyết định phức tạp.
B. Sự so sánh giữa những quyết định thực tế và những quyết định lý tưởng.
C. Nghiên cứu con người đưa ra quyết định như thế nào.
D. Sự khác nhau giữa đưa ra quyết định trong phạm vi ngắn và dài.
Dẫn chứng: Researchers in the field of psychology have found that one of the best
ways to make an important decision, such as choosing a university to attend or a
business to invest in, involves the utilization of a decision worksheet.
=>Chọn A
Question 2. D
Từ “ cơ bản/ quan trọng” ở đoạn văn 1 gần nghĩa nhât với
Introductory: giới thiệu
Changeable: có thể thay đổi
Beneficial: có lợi
Fundamental: quan trọng
Dẫn chứng: Although there are several variations on the exact format that
worksheets can take, they are all similar in their essential aspects.
=>Chọn D
Question 3. D
Trong những bước sau đây, bước nào xảy ra trước những bước khác trong việc đưa
ra một quyết định văn bản?
A. Liệt kê hậu quả của mỗi giải pháp
B. Tính toán kết luận con số của mỗi giải pháp.
C. Quyết định giải pháp nào là quan trọng nhất.
D. Viết ra tất cả những giải pháp có thể.
Dẫn chứng: Worksheets require defining the problem in a clear and concise way
and then listing all possible solutions to the problem.
=>Chọn D
Question 4. C
Theo thuyết quyết định văn bản, một quyết định tối ưu được định nghĩa như là
A. Có ít biến đổi nhất cần xem xét
B. sử dụng nhiều quyết định giấy tờ nhất
C. có nhiều điểm chi phối nó nhất
D. được nhiều người đồng ý nhất
Dẫn chứng: The alternative with the highest number of points emerges as the best
decision.
=>Chọn C
Question 5. B
Tác giả trình bày ở đoạn 3 rằng “ Trung bình, con người có tể giữ 7 ý tưởng trong
đầu trong nhất thời.” để giải thích rằng
A. hầu hết những quyết định gồm 7 bước
B. dung tích bộ nhớ con người có những giới hạn
C. một số người có khó khăn trong việc đưa ra những quyết định cả lớn lẫn nhỏ
D. con người có thể học để giữ nhiều hơn 7 ý tưởng trong đầu nhờ luyện tập.
=>Chọn B
Question 6. B
Thuật ngữ nào sau đây được định nghĩa trong bài đọc?
A. Proponents (đoạn 1)
B. Optimal (đoạn 1)
C. Variables (đoạn 3)
D. Long-range goals (đoạn 4)
Dẫn chứng: Proponents of the worksheet procedure believe that it will yield
optimal, that is, the best decisions.
=>Chọn B
Question 7. B
Từ “it” ở đoạn 4 ám chỉ đến
A. tờ giấy
B. vấn đề
C. sự khác biệt
D. quyết định
Dẫn chứng: A decision-making worksheet begins with a succinct statement of the
problem that will also help to narrow it.
=>ChọnB

READING 24:
Question 1. A
Bài đọc ngụ ý rằng khán giả đã xem Buổi trưng bày ô tô quốc gia 1900 như là 1
A. dịp lễ xã hội quan trọng
B. cơ hội mua xe hơi giá rẻ
C. cơ hội học lái xe
D. cơ hội đầu từ 1 trong 32 nhà sản xuất ô tô.
Dẫn chứng: It was opening day and the first opportunity for the automobile industry
to show off its wares to large crowd; however, the black-tie audience treated the
occasion more as a social affair than as sales extravaganza.
=>Chọn A
Question 2. A
Theo bài đọc, ai đã phát triển xe hơi hiện đại đầu tiên?
A. Karl Benz
B. Nikolaus Otto
C. William McKinley
D. Henry Ford
Dẫn chứng: Then, German engineer Karl Benz built what are regarded as the first
modern automobiles in the mid-1880s.
=>Chọn A
Question 3. B
Xấp xỉ bao nhiêu xe hơi có ở Mỹ năm 1900?
A. 4000
B. 8000
C. 10 triệu
D. không biết con số chính xác
Dẫn chứng: By happenstance, the number of people at the first New York show
equaled the entire car population of the United States at that time.
On November 3 of that year, about 8,000 people looked over the “ horseless
carriages”.
=>Chọn B
Question 4. B
Xấp xỉ bao nhiêu xe hơi được lắp ráp năm 1900 là dùng nhiên liệu xăng?
Dẫn chứng: Only about 4,000 cars were assembled in the United States in 1900, and
only a quarter of those were gasoline powered.
=>Chọn B
Question 5. A
Theo bài đọc, mọi người trong buổi trưng bày xe hơi quốc gia 1900 thì xe được cấp
năng lượng
A. điện
B. dầu hỏa
C. xăng
D. hơi nước
Dẫn chứng: After viewing the cars made by forty car makers, the show’s audience
favored electric cars because they were quiet.
=>Chọn A
Question 6. C
Mục đích của chất phụ gia được đề cập ở đoạn 4 là để
A. tăng tốc độ xe hơi
B. làm động cơ hoạt động hiệu quả hơn
C. giấu mùi nặng
D. làm xe hơi trông đẹp hơn
Dẫn chứng: The Duryea Motor Wagon Company, which launched the American
auto industry in 1895, offered a fragrant additive designed to mask the smells of the
naphtha that is burned.
=>Chọn C
Question 7. B
Từ “well-to-do” ở đoạn 5 gần nghĩa nhất với
A. điều kiện tốt
B. giàu có
C. những đứa trẻ ngoan ngoãn
D. những người tốt bụng
Dẫn chứng: These early model cars were practically handmade and were not very
dependable. They were basically toys of the well-to-do.
=>Chọn B
Question 8. B
Hãng nào sau đây không được đề cập trong bài đọc khi việc vận hành lái với bánh
lái hơn là với vô lăng
A. a Franklin
B. a Duryea
C. an Orient
D. a Gasmobile
Many of the 1900 models were cumbersome – the Gas mobile, the Franklin, and the
Orient, for example, steered with a tiller like a boat instead of with a steering wheel.
=>Chọn B

READING 25:
Question 1. D
Tác giả ngụ ý rằng chứng đau nửa đầu
A. chỉ là cơn đau đàu dữ dội
B. có thể chữa trị bằng thuốc giảm đau thông thường
C. bị gây ra bởi những thứ giống như nguyên nhân gây đau đầu.
D. có nguyên nhân khoa học riêng, không giống như đau đầu.
Dẫn chứng: A migraine is not at all the same as a normal headache, and it seems to
have a very physical cause.
=>Chọn D
Question 2. B
Từ “it” ở đoạn 1 ám chỉ đến
A. vết thương
B. chứng đau nửa đầu
C. con người
D. sự chịu đựng
Dẫn chứng: The pain of a migraine headache can virtually disable a person who
suffers from it.
=>Chọn B
Question 3. B
Phương pháp chữa trị tối ưu cho chứng đau nửa đầu bao gồm
A. loại bỏ cơn đau
B. thắt chặt mạch máu
C. loại bỏ cơn đau thoáng qua
D. loại bỏ căng thẳng
Dẫn chứng: Physicians used to treat migraines with medicine to constrict blood
vessels because of the belief that dilated blood vessels were the cause.
=>Chọn B
Question 4. B
Từ “enhance” [ tăng cường] ở đoạn 4 gần nghĩa nhất với
A. ngăn cản
B. tăng cường
C. mô tả
D. nghiên cứu
Dẫn chứng:
=>enhanced = agumented
Dẫn chứng: The new research has been enhanced by imaging devices that allow
scientists to watch patients' brains during an attack.
=>Chọn B
Question 5. B
Nghiên cứu mới cho thấy rằng những sợi dây thần kinh trong não của những người
bị đau nửa đầu
A. có nhiều điện cực hơn những người không bị đau nửa đầu.
B. có xu hướng phát hỏa trạng thái bất thường khi chứng đau nửa đầu bắt đầu.
C. không phản ứng
D. không ảnh hưởng đến chứng đau nửa đầu
Dẫn chứng: The results show that sufferers have abnormally excitable neurons, or
brain nerve cells.
