Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Notes
- This file includes the important formulas (not all) in the syllabus.
- We also include the notations and the descriptions for the formulas so that you won't get
(eddy.chan@pakstudymanual.com)
Tax shield
- Because the future FCF beyond year 4 is expected to grow at 5% per year, the continuation value in year 4 of
the FCF in years 5+ is:
FCF4 × (1 + g ) 1.05
Continuation Value in Year 4 = = $1.30m × = $27.3m
r−g 0.10 − 0.05
E = Market value of equity rE = Equity cost of capital τ c = Marginal corporate tax rate
D = Market value of debt (net of cash) rD = Debt cost of capital
Assumptions
- The firm maintains a constant debt-equity ratio
- The WACC remains constant over time
Debt Capacity
- An investment’s debt capacity (Dt) is the amount of debt at date t that is required to maintain the firm’s target
debt-to-value ratio (d)
Dt = d ×Vt L
Levered Continuation Value
FCFt +1 + Vt L+1
Vt L =
1 + rwacc
- The interest tax shield is equal to the interest paid multiplied by the corporate tax rate τc
Interest tax shield in year t = ( Interest paid in year t ) × τ c
- To compute the present value of the interest tax shield, we need to determine the appropriate cost of capital
- When the firm maintains a target leverage ratio, its future interest tax shields have similar risk to the project’s
cash flows, so they should be discounted at the project’s unlevered cost of capital
n
Interest tax shield t
PV ( Interest tax shield ) =
t =1 (1 + rU )t
Net Borrowing
Net Borrowing at Date t: Net Borrowing t = Dt − Dt −1
- Because the tax shield is proportional to the project’s free cash flow, it has the same risk as the project’s cash
flow and so should be discounted at the same rate (the unlevered cost of capital rU)
- With a constant interest coverage policy, the value of the interest tax shield is proportional to the project’s
unlevered value
- If the investment’s free cash flows are expected to grow at a constant rate, then the assumption of constant
interest coverage and a constant debt-equity ratio are equivalent
Impact of Imperfection
Impact of Imperfection = NPV(after change) − NPV(before change)
- If the impact of imperfection is negative (positive), then it is a loss (gain)
- We can value the tax shield by discounting it at rate rU as before, and then multiply the result by the factor
(1 + rU)/(1 + rD) to account for the fact that the tax shield is known one year in advance
E Ds Ds
rU =
rE + rD or rE = rU + ( rU − rD )
E + Ds E + Ds E
Project WACC with a Fixed Debt Schedule
rwacc = rU − dτ c [ rD + φ ( rU − rD ) ]
D
d= = Debt-to-value ratio
D+E
Ts
φ= = A measure of the permanence of the debt level (D)
τcD
Annually adjusted τ c rD D r rD
Ts = D s = D 1 + τ c D φ=
debt 1 + rD 1 + rD 1 + rD
Permanent φ =1
T s = τcD D s = D (1 − τ c )
debt
Personal Taxes
(1 − τ i )
rD* ≡ rD
(1 − τ e )
Notation
τ e = The tax rate investors pay on equity income (dividends)
τ i = The tax rate investors pay on interest income
rD = The expected return on debt
rD* = The expected return on equity income that would give investors the same after-tax return
n CFlease,t − CFbuy ,t
PV (Lease vs. Borrow) = where rWACC = rD (1 − τ c )
t =0 (1 + rwacc )t
None
Method Description
Cash o The bidder simply pays for the target, including any premium, in cash.
o The bidder pays for the target by issuing new stock and giving it to the target shareholders.
o The price offered = the exchange ratio x the market price of the acquirer’s stock.
o The exchange ratio = the number of bidder shares received in exchange for each target share.
o A stock-swap merger is a positive-NPV investment if the share price of the merged firm > premerger price
of the acquiring firm.
