MODE

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ESE 2021 : PRELIMS EXAM

CLASSROOM TEST SERIES
CIVIL
2
BOOKLET SERIES

Test No.
ENGINEERING
Section A : Geo-technical & Foundation Engineering
Section B : Environmental Engineering

Duration: 1½ hrs. Maximum Marks: 150

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2 ESE 2021 Prelims Exam • Classroom Test Series

Section A : Geo-technical Engineering Q.5 Water flows through given two layered soil
profile and discharge collected at the end
Q.1 A soil sample having void ratio of 0.7, is
is 7.5 lit/sec/m2. What will be head loss
fully saturated and shows specific gravity
during flow?
of soil solid as 2.7. Plasticity index and
liquid limit of soil are 21% and 50%
h
respectively. The soil is in the state of
(a) Solid (b) Liquid
(c) Semisolid (d) Plastic
K1 = K2 =
Q.2 Lab test results for a soil sample taken from –2
2 × 10 m/s
–2
4 × 10 m/s
a site are as follows:
200 mm 400 mm
Bulk unit weight = 19 kN/m3
Natural water content = 10% (a) 150 mm (b) 300 mm
(c) 100 mm (d) 600 mm
Specific gravity of soil solid = 2.60
If water starts flowing through voids of Q.6 A pure clay sample was tested under UCS
given soil, the seepage velocity will be _____ test and the shear strength of clay came out
times of average velocity. to be 45 kN/m2. The UCS test will yield at
[Take w = 10 kN/m3] _____ kg/cm2.
1 (a) 90 (b) 0.4588
(a) 2 (b) (c) 45 (d) 0.918
3
Q.7 What is the weight of soil solid in 1 m3 of
1
(c) 3 (d) soil having void ratio 0.4 and G = 2.7.
2
(Take w = 10 kN/m3)
Q.3 Which of the following consideration is not (a) 17.10 (b) 16.30
taken in Rankine’s theory of earth pressure? (c) 19.28 (d) 20.58
(a) Cohesion less soil
Q.8 For given soil profile, effective stress at
(b) Plastic equilibrium of soil
section X-X will be _____kN/m2.
(c) Wedge failure of backfill
[Take w = 10 kN/m3]
(d) Vertical and smooth face of wall

Q.4 Which of the following statements are

incorrect regarding compressibility of soil? 2m
1. Sand settles more than clay as it has
higher permeability than clay.
2. During primary consolidation as pore
water pressure decreases, degree of
3m
saturation decreases simultaneously.  sat = 21 kN/m
3

3. Highly plastic soil undergoes secondary

consolidation. X X
1m
(a) Only 3 (b) Both 1 and 2
(c) Both 2 and 3 (d) All of the above

