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:
T.B.C. BNYR-B-GNS Test Booklet Series

D
Serial No. TEST B00KLET
1786924 APFC-GENERAL STUDIES
Time Allowed :
Two Hours Maximum Marks : 300
INSTRUCTIONS
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THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES
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and Test Booklet Series A, B, C or D carefuly and without any omission or discrepancy at
the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy wil render
the Answer Sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in
the Box provided alongside. DO NOT Write anything else on
the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 120 items (questions) in two Parts : PART -A and PART-B. Each
ttem in PART -B is printed both in Hlndi and English. Each item comprises four responses
(answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you
feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the
best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided.
See directions in the Answer Sheet.
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Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you
with your Admission Certificate.
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has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted
to take away with you the Test Booklet.
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10. Penalty for wrong answers :
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for
the answer to every question. For each question for which a
wTOng answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even one ot
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for that question.
there will be no penalty

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

48
 PARTA
: Givenbelow arc flve iterns, conprising Sntens in hih
Directions cdosEst to the mEBning,
response (a), (b), (e) or (a) which is of he
underlined. Choose the ShCet srdindy, nderdined
response in the Ansv/er
word and mark your

was researchcd and

2, The hundredyesr
The essay badly
l. platitudcs and in s derelie sats,
contained several
generalizations. (a) Preerved tor historeal
vslE

statements
Únssfe fr onpatn
(a) Incorrect
(c Heyected and tten dm
Imprecise comments (d) Hetaining its oriýnsl tenuty

4. My serendipitous thaunter with the

(c) Often used and unoriginal ideas
man on the bus Was to have n profound
írnpart on rny Hfe,

(d) Vague, subjective statements

(a) Portunate

(b) of historical signíficane

2. The judgment of beauty is based on Sudden and atrupt

the human capacity for disinterested
Achance Vent
pleasure in the natural world. (d)

our victory today we

(a) Indifference 5. Notrithstandíng a of
must be carefui to avoid eling
complacency.
(b) Free of all self-interest
(a) Smug and sclf-satisficd

Sb) A defensive attitude

(c) Not caring for something
fc) Pride

(d) Extremely focused superiority

(d) Pecling of

BNYR-B-GNS/75D
2
 givern in italics. Choose
items given below hasa nhrase the one from
Each of the five and mark your response
Directions : (b), (c) and (a) that best
desodhes the phrase in the
(a),
among the options
accordingly.
Answer Sheet
organizers refused to allow
8. The him
poetry not only succeeds in
speak at the function since he to
6. Her was
brilliantly capturing the
beauty of make speeches that
known to tended to
carries the power to
nature but also provoke and ignite passions.
which is too great and
suggest that
in wOrds.
beautiful to be expressed la) irreverent speeches

incendiary speeches
(a) the unknown
(c) unsubstantiated speeches

the proscribed (d) irrelevant speeches

were
(c) the intangible 9. She was criticized for her views that
often restricted to small local issues and
ignored matters of national importance.
(d) the ineffable
(a) unilateral

(b) illiberal
7. The Government's policies were aimed at (c) parochial
relieving the distress-of the homeless,
poverty
the unemployed and the á) limited
stricken sections of society.

steeply all o
10. When profits began dropping to
a) needy a sudden he realized that he ought
wind up his business soon.

(b) indigent (a) precipitously

instantaneously
(c) disadvantaged
(c) cataclysmically

(a) (d) dramatically

challenged

[PT.0.
BNYR-B-GNS/75D
 parts of whi
t
to forn
KhIIBII the fumbled parts
the knwIEr heet BATdindy,

Wnn maInrehensfble

dsedaion to plend
uilty

) 9PR

12. whcn your stated principles it is difficult are at ods vith your ground
realitics
P
R

to practise what you preach

(a) PRSQ

(b) SPRQ

(c) QPRS

QSPR

BNYR-B-GNS/76D
 acknowledged that
a

13. pe in e
nee it is truth uníversally
Q

reach out to their friends and famiy

S

(cj QPPS

(j POPS

and diabolical nature

14. his vengeful by the ezpression on his face
P

WeTe ceaiy revealed

(a) SPR

(b) QPRS

(c PSQR

betvieen the two rival teamg on more than one occasion

15. bitter fghts

t s
I have tneaseds
(a) SRQP
s
o) RSP
(c QPRs
(d) sORP

(PT.0.
BNYR-B-GNS/75D
Directions :
Read the following passage carefully and answer the five questions that follow by
Selecting your answers based solely on the content of the passage and the opinion of the author only.

The millet project of the MS Swaminathan Research Foundation had three objectives-to preserve
crop diversity in local millet varieties, to increase production and the consumption of millets, and to
enhance farm incomes. The Kolli Hills block of Namakkal district, the project area, is a distinct
geographic and agroecological region of the Eastern Ghats, populated by income-poor Scheduled
Tribe households.

There had been a rapid decline in minor millet cultivation, and a shift in land use towards more
profitable crops such as cassava (tapioca), pineapple, coffee, and pepper. As the Indian Counci of
Agricultural Research (1CAR) has pointed out, the area under nutri-cereals has declined steeply in
India since the mid-1980s -from 41 million hectares in the 1980s to 24 million hectares in 2017-13.