Notation
A = premerger value of the acquirer
A+T + S A
> T = premerger value of the target
NA + x NA S = value of the synergies created by the merger
Stock NA = shares outstanding before the merger
x = new shares issued to pay for the target
x T + S N A PT S
o Exchange ratio = < = 1 +
N T A N T PA T
Notation
NT = premerger number of target shares outstanding
PT = T / NT
PA = A / NA
CFC C
S× *
= F × FC*
(1 + rFC ) (1 + r$ )
(1 + r$* )
F =S× *
(1 + rFC )
(1 + r£* ) (1 + r£ ) S
= =
(1 + r$* ) (1 + r$ ) F
(1 + r£ )
r£* = (1 + r$* ) − 1
(1 + r$ )
r£* ≈ r£ + ( r$* − r$ )
F-135-19: Why Are the Parts Worth More than The Sum? “Chop Shop”, a Corporate Valuation Model
F-136-19: Corporate Value Creation, Governance and Privatization
None
Defensive Interval Ratio Cash + Short-term marketable investments + Receivables Daily cash expenditures
* The definition of total debt used in these ratios varies among informed analysts and financial data vendors, with some using
the total of interest-bearing short-term and long-term debt, excluding liabilities such as accrued expenses and accounts
payable
Return on Common Equity Net income – preferred dividends Average common equity
Decomposing ROE
- Start with the ROE formula, which is equal to Net income / Average shareholders’ equity
- We can re-arrange to the following:
Net income Net income Average total assets
ROE = = × = ROA × Leverage
Average shareholders' equity Average total assets Average shareholders' equity
- This decomposition illustrates that a company's ROE is a function of its net profit margin, its efficiency, and its
leverage
- To separate the effects of taxes and interest, we can further decompose the net profit margin and write:
Net income Net income EBT EBIT Revenue Average total assets
ROE = = × × × ×
Average shareholders' equity EBT EBIT Revenue Average total assets Average shareholders' equity
= Tax burden × Interest burden × EBIT margin × Total asset turnover × Leverage
Price-to-Sale Ratio
Price per share Sales per share
(P/S)
Adjusted income available for ordinary shares, Weighted average number of ordinary and
Diluted EPS
reflecting conversion of dilutive securities potential ordinary shares outstanding
Coefficient of Variation of
Standard deviation of net income Average net income
Net Income
Coefficient of Variation of
Standard deviation of revenue Average revenue
Revenues
Liquid Asset Requirement Approved “readily marketable” securities Specified deposit liabilities
Sales per Square Meter Revenue Total retail space in square meters
Funds from Operations FFO + Interest paid – Operating lease Gross interest (prior to deductions for
(FFO) Interest Coverage adjustments capitalized interest or interest income)
Average capital
Return on Capital EBIT where capital = equity + non-current deferred
taxes + debt
Example 1
- The following information pertains to a fictitious company, Reston Partners:
- The principles used to calculate accounting profit (profit before tax) may differ from the principles applied for
tax purposes (the calculation of taxable income)
- For illustrative purposes, however, assume that all income and expenses on the income statement are treated
identically for tax and accounting purposes except depreciation
- At each balance sheet date, the tax base and carrying amount of all assets and liabilities must be determined
- The comparison of the tax base and carrying amount of equipment shows what the deferred tax liability should
be on a particular balance sheet date
- Because the different treatment of depreciation is a temporary difference, the income tax on the income
statement is 30 percent of the accounting profit, although only a part is income tax payable and the rest is a
deferred tax liability
- Any amount paid to the tax authorities will reduce the liability for income tax payable and be reflected on the
statement of cash flows of the company
Example 1
- To illustrate the effect of a change in tax rate, consider Example 1 again
- The carrying amount and tax base for the equipment is:
- At a 30 percent income tax rate, the deferred tax liability was then determined
- Reston Partners' provision for income tax expense is also affected by the change in tax rates
- Taxable income for Year 3 will now be taxed at a rate of 25 percent
The benefit of Year 3 accelerated depreciation tax shield = (£2857 – 2000) × 25%
= £214 instead of the previous £257 (a reduction of £43)
- In addition, the reduction in the beginning carrying value of the deferred tax liability for Year 3 (the year of
change) further reduces the income tax expense for Year 3
- The reduction in income tax expense attributable to the change in tax rate is £85
- These two components together account for the reduction in the deferred tax liability = £43 + £85 = £128
None
Rules for the Translation of a Foreign Subsidiary's Foreign Currency Financial Statements into the Parent's
Presentation Currency under IFRS and US GAAP
Foreign Subsidiary’s Functional Currency
Foreign Currency Parent’s Presentation Currency
Translation Method Current Rate Method Temporal Method
Assets
Monetary (e.g. cash and receivables) Current rate Current rate
Non-monetary (measured at current value) Current rate Current rate
Non-monetary (measured at historical rate) Current rate Historical rates
Liabilities
Monetary (e.g. accounts payable) Current rate Current rate
Non-monetary (measured at current value) Current rate Current rate
Non-monetary (not measured at current value) Current rate Historical rates
Equity
Other than retained earnings Historical rate Historical rates
(Beg. Balance + translated net income – dividends ) translated at
Retained earnings
historical rate
Revenues Average rate Average rate
Expenses
Most expenses Average rate Average rate
Expenses related to assets translated at historical
exchange rate (e.g. cost of goods sold, Average rate Historical rates
depreciation, and amortization)
Treatment of the translation adjustment in the Accumulated as a separate Included as gain or loss in net
parent's consolidated financial statements component of equity income
Note: There are a lot of calculation examples in the rest of the chapters in the ADMC textbook. We put the whole
calculations in this file so that you won’t miss them.