=>Chọn B
Question 6. C
Theo bài đọc, ngày nay các nhà khoa học biết rằng dây thần kinh bất thường ở một
số người nhất định là nguyên nhân của chứng đau nửa đầu, họ
A. biết rằng tất cả họ cần biết về nguyên nhân gây ra chứng đau nửa đầu.
B. đã phát triển thuốc để giữ lại điện của dây thần kinh
C. vẫn chưa biết chính xác nguyên nhân gây ra cơn đau.
D. biết rằng những dây thần kinh khuyết tật trú ngụ trong thân não
Dẫn chứng: The pain then generates possibly from the brain stem itself or from
blood vessels inflamed by the rapidly changing blood flow, or perhaps from both.
=>Chọn C
Question 7. C
Tiêu đề phù hợp nhất cho bài đọc này là gì?
A. phác họa hình ảnh như là phương tiện nghiên cứu chứng đâu nửa đầu.
B. chứng đau nửa đầu và đau đầu khác nhau như thế nào
C. bằng chứng mới của việc chứng đau nửa đầu được hình thành như thế nào
D. những phương pháp chữa trị chứng đau nửa đầu mới
=>Chọn C

READING 26:
Question 1. C
Bài đọc chủ yếu thảo luận về cái gì?
A. các bộ tộc Ấn Đọ khác nhau
B. các loại hộ gia đình của người Ấn Độ
C. các loại chỗ cư trú được người Ấn Độ xây dựng
D. những nền văn hóa Ấn Độ khác nhau
=>Chọn C
Question 2. B
Từ “ marginally” [chỉ ở mức có hạn] gần nghĩa nhất với
Markedly: rõ ràng/ đáng kể
Minimally: tối thiểu
Temporarily: tạm thời
Tentatively: tạm thời
=>marginally = Minimally
Dẫn chứng: Although Native Americans belonged to one geographic race, their
cultures and languages were only marginally similar, and by and large, they had
different ways of life.
=>Chọn B
Question 3. A
Từ “ by and large” [hầu như/ gần như ] gần nghĩa nhất với
Mostly: hầu như
Conversely: ngược lại
Occasionally: thông thường
Notably: đáng chú ý
Dẫn chứng:Although Native Americans belonged to one geographic race, their
cultures and languages were only marginally similar, and by and large, they had
different ways of life.
=>Chọn A
Question 4. D
Tác giả cur bài đọc ngụ ý rằng người Ấn Độ
A. mang theo vật liệu xây dựng đến chỗ ở mới
B. sống ở những địa điểm, tương tự như người châu Âu
C. thích khí hậu ở Tây Nam
D. xây dựng chỗ trú ngụ mỗi khi bộ tộc dời đi
Dẫn chứng: Nomadic migrations required Indians to construct shelters that did not
need to be transported, but could be easily erected from the materials found in their
new location.
=>Chọn D
Question 5. C
Tác giả ngụ ý răng người Đông Ấn
A. xây dựng những túp lều mà không có mái
B. trồng cây để thu hoạch
C. đốt lửa trong lều
D. dùng tấm trải và chăn như là chăn ga gối đệm
Dẫn chứng: Sheets and slabs of bark were attached to the frame to construct the roof
and walls, leaving an opening to serve as a door and to allow smoke to escape.
=>Chọn C
Question 6. D
Cụm từ “ under one roof” [chung một mái nhà] gần nghĩa nhất với
A. ở những khu vực bị tách biệt
B. ở một số chỗ ẩn nấp
C. một cách thoải mái
D. cùng nhau
Dẫn chứng: The Iroquois in north eastern regions built longhouses that were more
spacious than wigwams because five to a dozen families lived under one roof.
=>Chọn D
Question 7. A
Sự khác nhau chủ yếu giữa chỗ cư trú của người Ấn Độ Pueblo và Woodlan là gì?
A. Người Pueblo sốn trong những ngôi nhà kiên cố, nhưng người Woodland sống
trong những chỗ trú ngụ tạm thời.
B. Người Pueblo dùng gỗ để xây dựng, nhưng người Woodland chủ yếu dựa vào da
động vật.
C. Người Woodland sống ở đồng bằng, nhưng người Pueblo sống trong những khe
núi.
D. Người Woodland xây dựng những chỗ ẩn nấp nhỏ, nhưng người Pueblo có
những căn phòng rộng lớn.
Dẫn chứng: Eastern Woodland Indian tribes lived in bark-covered wigwams that
were shaped like cones or domes.
Pueblo Indians who lived in the southwest portion of the United States in northern
Arizona and New Mexico constructed elaborate housing with several stories and
many rooms.
=>Chọn A
Question 8. B
Có thể suy ra từ bài đọc rằng chỗ cư trú của người Pueblo được thiết kế để bảo vệ
cư dân từ
A. những đợt tấn công của kẻ thù và mùa đông lạnh lẽo
B. những đợt tấn công của kẻ thù và chống lại nước mưa
C. bão gió và nước từ mưa
D. động vật hoang dã, mùa đông lạnh lẽo và cát sa mạc.
Dẫn chứng: The ground story of a Pueblo dwelling had no doors or windows in
order to prevent enemies from entering.
On top of the rafters, layers of tree branches, sticks, grass, and brush created a solid
roof to preclude the water from leaking inside.

READING 27:
Question 1: Đáp án B
Bài đọc chủ yếu thảo luận về cái gì?
A.Chữa trị y học của bệnh tim.
B. Những phương pháp trị liệu thay thế trong chữa trị tim.
C. Quy trình phục hồi của bệnh tim.
D. Sự tiêu thụ rượu và thuốc lá trong chế độ ăn uống của bệnh nhân bị mắc bệnh
tim.
Dẫn chứng: The alternative therapies help in relieving pain, stress and make the
body healthy and fit through exercise, yoga as well as meditation
Question 2: Đáp án A
Tất cả những ý nào sau đây được đề cập như là những khía cạnh tiêu cực của trị liệu
y học NGOẠI TRỪ
A. gây ra những vết thương sâu sắc
B. tốn kém nhiều tiền
C. có ảnh hưởng một phần đến cơ thể người
D. kéo dài suốt một khoảng thời gian dài
Dẫn chứng: These solutions are time consuming and costly. In the process of
rehabilitation, the medicines also have a lot of side effects on the human body and
take time to give relief.
Question 3: Đáp án C
Từ “undue” [ quá đáng/ vượt quá]
Regular: thường xuyên
Daily: hằng ngày
Excessive: vượt quá
Severe: tàn khốc/ khốc liệt
Dẫn chứng: Also, they must look after their regular exercise in order to stay fit and
make sure that they do not take undue stress.
Question 4: Đáp án C
Một trong những khu vực chính được tập trung vào trong chương trình kiểm soát
căng thắng là gì?
Relaxation: sự nghỉ ngơi/ thư giãn
Breathing: sự hô hấp/ hít thở
Meditation: thiền
Weight management: kiểm soát cân nặng
Dẫn chứng: A lot of relaxation techniques are taught to the patients that helps them
in stress management, among them meditation is one of the main focuses.
Question 5: Đáp án B
Theo bài đọc, người bị bệnh tim cần làm gì để có cuộc sống không căng thẳng áp
lực?
A.Họ cần suy nghĩ kỹ các vấn đề của họ.
B. Họ cần nói với người khác về vấn đề của họ.
C. Họ cần ngừng lo lắng về vấn đề của họ.
D. Họ cần giải quyết vấn đê của họ.
Dẫn chứng: The various rehabilitation programs also give you information on how
to have a stress free lifestyle. The patients are supported and encouraged to discuss
their problems with the counselor or fellow patients.
