Test Bank for Microbiology An Introduction 11th Edition

Tortora Funke Case 0321733606 9780321733603

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MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1)
Which of
the
followin
g
compou
nds is
NOT an
enzyme?
1)
_______
A)
coenzyme A
B)
dehydrogenas e
C)
sucrase
D)
β- galactosidase
E)
cellulase

Figure 5.1

2)
Which
compou
nd is
being
reduced
in the
reaction
shown in
Figure
5.1?
2)
_______
A)
isocitric acid and α-ketoglutaric acid
B)
NAD+
C)
NADH
D)
α-ketoglutaric acid and NAD+
E)
NADH and isocitric acid

3)
Which
organism
is NOT
correctly
matched
to its
energy
source?
3)
_______
A)
photoautotrop h - CO2
B)
chemoautotro ph - Fe2+
C)
chemoautotro ph-NH3
D)
chemoheterotr oph - glucose
E)
photoheterotr oph - light

4)
Which of
the
followin
g
statemen
ts about
anaerobi
c
respirati
on is
FALSE?
4)
_______
A)
It yields lower amounts of ATP when compared to aerobic respiration.
B)
It requires cytochromes.
C)
It involves the reduction of an organic final electron acceptor.
D)
It generates ATP.
E)
The complete Kreb’s cycle is utilized.

Figure 5.2

5)
What
type of
reaction
is in
Figure
5.2?
5)
_______
A)
transaminatio n
B)
decarboxylatio n
C)
reduction
D)
dehydrogenati on
E)
oxidation

6)
What is
the fate
of
pyruvic
acid in
an
organism
that uses
aerobic
respirati
on?
6)
_______
A)
It is oxidized in the electron transport chain.
B)
It is catabolized in glycolysis.
C)
It is converted into acetyl CoA.
D)
It reacts with oxaloacetate to form citrate.
E)
It is reduced to lactic acid.

Figure 5.3

7)
How
would a
noncomp
etitive
inhibitor
interfere
with a
reaction
involvin
g the
enzyme
shown in
Figure
5.3?
7)
_______
A)
It would bind to a.
B)
It would bind to b.
C)
It would bind to c.
D)
It would bind to d.
E)
The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.

Figure 5.4

8)
How is
ATP
generate
d in the
reaction
shown in
Figure
5.4?
8)
_______
A)
oxidative phosphorylation
B)
photophospho rylation
C)
substrate-level phosphorylation
D)
fermentation
E)
glycolysis

9)
Fatty
acids are
oxidized
in
9)
_______
A)
glycolysis.
B)
the Entner- Doudoroff pathway.
C)
the Krebs cycle.
D)
the electron transport chain.
E)
the pentose phosphate pathway.

Figure 5.5

10)
Which of
the
graphs in
Figure
5.5 best
illustrate
s the
activity
of an
enzyme
that is
saturated
with
substrate
?
10)
______
A)
a
B)
b
C)
c
D)
d
E)
e

11)
Which of
the
followin
g is the
best
definitio
n of
oxidative
phospho
rylation?
11)
______
A)
Electrons are passed through a series of carriers to O2.
B)
Electrons are passed through a series of carriers to an organic compound.
C)
ATP is directly transferred from a substrate to ADP.
D)
A proton allows hydrogen ions to flow back into the cells through transmembrane protein channels,
gradient releasing energy that is used to generate ATP.

12)
Which of
the
followin
g
statemen
ts about
substrate
-level
phospho
rylation
is
FALSE?
12)
______
A)
It involves the of a high-energy phosphate group from an intermediate metabolic compound to ADP.
direct transfer
B)
It occurs in glycolysis.
C)
It occurs in the Krebs cycle.
D)
No final electron acceptor is required.
E)
The oxidation of intermediate metabolic compounds releases energy that is used to generate ATP.

13)
Which of
the
followin
g
statemen
ts about
photoph
osphoryl
ation is
FALSE?
13)
______
A)
The oxidation of carrier molecules releases energy.
B)
Energy from oxidation reactions is used to generate ATP from ADP.
C)
Light liberates an electron from chlorophyll.
D)
It requires CO2.
E)
It occurs in photosynthesizing cells.