Sales Return
turnover on Sales
- ROI is the product of sales turnover and return on sales
- Given these data, managers could determine the causes of a product’s change in ROI
- Du Pont managers used these data to evaluate new capital appropriations by establishing the policy that there
be no expenditures for additions to the earnings equipment if the same amount of money could be applied to
some better purpose in another branch of the company’s business
- Other EVA-like terms have been created such as economic profit, shareholder value added, total business
return, and cash-flow return on investment
- And like EVA, these other metrics are variants of residual income
- The EVA formula is basically the same as residual income but differ in 2 ways:
1. Different accounting procedures are often used to calculate “adjusted accounting earnings” than are used
in reporting to shareholders (i.e. entire amount to be deducted from earnings or amortized over time)
2. Many companies implementing EVA not only adopt EVA as their performance measure but also link
compensation to performance measured by EVA
International Taxation
- When products are transferred overseas, the firm’s corporate tax liability in both the exporting and importing
country is affected if the firm files tax returns in both jurisdictions
- If the two tax jurisdictions tax income at different rates, then the firm will set the transfer price to shift as much
of the profit into the lower-rate jurisdiction as possible, subject to the taxing authorities’ guidelines
- By choosing the highest allowed transfer price, Bausch & Lomb can recognize more profits in the country with
the lowest corporate income tax rate
Example of How Profits are Reduced When Transfer Price is not Set at Opportunity Cost
- There are 2 profit centers: the Seller and Buyer divisions
- Both divisions are profit centers and maximize their division’s profits
- The cost structure of the 2 divisions are as follows:
Seller Buyer
Fixed costs $150 / day $100 (1st 100 units per day)
Variable costs $0.10 / unit $0.20 / unit (over 100 units)
- The Buyer Division faces a downward-sloping demand curve for its final product, which includes the
intermediate product with the following price-quantity relationship
- Suppose the transfer price is set at $0.95 per unit (variable cost of $0.10 + fixed cost of $0.75 + $0.10 profit)
and 200 motors are transferred seller’s profit would be 200 x $0.10 = $20
- Both divisions seem to be operating well, and both are making a profit, but the company is not maximizing
profits
Output Seller Costs Buyer Costs Total Cost Total Revenue Profit
100 $160 $100 $260 $200 -$60
200 170 120 290 360 70
300 180 140 320 450 130
400 190 160 350 520 170
500 200 180 380 600 220
600 210 200 410 624 214
Q1: Allocate the indirect overhead of $350,000 to the fixed-fee and cost-plus 25% contracts using direct
cost as the overhead allocation base
A1:
Fixed Fee Cost-Plus Total
Direct cost $1,800,000 $450,000 $2,250,000
% of direct cost 80% 20% 100%
Allocated overhead based on 80% x $350,000 20% x $350,000
$350,000
direct cost = $280,000 = $70,000
Q2: Allocate the indirect overhead of $350,000 to the fixed-fee and cost-plus 25% contracts using number
of contracts as the overhead allocation base
A2:
Fixed Fee Cost-Plus Total
Number of contracts 15 10 25
% of contracts 60% 40% 100%
Allocated overhead based on 60% x $350,000 40% x $350,000
$350,000
number of contracts = $210,000 = $140,000
Q3: Should NS allocate overhead using direct cost or number of contracts? Explain why
A3: Assuming that
(1) the only use of overhead allocations is the computation of total cost for pricing cost-plus contracts and
(2) the total number of cost-plus contracts is insensitive to the final price
NS should allocate overhead using number of contracts. Using number of contracts leads to
$70,000 (= $140,000 - $70,000) more indirect costs allocated to the cost-plus contracts and hence to
$87,500 (= 1.25 X $70,000) of additional revenues on these contracts
Example
- Table below summarizes the various combinations of salespeople required to sell $10 million of computers per
month
- Salespeople cost $4,000 per month and a banner ad costs $2,000 per ad for one hour
- To select the combination of salespeople and advertising, the branch manager will choose the one that
minimizes total costs, which is:
40 x $4,000 + 158.11 x $2,000 = 476,220
Total Cost
Number of Salespeople Number of Banner Ads
(Before Allocations)
30 182.57 $485,140
31 179.61 483,220
32 176.78 481,560
33 174.08 480,160
34 171.50 479,000
35 169.03 478,060
36 166.67 477,340
37 164.40 476,800
38 162.22 476,440
39 160.13 472,260
40 158.11 476,220
41 156.17 476,340
42 154.30 476,600
- Suppose corporate expense of $1,000 is allocated based on the number of salespeople the lowest cost
