ALLEN - NCERT Based Objective - Physics - Question Bank

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Serial Page
C O N T E N T S
No. No.
1. Physical world 1
2. Units and Measurements 2
3. Motion in a straight line 6
NCERT BASED OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
4. Motion in Plane 11
5. Newton Laws of Motion 16
6. Work, Power and Energy 23
7. System of Particles and 26
Rotational Motiion
(CLASS-XI & XII)
8. Gravitation 32
9. Properties of Matter & Fluid Mechanics 35
10. Thermal Properties of matter 44
11. Kinetic theory 50
12. Thermodynamics 54
13. Oscillations 58
14. Waves 62
15. Electric Charge & Fields 69
16. Electrostatic Potential & Capacitance 72
17. Current electricity 78
18. Moving charges and Magnetism 86
19. Magnetism & matter 90
20. Electromangetic Induction 96
21. Alternating Current 99
22. Electromangetic Waves 103
23. Ray optics 106
24. Wave Optics 112
25. Dual nature of radiation & matter 119
26. Atoms 125
27. Nuclei 133
E 28. Semiconductor electronics 139
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TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALLEN Pre-Medical : Physics 1
PHYSICAL WORLD
1. How many fundamental forces in nature that 6. If strength of strong nuclear forces is 1 unit then
govern the diverse phenomena of macroscopic strength of gravitational, weak nuclear and
and microscopic world electromagnetic forces will be
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four (1) 10–39, 10–13, 10–2 (2) 10–39, 10–2, 10–13
2. The Indian Scientist, who discover 'Inelastic (3) 10–13, 10–39, 10–2 (4) 10–2 , 10–13, 10–39
scattering of light by Molecules'
7. In beta decay, if two particles were emitted
(1) S.N. Bose
instead of three then which fundamental law
(2) S.Chandrasekhar will not hold together
(3) Homi-Jehangir Bhabha (1) Energy and momentum conservation
(2) Mass and energy conservation
(4) C.V. Raman
(3) Charge and momentum conservation
3. Classical physics deals with mainly
(4) Mass and charge conservation
(1) Mechanics
8. As both gravity, electromagnetic forces are
(2) Electrodynamics long range forces, then in terrestrial mechanism
why only gravitational forces are considered ?
(3) Optics and thermodynamics
(1) Electromagnetic forces are weaker as
(4) All the above
compared to gravity
4. Which of following force is different in nature (2) Gravitational forces are weaker as compared
(1) Spring force (2) Friction force to electromagnetic forces
(3) Coulomb's force (4) Weight of body (3) Gravitational forces are only attractive while
electric forces are repulsive too
5. In gravity free space, no buoyancy force will
act on a body immersed in a fluid as (4) Gravitational forces are of longer range
(1) Buoyancy force is gravitational force 9. Even when strong nuclear forces are strongest
forces in nature, why do we not observe it in
(2) Buoyancy force is electromagnetic force, daily phenomenon ?
which arises when pressure of fluid increases
(1) They are long range forces
with depth due to gravity
(2) They are short range force which act with in
(3) When there is no gravity then all other atom
forces are automatically zero (3) They are very short range force which act
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(4) Given statement is wrong, as buoyancy with in nucleus

force will act in gravity free spaces (4) They are balanced by other forces
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Ans. 4 4 4 4 2 1 1 3 3
SOLUTION
1. Four forces are gravitational force, 4. Weight is gravitational force and others are
electromagnetic force, strong nuclear force and electromagnetic force
weak nuclear force.
3. Classical physics deals mainly with macroscopic
phenomena and all the above phenomena
related to macroscopic phenomena only.
E
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2 Pre-Medical : Physics ALLEN
UNIT & MEASUREMENTS

1. Measurement of large distance is done by : 7. Select the number of correct statement
(1) Metre scale method (a) One astronomical unit (1AU) is the maximum
distance of Sun from the earth.
(2) Parallax method
(b) One parsec is the distance at which average
(3) Distance method
radius of the Earth's orbit subtends an angle
(4) Position method of 1 arc second.
2. Suppose true value of certain length is near
1 th
3.578 cm student took three reading with (c) 1 a.m.u. is of mass of an atom of
different scale. 12
carbon-12 isotope.
(a) 3.5 cm using 0.1 cm resolution scale
(d) Spherometer can be used to measure angle
(b) 3.38 cm using 0.01 cm resolution scale
of spherical bodies.
(c) 3.372 cm using 0.001 cm resolution scale (1) One (2) Two
then
(3) Three (4) Four
(1) First is more accurate
8. Which of the following measurement is most
(2) 2nd is more accurate precise ?
(3) 3rd is more precise (1) 6.00 mm (2) 6.00 cm
(4) Both (1) and (3) are correct (3) 6.00 m (4) 6.00 km
3. Which error is associated with the resolution of 9. Device used for measuring the mass of atoms
the instrument and molecules.
(1) Systematic error (2) Random error (1) Chronometer (2) Spectrometer
(3) Spectroscope (4) Anemometer
(3) Least count error (4) All of these
10. Which of the following time measuring devices
4. Correct increasing order of time intervals.
is most precise ?
(a) Rotation period of Earth (1) A wall clock (2) a stop watch
(b) Age of Egyptian pyramid (3) A digital watch (4) an atomic clock
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(c) Average human Life-span 11. Match the column
(d) Travel time for light from Sun to the earth. Column-I
(1) a > b > c > d (2) b > a > c > d (p) Quantity has unit but no dimensions
(3) c < a < d < b (4) d < a < c < b (q) Quantity has neither unit nor dimensions
5. An optical microscope cannot resolve particles (r) A constant which has a unit.
with size smaller than Column-II
(1) 10000 Å (2) 8000 Å (a) Relative density
(b) Solid angle
(3) 6000 Å (4) 3000 Å
(c) Reynolds number
6. Select the incorrect are : (d) permittivity of free space
(1) 0.06900 has 4 number of significant figures. (1) p-a; q-b; r-c
(2) 0.6900 has 4 number of significant figures. (2) p-c; q-d; r-b
(3) 6.900 has 2 number of significant figures. (3) p-d; q-c; r-a
(4) p-b; q-a, c; r-d
(4) 6.900 kg has 4 number of significant figures.
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12. We have different unit for same physical 17. Which of the following statements is incorrect
quantity because same physical quantity
(1) Direct and indirect methods are used for the
(1) is measured by different instrument measurement of physical quantities.
(2) is measured by different method
(2) Scientific notation and the prefixes are used
(3) is measured with the different significant
to simplify numerical computation
number
(4) is measured with the different orders of the (3) A dimensionally correct equation need not
quantity to be a correct equation
13. The previous definition of the SI unit of one (4) The SI units is based on six base units
kilogram is equal to the mass of the international
18. If power (P), Surface tension (S) and Planck's
prototype of the kilogram i.e.,
constant (h) are arranged so that the dimensions
(1) a platinum - iridium alloy sphere of time in their dimensional formulae are in
(2) a platinum - cylinder ascending order then which of the following is
(3) a iridium sphere correct ?
(4) a platinum - iridium alloy cylinder
(1) P, S, h (2) P, h, S
14. Which type of error influence the accuracy of a
large number of measurement result (3) S, P, h (4) S, h, P
(1) Random error (2) Systematic error 19. Checking the correctness of equation using the
(3) Both (4) None method of dimensions is based on
15. Dimensionally which of the following equation
(1) The type of system
is not correct :-
(Here a = amplitude, t = time, T = time period, (2) Equality of inertial frames of refrences
w = angular velocity, x = displacement) (3) Principle of homogeneity of dimensions
æ 2pt ö (4) None of these

(1) x = a sin ç ÷
è T ø
20. The best method of reducing random error is
(2) x = a cos (wt)
(1) to change the instrument used for
measurement
a ætö
(3) x = sin ç ÷
T èaø (2) to take help of experienced observer
(3) to repeat the experiment many times and to

æ 2 pt 2 pt ö
(4) x = a 2 ç sin - cos take the average results
è T T ÷ø
(4) None of the above
16. Light year is
21. Which of the following is the most precise
(1) Light emitted by the Sun in one year
instrument for measuring length
(2) The time taken by light to travel from Sun to
earth (1) Metre rod of least count 0.1 cm
(3) The distance travelled by light in free space (2) Vernier callipers of least count 0.01 cm
in one year
(4) The time taken by earth to go once around (3) Screw gauge of least count 0.001 cm
the Sun (4) Data is not sufficient to decide.
E
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rg 25. The centripetal force F acting on a particle
22. From the equation tan q = , one can obtain moving uniformly in a circle may depend upon
v2 mass (m), velocity (v) and radius (r) of the
the angle of banking q (from vertical) for a circle. Derive the formula for F using the method
cyclist taking a curve (the symbols have their of dimensions
usual meanings). The equation is
(1) both dimensionally and numerically correct mv mv2
(1) F = 2 (2) F =
(2) neither numerically nor dimensionally r r
correct
mr mv
(3) dimensionally correct only (3) F = (4) F =
v v
(4) numerically correct only 26. Add 6.75 × 103 cm and 4.52 × 102 cm with
23. Check the correctness of the relation regard to significant figures
1 (1) 7.20 × 103 cm (2) 7.20 × 102 cm
S = ut + at2, where u is initial velocity, a is (3) 7.20 × 104 cm (4) 720 cm
2
acceleration, t is time and S is displacement 27. A thin wire has a length of 21.7 cm and radius
(1) Dimensionally correct 0.46 mm. Calculate the volume of the wire to
correct significant figures.
(2) Dimensionally incorrect
(1) 0.14 cm3 (2) 0.144 cm3
(3) Can't explain
(3) 0.014 cm3 (4) 0.143 cm3
(4) Data insufficient
28. Arrange the following in the most correct
24. Write the dimensions of a in the relation,
decreasing order of preciseness for measuring
b - x2 length ?
P= (a) A vernier calliper with 20 divisions on the
at
sliding scale coinciding with 19 main scale
where P is power, x the distance and t the time. divisions of main scale
(1) [M0L0T0] (2) [M1L0T2] (b) A screw gauge of pitch 1 mm and 100
(3) [M–1L0T2] (4) [M0LT–1] divisions on the circular scale
(c) An optical instrument that can measure
length to within a wavelength of light
(1) c, a, b (2) c, b, a
(3) a, b, c (4) b, c, a
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 2 4 3 4 4 3 2 1 2 4 4 4 4 2 3
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28
Ans. 3 4 1 3 3 3 3 1 3 2 1 1 2
E
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SOLUTION 25. Let F = k(m) (v) (r)
x y z
...(i)
1. Parallax is a displacement of difference in Here, k is a dimensionless constant of
apparent position of an object viewed along proportinality
two different lines of sight and it is measured by Writing the dimensions of RHS and LHS in Eq.
the angle of semi-angle of inclination between (i), we have
two lines. [MLT–2] = [M]x [LT–1]y [L]z
3. Resolution of an instrument, is associated to = [MxLy+zT–y]
least count error. Equating the powers of M, L and T of both
5. For visible light range of wavelength is 4000 Å sides, we have
to 7000 Å. x = 1, y = 2 and y + z = 1
6. The trailing zero(s) in a number with a decimal or z = 1 – y = –1
point are significant. Putting the values is Eq. (i), we get
7. (a) 1AU = average distance between Sun & F = kmv2r–1
Earth.
mv2
(b) Spherometre is used to measure length as F=k
(like screw gauge) less as to 10–5 m. r
8. All the measurement are upto two places of mv2
decimal, least unit is mm so 6.00 mm F= (where k = 1)
r
measurement is most precise.
26. a = 6.75 × 103 cm
9. Mass and charge of a particle by using principle
b = 4.52 × 102 cm
of deflection of a charge particle in a magnetic
= 0.452 × 103 cm
or electric field using spectrometer.
= 0.45 × 103 cm (upto 2 places of decimal)
12. Different order of the quantity as velocity of
light = 3 × 108 m/s \ a + b = (6.75 × 103 + 0.45 × 103) cm
a + b = 7.20 × 103 cm
Speed of person = 100 cm/s
27. Given l = 21.7 cm
Speed of bus = 107 cm/hr
r = 0.46 mm = 0.046 cm
13. It is a platinum-iridium alloy cylinder kept at
volume of wire
international Bureau of weight and measure at
screws near Paris, France. V = pr2l
14. Random error influence precision and 22
systematic error influence the accuracy of result. = (0.046)2 (21.7)
7
15. sin and cos function are dimensionless. = 0.1443 cm3 = 0.14 cm3
23. Writing the dimensions of either side of the 28. (a)Least count of vernier callipers
given equation = 1 MSD – 1 VSD

L.H.S. = S = displacement = [M0LT0]
19 1
R.H.S. = ut = velocity × time = 1 MSD – MSD = MSD
= [M0LT–1][T] = [M0LT0] 20 20
1 2 1 1
and at = [acceleration] × [time]2 = mm = cm = 0.005 cm
2 20 200
(b) Least count of screw gauge
= [M0LT–2][T]2 = [M0LT0]
As LHS = RHS Pitch
Formula is dimensionally correct. = Number of divisions of circular scale
24. The given equation can be written as,
1 1
Pat = b – x2 = mm = cm = 0.001 cm
Now, [Pat] = [b] = [x2] 100 1000
or [b] = [x2] = [M0L2T0] (c) Wavelength of light, l = 10–5 cm = 0.00001 cm
\ Least count of optical instrument = 0.00001 cm
[x 2 ] [L2 ] Thus, clearly the optical instrument is the most
and [a] = = = [M–1L0T2]
[Pt] [ML2 T -3 ][T] precise.
E
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MOTION IN A STRAIGHT LINE