Question 6: Đáp án B
Tác giả đề cập phòng tập thể dục trong bài đọc để ngụ ý rằng
A. Phòng tập thể dục là một nơi lý tưởng để thực hiện các bài tập về tim.
B. Phòng tập thể dục cũng là một nơi tốt để thực hiện các bài tập về tim.
C. Phòng tập thể dục là nơi để thực hiện các bài tập về tim khi trời mưa.
D. Phòng tập là nơi duy nhất để thực hiện các bài tập về tim.
Dẫn chứng: Cardio exercise in a gymnasium is also encouraged. This helps in
strengthening the muscles and managing weight.
Question 7: Đáp án B
Ý nào không được bài đọc ủng hộ ?
A.R ất quan trọng để bệnh nhân bị mắc bệnh tim hiểu và thực hiện theo các hướng
dẫn của bác sĩ và chuyên gia dinh dưỡng.
B. Kiểm soát căng thẳng được xem như là liệu pháp quan trọng nhất trong chương trình
phục hồi.
C. Sự phụ hồi tim tiến hành tại nhà của bệnh nhân ít có hiệu quả hơn trong tâm phục
hồi.
D. Các bệnh nhân bị mắc bệnh tim thể hiện các hình thức bài tập khác nhau dựa trên
tuổi tác và điều kiện sức khỏe.
Dẫn chứng: A lot of relaxation techniques are taught to the patients that helps them
in stress management, among them meditation is one of the main focuses.

READING 28:
Question 1: Đáp án B
Các nghiên cứu cho thấy rằng áp lực đặt lên học sinh ngày nay thì
A.nhiều hơn trong quá khứ rất nhiều
B. không nhiều hơn trong quá khứ
C. trở nên nhiều hơn trong quá khứ
D. đa dạng hơn
Dẫn chứng: Based on data about how students are spending time, academic or
financial pressures don’t seem to be greater now than a generation ago.
Question 2: Đáp án A
Kết luận của nghiên cứu rằng lượng công việc của học sinh ngày nay không lớn hơn
trước đây dựa trên
A. cách học sinh tiêu thời gian
B. cái mà học sinh đạt được với lượng lớn hơn
C. cách học sinh làm việc ở trường đại học
D. cái mà trường đại học yêu cầu học sinh
Dẫn chứng: Based on data about how students are spending time, academic or
financial pressures don’t seem to be greater now than a generation ago.
Question 3: Đáp án B
Học sinh đạt điểm số cao hơn bởi vì
A.học sinh học chăm chỉ hơn nhiều
B. lượng bài tập có vẻ ít yêu cầu khắt khe hơn
C. lượng bài tập trên lớp hấp dẫn hơn
D. trang thiết bị trường học tốt hơn
Dẫn chứng: Students are also receiving significantly higher grades. So it appears
that academic pressures are, in fact, considerably lower than they used to be.
Question 4: Đáp án D
Tất cả các nhân tố được xem xét, bây giờ đại học có vẻ như
A.đắt đỏ hơn bao giờ hết
B. tốn kém hơn
C. tốn kém hơn nhiều
D. ít tốn kém hơn
Dẫn chứng: When the time savings and lower opportunity costs are factored in,
college appears less expensive for most students than it was in the 1960s.
Question 5: Đáp án D
Từ “ focus” [ tập trung/ trung tâm] ở đoạn văn cuối có thể được thay thế bằng
A.tiêu điểm
B. tầm quan trọng lớn nhất
C. chủ đề chính
D. hoạt động trung tâm
Dẫn chứng: Social activities, in person or on Computer, would seem to have
become the major focus of campus life.
Question 6: Đáp án B
Theo tác giả, chi tiết rằng nhiều sinh viên đang làm việc toàn thời gian để trang trải
A.cho thấy rằng học sinh bị áp lực tài chính
B. không phải là dấu hiệu của áp lực
C. không thay đổi đời sống của sinh viên ở khuôn viên trường
D. cho thấy rằng sinh viên bị áp lực học tập
Dẫn chứng: In other words, full-time students do not appear to be studying less in
order to work more.
Question 7: Đáp án A
Theo tác giả, chi tiết sinh viên có nhiều thời gian tiêu khiển hơn là bằng chứng của
việc
A. áp lực tài chính đối với sinh viên không còn là vấn đề nữa
B. chúng không thể tìm công việc làm thêm
C. bài tập học thuật không làm chúng thích thú
D. chúng năng động với các hoạt động ngoại khóa.
Dẫn chứng: It seems hard to imagine that students feeling increased financial
pressures would respond by taking more leisure.
Question 8: Đáp án C
Từ “ Academics” trong tiêu đề có thể có nghĩa là
A.sinh viên và giảng viên đại học
B. các giáo sư và nghiên cứu sinh
C. lượng công việc/ bài tập của sinh viên
D. lượng công việc/ bài tập của cử nhân

READING 29:
Question 1. C
Từ “contest” [ cuộc thi] gần nghĩa nhất với
A. thính giác
B. sự tụ tập
C. cuộc thi/ tranh tài
D. sự tính toán/ ước tính
Dẫn chứng:The Commissioners of the District of Columbia held a meeting in 1792
and decided to hold a contest for the best design for the Presidential House.
=>Chọn C
Question 2. B
Bài đọc ám chỉ gì về chi phí của việc xây dựng Nhà Trắng?
A. Nó được đề xuất tại cuộc họp của các ủy viên.
B. Nó không tuân theo ước tính ban đầu.
C. Nó không bao gồm trong thiết kế kiến trúc.
D. Nó được xem là vượt quá mức cho nhà của tổng thống.
Dẫn chứng: His bid for the construction of the mansion asked for $200,000, but the
final cost of the building came to twice that amount.
=>Chọn B
Question 3. C
Từ “ grounds” [ đất] gần nghĩa nhất với
A. vùng đất cao
B. một só lô đất
C. địa điểm
D. đồi
Dẫn chứng: The work on the project began during the same year, and the grounds
of approximately one and a half miles west of the Capitol Hill were chosen by
Major Pierre-Charles L’Enfant, who was in charge of city planning.
=>Chọn C
Question 4. C
Có thể suy ra từ bài đọc rằng
A. George Washington thường sử dụng các bậc thang của Nhà Trắng.
B. George Washington đóng góp vào thiết kế Nhà Trắng.
C. George Washington chưa bao giờ sống trong Nhà Trắng.
D. Nhà Trắng không được bao gồm trong kế hoạch của thành phố.
Dẫn chứng: However, the construction continued for several more years, and
George Washington had stepped down as president before the building was
habitable.
=>Chọn C
Question 5. B
Tác giả của bài đọc ngụ ý rằng việc xây dựng công trình chính của Nhà Trắng tiếp
tục
A. đến năm 1800
B. sau năm 1800
C. cho đến năm 1814
D. cho đến năm 1792
Dẫn chứng: When John Adams, the second president of the United States and his
wife Abigail moved in 1800, only six rooms had been completed.
The grey sandstone walls of the house were painted white during construction, and
the color of the paint gave the building its name. The building was burned on
August 24, 1814, and James Hoban reconstructed the house for President James
Monroe and his family, who moved there in 1817. The north portico was added to
the building in 1829, water pipes were installed in 1833, gas lighting in 1848, and
electricity in 1891.
=>Chọn B
Question 6. A
Có thể suy ra gì về Nhà Trắng từ thông tin ở đoạn 2?
A. Một vài sự thay đổi trong cấu trúc ở nửa đầu thế kỷ 20.
B. Tòa nhà đã được hiện đại hóa trên diện rộng trong suốt một thập kỷ.
C. Nước chảy được lắp vào nửa cuối thế kỷ 19.
D. Mỗi tổng thống thêm vào một số đặc trưng mới cho những tiện nghi của tòa nhà.
Dẫn chứng: . However, the national sentiment was to keep the original form intact,
and Congress appropriated $5million dollars for repairs. In 1961, Jacqueline
Kennedy launched a pro.4 gram to redecorate the rooms and appointed a Fine Arts
Committee to make choices of furnishing and colors.
