CODE-A

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

INTENSIVE PROGRAM for NEET-2022

MM : 720 Test - 4 Time : 3 Hr. 20 Min.

Complete Syllabus of Class-XI & XII

Instructions:
(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e., Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions
from Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
on the Answer sheet.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :
SECTION - A 3. The bipolar junction transistor acts as a switch
1. The number of significant figures in the result of (OFF) in
(7.1 + 7.3 + 9.1) is (1) Saturation region
(1) 1 (2) 2 (2) Cut-off region
(3) 3 (4) 4
(3) Active region
2. In the circuit containing an ideal diode, as shown
in the figure, the average power dissipated (4) Both saturation and cut-off region
through the resistor in one cycle is 4. The number of charge carriers crossing the unit
area (in y-z plane) per unit time along the x-axis
 n − n1 
is given by N = −D  2  , where n1 and n2
 x2 − x1 
are number of charge carriers per unit volume for
the values of x meant to be x1 and x2
respectively. The dimensional formula for the
diffusion constant ‘D’ is

E02 (1) [ML2T–1]

(1) Zero (2)
R (2) [M0L2T–1]
E02 E02 (3) [M0L–3T0]
(3) (4)
2R 4R (4) [M0L–2T–1]

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CST-4 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

5. Two particles are projected in air with same 10. If Tn denotes the time period of an electron
speed u at an angle 1 and 2 (both acute) to the orbiting in nth orbit around nucleus in an
horizontal, respectively. If the maximum height T 
hydrogen atom. Then graph between log  n 
reached by the first particle is greater than that of  T1 
second, then which of the following is correct? and log(n) is best possibly represented by
(T1 and T2 are time of flight of two particles
respectively)
(1)
(1) 1 > 2 (2) 1 = 2
(3) T1 < T2 (4) T1 = T2
6. A comet orbits the sun in a highly elliptical orbit.
Which of the following quantities remains
constant through its orbit? (2)

(i) Linear speed

(ii) Angular speed
(iii) Angular momentum
(3)
(iv) Kinetic energy
(v) Potential energy
(vi) Total energy
(1) (i), ii and (iii) (2) (iii), (iv) and (v) (4)
(3) (iii) and (vi) (4) (ii), (iii) and (vi)
7. Which of the following statements is true for
wave motion? 11. If in a nuclear fusion reaction, mass defect is
0.25% then energy released in fusion of 1 kg
(1) Mechanical transverse waves can propagate mass is
through all medium (1) 22.5 × 1011 J (2) 28 × 1012 J
(2) Longitudinal waves can propagate through (3) 22.5 × 1013 J (4) 28 × 1014 J
solids only 12. A stone is dropped into a well in which the level
(3) Mechanical transverse waves can propagate of water is 550 m below the top of the well. If
through solids speed of sound is 330 m/s, the time after which
sound of splash is heard, is
(4) Longitudinal waves can propagate through
(1) 10.5 s (2) 9.5 s
vacuum
(3) 12.2 s (4) 15.8 s
8. There are 25 tuning forks arranged in decreasing
13. A rubber balloon has 300 g of water in it. Its
order of their frequencies. Each tuning fork gives
weight in water will be (neglect weight of balloon)
2 beats with next. The first one is octave of last.
(1) 100 g (2) 200 g
What is frequency of 15th tuning fork?
(3) 300 g (4) Zero
(1) 99 Hz (2) 72 Hz
14. Choose the correct statements among the
(3) 68 Hz (4) 100 Hz following.
9. The inner and outer radius of a toroid core are A. Free electrons move always from a region of
22 cm and 28 cm respectively and around the higher potential to a region of lower potential.
core 3500 turns of a wire, are wounded. If the B. Capacitance of capacitor does not depend
current in wire is 10 A, then magnetic field inside upon the nature of the conducting material of
the core of toroid is nearly the plates of the capacitor.

(1) 2.8 × 10–2 T (2) 1.2 × 10–2 T (1) Only A (2) Only B
(3) Both A and B (4) Neither A and B
(3) 1.8 × 10–2 T (4) 3 × 10–2 T
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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-4 (Code-A)

15. A charged particle having drift velocity of 20. Which of the following wavelength does not lie in
8.0 × 10–4 m/s in an electric field of 6 × 10–6 V m–1 the range of visible light?
has a mobility in m2 V–1 s–1 of
(1) 2500 Å (2) 4500 Å
(1) 1.33 × 102 (2) 1.33 × 108
(3) 5500 Å (4) 6500 Å
(3) 4.33 × 106 (4) 4.33 × 108
16. A carbon resistor has a set of coaxial coloured 21. A polariser and an analyser are inclined to each
rings as shown in the figure. other at an angle . If the intensity of polarised
light emerging from analyser is I0 then the
intensity of unpolarized light incident on polariser
is
What is the resistance of carbon resistor?
I0 I0
(1) (24 × 105)   10% (2) (48 × 106)   5% (1) (2)
cos  2
2cos2 
(3) (48 × 105)   10% (4) (24 × 106)   10%
2I0 I0
17. Which among the curves shown below can (3) (4) cos2 
possibly represent electrostatics field lines? cos2  2

22. The correct dimensional formulae for coefficient

of thermal conductivity is
(1) (2) (1) [MLT–2K–1] (2) [MLT–3K–1]
(3) [ML–2TK–1] (4) [MLT–1K–3]
23. The radius of a spherical black body is R and  is
the rate of energy production in the body. The
(3) (4) temperature of the given black body in steady
state is

18. A point charge of +20 C is at a distance of 1 1

  4    4R 2 4
10 cm directly above the corner of a square of (1)  (2)  
2  
side 10 cm as shown in figure. Magnitude of the    4R   
electric flux through the square will be
 4R 2  
(3) (4)
  4R 2 
24. A disc rolls (purely) down on an inclined plane of
inclination 37°. The acceleration of centre of
mass of the disc will be
g 2g
(1) (2)
5 5

g 2g
(3) (4)
2 7
N 2 N 2
(1) 3.7  105 m (2) 3.7  106 m 25. A circular portion of radius ‘r’ is removed from a
C C
uniform circular disc of radius ‘4r’ in such a way
N 2 N 2
(3) 9.4  104 m (4) 9.4  105 m that the circumference of the removed part
C C
touches the circumference of the larger disc then
19. Two vectors A = 4i − 3 j + 2kˆ and B = 2i + 3 j + 5kˆ the shift in the centre of mass will be
are perpendicular to each other. Value of  will r r
be (1) (2)
6 4
(1) 18 (2) 8
r r
(3) 6 (4) 2 (3) (4)
3 5

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CST-4 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

26. A body executes S.H.M. under the influence of 31. A rigid rod CD of length 1.05 m having negligible
one force and has time period 3 s. Same body weight is supported at its ends by two light wires
execute S.H.M with period 4 s under the of steel A and aluminium B of equal lengths as
influence of another force. When both forces act shown in figure. The cross-sectional area of wire
simultaneously and in the same direction then A and B are 1 mm2 and 2 mm2 respectively. At
the time period of the same body is what point from end C along the rod, a mass m
(1) 7 s (2) 5 s be suspended in order to produce equal strain in
both steel and aluminium wires?
12 12
(3) s (4) s
7 5
27. Two coils 1 and 2, have mutual inductance M
and resistance R each. A current flow in coil 1,
which varies with time as; I1 = kt2, where k is
constant, ‘t’ is time. The total charge that flown
T
through coil 2, between t = 0 to t = will be
2
MkT 2 2MkT 2 (YS = 2 × 1011 N/m2, YA = 7 × 1010 N/m2)
(1) (2)
4R R
(1) 50 cm (2) 35 cm
2
MkT
(3) (4) Zero (3) 70 cm (4) 43.2 cm
2R
32. An ideal gas for which  = 1.5 is suddenly
28. A vessel of depth 2d is half filled with a liquid of
refractive index  and its upper half is filled with 1
compressed to th of its initial volume then the
3 4
liquid having refractive index . The apparent ratio of final to initial pressure is
4
depth of vessel, when seen perpendicularly from (1) 4:3 (2) 8:1
above is (3) 2:5 (4) 16:3
4d 5d 33. Two non-reactive monoatomic ideal gases have
(1) (2)
3 3 their atomic masses in the ratio of 3:2. The ratio
7d d of their partial pressures when enclosed in a
(3) (4) vessel kept at constant temperature is 5:4. The
3 
ratio of their densities is
29. Spherical aberration in a thin lens can be
(1) 1:8 (2) 15:8
reduced by
(3) 5:6 (4) 6:5
(1) Using a monochromatic light
34. Two identical shaped bar magnets A and B are
(2) Using a doublet combination
taken such that magnetic moment of A is twice of
(3) Using a circular annular mark over the lens B. The time period of vibration in uniform
(4) Increasing the size of lens magnetic field, when like poles together is T1 and
30. A block of mass M = 60 kg is suspended by when unlike poles, together is T2, then
means of three strings as shown in figure. (1) T1 = 3T2 (2) T1 = 2T2
System is in equilibrium. The tension in
horizontal string is T2 T2
(3) T1 = (4) T1 =
3 2
35. A circuit consisting of a resistor of resistance
R = 120  is connected to an induction coil of
inductance L = 4 H. The coil and resistor are
connected to an A.C. source of peak voltage 200
V and angular frequency 50 rad/s. Peak value of
potential drop across the induction coil is nearly
(1) 500 N (2) 600 N (1) 171 V (2) 200 V
(3) 130.9 N (4) 1039 N (3) 96.7 V (4) 32.6 V

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-4 (Code-A)