1. The location of a particle is changed. What can 7. A body is thrown upward & reaches it's
we say about the displacement & distance maximum height. At this position :
covered by the particle? (1) It's velocity is zero & it's acceleration is also zero
(1) Both cannot be zero (2) It's velocity is zero but it's acceleration is
(2) One of the two may be zero maximum
(3) Both must be zero (3) It's acceleration is minimum
(4) Both must be equal (4) It's velocity is zero & it's acceleration is non
2. For a moving object, the numerical value of the zero due to gravity
ratio of magnitude of instantaneous velocity to 8. Mark the correct statement :
instantaneous speed is: (1) If velocity & acceleration have opposite
(1) Always less than 1 sign, then speed of particle will increase
(2) Always equal to 1 (2) If velocity is zero at a instant, then acceleration
of particle will be zero at that instant
(3) Always more than 1
(3) If velocity is zero in a time interval then
(4) Equal to or less than one
acceleration is not equal to zero at any
3. If the distance covered is zero, then
instant within the time interval
displacement
(4) A particle moves along x-axis. If it's
(1) Must be zero
x-coordinate & velocity have opposite sign
(2) May or may not be zero
then the particle will move towards origin
(3) Can not be zero
9. Which of the following statements is wrong
(4) Depends upon the particle about a ball thrown vertically up :
4. A particle is morning in influence of constant (A) It is moving with constant acceleration
acceleration. It's path may be : (B) It may have different velocities at the same
(1) Circle (2) Hyperbola position
(3) Parabola (4) Ellipse (C) It may have two positions at the same time
5. Which of the following statement(s) is/are (D) The angular momentum of particle about
wrong: point of projection remain conserved
(A) A body can have constant speed & varying (1) only C (2) C, D
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acceleration (3) B, C, D (4) A, B, C, D
(B) A body can have zero velocity & uniform 10. For uniform motion, the ratio of average velocity
acceleration & instantaneous velocity is always :
(C) A body can have constant velocity & (1) Less than 1 (2) Greater than 1
uniform acceleration (3) Equal to 1 (4) None
(1) Only C
11. x(m)
(2) Both B & C
(3) Both A & C
(4) All A, B, C
6. Two bodies of masses 1kg & 10 kg are dropped
simultaneously from the top of a tower. On the
2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16 18 20 22 t(sec)
surface of earth :
(1) Heavier will reach first What is nature of acceleration from t = 2 sec to
(2) Lighter will reach first t = 10 sec in the graph showin in above diagram
(1) Positive (2) Negative
(3) Both will reach simultaneously
(3) Zero (4) None of these
(4) Any one will reach first
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12. 16. Variation of quantity P with quantity Q is
x(m)
plotted in given figure, describes motion of
particle in a straight line. Then which of the
following statement is wrong:
P
2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16 18 20 22 t(sec)
What is nature of acceleration between t = 18 s
to t = 20 s in above diagram
(1) Positive (2) Negative Q
(3) Zero (4) None of these (1) Quantity Q may represent time
13. In the given graph which of following physical (2) Quantity P is velocity if motion is uniform
quantities changes their sign? (3) Quantity P may be displacement if motion is
Velocity uniform
(4) Quantity P may be velocity if motion is
2V0 uniformly accelerated
17. A ball is dropped from a building of height
45m. Simultaneously another ball is thrown up
with a speed of 40 m/s. Calculate the magnitude
O of relative velocity of the balls when both balls
t1 t2 time
are in air :
(1) 0 m/s (2) 20 m/s
–V0
(3) 40 m/s (4) 60 m/s
(1) Displacement (2) Velocity 18. x(m)
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Acceleration
14. A ruler is dropped vertically through the gap 60
between your thumb and fore finger. Then find 50 A
reaction time if displacement of ruler is 40
21.0 cm? 30
(1) 0.2 sec (2) 0.6 sec 20
(3) 0.8 sec (4) 0.9 sec 10

15. Which of following graph represents 1 2 3 4 5 6 t(sec)
displacement-time of an object under free fall.
Neglect air resistance. B
Displacement-time curve of two objects A & B
y y
t t is shown in the figure. Find relative velocity of
(1) (2) B with respect to A
(1) – 15 m/s (2) – 10 m/s
(3) 15 m/s (4) 10 m/s
19. A lift coming from 8 floor is just about to reach
th
4th floor and stops on 4th floor. Taking ground

y y as origin and taking upward direction as positive
t t for all quantities, which of following is correct?
(3) (4)
(1) x < 0, v < 0, a < 0
(2) x > 0, v < 0, a < 0
(3) x > 0, v < 0, a > 0
(4) x > 0, v > 0, a < 0
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20. A car is moving on a road, then correct 26. Two particles A and B are moving on a straight
statement is line with the same speed. Which of the following
(1) Car must be in motion for all observers statement is/are correct for the relative motion
(2) Car must be at rest for all observers of the two particles :
(3) Car may be at rest or in motion, depends (1) The relative velocity vAB or vBA is zero only
upon observer if they are moving in the same direction
(4) Motion is independent upon the choice of (2) If the particles are moving in opposite
observer direction, the magnitude of vBA or vAB is
21. When a particle is released under gravity, then twice than the magnitude of velocity of A
rate of change of velocity with respect to or that of B.
distance is : (3) The relative velocity v AB or vBA is always
(1) Constant zero
(2) Increases continuously (4) Both (1) and (2)
(3) Decreases continuously 27. The stopping distance is an important factor
(4) First increases then decreases for road safety and depends on
22. Number of possible directions of motion in (1) Initial velocity
one-dimensional motion is/are : (2) Deceleration
(1) Only one (2) Only two (3) Braking capacity
(3) Only three (4) None of these (4) All of these
r r
1 2 r u +v
23. The relation x = v0t + at is same as 28. The relation < v >= is valid for
2 2
(Here v is average velocity)
(1) Constant acceleration only
æ v + v0 ö vt (2) Non-uniform acceleration only
(1) x = ç ÷t (2) x =
è 2 ø 2 (3) Uniform motion only
(4) Uniform and non-uniform acceleration both
æ v - v0 ö æ v + v0 ö 29. Which of the following statement is/are
(3) x = ç ÷t (4) x = ç ÷t
è 2 ø è 2 ø INCORRECT ?
24. For an object in free fall (I) For motion involving change in direction
(1) Only gravitational force should act along the straight line, displacement may
(2) Air resistance is neglected decrease.

(3) Speed may or may not be zero (II) Direction of acceleration is same as
(4) All of the above direction of velocity.
25. Two objects are moving on straight line with (III) Average speed is, in general greater than
non-zero velocities in opposite directions, then or equal to the magnitude of the average
magnitude of relative velocity will be velocity.
(1) Equal to individual velocity (IV) Equation of motion is valid only in
(2) Less than individual velocities one-dimensional uniform accelerated motion
(3) Greater than magnitude of individual (1) only I (2) only IV
velocities (3) II, IV (4) I, III, IV
(4) Greater or equal to magnitude of individual
velocities.
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 1 2 1 3 1 3 4 4 1 3 1 2 2 1 2
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29
Ans. 2 3 1 3 3 3 2 1 4 3 4 4 1 3
E
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Solution :- 16. When we calculate velocity from
1. Displacement will be zero when initial & final displacement-time curve we take slope, similarly
point is same. Distance can not be zero if for velocity-time curve slope gives acceleration.
location is changed. When we represent motion by a graph it may
2. At any instant, the magnitude of velocity abd be x-t, v-t or a-t hence, Q may represent time.
speed will be equal. For uniform motion velocity-time graph
should be a straight line parallel to time axis.
3. Magnitude of displacement can not exceed
For uniform motion velocity is constant
distance.
hence slope will be positive for x-t curve so P
4. In projectile motion, acceleration is constant
may represent displacement.
and trajectory is parabolic.
For uniformly accelerated motion, slope will
5. ® If direction changes with constant speed
be positive & P will represent velocity.
then acceleration can change.
17. For the ball dropped from building
® If an object is projected upward then at
u1 = 0
maximum height it's velocity is zero but
v1 = u1 – gt
acceleration due to gravity acts.
v1 = –gt
® If velocity is constant then acceleration is for the ball thrown up, u2 = 40 m/s
zero. v2 = u2 – gt
= 40 – gt
2H
6. t= Þ It doesn't depend on mass. Relative velocity of one ball w.r.t. to other
g
= v1 – v 2
7. As body moves upward it's velocity decreases = –gt – (40 – gt)
& at maximum height point it's velocity = –40 m/s
becomes zero but acceleration due to gravity When we apply equations of rectilinear motion
act's downward. we must carefully apply sign on physical
9. A particle can not have two positions at same quantities.
time. Dx 20 - 10
18. vA = = = 5 m/s
Dt
13. Motion of the object with negative 2

acceleration. Between O to t 1 it moves in Dx 20 - 40
positive x-direction vB = = = – 10 m/s
Dt 2
Between t1 to t2 it moves in opposite direction.
vBA = vB – vA = – 10 – 5 = – 15 m/s
1 2 19. As left is coming in downward direction, its
14. S = ut + at
2 position is above the ground.
Lift reaches 4th floor and is about to stop
1 hence motion is retarding in nature, v < 0 so
0.21 = × 9.8 t2
2 a > 0 acceleration act in upward direction.
Velocity is in downward direction, so v < 0.
t @ 0.2sec
20. There is no meaning of rest or motion without
1 2 observer. For a person sitting in a moving car,
15. y=0– gt = – 4.9 t2 the car is at rest but for an observer attached to
2
ground, car is in motion.
y µ – t2 parabola
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vdv 27. The stopping distance depends on initial
21. a= velocity (v 0 ), braking capacity and
dx
dv a cons tant deacceleration.
= =
dx v v r v + v0
because v. So, rate of change of velocity with 28. v= is valid for constant acceleration
2
respect to distance will decreases continuously.
only.
22. In 1-D, there are only two directions (backward
and forward, upward and downward) in which r change in velocity
29. a=
an object can move or these two directions can time
easily be specified by (+) and (–) signs. r
direction of a = direction of change in velocity
1 Equation of motion is valid for uniform
23. x = v0t + (v – v0)t
2 acceleration. It may be in both x and y direction.
1 v0 t
x = v0t + vt –
2 2
æ v + v0 ö
x= ç ÷ t = vt
è 2 ø
24. An object is said to be in free fall, when its
acceleration is only due to gravity. Its speed
may be zero or non-zero.
r r r
25. v AB = v A - v B , because q = 180º
r
| v AB | = v A + v B
26. Given, |vA| = |vB|
vAB = vA – vA = 0 = vBA (same direction)
r r
Case-II : VA = – VB (opposite direction)
r r
VAB = –2 A B

r r r
| VBA | = 2| VB | = 2| VA |
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MOTION IN PLANE
r
1. A person standing on the ground throws a stone 6. The component of a vector r along x-axis will
upwards, then the path of the stone as seen by have maximum value if -
r
the person in a train moving on a straight (1) r is along positive y-axis
r
horizontal track with constant speed - (2) r is along positive x-axis
r
(1) Circular (2) Parabolic (3) r makes an angle of 45° with the x-axis
r
(3) Straight line (4) Ellipse (4) r is along negative y-axis
2. Which of the following statements is false for a 7. If in a two dimensional motion, instantaneous
particle moving in a circle with a constant speed v0 is a positive constant. Then which of
angular speed - the following is necessarily true :-
(1) The velocity vector is tangential to the circle (1) The average velocity is not zero during any
(2) The acceleration vector is tangential to the time-interval
circle
(2) Average acceleration must always vanish
(3) The acceleration vector points towards the
centre of the circle (3) Displacement in equal time intervals are
(4) The velocity and acceleration vectors are equal
perpendicular to each other (4) Equal path lengths are traversed in equal
3. A boy tries to cross the river and want to reach intervals
at the exactly opposite point on the other bank 8. Choose the wrong statement :-
then what is the necessary relation between vb (1) Three vectors of different magnitudes may
and vr :- be combined to give zero resultant.
(2) Two vectors of different magnitudes can be
vb ® velocity of boy in still water ;
combined to give a zero resultant.
vr ® velocity of river
(3) The product of a scalar and a vector is a
(1) vb < vr (2) vb = vr vector quantity.
(3) vb > vr (4) None of these (4) Component of a vector can not be greater
4. Which one of the following statements is true? than the magnitude of the vector.
9. A marble 'A' is dropped vertically. Another
(1) A scalar quantity is the one that is conserved
identical marble 'B' is projected horizontally
in a process
from the same point at the same instant then -
Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\NCERT BASED OBJECTIVE_PHY(INSIDER)\ENG\XI\4. MOTION IN PLANE.P65
(2) A scalar quantity is the one that can never

(If friction of air considered as negligible)
take negative values
(1) A will reach the ground earlier than B
(3) A scalar quantity is the one that does not
vary from one point to another in space (2) B will reach the ground earlier than A
(4) A scalar quantity has the same value for (3) Both A and B will reach the ground at the
same instant
different orientations of the axes
5. If in a two dimensional motion, instantaneous (4) None of these
r r
speed v0 is a positive constant. Then which of 10. If P = lQ , then which of the following is
the following is necessarily true :- incorrect.
(1) The acceleration of the particle is zero r r
(1) | P | must be equal to l | Q |
(2) The acceleration of the particle is constant
r r
(3) The acceleration of the particle is (2) Directions of P& Q must be same
necessarily in the plane of motion r r
(3) Dimensions of P and Q must be same
(4) The particle must be undergoing a uniform
circular motion (4) All of the above
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