(a) 48 (b) 33
(c) 18 (d) 15
Q.9 Which of the following statements
regarding compaction of soil are correct?
1. Soil is considered to be fully compacted
when it attains its maximum dry
density.
2. Maximum dry density is achieved at
optimum moisture content.
3. Theoretically at optimum moisture
content, degree of saturation is 100%
and percentage air voids becomes zero
in soil.
(a) All are correct
(b) Only 1 and 2
(c) Only 2 and 3
(d) Only 1 and 3
Q.10 A soil sample is subjected to triaxial test and
the results are as follows:
Angle of friction = 30°
Cohesion of soil = 15 kPa
If triaxial test yields at 500 kPa, then what
was the cell pressure during test?
(a) 280 kPa (b) 170 kPa
(c) 300 kPa (d) 150 kPa
Q.11 A slope of 10 m depth in cohesive soil fails
at 4 m due to sudden drawdown. UCS test
performed on this cohesive soil which
results in yielding of test at 25 kPa.
The Taylor’s stability number for given soil
slope profile will be
[Take: G = 2.6, e = 0.6, w = 10 kN/m3]
(a) 3.125 (b) 0.3125
(c) 1.56 (d) 0.156
Q.12 Consider the following statements
regarding stress distribution under the soil
amd choose the correct statements:
1. At a constant depth under a particular
load, stress decreases as distance
increases from line of action of load.
2. Maximum value of stress under the load
calculated as per Boussinesq’s formula
Civil Engineering | Test 2 3
is 0.4775 Q/z2 where Q is point load and
z is depth below ground.
r
3. At  1.52, stress according to
z
Boussinesq’s theory and Westergaard’s
theory are equal.
(a) all are correct (b) only 1 and 3
(c) only 1 and 2 (d) only 2 and 3
Q.13 A plate load test was conducted on a
circular plate of 30 cm diameter on a sandy
soil. What will be the ratio of bearing
capacity for 1.5 m square footing and for
given plate?
1
(a) 5 (b)
5
20 3
(c) (d)
3 20
Q.14 A square footing of 2 m size is constructed
on pure clay of shear strength 30 kPa at 2 m
depth below the ground. Determine the safe
load that can be carried by clay with
FOS = 3. [Use FOS = 3]
(a) 57 kN (b) 228 kN
(c) 74.1 kN (d) 296.4 kN
Q.15 Indian Standard (IS) light compaction test
is usually conduced in 3 layers in a 1000 cc
mould. How many blows per layer would
be per layer would be necessary if the above
test is conducted in a 3000 cc mould.
(a) 57 (b) 12
(c) 42 (d) 75
Q.16 Consider the following statements
regarding fundamental properties of soil
and choose the incorrect statements:
1. Specific gravity of fine grained soil is
lesser than that of coarse grained soil.
2. Weight of saturated soil is more than
weight of bulk soil for same volume
because weight of solid is more in
saturated soil.
4 ESE 2021 Prelims Exam • Classroom Test Series
3. Like porosity, void ratio of soil also can’t
be greater than one because both
porosity and void ratio signifies volume
of voids.
(a) All of these (b) Only 1 and 2
(c) Only 2 and 3 (d) only 3
Q.17 Consider the following ground profile:
G L
3 be ultimately settled, when it’s thickness
2m Sand ( = 18 kN/m )
W T
3m
Silty clay ( = 20 kN/m3)
sat
X X
3
2m Clay ( sat = 21 kN/m )
Effective stress at X-X will be _____ kN/m2,
if suddenly a surcharge of 1.5 m height and
20 kN/m 3 unit weight is placed over
ground. [Take w = 10 kN/m3]
(a) 126 (b) 66
(c) 96 (d) 111
Q.18 Consider the following statements
regarding soil structure and choose the
correct statements:
1. Gravitational force is dominant in
honeycombed structure than
electrostatic force.
2. In dispersed structure, repulsive
electrostatic force will be predominant.
3. Dispersed structure possesses least
permeability.
4. Flocculent structure has high volume of
voids, than dispersed structure.
(a) All are correct
(b) only 1 and 2 are correct.
(c) only 2 and 3 are correct.
(d) only 1 and 4 are correct.
Q.19 A soil sample shows decrement in void ratio
from 0.7 to 0.5 by increasing effective stress
from 100 kN/m 2 to 300 kN/m 2 during
consolidation test. Coefficient of
consolidation of soil will be ______________
m2/s if coefficient of permeability of soil is
2.5 × 10–8 m/s. [Take w = 10 kN/m3]
(a) 4.25 × 10–6 (b) 1.12 × 10–4
(c) 3.16 × 10–6 (d) 5.88 × 10–4
Q.20 A soil layer of 5 m thickness considered to
became 4.3 m and void ratio became 0.25
from 0.75. Determine the thickness of soil
layer when void ratio became 0.60 during
this process of consolidation.
(a) 4.21 m (b) 4.79 m
(c) 4.30 m (d) 4.70 m
Q.21 According to Skempton’s approachs the net
ultimate bearing capacity of clay will be
________ kPa under a rectangular footing
of 2 m × 4 m constructed 2 m below the
ground and unconfined compressive
strength of the clay is 75 kPa.
(a) 300.00 (b) 284.50
(c) 247.50 (d) 272.70
Q.22 Consider the following statements
regarding shallow foundation and choose
the correct statements:
1. There is no effect of water table on
ultimate bearing capacity of clay if water
table lies between ground level and base
of footing.
2. Ultimate bearing capacity of sandy soil
becomes half when water table is at
ground level.
3. General shear failure of soil leads to less
settlement of structure.
4. Terzaghi’s theory is based on general
and local shear failure both.
(a) only 2 and 3 (b) only 1 and 2
(c) only 3 and 4 (d) only 2 and 4
 Civil Engineering | Test 2 5