SECTION-B 41. A silicon wafer of n type material of cross-

sectional area 3.14 × 10–6 m2 with conductivity of
36. A bullet of mass 0.05 kg moving with horizontal 5.8 × 107 siemens per meter and electron
speed 100 m/s strikes a block of wood of mass mobility of 0.0032 m2V–1s–1 is subjected to an
950 g and instantly comes to rest with respect to electric field of 20 mV/m. From these data, match
the block. The block is suspended from the the column I with column II. (Neglect hole
ceiling by means of a long thin wire. The height concentration).
to which the block rises will be (g = 10 m/s2)
Column I Column II
(1) 0.5 m (2) 1.25 m
A. The electron (P) 1.16 × 106 SI unit
(3) 3.2 m (4) 2.2 m
concentration in
37. Three waves from three coherent sources meet the wafer is
at some point. Each having an amplitude A0 and
B. Current density in (Q) 3.64 SI unit
corresponding intensity I0. The phase difference
wafer is
between first and second wave is 60° and phase
difference between first and third wave is 120°. C. Current flowing (R) 6.4 × 10–5 SI unit
The first wave is lagging behind in phase angle through wafer is
from both second and third wave. The resultant D. The drift velocity of (S) 1.13 × 1029 SI
intensity at this point is electrons is unit
(1) 4 I0 (2) 2 I0
(1) A(P), B(Q), C(R), D(S)
(3) 3 I0 (4) 16 I0 (2) A(P), B(S), C(R), D(Q)
38. In a rotor, a hollow vertical cylindrical structure (3) A(S), B(P), C(Q), D(R)
rotates about its axis and a person rests against (4) A(Q), B(P), C(R), D(S)
inner wall. At a particular angular speed of the
42. An ideal monoatomic gas is carried around the
rotor, the floor below the person is removed and
cycle ABCDA as shown in figure. The efficiency
person hangs resting against wall without floor. If of the cycle is
radius of rotor is 3 m, find the minimum angular
speed at which floor can be removed.
(Coefficient of static friction between wall and
person is 0.21)
(1) 2 rad s–1
(2) 4 rad s–1
(3) 6 rad s–1
(4) 12 rad s–1 2 4
(1) (2)
39. A coil of inductance 0.7 H is joined in series with 21 31
a resistor of 220 . When alternating emf of 110 4 3
volt at 50 cycles per second is applied to this (3) (4)
21 21
combination then wattful component of the
43. Surface tension is equal to
current in the circuit is
(1) Surface energy per unit length
(1) 0.5 A (2) 0.4 A
(2) Surface energy per unit volume
(3) 0.25 A (4) 0.35 A
(3) Surface energy per unit area
A B
40. A physical quantity Z is given by Z = and (4) Surface energy per unit mass
C4
44. Two spherical conductors each of capacity 2 F
the percentage errors in measurements of A, B are charged to potential 10 V and –10 V. These
and C are 1%, 2% and 0.5% respectively. The are then connected by means of a fine
maximum fractional error in calculation of Z is conducting wire. The loss of energy is
(1) 4 (2) 0.5 (1) 2 × 10–6 J (2) 2 × 10–4 J
(3) 1 (4) 0.04 (3) 3 × 10–4 J (4) 3 × 10–6 J

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CST-4 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

45. A cell develops the same power across two 49. A conducting wire bent in form of a parabola
resistances 5  and 25  separately. The y2 = 2x carries a current i = 2 A as shown in
internal resistance of the cell is figure. The wire is placed in uniform magnetic
(1) 30  (2) 15  field B = − 4kˆ T . The magnetic force on wire is

5 5
(3) 5 5  (4) 
2
46. Two radiations of photons having energy 2 eV
and 5 eV successfully illuminate a photosensitive
metallic surface of work function 1 eV. The ratio
of the maximum speeds of emitted electrons is (1) − 16i N (2) 32i N
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 1 : 2
(3) − 32i N (4) 16i N
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 1 : 5
50. A particle of mass m starts from rest at a
47. A particle of mass m is moving in a plane along a
distance R from the centre and along the axis of
circular path of radius r. Its angular momentum
a fixed ring of radius R and mass M. Its velocity
about the axis of rotation is L. The centripetal
at the centre of the ring is (m << M)
force acting on the particle is

L2 L2 m
(1) (2)
mr r
L2 L2
(3) (4)
mr 3 mr 2
48. A magnifying glass is made of a convergent lens
of power 16D. If the least distance of distinct
vision is 25 cm. The magnifying power for this 2GM 2GM
(1) (2)
distance is R R
(1) 7 (2) 5
(3) 8 (4) 3
(3)

1 −

1  GM

2 R
(4) ( 2 − 2 ) GM
R

CHEMISTRY
SECTION - A 52. Select the incorrect statement
(1) Lyophobic sols are irreversible sols
51. The following results have been obtained during
(2) Lyophilic sols need stabilising agent
the kinetic studies of the reaction 2A + 2B → C
(3) Lyophobic sols readily precipitated on
Experiment [A]/mol [B]/mol Initial rate of addition of small amounts of electrolyte
L–1 L–1 reaction mol (4) Starch is a Lyophilic sol
L–1 s–1 53. If the equilibrium constant for the reaction
I 2 2 4 × 10–3 N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) 2NH3 (g) is x then the
equilibrium constant for the reaction
II 4 2 4 × 10–3
1 3
NH3 (g) N2 (g) + H2 (g) will be
III 2 4 16 × 10–3 2 2

The overall order of the reaction is x

(1) x (2)
2
(1) 0 (2) 1
1
(3) 2 (4) 3 (3) 2x (4)
x

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-4 (Code-A)

54. Minimum dipole moment among the following is 61. Total number of isomers obtained on
of monochlorination of CH3 − CH − CH2 − CH3 will
|
CH3

(1) (2) be
(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 5 (4) 6
(3) (4) 62. Compound with highest reducing property is
(1) AsH3 (2) PH3

55. Empirical formula of a hydrocarbon that contains (3) NH3 (4) BiH3
20% ‘H’ by mass will be 63. XeF2 on reaction with PF5 gives
(1) CH (2) CH2 (1) [XeF]– [PF6]+ (2) [XeF]+ [PF6]–
(3) CH3 (4) CH4 (3) [XeF4]2– [PF3]2+ (4) [XeF3]– [PF4]+
56. Vapour pressure of a pure liquid depends upon 64. A carboxylic acid (X) reacts with acetic anhydride
(1) Surface area (2) Temperature in the presence of concentrated sulphuric acid to
form aspirin. The compound (X) is
(3) Volume (4) Number of moles
(1) Phthalic acid (2) Oxalic acid
57. Boiling point of a solution obtained after adding
5.85 g NaCl in 200 g water will be, (3) Salicylic acid (4) Glutaric acid

K -1  65. 2-Methylpropan-2-ol on reaction with Cu at 573 K

 b(H2O) = 0.52 K kg mol  gives
(1) 0.52 K (2) 372.48 K (1) Propanone (2) 2-methylpropene
(3) 100.52 K (4) 373.52 K (3) Butanal (4) Butanone
58. Which of the following can be classified as aryl 66. Which among the following diazonium chloride
halide? undergoes coupling reaction most readily?

(1) (2)
(1) (2)

(3) (4)

59. The temperature at which real gases obey ideal (3) (4)
gas law over appreciable range of pressure is
known as
(1) Boiling point 67. Biodegradable polymer among the following is
(2) Boyle temperature (1) PHBV (2) Nylon 6, 6
(3) Kraft temperature (3) Buna-N (4) Glyptal
(4) Critical temperature 68. Cationic detergent among the following is
60. Which of the following oxo-ions has highest (1) Sodium dodecylbenzenesulphonate
oxidising power?
(2) Sodium laurylsulphate
(1) VO2+ (2) Cr2O72 −
(3) Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide
(3) MnO −4 (4) TiO2 + (4) Glyceryl oleate

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CST-4 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

69. If the radius of hydrogen atom in ground state is 75. Which among the following is an ore of copper?
r0, then the radius of Li2+ ion in 3rd stationary state (1) Haematite (2) Bauxite
will be
(3) Calamine (4) Malachite
r0
(1) r0 (2) 76. Statement-I: KMnO4 acts as self-indicator.
3
Statement-II: K2Cr2O7 is not used as a self-
(3) 2r0 (4) 3r0 indicator.
70. The correct order of increasing negative electron In the light of above statements choose the
gain enthalpy of the given elements is correct option.
(1) F < Cl < Br < I (2) Cl < Br < F < I (1) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
(3) I < Br < F < Cl (4) I < Br < Cl < F incorrect

71. The incorrect statement among the following (2) Statement-I and statement-II both are correct
regarding lithium is (3) Statement-I and statement-II both are
incorrect
(1) It has higher melting point than other alkali
metals (4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is
correct
(2) It is the most reactive and weakest reducing
agent among all alkali metals 77. Select the incorrect statement among the
following
(3) It also forms Li3N on combustion in air
(1) Fe3O4 becomes ferrimagnetic from
(4) LiCl is deliquescent in nature paramagnetic upon heating
72. Given below are two statements: (2) MgFe2O4 is weakly attracted by magnetic
Statement I: Ga is larger in size than Al. field
Statement II: The 3d electrons of Ga has poor (3) VO2 is a paramagnetic substance
screening effect. (4) Metallic properties of TiO3 depends on
In the light of the above statements, choose the temperature
correct answer from the options given below. 78. Following limiting molar conductivities are given
(1) Statement I is correct and statement II is
o
as m ( CaCl2 ) = x S cm2mol–1 , o (MgSO4 ) = y
incorrect
S cm2mol–1 and  o (CaSO 4 ) = z S cm2mol–1. The
(2) Both statement I and II are correct
o (MgCl2 ) in S cm2mol–1 will be
(3) Both statement I and II are incorrect
y z
(4) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is (1) 2x + y – z (2) x − −
correct 2 2
y
73. The incorrect statement regarding CFCs is (3) x + y – z (4) x − −z
2
(1) These compounds are flammable and highly
reactive 79. Match column-I with column-II.

(2) These are non-toxic organic molecules Column-I Column-II

(3) They are used in refrigerators and air (Name of crystal (Inter-axial angles)
conditioners system)
(4) They are the transporting agents for
i. Cubic (a)  =  = 90°,   90°
continuously generating chlorine radicals in
stratosphere ii. Hexagonal (b)       90°
74. Synthesis gas is a mixture of
iii. Triclinic (c)  =  =  = 90°
(1) CO and H2 (2) CO and N2
(3) CO2 and N2 (4) CO2 and H2 iv. Monoclinic (d)  =  = 90°,  = 120°

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-4 (Code-A)

Choose the correct answer. SECTION-B

(1) i(a), ii(c), iii(d), iv(b) (2) i(c), ii(d), iii(a), iv(b) 86. For a chemical reaction with rise in temperature
(3) i(c), ii(d), iii(b), iv(a) (4) i(b), ii(d), iii(a), iv(c) by 10°C, the rate constant is nearly
80. Which among the following is not an (1) Doubled (2) Tripled
electrophile? (3) Quadrupled (4) Remains constant
+
87. Which of the following conditions is not true for a
(1) NO2 (2) BF3
neutral solution at all temperature?
(3) (CH3)3N (4) SO3 (1) pH + pOH = 14 (2) [H+] [OH–] = Kw
81. Correct order of boiling point of the given pK w
(3) H  = K w
+
compounds is (4) pH =
2
(i) Pentane
88. Which of the following method is used to prepare
(ii) 2-Methylbutane metal sols only?
(iii) Hexane (1) Hydrolysis (2) Bredig’s Arc method
(iv) 2, 2 – Dimethylpropane (3) Peptization (4) Oxidation
(1) (iv) > (ii) > (i) > (iii) (2) (iii) > (i) > (ii) > (iv) 89. Which among the following is square planar in
(3) (iii) > (iv) > (ii) > (i) (4) (iv) > (ii) > (iii) > (i) shape?
82. Most acidic compound among the following is (1) XeF4 (2) SF4
(3) CCl4 (4) ClF3
90. If root mean square speed, most probable speed
(1) (2)
and average speed are Urms, Ump and Uavg
respectively then Ump : Urms : Uavg for a particular
gas will be
(3) (4) (1) 1 : 1.128 : 1.224 (2) 1 : 1.224 : 1.128
(3) 1.224 : 1 : 1.128 (4) 1.128 : 1.224 : 1
91. Consider the following reaction sequence
83. Consider the following statements.
(a) Glucose is also known as dextrose.
(b) Glucose is oxidized to saccharic acid using
bromine water. Major product (C) is