11. Which of the following statement is correct- r r
18. If v and a represent velocity and acceleration
(1) Direction of velocity at any point on path is
respectively, then v̂ = aˆ may remains
tangential to the path
applicable in -
(2) Direction of average velocity is along
(1) 1-Dimensional motion
direction of motion during that interval
(3) Direction of motion is always along direction (2) Projectile motion
of acceleration (3) Circular motion
(4) A particle may undergo 2-dimensional motion (4) None of the above
even if acceleration & velocity remain in 19. For four non-coplanar and non-collinear
same direction r r r r r r r r r
vectors P, Q, R &S if P + Q + R + S = 0 , then
12. In circular motion -
(1) Resultant acceleration of object is always which of the following must be incorrect -
towards centre of circle r r r r
(1) | P + Q | = | R + S |
(2) Resultant acceleration of object is always
towards tangent to the circle r r r r
(2) | P| + | Q | + | R | > | S |
(3) Resultant acceleration of object is always
towards centre of circle only if speed is r r r r
(3) (P + Q),R & S will be in same plane
constant
(4) Component of velocity may be towards r r r r
(4) | P + Q |= | R | + | S |
centre of circle
13. If velocity and acceleration remain 20. A body is dropped from the window of a train.
perpendicular, then particle may undergo :- The time taken by body to reach on the ground
will be case (1) if the train is stationary, case (2)
(1) One dimensional motion
the train moves with a constant velocity, case
(2) Projectile motion
(3) the train moves with an acceleration.
(3) Uniform circular motion
(1) time of free fall is maximum when train is
(4) Non-uniform circular motion
14. In circular motion :- stationary
(1) Acceleration is constant (2) time of free fall is maximum when train is
(2) Component of acceleration perpendicular moving with constant velocity
to motion must be present
(3) time of free fall is maximum when train is
(3) Net work done on particle must be zero
moving with an acceleration
(4) Tangential force can not deliver power to
the particle (4) time of free fall is same in all three cases.
15. In which of the following examples average 21. Which of the following sets of factors will affect
speed is greater than the magnitude of a average the horizontal distance covered by an athlete in
a long-jump event.
velocity.
(1) Speed before he jumps and his weight
(1) Projectile motion (2) Circular motion
(2) The direction in which he leaps and the
(3) Planetary motion (4) All of the above initial speed
16. For projectile motion
(3) The force with which he pushes the ground
(1) Acceleration must be constant
and his speed
(2) Initial momentum and force must be
non-collinear (4) None of these
(3) Velocity, must vary with time 22. A ball is thrown up at some angle with the
(4) All of the above horizontal. Then the total change of momentum
17. Velocity of particle is always tangential to :- by the instant it returns to ground is
(1) Acceleration due to gravity × total time of
(1) Curve representing position-time relation
flight
(2) Curve representing velocity-time relation (2) Weight of the ball × half the time of flight
(3) Curve representing acceleration-time relation (3) Weight of the ball × total time of flight
(4) Curve representing path of the object (4) Weight of the ball × horizontal range
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

23. At what point of a projectile motion 28. A man projects a coin upwards from the gate of
acceleration and velocity are perpendicular to a uniformly moving train. The path of coin for
each other
the man will be. (If air friction considered as
(1) At the point of projection
(2) At the point of drop negligible)
(3) At the top most point (1) Parabolic
(4) Any where in between the point of projection (2) Inclined straight line
and topmost point (3) Vertical straight line
24. A gun is aimed at a target in a line of its barrel. (4) Horizontal straight line
The target is released and allowed to fall under 29. A bomb is dropped from an aeroplane moving
gravity at the same instant the gun is fired. The horizontally at constant speed when air
bullet will resistance is taken into consideration, the bomb
(1) Pass above the target (1) Falls to earth exactly below the aeroplane
(2) Pass below the target (2) Falls to earth behind the aeroplane
(3) Hit the target (3) Falls to earth ahead of the aeroplane
(4) Certainly miss the target (4) Flies with the aeroplane
25. Neglecting the air resistance, the time of flight 30. In a ground to ground projectile motion
of a projectile is determined by
tangential acceleration at the topmost point P of
(1) uvertical (component of initial velocity in
vertical direction) the trajectory is :-
(2) uhorizontal(component of initial velocity in v0 P
horizontal direction)
(3) u = u2vertical + u2horizontal q
(4) u = (u2vertical + u2horizontal)1/2
26. A projectile is projected with a speed u making (1) g (2) gcosq
an angle 2q with the horizontal. What is the (3) 0 (4) None of these
speed when its direction of motion makes an 31. In case of a uniform circular motion, velocity
and acceleration are :-
angle q with the horizontal.
(1) Perpendicular
u cos 2q (2) In same direction
(1) (2) u (2 cos q – sec q)
2 (3) In opposite direction
(3) u cos q (4) u (cos q – sec q) (4) Not related to each other
27. A particle reaches its highest point when it has 32. The speed of a particle moving in a circle is
covered exactly one half of its horizontal range. increasing. The dot product of its acceleration
The corresponding point on trajectory has and velocity is :-
(1) Negative slope and zero curvature (1) negative

(2) Zero slope and negative curvature (2) zero
(3) Zero slope and positive curvature (3) positive
(4) Positive slope and zero curvature (4) may be positive or negative
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 2 2 3 4 3 2 4 2 3 4 1 3 3 2 4
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 4 4 1 4 4 2 3 3 3 1 2 2 3 2 3
Que. 31 32
Ans. 1 3
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

Solution :- 5. As given motion is two dimensional motion and
1. As the train is moving, so the person in the train given that instantaneous speed v0 is positive
observe the path of the stone as parabolic path, constant. Acceleration is rate of change of velocity,
because according to him the stone has both hence it will also be in the plane of motion.
r
horizontal and vertical velocities. Horizontal 6. Let r makes an angle q with the positive x-axis.
r
component is due to relative motion w.r.t. train Component of r along x-axis
and vertical component is provided by the rx = r cos q
(rx)max = r (cos q)max
person on ground.
Q (cos q)max = 1 at q = 0°
2. For a particle moving is a circle with constant r
hence r is along positive x-axis.
angular speed velocity vector is always
7. In two dimensional motion, if instantaneous
tangential to the circle and the acceleration
speed is a positive constant then equal path
vector always points towards the centre of
lengths are traversed in equal intervals of time.
circular path and along the radius of the circle.
8. Three vectors of different magnitudes in the
Since, tangential vector is perpendicular to
same plane can give the zero resultant. If the
radial vector, therefore velocity vector will be components of vector are not perpendicular to
perpendicular to the acceleration vector, but in each other then the component of a vector may
this case acceleration vector is not tangential to be greater than the magnitude of the vector.
the circle. Combination of two vectors of different
3. For the boy to reach at point B from point magnitudes can never give the zero resultant.
A : ® vb sin q = vr 9. Both marbles has zero initial velocity in vertical
B direction, same acceleration and same
vr displacement in vertical direction. Hence both
will reach the ground at the same instant.
r r
10. ˆ
If l is -ve then | P |= -l | Q |,Pˆ = -Q
vb q r r
Dimension of P = Dim. of l Q
A 11. 1. Option is correct
vb cos q has to be non-zero for the displacement
2. Option is wrong value of average velocity in
along the y-direction.
a given interval of time is a single value but
vr instantaneous values of velocities between
So, v b =
sin q the same interval can be different.
3. Option is wrong, in retardation direction of
here, q has to be less than 90°, so sin q < 1 for motion and acceleration are different.
q < 90° 4. Option is wrong, if velocity and acceleration
hence, vb > vr remain in same direction the motion of
4. (1) False : energy is not conserved during particle is a straight line.
inelastic collision. 12. 1. Option is wrong if speed of particle changes
(2) False : Temperature can be negative then the direction of resultant acceleration
(3) False : Gravitational potential energy vary is not towards the centre.
from point to point in space 2. Option is wrong.
(4) True : Scalar quantity is independent from 3. Option is correct
direction hence has the same value for 4. Option is wrong, velocity is tangential.
observes with different orientations of the 13. Perpendicular acceleration changes direction
of motion. It cannot change speed.
axes.
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

14. 1. Option is wrong, acceleration is variable 23. At the topmost point.
2. Option is correct. 24. Because vertical downward displacement of
3. Option is wrong. Net workdone is zero is both (target and bullet) will be equal.
speed is constant
2u sin q 2(u vertical )
4. Option is wrong, tangential force deliver 25. (i) Time of flight = =
power because in can be parallel to velocity. g g
15. If distance > |displacement | then Average speed 26. V cos q = U cos (2q)
> |Average velocity|
16. All these are pre-conditions for projectile motion. U cos 2q
V=
17. y cos q
U[2cos 2 q - 1]
V= = U[2 cos q – sec q]
x cos q
At any particular instant, direction of motion In projectile motion, horizontal component of

i.e. instantaneous velocity is tangential to curve velocity remains constant.
(path).
27. downward open negative curvature
18. ®
® v
v
upward open positive curvature
®
a
®
a 28. Because horizontal velocity is same for coin
r r
In projectile and circular motion a and v are and the observer. So relative horizontal
not in same direction. displacement is zero.
r r
In one dimensional motion v & a may have 29. Due to air resistance, its horizontal velocity will
same direction. decrease so it will fall behind the aeroplane.
® ®
v a 30. At highest point of trajectory of projectile
19. 1. Option is correct tangential component of acceleration is zero as
2. Option is correct acceleration is vertically downwards (g) and
3. Option is correct velocity is horizontal or the angle between
4. Option must be incorrect, it is possible only acceleration and velocity is 90°.
r r 31. Velocity is tangential and acceleration is radial.
if R & S are collinear.
20. The motion of the train only affects the 32. Speed of particle is increasing, means tangential
magnitude of horizontal component of velocity component of acceleration is present and is
along the velocity of particle. So, dot product of
and the acceleration of the body along the
acceleration and velocity of particle is positive.
horizontal, if any. It does not affect the nature
of the motion along vertical. Therefore in all
three cases, the time of free fall of the body will
be equal.
u 2 sin 2q
21. Range = . It is clear that range is
g
proportional to the direction (angle) and the
initial speed.
22. Change in momentum of the ball
= m u sin q – (– m u sin q) = 2m u sin q
2u sin q
= mg = weight × total time of flight
g
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
NEWTON LAWS OF MOTION

1. Consider the following statements :- 5. Consider three cases in equilibrium :-
(A) Rolling friction can be smaller than static or
sliding friction even by 2 or 3 times of magnitude.
(B) Lubricants are way of reducing static friction 60 Kg
in a machine.
(C) Friction involved in ball bearings and surface
in contact is rolling friction.
(D) A thin cushion of air maintained between 4kg 60 Kg 4kg
solid surfaces in contact reduces friction. 60 Kg
The correct statements from above are : 4kg
(1) A, B, C (2) A, B, C, D (i) (ii) (iii)
(3) A, C, D (4) B, C, D
A man of mass 60 kg is holding the string
2. The difference between fundamental laws and
connected to block of mass 4kg as shown. Then
empirical relations is that empirical relations
the incorrect statement is :-
are approximately true.
(1) Normal reaction will be maximum on man
Which of the given are empirical relations :-
in first case.
(1) Law of gravitation (2) Coulomb's Law
(2) Normal reaction will be least in third case.
(3) Laws of friction (4) None of these
(3) Tension in the string held by man is least in
3. Which of the following statements are true ?
third case
(A) For applying the second law of motion,
(4) Tension in string held by man is maximum
there is no conceptual distinction between
in second case.
inanimate and animate objects
6. If the two curves drawn between frictional
(B) In merry-go-round, all parts of body are
force f and applied force F for 2 bodies on
subject to an inward force and the direction
ground. Then correct statement is :-
of impending motion is inwards too.
(C) During the action of impulsive force there f f
is no appreciable change in momentum of 40 N 20 N
body.
Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\NCERT BASED OBJECTIVE_PHY(INSIDER)\ENG\XI\5. NEWTON LAWS OF MOTION.P65

(D) During the action of impulsive force there q1 q2
F F
is no appreciable change in the position of
(A) (B)
body.
(1) A, B, C, D (2) B, C, D (1) q1 > q2
(3) A, D (4) A, B, D
(2) Coefficient of static friction may be more for (B)
4. Consider the following statements and select
incorrect statements :- (3) Coefficient of kinetic friction is same as
(A) The second law of newton is a vector law. coefficient of static friction for both
(B) The second law is a local law i.e, acceleration (A) & (B)
does not depend on the history of motion. (4) Coefficient of static friction will be more for (A)
(C) The second law is applicable only for point 7. Conservation of momentum in a collision can
objects. be understood from :-
(D) Only conservative forces are written in (1) Newton's first law only
newton's second law. (2) Conservation of energy principle
(1) Only B (2) Only C (3) Newton's second law only
(3) B, D (4) C, D (4) Newton's third law
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

8. In the given KE vs position (x) graph. 13. If same force acts on different bodies (Both
bodies are moving with different velocities) for
KE same time, then :
(1) Change in speed is same for each.
(2) Change in momentum is same for each.
x (3) Change in position will be same for each.
(4) Acceleration will be same for each.
(1) Acceleration is constant
(2) Net force is increasing 14. According to Galileo's experiment for a double
(3) Magnitude of net force first increases then incline plane, if slope of second plane is
decreases. decreased and the planes are smooth, then a
(4) Magnitude of net force first decreases then ball is released from rest on one of the planes
increases. rolls down and climb up the other the final
9. At which point in the given graph, magnitude height of the ball is :-
of rate of change of momentum is maximum. (1) Less than initial height
(2) More than initial height
KE B (3) Equal to initial height
(4) More or less than initial height
A C 15. A ball is travelling with uniform translatory
D
150°
60° motion. This means that :-
110 x
(1) It is at rest
(2) The path can be straight line or circular and
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D the ball travels with uniform speed
10. Total number of correct statements are :- (3) All parts of the ball have the same velocity
(A) Tension may be impulsive force (magnitude and direction) and the velocity
(B) Gravitational force may be impulsive force is constant
(C) Spring force can never be impulsive force (4) The centre of the ball moves with constant
velocity and the ball spins about its centre
(D) Frictional force can never be impulsive
uniformly
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) Zero 16. No force acts on particle, it is found that particle
11. Position has non-zero acceleration. Then :-
x
B (1) Frame of reference is inertial
A D (2) Frame of reference is non-inertial
30° 60° 60° (3) Newton's first law is applicable in this
time
C t situation
The correct ascending order of magnitude of (4) None of the above
impulse at points A, B, C, D is :- 17. Action and reaction are equal and opposite. If
(1) A < B < C < D (2) A = B < C < D F be the magnitude of both the action and
(3) A = D < B < C (4) A = D < C < B reaction, then :-
12. If v = P + qt2 + rt3. Then net force acting on this (1) Resultant of action and reaction is zero on a
particle will be zero at t = 2 if : body.
(2) Resultant of action and reaction is 2F
p q (3) Resultant of action and reaction is less
(1) q = 0 (2) =3
r than F
(4) Action and reaction do not cancel
r 1 r –1 each-other
(3) q = 3 (4) q = 3
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