Q.23 Consider the following diagrams regarding

effect of shear strain on soil and choose the
correct ones:
12 m

2m 2m
+V
Shear strain
1.
–V

Loose sand
(a) 0.782 (b) 0.514
(c) 0.625 (d) 0.128
Loose sand
+u Q.26 A pile group of 16 piles having 400 mm
diameter each and 12 m length each is
2. Shear strain installed in clayey soil having shear
–u
strength of 38 kPa. The piles are placed at
spacing of 1 m distance from each other.
Assume that the group fails as a single
block, and cohesion factor of pile group in
Shear strain
clay is 1. What is the side resistance of pile
eo group installed under given conditions?
3.
(a) 6200 kN (b) 4300 kN
(c) 3958 kN (d) 5080 kN
Dense sand
Q.27 Under a certain load the stress at a point
Dense sand whose (x, z) coordinates are (1.5 m, 4.5 m)
+V is 320 kN/m2. The stress at another point
4. whose (x, z) coordinates are (2.5 m, 7.5 m)
is _____ kN/m 2 under the same load
–V
intensity according to Westergaard’s
theory.
(a) only 2 and 4 (b) only 1 and 4 (a) 115.2 (b) 192
(c) only 2 and 3 (d) only 1 and 2 (c) 534 (d) 888

Q.24 A soil is compacted upto a dry density of
17.5 kN/m3 at optimum moisture content
of 12%. How much percentage air void will
be left in soil at given condition.
[Take, G = 2.7 and w = 10 kN/m3]
(a) Zero (b) 100%
(c) 14.20% (d) 9.70%
Q.25 For the given flow net diagram, the exit
gradient is:
Q.28 A retaining wall of 8 m high having backfill
of sandy soil having saturated and
unsaturated unit weight as 21 kN/m3 and
19 kN/m 3 respectively. Consider water
table is at ground level and a surcharge of
50 kPa is applied on ground level. Calculate
passive earth pressure at wall.
[Take  = 30°, w = 10 kN/m3]
(a) 2576 (b) 571
(c) 1573 (d) 1000
6 ESE 2021 Prelims Exam • Classroom Test Series