(c) -D (+) – glucose contains five chiral centres. (1) (2)
The correct statements are
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (4)
(3) (a) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
84. Primary valency of cobalt in complex 92. The number of neutrons, protons and electrons in
[Co(en)2Cl2]Br is 137
56
Ba2 + ion, respectively are
(1) 6 (2) 2 (1) 137, 81 and 56 (2) 56, 137 and 54
(3) 3 (4) zero (3) 81, 56 and 54 (4) 81, 56 and 56
85. For which of the following reaction, value of 93. Which of the following compounds is covalent in
(H – U) is maximum at 27°C temperature? nature?
(1) H2 (g) + Cl2 (g) ⎯⎯→ 2HCl(g) (1) BeCl2 (2) MgF2

(2) PCl5 (g) ⎯⎯→ PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g) (3) CaCl2 (4) SrF2
94. Oxidation state of P in H4P2O7 is
(3) N2O4 (g) ⎯⎯→ 2NO2 (g)
(1) + 5 (2) + 4
(4) NH4HS(s) ⎯⎯→ NH3 (g) + H2S(g) (3) + 3 (4) + 6

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CST-4 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

95. For the cell reaction 98. Consider the following statements.
2Cr(s) + 3Fe2+ (aq) ⎯⎯→ 2Cr 3 + (aq) + 3Fe(s) (a) Boiling points of aldehydes are higher than
ethers of comparable molecular mass.
The standard Gibbs energy (rG°) is [Given:
(b) Propanone is miscible with water in all
Eo = −0.44 V and Eo = −0.74 V]
Fe2 + /Fe Cr 3 + /Cr proportions.
(1) –153.5 kJ mol–1 (2) – 173.7 kJ mol–1 (c) Methanal and ethanal are gases at room
(3) 125.2 kJ mol–1 (4) 192.6 kJ mol–1 temperature.
96. Incorrect statement among the following is The incorrect statement(s) is/are
(1) Aniline is separated by steam distillation from (1) (c) only
aniline-water mixture (2) (b) only
(2) Different fractions of crude oil in petroleum (3) (a) and (b) only
industry are separated by fractional
(4) (b) and (c) only
distillation
99. For which of the following reaction, enthalpy
(3) Thin layer chromatography is a type of
partition chromatography change is equal to enthalpy of formation?

(4) Silica gel and alumina are commonly used 1

(1) C (Graphite) + O (g) ⎯⎯→ CO(g)
adsorbents in column chromatography 2 2
97. Consider the following reaction sequence (2) S (Rhombic) + O2 (l) ⎯⎯→ SO2 (g)

(3) 4P (White) + 3O2 (g) ⎯⎯→ 2P2O3 (s)

Incorrect statement about B is (4) H2 (g) + I2 (g) ⎯⎯→ 2HI(g)

(1) Degree of unsaturation is 5
100. Calculated magnetic moment of complex
(2) It reduces Tollens’ reagent [Ti(H2O)6]Cl3 is (Atomic number of Ti is = 22)
(3) It forms CHI3 on reaction with I2/NaOH
(1) 3 BM (2) 7 BM
(4) It forms ketal on reaction with excess
methanol in presence of dry HCl gas (3) 15 BM (4) 24 BM

BOTANY
SECTION - A 104. Annual rings that are formed due to secondary
growth are clearly seen in
101. Leaf base in angiosperms may bear two small
leaf-like structures. These structures are called (1) Roots of aquatic plants
(1) Petioles (2) Stipules (2) Stem of trees in tropical region
(3) Buds (4) Bracts (3) Both roots and stem of trees in tropical region
102. Select the incorrect match from the following. (4) Stem of trees in temperate regions
(1) Tulip – Bisexual flowers 105. In which of the following chromosomes, the p and
(2) Petunia – Endospermous seed q arms are differentiated?
(3) Aloe – Calyx (3 + 3) and Corolla (3 + 3) (a) Sub-metacentric (b) Telocentric
(4) Tobacco – Epipetalous androecium (c) Metacentric (d) Acrocentric
103. Cuticle is usually absent on the outer surface of The correct one(s) is/are
epidermis in
(1) (a) and (d) only
(1) Roots
(2) (a) only
(2) Stem
(3) (a) and (c) only
(3) Phyllodes
(4) All (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(4) Phylloclade

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-4 (Code-A)

106. All of the following statements are true w.r.t. 113. All the buses of Delhi were converted to run on
aleuroplast, except CNG by the end of
(1) It is double membrane bound structure (1) 2000 (2) 2002
(2) It contains protein digesting enzymes (3) 2004 (4) 2006
(3) It is found in seeds 114. Match the following columns w.r.t. various
(4) It is a colourless plastid scientists and their respective discovery of plant
growth regulators.
107. The fluid mosaic model of cell membrane was
proposed by Column I Column II
(1) Wilkins and Franklin A. F.W. Went (i) Gibberellins
(2) Watson and Crick
B. Cousins (ii) Kinetin
(3) Singer and Nicolson
(4) Schleiden and Schwann C. E. Kurosawa (iii) Auxin

108. The correct sequence of various stages for D. F. Skoog (iv) Ethylene
synthesis of sugar during Calvin cycle is
A B C D
(1) Carboxylation → Regeneration → Reduction
(1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(2) Carboxylation → Reduction → Regeneration (2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(3) Reduction → Carboxylation → Regeneration (3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) Regeneration → Carboxylation → Reduction (4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
109. In the process of transcription in eukaryotes, the 115. Gemmules are asexual reproductive structure of
RNA polymerase II transcribes
(1) Penicillium (2) Hydra
(1) Precursor of mRNA
(3) Amoeba (4) Sponges
(2) tRNA
116. Seeds in which of the given plant has no residual
(3) rRNAs – 18S, 5S endosperm as it is completely used up during
(4) SnRNAs embryo development?
110. During post-transcriptional modification, splicing (1) Groundnut (2) Barley
does not occur in cells of (3) Castor (4) Maize
(1) E. Coli (2) Plants 117. Match the following column I with column II and
(3) Algae (4) Animals select the correct option.
111. During DNA replication, okazaki fragments are Column I Column II
(1) Continuous strands
A. Ladybird (i) Nucleopolyhedrovirus
(2) Produced on template with polarity 3 ' → 5 '
(3) Produced on template with polarity 5 ' → 3 '
(4) Also called leading strand B. Bacillus (ii) Mosquito
thuringiensis
112. Read the given statements stating them true (T)
or false (F) and select the correct option. C. Baculoviruses (iii) Aphids
(A) The term biodiversity was popularised by
sociobiologist Edward Wilson. D. Dragonflies (iv) Butterfly caterpillar
(B) Eastern ghats have greater amphibian
A B C D
species diversity as compared to western
ghats. (1) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

(C) Ecosystem diversity is quite low in India. (2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

(1) A –T, B – T, C – T (2) A – F, B – T, C – F (3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(3) A – F, B – F, C – T (4) A – T, B – F, C – F (4) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

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118. The process of absorption of water by hydrophilic (3) Monograph – Contains information of all
solid particles of a substance without forming a plant species found in a
solution is called particular area.
(1) Imbibition (2) Mass flow (4) Taxonomic keys – Analytical in nature.
(3) Plasmolysis (4) Guttation 126. The end product of glycolysis
119. Which among the following bacteria carries out
(1) Enters mitochondrial matrix and undergoes
denitrification?
oxidative decarboxylation
(1) Nitrosomonas (2) Nitrococcus
(2) Is a 2C compound
(3) Thiobacillus (4) Nitrobacter
(3) Forms 3C Acetyl CoA
120. Read the following statements and select the
correct option. (4) Enters directly Krebs’ cycle
Statement A: Mitosis is seen in both diploid and 127. Which of the following leads to resistance to
haploid cells. maize stem borers?
Statement B: Meiosis involves two sequential (1) High aspartic acid and high nitrogen
cycles of nuclear and cell division but only a
(2) Low aspartic acid and nitrogen
single cycle of DNA replication.
(3) High aspartic acid and low nitrogen
(1) Only statement A is correct
(4) Low aspartic acid and high nitrogen
(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Both statements are incorrect 128. Select the organism which shows the below
graph for its homeostasis.
(4) Both statements are correct
121. Which of the following phase can last for months
or years in oocytes of some vertebrates?
(1) Diakinesis (2) Diplotene
(3) Leptotene (4) Zygotene
122. Coralloid roots
(1) Are found in Pinus
(2) Have fungal associations
(3) Are associated with N2 – fixing cyanobacteria
(1) Humans (2) Nearly all plants
(4) Possess root hairs
(3) Mammals (4) All birds
123. Select the odd one out w.r.t life cycle patterns of
the given algae 129. In the given food chain, the maximum energy will
(1) Ectocarpus (2) Polysiphonia be present at which trophic level?
(3) Spirogyra (4) Kelps
124. In which of the following taxonomic categories,
man is not classified?
(1) Chordata (2) Diptera
(3) Hominidae (4) Primata
125. Select the incorrect match.
(1) Flora – Actual account of
distribution of plants of a (1) (D) (2) (C)
given area (3) (B) (4) (A)
(2) Manual – Useful in providing 130. Mark the protist that do not have flagella as its
information for locomotory structure.
identification of names of
(1) Gonyaulax (2) Euglena
various species found in
an area (3) Trypanosoma (4) Paramecium

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-4 (Code-A)