The reasons for a shift in land use include low' yields. Further, processing of millets is a
time-consuming and laborious task, undertaken by women. Additionally, very little was maketed,
and a tiny share of grain was processed into value-added products.

The project intervened in three areas. First, yield enhancement was attempted, using a combination
of participatory varietal trials for improved seeds, new agronomic practices, and new technology.
Community seed banks were designed and constructed to conserve, restore, revive, strengthen and
improve local seed systems.

were introduced. The

Second, customized post-harvest machineries (pulverizers and dehullers)
groups, was a
introduction of small-scale localized mechanical milling, operated by self-help
game-changer.
Agrobiodiversity Conservers' Federation
The third major initiative was training. The Koli Hills,
value-addition.
(KHABCOFED) was formed to oversee all activities relating to training and
label and market linkS
Ready-tó-cook products were branded under the Kolli Hills Natural Foods
were five to ten times higher than those from
established. Net returns from value-added products
grains.

Yields have risen as a result of improved seeds, agronomic practices and

intercropping. There have
shift from hand-pounding to
been significant improvements in incomes from millet farming. The
The number of
milling has reduced the drudgery for women and encouraged millet consumption.
technology has been
private mills with customized dehullers and pulverizers has risen (and the
marketed to Krishi Vigyan Kendras across Tamil Nadu).

BNYR-B-GNS/75D 6
16. What does "agroecological of
region The demand for millet
the (c)
encouraging.
is not very
Fastern Ghats" mean in the passage

(a) Area marked by excessive (a) Millet does not have potential
agricultural yield health benefits.
(b) Area suitable for developing
tourism «
19. rhe introduction of small-scale localized
mechanical milling. operated by self.
(c) Area with pollution-free charac help groups, was a game-changer."
teristics What does it mean 1n the passage?
Area meant for sustainable farming
la) Machinery for processing millets is
that Works in tandem with nature
(qui2UPSAot.advanced enough.

17. There has been a rapid decline in minor (b) Self-help groups are active in
millet cultivation because improving machinery for various
crops.
(a) the millet crop requires special
manures to grow The use of improvised local
te)
machines for removing husk from
(b) the land
not suitable for
of Nanakkal
growing
district
millet
is @qu)2upscmillets has been a turning point for
millet farnming.

fetthere has been shifti towards

(d) The process of milling the millets is
growing more profitable crops irs at a small scale.
(a) the land is declared as not climate
resilient for the production of millet
20. Millet yield has increased because

18. VWhat dóesa tiny share of grain was are

Sustainable farming practices
processed into value-addedi products" being followed
mean in the passage?
was done for. the
(b) larmers are exporting millet
(a Enough not
marketing of millet as a diverse r(c) for
product. more5 labour is employed
food farming
(b) A small quantity of millet is used (d) easy bank loansare
with other grains. available now

BNYR B
GNS/75D IP.T.O.
t
 ie PARI-B
the following recommended 24. Vengi', the capital
Which one of city
21. Chalukyas, is identified of the Eastern
that the public health expenditure of with
of the following places? whch one
the Union and State Governments
together should be increased in a
progressive manner to reach 2:5 percent (a) Peddavegi
of GDP by the year 2025?
b) Erumaiyur
(a) The National Commission On
Macroeconomics and Health, 2005 (c) Salihundam
The Parliamentary Standing
(d) Bhattiprolu
Committee on Health, 2022

(c) The Fifteenth Finance Commission (

25. Who among the 1ollowing was the first
(d) The Kasturirangan Committee elected King of the Pala Dynasty in
Kamarupa?

22. Kautilya in his Arthashastra describes (a) Govindapala Acadlemy

the availability of varieties. of pearls
from the SBY Dharmapala
Madura region hills .e (c) Brahmapala
(b) Shravanabelagola hills y5
(d) Jayapala
(c) Tamraparni river in the Pandyan
Kingdom
26. Freedom fighter Agadhu Samantra
Army.
(d) Kaveri river in the Palakkad region (Orissa) served the British-Indian
service to
HE5Later on he leftthe BritishArmy ((NA)
join the Indian National by INA
23. Which one of the following pairs
of in 1942. Where was he deputed
Dynasty and King of the, Vijayanagara as a Naik in the First Bahadur Goup?
Empire is not correctly matched?
II (a). Andaman-Nicobar
(a) Sangama DynastyHarihara
(b) Burma Front
Saluva DynastyTimma

Tirumala (c) Arunachal Pradesh

(c) Aravidu Dynasty

(a) Tuluva Dynasty-Gunda

Qaui2upsC (d) Assam

|P.T,O.
2EThe
BNYR-B-GNS/75D
 one of the following is provided
Which
with List-II and seléct the
29, the Third Schedule
Match List-I under 1948? of the
27. answer using the code given Factories Act,
correct : of Occupational Hazards
below the Lists (a) List
List-II List of Occupational Diseases
List-I (b)
(Political Party) of Notifiable Diseases
(Central Trade (c) List
Federation) List of Inndustries Involving
Union (a)
A. Centre of Indian 1. Indian National ri i Hazardous Processes
Trade Unions Congress of
Under the provisions the Mines Act,
National Trade 2. Bharatiya 30. Special Officer can enter
B. Indian
Janata Party 1952, the
Union CongresS a mine for the purpose of surveying,
C. Bharatiya Mazdoor 3. Communist measuring, after giving
and
Party of India levelling
Sangh prior notice to the Manager at least
D. All India Trade Union Communist advance?
T