14)
A strictly
fermenta
tive
bacteriu
m
produces
energy
14)
______
A)
only in the absence of oxygen.
B)
by aerobic respiration only.
C)
only in the presence of oxygen.
D)
by glycolysis only.
E)
by fermentation or aerobic respiration.

15)
The
advantag
e of the
pentose
phosphat
e
pathway
is that it
produces
all of the
followin
g
EXCEPT
15)
______
A)
NADPH.
B)
precursors for the synthesis of amino acids.
C)
precursors for the synthesis of glucose.
D)
three ATPs.
E)
precursors for nucleic acids.

16)
Which of
the
followin
g
statemen
ts about
beta
oxidatio
n is
FALSE?
16)
______
A)
It is a method of catabolizing fatty acids.
B)
It involves the formation of 2-carbon units.
C)
It is a step in glycolysis.
D)
It is used in petroleum degradation.
E)
It involves the formation of acetyl-CoA.

17)
In
noncyclic
photoph
osphoryl
ation, O2
is
released
from
17)
______
A)
H2O.
B)
C6H12O6.
C)
sunlight.
D)
chlorophyll.
E)
CO2.

18)
Which of
the
followin
g is the
best
definitio
n of
fermenta
tion?
18)
______
A)
the complete catabolism of glucose to CO2 and H2O
B)
the partial reduction of glucose to pyruvic acid
C)
the partial oxidation of glucose with organic molecules serving as electron acceptors
D)
the production of energy by oxidative-level phosphorylation
E)
the production of energy by both substrate and oxidative phosphorylation

19)
Which of
the
followin
g is NOT
necessar
y for
respirati
on?
19)
______
A)
quinones
B)
cytochromes
C)
a source of electrons
D)
flavoproteins
E)
oxygen

20)
Which
one of
the
followin
g would
you
predict is
an
allosteric
inhibitor
of the
Krebs
cycle
enzyme,
α-
ketogluta
rate
dehydro
genase?
20)
______
A)
NADH
B)
α-ketoglutaric acid
C)
NAD+
D)
citric acid
E)
ADP

21)
In green
and
purple
bacteria,
electrons
to reduce
CO2 can
come
from
21)
______
A)
CO2.
B)
H2S.
C)
C6H12O6.
D)
chlorophyll.
E)
H2O.

22)
Assume
you are
growing
bacteria
on a
lipid
medium
that
started at
pH 7.
The
action of
bacterial
lipases
should
cause the
pH of the
medium
to
22)
______
A)
decrease.
B)
stay the same.
C)
increase.

23)
Which of
the
followin
g uses
CO2 for
carbon
and H2
for
energy?
23)
______
A)
chemoautotro
ph
B)
photoautotrop h
C)
photoheterotr
oph
D)
chemoheterotr oph

24)
Which of
the
followin
g uses
glucose
for
carbon
and
energy?
24)
______
A)
chemoautotro
ph
B)
photoautotrop h
C)
chemoheterotr
oph
D)
photoheterotr oph

25)
Which of
the
followin
g has
bacterioc
hlorophy
lls and
uses
alcohols
for
carbon?
25)
______
A)
chemoautotro
ph
B)
photoautotrop h
C)
chemoheterotr
oph
D)
photoheterotr oph

26)
Cyanoba
cteria are
a type of
26)
______
A)
chemoautotro
ph.
B)
chemoheterotr oph.
C)
photoheterotr
oph.
D)
photoautotrop h.

27)
Which of d by the flow of protons across protein channels.
the
followin
g
statemen
ts are
true?
1-
Electron
carriers
are
located
at
ribosome
s.
2-ATP is
a
common
intermed
iate
between
catabolic
and
anabolic
pathway
s.
3-ATP is
used for
the long-
term
storage
of energy
and so is
often
found in
storage
granules.
4-
Anaerobi
c
organism
s are
capable
of
generatin
g ATP
via
respirati
on.
5-ATP
can be
generate
27)
______
A)
1, 2, 3
B)
2, 3, 5
C)
1, 3, 4
D)
2, 4, 5
E)
All of the statements are true.