=>Chọn A
Question 7. B
Bài đọc đề cập tất cả những cái nào sau đây trong cơ sở vật chất của Nhà Trắng
NGOẠI TRỪ
A. hành lang
B. nhà bếp
C. văn phòng y tế
D. phòng lưu trữ
Dẫn chứng: The living quarters contain 107 rooms, 40 corridors, and 19 baths. The
White House contains a doctor’s suite, a dentist’s office, a large solarium, a
broadcasting room, and a two-floor basement for storage and service rooms.
=>Chọn B
READING 30:
Question 1. C
Chủ đề chính của bài đọc là gì?
A. Các ứng dụng của các loại nhiên liệu khác nhau.
B. Các nguồn tài nguyên thiên nhiên
C. Lịch sử của việc sử dụng nhiên liệu
D. Tổng quan về mặt lịch sử của tỉ lệ nhiên liệu
Dẫn chứng: In the course of history, human inventions have dramatically increased
the average amount of energy available for use per person.
=>Chọn C
Question 2. A
Cụm từ “ per person” gần nghĩa nhất với
A. trên đầu người B. trên năm C. trên hộ gia đình D. trên ngày
Dẫn chứng: In the course of history, human inventions have dramatically increased
the average amount of energy available for use per person.
=>Chọn A
Question 3. B
Cụm từ “ in lieu” [ thay thế] gần nghĩa nhất với
A. mặc dù B. thay thế C. theo mọi cách D. chịu trách nhiệm
Dẫn chứng: The first step toward the developing of more efficient fuels was taken
when people discovered that they could use vegetable oils and animal fats in lieu of
gathered or cut wood.
=>Chọn B
Question 4. C
Tác giả của bài đọc ám chỉ rằng trong những năm 1700, các nguồn năng lượng thì
A. được sử dụng vì mục đích thương mại
B. được sử dụng ở nhiều dạng kết hợp
C. không bắt nguồn từ trầm tích khoáng sản
D. không phải lúc nào cũng dễ định vị
Dẫn chứng: In the 1700s, at the beginning of the Industrial Revolution, most energy
used in the United States and other nations undergoing industrialization was
obtained from perpetual and renewable sources, such as wood, water streams,
domesticated animal labor, and wind.
=>Chọn C
Question 5. B
Từ “latter” [ cái còn lại/ cái sau] ám chỉ đến
A. gỗ B. than đá C. hầu hết các khu vực D. các vùng khí hậu
Dẫn chứng: Although in most regions and climate zones wood was more readily
accessible than coal, the latter represents a more concentrated source of energy.
=>Chọn B
Question 6. C
Từ “They” ám chỉ đến
A. than đá và gỗ
B. các nguồn nhiên liệu chính
C. khí tự nhiên và dầu
D. các nước công nghiệp hóa
Dẫn chứng: In 1910, natural gas and oil firmly replaced coal as the main source of
fuel because they are lighter and, therefore, cheaper to transport. They burned more
cleanly than coal and polluted less.
=>Chọn C
Question 7. D
Theo bài đọc, lợi ích quan trọng nhất của dầu như là nhiên liệu là gì?
A. Nó là một nguồn năng lượng tập trung.
B. Nó nhẹ hơn và rẻ hơn than đá.
C. Nó thay thế gỗ và than đá và giảm ô nhiễm.
D. Nó có thể được chuyển đổi thành nhiên liệu xe hơi.
Dẫn chứng: Unlike coal, oil could be refined to manufacture liquid fuels for
vehicles, a very important consideration in the early 1900s, when the automobile
arrived on the scene.
=>Chọn D
Question 8. D
Theo bài đọc, các nguồn nhiên liệu hóa thạch sẽ phải được thay thế bởi vì
A. chúng cần được vận chuyển
B. chúng không hiệu quả
C. việc sử dụng của chúng được tập trung hóa
D. sự cung cấp của nó giới hạn
Dẫn chứng: In countries with private, rather than public transportation, the age of
nonrenewable fuels has created a dependency on a finite resource that will have to
be replaced.
=>Chọn D

READING 31:
Question 1. A
Ai là người sống ở Puero Rico trước tiên?
A. Người Taino
B. Người châu Phi
C. Người Tây Ban Nha
D. Người châu Mỹ
Dẫn chứng: However, before the arrival of these immigrants, the island of Puerto
Rico was already known as Borikén and was inhabited by the Taíno people.
=>Chọn A
Question 2. B
Nội dung chính của đoạn 2 là gì?
A. Các món ăn của người Taino rất quan trọng trong việc nấu nướng của người
Puero Rican.
B. Cách nấu ăn của người Puero Rican bị nhiều ảnh hưởng.
C. Thức ăn được nhập khẩu từ người nước ngoài không thật sự là của người Puero
Rican
D. Các món án của người Mỹ có lẽ là có ảnh hưởng nhiều nhất.
Dẫn chứng: Many aspects of Taíno cuisine continue today in Puerto Rican cooking,
but it has been heavily influenced by the Spanish, who invaded Puerto Rico in
1508, and Africans, who were initially brought to Puerto Rico to work as slaves.
=>Chọn B
Question 3. B
Từ “it” ở đoạn 1 ám chỉ đến
A. sự di cư
B. ẩm thực của Puerto Rican
C. Lịch sử của người Caribe
D. vẻ đẹp tự nhiên của hòn đảo
Dẫn chứng: Immigration to the island has helped to shape its cuisine, with people
from all over the world making various contributions to it.
=>Chọn B
Question 4. C
Câu nào sau đây không đúng?
A. Nhiều người nghĩ rằng thức ăn của người Puerto Rican thì cay.
B. Ẩm thực của Puerto Rican sử dụng nhiều ớt.
C. Sofrito là một loại thức ăn cực kỳ cay.
D. Aji caballero là một loại ớt.
Dẫn chứng: However, milder tastes are popular too, such as sofrito. The 25 base of
many Puerto Rican dishes, sofrito is a sauce made from chopped onions, garlic,
green bell peppers, sweet chili peppers, oregano, cilantro, and a handful of other
spices. It is fried in oil and then added to other dishes
=>Chọn C
Question 5. B
Sofrito được sử dụng như thế nào?
A. Nó được ăn trước bữa ăn.
B. Nó được thêm vào các món ăn khác
C. Nó được dùng khi thức ăn quá cay.
D. Nó được ăn như món chính.
Dẫn chứng: The 25 base of many Puerto Rican dishes, sofrito is a sauce made from
chopped onions, garlic, green bell peppers, sweet chili peppers, oregano, cilantro,
and a handful of other spices. It is fried in oil and then added to other dishes
=>Chọn B
Question 6. C
Nhìn vào các số (1), (2), (3) và (4) trong đoạn 2 cái mà chỉ ra rằng câu này có thể
thêm vào đâu trong bài đọc. Ở đâu câu này sẽ phù hợp nhất?
“ Người Tây Ban Nha mở rộng lựa chọn thức ăn bằng cách mang gia súc, lợn, 15
con dê và cừu đến hòn đảo”
Dẫn chứng: (2)Taíno cooking styles were mixed with ideas brought by the Spanish
and Africans to create new dishes.
=>Chọn C
Question 7. C
Từ “ cuisin” [ ẩm thực/ cách nấu nướng] ở đoạn 1 gần nghĩa nhất với
A. một loại bánh
B. một loại thức ăn
C. một cách nấu nướng
D. một cách sống
Dẫn chứng: Puerto Rico, a Caribbean island rich in history and remarkable natural
beauty, has a cuisine all its own.
=>Chọn C

READING 32:
Question 1. D
Nguyên tắc nằm trong tất cả cách chữa trị cho sự khó khăn trong quá trình phát triển
ở trẻ
A. cung cấp đồ chơi đồng hồ và tàu hỏa.
B. gửi chúng đến các phòng khám
C. bắt giữ chúng trước khi chúng trải nghiệm đủ
D. quay trở lại những trải nghiệm ban đầu
Dẫn chứng: Where one stage of child development has been left out, or not
sufficiently experienced, the child may have to go back and capture the experience
of it.