131. Match the columns and select the correct option SECTION-B

Column I Column II 136. In monocotyledonous seeds, coleoptile is

(1) The sheath that encloses plumule
a. Mycoplasma (i) Spore producing
eukaryote (2) The covering of endosperm
(3) Inner protective layer of seed coat
b. Nostoc (ii) Wall-less prokaryote
(4) A shield shaped cotyledon
c. Euglena (iii) Oxygenic 137. Which cells in flowering plants help in
photoautotroph maintaining the pressure gradient in the sieve
d. Slime mould (iv) Wall-less autotroph tubes?
(1) Complementary cells
a b c d
(2) Albuminous cells
(1) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(3) Sieve cells
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(4) Companion cells
(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) 138. Match the following columns and select the
(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) correct option.
132. The rod shaped virus that infect plants of Column I Column II
solanaceae family is/has
A. Lysosome (i) Synthesizes
(1) ssRNA as its genetic material steroidal
(2) Known as bacteriophage hormones
(3) Six tail fibers B. Inclusion body (ii) Contains
(4) Devoid of protein coat excretory products
133. In honey bee C. Smooth (iii) Formed by the
a. Male bees are always haploid endoplasmic process of
reticulum packaging in Golgi
b. Only queens develop from fertilised egg
apparatus
c. Drones develop parthenogenetically
D. Vacuole (iv) Not bound by unit
Choose the correct one(s)
membrane
(1) a and b (2) b and c
A B C D
(3) a and c (4) c only
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
134. All of the following conditions or disorders arise
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
when there is failure of segregation of chromatids
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
during cell division cycle, except
(4) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(1) Trisomy
139. Read the given statements and select the
(2) Polyploidy
correct option.
(3) Turner’s syndrome
Statement A: Thinning of egg shells in predatory
(4) Monosomy birds is due to biomagnification.
135. Select the incorrect one for sickle cell anaemia Statement B: Higher the amount of organic
(1) It is an autosomal recessive disorder matter in water bodies causes a drop in DO
content of water.
(2) Caused by substitution of valine by glutamic
(1) Only statement A is correct
acid
(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) It occurs due to point mutation
(3) Both statements are correct
(4) Can be transmitted from parents to offspring
where both the parents are carrier for genes (4) Both statements are incorrect

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CST-4 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

140. Relationship between species richness (S) and (3) Rum

area (A) represented in the following graph is (4) Wine
described by which of the given mathematical
145. Sporophyte in mosses
expression?
(1) Is less elaborate than that in liverworts
(2) Consists of foot, seta and capsule
(3) Is free-living and photosynthetic
(4) Develops from specialised structures called
gemmae
146. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t.
transpiration.
(1) It is the evaporative loss of water by plants
(1) log S = log C + Z log A
(2) It transports minerals from the soil to all parts
(2) S = CAZ
of the plant
(3) Z = CAS
(3) It keeps the cell flaccid
(4) log Z = log S + C log A
(4) It cools the leaf surface
141. In the structure of DNA, N-glycosidic bond joins
147. Man-made ecosystem are
(1) Two nitrogenous bases
a. Estuary
(2) Purines to ribose sugar
b. Crop fields
(3) Pyrimidines to pentose sugar
c. River
(4) Nucleoside to phosphate
d. Aquarium
142. By the application of which of the given plant
(1) a and d
hormones, farmers can prepare weed-free
lawns? (2) b and c

(1) Cytokinin (3) Only b

(2) 2, 4 - D (4) b and d

(3) Ethephon 148. Some organisms breed only once in their lifetime
such as
(4) Abscisic acid
(1) Birds
143. Read the following statements and select the
correct option. (2) Pacific salmon fish

Statement-A : The synergid cell after triple (3) Humans

fusion becomes primary endosperm cell. (4) Mammals
Statement-B : Syngamy is the fusion of one 149. Term recombination was proposed by
male gamete with the nucleus of egg cell. (1) T. H. Morgan
(1) Only statement A is correct (2) Sturtevant
(2) Only statement B is correct (3) Sutton
(3) Both statements A and B are correct (4) Boveri
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect 150. Choose the odd one w.r.t sac fungi
144. The fermented beverage obtained without (1) Aspergillus
distillation is
(2) Albugo
(1) Whisky
(3) Neurospora
(2) Brandy
(4) Claviceps

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-4 (Code-A)

ZOOLOGY
SECTION - A C. Movement of tongue uses contractile
151. At what level, trachea divides into right and left property of muscles.
primary bronchi? D. Methods of locomotion performed by animals
(1) 7th thoracic vertebra (2) 5th thoracic vertebra vary with their habitats and the demand of
the situation.
(3) 7th cervical vertebra (4) 6th cervical vertebra
A B C D
152. Identify the figure given below and select the
incorrect match of the labelled parts A, B, C and (1) T T T T
D with their respective description. (2) F F T T
(3) T T F F
(4) F T T F
155. Read the given statements w.r.t. cockroach.
(A) Heart of cockroach consists of an elongated
muscular tube lying along mid ventral line of
thorax and abdomen.
(B) In the head region, the brain is represented
by supra-oesophageal ganglion which
supplies nerves to antennae and compound
eyes.
Select the correct option.

(1) A Urine produced by kidneys exit (1) Both statements (A) and (B) are correct
through this and passes into a (2) Both statements (A) and (B) are incorrect
common sac (3) Only statement (A) is correct
(2) B During urination, urine is expelled (4) Only statement (B) is correct
from the bladder through this 156. Which of the following is not a secretion of
exocrine gland?
(3) C Secretes antidiuretic hormone
when blood osmolarity rises above (1) Saliva (2) Oxytocin
a set point (3) Pepsin (4) Milk

(4) D Structure that stores urine 157. Match column-I with column-II and select the
correct option w.r.t. stomach.
153. Which is the common feature between Euglena Column-I Column-II
and sponges?
(a) Mucus neck cell (i) Mucus
(1) Presence of cilia
(b) Oxyntic cell (ii) Intrinsic factor
(2) Presence of flagella
(c) Chief cell (iii) Pepsinogen
(3) Presence of pseudopodia
(iv) HCl
(4) Presence of tentacles
(a) (b) (c)
154. Consider the given statements and choose the
(1) (i) (iii) (ii)
option which correctly states them as true(T) or
false(F). (2) (i) (ii) (iii)

A. Locomotion requires a perfect coordinated (3) (ii) (iv) (iii)

activity of muscular and skeletal system only. (4) (i) (iv) (ii)
B. Macrophages as well as erythrocytes in 158. Principal organ for absorption of nutrients is
blood move using pseudopodia formed by (1) Stomach (2) Large intestine
the streaming of protoplasm. (3) Small intestine (4) Mouth

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CST-4 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

159. An injury or trauma stimulates the ______ in the A B C D

blood to release ______ which activates the (1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
mechanism of coagulation. Choose the correct
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
option that fills the blanks respectively.
(1) Leucocytes, Thrombin (3) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(2) Thrombocytes, Thromboplastin (4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(3) Erythrocytes, Prothrombin 165. Which of the following structures undergo
(4) Platelets, Fibrin cleavage to form embryo?

160. Choose the correct option to complete the (1) Zygote (2) Foetus
analogy. (3) Ovum (4) Sperm
Between right atrium and right ventricle : 166. Choose the incorrect statement from the
Tricuspid valve :: Between left ventricle and following given options.
aorta : ___________
(1) In adults, each testis is oval in shape, with a
(1) Semilunar valve (2) Pulmonary valve length of about 4 to 5 cm.
(3) Bicuspid valve (4) Mitral valve (2) Testis is covered by loose connective tissue.
161. The granulocytes which are involved in (3) Each testis has about 250 compartments
inflammatory reactions secrete all of the following
called testicular lobules.
except
(4) Temperature of testis within scrotum is lower
(1) Histamine (2) Serotonin
than the normal internal body temperature.
(3) Adrenaline (4) Heparin
167. Select the male accessory gland which is
162. All of the following are poikilothermous animals
unpaired and contributes in secretion of seminal
except
plasma.
(1) Labeo (2) Hyla
(1) Seminal vesicle (2) Prostate gland
(3) Struthio (4) Alligator
(3) Bulbourethral gland (4) Cowper’s gland
163. Assertion (A): The neural system of Hydra is
better organised than insects. 168. Spermiation is a process in which sperms are
Reason (R): Insects have a brain along with a (1) Detached from Sertoli cells and are finally
number of ganglia and neural tissues. released from the seminiferous tubules
In the light of above statements, select the (2) Produced within seminiferous tubules
correct option. (3) Embedded in cells of Sertoli for their
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the nourishment
correct explanation of (A) (4) Transported from testis to epididymis
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
169. Following are the stringent measures taken in the
correct explanation of (A)
dairy farm management. Choose the incorrect
(3) (A) is true, (R) is false measure.
(4) (A) is false, (R) is true (1) Selection of good breeds having high yielding
164. Match items in column-I with those in column-II potential, combined with resistance to
and choose the correct option. diseases.
Column-I Column-II (2) The feeding of cattle should be carried out in
a scientific manner – with special emphasis
A. Cyclostomata (i) Mouth without jaws
mainly on the quantity of fodder only.
B. Chondrichthyes (ii) Exclusively
(3) Regular inspections with proper record
oviparous
keeping that would help to identify and rectify
C. Aves (iii) Gills without the problems as early as possible.
operculum (4) Cleanliness and hygiene is of paramount
D. Mammalia (iv) Unique in importance while milking, storage and
possessing hair transport of milk and its products.

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170. Read the statements A and B carefully and select c. Catalyse removal of (iii) Transferases
the correct option. groups from
Statement (A): Among non-infectious diseases, substrates by
cancer is the major cause of death all over the mechanism other
globe. than hydrolysis
Statement (B): Malignant malaria caused by leaving double bonds
Plasmodium malariae is the most serious one.
d. Catalyse linking (iv) Ligases
(1) Statements (A) and (B) are correct together of 2
(2) Statements (A) and (B) are incorrect compounds
(3) Only statement (A) is correct (v) Hydrolases
(4) Only statement (B) is correct
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
171. Read the given statements carefully w.r.t. health
and select the correct option. (2) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(v), d(i)
(1) Normal cells show a property called contact
inhibition which appears to be lost in (4) a(iii), b(v), c(ii), d(iv)
cancerous cells. 174. Select the correct match among the following.
(2) Some of the diseases like AIDS are non-fatal. (1) Collagen – Intracellular ground substance
(3) When people are healthy they are more (2) Toxin – Codeine
deficient at work. (3) Lectin – Ricin
(4) Reproductively healthy society means (4) Alkaloid – Morphine
increase in the IMR and MMR.
175. Choose the correct description of periodic
172. Read the given statements A, B and C and select abstinence from the given options.
the correct option. (1) Abstaining from coitus in the period of
(A) All enzymes are proteinaceous in nature. intense lactation following parturition
(B) Some competitive inhibitors are often used in (2) Withdrawal of penis from the vagina just
the control of bacterial pathogens. before ejaculation
(C) Active site of an enzyme is formed by the (3) Avoiding intercourse from day 18 to 28 of the
folding of the backbone of tertiary structure of menstrual cycle, post-ovulation
protein upon itself. (4) Avoiding intercourse from day 10 to 17 of the
(1) Statements (A) and (B) are correct menstrual cycle, when ovulation could be
(2) Statements (B) and (C) are correct expected
(3) Statements (A) and (C) are correct 176. A man underwent vasectomy few years ago. He
tried to reverse it, but that was not successful.
(4) Statements (A), (B) and (C) are correct
Using ART, this man and his wife are planning to
173. Match the column-I with column-II and select the have a child again. Which procedure from the
correct option. given options will not be required by the couple
Column-I Column-II as the woman’s fertility is normal and healthy?
(1) GIFT
a. Catalyse the transfer (i) Oxido-
(2) AI
of specific groups reductases
other than hydrogen (3) IUI
from one substrate to (4) In vivo fertilisation
other 177. The first clinical gene therapy was given in 1990
b. Catalyse the (ii) Lyases to a 4 year old girl suffering from
breakdown of larger (1) SCID
molecules into (2) AIDS
smaller with addition (3) Diabetes mellitus
of water
(4) Addison’s disease