28)
Microorg
anisms
that
cataboliz
e sugars
into
ethanol
and
hydroge
n gas
would
most
likely be
categoriz
ed as
28)
______
A)
aerobic respirers.
B)
heterolactic fermenters.
C)
anaerobic respirers.
D)
alcohol fermenters.
E)
homolactic fermenters.

29)
Which of
the
followin
g
statemen
ts
regardin
g
metaboli
sm is
FALSE?
29)
______
A)
Anabolic reactions are degradative.
B)
Heat may be released in both anabolic and catabolic reactions.
C)
ATP is formed in catabolic reactions.
D)
ADP is formed in anabolic reactions.

30)
Which of
the
followin
g is
TRUE
about
this
reaction?

NO3-+
2H+

NO2- +
H2O
Nitrate
ion

Nitrite
ion
30)
______
A)
This process occurs anaerobically.
B)
This process requires O2.
C)
This process requires light.
D)
This process requires the electron transport system.
E)
This process requires O2 and the electron transport system.

31)
Which of
the
followin
g
statemen
ts
regardin
g the
Entner-
Doudoro
ff
pathway
is TRUE?
31)
______
A)
NADH is generated.
B)
ATP is generated.
C)
It involves the pentose phosphate pathway.
D)
It involves glycolysis.
E)
NADH and ATP are generated.

32)
Assume
you are
working
for a
chemical
company
and are
responsi
ble for
growing
a yeast
culture
that
produces
ethanol.
The
yeasts
are
growing
well on
the
maltose
medium
but are
not
producin
g
alcohol.
What is
the most
likely
explanati
on?
32)
______
A)
The temperature is too low.
B)
The temperature is too high.
C)
Not enough protein is provided.
D)
O2 is in the medium.
E)
The maltose is toxic.

Figure 5.6

33)
The rates
of O2
and
glucose
consump
tion by a
bacterial
culture
are
shown in
Figure
5.6.
Assume
a
bacterial
culture
was
grown in
a glucose
medium
without
O2. Then
O2 was
added at
the time
marked
X. The
data
indicate
that
33)
______
A)
these bacteria don't use O2.
B)
these bacteria cannot grow anaerobically.
C)
aerobic metabolism is more efficient than fermentation.
D)
these bacteria get more energy anaerobically.

34)
An
enzyme,
citrate
synthase,
in the
Krebs
cycle is
inhibited
by ATP.
This is
an
example
of all of
the
followin
g
EXCEPT
34)
______
A)
feedback
inhibition.
B)
allosteric inhibition.
C)
competitive
inhibition.
D)
noncompetitiv e inhibition.

35)
If a cell is
starved
for ATP,
which of
the
followin
g
pathway
s would
most
likely be
shut
down?
35)
______
A)
Kreb’s cycle
B)
glycolysis
C)
pentose
phosphate
pathway
D)
Krebs cycle and glycolysis

36)
Which of
the
followin
g
statemen
ts
regardin
g the
glycolysi
s
pathway
is
FALSE?
36)
______
A)
One molecule of ATP is expended.
B)
Two NADH molecules are generated.
C)
Two pyruvate molecules are generated.
D)
Two molecules of water are generated.
E)
Four ATP molecules are generated via substrate-level phosphorylation.

Figure 5.7

37)
The
graph at
the left in
Figure
5.7
shows
the
reaction
rate for
an
enzyme
at its
optimum
temperat
ure.
Which
graph
shows
enzyme
activity
at a
higher
temperat
ure?
37)
______
A)
a
B)
b
C)
c
D)
d

38)
A
bacterial
culture
grown in
a
glucose-
peptide
medium
causes
the pH to
increase.
The
bacteria
are most
likely
38)
______
A)
fermenting the
glucose.
B)
not growing.
C)
oxidizing the
glucose.
D)
using the peptides.