=>Chọn D
Question 2. B
Học chờ đợi cái gì đó được dạy thành công
A. mặc dù những yêu cầu vượt quá mức
B. chỉ khi những yêu cầu quá đáng được tránh
C. bởi vì những yêu cầu thái quá không đáng khuyên
D. đạt được một cách đầy thành công bởi tất cả trẻ em
Dẫn chứng: Learning to wait for things, particularly for food, is a very important
element in upbringing, and is achieved successfully only if too great demands
are not made before the child can understand them.
=>Chọn B
Question 3. D
Sự khuyến khích trẻ đạt được những kỹ năng mới
A. nên được tập trung chỉ ở trường
B. có thể không bao giờ bị mang đi quá xa
C. sẽ luôn luôn hỗ trợ sự phát triển của chúng
D. nên được cân bằng và dung hòa
Dẫn chứng: It is often tempting to hurry the child beyond his natural learning rate,
but this can set up dangerous feelings of failure and states of anxiety in the child.
=>Chọn D
Question 4. A
Sự kiểm soát của bố mẹ và quy tắc
A. phục vụ một mục đích chung
B. được thiết kế để thúc đẩy niềm vui của trẻ
C. phản ánh chỉ những giá trị của cộng đồng
D. nên được tránh càng xa càng tốt
Dẫn chứng: In general, the controls imposed represent the needs of the parents and
the values of the community as much as the child's own happiness and well-being.
=>Chọn A
Question 5. C
Việc thực hành câu nói “ Noi gương tốt hơn là giáo điều...”
A. chỉ có tác dụng khi bọn trẻ đủ lớn
B. sẽ giúp tránh sự cần thiết về đạo đức và dân tộc.
C. giải phóng cho đứa trẻ khỏi ảo tưởng khi chúng lớn lên
D. quá khó cho tất cả bố mẹ thực hiện.
Dẫn chứng: If they are hypocritical and do not practice what they preach, their
children may grow confused and emotionally insecure when they grow old enough
to think for themselves, and realize they have been, to some extent, deceived.
=>Chọn C
Question 6. C
Ở đoạn 1, tác giả nhấn mạnh về vai trò của.. .trong việc giúp đỡ bọn trẻ vượt qua
khó khăn
A. nhà tâm thần học
B. cộng đồng
C. gia đình
D. nhà trẻ
Dẫn chứng: A good home makes this possible - for example, by providing the
opportunity for the child to play with a clockwork car or toy railway train up to any
age if he still needs to do so.
=>Chọn C
Question 7. A
Từ “ conforming to” [ làm quen dần] ở đoạn 2 có nghĩa là
A. thích nghi/ làm quen dần
B. chấp nhận
C. đồng ý với
D. làm theo
Dẫn chứng: If the child feels the world around him is a warm and friendly one, he
slowly accepts its rhythm and accustoms himself to conforming to its demands.
=>Chọn A
Question 8. B
Đạo đức giả trong một phần của bố mẹ có thể
A. dẫn đến hành vi sai trái của bọn trẻ
B. làm bọn trẻ mất niềm tin vào bố mẹ
C. loại bỏ việc cùng nhau dạy dỗ
D. làm hỏng tinh tâm trí bọn trẻ.
Dẫn chứng: If they are hypocritical and do not practice what they preach, their
children may grow confused and emotionally insecure when they grow old enough
to think for themselves, and realize they have been, to some extent, deceived.
=>Chọn B
READING 33:
Question 1. A
Có thể suy ra từ bài đọc rằng Van Dyck được nuôi dưỡng
A. trong một gia đình đông con và giàu có
B. trong một gia đình ổn định và đầy tình thương
C. chỉ có bố
D. không có thói quen làm việc tốt
Dẫn chứng: Sir Anthony Van Dyck, one of the world‟s greatest masters of
portraiture, was born in Antwerp and was the seventh of twelve children. His
affluent father apprenticed him to a painter when he was just a little over ten.
=>Chọn A
Question 2. B
Tác giả của bài đọc ngụ ý rằng Van Dyck
A. đã tạo ra những bức vẽ trước khi bước sang tuổi 19.
B. có tài năng nghệ thuật xuất sắc thậm chí khi còn nhỏ.
C. tham gia cùng các họa sĩ khác khi ông nhàn rỗi.
D. làm việc rất vất vẻ khi còn trẻ để kiếm sống
Dẫn chứng: Having become a member of the Antwerp Guild of painters before he
was nineteen, he worked in the studio of Peter Paul Rubens for several years.
=>Chọn B
Question 3. C
Có thể suy ra từ bài đọc rằng sau khi Van Dyck rời khỏi Rubens
A. ông ấy giàu có đáng kể
B. ông ấy trở thành một chiến binh quý tộc
C. ông ấy trau dồi nghệ thuật và tài năng
D. ông ấy kết hợp phong cách miền nam vào nghệ thuật
Dẫn chứng: Upon his return to Antwerp in 1628, he was influenced by Rubens‟s
interpretation of the artistic form and produced numerous religious paintings while
holding an appointment as the court painter.
=>Chọn C
Question 4. A
Tác giả của bài đọc ngụ ý rằng tiếng tăm của Van Dyck có liên quan lớn đến
A. những bức tranh chân dung mang đầy tính nghệ thuật
B. gia đình giàu có
C. sự trang nhã trong trang phục
D. tín ngưỡng tôn giáo
Dẫn chứng: During his tenure, he proved that his use of color, his sensitive
elegance, and his remarkable insight were unexcelled.
=>Chọn A
Question 5. B
Từ “ acclaimed”[ được công nhận] gần nghĩa nhất với
A. kháng nghị
B. công nhận
C. đề nghị
D. chỉnh sửa
=>Chọn B
Question 6. B
Charles I đã tôn vinh Van Dyck như thế nào?
A. Van Dyck đã vẽ các thành viên của triều đình hoàng gia.
B. Van Dyck đã nhận danh hiệu quý tộc.
C. Van Dyck được phép đi du lịch rộng rãi.
D. Van Dyck trưng bày tác phẩm trong cung điện hoàng gia.
Dẫn chứng: After years of faithful service, he was knighted in recognition of his
achievements in painting countless portraits of the king, the queen, the royal
children, and the titled nobility of England.
=>Chọn B
Question 7. C
Những lý do nào được nêu ra như là lý do khiến cho Van Dyck suy giảm tài chính?
A. sự thiếu rộng lượng của chủ.
B. sức khỏe kém và thiếu nguồn thu nhập.
C. sự tiêu xài phung phí
D. thái độ hà tiện của ông
Dẫn chứng: Although Charles paid Van Dyck a salary and granted him a pension,
the painter‟s extravagant life-style and penchant for luxuries led him into debt, and
he died without means.
=>Chọn C

READING 34:
Question 1. C
Nội dung chính của bài đọc là gì?
A. Có một phân tử mới được gọi là natri nitrat.
B. Các nhà máy đang làm ô nhiễm môi trường.
C. Các mô hình khí hậu phải được cập nhật bởi vì phân tử mới natri nitrat.
D. Natri nitrat có đặc điểm hóa học khác so với các phân tử bụi khác.
Dẫn chứng:
“ Calcite- containing dust particles blow into the air and combine with nitric acid in
polluted air from factories to form an entirely new particle – calcium nitrate , ”
These nitrates have optical and chemical properties that are completely different
from those of the originally dry dust particles . Due to this, climate models need to
be updated to reflect this chemistry.
=>Chọn C
Question 2. D
Tại sao các mô hình khí hậu cần được cập nhật để phản ánh ngành hóa học canxi
nitrat?
A. Các phân tử mới có thể hấp thụ nước và duy trì độ ẩm.
B. Các phân tử mới có thể rãi rác và hấp thu ánh nắng mặt trời.
C. Để ngăn chặn bụi axit.
D. Cả A và B.
Dẫn chứng: A key change in the properties of the newly formed nitrate particles is
that they begin to absorb water and retain the moisture .These wet particles can
scatter and absorb sunlight-presenting climate modelers,
=>Chọn D
Question 3. D
Các phân tử có phản ứng lại axit nitric không?