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178. The structure which is attached to the oval (1) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
window as well as the incus is (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
(1) Malleus
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(2) Stapes
(4) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(3) Cochlea
183. Read the following statements and choose the
(4) Eustachian tube
correct option.
179. Match column-I with column-II and choose the
correct option. Statement (A): Change in gene frequency in a
small population by chance is known as genetic
Column-I Column-II
drift.
a. Glucagon (i) Steroid
Statement (B): When gene migration occurs
b. Epinephrine (ii) Peptide between A and B population, gene frequencies
c. Thyroxine (iii) Iodothyronine change in both the populations.

d. Estradiol (iv) Amino-acid derivative (1) Both statements (A) and (B) are correct

(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (2) Both statements (A) and (B) are incorrect

(2) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (3) Only statement (A) is correct
(3) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) (4) Only statement (B) is correct
(4) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) 184. How many statements given below are
180. A mixture containing DNA fragments, p, q, r and incorrect?
s with size of p + r = q, p > r and s > q, was
(a) Homo erectus fossil was discovered in Java
subjected to agarose gel electrophoresis. The
in 1981.
positions of these fragments from cathode to
anode sides of the gel would be (b) The Neanderthal man lived in near east and
(1) q, s, p, r (2) s, q, p, r central Africa between 75,000–10,000 years
(3) r, p, q, s (4) p, r, s, q ago.
181. EcoRI is obtained from (c) Australopithecines were probably taller than
(1) RD strain of Escherichia coli 4 feet but did not walk upright.
(2) RY 13 strain of Escherichia coli (d) Few fossils of man-like bones have been
(3) K12 strain of E. coli discovered in Ethiopia and Tanzania.
(4) O157 strain of E. coli (1) Three
182. Match column-I with column-II and choose the (2) Two
correct option.
(3) One
Column-I Column-II
(4) Four
a. Reverse (i) Forms 185. Select the incorrect match.
transcriptase phosphodiester
bonds (1) First cellular – Appeared 2 bya
b. Taq (ii) cDNA library forms of life
polymerase (2) First organisms – Plants
c. Alkaline (iii) Breaks that invaded land
phosphatase phosphodiester
(3) Sea weeds and – Existed probably
bonds
few plants around 320 mya
d. Restriction (iv) Used in ELISA
endonuclease (4) Icthyosaurs – Fish-like amphibians

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-4 (Code-A)

SECTION-B 190. Assertion (A): Gaseous exchange in mammals

occurs in alveoli, air sacs clustered at the tips of
186. Match column-I with column-II and choose the
correct option. the finest bronchioles.
Reason (R): The type of epithelial layer of
Column-I Column-II
serous membranes such as the pleura is same
a. Milk (i) Spermatids are as that found in alveoli.
transformed into
In the light of above statements, choose the
spermatozoa
correct option.
b. Primary (ii) Stored in cavity of (1) (A) and (R) are true, (R) is the correct
spermatocyte alveoli explanation of (A)
c. Spermiogenesis (iii) First menstruation (2) (A) and (R) are true, (R) is not the correct
begins at puberty explanation of (A)
d. Menarche (iv) Periodically (3) (A) is true, (R) is false
undergo meiosis (4) (A) is false, (R) is true
a b c d 191. Consider the given statements carefully.
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (a) Malpighian tubules help in the removal of
(2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) nitrogenous wastes and osmoregulation in
(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) Periplaneta.
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (b) Flame cells are the excretory structure in
187. Which of the following is a common feature Planaria as well as rotifers.
between Pheretima and Ascaris? (c) Each kidney of an adult human measures 0.1
(1) Presence of true coelom to 0.12 meter in width.
(2) Presence of metameres (d) Kidneys are situated between the level of last
(3) Absence of pharynx thoracic and fourth lumbar vertebra.

(4) Presence of bilateral symmetry Select the option with correct statements only.
188. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. animals and (1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (2) (a) and (b)
their excretory structures. (3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (c)
(1) Hirudinaria – Nephridia 192. _______ stage of Plasmodium parasite is not
(2) Saccoglossus – Proboscis gland present in humans.
(3) Pila – Radula Select the correct option to fill in the blank.
(4) Taenia – Flame cells (1) Gametocyte (2) Merozoite
189. Read the given statements carefully. (3) Ookinete (4) Signet ring
A. RBCs are devoid of nucleus in most of the 193. Select the correct option to complete the
mammals and are biconvex in shape. analogy.
B. Lymph has same mineral distribution as that Haemoglobin : Protein : : Ribozyme :_______.
in plasma.
(1) Protein (2) Polypeptide
C. By counting the number of QRS complexes
in ECG that occur in a given time period, one (3) Steroid (4) Nucleic acid
can determine the heart beat rate of an 194. ‘Reproductive health means a total well-being in
individual. all aspects of reproduction, i.e., physical,
D. Heart is an endodermally derived organ. emotional, behavioural and social’. This definition
How many of the given statements are correct? was given by
(1) Three (2) Four (1) UNESCO (2) UNICEF
(3) Two (4) One (3) WHO (4) EFB

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CST-4 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

195. Genetically modified tobacco plants were 198. Read the following statements and select the
produced using Agrobacterium vectors. Which option which includes only correct statements.
properties of Agrobacterium help in carrying (A) Thecodonts are extant ancestors of
nematode specific genes into the host plant? crocodiles and birds.
(1) Infectious for monocot plants; has Ti plasmid
(B) Mammals have evolved from sauropsids.
(2) Infectious for dicot plants; has Ti plasmid
(C) Snakes are closer to lizards than tuataras.
(3) Infectious for plants and animals; has Ti
(D) Birds are closer to dinosaurs than crocodiles.
plasmid
(1) (A) and (B) (2) (C) and (D)
(4) Infectious for monocot and dicots; has cry
genes (3) (A) and (C) (4) (A), (C) and (D)
196. Choose the correct match. 199. Complete the analogy and select the correct
option.
(1) Balanoglossus Open type circulation
with capillaries BamHI : Sticky ends : : EcoRV : ______
(1) Staggered ends
(2) Betta Closed type circulation
without capillaries (2) Cohesive ends
(3) Blunt ends
(3) Neophron Digestive tract with crop
and gizzard (4) Ends with overhanging stretches
200. If any protein encoding gene is expressed in a
(4) Balaenoptera Presence of mammary
heterologous host, it is called a
glands and pinnae
(1) Recombinant host
197. Growth hormone producing gland is located in a
bony cavity called (2) Recombinant protein

(1) Orbits (2) Glenoid (3) Recombinant vector

(3) Sella turcica (4) Acetabulum (4) Recombinant bacteria

❑ ❑ ❑

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 CODE-A

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

INTENSIVE PROGRAM for NEET-2022

MM : 720 Test-4 Time : 3 Hr. 20 Min.

Answers

1. (3) 41. (3) 81. (2) 121. (2) 161. (3)

2. (4) 42. (3) 82. (2) 122. (3) 162. (3)
3. (2) 43. (3) 83. (3) 123. (3) 163. (4)
4. (2) 44. (2) 84. (3) 124. (2) 164. (3)
5. (1) 45. (3) 85. (4) 125. (3) 165. (1)
6. (3) 46. (2) 86. (1) 126. (1) 166. (2)
7. (3) 47. (3) 87. (1) 127. (3) 167. (2)
8. (3) 48. (2) 88. (2) 128. (2) 168. (1)
9. (1) 49. (2) 89. (1) 129. (4) 169. (2)
10. (1) 50. (4) 90. (2) 130. (4) 170. (3)
11. (3) 51. (3) 91. (2) 131. (2) 171. (1)
12. (3) 52. (2) 92. (3) 132. (1) 172. (2)
13. (4) 53. (4) 93. (1) 133. (3) 173. (4)
14. (2) 54. (4) 94. (1) 134. (2) 174. (4)
15. (1) 55. (3) 95. (2) 135. (2) 175. (4)
16. (4) 56. (2) 96. (3) 136. (1) 176. (1)
17. (3) 57. (4) 97. (2) 137. (4) 177. (1)
18. (3) 58. (2) 98. (1) 138. (2) 178. (2)
19. (4) 59. (2) 99. (1) 139. (3) 179. (4)
20. (1) 60. (3) 100. (1) 140. (2) 180. (2)
21. (3) 61. (4) 101. (2) 141. (3) 181. (2)
22. (2) 62. (4) 102. (3) 142. (2) 182. (4)
23. (1) 63. (2) 103. (1) 143. (2) 183. (1)
24. (2) 64. (3) 104. (4) 144. (4) 184. (1)
25. (4) 65. (2) 105. (1) 145. (2) 185. (4)
26. (4) 66. (4) 106. (2) 146. (3) 186. (2)
27. (1) 67. (1) 107. (3) 147. (4) 187. (4)
28. (3) 68. (3) 108. (2) 148. (2) 188. (3)
29. (3) 69. (4) 109. (1) 149. (1) 189. (3)
30. (4) 70. (3) 110. (1) 150. (2) 190. (2)
31. (4) 71. (2) 111. (3) 151. (2) 191. (2)
32. (2) 72. (4) 112. (4) 152. (3) 192. (3)
33. (2) 73. (1) 113. (2) 153. (2) 193. (4)
34. (3) 74. (1) 114. (3) 154. (2) 194. (3)
35. (1) 75. (4) 115. (4) 155. (4) 195. (2)
36. (2) 76. (2) 116. (1) 156. (2) 196. (3)
37. (1) 77. (1) 117. (3) 157. (2) 197. (3)
38. (2) 78. (3) 118. (1) 158. (3) 198. (2)
39. (3) 79. (3) 119. (3) 159. (2) 199. (3)
40. (4) 80. (3) 120. (4) 160. (1) 200. (2)

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CST-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

CODE-A

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

INTENSIVE PROGRAM for NEET-2022

MM : 720 Test-4 Time : 3 Hr. 20 Min.