39)
Gallionell
a bacteria
can get
energy
from the
reaction
Fe2+ →
Fe3+.
This
reaction
is an
example
of
39)
______
A)
the Calvin- Benson cycle.
B)
reduction.
C)
photophospho rylation.
D)
fermentation.
E)
oxidation.

Figure 5.8

40)
In Figure
5.8,
where is
ATP
produce
d?
40)
______
A)
a
B)
b
C)
c
D)
d
E)
e

41)
Refer to
Figure
5.8. In
aerobic
respirati
on,
where is
water
formed?
41)
______
A)
a
B)
b
C)
c
D)
d
E)
e

42)
In Figure
5.8, the
structure
labeled
"1" is
42)
______
A)
ATP synthase.
B)
a cell wall.
C)
a plasma membrane.
D)
NAD+.
E)
cytoplasm.

43)
In Figure
5.8, the
path
labeled
"2" is the
flow of
43)
______
A)
water.
B)
energy.
C)
glucose.
D)
electrons.
E)
protons.

44)
What is
the most
acidic
place in
Figure
5.8?
44)
______
A)
a
B)
b
C)
c
D)
d
E)
e

45)
A urease
test is
used to
identify
Myobacte
rium
tuberculo
sis
because
45)
______
A)
M. tuberculosis produces urease.
B)
some bacteria reduce nitrate ion.
C)
urea accumulates during tuberculosis.
D)
urease is a sign of tuberculosis.
E)
M. bovis can cause tuberculosis.

TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.
46)
Catabolic
reactions
are
generally
degradat
ive and
hydrolyti
c.
46)
______

47)
The
pentose
phosphat
e
pathway
can be
character
ized as
an
anabolic
pathway.
47)
______

48)
In
general,
ATP is
generate
d in
catabolic
pathway
s and
expende
d in
anabolic
pathway
s.
48)
______

49)
An
apoenzy
me that
loses its
coenzym
e subunit
will be
non-
function
al.
49)
______

50)
The use
of
enzymes
is
necessar
y to
increase
the
activatio
n energy
requirem
ents of a
chemical
reaction.
50)
______

51)
Glycolysi
s is
utilized
by cells
in both
respirati
on and
fermenta
tion.
51)
______

52)
Carbon
fixation
occurs
during
the light-
indepen
dent
phase of
photosyn
thesis.
52)
______

53)
Both
respirati
on and
photosyn
thesis
require
the use
of an
electron
transport
chain.
53)
______

54)
Both
respirati
on and
photosyn
thesis
use
water
molecule
s for the
donation
of
hydroge
n ions.
54)
______

55)
Once an
enzyme
has
converte
d
substrate
s into
products,
the
active
site
reverts
back to
its
original
form.
55)
______

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.
56)
Compare and contrast photophosphorylation and oxidative phosphorylation.

57)
Rhodopse is an anaerobic photoautotroph that uses organic compounds as an electron donor. It is also capable of
udomonas chemoheterotrophic metabolism. Diagram the metabolic pathways of this bacterium.

58)
Different iate the following two laboratory tests: starch hydrolysis and starch fermentation.

59)
Streptoco lacks an electron transport chain. How does this bacterium reoxidize NADH? Where is the NADH formed?
ccus

60)
You look refrigerator and find some orange drink you had forgotten was there. The drink now has an "off" taste and
in the bubbles. What is the most likely explanation for the changes in the drink?