A. Không, nhưng chúng tiếp tục hấp thu năng lượng mặt trời.
B. Không, và các phân tử không đổi.
C. Có, nhưng sự thay đổi chỉ là tạm thời.
D. Có, và sự thay đổi là vĩnh viễn.
Dẫn chứng: Companion studies of dust samples from the Sahara and the Saudi coast
and loess from China show that the higher the calcium in the mineral , the more
reactive they are in with nitric acid .And once the particle is changed , it stays that
way.
=>Chọn D
Question 4. D
Câu nào sau đây có thể đúng?
A. Sự thay đổi của thời kỳ băng hà được tăng lên.
B. Chúng ta có thể nhìn thấy nhiều cầu vòng hơn.
C. Hiệu ứng nhà kính tăng lên.
D. Bụi canxit thì phổ biến ở các vùng cằn cỏi.
Dẫn chứng: Calcite dust is common in arid areas such as Israel, where scientists
collected particles for analysis.
=>Chọn D
Question 5. A
Tại sao tác giả bắt đầu bài đọc bằng sự mô tả các đặc điểm hóa học của canxi nitrat?
A. Để cung cấp sự hình thành nền tảng vì vậy người đọc có thể hiểu chủ đề tốt hơn.
B. Bởi vì canxi nitrat là nội dung chính.
C. Để thể hiện các phân tử kết hợp như thế nào để tạo ra canxi nitrat.
D. Để chứng minh sự tồn tại của canxi nitrat.
=>Chọn A
Question 6. B
Từ “ those” ở đoạn 1 ám chỉ đến
A. nitrat
B. các đặc điểm
C. các phân tử
D. các mô hình
Dẫn chứng: These nitrates have optical and chemical properties that are completely
different from those of the originally dry dust particles .
=>Chọn B
Question 7. A
Có thể suy ra rằng từ “retain” [ giữ gìn/ duy trì ] ở đoạn 3 gần nghĩa nhất với
A. giữ lấy
B. mất
C. tăng
D. cần
Dẫn chứng: A key change in the properties of the newly formed nitrate particles is
that they begin to absorb water and retain the moisture .
=>Chọn A
Question 8. B
Ở đoạn văn thứ 3, thuật ngữ “ wild card” có nghĩa là gì?
A. Một quân bài không biết trong một ván bài.
B. Một vật không biết trong tính toán của các nhà khoa học.
C. Một lượng lớn bụi axit
D. A, B và C đều không đúng.
Dẫn chứng: These wet particles can scatter and absorb sunlight-presenting climate
modelers, who need to know where the energy is going , a new wild card to deal
with .
=>Chọn B

READING 35:
Question 1. C
Mối quan hệ địa lý giữa Basin và Range Province và Great Basin là gì?
A. Great Basin ở phía tây của Basin và Great Province.
B. Great Basin lớn hơn Basin và Great Province
C. Great Basin ở phần phía bắc của Basin và Great Province
D. Great Basin là địa hình núi; Basin và Great Province là sa mạc bằng phẳng.
Dẫn chứng: What geologists call the Basin and Range Province in the United States
roughly coincides in its northern portions with the geographic province known as
the Great Basin.
=>Chọn C
Question 2. D
Theo bài đọc, Great Basin thiếu cái gì?
A. tuyết
B. không khí khô
C. những cơn gió từ phía tây
D. lối tiếp cận với đại dương
Dẫn chứng: The Great Basin is hemmed in west by the Sierra Nevada and on the
east Line by the Rocky Mountains; it has no outlet to the sea.
=>Chọn D
Question 3. A
Từ “prevailing” [ phổ biến/ thịnh hành] gần nghĩa nhất với
A. thường xuyên nhất
B. thường xuyên
C. nhẹ nhàng/ dịu dàng
D. nguy hiểm nhất
Prevailing = most frequently
Dẫn chứng: The prevailing winds in the Great Basin are from the west.
=>Chọn A
Question 4. B
Từ “it” ám chỉ đến
A.Thái Bình Dương
B. không khí
C. phía tây
D. Great Basin
Dẫn chứng: Warm, moist air from the Pacific Ocean is forced upward as it crosses
the Sierra NevadA.
=>Chọn B
Question 5. B
Tại sao tác giả đề cập đến cây dương và cây liễu?
A. Để minh họa rằng những cây nhất định yêu cầu một ít nước
B. Để đưa ra ví dụ về các cây cái mà có thể sống sót ở những môi trường khó khăn.
C. Để cho thấy vẻ đẹp của quang cảnh của Great Basin.
D. Để đánh giá rằng có nhiều sinh vật sống ở Great Basin hơn trước đây.
Dẫn chứng:It is, therefore, an environment in which organisms battle for survival.
Along the rare watercourses, cottonwoods and willows eke out a sparse existence.
=>Chọn B
Question 6. B
Từ “ the former” [ cái trước] ám chỉ đến
A. Hồ Bonneville
B. Hồ Lohontan
C. Hồ Great Salt
D. Hồ Pyramid
Dẫn chứng: The two largest of the ancient lakes of the Great Basin were Lake
Lahontan and Lake Bonneville. The Great Salt Lake is all that remains of the latter,
and Pyramid Lake is one of the last briny remnants of the former.
=>Chọn B
Question 7. D
Theo bài đọc, thời kỳ băng hà thường mang lại
A. sự hình thành sa mạc
B. khí hậu ấm hơn
C. các thung lũng bị sụp đổ
D. thời tiết ẩm hơn
Dẫn chứng: Climatic changes during the Ice Ages sometimes brought cooler, wetter
weather to mid latitude deserts worldwide, including those of the Great Basin.
=>Chọn D

READING 36:
Question 1. D
Tại sao tác giả so sánh những rừng mưa nhiệt đới và các rạng san hô ở đoạn văn 1?
A. Chúng có kích thước gần bằng nhau
B. Chúng có nhiều loại tương tự nhau.
C. Hầu hết cư dân của chúng đều cần nước.
D. Cả hai đều có nhiều hình thức đời sống khác nhau.
Dẫn chứng: Much has been written about the diversity of terrestrial organisms,
particularly the exceptionally rich life associated with tropical rain-forest habitats.
Relatively little has been said, however, about diversity of life in the sea even
though coral reef systems are comparable to rain forests in terms of richness of life.
=>Chọn D
Question 2. D
Từ “bias” ( những định kiến) gần nghĩa nhất với
A. sự quan tâm
B. sự bất lợi
C. thái độ
D. định kiến
Dẫn chứng: Humans have a bias toward land that sometimes gets in the way of
truly examining global issues.
=>Chọn D
Question 3. A
Đoạn văn gợi ý rằng hầu hết các loài rừng mưa nhiệt đới là
A. côn trùng
B. vi khuẩn
C. động vật có vú
D. chim
Dẫn chứng: The fact that half of the known species are thought to inhabit the
world's rain forests does not seem uprising, considering the huge numbers of insects
that comprise the bulk of the species.
=>Chọn A
Question 4. A
Từ “ there” ám chỉ đến
A. biển
B. các rừng mưa nhiệt đới
C. cây
D. bề mặt Trái Đất
Dẫn chứng: If basic, broad categories such as phyla and classes are given more
emphasis than differentiating between species, then the greatest diversity of life is
unquestionably the seA. Nearly every major type of plant and animal has some
representation there.
=>Chọn A
Question 5. A
Tác giả cho rằng đời sống dưới biển đa dạng hơn đời sống trong rừng mưa bởi vì
A. nhiều loài và tầng lớp đời sống hiện diện ở biển hơn
B. có quá nhiều côn trùng để tạo nên sự khác biệt có nghĩa
C. nhiều loài côn trùng quá nhỏ để phân chia vào các phân loại khác
D. các dạng đời sống dưới biển tái sinh sản với tốc độ nhanh hơn.
Dẫn chứng: If basic, broad categories such as phyla and classes are given more
emphasis than differentiating between species, then the greatest diversity of life is
unquestionably the sea.