combination now consists of 34 salespeople and 171.5 ads
34 x $4,000 + 171.5 x $2,000 + 34 x $1,000 = 476,220
TCc
- At point c, the overhead rate, Rc, is equal to Rc = < MCc
C
where MC = marginal cost in the HR department and is the slope of the smooth curve
Case 2
TCB
- At point b, the overhead rate, Rb, is equal to Rb = = MCb
B
Case 3
TC A
- At point a, the overhead rate, Ra, is equal to Ra = > MCa
A
NOTE: The analysis above demonstrates that situations do exist where allocating overhead is better than not
allocating. Whenever average cost is less than marginal cost, the costs allocated are less than the
marginal cost incurred by the firm. Although the firm is not allocating enough cost, it is probably better to
impose some tax than no tax on the managers who cause HR department costs to rise. Unfortunately, a
simple rule such as “always allocate” or “never allocate” does not exist
A1: Overhead rate for Production Department = Factory overhead / machine hours
= $300,000 / 1,500 = $200 per machine hour
Overhead rate for Assembly Department = Factory overhead / direct labor hours
= $100,000 / 10,000 = $10 per direct labor hour
Q2: Given the following information for job #77, calculate its overhead costs
Production Assembly
Direct materials used $3,000 $2,000
Direct labor cost $11,000 $15,500
Machine hours 100 250
Direct labor hours 500 750
A2: Overhead cost for Production Department = $200 x 100 machine hours = $20,000
Overhead cost for Assembly Department = $10 x 750 direct labor hours = $7,500
Total overhead cost = $27,500
Q3: Given the following actual operating results for the current year, calculate the over/underapplied
overhead for each department
Production Assembly
Factory overhead $325,000 $65,000
Direct labor cost $900,000 $230,000
Machine hours 1,550 6,250
Direct labor hours 47,000 10,500
A3: Over/underapplied overhead for Production Department = Actual overhead – Overhead applied
= $325,000 – 1,550 x $200 / machine hour
= $15,000 underapplied
Over/underapplied overhead for Assembly Department = Actual overhead – Overhead applied
= $65,000 – 10,550 x $10 / direct labor hour
= $40,000 overapplied
Example 1
- Fast Change offers automobile oil changes at $30 each
- The variable cost ($20) of providing an oil change includes both direct labor and supplies (oil and oil filter)
- There is also a fixed cost of $4,000 per month
- Summary of operations from last month:
Price per oil change $30
Variable cost per service $20
Number of oil changes 500
Revenue $15,000
Variable cost (10,000)
Fixed cost (4,000)
Net income $1,000
Total cost $14,000
Number of oil changes ÷ 500
Cost per oil change $28
- This month, the price of an oil change ($30) remains constant, as does the variable cost and fixed cost
- However, the number of oil changes falls from 500 to 350, and the summary of operations for current month
would look like this:
Price per oil change $30
Variable cost per service $20
Number of oil changes 350
Revenue $10,500
Variable cost (7,000)
Fixed cost (4,000)
Net income $500
Total cost $11,000
Number of oil changes ÷ 350
Cost per oil change $31.43
- Notice that the net income dropped by $500 and the cost per oil change has risen
- A manager’s natural tendency when confronted by a cost increase is to raise prices
- But in Fast Change’s case, average costs rose because volumes fell
- The out-of-pocket costs (the variable cost) of the service did not change
- Since the cost of doing one more oil change is still $20, the opportunity cost of an oil service has not changed
and therefore, the price of an oil change should not be raised
- In fact, the price probably should be lowered because the demand for oil changes has dropped
Example
- Pacemakers Inc. manufactures and distributes pacemakers that are implanted into patients to regulate their
heart rate
- The projected overhead rate is based on a flexible budget
- Overhead is applied to pacemakers based on direct labor hours
- The following information is given:
2016 2017 2018
Fixed overhead $2,200 $2,300 $2,500
Variable overhead per DLH $1.10 $1.15 $1.20
Projected annual volume (DLH) 800 1,200 1,000
- Management forecasts that the plant’s average, long-run volume over the next 3 years will be 1 million direct
labor hours per year
Q1: Calculate the projected overhead rates for 2016 to 2018 using expected and normal volume
A1:
2016 2017 2018
Fixed overhead $2,200 $2,300 $2,500
Variable overhead per DLH $1.10 $1.15 $1.20
Projected annual volume (DLH) 800 1,200 1,000
Normal annual volume (DLH) 1,000 1,000 1,000
Flexible overhead budget:
$2,200 + 800 x $2,300 + 1,200 x $2,500 + 1,000 x
Based on expected volume
$1.10 = $3,080 $1.15 = $3,680 $1.20 = $3,700
$2,200 + 1,000 x $2,300 + 1,000 x $2,500 + 1,000 x
Based on normal volume