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
Figure 6.1

61)
In Figure
6.1,
which
line best
depicts a
facultativ
e
anaerobe
in the
absence
of O2?
61)
______
A)
a
B)
b
C)
c

62)
In Figure
6.1
,which
line best
depicts
an
obligate
anaerobe
in the
presence
of O2?
62)
______
A)
a
B)
b
C)
c

63)
In Figure
6.1,
which
line
shows
the
growth
of an
obligate
aerobe
incubate
d
anaerobi
cally?
63)
______
A)
a
B)
b
C)
c

64)
In Figure
6.1,
which
line best
illustrate
s the
growth
of a
facultativ
e
anaerobe
incubate
d
aerobical
ly?
64)
______
A)
a
B)
b
C)
c

65)
In Figure
6.1,
which
line best
depicts a
psychrot
roph
incubate
d at 0°C?
65)
______
A)
a
B)
b
C)
c

66)
If cells
are
grown in
media
containin
g amino
acids
labeled
with
radioacti
ve
nitrogen
(15N),
most of
radioacti
vity will
be found
in the
cells’
66)
______
A)
DNA.
B)
proteins.
C)
phospholipids .
D)
DNA and proteins.
E)
DNA and phospholipids.

67)
Which of
the
followin
g
elements
is NOT
correctly
matched
with its
cellular
function?
67)
______
A)
nitrogen — needed for amino acid synthesis
B)
sulfur — used for synthesis of thiamin and biotin
C)
phosphorus — incorporated into nucleic acids
D)
magnesium and potassium — required as cofactors for enzymes
E)
None of the answers is correct; all of the elements are correctly matched.

68)
Pathogen
ic
bacteria
isolated
from the
respirato
ry or
intestinal
tracts of
humans
are
68)
______
A)
strict aerobes that grow best in candle jars.
B)
capnophiles that prefer highly oxygenated growth conditions.
C)
capnophiles that grow best in carbon dioxide incubators.
D)
strict aerobes that grow best in reducing media.
E)
facultative anaerobes that require reducing media for growth.

69)
The
biosafety
level
(BSL) for
most
introduct
ory
microbio
logy
laborator
ies is
69)
______
A)
BSL-1.
B)
BSL-2.
C)
BSL-3.
D)
BSL-4.

70)
The
biosafety
level
(BSL) for
a clinical
microbio
logy
laborator
y
working
with
potential
ly
airborne
pathogen
s, such as
tubercul
osis
bacteria,
is
70)
______
A)
BSL-1.
B)
BSL-2.
C)
BSL-3.
D)
BSL-4.

71)
A
sample
of milk is
tested for
its
bacterial
content
in a plate
count
assay. A
one-
milliliter
sample
of the
milk is
diluted
in a 1:10
dilution
series.
One
milliliter
of the
third
dilution
tube is
plated in
a pour
plate.
After
incubatio
n, the
plate has
54
colonies,
indicatin
g that the
original
milk
sample
containe
d
71)
______
A)
54 cells.
B)
540 cells.
C)
5400 cells.
D)
54,000 cells.
E)
540,000 cells.

72)
The
addition
of which
of the
followin
g to a
culture
medium
will
neutraliz
e acids?
72)
______
A)
sugars
B)
carbon
C)
heat
D)
buffers
E)
pH

73)
Salts and
sugars
work to
preserve
foods by
creating
a
73)
______
A)
hypertonic environment.
B)
depletion of nutrients.
C)
hypotonic environment.
D)
lower osmotic pressure.
E)
lower pH.

74)
The term
aerotoler
ant
anaerobe
refers to
an
organism
that
74)
______
A)
requires more oxygen than is present in air.
B)
is killed by oxygen.
C)
does not use oxygen but tolerates it.
D)
uses oxygen or grows without oxygen.
E)
requires less oxygen than is present in air.

75)
Which of
the
followin
g is an
advantag
e of the
standard
plate
count?
75)
______
A)
can readily count cells that form aggregates
B)
can be performed on very dilute samples, such as lake water
C)
provides immediate results
D)
can be used to count heat-sensitive bacteria
E)
determines the number of viable cells

76)
Which of
the
followin
g is an
advantag
e of the
direct
microsco
pic
count?
76)
______
A)
requires no incubation time
B)
can readily count organisms that are motile
C)
sample volume is unknown
D)
can easily distinguish live from dead cells
E)
requires a large number of cells

77)
Most
bacteria
reproduc
e by
77)
______
A)
aerial hyphae.
B)
binary fission.
C)
mitosis.
D)
fragmentation.
E)
budding.