18. A box is placed on the surface of a truck. When 24. If no external force acts on particle, then which
the truck accelerates in the forward direction, of the following is incorrect about particle ?
then the direction of force of friction on lower (1) Particle may be at rest
surface of the box due to surface of the truck to (2) Particle moves with uniform speed on linear
prevent the sliding of the box is :- path
(1) In backward direction (3) Particle moves with uniform speed on circle
(2) In forward direction
(4) None of these
(3) In upward direction
25. Which of the following statements is not true ?
(4) In downward direction
19. A car accelerates on a horizontal road due to the (1) The same force is required to act for same
force exerted by :- time for the same change in momentum for
(1) The road different bodies of same mass
(2) The driver of car (2) The rate of change of momentum of a body
(3) The engine of the car is directly proportional to the applied force
(4) The tyre and takes place in the direction in which the
20. A hockey player is moving northward and force acts
suddenly turns westward with the same speed (3) A greater opposing force is needed to stop
to avoid an opponent. The force that acts on the a heavy body than a light body in the same
player is :- time, if they are moving with the same
(1) Frictional force along westward speed
(2) Muscle force along southward (4) The greater is the change in the momentum
(3) Frictional force along south-west in a given time, the lesser is the force that
(4) Muscle force along south-west needs to be applied
21. A train is accelerating with constant acceleration 26. µs , µk and µ r are the coefficients of static
'a' on a straight track. If a ball of mass 'm' is friction, kinetic friction and rolling friction
dropped outside from the window of train, then respectively then :-
magnitude of net acceleration of ball, with
(1) µs > µk > µr
respect to observer situated at ground, will be
(neglect air resistance) (2) µs > µk < µr
(1) a (2) g (3) µs < µk > µr

(3) g + a (4) g + a
2 2
(4) µs < µk < µr
22. Statement-1 : If we consider system of two
bodies A and B as a whole, FAB and FBA are 27. Which type of forces does a proton exert on
internal forces of the system (A+B). They add another proton?
to give a null force. (1) Nuclear
Statement-2 : Internal forces in a body or a (2) Electromagnetic, nuclear
system of particles cancel away in pairs.
(3) Gravitation, Electromagnetic, Nuclear
Correct statements is/are :
(4) Gravitation, Nuclear
(1) Only 1 (2) Only 2
(3) Both 1 and 2 (4) Neither 1 nor 2 28. Which of the following statement is not true for
a force?
23. If two bullets of same mass (m) thrown with
different speeds v1 and v2 (v1 > v2) then which (1) Force can produce deformation in a body
bullet damage more ? (2) Force is the influence of one body on another
(1) First bullet (3) Force can produce acceleration in a body
(2) Second bullet
(3) Same damage by both (4) Force always acts in the direction of motion
(4) None of these
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

29. Identify the incorrect statement of the following: 34. A block of mass m is placed at rest on a rough
horizontal surface with the coefficient of friction
(1) The weight of a body always acts towards
m. The following figure shows four different
the centre of the earth
ways in which a constant force F may be applied
(2) The contact force between the two surfaces on the block. Identify the situation in which the
may be at angle with surface block can be moved with the least effort:
(3) The tension in a string always pulls a body F

m F m
(4) The spring force always pushes the body
(1) (2)
30. A body is said to be in equilibrium:
(1) If it is at rest F F
(2) If it is moving with constant speed m m
(3) (4)
(3) If it is not accelerating
(4) If even number of forces are acting on the body 35. A particle is moving with a constant speed along
31. Inertia of a body is defined as: a straight line path. A force is not required to:
(1) Its ability to remain at rest (1) increase its speed

(2) Its ability to get removed (2) decrease its momentum
(3) Its ability to oppose the changes in its (3) change the direction
translatory state of motion
(4) keep it moving with uniform velocity
(4) All of the above
36. An object will continue accelerating until
32. According to Newton's third law:
(1) Forces exist in pairs which are equal and (1) Resultant force on it begins to decrease
opposite (2) Its velocity changes direction
(2) The action and reaction forces are always of (3) The resultant force on it is zero
the same nature
(4) The resultant force is at right angles to its
(3) The action and reaction always act on direction of motion

different bodies
37. Observer O1 is in a lift going upward and O2 is
(4) All of these
on ground both apply Newton's law and measure
33. Identify the incorrect statement related to the normal reaction on the body:
static and kinetic friction between the two bodies:
a
(1) The magnitude of static friction between
the two surfaces is always greater than the O1 O2
kinetic friction
m
(2) The magnitude of kinetic friction is always
of a constant magnitude
(1) The both measure the same value
(3) The magnitude of static friction lies between
(2) The both measure different value
zero and a maximum value
(4) The coefficient of static friction is always (3) The both measure zero
more than the coefficient of kinetic friction (4) Not sufficient data
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

38. Neglect the effect of the rotation of the Earth. 42. Four forces act on a point object. The object will
Suppose the Earth suddenly stops attracting be in equilibrium, if :-
objects placed near its surface. A person (A) all of them are in the same plane.
standing on the surface of the earth will:
(B) they are opposite to each other in pairs.
(1) Fly up
(C)the sum of x, y and z components of forces
(2) Slip along the surface is zero separately.
(3) Fly along a tangent to the earth's surface (D) they form a closed figure of 4 sides when
(4) Remain standing added as per polygon law.
39. A cold soft drink is kept on the balance. When
(1) a, b, c (2) a, c, d
the cap is open, then the weight:
(3) b, c, d (4) a, b, d
(1) Increases
43. A block is placed on the top of a smooth
(2) Decreases
inclined plane of inclination q kept on the floor
(3) First increases then decreases
of a lift. When the lift in descending with
(4) Remains same
retardation 'a', the block is released. The
40. A student attempts to pull himself up by tugging
acceleration of the block relative to the incline
on his hair. He will not succeed:
is :-
(1) As the force exerted is small
(2) The frictional force while gripping is small (1) gsinq (2) asinq
(3) Newton's law of Inertia is not applicable to (3) (g–a)sinq (4) (g+a)sinq
living beings 44. In non-intertial frame, the second law of motion
(4) As the force applied is internal to the system is written as :-
41. Two ends of a spring are displaced along the (1) F = ma (2) F = ma + FP
length of the spring. All displacements have (3) F = ma – FP (4) F = 2ma
equal magnitude. In which case(s) the tension (Where F P is pseudo-force, while a is the
or compression in the spring will have a acceleration of the body relative to non-inertial
maximum magnitude? frame)
(A) The right end is displaced towards right and 45. If non external force acts on particle, then
which of the following is incorrect about
the left end towards left.
particle?

(B) Both ends are displaced towards right.
(1) Particle may be at rest
(C) Both ends are displaced towards left.
(2) Particle moves with uniform velocity on
(D) The right end is displaced towards left and
linear path
the left end towards right.
(3) Particle moves with uniform speed on circle
(1) A and D (2) B and C
(3) All cases (4) None
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 3 3 4 2 2 4 4 3 2 3 3 2 3 3
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 2 4 2 1 3 2 3 1 3 4 1 3 4 4 3
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 3 4 1 2 4 3 1 4 3 4 1 3 4 3 3
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

Hints & Solutions
6. Max. friction depends on mass of the body too. a = constant
8. Slope of K.E – x graph is
21.
æ1 ö anet = g
d ç mv 2 ÷
è 2 ø = 1 m 2vdv
dx 2 dx Force on the body at a given time is determined
by the situation at the location of the body at
vdv
= const × = const × acc n that time. Force is not carried by the body from
dx
its earlier history of motion.
13. DP = ò Fdt
22. According to Newton's 3rd law
System
A FAB FBA A
14.
FAB = – FAB
q = reduced angle
Final height is same as initial height. FAB + FBA = O
15. Uniform translatory motion
23. mv1 > mv2
1 1
momentum of 1st is greater than that of 2nd
4 m m 2
2 4 27. Protons have mass and charge. They are also
nucleons.
3 3
16. Without force object having acceleration implies 28. Body always moves in the direction of velocity,
that frame of reference is having acceleration. if velocity is zero then moves along net force on
18. Pseudo force on block acts in backward body.
direction. There force direction of friction force 29. If the spring is pushed then it pushes the body;
on the box in forward direction.
if the spring is pulled then it pulls the body.
r
ma f a 30. Equilibrium implies FNet = 0 , thus ar = 0 or
r
V = const, velocity must be const and in

19. Friction force between the tyre & road causes magnitude be constant in magnitude as well as
the acceleration of car on horizontal road. in direction. The const velocity may be zero.
N 33. ms > mk; 0 £ fs £ mN and fk = mkN
34. Smaller is the value of friction, lesser is the
–vi horizontal force required to displace the block.
20. W E In case (1) fmax = mN = mmg
–vj
® In case (2) fmax = m(mg – Fsinq)
Dv
In case (3) fmax = m(mg + Fsinq)
S
In case (4) force required is maximum
r r r
Dv = v f – v i 35. According to Newton's 1st law.
r r r
Dv = - viˆ – vjˆ 36. If FNet = 0 on a body then a = 0
r
Dv = 2v , south-west 37. Force does not depend upon frame of reference.
Change in velocity takes place in direction of
r 38. According to Newton's 1st Law.
Fnet [Frictional force along south-west]
E
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39. Gas will come out with sufficient speed in forward 45. With no external force, object can be stationary
direction so reaction of this forward force will or move on line with uniform speed. In this
change the reading of the spring balance. situation particle can not move on circle because
40. As by an internal force momentum of the to move on circle or curve external force is
system can not be changed. necessary.
41. In case A, it is elongation and in case D, it is
compression.
43. Lift is descending with retardation. Relative to
lift force in downward direction is m(g+a) in
place of mg. Therefore on smooth plane
acceleration will be (g+a) sinq not gsinq.
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
WORK, POWER & ENERGY

1. When a man pushes a wall he gets tired because 9. Work done by air resistance on a body falling
of: freely is :
(1) Internal energy utilised in contracting and (1) (+)ve (2) (–)ve
extending muscles (3) 0 (4) Can be anything
(2) By doing positive work on wall 10. Choose incorrect statement:
(3) By doing negative work on wall
(1) Energy stored in spring is same when it is
(4) None
stretched or compressed by same length
2. When a man starts running from rest, then work
(2) Power of centripetal force is always zero in
done by friction is:
circular motion
(1) zero
(2) positive (3) During inelastic collision of two masses
(3) negative K.E. lost during collision recovers partially
(4) None of these (4) Work done by gravity in projectile motion
3. Work done by centripetal force on a particle is always positive
performing circular motion is: 11. Choose correct statement:
(1) Zero (2) Positive (1) Slope of force-displacement graph is work done
(3) Negative (4) Can't be said (2) Area of P.E.-position graph is force
4. Work done by conservative force is: (3) Slope of work-time graph is power
(1) DK (2) DU (4) Area of acceleration-position graph is work-done
(3) –DU (4) DK+DU
12. The total work done on a particle is equal to the
5. Work done by kinetic friction is:
change in its kinetic energy:
(1) (+)ve
(1) Always
(2) (–)ve
(3) 0 (2) Only if the forces acting on it are conservative
(4) May be of any sign. (3) Only if gravitational force acts on it
6. If mechanical energy is constant, then speed of (4) Only if elastic force acts on it
particle: 13. A power (P) versus position (x) graph for a
(1) Increases continuously particle is shown below. The particle is of mass
Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\NCERT BASED OBJECTIVE_PHY(INSIDER)\ENG\XI\6. WORK, POWER & ENERGY.P65
(2) decreases continuously

10
(3) will be constant kg and is moving in the positive x direction.
7
(4) can't be said
7. If a block of mass M slides on a rough table by Its initial position is x = 0 and inital velocity is
a horizontal string: 1 m/s. The velocity at x = 10 m is :
(1) Work done by tension is equal to change in K.E.
P(in watts)
(2) Work done by friction is equal to change in K.E.
4
(3) Work done by friction converts to dissipative losses
2
(4) Work done by tension is equal to change in P.E.
8. Gravitational potential energy of two mass system x
10 (in m)
at any given instant does not depend on :
(1) Their separation
(1) 4 m/s (2) 2 m/s
(2) Gravitational force between them
(3) Value of masses 100
(3) 3 2 m / s (4) m /s
3
(4) Velocities of masses
E
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14. Which of the following statement is correct? 16. Which statement is correct?
(1) When a conservative force does positive
(1) In an elastic collision of two balls, the total
work on a body, then potential energy of
kinetic energy is conserved during the short
body increases
time of collision of balls
(2) A non-conservative force always decreases
mechanical energy of the system (2) In an elastic collision of two balls, the total
(3) Total work done by friction force on a momentum is conserved during the short
complete system can never be positive time of collision of balls
(4) Internal forces can never change the kinetic (3) Both are correct
energy of the system
(4) Both of incorrect
15. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(1) If momentum of an object is zero its kinetic
energy must be zero
(2) If kinetic energy of an object is zero then its
momentum must be zero
(3) If momentum of a system is zero, then its
kinetic energy must be zero
(4) If kinetic energy of a system is zero, then its
momentum must be zero
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 1 1 1 3 4 4 3 4 2 4 3 1 1 3 3
Que. 16
Ans. 2
E
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Hints & Solutions 13. Area under P – x curve = 30
2. Work done by friction is zero, since point of
application remains at rest. ò Pdx = 30
r r
3. Always zero as Fcp ^ V so q = p/2 æ dv ö
ò çè mv dx ÷ø v dx = 30
So work done = 0
-dU V
4. FC = ò mv dv = 30
2
dx 1
xf Uf
v
ò FC dx = - ò dU 10 æ v3 ö
= 30 Þ v = 4m / s
xi Ui 7 çè 3 ÷ø1
Work done by FC = –DU 14. Total work done by static friction on a complete
5. Work done by kinetic friction can be +ve/–ve/ system is always zero and total work done by
zero. kinetic friction on a complete system is always
6. E = K + U = constant negative.
K and U can change internally. 16. During the short time of collision, some K.E.
So if U increase then K decrease gets converted to potential energy.
if U decrease then K increase
if U remains constant, K remains constant
E
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SYSTEM OF PARTICLES AND ROTATIONAL MOTION