Q.29 A soil sample if classified as well graded select the correct answer using the codes
clayey sand (SW – SC), then it might have given below the lists:
which of the following properties: List-I
1. Percentage finer than 75  may be 10%. A. Water content
2. Coefficient of uniformity of soil surely B. Unit weight of soil
is greater than 6. C. Compression index
3. Percentage finer than 4.75 mm is surely D. Settlement of soil
more than 50%. List-II
4. Plasticity index of soil may be more 1. Plate load test
than 7. 2. Pycnometer test
Select the correct statements. 3. Water displacement test
(a) All are correct 4. Consolidation test
(b) only 1, 2, 3 Codes:
(c) only 1, 2, 4 A B C D
(d) only 2, 3, 4 (a) 1 4 3 2
(b) 3 2 4 1
Q.30 Volume of soil reduces from 300 cc to 240 cc (c) 2 3 4 1
as water content decreases from 30% to (d) 4 1 3 2
16%. The shrinkage limit of soil is 16%. The
Q.34 Value of liquid limit, plastic limit and
shrinkage ratio of soil is
shrinkage limit are respectively represented
(a) 1.288 (b) 1.785
as 55%, 35% and 18%. The sample of this
(c) 1.595 (d) 2.653
soil has volume of 40 cm3 at liquid limit and
Q.31 Excavation has been made in a 6 m thick volume of soil at shrinkage limit is 25 cm3.
soil layer upto 4 m below ground level that The specific gravity of soil solids is 2.28.
just resulted in heaving of soil. Specific Based on above information, choose the
gravity and porosity of soil are 2.7 and 0.33 correct statements.
respectively. The ground water table is 1. Dry specific gravity of soil is 1.62.
present at _____cm below the ground level. 2. Consistency of soil is very stiff.
(a) 226.6 (b) 373.4 3. Void ratio at plastic limit is 0.8.
(c) 426.6 (d) 173.4 4. Consistency index of soil is 1.65 if natural
moisture content of soil is 22%.
Q.32 An infinite slope of 30° inclination is
(a) All are correct
analyzed at 7 m below the ground level.
(b) Only 1, 2, 3
The slope is made up of sand having unit
(c) Only 2, 3, 4
weight of 19.5 kN/m 3. The shear stress
(d) only 2, 4, 1
responsible for slope failure is _____ kPa.
[Take  = 30°] Direction (Q.35 to Q.40): The following items
(a) 59.10 (b) 38.80 consists of two statements, one labelled as
(c) 52.48 (d) 32.67 Statement (I) and the other labelled as
Q.33 Match List-I (Soil properties) with List-II Statement (II). You have to examine these two
(Test required for particular property) and statements carefully and select your answers to
these items using the codes given below:

Codes:
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II)
are true and Statement (II) is the
correct explanation of Statement (I).
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II)
are true but Statement (II) is not a
correct explanation of Statement (I).
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II)
is false.
(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement
(II) is true.
Q.35 Statement (I): Soil liquefaction occurs in
dense sand only.
Statement (II): In dense sand, due to shear
strain, negative pore water pressure
develops.
Q.36 Statement (I): Settlement of pile group is
more than settlement of single pile
Statement (II): In pile group, all piles and
soil between pile work as a single pile
Q.37 Statement (I): Montmorillonite mineral is
chief constituent in high active clay.
Statement (II): Montmorillonite is made up
with weak water bond in arrangement of
two octahedral and one silica tetrahedral
limits.
Q.38 Statement (I): Capillary action of water in
sandy soil results in apparent cohesion.
Statement (II): Due to capillary tension, as
water rises up, results in development of
compressive stress on soil solids which leads
to formation of contact pressure between
solids.
Q.39 Statement (I): As water flows in downward
direction, effective stress at any section
increases by izw amount.
Statement (II): Downward water flow
decreases pressure head at that section by
iz amount, where z is vertical depth of
section and i is hydraulic gradient.
Civil Engineering | Test 2 7
Q.40 Statement (I): Quick sand condition does
not occurs in clayey soil.
Statement (II): Due to upward seepage
pressure, effective stress does not become
zero in case of clay.
Section B : Environmental Engineering
Q.41 Consider the following statements
regarding vermi-composting
1. The decomposition of non-
biodegradable organic matter takes
place by the soil bacteria along with the
help of cultured earthworm.
2. The produced humus is ultimately
dumped by the land filling process.
3. The waste gets decomposed by the
microorganisms in 10-12 days
Which of the above statements are incorrect?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Q.42 Consider the following statements:
1. The biomass production rate will always
greater than food utilisation rate in a
biological system having a mixed culture
of microorganism.
2. When waste water is treated at an
oxidation ditch, anaerobic sludge
digester is not required.
3. During anaerobic sludge digestion, CH4
is produced. It also attracts rodents and
other pests when digester sludge is
dried.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.43 The permissible noise level for the
commercial area during the night time is
(a) 75 dB (b) 65 dB
(c) 60 dB (d) 55 dB
8 ESE 2021 Prelims Exam • Classroom Test Series