78)
Thirty-
six
colonies
grew in
nutrient
agar
from 1.0
ml of
undilute
d sample
in a
standard
plate
count.
How
many
cells
were in
the
original
sample?
78)
______
A)
4
B)
9
C)
18
D)
36
E)
72

Figure 6.2

79)
 Figure
6.2
shows a
typical
bacterial
growth
curve
with the
x-axis
indicatin
g the log
of the
number
of
bacteria
and the
y-axis
indicatin
g time in
culture.
In the
figure,
which
section
(or
sections)
shows a
growth
phase
where
the
number
of cells
dying
equals
the
number
of cells
dividing
?
79)
______
A)
a
B)
b
C)
c
D)
d
E)
a and c

80)
Figure
6.2
shows a
typical
bacterial
growth
curve
with the
x-axis
indicatin
g the log
of the
number
of
bacteria
and the
y-axis
indicatin
g time in
culture.
In the
figure,
which
sections
of the
graph
illustrate
a
logarith
mic
change
in cell
numbers
?
80)
______
A)
a and c
B)
b and d
C)
a and b
D)
c and d
E)
a and d

81)
Most
bacteria
grow
best at
pH
81)
______
A)
1.
B)
5.
C)
7.
D)
9.
E)
14.

82)
Most
fungi
grow
best at
pH
82)
______
A)
1.
B)
5.
C)
7.
D)
9.
E)
14.

83)
A culture
medium
on which
only
gram-
positive
organism
s grow
and a
yellow
halo
surround
s
Staphyloc
occus
aureus
colonies
is called
a(n)
83)
______
A)
differential medium.
B)
selective medium.
C)
enrichment culture.
D)
selective and differential medium.
E)
differential and enrichment culture.

84)
A culture
medium
consistin
g of agar,
peptone,
and beef
heart is a
84)
______
A)
chemically defined medium.
B)
complex medium.
C)
reducing medium.
D)
selective medium.
E)
differential medium.

85)
Which of
the
followin
g pairs is
mismatc
hed?
85)
______
A)
psychrotroph — growth at 0°C
B)
hyperthermop hiles — growth at 85°C
C)
psychrophile — growth at 15°C
D)
thermophile — growth at 37°C
E)
mesophile — growth at 25°C

86)
During
which
growth
phase
will
gram-
positive
bacteria
be most
susceptib
le to
penicillin
?
86)
______
A)
log phase
B)
death phase
C)
stationary phase
D)
lag phase
E)
The culture is equally susceptible during all phases.

87)
Which of
the
followin
g is the
best
definitio
n of
generatio
n time?
87)
______
A)
the length of time needed for lag phase
B)
the time needed for nuclear division
C)
the minimum rate of doubling
D)
the duration of log phase
E)
the length of time needed for a cell to divide

88)
Which of
the
followin
g is NOT
a direct
method
to
measure
microbial
growth?
88)
______
A)
direct microscopic count
B)
metabolic activity
C)
standard plate count
D)
filtration
E)
most probable number (MPN)

89)
Which
group of
microorg
anisms is
most
likely to
spoil a
freshwat
er trout
preserve
d with
salt?
89)
______
A)
facultative halophiles
B)
thermophiles
C)
anaerobes
D)
hyperthermop hiles
E)
psychrophiles

90)
Which of
the
followin
g is an
organic
growth
factor?
90)
______
A)
NH4H2PO4
B)
peptone
C)
H2O
D)
vitamin B1
E)
glucose

91)
Which of
the
followin
g is an
example
of a
metaboli
c activity
that
could be
used to
measure
microbial
growth?
91)
______
A)
standard plate count
B)
direct microscopic count
C)
MPN
D)
glucose consumption
E)
turbidity

92)
An
experime
nt began
with 4
cells and
ended
with 128
cells.
How
many
generatio
ns did
the
cells go
through?
92)
______
A)
64
B)
32
C)
6
D)
5
E)
4