1. Which of the following statements are correct 4. Select the incorrect option :-
about a rigid body - (1) The total momentum of a system of particles
(a) Ideally a rigid body has a perfectly definite is equal to the product of the total mass of
and unchanging shape. the system and the velocity of its centre of
(b) Distances between different pairs of particle mass.
of rigid body do not change (2) In pure rotation all parts of the body have
(c) Inter molecular forces for a rigid body are the same angular velocity at any instant of
weak time.
(3) For rotation about a fixed axis, the direction
(d) No real body are truly rigid
of angular velocity does not change with
(1) a, b, c time if taxis = 0
(2) a, b, d (4) For rotation about a fixed axis magnitude of
angular velocity also remains constant
(3) c,b,d 5. Which of the following is wrong :-
(4) All of the above are correct (1) The vanishing of the total external force
and the vanishing of the total external torque
2. Which of the following is correct -
are independent conditions
(1) In pure translational motion at any instant (2) We can have net external force without
of time every particle of the body has the having torque
same velocity (3) We can have net torque without having net
(2) In rotation of a rigid body about a fixed external force
axis, every particle have same velocity at an (4) In a force couple acting on a body net external
instant. force is zero and also net torque is zero
6. Select the incorrect statement -
(3) In rotation about a fixed axis of a rigid body
Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\NCERT BASED OBJECTIVE_PHY(INSIDER)\ENG\XI\7. SYSTEM OF PARTICLES AND ROTATIONAL MOTION.P65

(1) The total torque on a system is independent
different particles have different angular of the origin if the total external force is zero
velocity. (2) The centre of gravity of a body coincides
(4) In rotation about a fixed axis direction of with its centre of mass only if the gravitational
angular velocity of all particles keep on field does not vary from one part to another
changing. of the body.
r
3. Which of the following is incorrect :- (3) The angular momentum L and the angular
r
(1) To determine the motion of the centre of velocity w should be necessarily parallel
mass of a system no knowledge of internal vectors.
forces of the system is required. (4) None of these
7. Which of the following is incorrect :-
(2) To determine the motion of the centre of
(1) The centre of gravity of an external body is
mass of a system we need to know only the
that point where the total gravitational torque
external forces on the body.
on the body is zero.
(3) The centre of mass of a system of particles (2) In rotational equilibrium the total external
moves as if all the mass of the system was torque on the body is zero.
concentrated at the centre of mass. r
(3) Angular velocity w is a vector directed
(4) The centre of mass of the fragments of the along axis of rotation.
projectile changes its original trajectory after (4) In pure translation, velocity of different
explosion parts is different.
E
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8. In pure rolling motion on ground which of the 13. Which of the following is wrong ?
following is wrong :- (1) A pair of equal and opposite forces with
(1) Work done by friction is zero different lines of action is known as a couple
(2) Friction may be directed along the direction (2) Couple produces rotation without translation
of motion
(3) Moment of couple is independent of the
(3) Relative motion of the lowest point w.r.t. reference point
ground is zero
(4) In rotational equilibrium net torque is zero
(4) Velocity of each point is same as that of only about a certain axis
centre of mass
14. If a particle moves in the X - Y plane, the
9. In pure rolling of sphere on horizontal surface
resultant angular momentum about origin has:-
with constant velocity of CM :-
(1) Only X Component
(1) Slipping may occur
(2) Work done by normal force is non-zero (2) Only Y Component
(3) Frictional force is acting backwards (3) Both X and Y Component

(4) Frictional force is zero (4) Only Z Component
10. If a body rolls down an inclined plane without 15. Which of the following are correct :-
slipping - (a) For rotational motion, angular momentum
(1) It possess only translatory kinetic energy r r
L and angular velocity w need not be
(2) It possess only Rotational kinetic energy parallel
(3) No work is done by friction (b) For rotational motion, angular momentum
(4) Gravity does no work r r
L and angular velocity w are always
11. Which of the following is not an example of parallel
conservation of angular momentum :-
(c) For translational motion, linear momentum
(1) When a person sitting on turn table suddenly r r
folds his arms, angular velocity increases P and velocity v are always parallel
r
(2) Bullet fired from gun (d) For translation motion, acceleration a and
(3) If ice on poles of earth melts then duration
r
velocity v are always parallel.
of the day increases (1) a, d (2) b, d
(4) Ballet dancer streches his arms so angular (3) a, c (4) c, d
velocity of rotation decreases
16. Ideally a rigid body is a body with a perfectly
12. Which of the following is wrong - definite and unchanging shape :-
(1) Radius of Gyration of a body, about an axis (1) Distance between its two points can be
may be defined as the distance from the axis changed
of a point mass whose mass is equal to the
(2) No real body is truly rigid
mass of the given body and moment of
(3) Rigid body has infinite inertia
inertia is equal to the moment of inertia of
body about same axis (4) Rigid body can not perform translational motion
(2) Moment of inertia depends on mass of a 17. What is translational motion ?
rigid body, its shape and size (1) Same linear velocity of all particles of body
(3) Moment of inertia depends on the (2) Same angular velocity
distribution of mass about the axis (3) both
(4) Moment of inertia is independent of density (4) None
of body
E
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18. Which is axis of precession in the given figure :- 24. Perpendicular axis theorem is applicable for :-
y
(1) One dimensional body
(2) Two dimensional body
(3) Three dimensional body
O
X (4) One dimensional and two dimensional body
25. COM of a body (Flat body) lies at the inter
section of three orthogonal axis in perpendicular
axis theorem.
(1) OX (2) OY (1) Yes (2) No
(3) both OX and OY (4) None (3) Not necessary (4) Can't Say
19. In pure rotational motion :- 26. Parallel axis theorem is applicable for -
(1) Same linear velocity of all the particles of (1) One Dimensional body
body (2) Two Dimensional body
(2) Same angular velocity of all the particles of (3) Three Dimensional body
body (4) All type of bodies
(3) Both (1) and (2) 27. Direction of resultant velocity of particle P in
(4) None of these rolling motion :-
20. A pair of forces of equal magnitude but acting w
in opposite direction with different lines of V3
action is known as - P V2
V1 V
(1) Dipole C
(2) Both dipole and couple
(3) Couple
(4) None Pure Rolling
21. R (1) Along V1 (2) Along V2
d1 d2 (3) Along V3 (4) None
A B

o
28. In pure rolling motion of a body if 60% of total
kinetic energy is translational and 40% is
F1 F2
rotational then the body should be -
The lever force F1 is usually some weight to be (1) Solid sphere (2) Hollow Sphere
lifted. It is called the load and its distances from (3) Ring (4) Disc
the fulcrum d1 is called the load arm Force F2 is 29. We can apply conservation of mechanical
the effort applied to lift the load; distance d2 of energy in pure rolling motion of a body, even
the effort from fulcrum then mechanical friction force is present between the surface -
advantage will be :-
(1) Mechanical energy is conserved in the
F2 F1 1 presence of kinetic friction force
(1) (2) (3) F1F2 (4)
F1 F2 F1 F2 (2) Mechanical energy is conserved if
workdone by the static friction force is zero
22. What is the analogue of mass in rotational
(3) Mechanical energy is conserved in every
motion:-
type of friction
(1) Angular momentum (2) Torque
(4) All are correct
(3) Moment of inertia (4) Inertia
30. A planet revolves around a massive star in a
23. Part of vehicle having large moment of inertia
highly elliptical orbit. Which of the following
resist the sudden increase or decrease of the
quantity is conserved?
speed of the vehicle known as -
(1) Kinetic Energy (2) Linear momentum
(1) Engine (2) Axle
(3) Angular Momentum (4) Acceleration
(3) Fly wheel (4) Steering wheel
E
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31. Which of the following are correct :- 37. A copper disc is rotating about an axis passing
(A) During rolling force of friction always act through centre and perpendicular to disc :-
in the opposite direction of velocity of (1) Angular velocity will increase if temperature
centre of mass increases
(B) The instantaneous speed of point of contact (2) Angular velocity will decrease if temperature
during pure rolling on ground is zero increases
(C) A wheel released on an smooth inclined (3) Kinetic energy will increase if temperature
plane will perform pure rolling increases
(D) Velocity of different points will be different (4) Angular momentum will decrease if
in pure rolling temperature increases
(1) A, B, D (2) B, C, D 38. A body is rotating about an axis, passing through
(3) B, D (4) A, D its centre of mass then its angular momentum is
32. A particle is moving along a straight line parallel directed along its :-
to x-axis with constant velocity. Its angular (1) Radius (2) Tangent
momentum about origin. (3) Circumference (4) Axis of Rotation
(1) Increases with time
39. If a horizontal tube partially filled with water is
(2) Decreases with time
rapidly rotated about a vertical axis passing
(3) Is constant
through its centre, the moment of inertia of the
(4) Only direction is constant but magnitude
water about axis of rotation will -
will change
(1) Increase
33. If same torque was provided on a hard boiled
(2) Decrease
egg & raw egg to spin on a table then :-
(3) Constant
(1) Hard boiled egg will have higher angular
(4) Increase or decrease depending upon clock
acceleration.
wise or anticlock wise sense of rotation
(2) Raw egg will have higher angular
40. If ice of the poles will start melting the duration
acceleration
of day and night.
(3) Both will have same angular acceleration
(1) Increase
(4) Information is insufficient
(2) Decrease
34. Handle of a screwdriver made wide to -
(3) Not change
(1) Increase the weight
(4) Depend upon the mass of earth
(2) Increase the moment of inertia
41. A particle is tied with string and moving in a
(3) Increase the torque
horizontal plane with constant speed. Its angular
(4) Increase the force
momentum about hinge.
35. All the points of a body performs circular
X
motion if axis of rotation passes from :-
(1) Centre of mass of body l
(2) Geometrical centre of the body
(3) Inside the body
m
(4) Outside the body
36. Cat always lands on its feet when dropped in (1) Conserved
any orientation due to - (2) Only direction is conserved not the
(1) Increase in energy and angular momentum magnitude
(3) Only magnitude is conserved not the
(2) Decrease in energy and angular momentum
direction
(3) By conservation of angular momentum
(4) Neither magnitude nor direction is
(4) By conservation of kinetic energy conserved
E
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42. A rod of mass m is released on smooth horizontal 43. Which of the following body has equal amount
surface making angle with horizontal. Then of rotational and translational kinetic energy
which of the following is incorrect :- during pure rolling?
(1) Acceleration of rod along vertical is less (1) Hollow Cylinder
than g. (2) Solid Cylinder
(2) Angular acceleration of rod is not constant (3) Hollow Sphere
(3) The angular momentum of the rod will not (4) Solid Sphere
be constant
(4) The torque acting on the rod will be constant
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 2 1 4 4 4 3 4 4 4 3 2 4 4 4 3
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 2 1 2 2 3 2 3 3 2 3 4 3 2 2 3
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43
Ans. 3 3 1 3 4 3 2 4 1 1 3 4 1
E
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r r y
Solution :- 32. L = r´p
m
16. It is evident from the definition of a rigid body ˆ
= mvd (–k) V
that no real body is truly rigid. Since real bodies It will remain constant. d
deform under the influence of forces. But in 33. As, t = Ia O x
many situation the deformations are negligible. So, Hard boiled egg will have less moment of
17. In pure translational motion at any instant of inertia than raw egg.
time all particles of the body have same velocity.
34. r r r so, r will increase if handle is wide
t = r´F
18. Movement of the axis of the fan blades (OX)
hence torque will increase.
around the axis known as precession axis (OY)
35. If axis of rotation is outside the body then every
19. We may characterise pure rotation by all part of
point will move around it.
the body having same angular velocity at any
36. Cat stretches its feet to increase the moment of
instant of time.
inertia so, w will decrease & Energy will decrease
21. d1F1 = d2F2 or load arm × load = effort arm × effort
L2
Fl d 2 R.K.E. =
M.A = = 2I
F2 d1 37. As temperature will increase, radius will increase
so moment of inertia will increase but angular
22. Analogue of mass in rotational motion is
momentum will be constant.
moment of inertia I = mr2
L = Iw
24. It is applicable only for lamina (2D bodies)
I increase, w decreases
25. It is not necessary that the CM of a body lies at 39. As tube is rotated the water will move with wall
the intersection of the orthogonal axis (in theorem of the tube so moment of inertia will increase.
it is not specify) 40. As, ice melt it will flow so, mass will disburse
hence, moment of inertia will increase so,
26. This theorem is applicable to a body of any
angular velocity of earth will decrease because
shape.
angular momentum will be conserved so,
K trans. 1 1 1 duration of day and night will increase.
28. = Þ Þ = 35 r r r
K Total k 2
2 5 / 3 41. L = r´p
1+ 2 1+
R 3 So, dirn will change
3 with time, but L
= ´ 100% Þ 60 %
5 magnitude will be
29. We apply conservation of mechanical energy constant
of rolling body i.e., there is no loss of energy r
| L |= mvl
due to friction as the work done by friction
42. As, force will be Mg cosq perpendicular to rod
force is zero.
so, t = mg cosql/2
30. As no external torque acts on planet so angular
It will change as q will change
momentum will be conserved.
1 2
R.kE 2 Iw
31. B ® In pure rolling velocity of point of contact
is zero. 43. =
T.kE 1 Mv 2
D ® As speed of any point
2
= V 2 + (wR) 2 + 2Vw R cos q 1
MR 2 V 2 / R 2
V For, Hollow Cylinder = 2 =1
q 1
wR MV2
2
V
E
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GRAVITATION
1. Kepler's law of areas is a consequence of : 7. A geostationary satellite :
(1) Conservation of linear momentum (1) has a time period of 24 hours
(2) Net force on planet (2) rotates from east to west
(3) Conservation of angular momentum (3) can be in any plane
(4) Constant angular speed (4) can be at any height above surface of earth
2. The total mechanical energy of Earth-Satellite 8. If the orbital radius of satellite is decreased,
system is : then (PE = potential energy, KE = kinetic
(1) Positive energy)
(2) Zero (1) PE decreases and KE increases
(3) Negative (2) Both PE and KE decreases
(3) Both PE and KE increases
(4) Can have any value
(4) PE increases and KE decreases
3. Consider a satellite moving in a circular orbit
9. In Kepler's third law, T 2 = KR3, the constant K
around earth. Which of the following statements
is :
is wrong :
(1) Higher for earth than mercury
(1) It is a freely falling body
(2) Same for all planets
(2) It suffers no acceleration
(3) Higher for mercury than earth
(3) It moves with constant speed
(4) None
(4) Its angular momentum is constant
10. The dimensional formulae of gravitational potential
4. Which of the following is incorrect statement:
and gravitational intensity are respectively :
(1) The motion of a particle under the central
(1) L2T–2, LT–2 (2) L2T–2, L2T2
force is always confined to a plane
(3) LT–2, L2T–2 (4) LT–2, L2T2
(2) For a central force, the position vector of the
11. Italian physicist Galileo recognized the fact
particle with respect to centre of force has a
that :
constant areal velocity
(1) bodies are accelerated towards earth with
(3) Moon has no atmosphere because of high
variable acceleration
angular velocity
(2) all bodies move towards earth with constant
(4) Escape velocity on surface of moon is less velocity when released from rest
than that of earth
(3) bodies with more mass have greater
5. Which of the following is correct for motion of acceleration towards earth's surface
Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\NCERT BASED OBJECTIVE_PHY(INSIDER)\ENG\XI\8. GRAVITATION.P65
an object under the gravitational influence of