Party of India how many days in

Congress
(Marxist) (a) Three days
Five days
Code :

B C
Oicers J 9.Seven days
Fourteen days
41 2 3 ACoele of the Payment of
31. Under the provisions every employer of
(b) A B D Wages Act, 1936,
4 2 l 3 an establishmnent has to maintain the
the
A B registers and records regarding
wages paid and, deductions made,
3 2 134 if any, from the wages, and
preserve
entry for
(a) A B C D the same from the date of last
3 1 2 4 i
a
period of Qqyizupsc
E
(a)ive years
28. The provision for constituting an Expert seven yearsi:
(b)
Committee' finds place under which (c) twO years
one among the following legislations? (d) three years
Labour
(a)The Child and Adolescent
(Prohibition, and Regulation) Act, 32. There are seven hemispherical containersof
1986
of
radius metres each and each R

ithem is fully filled: with water. The

The Contract Labour (Regulation
(Y water in these is transferred to e
and Abolition) Act, 1970 hemispherical container of radius equal
and Other maximum
RA1 (c)The Building (Regulation
to 1·5 times
ofR Such that a
Construction Workers number of smaller containers get
Conditions of
of Employment and, emptied out.How many smaller
EService) Act, 1996 containers remain fully filled when the
Inter-State Migrant Workmen larger container gets fuly filled?
(d) The
(Regulation of Employment and
(a) 5
1979
(b)4
Conditions of Service) Act,
(c) 3
(a)2

11 (P.T.0.
SNYR-B-GNS/75D
 Tcdegm
Pollowing is the Trial Balancc of a
firm
33. What is thc lcngth of thc
31-12-2022.
radius of the 38.
A8 on
circlc that passcs through
the points 25,00,000
(0, O), (0, 3) and (2, 0)? rcceivables dehte
(a) 2/3 doubtful 1,40,000
(b) 2/5 Trade
|Provision for 40,000|
V13
(d) Bad
debts additional bad debts during the
2 The The firm has a
are f2,00,000.
34. Supposc that x and y arc distinct ycar maintaining a provision for
policy of cqual to 0%
the trade
1 of
variables that take valucs from doubtful debts The total amount
(1, 2, 3,
4, 5, 6). What is the probability rcccivablcs balances, Loss A/c
charged to Profit and
that thc valuc of the cxprcssion for
Xy+ x + y is cvcn?
to be ycar cnding 31-12-2022)
(for thc written off and provision
1 1
debts
(a) (b) bad
creatcd will be
2,50,000 (b) P1,30,000
(c) (d) la)
4 P90,000 (d) P3,30,000
fc)
35. Suppose that a, b> 0. If the cquation
a
following is not major
+ ax + Which of the selection and
b=0 has rcal roots, namely 39.
consideration in the
a and then which one of the following
ßB,
accounting policies?
application of
is correct?
(a) a, >0 B Prudence
(a)
(b) If a>0, then ß<o ACaelemy (b)
Consistency
(c) a, B <0 (c) Substance over form
Materiality
(d) -1<1 B
(d)
:

following information
40. Consider the
his son are
36. The ages of Mr. Kumar and years
back Particulars Units Rate per unit
in the ratio 5:3. Fifteen Date (in )
this ratio was 2:1. What
was the age
(in years) of Mr. Kumar
when his son 7
Jan. Inventory in hand| 200
1
was born? 1100
9 Jan. 8Purchases
(a) 30 (b) 35
Jan. 25|Purchases 300
(c) 40 (d) 45 3 Jan. 6 Issued for sale 100
assets of the business
37. Ina business firm, intrinsic |Jan. 9 ssued for sale 200
are valued on the basis of their
realizable value. This Which one of the following is the value
value rather than
on of inventory on January 31 under
accounting is based
money measurement concept perpetual inventory system using
(a) Last-In-First-Out (LIFO) method?
(b) matching concept
(a) P6,600
(c) going concern assumption
(b) 8,600
(c)
(d) consistency principle (s 10,600 (d) 12,000

BNYR-B-GNS/75D 13
ET\eMo|P.T.0.
41, Article 43 of the Constitution of India are based on
Directions : The next three items
enjoins the State to endeavour through table which shows the earnings
legislation or economic organization for the following rupees thousand crore) of four
and profits (in 2016-2020.
payment of which of the following companies during
wages?
Company
(a) Living wage X Y W
Year
(b) Minimum wage Earning 100 95 74 50
2016 205 85 7-5 4
(c) Fair wage Profit
120 94 77 58
Earning
ld) Need-based minimum wage
2017 Profit 22-4 9-5 8-8 55

115 92 82 75
42. Container X contains a mixture of oil Earning
and water in the ratio 1:3, whereas 2018 Profit 231 7-5 10-5 101
container Y contains a mixture of oil 85 80
90
and water in the ratio 2: 3. If 2 litres of Earning 125
liguid from container X and 5 litres 2019 20-7 55 12 12-5
Profit
of liquid from container Y are mixed
95
together in container Z that initially Earning 130 96 89
contains 1 litre of pure oil, then what is 2020 9-5 14 20-5
Profit 25-8
the percentage of oil in container Z?
earnings
(a) 41:25 44. How many of these companies'
in the year
increased by at least 20% year
(b) 4275 2020 in comparison to the 2016?