Hints and Solutions

PHYSICS

SECTION - A 4. Answer (2)

1. Answer (3) [N] = [M0L–2T–1]
Since 7.1 + 7.3 + 9.1 = 23.5 [n1] = [n2] = [M0L–3T0]
Hence, the result 23.5 have three significant [x1] = [x2] = [M0LT0]
figures.
Dn2 − n1 
2. Answer (4) Now, N  =
 x2 − x1 
M0L−2 T −1  L 
D  =  0 −3 0 = M0L2T −1 
M L T 
 
5. Answer (1)

u 2 sin2 
Voltage across R (load) is half wave rectified.  (Height )max =
2g

 (Height)max  sin2

(Hmax)1 > (Hmax)2

 sin2(1) > sin2(2)

 1 > 2
E  2u sin 
The rms value of E will be  0   T =  T  sin
 2  g
2
 E2   1 > 2  T1 > T2
( )2
VR rms  2  2
Now, Pavg = =  = E0
6. Answer (3)
R R 4R
In an elliptical orbit where a comet is orbiting sun
3. Answer (2)
no external torque act.
BJT acts as switch-off in cut-off region and switch-
So angular momentum is conserved, also the total
on in saturation region.
energy of system is conserved as only
BJT acts as an amplifier in active region. conservative forces are acting.
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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

7. Answer (3) 13. Answer (4)

Mechanical transverse waves can propagate Upthrust = 0.3 kg
through solids as solids have shear modulus of
Weight of balloon with water in it = 0.3 kg
rigidity.
Weight of balloon inside water = zero
8. Answer (3)
Let the frequency of Ist tuning fork =  14. Answer (2)
So, frequency of nth tuning fork =  – 2(n – 1) Charge always moves from a region of higher
potential energy to a region of lower potential
Given  = 2( – 48)
energy.
  = 96 Hz
15. Answer (1)
Hence, frequency of 15th tuning fork = 96 – 14 × 2
Vd
= 68 Hz Mobility  =
9. Answer (1) E
0 Ni 8  10−4
 Btoroid = 0ni = =
2R 6  10−6
Where R → mean radius = 1.33 × 102 m2 V–1 s–1
R0 + Ri 28 + 22 16. Answer (4)
= = = 25 cm
2 2
Red → 2, Yellow → 4
4  10−7  3500  10  100 Blue → 106, Silver  10%
 B=
2    25
Resistance = (24 × 106)  10%
= 2.8 × 10–2 T
17. Answer (3)
10. Answer (1)
Only option (3) satisfies basic properties of
Tn  n3 electrostatic field lines.
Tn 18. Answer (3)
 = n3
T1 Charge is at the centre of an imaginary cube of
side 20 cm
T 
log  n  = 3log n Q
 T1  face of cube =
6 0
Thus, the function consist of discrete points along
straight line y = 3x Q 20  10−6
Hence, square = =
As the value of quantum number are discrete in 240 24  8.85  10−12
nature so the function is not continuous.
N 2
11. Answer (3) = 0.094 × 106 m
C
m = 0.25% of 1 kg
N 2
0.25 = 9.4 × 104 m
= = 2.5 × 10–3 kg C
100
19. Answer (4)
 E = (m)C2 = 2.5 × 10–3 × (3 × 108)2
AB = 0
= 22.5 × 1013 J
12. Answer (3)  ( 4i − 3 j + 2k )  ( 2i + 3 j + 2k ) = 0
Time after which sound of splash is heard is given
by  8 – 9 + 10 = 0
2h h  9 = 18
= +
g v sound =2

2  550 550 20. Answer (1)

= + = 10.49 + 1.67 12.2 s The wavelength range for the visible light is nearly
10 330
4000 Å to 7000 Å.

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CST-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

21. Answer (3) Then total mass will be = 16 m

Let the intensity of unpolarized light be I. m 3r
xshift =
Intensity after passing through polariser =
I 16m − m
2
r 
Intensity after emerging out of analyser = 
5
I
= cos2  26. Answer (4)
2
I 2I0 2 = 12 + 22
Given, cos2  = I0  I =
2 cos2  T12T22
22. Answer (2) t=
T12 + T22
T
q = K  A
x 32  42
t=
M1L2 T −2  32 + 42
 = K L   K 
2

T  L t=
12
s
[K] = [MLT–3K–1] 5
23. Answer (1) 27. Answer (1)
 × 4R2 × T4 =  Flux in secondary
 S = MIP
 T4 =
  4R 2
I = 0
1 2
  4 T 
 T = f = Mk  
 2
   4R 2 
24. Answer (2) MkT 2
=
g sin  4
a=
k2 MkT 2
1+ 2  =
R 4
g sin37 
a= Q=
1
1+ R
2
MkT 2
2g 3 =
a=  4R
3 5
28. Answer (3)
2g
a= d d
5 Apparent depth = +
 3
25. Answer (4)
4
 mremoved d 
xshift =   d 4d
 mtotal − mremoved  = +
 3
7d
=
3
29. Answer (3)
Spherical aberration occurs due to the inability a
of a lens to coverage marginal rays of the same
wavelength to the focus as it converges the
paraxial rays. This can be done by using a circular
Let mremoved = m annular mark over lens.

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

30. Answer (4) 33. Answer (2)

For ideal gases
PM
=    PM
RT
1 M1 P1 3 5 15
=  =  =
2 M2 P2 2 4 8
34. Answer (3)
By Lami’s theorem for equilibrium MA = 2MB
P Q R I1 + I2 2I1
= = T1 = 2 = 2
sin120 sin150 sin90 ( MA + MB ) B ( 3MB ) B
P Q
= I1 + I2 2I1
sin120 sin150 T2 = 2 = 2
( MA − MB ) B MB B
sin120 sin60
 P = 60g  = 60g  Dividing the equations
sin150 sin30
 3 T1 1
=
 
2 
T2 3
P = 600   = 1039 N
 1 35. Answer (1)
2
 
31. Answer (4)

R = 120 
XL = L = 50 × 4 = 200 
Let m is suspended at distance x from end C. so V0 200 200
that there is equal strain in both wires. Let F1 and I0 = = = = 0.858
Z (120)2 + (200)2 233
F2 be tensions in wires A and B respectively
F1 F F1 1 2  1011 10 Pot. drop across induction coil
Then = 2  = =
Y1A1 Y2 A2 F2 2  7  1010 7 (VL)max = 0.858 × 200
For equilibrium of rod.  171 V
1.05 − x F1 10 SECTION-B
 = =
x F2 7 36. Answer (2)
7 × (1.05) – 7x = 10x
7.35 = 17 x
 x = 0.432 m = 43.2 cm
It is 43.2 cm from end C
32. Answer (2)
Process is adiabatic
 
So, P2V2 = PV
1 1
Applying conservation of linear momentum

P2  V1  0.05 × 100 = 1 × v0
=   = (4)1.5 = 4  4 = 8
P1  V2   v0 = 5 m/s

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CST-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

Now using conservation of mechanical energy 39. Answer (3)

1 XL = L = 2fL = (100) × 0.7 = 219.8 220 
mv 02 = mgh
2 Z = R 2 + X L2 = ( 220 )2 + ( 220 )2 = 220 2 
v 02 25 VRMS 110 1
h= = IRMS = = = 
2g 20 Z 220 2 2 2
= 1.25 m Wattful component of current = IRMS cos
37. Answer (1) 1 1 1 1
=  = 
2 2 2 2 2

Phase difference between first second = 1
3 = A = 0.25 A
4
Phase difference between first and third wave 40. Answer (4)
2 Given, Z = 4
A B
=
3 C
Z A 1 B C
= + +4
Z A 2 B C
1
= 0.01 +  0.02 + 4  0.005
2
= 0.01 + 0.01 + 0.02 = 0.04
41. Answer (3)
Given Area (A) = 3.14 × 10–6 m2
Conductivity () = 5.8 × 107 Siemens/metre
Resultant of first and third wave is along second
Electron mobility (e) = 0.0032 m2 V–1 s–1
wave.
Electric field (E) = 20 × 10–3 V/m
Hence resultant amplitude of 3 waves = 2 A0 So, electron concentration,
Intensity = 4 I0
 5.8  107
38. Answer (2) n= =
ee 1.6  10−19  0.0032
= 1.13 × 1029 m–3
Current density, J = E = 5.8 × 107 × 20 × 10–3
= 1.16 × 106 A/m2
Current I = JA = 1.16 × 106 × 3.14 ×10–6 = 3.64 A
Drift velocity, vd = eE = 0.0032 × 20 × 10–3
= 6.4 × 10–5 m/s
42. Answer (3)
Wnet = area of the cycle = (3P0 – P0) × (2V0 – V0)
= 2P0V0
Q = QABC = WABC + UABC
Weight = mg (downwards) = area under ABC graph + nCvT
3
Normal reaction due to wall = N = 3P0  ( 2V0 − V0 ) + n  R (TC − TA )
2
Frictional force parallel to wall upwards = fs 3
= 3P0V0 + ( PCVC − PAVA )
N = mr2 2
 For minimum angular speed 3
= 3P0V0 + 3P0  2V0 − P0V0 
fs = sN = mg 2
15P0V0 21
s × m × r × 2 = mg = 3P0V0 + = P0V0
2 2
r ×  s × 2 = g Wnet 2P0V0 4
 = = =
g 10 Q  21P0V0  21
= =  4 rad/s  2 
r  s 3  0.21  

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

43. Answer (3) m 2 r 2v 2

=
Surface tension is equal to surface energy per unit mr 3
area.
L2
44. Answer (2) =
mr 3
Final system has no charge
48. Answer (2)
1
So, Loss of energy = CV 2  2 P = 16
2
1
=
1
 2  10−6  102  2 f = m
2 16
= 2 × 10–4 J 25
f = cm
45. Answer (3) 4

 D
M = 1 + 
2  f 
 V 
 P1 =   R1
 r + R1   
 25 
M = 1 + 
 25 

 4 
=5
2
 V  49. Answer (2)
 P2 =   R2
 r + R2 

P1 = P2
R1 R2
=
( r + R1 ) 2
( r + R2 )2
Clearly L = AB
R1(r + R2)2 = R2(r + R1)2

  
R1 r 2 + R22 + 2rR2 = R2 r 2 + R12 + 2rR1   y2 = 2x

 y =  2 for x = 2
r 2R1 + R1R22 + 2rR1R2 = r 2R2 + R2R12 + 2rR1
So, AB = 4 m
r2(R1 – R2) = R1R2(R1 – R2)
r = R1R2 = 5  25 = 5 5  ( )
F = i L  B = 2 −4 j  −4kˆ ( )
46. Answer (2) F = 32i N
KE1 E1 −  2 − 1 1
= = = 50. Answer (4)
KE2 E2 −  5 − 1 4
Applying energy conservation
v1 1
= KEi + PEi = KEf + PEf
v2 2
− GMm 1  − GMm 
47. Answer (3) = mv 2 +  
R 2 2  R 
L = mvr

Fc =
mv 2 v= ( 2 − 2 ) GM
R
r

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CST-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