(4) all masses are accelerated towards earth
another object :
with constant acceleration
(1) Angular momentum is conserved 12. Which of the following statements are true for
(2) Total mechanical energy is conserved "geocentric model" ?
(3) Linear momentum is not conserved (1) All celestial objects, stars, sun and the
(4) All of these planets revolve around the earth
6. Escape speed of a body from the earth does not (2) Paths of all celestial objects were circular
depend on : (3) All planets and stars revolved around the
(1) Mass of body sun
(2) Direction of projection (4) Both 1 and 2
(3) Both (1) and (2) 13. Geocentric model was proposed by :
(4) The distance of point of projection from (1) Galileo (2) Aryabhatta
centre of the earth. (3) Ptolemy (4) Copernicus
E
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14. A model in which the sun was the centre around 20. Two artificial satellite of different masses are
which the planets revolved : moving in the same orbit around the earth. Can
(1) is heliocentric model they have same speed ?
(2) is geocentric model (1) Yes
(3) was mentioned by Aryabhatta (2) No
(4) Both 1 and 3 (3) For heavy satellite speed is more
15. Who proposed a definite model in which planets (4) None of these
moved in circles around a fixed central sun ? 21. Why does a tennis ball bounce higher at hills
(1) Nicolas Copernicus than on plains :
(1) Acceleration due to gravity is more at hill
(2) Aryabhatta
(2) Acceleration due to gravity is same at hills
(3) Ptolemy
and plains
(4) Galileo
(3) Acceleration due to gravity is less on hills
16. Kepler's laws were extracted from data compiled
(4) None of these
by :
22. An astronaut experiences weightlessness in a
(1) Tycho Brahe space satellite. It is because :
(2) Newton (1) The gravitational force is small at that location
(3) Copernicus in space
(4) Aryabhatta (2) The gravitational force is large at that location
17. Sum of distances of a planet from two focii in an in space
an elliptical orbit around sun is : (3) The astronaut experiences no gravity
(1) constant (4) The gravitational force is infinitely large at
(2) equal to major axis of ellipse that location in space
(3) Equal to minor axis of ellipse 23. When you go from equator to the poles the
(4) Both 1 and 2 value of acceleration due to gravity :
18. Kepler's law of area is valid for : (1) Increases
(1) Any conservative force (2) Decreases
(2) Any central force (3) Remains same
(3) Only gravitational force (4) Decreases upto a lattitude of 45° and then
(4) Only attractive force increases
24. Maximum value of gravitational potential
19. A particle of mass m is placed inside a spherical
energy is:
shell of mass M at a point other than the
(1) At centre of earth (2) At surface of earth
centre :
Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\NCERT BASED OBJECTIVE_PHY(INSIDER)\ENG\XI\8. GRAVITATION.P65
(3) At infinity (4) None of these

(1) The particle will move towards the surface
25. Gravitational P.E. of body is negative, why ?
of shell
(1) Because of attractive force
(2) The particle will move towards the centre
(2) Because of repulsive force
(3) The particle will remain stationary
(3) Because of friction force
(4) None of the above (4) None of above
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 3 2 3 4 3 1 1 2 1 4 4 3 4 1
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
Ans. 1 4 2 3 1 3 3 1 3 1
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

Hints : 11. Galileo did experiments with bodies rolling
1. Since gravitational force is a central force, down inclined planes to recognize the fact that
therefore net torque on the planet is zero. Hence all bodies are accelerated equally towards earth's
angular momentum is conserved and areal surface.
velocity is directly proportional to angular 12. In geocentric model, all celestial objects moved
momentum. \ Law of areas is a consequence around earth in circular orbits.
of conservation of angular momentum. 13. Ptolemy proposed geocentric model 2000 years
2. Since earth-satellite system is a bound system, ago.
therefore total energy is negative. 14. Heliocentric model in which planets revolved
3. Satellite is accelerated towards the centre of around the sun was metioned by Aryabhatta
earth. It is in the state of free fall. (5th century A.D.) in his treatise.
4. Moon has no atmosphere because escape 17. It is the property of ellipse
velocity on its surface is less than RMS speed of r r r
18. Central force Þ t = 0 Þ L = constant
molecules of gas. Hence gas molecules, if any,
r r
will escape from it. dA L
Þ = = constant
5. Since gravitational force is a central force, dt 2m
\ Angular momentum and mechanical energy 20. Yes they can have the same speed. The orbital
is conserved speed is independent of the mass of the satellite.
Since force on particle is non-zero 21. The value of acceleration due to gravity is less
\ Linear momentum is not conserved on hills
2GM 22. An astronaut experiences weightlessness in a
6. Since escape speed = , it do not depend
R+h space satellite. Its is because the astronaut
on mass of body. experiences no gravity.
7. Geostationary satellite rotates from west to east, 23. g' = g – w2Recos2l
must be in equitorial plane 24. The gravitational potential energy is maximum
and is at a height of 35800 km from surface of at infinite.
earth. 25. Because gravitational potential energy arises
GMm GMm due to attractive force
8. PE = - , KE =
r 2r
If r¯ Þ PE¯ o KE
4 p2
9. K=
GM
where M is mass of sun. It is same for all planets. Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\NCERT BASED OBJECTIVE_PHY(INSIDER)\ENG\XI\8. GRAVITATION.P65
r r
10. F=mI U = mV
MLT–2 = M[I] ML2 T–2 = M[V]
Þ [I] = LT–2 [V] = L2T–2
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
PROPERTIES OF MATTER & FLUID MECHANICS

1. Equal masses of water and a liquid of relative 6. Three tubes A, B and C are connected to a
density two are mixed together; then mixture horizontal pipe in which an ideal liquid is
has a relative density of : flowing. The radii of the tubes A, B and C at the
(1) 2/3 (2) 4/3 (3) 3/2 (4) 3 junction are respectively 2 cm, 1cm and 2 cm.
2. A vessel contains a liquid of density r as shown It can be said :-
in figure. The gauge pressure at the point P is :
A B C
H-h
H P
h
(1) hrg (2) Hrg (1) The height of the liquid in the tube A is
maximum
(3) (H – h)rg (4) None of these
(2) Height of the liquid in the tubes A and B is
3. When an air bubble comes from the bottom of
same
a lake to the top surface, then its radius:
(3) Height of the liquid in the tubes A, B and C
(1) Increases (2) Decreases is same
(3) Does not change (4) Becomes zero (4) Height of the liquid in the A and C is same
4. A body floats in a liquid contained in a beaker. 7. The given figure shows three soap bubbles A,
The whole system as shown in figure falls B and C are prepared by blowing the capillary
freely under gravity. The upthrust on the body tube with stop cocks S, S1, S2 and S3. With stop
due to the liquid is : cock S closed and S1, S2 and S3 opened, then-
C S
Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\NCERT BASED OBJECTIVE_PHY(INSIDER)\ENG\XI\9. PROPERTIES OF MATTER & FLUID MECHANICS.P65
S1 S3 S2
A B
(1) zero (1) C and A will both start collapsing with

(2) Equal to the weight of the liquid displaced volume of B increasing
by the body (2) B will start collapsing with volumes of A
(3) Equal to the weight of the body in air and C increasing
(4) Equal to the weight of the immersed portion (3) C will start collapsing with volumes of A
of the body in the liquid and B increasing
5. A solid is completely immersed in an ideal (4) volumes of A, B and C will become equal at
liquid. The force exerted by the liquid on the equilibrium
solid will 8. A volume V of a viscous liquid flows per unit
(1) increase, if it is pushed deeper inside the time due to pressure head of DP along a pipe of
liquid diameter D and length l. Instead of this pipe a
(2) change, if its orientation is changed keeping set of four pipes each of diameter D/2 and
it inside the liquid length 2l is connected in parallel to the same
(3) decrease, if it is taken partially out of the pressure head of DP. Now the volume of the
liquid liquid flowing per unit time is -
(4) All of these (1) V (2) V/4 (3) V/6 (4) V/8
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

9. A space 2.5 mm wide between two large plane 13. Two identical air bubbles are rising in water. If
surfaces is filled with oil as shown in diagram. they coalesce under isothermal condition to
Force required to drag a very thin plate of area form a single air bubble, the combined air
of one side 0.5 m2 just midway of the surfaces bubble would have -
at a velocity of 0.5 m/sec is 1 N. The coefficient (1) Higher excess pressure but smaller terminal
of viscosity in kg/m-sec is -
velocity
(2) Higher excess pressure and higher terminal
velocity
(3) Lower excess pressure and smaller terminal
F
2.5mm velocity
1.25 mm
(4) Lower excess pressure but higher terminal
velocity
14. Force constant (K) of a spring is analogous to -
(1) 1 × 10–2 (2) 2.5 × 10–2
YA YL AL
(3) 5 × 10–2 (4) 2.5 × 10–3 (1) (2) (3) (4) ALY
L A Y
10. Two spherical metal balls (of the same material)
with radii 0.2 cm and 0.3 cm are falling through 15. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
a fluid at constant speeds. If the speed of the correct?
first ball (radius = 0.2 cm) is 4 cm/s. What is the I. Atoms or molecules in a fluid are arranged
speed of the other ball ? in a random manner.
(1) 6 cm/s (2) 8 cm/s (3) 9 cm/s (4) 12 cm/s II. A fluid can withstand tangential or shearing
11. When water spreads on a glass plate, the force stress for an indefinite period.
between the water molecules and glass III. A fluid has no definite shape of its own.
molecules is called:- (1) Only I (2) Both I and III
(1) Surface tension (3) Only III (4) All of these

(2) Cohesive force 16. Select the wrong definition :-
(1) Deforming force – Force that changes
(3) Adhesive force
configuration of body
(4) None of these (2) Elasticity – Property of regaining original
12. Due to capillary action water rises to a height of configuration
16.3 cm in a capillary of length 18 cm above the (3) Plastic body – Which can be melted easily
water level. If the tube is cut at height of 12 cm (4) Elastic limit – Beyond which material begins
to flow
(1) Water will come as fountain from the
capillary tube 17. A change in pressure is applied at a particular
point, in an enclosed fluid _____ to every point
(2) Water will stay at a height of 12 cm in the
of the fluid and the walls of the containing
capillary tube but radius of curvature at top
vessel.
will increase.
Fill in the blank -
(3) Water will stay at a height of 12 cm in
(1) Transmitted increasingly
capillary tube but radius of curvature at top
will decrease. (2) Transmitted decreasingly
(4) Water will flow down the side of the (3) Transmitted undiminished
capillary tube (4) Transmitted randomly
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

18. The velocity of viscous fluid in contact with a 24. The terminal velocity of an object in a viscous
surface is - fluid is proportional to -
(1) Same as that of the surface (1) Sum of densities of both object and fluid
(2) More than that of the surface (2) Difference of densities of both object and
(3) Less than that of the surface fluid
(4) Always zero (3) Density of object only
19. Fluid does not have any - (4) Density of viscous fluid only
(1) Resistance to change in its volume 25. For an aerofoil which of the following statement(s)
(2) Resistance to change in its shape is/are correct -
(3) Resistance to change in its pressure (I) The orientation of the wings relative to flow
(4) None of the above direction causes the streamline
20. Pressure at a point inside a liquid at rests does (II) Flow speed on top is lower than that below
not depend on - it
(1) The depth of the point below the surface of (III) Upward force resulting in dynamic lift of
the liquid
the wings
(2) The nature of the liquid
(1) Only I
(3) The acceleration due to gravity at that point
(4) Total weight of the liquid in the beaker (2) Only III
21. We have three beakers A, B and C containing (3) Only I and II
three different liquids. They are stirred vigorously (4) Only I and III
and placed on a table. Then, liquid which is - 26. The viscosity of gases :
(1) Most viscous comes to rest at the earliest (1) Increases with increase in temperature
(2) Decreases with increase in temperature
(2) Most viscous comes to rest at the last
(3) Does not depend on temperature
(3) Most viscous slow down earliest but comes
(4) Increase with increase in pressure
to rest at the last

