1225-1 CIVIL 200 (09/11/2022 12:30) Introduction to Geotechnical Engineering (Exam)

 CIVIL 200

THE UNIVERSITY OF AUCKLAND

Semester 2
Campus: City

CIVIL 200
Introduction to Geotechnical Engineering

(Time Allowed: 3 hours and 30 minutes)

(Allowable materials: Open Book)

NOTE:

Answer ALL questions.

This exam contributes up to 50% of the final mark for this course.

Write your answers on your own paper and scan for submission.

If an item of information appears to be missing make a reasonable assumption.

State your assumptions clearly.

Assume that gravitational acceleration, g is equal to 9.81 m/s 2.

Information that may be of assistance is provided in a supplementary information

book.

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 1225-1 CIVIL 200 (09/11/2022 12:30) Introduction to Geotechnical Engineering (Exam)

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 1225-1 CIVIL 200 (09/11/2022 12:30) Introduction to Geotechnical Engineering (Exam)

1 The exam question book is available from this link: CIVIL200 Exam 2022_v1.0
A supplementary information book is available from this link: CIVIL200 Exam
2022_Supplementary

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Upload your file here. Maximum one file.
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Maximum marks: 100

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NOTE: Do not write on this question book. Write on your own blank paper/tablet and scan for
submission.

ALL working should be included in your submission. Assume that gravitational acceleration (g) is equal
to 9.81 m/s2. If an item of information appears to be missing then make a reasonable assumption and
state any assumption clearly.

Information that will help you with your exam is provided in the Supplementary Information Book.

Question 1 (20 marks)

a) What are some of the issues that may have to be dealt with when constructing in an area where
limestone is present?

(2 marks)

b) What are the main differences between a UU and a CD triaxial test in terms of the test procedure and
the shear strength properties that are defined?

(2 marks)

c) Sketch the stress strain response of two soil samples from the same deposit during direct shear
testing. One sample was tested in its natural loose state, while the other was densified prior to testing.

(2 marks)

d) Provide a cross-sectional sketch of a granular soil deposit that has: (1) isotropic properties; (2)
anisotropic properties. Explain how this influences the shear strength and permeability of the two
deposits.

(2 marks)

e) Describe the key details of the cone penetration test method. Use a sketch as part of your
description.

(2 marks)

f) What are three things that can disturb a soil sample between its retrieval in the field and its testing in
the lab?

(2 marks)
g) Why is it useful to assume that soil behaves as a continuum when defining shear strength and failure
criterion characteristics?

(2 marks)

h) Define the two limits that are typically used to delineate between the different consistencies of a clay
deposit and describe the general behaviour of the clay either side of these limits.

(2 marks)

i) Describe a method that can be used in the field to identify a soil deposit that is dominated by silt.

(2 marks)

j) Explain why water can rise above the water table in a soil deposit and describe the key factors
influencing the height of this rise.

(2 marks)
Question 2 (20 marks total)

a) A soil deposit has the following properties:

• water content = 25%

• specific gravity = 2.65
• void ratio = 0.8.

i) Calculate the weights and volumes of all the phases of the soil assuming a total weight of 30 kN.

(4 marks)

ii) Calculate the dry unit weight and the degree of saturation of the soil.

(2 marks)

iii) Calculate how much water would need to be added to 3 m3 of the soil in order to saturate it. What is
the change in the unit weight of the soil from the original to the saturated state?

(3 marks)

b) The relative density of a soil deposit was calculated using data from the lab and the field. The specific
gravity of the soil deposit was equal to 2.6 (measured using other lab methods). Samples of the soil
were taken to the lab to define the maximum and minimum void ratio. These can be calculated using
the equation below and the data in the Table for Question 2 b. Use this information to define the
relative density of the soil deposit if the in-situ void ratio was equal to 0.5.

𝐺𝑠 𝜌𝑤
𝑒= −1
𝜌𝑑

Table for Question 2 b

Test 1 – for maximum void ratio Test 2 – for minimum void ratio
Container mass (g) 800 800
Volume of soil (mm3) 550000 500000
Wet soil and container mass (g) 1800 2000
Dry soil and container mass (g) 1550 1800

(5 marks)
c) Laboratory-based soil classification tests were carried out on three different soils samples. Using the
information provided for each sample below, provide a description of the soil based on the NZGS
guidance.

i) Soil Sample 1: Test results summarized in the Figure for Question 2 c i

Figure for Question 2 c i

(2 marks)

ii) Soil Sample 2: Test results summarized in the Figure for Question 2 c ii

Figure for Question 2 c ii

(2 marks)
iii) Soil Sample 3: Test results summarized in the Figure for Question 2 c iii

Figure for Question 2 c iii

(2 marks)
Question 3 (20 marks)

a) The vertical effective stress profile at a site is summarized in the Figure for Question 3 a.