=>Chọn A
Question 6. D
Loài nào sau đây không được đề cập như là một ví dụ của đời sống dưới biển cực
nhỏ
A. bọt biển
B. san hô
C. sao biển
D. tôm
Dẫn chứng: Every spoonful of ocean water contains life, on the order of 100 to
100,000 bacterial cells plus assorted microscopic plants and animals, including
larvae of organisms ranging from sponges and corals to starfish and clams and
much more.
=>Chọn D
Question 7. B
Kết luận nào sau đây mà bài đọc ủng hộ?
A.Đời sống dưới biển có tính thích nghi cao.
B. Càn chú ý nhiều hơn đến việc giữ gìn các loài sinh vật biển và môi trường sống ở
biển.
C. Đời sống dưới biển chủ yếu bao gồm thực vật.
D. Biển có khả năng chịu đựng cao đối với sự tàn phá do các nhân tố ô nhiễm gây
rA.
=>Chọn B
Question 8. B
Từ “ dominant” ( thống trị/ vượt trội/ chủ yếu) gần nghĩa nhất với
A.kiêu ngạo
B. chính/ chủ yếu
C. bất lực
D. lạ
=>Chọn B

READING 37:
Question 1.B
Chủ đề chính của bài đọc là gì?
A. Kế hoạch của James Madison’s tạo ra kết cấu bền vững cho chính phủ Mỹ.
B. Sự không thỏa hiệp tại hội nghị lập pháp và sự thương lượng sau đó.
C. Những sự khác biệt về dân số và quyền lực có liên quan giữa các bang.
D. Những điểm quan trọng nhất của kế hoạch tiểu bang.
=>Chọn B
Question 2. A
Theo bài đọc, có bao nhiêu bạn có mặt tại Hội nghi lập pháp?
Dẫn chứng: Fifty-five delegates representing all thirteen states except Rhode Island
attended the Constitutional Convention in Philadelphia from May to September
1787.
=>Chọn A
Question 3. D
Có thể suy ra từ bài đọc rằng các điều khoản của Liên minh
A. được đa số các đoàn đại biểu tại hội nghị ủng hộ.
B. được xem xét và trình bày như kế hoạch bang rộng lớn.
C. cho phép các bang nhỏ thống trị các bang lớn.
D. cung cấp khoảng 1 tuần cho trung ương.
Dẫn chứng: The delegates had been instructed by the Continental Congress to revise
the old Articles of Confederation, but most believed that a stronger central
government was needed.
=>Chọn D
Question 4. B
Theo bài đọc, năm 1787 bang nào có ít người nhất
A.Virginia B. Dealaware C. New York D. New Jersey
Dẫn chứng: Virginia was by far the most populous state, with twice as many as
people as New York, four times as many as New Jersey, and ten times as many as
Delaware.
=>Chọn B
Question 5. C
Cụm từ “ kế hoạch này” ám chỉ đến
A. Kế hoạc bang nhỏ
B. Một kế hoạch được đề xuất bởi cơ quan lập pháp quốc gia
C. Kế hoạch bang rộng lớn
D.Kế hoạch thương thuyết
Dẫn chứng:The leader of the Virginia delegation, James Madison, had already
drawn up a plan for government, which became known as the Large State Plan. Its
essence was that congressional representation would be based on population. It
provided for two or more national executives. The smaller states feared that under
this plan, a few large states would lord over the rest.
=>Chọn C
Question 6. D
Từ “ shrewd” (thông minh, sáng suốt) gần nghĩa nhất với
Practical: thực tế
Unfair: không công bằng
Important: quan trọng
Clever: thông minh
Dẫn chứng: The delegates hammered out an agreement known as the
Great Compromise- actually a bundle of shrewd compromises.
=>Chọn D
Question 7. B
Ý nào không được đề cập trong bài đọc như là một trong những điều khoản của
Thương thuyết lớn?
A.S ẽ chỉ có một lãnh đạo cấp cao quốc gia
B. Tổng thống sẽ được bầu chọn bằng bầu cử phổ thông.
C. Mỗi bang sẽ có hai thượng nghị sĩ
D. Quốc hội sẽ được chia thành hai phần.
Dẫn chứng: They decided that Congress would consist of two houses. The larger
states were granted representation based on population in the lower house, the
House of Representatives. The smaller states were given equal representation in the
upper house, the Senate, in which each state would have two senators regardless
of population. It was also agreed that there would be a single executive, the
president.
=>Chọn B

READING 38:
Question 1. A
Theo bài đọc, một nhà khoa học hiện đại nên quan tâm nhiều hơn đến
A. những hậu quả của những khám phá của ông ấy.
B. nghiên cứu cơ bản
C. sự vận dụng của gen
D. sự phát triển những ý tưởng mới
Dẫn chứng: A scientist can no longer ignore the consequences of his discoveries;
=>Chọn A
Question 2. A
Từ “it” ở đoạn 2 ám chỉ đến
A. việc cấy gen
B. một thành tựu
C. cơ chế di truyền
D. tính chân thật/ sự thật
Dẫn chứng: As a result of recent discoveries concerning hereditary mechanisms,
genetic engineering, by which human traits are made to order, may soon be a
reality. As desirable as it_may seem to be, such an accomplishment would entail
many value judgments.
=>Chọn A
Question 3. D
Bài đọc ngụ ý rằng công nghệ gen
A. sẽ thay đổi toàn bộ tính cách của con người
B. không còn đáng khao khát nước
C. được khao khát nhất trong cuộc đời
D. có nhiều cái hại hơn là cái lợi
Dẫn chứng: In cases of genetic deficiencies and disease, the desirability of the
change is obvious, but the possibilities for social misuse are so numerous that they
may far outweigh the benefits.
=>Chọn D
Question 4. D
Đại từ “they” ở đoạn 2 ám chỉ đến
A. những khả năng thiếu sót gen.
B. các trường hợp lỗi gen
C. những khám phá liên quan đến cơ chế di truyền
D. những ảnh hưởng của lạm dụng công nghệ gen
Dẫn chứng: In cases of genetic deficiencies and disease, the desirability of the
change is obvious, but the possibilities for social misuse are so numerous that they
may far outweigh the benefits.
=>Chọn D
Question 5. D
Từ “ which” ở đoạn 3 ám chỉ đến
A. những sản phẩm bỏ đi được đưa vào môi trường
B. sự ô nhiễm môi trường nghiêm trọng
C. các hoạt động của sự quá tải dân số.
D. các hoạt động của nên công nghiệp trong xã hội dân số quá tải.
Dẫn chứng: A rise in population necessitates an increase in the operations of
modern industry, the waste products of which increase the pollution of air, water,
and soil.
=>Chọn D
Question 6. A
Theo bài đọc, để cứu lấy hành tinh của chúng ta, các nhà sinh học nên làm việc
A.với các nhà khoa học xã hội khác
B. chính xác và khách quan
C. vì mục đích chính trị và xã hội
D. ngày càng chăm chỉ hơn
Dẫn chứng: Although the solutions to these and many other problems are yet to be
found, they do indicate the need for biologists to work with social scientists and
other members of society in order to determine the requirements necessary for
maintaining a healthy and productive planet.
=>Chọn A
Question 7. C
Ý nào sau đây gần nghĩa nhất với từ “ ramifications” ( những hậu quả xấu) ở đoạn
4?
A. những kỹ thuật có hiệu quả
B. sự phát triển mới nhất
C. những hậu quả có hại
D. những thí nghiệm hữu ích
Dẫn chứng: For although many of man's present and future problems may seem to
be essentially social, political, or economic in nature, they have biological
ramifications that could affect the very existence of life itself.
=>Chọn C
Question 8. D
Mục đích của tác giả trong bài đọc này là?
A. Để thúc giục các nhà sinh học giải quyết vấn đề quá tải dân số.
B. Để tiến hành khảo sát về vài trò của một nhà sinh học trong xã hội.
C. Để khuyên các nhà sinh học tiến hành nghiên cứu mở rộng vào công nghệ gen.
D. Để nhấn mạnh vai trò của nhà sinh học trong việc giải quyết vấn đề thế giới.
READING 39:
Question 1. A
Bài đọc chủ yếu nói về nội dung gì?