(c) 43-75
Acoderny (a) 1

(d) 44-25 (b) 2

(c) 3
43. A solid circular metallic disc of radius
12 inches and thickness 4 inches is (d) 4
melted and shaped into a solid disc of
radius 16 inches. What is the thickness
of
45. In 2020, the relative profit jump over
of the new disc in inches? which company was maximum
the previous year?
(a) 2

(b) 2-25
Oqyi2upsc (a) X
(b) Y
(c) 2-50 (c) Z
(d) 2:75 (d) w

BNYR-B-GNS/75D 15 KENEP.T.O.
 scope,
Which thc following of sets the
of
and
dircction the audit,
46. In 2017, the absolute profit jump of 49.
timing and devclopment of the more
which company was minimum over guides the plan?
the previous ycar? detailed audit
program
(a) X (a) Audit
(b) Y
strategy
/b: Overall audit

(c) memorandum
Completion
F (c)
W

(d)
plan
(d) Audit
investment in
47. The value of long-term fluctuations.
shares is subject to wide fluctuation Account is a/an
A provision created against
based on
50. Goodwill T-me-@uizupsc
in value of investments is
of Account
the convention (a) Personal
Telegrqm:
(a) conservatism Account
(b) Real
(b) full disclosure Account
(c) Nominal
(c) materiality
Account
(a) Expense
(d) consistency

principle of subrogation in
48. Which
one of the following aspects is not 51. The
cOvered in audit?r i insurance allows

system of
of the (a) investment of policy
amount
(a) Examination control
accounting and internal
accounts (b) refund for insured
and insured's
Preparation of books of
(b) insurance company
to
the appropriate
(c) Reporting
person/body (c) auto-renewal of policy

(a) Verification of the authenticity and (d) indemnification of the

insured
validity of transactions

e PT.0.
BNYR-B-GNS/75D 17
 52. Which of following
are charged theto following One among the
expenditures
thne Consolidated 54. Which
statements regarding human
of India? Fund development' is not correct?
D1. The debt charges concept
Government of Indiaforis which the basic Income
of
liable (a) The
Approach to Human Development
2. The emoluments that the level of income reflects
and allowances
of the President and other
the level of freedom an individual
expenditure relating to his/her enjoys.
office
Needs Approach toproposed Human
3. The salaries, allowances and (b) Basic
Development was initially
pensions payable to or International Labour
in respect
of the Supreme Court of
Judges by the
Organization (ILO).
4. The salaries and allowances of measures
the Chairman and the Deputy lc) Human Poverty Indexdevelopment.the
Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, shortfall in human
and the Speaker and the Deputy the Welfare Approach
Speaker of the Lok Sabha (d) Under Development, the
to Human
Select correct answer Government protects arnd promotes
the
given below.
the Academ
egamoicers
using
private entrepreneurs to maximize
code expenditure on welfare.
Tel
E

(a) 1 and 2 only 5Rakw

(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 statements about
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only 55. Which of the followingcorrect?
TE globalization is/are
(d) 3 and 4 only 513 F1. It has fuelled the spread of trans
border currencies, digital cash and
53. Consider the following statements
:
global credit cards.
1. Population change in an area is 2. Securities markets have gained
an important indicatór of economic global dimension with the
development of that region. development of electronic round
2. Population change in an area is the-world trading.
not an indicator of social upliftment
of that region. Select the correct answer using the
code given below.
Which of the above statements is/are
(a)
correct? @quizupsc 1
onysER
(a) 1
only i (b) 2 only
(b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Both and 2
1
(d) Neither 1 nor 2.8
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

19 O*10 [P.T.0
BNYR-B-GNS/75D
 S6. As per
FAOSTAT
Organization (Food and
Database), Corporate
which
Agriculture
so. Which of the following statements about
correct Statistical
of the following
about India's a unicorn' is/are correct?
milk is/are In the venture capital industry,
ranked second production?
1, India
1.
in milk production in the world *he term unicorn' refers to any
2021-22. in the year startup that reaches the valuation
2. India of $10 billion.
contributed a privately held startup can
milk production 24% of global 2. Only
2021-22. in the year be a unicorn.
Select the correct Select the correct
answer using the
answer
code given below. using code given below.
the
(a)
Telegqm icers
1 only of only
gKWACadeny (a) 1

(b) 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1
and 2
(d) (c) Both 1
and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
57. Which one of the following
statements
about the Group of Twenty (G20)
not correct? is

(a) It was founded in 1999.