Q.44 Elevation and temperature data for places Which of the above statements are correct?
A, B and C are tabulated below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
Place Elevation  m  Temperature  °C 
A 45 20 Q.48 Which of the following factors affect the
B 350 17.5 composting process?
C 780 13 1. Moisture content
2. C/N ratio
Based on above data, for dry air lapse rate 3. pH
of A to B and from B to C respectively are: 4. Biochemical composition
(a) Subadiabatic and subadiabatic 5. Temperature
(b) Superadiabatic and subadiabatic 6. Oxygen content
(c) Subadiabatic and superadiabatic (a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
(d) Superadiabatic and superadiabatic (b) 2 and 5 only
(c) 1, 2 and 5 only
Q.45 If two sound sources have equal pressure
(d) All of these
of 4000 Pa, then the resultant sound level
will be _____ dB. Q.49 Consider the following statements
(a) 46.02 (b) 49.02 regarding the infiltration wells:
(c) 92.04 (d) 52.04 1. These are the shallow wells of diameter
3 m to 6 m.
Q.46 10 incense sticks were used during the
2. These are constructed along the banks
pooja in a small hall of capacity 500 m3. Each
of a river where they collect water from
incense stick produces harmful carbon
the river radially.
monoxide at a rate of 13 mg per hour. To
3. Ranney wells derive water from the
maintain proper ventilation, fresh air is
bottom of well.
being pumped at the rate 1300 m3/hr and
4. Infiltration wells are generally covered
the stale air is pumped out at the same rate.
at the top and kept open at bottom.
Assume the process to be steady and
Which of the above statements are correct?
completely mixed. Determine the
(a) 1 and 4 only
concentration of carbon-monoxide inside
(b) 1 and 2 only
the hall.
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(a) 0.4 mg/m3 (b) 0.9 mg/m3
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 0.1 mg/m3 (d) 1.2 mg/m3
Q.50 The present population of a town is 60000.
Q.47 Consider the following statements
The rate of growth of population was 5%
regarding the looping plume:
per annum. What was its population two
1. This plume is associated with night time
years ago?
conditions accompanied by low solar
(a) 48692 (b) 54422
heating.
(c) 38348 (d) 29408
2. It occurs in unstable atmospheric
conditions. Q.51 In a town of population 50000, the
3. This plume possesses high degree of maximum daily draft is 25 MLD, fire
convective turbulence. demand is 35 MLD and maximum hourly
 Civil Engineering | Test 2 9

demand of the maximum day is 65 MLD. (c) –log [3.08 × 10–5]