A. Công việc và sự nghiệp của George Washington Carver.
B. Nghiên cứu được tiến hành ở viện Tuskegee
C. Tiến bộ của khoa học tổng hợp
D. Việc sử dụng thực vật như là nguồn dinh dưỡng.
=>Chọn A
Question 2. B
Từ “ step” ( bước) ở đoạn 1 có thể được thay thế tốt nhất bởi
A. dấu chân
B. hành động
C. cái cân
D. cầu thang
Dẫn chứng: Carver‘s first step was to analyze plant parts to find out what they were
made of.
[ Bước tiến/ hành động đầu tiên của Carver là phân tích các bộ phận của thực vật để
tìm ra chúng được làm từ cái gì ]
=>Chọn B
Question 3. D
Theo bài đọc, hóa hữu cơ có thể định nghĩa như là
A. sự kết hợp của hóa học và luyện kim
B. nghiên cứu về hóa học của đất
C. nghiên cứu mối quan hệ giữa ánh sáng mặt trời và năng lượng.
D. sự phát triển của các sản phẩm công nghiệp từ cá sản phẩm nông nghiệp.
Dẫn chứng:The branch of chemistry that studies and finds ways to use raw materials
from farm products to make industrial products is called chemurgy.
=>Chọn D
Question 4. C
Cụm từ “ getting credit” ở đoạn 3 có thể được thay thế tốt nhất bởi
A. chịu trách nhiệm
B. kiếm tiền
C. giành được sự khen ngợi/ ca tụng/ đề cao)
D. quảng cáo
Dẫn chứng: Carver never cared about getting credit for the new products he
createD. [ Carver chưa bao giờ quan tâm đến việc nổi tiếng về những sản phẩm mới
mà ông tạo ra]
=>Chọn C
Question 5. A
Tại sao tác giả đề cập đến lời đề nghị của Thomas Edition với Carver.
A. Để minh họa một trong những cơ hội của Carver.
B. Để phát thảo sự giàu có của các đối thủ cạnh tranh của Carvers.
C. Để tương phản đóng góp của Edison với đóng góp của Carver.
D. Để miêu tả sự phụ thuộc của Carver vào sự hỗ trợ của công nghiệp.
Dẫn chứng: He turned down many offers to leave Tuskegee Institute to become a
rich scientist in private industry. Thomas Edison, inventor of the electric light,
offered him a laboratory in Detroit to carry out food research.
=>Chọn A
Question 6. A
Việc nào sau đây không được thảo luận trong bài đọc như công việc mà Carver đã
làm?
A. Nghiên cứu về điện
B. Phân tích về các bộ phận của cây
C. Phát minh ra các sản phẩm mới
D. Nghiên cứu về các căn bệnh của cây
Dẫn chứng:
Carver‘s first step was to analyze plant parts to find out what they were made of.
=>loại B
Carver was one of the first and greatest chemurgists of all time. =>loại C
As an authority on plant diseases – especially of the fungus variety – Carver sent
hundreds of specimens to the United States Department of Agriculture.
=>Chọn A
Question 7. B
Một trong những sự quan tâm của Carver gần giống nhất với cái nào sau đây của cá
nguyên nhân nào gần đây?
A. thuốc phòng bệnh
B. việc tái chế các vật liệu cũ
C. sự bảo tồn các ngôi nhà cũ
D. sự ngăn cản sự tàn ác của động vật.
Dẫn chứng: All his life Carver battled against the disposal of waste materials and
warned of the growing need to develop substitutes for the natural substances being
used up by humans.
=>Chọn B

READING 40:
Question 1. A
Ở đoạn 1, tại sao tác giả so sánh cấu trúc của một nguyên tử với hệ mặt trời?
A. Để cung cấp lời giải thích của cấu trúc nguyên tử sẽ được hiểu một cách dễ dàng.
B. Để cho thấy rằng những công thức toán học phức tạp được sử dụng để giải thích
cấu trúc nguyên tử là không đúng.
C. Để cho thấy sự ảnh hưởng của cấu trúc phân tử lên thế giới ở mức độ có thể quan
sát đượC.
D. Để tương phản kích thước của nguyên tử với các vật thể ở mức độ có thể quan
sát đượC.
=>Chọn A
Question 2. D
Theo đoạn 2, số nguyên tử của một nguyên tử được xác định bởi
A. Tổng các hạt proton và electron
B. Số lượng notron và proton khác nhau.
C. Sức mạnh kết hợp giữa các hạt proton và notron.
D. Tổng số proton mà nó có.
Dẫn chứng: Elements are defined by two numbers; their atomic number , which is
equal to the number of protons they have,
=>Chọn D
Question 3. B
Từ “stable” ( ổn định) ở đoạn 2 gần nghĩa nhất với
A. trung bình
B. không thay đổi
C. nặng
D. bình đẳng
Dẫn chứng: In most lighter atoms , the number of neutrons and protons is equal ,
and the element is stable. [ Trong các phân tử nhẹ hơn, số notron và proton bằng
nhau, và thành phần ổn định.]
=>Chọn B
Question 4. C
Theo thông tin ở đoạn 2, điều gì sẽ xảy ra nếu 1 nguyên tử có nhiều notron hơn
proton?
A. Nó sẽ không có đủ điện cực dương để giữ các electron theo đúng quỹ đạo.
B. Hạt nhân của nó sẽ nổ ở dạng một siêu tân binh.
C. Nó sẽ mất dần notron cho đến khi nguyên tử trở nên cân bằng.
D. Những notron thừa sẽ bị chuyển đổi thành năng lượng ánh sáng.
Dẫn chứng: In heavier atoms, however, there are more neutrons than protons , and
the element is unstable, eventually losing neutrons through radioactive decay until a
neutral state is reacheD.
=>Chọn C
Question 5. B
Cụm từ “ one another” ở đoạn 3 ám chỉ đến
A. Các phân tử
B. Các điện cực
C. Các electron
D. Các nguyên tử
Dẫn chứng: Opposite electrical charges attract one another [ Những điện cực
ngược nhau sẽ hút lẫn nhau]
=>Chọn B
Question 6. B
Theo đoạn 3, khi nào một nguyên tử sản sinh ra ánh sáng?
A. Khi nó có nhiều electron hơn vỏ electron nó có thể giữ
B. Khi một electron rơi trở lại vỏ electron ban đầu của nó.
C. Khi một electron được chuyển từ một nguyên tử này đến nguyên tử khác.
D. Khi năng lượng được thêm vào vỏ electron ngoài cùng
Dẫn chứng: When the electrons drop back down to their natural shell, they emit
light .
=>Chọn B
Question 7. A
Theo bài đọc, tất cả những ý nào sau đây đúng về electron NGOẠI TRỪ
A. Mức năng lượng của chúng là cố định và không đổi.
B. Chúng được giữ trong quỹ đạo bởi những lực hấp dẫn mang điện cực.
C. Chúng là những phân tử cơ bản và không thể bị phá vỡ
D. Chúng nhỏ hơn rất nhiều so với các notron và proton.
Dẫn chứng:
They are bound to their atoms through electromagnetic attraction. =>loại B
Electrons are different from neutrons in that they cannot be broken down into
smaller particles. => loại C và D
=>Chọn A
Question 8. D
Theo đoạn 4, tính chất nào của electron chịu trách nhiệm cho liên kết hóa học?
A. Khả năng phá vỡ tự do của nguyên tử trong suốt đợt va chạm.
B. Lực hấp dẫn điện từ của chúng với các proton.
C. Chi tiết rằng chúng không thể phá vỡ thành các phân tử nhỏ hơn.
D. Xu hướng của nó chiếm đến vỏ electron thấp nhất có thể.
Dẫn chứng: Since electrons seek to occupy the lowest electron shell possible, they
will move from one atom to another if there is a space available in a lower electron
shell.
=>Chọn D