60. Which the following statements
of
(b) The G20 summit is held annually about Santosh Trophy Tournament,
under the leadership of a rotating 2023 is/are correct?
=E137
(

Presidency. 1. The final match was played in

(c) The G20
members represent Riyadh.
around 85% of the global GDP.
2. The inalmatch was played
(d) The G20 comprises twenty between Karnataka and Meghalaya.
countries.
Select the correct answer using
the
code' given below.
58. The Nobel Prize in Chemistry for the Tlegram:
year 2022 was awarded for
(a) 1 only
@qui2upsc
(a) CRISPR/Cas9 genetic scissors
(b) 2 only
(b) click chemistry and bioorthogonal
chemistry
(c) Both 1
(c) lithium-ion batteries and 2
(a) palaeogenomicsP (a) Neither 1 nor 2

BNYR-B-GNS/75D 21
eN\ER P.T.C
 registers
following next
the
61 Which of the following one of theaddress be
of accessed?
expenditure? is not a capital Which the memory to
66. contains
(a) 5,000 spent location in the
out part. Thisto remove a worn
replaced with a part
new needs to be (a) IR
engine
(b) Expenses On MAR
foreign tour (b)
purchasing a new for
machine MBR
(c) Freight and (c)
insurance of the
machinery purchased
(a) DR among the
(d) Amount spent
on which considered to
secondhand machine repairing a effluents of
to use
before put
67. The industries are lowering the
following cause for
main
62. Which One of the following be the
value of river water?
a correct IP address? is not pH industries
(a) 201.54.122.107 @quizupsc Tlegra:
(a)
Alcohol distillery
manufacturing
(b) 102.45.221.710 i/ Plastic cup industries
(b)
(c) 102.45.201.22 industries
detergent
SSD (c) Soap and
F E
(d) 250.234.123. 124
manufacturing
Lead battery industries
63. In mesh topology, if we have six iFST: (a)
computers, how many links must be
there?
one of the following is not a soap?
(a) 6 (b) 12 68. Which
(c) 13 (d) 15 (a) Sodium
stearate

64. The binary equivalent of the octal (b) Sodium palmate

number 473 is AR (c) Sodium benzoate
(a) 100111011
(b) 100111111sE s5 (a) Sodium oleate
(c) 110111011s1E
(d) 110001011
i FE 69. The human eyeball is comnposed of three
layers. The correct sequence of the
65. Which one among the following layers from exterior to interior is
the error
commands is used to checkTelegrgm:
status of hard disk drive?
), qui2upse (a) Sclera Choroid Retina
(a) CHKDK (b) Cornea Choroid Retina
(b) CHECKDISK (c) Cornea Sclera Choroid
(c) CHKDSK
(d) Sclera
(a) DSKCHK Cornea Choroid

23
BNYR-B-GNS/75D
[P.T.O
 eSanjeevani, a scheme of the
70,Consider the following reaction: 73. Government India, serves which one
of
objectives?
among the following
2H, (g) + O, (g) 2H,o)
a database of people
Which one of the following statements (a) Creates by COVID-19
affected
about the reaction given above is
use of telemedicine
Correct? (b) Promotes the
Ia) The oxidation state of hydrogen an electronic National
oxygen (c) Establishes
increases while that of Clinical Registry
decreases.
promotion of health
(b) The oxidation state of hydrogen
oxygen (d) Efficient
decreases while that of advisories
increases.
oxidation following statements about
(c) There is no change in the as of the
74. recommendations of the 15th Finance
Which
state of hydrogen as well that
of oxygen. Commission is/are correct?
hydrogen is can be used
(d) During the reaction, 1. Basic (untied) grants for location
oxygen is oxidized. bodies
reduced while by rural local
3
snecific felt needs under the 29
structures which hang S5 in the Eleventh
71. The pillar-like aerial subjects enshrined Constitution of
vertically downward from the
branches found in banyan
tree
nusurW
oicer
Cadlemy
Schedule of the
India except for salaries
and other
known as establishment costs.
(a) tap roots A 2. Tied grants can be used for
and
(b) climbing roots basic services of sanitationstatus,
maintenance of ODF
(c) fibrous roots management and treatment of
(a) prop roots household waste and human
excreta.
following was/were
72. Which of the Thungon recommended Health Grants' to
recommended by the pFa3.It in
respect of local create diagnostic infrastructure
primary health care facilities.
Committee in
governments' in India?
Selectthe correct answer using the
C

1. Constitutional status #p
081 f code given below,
2. Three-year term tieat
answer. using the
Select the correct
code given below.
Telegoma. (a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
Qqui2Upsc (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only uo o
(c) 1 and 3 only 2i
(c) Both 1
and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1, 2 and 3

P.T.0.
BNYR-B-GNS/75D 25
CKETD-|
 75. Which of the following statements about 78. Which One of the following statements
the functions of the State Finance relating to Conciusion of conciliation
proceedings under the Industrial
Commission is/are correct? not correct?
Disputes Act, 1947 is
It reviews the financial position of
la) It is concluded on the date when
1.
the local governments in the State. a memorandum of settlement is
2. It reviews the distribution of signed by the parties.
revenue between rural and urban (b) It is concluded
on the date when
in no
it ends in failure resulting signed
local governments.
memorandum of settlement
code given below.
Teegrsäre!
Select the correct answer using between the parties.
on the date when
(a) 1
only
Oqui2vPsc lc) It is concluded
the report of the Conciliation Officer
is received by the Appropriate
(b) 2 only Government when no settlement
is arrived.
(c) and 2
Both. 1 on the date when
(d) It is concluded
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 is made by the
the referenceGovernment
Appropriate to the
Tribunal
Labour Court/ Industrial during
76. CAMPA fund is regulated by which one Act
of the following Ministries? under Section 10 of the conciliation
pendency of the
(a) The Ministry of Home Affairs proceedings.
(b) The Ministry of Agriculture and 79. The provision for disability compen
declared
FE RFarmers Welfarets Environment, sations for the person, who is and for
(c) The Ministry of unfit after medical examination
employment is
Forest and Climate Change whom no alternate one
possible, finds place under which
(d) The Ministry of Defence of the following legislations?
75)a) The Building and Other
in an
77. An employee working
a wage Construction Workers (Regulation
monthly of
establishment draws
Minimum of Employment and Conditions
of 9,000 as fixed under the to get Sí f Service) Act,
1996
Wages Act, 1948 and is eligible .