CHEMISTRY
SECTION - A 56. Answer (2)
51. Answer (3) Vapour pressure of a liquid depends upon
Let order with respect to A and B are x and y temperature and nature of liquid.
respectively 57. Answer (4)
r = k[A] [B] x y
Boiling point of solution Tb = Tbo + Tb
4  10−3 = k[2]x [2]y …(i) = 373 + iKb m
−3
4  10 = k[4] [2]
x y
…(ii) 5.85  1000
= 373 + 2  0.52 
200  58.5
16  10 −3 = k[2]x [4]y …(iii)
= 373.52 K
On solving (i), (ii) and (iii)
58. Answer (2)
x = 0, y = 2
These are the compounds in which halogen atom
Overall order = x + y = 0 + 2 = 2
is bonded to a sp2 hybridised carbon atom of an
52. Answer (2)
aromatic ring.
Lyophobic sols need stabilising agent while
lyophilic sols are quite stable. 59. Answer (2)

53. Answer (4) The temperature at which real gases obey ideal
gas law over an appreciable range of pressure is
N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) 2NH3 (g) ; K = x
known as Boyle temperature.
1 60. Answer (3)
2NH3 (g) N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) ; K  =
x Order of oxidising power
1 3 1
NH3 (g) N2 (g) + H2 (g) ; K  = TiO2+  VO2+  Cr2O72−  MnO4−
2 2 x
54. Answer (4) 61. Answer (4)

• Dipole moment is a vector quantity. Following products are possible:

•
• In both the C – Cl dipole will cancel out

•
each other therefore, net = 0
55. Answer (3)
One chiral centre hence a pair of enantiomers are
H C
possible
20% 80%
Atomic 20 80 •
ratio 1 12
Simple 20 80 One chiral centre hence a pair of enantiomers are
ratio 80 12 possible
12 80
12 •
=3
=1

Hence, empirical formula  CH3 Total isomers will be 6

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

62. Answer (4) 67. Answer (1)

Down the group, E – H bond length increases as • PHBV is a biodegradable polymer.
a result E – H bond strength decreases. Hence,
the reducing character of the hydrides of group 15
elements increases. (E is group 15 elements)
 Correct order of reducing power is
BiH3  SbH3  AsH3  PH3  NH3

63. Answer (2)

Xenon fluorides react with fluoride ion acceptors
to form cationic species and fluoride ion donors to
form fluoroanions.
−
XeF2 + PF5 ⎯⎯→  XeF PF6 
+

64. Answer (3) 68. Answer (3)

Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide is a cationic

detergent.
69. Answer (4)

n2
rn = 52.9  r0 = 52.9 pm 
Z
9
65. Answer (2) r3 = r0 
3
r3 = 3r0

70. Answer (3)

Element  eg H (kJmol−1 )
66. Answer (4)
• Coupling reaction is an example of F –328
electrophilic substitution reaction. Cl –349
Br –325
• More electron deficient diazonium salt will
more readily undergoes coupling reaction. I –295

 Order of reactivity of diazonium salts towards 71. Answer (2)

coupling reaction is Lithium is least reactive but the strongest reducing
agent among all alkali metals.
72. Answer (4)
Ga (135 pm) is smaller in size than Al(143 pm)
because of poor screening effect of inner core
(3d10) electrons.

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CST-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

73. Answer (1) 81. Answer (2)

Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are non-flammable • Longer is the carbon chain, higher is the
and non-reactive compounds. boiling point.
74. Answer (1) • For isomeric alkanes, higher branching results
• Synthesis gas : CO + H2 in lesser surface area and lesser van der
Waals interaction. This causes decrease in
• Producer gas : CO + N2
boiling point.
75. Answer (4)
82. Answer (2)
Haematite : Fe2O3
Due to ortho effect, ortho-methylbenzoic acid is
Bauxite : Al2O3.xH2O
most acidic compound among the given options.
Calamine : ZnCO3
Correct order of acidic strength is
Malachite : CuCO3.Cu(OH)2
76. Answer (2)
• KMnO4 itself is deeply coloured so act as self
indicator. At the end point pink colour is
observed.
• K2Cr2O7 does not act as a self indicator 83. Answer (3)
because no dramatic colour change occurs in Br2/H2O oxidises glucose to gluconic acid
its titrations at end point.
77. Answer (1)
Fe3O4 becomes paramagnetic from ferrimagnetic
at 850 K.
78. Answer (3) 84. Answer (3)
 o
(MgCl2 ) =  (Mg ) + 2 (Cl )
o 2+ o −
Primary valency means oxidation state of central
metal.
( ) ( ) (
= o Mg2+ + o SO24− +  o Ca2+ + 2 o Cl− ) ( ) 85. Answer (4)

(
− Ca2+ ) −  (SO )
2−
4
 H – U = ngRT
Higher is the value of ng, maximum will be the
= o (MgSO4 ) +  o ( CaCl2 ) −  o ( CaSO4 )
value of (H – U)
= (y + x – z) S cm2mol–1 For, NH4HS(s) ⎯→ NH3(g) + H2S(g), ng = 2
79. Answer (3) Hence (H – U) will be maximum
• Cubic system :  =  =  = 90°
SECTION-B
• Hexagonal :  =  = 90°,  = 120°
86. Answer (1)
• Triclinic :       90°
It has been found that for a chemical reaction, rate
• Monoclinic :  =  = 90°,   90° constant is nearly doubled by the rise in
80. Answer (3) temperature by 10°C.
A reagent that takes away an electron pair is 87. Answer (1)
called electrophile. Electrophiles can be positively In general pH + pOH = pKw
charged or neutral species.
at 25°C only, pKw = 14
+
NO2 , BF3 and SO3 are electrophiles. ( CH3 ) N is Therefore, pH + pOH = 14 is applicable only at
3
25°C.
a nucleophile.

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

88. Answer (2) 93. Answer (1)

Colloidal sols of metal such as gold, silver Except BeX2, all other halides of group 2 elements
platinum etc. can be prepared by Bredig’s arc. are ionic in nature. BeX2 are essentially covalent
method. and soluble in organic solvents.

89. Answer (1) 94. Answer (1)

Compound Shape H4P2O7 : 4( +1) + 2x + 7( −2) = 0  x = +5

XeF4 Square planar 95. Answer (2)

SF4 See-saw Eocell = Eo − Eo
Fe2 + /Fe Cr 3 + /Cr
CCl4 Tetrahedral = (–0.44) – (–0.74) = 0.30 V
ClF3 Bent T-shape
G = −nEoF = −6  0.3  96500
90. Answer (2)
= −173.7 kJ mol−1
3RT
Urms = 96. Answer (3)
M
Thin layer chromatography is a type of adsorption
8RT chromatography.
Uavg =
M 97. Answer (2)

2RT
Ump =
M

2RT 3RT 8RT

Ump : Urms : Uavg = : :
M M M
• Methyl ketones are oxidised by I2/NaOH
= 1 : 1.224 : 1.128
91. Answer (2)

• Aldehydes reduce Tollens’ reagent and silver

mirror is formed.
98. Answer (1)
Methanal is gas but ethanal is a volatile liquid at
room temperature.
99. Answer (1)
Enthalpy of formation is for formation of 1 mol
product by using reactants species present in its
standard states.
92. Answer (3) 100. Answer (1)
137
Ba2 +  Ti (H O )  Cl  Ti3+ : [Ar]3d1
56  2 6 3

No. of neutrons = 137 – 56 = 81 Magnetic moment = n ( n + 2 ) BM

No. of protons = 56
= 1 3 = 3 BM
No. of electrons = 56 – 2 = 54

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CST-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)
BOTANY
SECTION - A
101. Answer (2)
The leaf base in angiosperms may bear leaf-like
structures called stipules.
102. Answer (3)
Aloe belongs to family Liliaceae. In place of calyx
and corolla, members of this family have perianth
i.e., they have six tepals (3 + 3).
103. Answer (1)
Cuticle is absent in roots and hydrophytes.
104. Answer (4)
Annual rings are distinct in plants growing in
temperate regions. These are not seen in plants
growing in area where temperature and rains are
uniform throughout the year, i.e., tropical areas.
105. Answer (1)
In a chromosome, the shorter arm is called p-arm
and longer arm is called q-arm. Both sub-
metacentric and acrocentric chromosomes have
shorter arm and longer arm.
106. Answer (2)
Aleuroplasts are a type of leucoplast. It is double
membrane bound cell organelle. It stores proteins.
107. Answer (3)
The improved model of the structure of cell
membrane was proposed by Singer and Nicolson
in 1972 widely accepted as Fluid Mosaic Model.
108. Answer (2)
The correct sequence of various stages for
synthesis of sugar during Calvin cycle is:
Carboxylation → Reduction → Regeneration
109. Answer (1)
In the process of transcription in eukaryotes, the
RNA polymerase II transcribes precursor of
mRNA i.e., hnRNA.
110. Answer (1)
Splicing does not occur in prokaryotes, i.e., E.Coli.
111. Answer (3)
Okazaki fragments are discontinuously
synthesized on template with polarity 5 ' → 3 ' .
These form lagging strand.
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Intensive Program for NEET-2022
112. Answer (4)
• Western ghats have greater amphibian
species diversity as compared to eastern
ghats.
• Ecosystem diversity is high in India. It is quite
low in small countries e.g., Scandinavian
country like Norway.
113. Answer (2)
All the buses of Delhi were converted to run on
CNG by the end of 2002.
114. Answer (3)
F.W. Went isolated auxin from tip of oats.
Cousins confirmed the release of gaseous PGR.
E. Kurosawa identified gibberellic acid.
F. Skoog identified and crystallised the cytokinesis
promoting active substance called kinetin.
115. Answer (4)
Gemmules are asexual reproductive structures of
sponges.
116. Answer (1)
Groundnut has non-albuminous seeds in which
endosperm is completely used up during embryo
development.
117. Answer (3)
Ladybird and dragonflies are useful to get rid of
aphids and mosquitoes respectively.
Bacillus thuringiensis is introduced to control
butterfly caterpillar. The majority of baculovirus
used as biological control agents are in the genus
Nucleopolyhedrovirus (NPV).
118. Answer (1)
Imbibition is a special type of diffusion. It is a
process of absorption of water by hydrophilic solid
particles of a substance without forming a solution.
119. Answer (3)
Nitrosomonas, Nitrococcus and Nitrobacter are
nitrifying bacteria. Thiobacillus performs
denitrification.
120. Answer (4)
Mitosis is an equational division and it is seen in
diploid cells as well as in haploid cells of lower
plants and in some social insects.
Intensive Program for NEET-2022
121. Answer (2)
In oocytes of some vertebrates, diplotene can
lasts for a long time.
122. Answer (3)
Coralloid roots are found in Cycas and is
associated with nitrogen-fixing cyanobacteria.
123. Answer (3)
Spirogyra is algae and it exhibits haplontic life
cycle whereas, Ectocarpus, Polysiphonia and
kelps exhibits haplodiplontic life-cycle pattern.
124. Answer (2)
Diptera is taxonomic category for insects
(housefly). It is order. For man, primata is the
order.
125. Answer (3)
Monograph contains information of any one taxon.
126. Answer (1)
End product of glycolysis is pyruvic acid. It is 3C
compound. It forms 2C Acetyl CoA
127. Answer (3)
High aspartic acid and low nitrogen in maize
develops resistance to maize stem borers.
128. Answer (2)
Given graph shows conformers. Conformers
change their body temperature with external
environment. Such as nearly all plants.
129. Answer (4)
Energy decreases as we move from lower to
higher trophic levels.
130. Answer (4)
Paramecium have cilia instead of flagella for
locomotion.
131. Answer (2)
Mycoplasma is a wall-less heterotrophic moneran.
Nostoc is oxygenic photoautotroph. Euglena lack
cell wall but have chlorophyll. Slime moulds
produce spores.
132. Answer (1)
TMV is rod shaped virus that causes tobacco
mosaic disease.
133. Answer (3)
In honeybee, female worker bees as well as
queen both develop from fertilised egg.
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CST-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)
134. Answer (2)
Failure of cytokinesis after telophase stage of cell
division results in polyploidy.
135. Answer (2)
In sickle cell anaemia, there is substitution of
glutamic acid by valine.
SECTION-B
136. Answer (1)
In monocot seeds, the plumule is enclosed in a
sheath called coleoptile.
137. Answer (4)
The sieve tube elements and companion cell are
connected by pit fields present between their
common longitudinal walls. The companion cells
help in maintaining the pressure gradient in the
sieve tubes.
138. Answer (2)
Lysosomes are formed by the process of
packaging in the golgi complex. Inclusion bodies
found in prokaryotes are not bound by membrane.
Synthesis of lipid like steroidal hormones occurs
in smooth endoplasmic reticulum. Vacuoles
contain excretory products.
139. Answer (3)
• Many species of predatory birds have shown
serious effects from biological magnification.
Thinning of egg shells is the major effect.
• Higher amount of organic waste increases the
rate of decomposition and O2 consumption,
thereby causing a drop in DO content of water.
140. Answer (2)
According to the graph in the given question,
relationship between species richness and area
turns out to be rectangular hyperbola and the
equation is : S = CAZ.
141. Answer (3)
In nucleic acids, pentose sugar can be either
ribose or deoxyribose. In DNA molecules,
deoxyribose sugar (Pentose) joins with
nitrogenous base (purine or pyridine) by N-
glycosidic linkage.
142. Answer (2)
2, 4 – dichlorophenoxyacetic acid is a synthetic
auxin used to kill dicotyledonous weeds and used
by gardeners to prepare weed-free lawns.
CST-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