$1.10 = $3,300 $1.15 = $3,450 $1.20 = $3,700
Projected overhead rate / DLH:
$3,080 ÷ 800 $3,680 ÷ 1,200 $3,700 ÷ 1,000
Based on expected volume
= $3.85 = $3.07 = $3.70
$3,300 ÷ 1,000 $3,450 ÷ 1,000 $3,700 ÷ 1,000
Based on normal volume
= $3.30 = $3.45 = $3.70
Q2: Even though actual overheads for 2016 to 2018 are not known yet, using your estimated overhead rate based
on expected volume from Q1, forecast Pacemakers’ over/underabsorbed overhead for 2016 to 2018
A2:
2016 2017 2018
Projected overhead incurred $3,080 $3,680 $3,700
Projected overhead absorbed $3.85 x 800 $3.07 x 1,200 $3.70 x 1,000
based on expected volume = $3,080 = $3,680 = $3,700
Over/underabsorbed Overhead $0 $0 $0
Q3: Even though actual overheads for 2016 to 2018 are not known yet, using your estimated overhead rate based
on normal volume from Q1, forecast Pacemakers’ over/underabsorbed overhead for 2016 to 2018
A3:
2016 2017 2018
Projected overhead incurred $3,080 $3,680 $3,700
Projected overhead absorbed $3.30 x 800 $3.45 x 1,200 $3.70 x 1,000
based on normal volume = $2,640 = $4,140 = $3,700
Over/underabsorbed Overhead $440 ($460) $0
Step 1
- Step 1 summarizes the physical flow of the units and calculates the equivalent units of work in the
physical flows
- The summary of the physical flow is based on the accounting identity:
- Since the ending inventory is 1,200 pounds and 20,000 pounds were started, 18,800 pounds must have been
finished and transferred
- These equations hold under the assumption of no spoilage
Units Conversion Peanuts Spices Total
Step 1
Physical flow:
Units started 20,000
Units to account for 20,000
Ending work in process (30%) 1,200 360 1,200 0
Transferred out 18,800 18,800 18,800 18,800
Units accounted for 20,000
- Costs and the amount of work done are accumulated for each of the two batches: (1) ending work-in-process
(WIP) inventory and (2) transferred out in March
- Consider the batch of ending work-in-process inventory
- In step 1 there are 1,200 pounds of ending WIP inventory, which are 30 percent complete with respect to
conversion costs
- This inventory was started in March. Conversion costs were incurred to produce this level of completion,
requiring 360 equivalent units of work (1,200 lbs @ 30 percent)
- All the peanuts are added at the beginning, so there are 1,200 equivalent units of peanuts in the ending WIP
inventory
- On the other hand, since all the Cajun spices are added at the end of the process, the ending work-in-process
inventory contains no equivalent units of spices
- All the units transferred out (18,800) are complete with respect to conversion, peanuts, and spices, so there
are 18,800 equivalent units of these items
Step 2
- Step 2 computes the cost per equivalent unit for the conversion costs, peanuts, and spices
- Total equivalent units are the sum of the equivalent units in the ending WIP inventory and units transferred out
in
Units Conversion Peanuts Spices Total
Step 2
Equivalent units 19,160 20,000 18,800
Costs per unit:
Total costs $15,000 $32,000 $4,000
Cost per equivalent unit $0.7829 $1.600 $0.2128 $2.5957
- The three cost categories (conversion, peanuts, and Cajun spices) have different equivalent units
- For conversion costs, 19,160 equivalent units were produced
- For peanuts, 20,000 equivalent units were produced
- For Cajun spices, 18,800 equivalent units were produced
- The cost per equivalent unit is an average cost calculated as the ratio of the total costs incurred in the cost
category and the number of equivalent units of work performed in that category
- Costs per equivalent unit for conversion, peanuts, and spices are $0.7829, $1.6000, and $0.2128, respectively
- The total cost of a complete pound of peanut butter is the sum of the conversion, peanuts, and spice costs
($2.5957)
Step 3
- Step 3 lists all the costs to be assigned to either the ending WIP inventory or the units transferred out,
totaling $51,000
Units Conversion Peanuts Spices Total
Step 3
Total costs to account for:
Conversion costs $15,000
Peanuts purchased 32,000
Cajun spices 4,000
Total costs $51,000
Step 4
- Step 4 uses the costs per equivalent unit to value work in process and units transferred out
Units Conversion Peanuts Spices Total
Step 4
$0.7829 x 360 $1.60 x 1,200 $0.2128 x 0
Ending work in process $2,202
= $282 = $1,920 =0
18,000 x $2.5957
Transferred out
= $48,798
- Costs are assigned to the ending WIP inventory by taking the equivalent units in ending WIP inventory for each
cost category and multiplying by the cost per equivalent unit in the same cost category
- These are then summed across categories to get the cost of the ending WIP inventory
- For example, the ending WIP inventory of $2,202 is composed of $282 of conversion costs (360 equivalent
units times $0.7829 per equivalent unit) and $1,920 of peanuts (1,200 equivalent units times $1.60 per