(b). The Factories

Act, 1948
Bonus
bonus under the Payment of year (c) The Mines Act, 1952
Act, 1965 for the accounting 1951
2021-22. The bonus payable is at the (a) The Plantations Labour Act,
E R

worked
rate of 10%. If the employee, has said 80. Which one of the followìng Articles of
continuously for whole of the the Constitution of India prohibits
accounting year, then what paid is the
to employment of children in factory
amount of bonus that shal1 be mine any other hazardous
the employee? employment?
(a)
(b)
7,000
8,400
Acaemy (a) Article 19
(b) Article 21
(c) 10,000 (c) Article 23
(d) 10,800 (d) Article 24

BNYR-B-GNS/75D
27 QH|P.T.0
 81. The insurance claim received on account 84, Which onc of
the following statements
of machinery damaged completely by is correct?
fire is

(a) capital receipt

nuruku
Officery
caderny (a) Capital reserVes are normally
created out of frec or distributable
(b) revenue receipt
profits.
A
(c) capital expenditure (b) Dividend equalization reserve is an
example of general reserve.
(a) revenue expenditure
lc) General reserve can be used only
82. According to the Accounting Standard-1, for some specific purposes.
which of the following are the
fundamental accounting assumptions? (a) Provision' is charge against
profit.
(a) Going Concern, Consistency, (t
Accrual
(b) Going Concern, Money 85. Which one of the following is not an error
of commission?
Measurement, Conservatism
(c) Going Concern, Consistency, Overcasting of sales book
Conservatism
(b) Credit sales to Ramesh 5,000
(a) Going Concern, Accounting Period, credited to his account
Accrual
(c) Wrong balancing of machinery
83. Which of the following errors is not account
detected by Trial Balance?
(d) Cash sales not recorded in cash
(a) A credit purchase of 1,000 from book
Mr. Singh is credited wrongly to
the account of Mr. Akash
(b) A credit purchase of 20,000 from 86. Which of the following operators connects
a structure variable and its element?
L
Mr. Sandhu is recorded in the day
book as 2,000
(a) Dot operator
(c) Conversion of a temporary shed
into a permanent building is (b) Plus operator
recorded as repairs and
maintenance expense (c) Minus operator
(a) Error in posting from the book of
subsidiary record to the ledger (d) Multiply operator

P.T.0.
TYR-B-GNS/75D 29 N-
 What is the decimal equivalent of the
87. Which of the following is not a top-down 90.
hexadecimal number 5A6D?
language?
ofHcery (a) 23149
(a) C Academy.
(b) 23148
(b) FORTRAN

(c) 23147
(C) JAVA
(d) 13149
(a) Pascal

lenses of powers +2-0 D and -2-5 D

91. Two
to make an optical
are combined combination will
88. Which one of the following attributes is The
instrument.
required for internal linking in HTML?
uizUpsC
(a) act as a convex lens
(a) Name
S
(b) act as a concave lens
(b) Align
(c) act as a simple mirror
(c) Body
(d) not form any image

(d) Link
twO
92. For an inelastic collision between
objects, which one among the following
statements is correct?
89. Which one of the following types of
E

operating systems is designed to

respond to an event within a (a) The kinetic energy remains
predetermined time? conserved, but not the momentum.
my
(a) Embedded
Cadle (b) The momentum remains conserved,
but not the kinetic energy.
(b) Real time (c) Both the kinetic energy and the
momentum remain conserved.
(c) Multiuser
nor the
(a) Neither the kinetic energy
(a) Synchronized
momentum remains conserved.

31 [P.T.0.
BNYR-B-GNS/75D
 93. A train starting
from
acceleration attains rest with a uniform
in 5 minutes. The a speed of 108 km/h 96. Which of the following statements
distance covered regarding the Ordinance-making power
the train in attaining by of the Governor 1s/are not correct?
the speed is,
1. is a discretionary power
9000 m does not entail the advice of and
E

the
108 Ministers.
(b) 4500 m 2. The Ordinance-making power
of
the Governor is confined to
subjects in all the three Lists of
fc) 355 m Schedule VII.

(d) 108 m aquiaupsc 3. With regard to repugnancy with

Union Law relating to the
concurrent subjects, the Governor's
F
Ordinance will prevail notwith
94. An object is placed standing repugnancy, if the
in front of a concave Ordinance had been made in
mirror at infinity. Which one pursuance of instructions' of the
following is correct for its of the
image? President of India.
Select the correct answer using the
(a) A real and inverted image code given below.
would be
formed at the focal point.
(a) 1
and 2 only
(b) A virtual and inverted image would (b) 1, 2 and 3
be forned at the focal point. (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
(c) A real and erect image would be
formed at infinity. 97. Which of the following statements about
curative petition is/are correct?
(d) A virtual and erect image would be 1. It can be entertained by the
formed at the focal point. Supreme Court of India only.
2. It can be entertained by the
IG TSupreme Court of India and the
High Courts of India.
95. The main cause of ocean acidification is
3 Certification by a Senior Advocate is
necessary to file a curative petition.
(a) carbon dioxide oFFICes
Academy Select the correct answer using the
code given below.
(b) carbon monoxide
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) hydrogen sulfide
(c) 2 and 3
(d) chlorofluorocarbon () (d) 1 and
3E