Then the distribution pipes of water scheme (d) –log [7.03 × 10–6]
will be designed for
Q.56 Slow sand filter results in better efficiency
(a) 60 MLD (b) 65 MLD
of removal of bacteria than rapid sand filter
(c) 35 MLD (d) 125 MLD
because
Q.52 The chlorine demand for 4 MLD of water (a) coefficient of uniformity of filter
is 1.25 mg/l and residual free chlorine after medium in slow sand filter is greater
the break point is 0.20 mg/l. The quantity than rapid sand filter.
of calcium hypochlorite required is (b) slow sand filter never lead to
____________ kg/hr. operational trouble due to mud ball
(a) 0.60 (b) 0.34 formation.
(c) 5.8 (d) 0.24 (c) slow sand filter has lower cleaning
Q.53 Consider the following statements frequency than rapid sand filter.
regarding flanged joint: (d) slow sand filter, filters less amount of
1. These joints are widely used for water in a day than rapid sand filter.
pumping mains.
Q.57 An open well in coarse sand yields 0.003
2. Concrete pipe can be joined with flanged
m3/s under a depression head of 3 metres.
joints.
The diameter of the open well is ______ m,
3. Molten lead is filled between the flanged
if the specific capacity is 1.05 m3/hr/m2/m.
gap for making it a water tight joint.
(a) 2.09 (b) 3.09
4. Flanged joint are rigid, hence can be
used where deflections or vibrations are (c) 2.56 (d) 3.56
expected to occur. Q.58 Consider the following statements
Which of the above statements are incorrect? regarding MPN test:
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only 1. The organisms that are indicated by the
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3 presence of acids or CO2 gas are actually
Q.54 If the specific gravity of suspended particle gram negative.
changes from 2.25 to 2.65 and kinematic 2. It is based on the assumption of
viscosity of water carrying that suspended Poisson’s distribution.
particle reduces to half, then the settling 3. It measures the exact number of
velocity will microorganisms present in the sample.
(a) become 1.64 times 4. It quantifies the pathogenic virus.
(b) become 1.32 times Which of the above statements are correct?
(c) become 2.64 times (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(d) reduces 0.8 times (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 4

Q.55 Find out pH of a mixture formed by mixing
following two solution:
Solution A: Volume 300 ml, pH = 7
Solution B: Volume 700 ml, pH = 5
(a) –log[1.0 × 10–5]
(b) –log [1.2 × 10–5]
Q.59 The concentration of free ammonia in water
sample can be determined by
(a) color matching technique
(b) titration with KMnO4
(c) simple boiling
(d) coagulation aided sedimentation
10 ESE 2021 Prelims Exam • Classroom Test Series

Q.60 Consider the following statements 3. Lower velocity of flow is permitted as

regarding the dead end system: compared to cavity type tubewells.
1. This layout may have to be adopted for 4. Plain pipes are located adjacent to
older towns which have developed in a aquiclude & strainer pipes are located
haphazard manner. adjacent to aquifers.
2. The construction of this system is Which of the above statements are incorrect?
relatively easier. (a) 1 and 2 only
3. Lesser number of cutoff valves are (b) 2, 3 and 4
required. (c) 3 and 4 only
4. There are numerous dead ends in this (d) 1, 2 and 3
system which prevents the free
Q.63 The total organic carbon concentration in a
circulation of water.
waster water sample that contains benzene
Which of the above statements are the
(C6H6) of concentration 25 mg/l is
advantages of dead end system?
(a) 76.92 mg/l (b) 23.1 mg/l
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 25 mg/l (d) 50 mg/l
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
Q.64 An industrial waste water, enters a stream
Q.61 Match List-I (Quality parameter) with
List-II (Color inducing reagent) and select which is having a DO concentration of
the correct answer using the codes given 8 mg/l and flow rate of 20 m3/sec before
below the lists: the mixing point. If the flow of waste water
List-I is 129.6 MLD and concentration of DO in
A. Nitrite waste water is zero, then the difference
B. Nitrate between DO concentration in the stream at
C. Fluoride mixing point and the minimum level of
D. Turbidity dissolved oxygen necessary in the rivers
List-II from ecological consideration will be
1. Sulphonic acid and nepthamine _______.
2. Phenol di-sulphonic acid & KOH (a) 7.44 mg/l (b) 1.76 mg/l
3. Zirconium and alizarine (c) 3.44 mg/l (d) Zero
4. Hexa methyline tetra amine
Q.65 At water treatment plant 12 million liters
Codes:
of water is treated daily using ferrous
A B C D
sulphate and lime. If dosage of ferrous
(a) 2 1 4 3
sulphate is 10 mg/l, calculate total quality
(b) 1 2 4 3
of quick lime required daily.
(c) 2 1 3 4
(d) 1 2 3 4 [Take atomic weight: Fe = 55 gm, S = 32
gm, O = 16 gm, Ca = 40 gm and H = 1 gm]
Q.62 Consider the statements regarding the (a) 19.15 kg (b) 24.26 kg
screen type tubewells: (c) 48.67 kg (d) 32.05 kg
1. These wells can tap different aquifers
at a time. Q.66 A circular sewer of diameter 2.5 m carries
2. These wells reduce the danger of storm water to a depth of 1.25 m. The
medium particle removal. hydraulic radius is approximately.