Figure for Question 3 a

i) Using the information provided in the Figure for Question 3 a, identify each soil layer and calculate the
unit weight of each soil layer.

(6 marks)

ii) If the coefficient of earth pressure at rest is equal to 0.5 for depths less than or equal to 3 m and
equal to 0.47 for depths greater than 3 m, calculate the total horizontal stress at the following depths:
3 m and 8 m.

(2 marks)

b) A soil element is located at a depth of 10 m below the ground surface, within a soil layer that has a
unit weight of 18 kN/m3. The water table is at the ground surface. Assuming that the vertical effective
stress remains constant and that the vertical and horizontal planes are the principal planes, calculate the
shear stress and the normal effective stress acting on a plane at 30 degrees to the horizontal for
horizontal total stress values of 130 and 150 kPa.

(6 marks)
c) Seepage is occurring beneath a weir structure shown in the Figure for Question 3 c. Calculate the pore
pressure at points A, B and C, noting that point B is below the centre of the base of the structure.

Figure for Question 3 c

(6 marks)
Question 4 (20 marks)

a) A CU triaxial test was carried out on a silty sand soil sample. The cell pressure was equal to 200 kPa.
At failure the deviator stress was equal to 410 kPa and the pore pressure was equal to 73 kPa.

i) Assuming that the cohesion intercept is equal to 0, calculate the friction angle of the soil.

(3 marks)

ii) If the friction angle was equal to 35°, calculate the cohesion intercept of the soil.

(3 marks)

iii) Calculate the angle of the failure plane relative to the horizontal plane for the soil shear strength
parameters in Question 4 a i and 4 a ii.

(2 marks)

b) A CD triaxial test was performed on a soil specimen with a length of 100 mm and a diameter of
50 mm. The cell pressure applied was equal to 100 kPa and the deviator load at failure was equal to
500 N. At failure the length of the specimen had reduced by 12 mm, and the volume loss from the
specimen was equal to 5000 mm3.

i) Calculate the major and minor principal effective stresses at failure.

(4 marks)

ii) Assuming that c’ is equal to zero, use the CD test data to demonstrate whether a sample of the same
soil under the following conditions would be at failure or not:

• Major principal total stress 700 kPa

• Minor principal total stress 300 kPa
• Pore pressure 95 kPa

(3 marks)
c) The results of direct shear tests on a soil are summarized in the Table for Question 4 c.

Table for Question 4 c

Sample Normal Force (N) Peak Shear Force (N) Residual Shear Force (N)
1 300 190 165
2 540 342 297

i) Calculate the peak and residual angle of shearing resistance for the soil, assuming that c’=0.

(3 marks)

ii) Calculate the shear stress at failure for the soil in a dense and a loose state if the normal effective
stress at failure is equal to 650 kPa.

(2 marks)
Question 5 (20 marks)

a) A well for extracting water from a confined aquifer was installed at a site. The top of the confined
aquifer was at a depth of 10 m and the bottom was at a depth of 17 m. When the well was first installed
the water level rose to 3 m below the ground surface, prior to the installation of any pumps.
Observation wells were installed 50 m and 150 m radially out from the centre of the extraction well.

i) At a pumping rate of 3000 litres/hour the water levels in the observation wells were 5 m and 4 m
below the ground surface, respectively. Calculate the coefficient of permeability of the confined aquifer.

(3 marks)

ii) Calculate the radius of influence of the extraction well.

(3 marks)

iii) What is the minimum depth that the observation wells would have to be installed to?

(2 marks)

b) A constant head permeameter test shown in the Figure for Question 5 b was used to define the
coefficient of permeability of a cylindrical sandy soil sample. 100 ml of water was collected over a period
of 220 seconds during the testing.

Figure for Question 5 b

i) Calculate the coefficient of permeability of the soil in m/s.

(2 marks)
ii) What influence would the following changes to the test setup have on the coefficient of permeability
of the soil and the flow rate through the soil?

• The difference in head between the two piezometer locations was increased.
• The cross sectional area of the soil specimen was increased.

(2 marks)

c) The characteristics of a soil profile are summarized in the Figure for Question 5 c. Seepage is occurring
horizontally through these layers. Assuming a unit thickness (into the page) and a hydraulic gradient
equal to 0.8, calculate the maximum height that the bottom soil layer could have such that the
combined flow rate through the layers is no greater than 2.84 x 10-4 m3/s.

Figure for Question 5 c

(8 marks)