93)
Three
cells
with
generatio
n times
of 60
minutes
are
inoculate
d into a
culture
medium.
How
many
cells are
there
after 5
hours?
93)
______
A)
900
B)
180
C)
96
D)
32
E)
15

Figure 6.3

94)
In Figure
6.3,
which
tube
shows
the
expected
growth
pattern
for a
microaer
ophile?
94)
______
A)
a
B)
b
C)
c
D)
d
E)
e

95)
In Figure
6.3,
which
tube
shows
the
expected
growth
pattern
for a
facultativ
e
anaerobe
?
95)
______
A)
a
B)
b
C)
c
D)
d
E)
e

96)
In one detergent, glutaraldehyde, or tap water. What was the source of the infections?
hospital,
Pseudomo
nas
aeruginos
a
serotype
10
infected
the
biliary
tract of
10
percent
of 1300
patients
who
underwe
nt
gastroint
estinal
endosco
pic
procedur
es. After
each use,
endosco
pes were
washed
with an
automati
c
reprocess
or that
flushed
detergen
t and
glutarald
ehyde
through
the
endosco
pes,
followed
by a tap
water
rinse. P.
aeruginos
a 10 was
not
isolated
from the
96)
______
A)
a biofilm in the reprocessor
B)
contaminated disinfectant
C)
fecal contamination of the bile ducts
D)
bacterial cell walls in the water
E)
None of the answers is correct.

Table 6.1
Three different culture media are shown below.

Medium A Medium B Medium C

Na2HPO4 Tide detergent Glucose
KH2PO4 Na2HPO4 Peptone
MgSO4 KH2PO4 (NH4)2SO4
CaCl2 MgSO4 KH2PO2
NaHCO3 (NH4)2SO4 Na2HPO4

97)
For the
three
types of
media in
Table 6.1,
which
medium
(or
media)
is/are
chemical
ly
defined?
97)
______
A)
A
B)
B
C)
C
D)
A and B
E)
A and C

98)
In Table,
6.1, in
which
medium
(or
media)
would
an
autotrop
h grow?
98)
______
A)
A
B)
B
C)
C
D)
A and B
E)
A and C

99)
Assume
you
inoculate
d 100
cells into
100 ml of
nutrient
broth.
You then
inoculate
d 100
cells of
the same
species
into 200
ml of
nutrient
broth.
After
incubatio
n for 24
hours,
you
should
have
99)
______
A)
the same number of cells in both.
B)
more cells in the 100 ml.
C)
more cells in the 200 ml.
D)
The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.

100)
The
source of
nutrients
in
nutrient
agar is
100)
_____
A)
agar.
B)
nutrient.
C)
peptone and beef extract.
D)
peptone and NaCl.
E)
agar and NaCl.

101)
Which
enzyme
catalyzes
the
reaction:
O2- + O2-
+ 2H+ →
H2O2 +
O2?
101)
_____
A)
oxidase
B)
peroxidase
C)
superoxide
dismutase
D)
catalase

102)
Which
enzyme
catalyzes
the
reaction:
2H2O2
→ 2H2O
+ O2?
102)
_____
A)
oxidase
B)
peroxidase
C)
superoxide
dismutase
D)
catalase

103)
Which
enzyme
catalyzes
the
reaction:
H2O2 +
2H+ →
2H2O?
103)
_____
A)
oxidase
B)
catalase
C)
peroxidase
D)
superoxide dismutase

Table 6.2
The following data show growth of two bacteria on different media.

104)
The data
in Table
6.2
indicate
that S.
aureus is
a(n)
104)
_____
A)
mesophile.
B)
facultative halophile.
C)
aerobe.
D)
halophile.
E)
facultative anaerobe.

105)
Patients
with
indwelli
ng
catheters
are
susceptib
le to
infection
s because
105)
_____
A)
bacteria cause infections.
B)
injected solutions are contaminated.
C)
biofilms develop on catheters.
D)
their immune systems are weakened.
E)
infections can be transmitted from other people.

TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.
106)
An
isolated
colony
on a
streak
plate
contains
millions
or
billions
of
identical
cells.
106)
_____

107)
Bacterial
growth
refers to
an
increase
in the
numbers
of cells in
a
bacterial
culture.
107)
_____

108)
Pure
cultures
can
easily be
obtained
on streak
plates,
even if
the
desired
bacteria
are
present
in very
low
concentr
ations.
108)
_____

109)
Agar is
used as a
solidifyi
ng agent
in
microbio
logical
media
since few
bacteria
can
degrade
it.
109)
_____

110)
Laborato
ry
cultivatio
n of
obligate
anaerobe
s
requires
reducing
media or
special
growth
chamber
s filled
with
inert
gases.
110)
_____

111)
Most
pathogen
ic
bacteria
are
thermop
hiles.
111)
_____

112)
In
performi
ng a ten-
fold
dilutions
series
from a
sample
containin
g 10,000
bacteria
per
milliliter,
the
fourth
tube in
the
dilution
series
will have
10 cells
per
milliliter.
112)
_____

113)
Turbidit
y is an
indirect
measure
ment of
bacterial
growth
that can
be
measure
d using a
spectrop
hotomete
r.
113)
_____

114)
Filtration
methods
are used
to count
bacteria
present
in very
low
concentr
ations,
such as
in lakes
and
streams.
114)
_____

115)
Nitrogen
-fixing
bacteria,
such as
cyanobac
teria, can
use
atmosph
eric
nitrogen
(N2) for
their
nitrogen
source.
115)
_____

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.
Figure 6.4

116)
In each culture was incubated at 30°C in glucose-minimal salts broth, aerobically. The bacterium is a facultative
graph in anaerobe with an optimum temperature of 37°C and can metabolize glucose and lactose. Indicate how each
Figure growth curve would change under the conditions indicated in each graph. Draw the new graphs, or write
6.4, the "no change."

117)
A patient pacemaker received antibiotic therapy for streptococcal bacteremia (bacteria in the blood). One month later,
with a he was treated for recurrence of the bacteremia. When he returned six weeks later, again with bacteremia, the
heart physician recommended replacing the pacemaker. Why did this cure his condition?

Table 6.3

118)
Bacterial for four different bacterial species were calculated in the media listed in Table 6.3. All media were prepared
generatio with tap water and incubated aerobically in the light. Compare and contrast the growth requirements of the
n times four bacteria listed above. Which of the media, if any, are chemically defined?
1)
A
2)
B
3)
A
4)
C
5)
A
6)
C
7)
B
8)
C
9)
C
10)
C
11)
D
12)
E
13)
D
14)
D
15)
D
16)
C
17)
A
18)
C
19)
E
20)
A
21)
B
22)
A
23)
A
24)
C
25)
D
26)
D
27)
D
28)
B
29)
A
30)
A
31)
B
32)
D
33)
C
34)
C
35)
C
36)
A
37)
B
38)
D
39)
E
40)
E
41)
D
42)
C
43)
E
44)
A
45)
A
46)
TRU E
47)
FAL SE
48)
FAL SE
49)
TRU E
50)
FAL SE
51)
TRU E
52)
TRU E
53)
TRU E
54)
FAL SE
55)
TRU E
56)
57)
58)
59)
60)
61)
B
62)
C
63)
C
64)
A
65)
B
66)
D
67)
E
68)
C
69)
A
70)
C
71)
D
72)
D
73)
A
74)
C
75)
E
76)
A
77)
B
78)
D
79)
C
80)
B
81)
C
82)
B
83)
D
84)
B
85)
D
86)
A
87)
E
88)
B
89)
A
90)
D
91)
D
92)
D
93)
C
94)
E
95)
B
96)
A
97)
A
98)
A
99)
A
100)
C
101)
C
102)
D
103)
C
104)
B
105)
C
106)
TRU E
107)
TRU E
108)
FAL SE
109)
TRU E
110)
TRU E
111)
FAL SE
112)
FAL SE
113)
TRU E
114)
TRU E
115)
TRU E
116)
117)
118)