27. A body is moving through a viscous fluid then
(4) All of them come to rest at the same time choose the incorrect option
22. As the temperature of water increases. Its (1) Viscous force acting on the body depends
viscosity. on density of body
(1) Remain unchanges (2) Viscous force acting on the body depends
(2) Increases on viscosity of fluid
(3) Decreases (3) Viscous force acting on the body depends

on velocity of body
(4) May increase or decrease
(4) Viscous force acting on the body is directed
23. In a streamline flow -
opposite to the direction of velocity of the body
(1) The speed of a particle always remain same 28. The surface tension of a liquid at its boiling
(2) The velocity of a particle always remain point -
same (1) Becomes zero
(3) The velocities of particles arriving at a given (2) Becomes infinity
point are same (3) Is equal to the value of its surface tension at
(4) The kinetic energy of a particle always room temperature
remain same (4) Is half to the value of its surface tension at
the room temperature
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

29. The three vessel shown in figure have same 34. A piece of wood is floating in water kept in a
base area. Equal volumes of a liquid are poured bottle. The bottle is connected to an air pump.
in the three vessel. The force on the base will Neglect the compressibility of water. If more air
be- is pushed into the bottle from the pump, the
piece of wood will float with -
(1) Larger part in the water
A B C (2) Lesser part in the water
(3) Same part in the water as earlier
(1) Maximum in vessel A
(4) It will sink
(2) Maximum in vessel B
35. A closed cubical box is completely filled with
(3) Maximum in vessel C
water and is moving horizontally towards right
(4) Equal in all the vessels
with an acceleration a. The resultant normal
30. Equal masses of three liquids are kept in three force by the water on the top of the box.
identical cylindrical vessels A, B and C. The
(1) Passes through the centre of the top
densities are rA, rB, r C respectively where
(2) Passes through a point to the right of the
rA < rB < rC then the force on the base will be -
centre
(1) Maximum in vessel A
(3) Passes through a point to the left of the
(2) Maximum in vessel B
centre
(3) Maximum in vessel C
(4) Becomes zero
(4) Equal in all the vessels
36. Water is flowing through a long horizontal
31. A Beaker containing a liquid is kept inside a big
tube. Let PA and PB be the pressure at two point
closed jar. If the air inside the jar is
A and B of the tube, then -
continuously pumped out, the pressure in the
(1) PA must be equal to PB
liquid near the bottom of the liquid will be :
(2) PA must be greater than PB
(1) Increase

(3) PA must be less than PB
(2) Decrease
(4) PA = PB only if cross-sectional area at A and
(3) Remain constant
B are equal
(4) First decrease and then increase
37. An ice cube is suspended in vaccum in a gravity
32. The pressure in a liquid at two points in the
free hall. As ice melt, it
same horizontal plane are equal. Consider an
elevator accelerating upward and a car (1) Will retain its cubical shape
accelerating on a horizontal road then the above (2) Will change its shape to spherical
statement is correct for - (3) Will fall down on the floor of the hall
(1) The car only (4) will fly up
(2) The elevator only 38. When water droplets merge to form a bigger
(3) Both of them drop:
(4) Neither of them (1) Energy is liberated

33. A Barometer kept in an elevator accelerating (2) Energy is absorbed
upward reads 76 cm. The air pressure in the (3) Energy is neither liberated nor absorbed
elevator is -
(4) Energy may either be liberated or absorbed
(1) 76 cm (2) < 76 cm depending on the nature of the liquid
(3) > 76 cm (4) zero
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

39. Which of the following graphs may represent 44. The grease deposited on a glass plate can be
the relation between the capillary rise (h) and easily removed by cleaning the glass with hot
the radius (r) of the capillary? water containing detergent powder, because the
detergent powder :-
d
h c (1) Reduces the angle of contact between the
b solution and glass
a (2) Increases the temperature of the solution

r (3) Decrease the density of the solution
(1) a (2) b (3) c (4) d (4) Makes the angle of contact between solution
40. Viscosity is a property of - and the glass to an obtuse angle
(1) Liquids only 45. The graph between terminal velocity (along
(2) Solids only y-axis) and square of radius (along x-axis) of
(3) Solids and liquids only spherical body of density r allowed to fall
(4) Liquids and gases only through a fluid of density s is a :-
41. When a capillary tube is dipped into a liquid, (1) Straight line with positive slope
the liquid neither rises nor falls in the capillary (2) Straight line with negative slope
if :
(3) Straight line perpendicular to x-axis
(a) The surface tension of the liquid must be
zero (4) Straight line perpendicular to y-axis
(b) The contact angle must be 90° 46. A fluid is undergoing steady flow. Therefore:
(c) The surface tension of the liquid may be zero
(1) the velocity of any given molecule of fluid
(d) The contact angle may be 90°
does not change
(1) a, b (2) b, c (3) c, d (4) a, d
42. When contact angle in capillary tube is obtuse, (2) the pressure does not vary from point to
then pressure just below the free surface of point
liquid in the capillary tube is :-
(3) the velocity at any given point does not
(1) More than atmospheric pressure

vary with time
(2) Less than atmospheric pressure
(3) Equal to atmospheric pressure (4) the density does not vary from point to point
(4) None of these 47. A ball is made of a material of density r where
43. A rigid ring A and a rigid thin disk B both made rwater > r > roil with roil and rwater representing
of same material, when gently placed on water, the densities of oil and water, respectively. The
just manage to float due to surface tension as oil and water are immiscible. If the above ball
shown in the figure. Both the ring and the disk is in equilibrium in a mixture of this oil and water,
have same radius. What can you conclude which of the following pictures represents its
about their masses (thickness may be different)? equilibrium position ?
(1) (2)
(1) Both have the same mass.

(2) Mass of the ring is half of that of the disk.
(3) Mass of the ring is double to that of the disk. (3) (4)
(4) More information is needed to decide.
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

48. The relative density of a metal may be found 50. Arrangement of three metallic rods riveted to
by hanging a block of the metal from a spring each other is as shown in figure. aAl is the
coefficient of linear expansion for aluminum
balance and noting that in air the balance reads
and a S (when a Al > a S ) for steel. The
(5 ± 0.05) N while in water it reads
arrangement is heated, then
(4 ± 0.05)N. The relative density would be
quoted as: Steel
Al
(1) (5 ± 0.05) (2) 5 ± 11% Steel
(3) (5 ± 0.10) (4) 5 ± 6%
49. You do a very precise experiment to test the (1) Tensile stress is developed in the aluminum
properties of a piece of wire. You stretch the rod.
wire by applying an outward force to each end (2) Compressive stress is developed in the
of the wire and measure its change in length. aluminum rod
If you then precisely double this force and the
(3) No stress is developed in the aluminum rod
wire still remains elastic but is beyond
proportionality limit, the change in length of (4) Data’s are incomplete to decide
the wire
(1) will exactly double
(2) will just slightly more than double
(3) will just slightly less than double
(4) will decrease by exactly a factor of two.
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 2 3 1 1 3 4 1 4 4 3 3 2 4 1 2
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 3 3 1 2 4 1 3 3 2 4 1 1 1 3 4
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 2 2 3 2 3 4 2 1 3 4 3 1 3 1 1
Que. 46 47 48 49 50
Ans. 3 3 2 2 2
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

Solution :- dv
1. V = V1 + V2 9. f = hA dy
2m m m 2m 3m
= + Þ =
rmi x rw 2rw rmi x 2rw f F
4rw r mix 4 f
r mi x = Þ r = F = 2f (as net force should be zero)
3 w 3
dv
Þ F = 2hA
H-h dy
H P
2. P = rg(H – h)
h 0.5
Þ 1 = 2h´ 0.5´ 1.25 ´10-3
3. Due to decrease in outside pressure volume of
the bubble increases hence radius also increases. 1.25 ´10-3
h= = 2.5 × 10–3 kg/m-sec.
4. Upthrust Fth = rVin geff = 0, geff = 0 0.5
[Freely falling body] 2 2 g(r - s)
10. vr = r
5. Fth = rlVing 9 h
Force due to liquid depends on density of 2
v 2 æ r2 ö
2
= ç ÷ Þ v = æç
liquid, volume of liquid displaced by the body 0.3 ö
v1 è r1 ø ÷ (4) = 9 cm/s
and acceleration due to gravity.
2
è 0.2 ø
6. As the velocities at cross sections of the horizontal 2T
pipe connected with tubes A and C are same 12. hrg =
R
therefore by Bernoulli's theorem pressure at these h¯ Þ R
cross sections are also same, so height of liquid in
2T
tubes A and C are same. 13. Pex =
r
7. Excess pressure inside soap bubble is inversely if r Þ Pex¯
proportional to, the radius of bubble.
2 r 2 g(r - s)
1 VT =
9 h
i.e. DP µ
r VT µ r2
So A and C have more inside pressure than that of if r Þ VT
B. So the air will move from A and C towards B. æY ö
14. F=ç A ÷ Dl = kx
pD Pr 4 è L ø
8. (Rate of flow) =
8hl YA
\ k=
V1 æ r1 ö æ l2 ö
4 L
r4
Vµ Þ V = ç ÷ ç ÷ 15. Characterstics of fluids are
l 2 è r2 ø è l1 ø
(i) The atoms or molecules in a fluid are arranged
4
V1 æ D / 2 ö æ 2l ö is a random manner.
Þ = = 32
V2 çè D / 4 ÷ø çè l ÷ø (ii) A fluid cannot withstand tangential or
V1 V shearing stress for an indefinite period. It
\ V2 = = begins to flow when a shearing stress is applied.
32 32
for 4 pipes (iii) A fluid has no definite shape of its own. It
V V ultimately takes the shape of the containing
V2' = 4V2 = 4 × = vessel.
32 8
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

16. Pressure is same at all point which are at same
height.
17. Transmitted undiminished. h a a
32.
19. The fluid does not have any resistance to change A B A B
off its shape. Thus, the shape of a fluid is
governed by the shape of container. A fluid pA = pB = p0 + rgeff h pA > pB
offers resistance to change in pressure and = p0 + r (g + a) h
volume defined by its bulk modulus. 33. p0 = r(g + a) (76 cm) (when lift is accelerated
20. P = P0 + rgh upward).
depends on r (density) g(acceleration due to p0 = rgh (when lift is at rest)
gravity) h(depth from free surface) (h > 76 cm)
21. Most viscous fluid comes to rest earlier due to 34. Pushing the air inside bottle will increase its
dissipation of energy at a larger rate. density, hence the net buoyant force on the
22. When temperature of liquid increases, its block due to air. So lesser part will be in water.
viscosity decreases.
23. In a streamline flow velocities of all the B A
particles passing through a given point are 35.
a
same.
24. Terminal velocity
2 r g ( r b - rl )
2
vT =
9 h pB > pA
36. At same horizontal level :
Þ vT µ rb – rl
Av = constant. ... (i)
26. In gases, as the temperature increases, the

random motion of the atoms increases so viscosity 1 2
p+ rv = const. ... (ii)
of gases also increases. 2
Viscosity of gases are practically independent 37. Due to surface tension liquid takes a shape
of pressure. which have lesser surface area.
27. Viscous force on the body by the fluid is 38. When dropes merge than surface area decreases.
F = 6phrv That's why surface energy also decreases.
28. Surface tension of a liquid becomes zero at its 1
boiling temperature. 39. hµ (Zurin's law)
r
29. When equal volumes are poured in the vessel
then maximum height of liquid will be in the
vessel C. h
30. When equal masses of 3 liquids are kept in
identical vessels then weight of all 3 liquids are
same.
r
31. Pressure due to air on liquid decreases therefore
the total pressure at the bottom of the liquid also 40. Viscosity is the property of fluids i.e. liquids
decreases. and gases.
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

41. Liquid does not rises in the capillary if - 44. Temperature surface tension ¯
Either (i) it's surface tension is zero. 4 3
or (ii) angle of contact is 90. 45. 6psrvt = pr (r - s) Þ v t µ r 2
3
weight in air 5.00

48. RD = = = 5.00
P0 loss of weight in water 1.00
PA > P0
42. A
dr 0.05 0.1
= + = 0.11or11%
r 5.00 1.00
\r = 5.00 ± 11%
43. Ring have double surface than that of disk.
49. After proportionality limit, s train rise is
relatively more.
50. Aluminum rod will try to expand faster.
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
THERMAL PROPERTIES OF MATTER

1. For an ideal gas, coefficient of volume 5. A block of ice at 0°C is slowly heated and
expansion at constant pressure is equal to converted into steam at 100°C. Which of
(1) T these curves represents the phenomenon
quantitatively?
1
(2)
T
Temperature (°C)
Temperature (°C)
(3) T2
(4) Not depends on temp.
(1) (2)
2. Coefficient of volumetric expansion av is not a
constant. It depends on temperature. Variation
of av with temperature for metal is.
Time Time
av av
Temperature (°C)
Temperature (°C)
(1) (2)
T T (3) (4)
av av
Time Time
(3) (4)
6. Heat is flowing steadily from A to B.
T T Temperature T at point P, at distance x from A
3. The absolute minimum temperature for an ideal gas is such that :-
therefore inferred by extrapolating the straight line
A P B
to the axis, in the figure given below. This
temperature is found to be –273.15°C and is x
designated as
Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\NCERT BASED OBJECTIVE_PHY(INSIDER)\ENG\XI\10. THERMAL PROPERTIES OF MATTER.P65