(a) 0.625 m (b) 0.5 m
(c) 1.5 m (d) 1.325 m
Q.67 Consider the following statements
regarding the oxygen required for oxidizing
organic matter of a given waste water:
1. COD of a waste cannot be less than its
ultimate BOD.
2. COD of a waste water is always greater
than 5 days BOD.
3. The difference between COD and
ultimate BOD will represent
nitrogenous demand.
4. If non-biodegradable oxygen demand
decreases, ratio of ultimate BOD to COD
approaches towards 1.
Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
Q.68 An average operating data for conventional
activated sludge treatment plant is as
follows:
Waste water flow = 35000 m3/day,
Volume of aeration tank = 10900 m3,
Influent BOD = 250 mg/l, MLSS = 2500 mg/l
Effluent BOD = 20 mg/l
Based on the information above, (F/M)
ratio occurring in ASP is ________.
(a) 0.40 (b) 0.45
(c) 0.32 (d) 0.56
Q.69 Consider the following statements
regarding the oxidation pond:
1. In aerobic ponds, the oxygen demand
of bacteria is met by the combined action
of algae and other microorganism called
algal photosynthesis.
2. The detention time in the pond depends
upon sunlight and temperature.
3. The main drawback of oxidation pond
is nuisance due to mosquito breeding
and bad odours.
Civil Engineering | Test 2 11
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.70 The sludge from the aeration tank of the
activated sludge process (ASP) has solid
content (by weight) of 2.5%. The specific
gravity of sludge solids is 2.5 and the
density of water is 1000 kg/m3. What is the
density of the sludge removed from the
aeration tank?
(a) 1015.23 kg/m3
(b) 1225 kg/m3
(c) 2055.23 kg/m3
(d) 915 kg/m3
Q.71 The water supplied to a town of having
population 50,000 is 140 lpcd. It is observed
that 75% of water supplied is converting
into waste water which results in it’s 5 day
BOD as 240 mg/l. Calculate population
equivalent, if per capita BOD Produced per
day observed to be 80 g.
(a) 21000 (b) 15750
(c) 16800 (d) 50000
Direction (Q.72 to Q.75): The following items
consists of two statements, one labelled as
Statement (I) and the other labelled as
Statement (II). You have to examine these two
statements carefully and select your answers to
these items using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II)
are true and Statement (II) is the
correct explanation of Statement (I).
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II)
are true but Statement (II) is not a
correct explanation of Statement (I).
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II)
is false.
(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement
(II) is true.
12 ESE 2021 Prelims Exam • Classroom Test Series
Q.72 Statement (I): In case of cavity type
tubewells, water coming out in the
beginning carries sand particle but becomes
clean with the passage of time.
Statement (II): Radial velocity increases as
spherical area of the cavity decreases
outwards.
Q.73 Statement (I): Anabolism is the process by
which the food substances are changed into
the tissues of a living animal or plant.
Statement (II): This process represents the
constructive phase of metabolism.
Q.74 Statement (I): The detachment of the
biomass from slime layer known as
sloughing, and the extent of sloughing is a
function of hydraulic loading rate on filter.
Statement (II): The hydraulic loading rate
accounts for the rate of metabolism in slime
layer, which loosens the biological mass and
leads to sloughing.
Q.75 Statement (I): Growth of green algae is not
observed in zone of active decomposition
during self purification of natural streams.
Statement (II): At beginning and end of this
zone DO of stream generally observed to
be 40% of saturated value, which is not
suitable for aquitatic life.
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