143. Answer (2) 147. Answer (4)

In the process of double fertilisation, the central Man-made ecosystems are crop fields and
cell after triple fusion becomes the primary Aquarium.
endosperm cell and develop into the endosperm
while the zygote is a product of syngamy, Estuary is transition zone of freshwater and
develops into an embryo. marine water.
144. Answer (4) 148. Answer (2)
Wine and beer are produced without distillation. Pacific salmon fishes breed only once in their
145. Answer (2) lifetime.
Sporophyte in mosses are not free-living but 149. Answer (1)
attached to gametophyte. They are more
elaborated than in liverworts. Morgan proposed term linkage and
recombination.
146. Answer (3)
Transpiration helps in maintaining the shape and 150. Answer (2)
structure of the plants by keeping cells turgid. Albugo is a member of Phycomycetes.

ZOOLOGY
SECTION - A 158. Answer (3)
151. Answer (2) The digestion is completed in small intestine and
The trachea or windpipe is a tubular passageway the final products of digestion are absorbed here.
for air which divides into right and left primary 159. Answer (2)
bronchi at the level of 5th thoracic vertebra. An injury or trauma stimulates the platelets in
152. Answer (3) blood to release coagulation promoting factors
called thromboplastins which activate the
Posterior pituitary releases anti-diuretic hormone
mechanism of coagulation.
(ADH), when blood osmolarity rises above a set
point. 160. Answer (1)
153. Answer (2) The openings of right and left ventricles into the
pulmonary artery and the aorta respectively are
Flagellar movement helps in the swimming of provided with semilunar valves.
spermatozoa, maintenance of water current in the
161. Answer (3)
canal system of sponges and in locomotion of
protozoans like Euglena. Basophils secrete histamine, serotonin and
heparin and are involved in inflammatory
154. Answer (2) reactions.
⚫ Locomotion requires a perfect coordinated 162. Answer (3)
activity of muscular, skeletal and neural
Fishes, amphibians and reptiles are poikilothermic
system.
animals whereas birds and mammals are
⚫ Macrophages in connective tissue and homoiothermous animals.
leucocytes in blood exhibit amoeboid 163. Answer (4)
movement.
The neural organisation in Hydra is composed of
155. Answer (4) a network of neurons.
Heart of cockroach consists of elongated 164. Answer (3)
muscular tube lying along mid dorsal line of thorax Cyclostomata – Mouth without jaws
and abdomen.
Chondrichthyes – Gills without operculum
156. Answer (2)
Aves – Exclusively oviparous
Oxytocin is a hormone secreted by hypothalamus
Mammals – Unique in possessing hair
(an endocrine gland).
165. Answer (1)
157. Answer (2)
Zygote is the vital link that ensures continuity of
Mucus neck cell – Mucus species between organisms of one generation
Oxyntic cell – HCl, intrinsic factor and the next. It undergoes cleavage to form
Chief cell – Pepsinogen embryo.

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

166. Answer (2) 174. Answer (4)

The testis is covered by dense connective tissue. Collagen – Intercellular ground substance
167. Answer (2) Alkaloids – Codeine, morphine
Seminal vesicles and bulbourethral Toxin – Ricin
glands/Cowper’s glands are paired male 175. Answer (4)
accessory glands whereas prostate is an unpaired
male accessory gland. 2 to 3 days before and 2-3 days after ovulation are
the days when chances of conceiving are the
168. Answer (1)
highest.
Spermiation is a process in which sperms are
176. Answer (1)
detached from Sertoli cells and are finally released
from the seminiferous tubules. GIFT is the transfer of an ovum collected from a
donor into the fallopian tube of another female
169. Answer (2)
who cannot produce one, but can provide suitable
The feeding of cattle should be carried out in a environment for fertilisation and further
scientific manner – with special emphasis on the
development.
quantity and quality of fodder.
177. Answer (1)
170. Answer (3)
SCID [Severe Combined Immuno Deficiency] is
Malignant malaria caused by Plasmodium
caused due to adenosine deaminase (ADA)
falciparum is the most serious one and can even
deficiency.
be fatal.
178. Answer (2)
171. Answer (1)
When people are healthy, they are more efficient The smallest ear ossicle stapes is attached to the
at work. oval window of the cochlea.
Health also increases longevity of people and 179. Answer (4)
reduces infant and maternal mortality rate. Some Glucagon – Peptide
of the infectious diseases like AIDS are fatal. Epinephrine – Amino-acid derivative
172. Answer (2) Thyroxine – Iodothyronine
Almost all enzymes are proteins. There are some Estradiol – Steroid
nucleic acids that behave like enzymes.
180. Answer (2)
173. Answer (4)
During agarose gel electrophoresis, DNA
Oxidoreductases Enzymes which catalyse fragments separate on the basis of size, the
oxidoreduction between smaller the fragment, farther it moves from
two substrates cathode (negative electrode).
Transferases Enzymes catalysing a 181. Answer (2)
transfer of a group In EcoRI, ‘R’ stands for RY13 strain of E.coli.
between a pair of
182. Answer (4)
substrates
Reverse transcriptase catalyses formation of
Hydrolases Enzymes catalysing cDNA from mRNA. Restriction endonucleases
hydrolysis of ester, ether, cleave phosphodiester bonds. Taq polymerase is
peptide, glycosidic, C – C, a thermostable DNA polymerase and adds
C – halide or P – N bonds nucleotides at 3’OH end of the DNA strand.
Lyases Enzymes that catalyse Alkaline phosphatase can be used in ELISA test.
removal of groups from 183. Answer (1)
substrates by In a small population, a particular allele is
mechanisms other than possessed by only few individuals. So, genetic
hydrolysis leaving double
drift is usually observed in a small population.
bonds
When migration of a section of population to
Ligases Enzymes catalysing the another place and population occurs, gene
linking together of 2 frequencies change in the original as well as in the
compounds new population.

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CST-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

184. Answer (1) 192. Answer (3)

Homo erectus fossil was discovered in 1891. The The sexual cycle of Plasmodium is completed in
Neanderthal man lived in near east and central mosquito which may feed on human blood. The
Asia between 1,00,000 – 40,000 years ago. zygote then elongates and becomes a worm-like
Australopithecines were probably not taller than motile organism called the ookinete.
4 feet but walked upright. 193. Answer (4)
185. Answer (4) Ribozyme is a nucleic acid that acts like an
Some of the land reptiles went back into water to enzyme.
evolve into fish-like reptiles probably 200 mya 194. Answer (3)
(e.g. Ichthyosaurs).
WHO is the ‘World Health Organisation’.
SECTION-B 195. Answer (2)
186. Answer (2) Agrobacterium tumefaciens has the tumor
inducing plasmid which causes crown gall disease
Milk Secreted and stored within
in dicot plants.
alveoli.
196. Answer (3)
Primary Periodically undergo
spermatocyte meiosis. Balanoglossus – Open type circulation without
capillaries.
Spermiogenesis Spermatids are transformed
into spermatozoa. Betta – Closed type circulation with
capillaries.
Menarche First menstruation begins at
Neophron – Digestive tract with two
puberty.
additional chambers, the
187. Answer (4) crop and gizzard.
True coelom and metameres are absent in Balaenoptera – Pinnae are absent in aquatic
Ascaris. Pharynx and bilateral symmetry is and egg laying mammals.
present in both Pheretima and Ascaris.
197. Answer (3)
188. Answer (3)
The pituitary gland is located in a bony cavity
Radula is present in Pila but it is not an excretory
called sella turcica.
structure. It is a rasping organ present in most of
the molluscs for feeding. 198. Answer (2)
189. Answer (3) Thecodonts are now extinct. Mammals have
evolved from synapsids. Birds and dinosaurs
RBCs are biconcave in shape in mammals.
share common ancestor in relatively near history
Heart is a mesodermally derived organ. than birds and crocodiles. The common ancestor
190. Answer (2) of snakes and tuataras is in far history.
Squamous epithelial tissue is present in pleura as 199. Answer (3)
well as in alveoli. EcoRV is a restriction endonuclease which cuts
191. Answer (2) DNA to produce blunt ends.
Each kidney of an adult human measures 200. Answer (2)
0.1 to 0.12 meter in length, 5-7 cm in width, Protein encoding foreign gene, when gets
2-3 cm in thickness with an average weight of expressed in a recombinant host cell, the resultant
120-170 g. protein is called recombinant protein.

❑ ❑ ❑

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