equivalent unit)
- There is no Cajun spice cost in the ending WIP inventory because these spices are only added when the
process is finished
- The cost of the units transferred out is $48,798 (18,800 x 2.5957)
Summary of Calculation
Units Conversion Peanuts Spices Total
Step 1
Physical flow:
Units started 20,000
Units to account for 20,000
Ending work in process (30%) 1,200 360 1,200 0
Transferred out 18,800 18,800 18,800 18,800
Units accounted for 20,000
Step 2
Equivalent units 19,160 20,000 18,800
Costs per unit:
Total costs $15,000 $32,000 $4,000
Cost per equivalent unit $0.7829 $1.600 $0.2128 $2.5957
Step 3
Total costs to account for:
Conversion costs $15,000
Peanuts purchased 32,000
Cajun spices 4,000
Total costs $51,000
Step 4
$0.7829 x 360 $1.60 x 1,200 $0.2128 x 0
Ending work in process $2,202
= $282 = $1,920 =0
18,000 x $2.5957
Transferred out
= $48,798
Dollar Quantity
Beginning inventory in process (40% complete) $3,600* 2,000 lbs
Peanuts purchased and entered in process $32,000 20,000 lbs
Ending inventory in process (30% complete) Not available 1,200 lbs
Cajun spices $4,000
All other factory costs (conversion costs) $15,000
* Composed of $600 conversion cost ($0.75 per equivalent unit x 2,000 lbs. x 40% complete) plus $3,000 peanut cost
($1.50 per equivalent unit x $2,000 x 100% complete)
Step 1
- The first change to notice is that the units transferred out are different from those in previous example
- From the earlier accounting identity,
Beginning inventory + Units started = Units transferred out + Ending inventory
2,000 lbs. + 20,000 lbs. = Units transferred out + 1,200 lbs
Units transferred out = 20,800 lbs
- Given the revised transferred out amount, the equivalent units for conversion, peanuts, and spices are
calculated
Step 2
- Under FIFO costing, the goal is to compute the cost per equivalent unit of only the work done in March
- The equivalent units in the beginning WIP inventory (800 equivalent units of conversion costs) are subtracted
out under step 2 to make sure the equivalent units computed are for work done in March only
- The beginning inventory contains equivalent units of work done in prior periods
- Step 2 also computes the cost per equivalent unit: $0.7367 for conversion costs, $1.60 for peanuts, and
$0.1923 for spices
Step 3
- Total costs to account for now include the beginning WIP inventory ($3,600) plus the costs incurred in March
Step 4
- The unit costs from step 2 are used to compute the ending amount of work in process ($2,185) in step 4
- Ending WIP inventory ($2,185) is composed of the equivalent units of conversion, peanuts, and spices in the
ending WIP inventory multiplied by the respective cost per equivalent unit of conversion ($0.7367) and peanuts
($1.60). (Remember, since spices are added at the end of the process, WIP contains no spice costs)
Transferred out:
- In step 4, the cost of units transferred to finished goods consists of the beginning WIP inventory ($3,600), the
costs to complete the beginning WIP inventory ($884 of conversion and $385 of spices), and the cost of units
started and completed in March ($47,545)
Step 2
Less equivalent units in
(800) (2,000) 0
beginning WIP
Equivalent units of work done in
20,360 20,000 20,800
March
Costs per unit:
Total costs incurred in March $15,000 $32,000 $4,000
Cost per equivalent unit $0.7367 $1.600 $0.1923 $2.5290
Step 3
Total costs to account for:
Beginning work in process $3,600
Conversion costs 15,000
Peanuts purchased 32,000
Cajun spices 4,000
Total costs $54,600
Step 4
$0.7367 x 360 $1.60 x 1,200 $0.1923 x 0
Ending work in process $2,185
= $265 = $1,920 =0
Transferred out:
Step 1
- Total equivalent units are the sum of both the beginning WIP inventory equivalent units and the equivalent
units worked this period
- For example, equivalent units of peanuts (22,000) consist of 1,200 units in the ending inventory plus 20,800
units transferred out
- These 22,000 units include the peanuts in the beginning inventory
Step 2-3
- The total cost in step 3 is the sum of the costs in the beginning WIP inventory and costs incurred this period
- Thus, the cost per equivalent unit is a weighted average of the costs in the beginning WIP inventory and those
incurred this period
Step 3
Total costs to account for:
Beginning work in process $3,600
Conversion costs 15,000
Peanuts purchased 32,000
Cajun spices 4,000
Total costs $54,600
Step 4
Units Conversion Peanuts Spices Total
$0.7372 x 360 1.5909 x 1,200 $0.1923 x 0
Ending work in process $2,174
= $265 = $1,909 =0
20,800 x $2.5204
Transferred out:
= $52,424
Total costs $54,600
Step 2
Equivalent units of work done in
21,160 22,000 20,800
March
Costs per unit:
Beginning work in process $600 $3,000
Current costs added $15,000 $32,000 $4,000