BNYR-B-GNS/75D 33 ereno-[P.T.0.
 98. Cosider the following statements case of the Metropolitan
: Cs2. In
Planning Committece, at
least
rd
of the commíttee
1. The Department of the members elected
of Economic
Affairs is a nodal agency of the shall be elected by the
Municipalities and
Government of India to formulate members of the
Panchayats
and monitor the country's the Chairpersons of the area
Metropolitan from
economic policies and programmes in the proportion
that have a bearing on the domestic amongst themselves. The
shared by them
1and internationalaspects of of the seats to be
economic management. on the ratio of the
would be based Municipalities
population of the
#
is 2. The principal responsibility, of the the area.
Department of Economic Affairs is and of the Panchayats in
answer using the
the preparation and presentation Select the correct
of the Union Budget (including code given below.
the Railway Budget) before the
Parliament, and the Budgets for (a) 1 only
Union Territories and States under (b) 2 only
the President's Rule.
(c) Both 1 and 2
Which of the statements given above (d) Neither 1 nor 2
is/are correct? following are the major
100. Which of the Biotechnology
(a) objectives of setting up of
1
only g
97
Council
(b) 2 only Industry Research Assistance
(BIRAC)?
Both 1
and 2
1. To foster innovations and
o0 (a) Neither 1 nor 2 Sl

entrepreneurship
2. promote affordable innovations
To
statements in key social sectors
99. Which of the following
regarding the District Planning To empower startups and small
Committee and Metropolitan Planning 5iSF FT and medium enterprises
iCommittee is/are correct? 4. To encourage young investigators
for entrepreneurial and managerial
h 1. In case of the District Planning development in SMEs in bio
Committee, at least th of the technologY
members shal1 be elected by the
Select the correct answer using the
elected members of the district level code given below.
E
Ps Panchayat and of the Municipalities
amongst (a) 1, 2
and 3 only
in the district from
themselves. Their proportion would (b) and 4 only
1

of
be in accordance with the ratio (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
urban to rural population of the
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
district.

BNYR-B-GNS/75D 35 |P.T.0.
 101, Which
One among one among the following
observations pertaining the following 103. Which
Nineteenth-Twentieth to the works of statements about the Kailashanatha
correct?
ologists is not correct?Century archae temple at Ellora is not

(a) Alexander Cunningham, (a) The temple

was carved out of rocks
Director-General of the first Eighth Century CE.
in the
the Archaeo
logical Survey of India, was
the view that the history of Indiaof
to Lord
began with the origins of the The temple is dedicated
Valley Civilization.
Indus (Dquizups Shiva.

(b)
John Marshall generally adopted
the method of excavation along
regular horizontal units
fTS P
ignored the stratigraphy of the site.
(c) R. E. M. Wheeler first recognized
the necessity to follow the
stratigraphy of the mound rather
than dig along horizontal lines.
(d) Amalananda Ghosh was the first
to identify similarities between pre
Harappan .and mature-Harappan
cultures. O-0,0,T}
was an
102. Which one of the following
important contributing factor in the
rise of Magadha as the most powerful
Mahajanapada between the Sixth and
the.Fourth Centuries BCE?
gold mines
(a) Easy access to rich
(b) Superior cavalry
temple
(c) The superstructure of the style.
coresponds to the Nagara
and
(d) The temple has both Shaiva and
Vaishnava .sculptures.
QquizupsC
104. Which one of the following
statements
about ancient Indian pottery is correct?
(a) Northern Black Polished Ware
(NBPW) refers to a type of pottery
found from archaeological sites in
India dating back to 600 BCE.
i (b) Painted Grey Ware (PGW) refers to
a type of pottery found over a large
part of South India coinciding with
the Sangam period.
(c) Ochre Coloured Pottery (0CP) sites
are located in South India only.

productive region
(c) An agriculturally
(a) Black-and-Red Ware (BRW) is
never found at Neolithic sites.
system of governance
(a) Republican

37 [P.T.0.
iES
BNYR-B-GNS/75D
 to disablement
105. Which one of the following pairs is not 108. Any question relating by which one of
shall be determined
correctly matched? under the
the following authorities Act, 1948?
(Ancient Text/ Term) (Mearing) Employees' State Insurance
(a) Samarangana scientific work Practitioner
:A
(a) The Insurance Medical
Sutradhara on ancient Indian
architecture (b) The Social
Security Officer
(b) Harmika
A style of temple
architecture that (c) The Medical Board
originated under the Appeal Tribunal
(d) The Medical
Chola Kings
Vimana :A striking feature of amount of compensation
(c)
the Dravidian style 109. What is the an employee who
of temples
that is to be paid to disabled as a
is totaly and permanently
:A hut with a pointed the provisions
(d) Kutagarashala result from injury under
Compensation Act,
roof where travelling of the Employees'
mendicants halted wages drawn
1923? (Hints Monthly
:

were 22,500 and relevant factor

is
prescribed under
106. What is the time limit Employees' 159-80)
the provisions of the
Compensation Act, 1923 from the (a) 14,38,200
which the
date of reference within 23,97,000
Commissioner is required to dispose of (b)
the matter relating to
compensation
to the (c) 21,57,300
and intimate the decision Acadermy
employee? ofEicers (d) 7,67,040
(a) Six months
year minimum number of
(b) One 110. What is the to be working in
(c) Two months i employees required
so that the employer,
t an' establishment,
(d) Three months the majority
with the authorization ofestablishment,
is the minimum number of the employees of the Government
107. What an may apply to the Central
employees employed by to create
of the to authorize the employer
establishment functioning without for
registered under a separate Provident Fund Account
aid of power and is Employees'
Act, 1912 that the employees under the
the Cooperative Societies
come Provident Funds and Miscellaneous
within the
shall require it to
purview of the Employees'
Provident psc Provisions Act, 1952?
Funds and Miscellaneous oquj2U
Provisions
(a) One hundred
Act, 1952?
(a) Fifty
(b) Three hundred
(b) One hundred (c). Five hundred
(c) One hundred twentys
BE (d) One thousand
(d) One hundred fifty

39 Ee PT.0.
BNYR-B-GNS/75D
 are ive trade unione
Federations 113. Suppose A,there
B, C D and E functioning in
111. Following are the Central formed in namely
U
of Trade Unions of Workers an establishment currently employing
:
1100 workmnen. The as membership
1India of each union is follows :
Indian Nationai Trade Union strength
1.
Congress (INTUC) bit
Union A 100
2. All India Trade Union Congress
(AITUC). Union B 370

3.
Self-Employed Women's Association 5
Union : 110
(SEWA)
Union 275
United Trade Union Congress
4. 80
(UTUC) Union E :

Unions iar
Centre of Indian Trade 34 membership,
5.
(CITU) Based on the strength of can be
(BMS) which of the above unions Unions
6. Bharatiya Mazdoor Sangh 2 registered under the Trade
correct Act, 1926?
Which one of the following is the
sequence of their formation from the
elegroam (a)Al the unions
earliest to the latest? (nURUKUL
6, 5, 3
OfFiCERS My
(a) 2, 1, 4,
(b) Unions A, B,C and D only
5
ACADE
(b) 2, 1, 3, 4, 6,

1, 2, 5, 4, 3, 6 (c) Unions B, Cand D only

(c)

(d) 1, 3, 2, ,, O 5t Fy
(a) Unions B and D only
the following COre
112. Which One of
conventions adopted by the Inter
national Labour Organization ILO) has of workers
114. Registration of trade unions 1926 is
not been ratified by India? under the Trade Unions Act,
Forced Labour
Convention
(a) The
(No. 29) (a) optional
(b) The Equal Remuneration
Convention (No. 100)
s
(b) compulsory

(c) The Freedom of Association and

Protection of the Right to Organize (c) optional for workers working in
Convention (No. 87) non-public utility services
(d) The Discrimination (Employment
(a) compulsory for workers working
and Occupation) Convention psc in public utility services
(No. 111)
Qquizu
cot P.T.0.
BNYR-B-GNS/75D 41
 115. The Right
is the of workers to resort to strike 118. P, Q, R, S, U, V and W are sitting
1

in a row facing North. P and S are

(a) Fundamental
Right neighbours; W is a neighbour of both o
(b) Statutory
Right and U; T is a neighbour of R and V V
(c) If there are four people between P and
Common Law Right how many people are there between
(d) Equitable Right P and R?
116. P (a) 1
and RS are chords on a
centred at O. Suppose A circle (b) 3
is
of intersection of PO and RS. the point (c) 5
Which of
the following statements is/are correct? (d) 6
1. If A and O coincide,
then the four top of
parts of the circle produced by 119. The angles of elevation of the
the chords shall always have equal a tower from the top and bottom of
areas. a 10 metres tall building are 30° and
45° respectively. Approximately what
2. If and do not coincide, then two
A O

is the height of the tower in

mnetres
of the four parts of the circle from the top of the building (given
produced by the chords shall that /3 = 1·73)?
always have equal areas.
(a) 10-65
Select the correct answer using, the
code given below. (b) 13•41

(a) 1 only Officeg

ACademy (c) 13-65

(b) 2 only (d) 15-41

and 2 multiple-choice question paper has
1
(c) Both 120. A
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 50 questions. Each question has got
four options, namnely A, B, C and D.
117. P, 0, R, Sand Tare five friends. The mean Each correct answer carries 4 marks
of weights of P, Q, R and S is 50 kg, and each wrong answer carries -1 mark.
whereas the mean of weights of Q, R, A candidate decides to tick in the
S and T is also 50 kg, Which of the pattern
following statements is/are correct? A, B,
...
C D, A, B, G D, A, B, C D,
1. The weight of T is 50 kg.
and so on starting from Question No. 1,
2. The weights ofP and T are equal. till the end. If option (C) is the correct
Select the correct answer using qui20psc
the answer in each question, then what is
the total score of the candidate?
code given below.
(a) 1
only (a) 6
(b) 8
(b) 2 only
(c) 10
(c) and 2
Both 1

(d) 12
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

43
BNYR-B-GNS/75D tetei0-[P.T.0.