Total Cost $15,600 $35,000 $4,000
Cost per equivalent unit $0.7372 $1.5909 $0.1923 $2.5204
Step 3
Total costs to account for:
Beginning work in process $3,600
Conversion costs 15,000
Peanuts purchased 32,000
Cajun spices 4,000
Total costs $54,600
Step 4
$0.7372 x 360 1.5909 x 1,200 $0.1923 x 0
Ending work in process $2,174
= $265 = $1,909 =0
20,800 x $2.5204
Transferred out:
= $52,424
Example
- A photocopy store owner expects long-run average volume (normal volume) to be 175,000 copies per month
- Assume the following:
o The store is leased for $1,000 per month
o Employees are paid $2,000 per month
o A copier is leased for $500 per month + $0.005 per copy
o Paper costs are $0.005 per sheet
- The store completes a customer order for 5,000 flyers at $0.04 per page, or $200
- Assuming that taking this job did not require forgoing another job, the opportunity cost of this job was $50 (the
paper at $0.005 per page and the additional copier fee at $0.005 per page)
- But the accounting cost of this order is $150, which incorporates some allocated overhead
Overhead Costs per Month
Office rental $1,000
Labor 2,000
Copier rental 500
$3,500
Divided by normal copy volume 175,000
Overhead costs per normal cop $0.020
This is the long-run
Paper costs 0.005 average cost, meaning
at a normal volume of
Additional copier charge per page 0.005 175,000 copies per
Total cost per page $0.030 month, the store must
charge at least $0.03
Number of pages in job 5,000 per page to break even
Total job cost $150
Profit-maximizing point
- Under both pricing scenarios, the store is losing money. However, the loss is smaller when the price is cut to
$0.034 per copy
- Notice that in both cases fixed costs remain constant at $3,500
- Since fixed costs do not vary (by definition) between the two pricing scenarios, fixed costs are irrelevant for the
pricing decision
- But they are relevant when it comes to the shutdown decision
None
#1: NIACC
NIACC = Net Income – Economic Capital Charge = Net Income – (Economic Capital x Ke)
- NIACC can be thought of as a company’s economic profit, or a firm’s revenue after deducting its monetary
costs and opportunity costs
#2: SVA
- SVA is the discounted value of the NIACC
#3: RAROC
RARIC = Risk-Adjusted Return / Economic Capital
M / B = (RAROC – g) / (Ke – g)
- The advantage of EC and RAROC models is that the analytical results are linked to earnings, capital
management, and shareholder value maximization
Ceded RAROC
- Ceded RAROC indicates the degree to which the transfer reduces risk and represents the effective cost of
risk transfer:
Ceded RAROC = ∆ Risk-Adjusted Return / ∆ Economic Capital
- If the ceded RAROC < Ke, the risk transfer creates shareholder value
- If the ceded RAROC > Ke, the risk transfer is destroying shareholder value
None
Example
- Assume that there are 4 term life products with the same maturities
- Also assume that the designated cost drivers for promotion and policy-handling are the principal determinants
of overhead costs and that all costings are accurately recorded by the organization’s accounting system
- Direct labor cost per hour = $5
- Overhead support costs = $30,800 comprising $10,920 sales promotions and $19,880 policy handling costs
Direct Non-Labor Direct Labor Hours per Number of Sales
Policy Ref. Policies Sold
Costs Policy Promotions Made in Period
A 10 20 1 2
B 10 80 3 2
C 100 20 1 5
D 100* 80 3 5
Total 220 14
* based on the calculation in the source material, this should be 100 instead of 1,000
Policies
10 10 100 100 200
Produced
Hours Worked 10 30 100 300 440
$3,050 / 10 = $9,500 / 100 = $30,500 / 100 =
Cost per Unit $950 / 10 = $95
$305 $95 $305
Policies
10 10 100 100 200
Produced
$4,650 / 10 = $5,350 / 10 = $13,500 / 100 = $20,500 / 100 =
Cost per Unit
$465 $535 $135 $205
None
n n
Notation
x = number of exceedances in the sample
n = number of observations
p = predicted probability of exceedances
(
] + 2 ln 1 − π 01 ) (1 − π ) π 11n
n01 + n11 n00 n01 n10
LRind = −2 ln[(1 − π 2 ) n00 + n11 π 2 π 01 11
11
distributed as a χ (1)
2
Notation
nij = number of days that state j occurred after state i occurred the previous day
π ij = probability of state j in any given day, given that the previous day’s state was i
n01 n11 n01 + n11
π 01 = π 11 = π 2 =
n00 + n01 n10 + n11 n00 + n10 + n01 + n11
None
Textbook Reading: Fundamentals of Machine Learning for Predictive Data Analytics Ch. 9
where levels(t) = set of levels that the target feature (t) can assume
|levels(t)| = size of the set
recalll = recall achieved by a model for level l
Textbook Reading: Fundamentals of Machine Learning for Predictive Data Analytics Ch. 12 and 14
None
General Setting
- Suppose we have N risk drivers, R1,…,RN which take on the values r1(s),…,rN(s) for scenario s and each
scenario produces value y(s).
- We would like to fit this with a proxy function, so we select a number of basis functions of the risk drivers,
Xk(r1,…,rN) for k=1,…,K.
Item Notation
N risk drivers o R1,…,RN
Formulaic form:
k =1,..., K
β k X k ( r1 ( s ),..., rN ( s )) = y ( s ) (for scenarios s=1,…,S where S ≥ K)
Matrix form: βX = y
- For S > K, the problem is one of regression for which an exact solution may not be possible.
- The least squares solution is then found by minimizing the function S given by:
2
S (β ) = y − X β
Matrix form: W 1/2 ( y − X β ) where W is the diagonal matrix of weights w(s) for each scenario s=1,…,S.
- The least squares solution is then found by minimizing the function S given by:
1 2
S (β ) = W ( y − X β )
2
Notation Description
o The xi are the fitting points where the value of the unknown function is known.
xi o The unknown function is the cost of guarantees and each xi is the value of the risk drivers (equity, rates,
lapse etc.) at that fitting point.
ψi o The ψi are weights assigned to each fitting point.
o The function Φ(||x,xi ||) is the radial basis function.
o It is "radial" because its value depends only on the Euclidean distance between the point to be
approximated x, and the fitting point xi .
Φ(||x,xi ||) o The RBFs are all interpolations rather than regressions.
o Hence at each of the fitting points xi , the value of the function to be approximated f(xi) equals g(xi).
o We solve for the weights ψi, and so this gives n linear equations in n unknowns.
o In general, this will have a unique solution and it is possible to choose Φ to ensure that this is the case.
o If the function Φ is positive definite, then the system of equations for ψi will have a solution.
Multi-quadric φ ( r ) = 1 + (ε r )2
Inverse Multi-quadric φ ( r ) = 1 / 1 + (ε r )2
Commutation Functions
Vector
Nominal Amount Life Cover vector o N = ( n1 ,..., nLast )
Discount Factors vector o D = ( D1 ,..., DLast )
Survival vector o l = (l1 ,..., lLast )
Persistency vector o P = ( per1 ,..., perLast )
None
F-148-20: A Guide To Risk Measurement, Capital Allocation And Related Decision Support Issues
Example
(1) (2) (3)
1st Percentile
Actual % Scaled
A 60.1 33.3% 42.8
B 60.1 33.3% 42.8
C 60.1 33.3% 42.8
Total 180.3 100.0% 128.4
NOTE: This approach can be repeated using risk measure other than 1st percentile
Example
(1) (2) (3) (4)
1st Percentile
Excluding Portfolio Marginal Impact % Scaled
A 79.6 (BC) 48.8 (ABC – BC) 46.1% 59.2
B 79.7 (AC) 48.7 (ABC – BC) 46.1% 59.2
C 120.2 (AB) 8.2 (ABC – AB) 7.8% 10.0
Total 105.8 100.0% 128.4
NOTE: This approach can be repeated using risk measure other than 1st percentile
#3: Shapley
- Game Theory is applied to Shapley
- The key limitation in applying this to risk allocation problems is the issue of having a whole number of players
- The calculation of Shapley values is a natural extension of the independent and marginal methods, and based
on the average of the “1st in”, last in” and all the intermediate “ins”
- No scaling is required under this method
Example
(1) (2) (3) (4)
1st Percentile
“1st in” Average “2nd in” “Last in” Average
A 60.1 39.8 48.8 49.6
B 60.1 39.8 48.7 49.6
C 60.1 19.5 8.2 29.3
Total 180.3 99.2 105.8 128.4