(1) T decreases linearly with x
Gas A (2) T increases linearly with x

Pressure
Gas B (3) T decreases exponentially with x
Gas C (4) T increases with x as T a x2
7. Heat is associated with :-
(1) Kinetic energy of random motion of
–273.15°C 0°C Temperature molecules
(2) Kinetic energy of orderly motion of
(1) Kelvin temperature (2) Celsius temperature molecules
(3) Low temperature (4) Absolute zero
(3) Total kinetic energy of random and orderly
4. Cooking is difficult on hills because
motion of molecules
(1) atmospheric pressure is higher
(2) atmospheric pressure is lower (4) Kinetic energy of random motion in some
(3) boiling point of water is reduced cases and kinetic energy of orderly motion
(4) Both (2) and (3) in other
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

8. For the phase diagram of water given in figure, 11. Which of the following graph shows the
curves OA, AB and AC are respectively. variation of density of water with increase in
temperature.
P
1
(atmospheric
pressure) B liq
C density
solid A 3 3
(1) (kg/m ×10 )
vapour
O T
0 4 5 Temperature (ºC)
(1) Sublimation curve, vaporisation curve, and

fusion curve
(2) Sublimation curve, fusion curve and density

(2) (kg/m3×103)
vaporisation curve
(3) Fusion curve, vaporisation curve and

sublimation curve Temperature
(4) Fusion curve, sublimation curve, and

vaporisation curve
density
(3) (kg/m3 × 103)
9. Which of the following statements is/are
correct?
Temperature
(I) Convection is a mode of heat transfer by
actual motion of matter.
(II) Convection is possible only in gases. density

(4) (kg/m3 × 103)
(III) Convection can be natural or forced.
(1) Only I
Temperature
(2) Only II 12. Water is used as coolant in automobiles

radiators because.
(3) Both I and III (1) It has low density
(4) None of these (2) It has low specific heat
(3) It has high specific heat
10. Find out the increase in moment of inertia I of
(4) It has high density
a uniform rod (Coefficient of linear expansion
13. Melting of ice at low temperature caused by
a) about its perpendicular bisector when its
pressure is
temperature is slightly increased by DT.
(1) Regelation
(1) 2IaDT (2) 4IaDT (2) Sublimation
(3) Vaporisation
(3) 6IaDT (4) 3IaT (4) Fusion
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

14. Which of the following statements are correct. 21. A uniform metallic rod rotates about its
(a) The triple point of water is 253.16 K perpendicular bisector with constant angular
(b) Burns from steam are more severe than these speed. If it is heated uniformly to raise its
from boiling water temperature.
(c) Ethyl alcohol expands less than mercury for (1) its speed of rotation increases
the same rise in temperature (2) its speed of rotation decreases
(d) When fully inflated balloon is immersed in
(3) its speed of rotation remain the same
cold water, it will contract.
(4) insufficient data
(1) a, b, c, d (2) b, c
(3) b, c, d (4) b, d 22. A sphere is dipped in water. Which of following
15. For transmission of heat from one place to the is true ?
other, medium is required in (1) Buoyancy will be maximum at 4ºC
(1) Conduction (2) Convection
(2) Buoyancy will be maximum at 0ºC
(3) Radiation (4) (1) and (2) both
16. The equatorial and polar regions of the earth (3) Buoyancy will be same at 0ºC and 4ºC
receive unequal heat. The natural convection (4) Buoyancy will be less at 4ºC
current arising due to this is called.
(1) Land breeze (2) Sea bneeze 23. As temperature is increased, the time period of
pendulum.
(3) Trade wind (4) Tornado
17. The thermal radiation emitted by body is (1) increases as its length increases even though
proportional to T 4 , where T is absolute its centre of mass still remains at centre of
temperature, is valid for. the bob
(1) Ideal black body
(2) All bodies (2) decreases as its length increases even
(3) Bodies painted black only though its centre of mass still remains at
(4) Polished bodies only centre of the bob
18. Newton's law of cooling is a special case of
(3) increases as its length increases due to
(1) Wien's displacement law

shifting of centre of mass below centre of
(2) Kirchoff's law
the bob
(3) Stefan's law
(4) Plank's law (4) decreases as its effective length remains
19. The thermal conductivity of rod depends on same but centre of mass shift above centre
(1) Length of bob
(2) Mass
(3) Area of cross section 24. A sphere, cube and a thin plate, all of same
(4) Material of the rod material and mass, are initially heated to same
20. A bimetallic strip is made of aluminium and high temperature. Then
steel (aal > asteel). On heating the strip will :-
(1) Plate will cool fastest and cube the slowest
(1) remain straight
(2) Sphere will cool fastest and cube the slowest
(2) get twisted
(3) will bend with aluminium on concave side (3) Plate will cool fastest and sphere the slowest
(4) will bend with steel on concave side (4) cube will cool fastest and plate the slowest
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

25. Choose the correct option. 27. Which of the following is used in making a
(1) X and Y are in thermal equilibrium but not pendulum clock ?
X and Z. Then Y and Z may be in thermal
(1) Iron (2) Stainless steel
equilibrium
(2) X and Y are in thermal equilibrium but not (3) Invar (4) Graphite
X and Z. Then Y and Z must be in thermal
28. A cooking pot is coated black because.
equilibrium
(3) X is neither in equilibrium with Y nor with (1) Black substances absorb more heat
Z. Then Y and Z must be in equilibrium.
(4) X is neither in equilibrium with Y nor with (2) Black substances reflect more heat
Z. Then Y and Z may be in thermal
(3) Black surfaces are easier to clean
equilibrium.
26. From the graph shown for ice on heating, select (4) The material of the pot would not be damaged
the correct option.
29. A cup of hot tea kept on a metal table in a room
E loses heat by.
100 (1) Conduction (2) Convection

Temperature C D
(ºC) A
B (3) Radiation (4) All of above
Time (s)
(1) The region AB represents ice and water in
equilibrium.
(2) At B water starts boiling
(3) At C all water gets converted to steam
(4) DE region represents phase change from
water to steam.
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 2 3 4 4 4 1 1 2 3 1 1 3 1 4 4
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29
Ans. 3 2 3 4 4 2 1 1 3 4 1 3 1 4
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

Hint & Solution: 11. Due to anomalous behaviour, it contracts on
1. PV = mRT ...(i) heating between 0°C to 4°C, its density
PDV = mRDT ...(ii) increases.
Equation (ii) & (i) 12. Due to high specific heat water warms up more
DV DT slowly.
= 13. Due to high pressure melting point decreases.
V T
This phenomenon is called regelation.
DV 1 1 14. (a) triple point of water is 273.16K
´ =
V DT T (b) Steam at 100°C carries more heat than water
1 at 100°C due to latent heat of vaporisation
g= (c) Ethyl alcohol a = 110 × 10 –5 K –1 and
T
2. av is a characteristic of the substance but is not aHg = 18.2 × 10–5
strictly a constant. It depends in general on (d) it will contract due to contraction of air
temperature as shown in figure. It is seen that av inside.
becomes constant only at a higher temperature. 15. In conduction and convection medium must be
3. The absolute minimum temperature for an ideal required and in radiation heat is transfered (or
gas, therefore inferred extrapolating the straight radiated) by electromagnetic waves.
line to the temprature axis, as in figure. This 16. Air at the earth's surface near equator is hotter
temperature is found to be –273.15°C and is while the air at the poles is colder. So the
designated as absolute zero. convection current would be set up which
4. At high altitudes, atmospheric pressure is lower causes the air at the equatorial surface, rising
so that boiling point of water is reduced. and moving out towards the poles.
5. Temperature versus time graph showing the 17. According to stefan's-boltzman law, energy of
changes in the state of ice on heating. thermal radiation emitted per unit time by a
6. In figure - area of cross section is constant so black body e = sAT4. But bodies which are not
T decreases linearly with x from high black body, emits less radiation. It is however
temperature to low temperature. proportional to T4.
18. Newton's law of cooling is special case of

7. Heat is disordered form of energy so heat is
associated with kinetic energy of random motion stefan's boltzman law.
of molecules. 19. Thermal conductivity depends on material of
8. Sublimation curve OA represent Þ solid + vapour object. Solids are better conductors than liquids
Fusion curve AB represent Þ solid + liquid and liquids are better conductor than gases.
Vaporisation curve AC represent Þ liquid + vapour 20. Aluminium having higher µ and will expand
9. Convection is a mode of heat transfer by actual more.
motion of molecules. It is possible in fluids and 21. angular speed decreases due to increase in
convection can be natural or forced. moment of inertia.
ML2 I1w1 = I2w2

10. I=
12 22. Density of water will be maximum at 4ºC.
Therefore buoyancy will also be maximum at
DI 2DL
= = 2aDT 4ºC F B = rwVg.
I L
DI = 2IaDT
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

23. Length of rod increases due to thermal 26. Water and ice remain in thermal equilibrium at
expansion. However centre of mass of bob 0°C until phase change gets completed.
remains at centre of bob due to its uniform
27. Invar has extremely small temperature
expansion.
co-efficient of expansion
dT -seA 4 \ The length of pendulum remains almost
24. = é T - Ts 4 ù
dt ms ë û constant, giving correct time, in summar &
winter.
dT 28. Black materials are good absorbers of heat.
\ µA
dt
Therefore they maximize the utilization of heat.
Plate having maximum area will cool fastest
29. Due to presence of medium (air), heat will be
and sphere having lowest area will cool slowest.
lost through conduction and convection.
25. Y and Z may have equal temperature but Radiation will take place irrespective of medium
different from that of X. at all temperatures.
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
KINETIC THEORY
1. In dynamic equilibrium, molecules collide & 9. If the pressure in a closed vessel is reduced by
change their speed during collision. Only ____ drawing out some of the gas, the mean free path:
properties are constant. (1) is increased
(1) instantaneous (2) average (2) is decreased
(3) both (1) & (2) (4) NOT (3) remains unchanged
2. Match the following : (4) increases or decreases according to the
(a) PV = constant (1) Charle's Law nature of the gas
(b) V µ T (2) GayLussac's Law 10. Hydrogen and nitrogen are at same temperature.
(c) P µ T (3) Boyle's Law The molecules of which one of them have more
(1) a – 1, b – 3, c – 2 kinetic energy :
(2) a – 3, b – 2, c – 1 (1) Hydrogen
(3) a – 3, b – 1, c – 2 (2) Nitrogen
(4) a – 1, b – 2, c – 3 (3) Both have equal amount of energy
3. Experimental value of specific heat of gases (4) Depends upon actual value of temperature
like CH4, C2H6 (polyatomic gases) are :- 11. Pressure of an ideal gas is increased by keeping
(1) less than predicated value temperature constant. What is its effect on
(2) more than predicted value kinetic energy of molecules.
(3) equal to predicated value (1) Increases
(4) Anything is possible (2) Decreases
4. When gases diffuse, then rate of diffusion is :- (3) No change
(1) m (2) m3/2 (3) m1/2 (4) m–1/2 (4) Cannot be determined
5. The mean free path in gases, is of the order___. 12. A cylinder containing an ideal gas has a piston
(1) thousands of angstroms of mass M is in vertical position and that is able
(2) thousands of micrometers to move up or down without friction as shown
(3) thousands of pico meters in figure. If the temperature is increased.
(4) thousands of fermimeters M
6. Internal energy of an ideal gas depends on :-
(1) Temperature
(2) Volume
(3) Pressure
Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\NCERT BASED OBJECTIVE_PHY(INSIDER)\ENG\XI\11. KINETIC THEORY.P65
(4) depends on type of process
7. Why total KE & momentum conserved for
ideal gas ? (1) Both P and V of the gas will change
(1) all collisions between molecules & even (2) Only P will increase according to charle's law
wall are elastic (3) V will change but not P
(2) Fnet = 0 (4) P will change but not V
13. The pressure of a gas is decided by :
(3) all collision are in-elastic
(1) random collisions on unit area
(4) None of these
(2) average collisions per unit time on unit area of wall
8. How is viscosity, heat conductivity & diffusion (3) average collisions on unit area
of gas (bulk properties) estimated ? (4) random collisions per unit time on unit area
(1) Force 14. Which of the quantity is zero on an average for
(2) Momentum molecules of an ideal gas in equilibrium.
(3) Molecular size (1) Kinetic energy (2) Momentum
(4) Weight of gas sample (3) Density (4) Speed
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

15. The root mean square speed of the ideal gas 21. According to the kinetic theory of gas, the
molecule is doubled if. temperature of a gas is a measure of average:-
(1) Pressure is doubled at constant volume (1) Velocity of it's molecules
(2) Pressure is made four times at constant volume (2) Linear momenta of it's molecules
(3) Volume is doubled at constant pressure (3) Kinetic energy of it's molecules
(4) Angular momenta of it's molecules
(4) Volume is increased by about 42% at
22. Law of equipartition of energy is used to
constant pressure
predict:-
16. Specific heat capacity of a solid is
(1) Specific heat of gases
(1) R (2) 2R (3) 3R (4) 4R (2) Specific heat of solids
17. Specific heat capacity of water is :- (3) both (1) & (2)
(1) 3R (2) 6R (3) 5R (4) 9R (4) Neither (1) nor (2)
18. Pressure verses temperature graph of an ideal 23. When an ideal gas is compressed adiabatically,
gas at constant volume is shown by a straight it's temperature rises, the molecules on the
line-A in figure. If the mass of the gas is average have more kinetic energy than before.
doubled and volume is halved, the The kinetic energy increases because of:-
corresponding pressure verses temperature (1) Collisions with moving parts of wall only
graph is givey by line : (2) Collision with the entire wall
(3) molecules gets accelerated in their motion
P
B inside the volume
(4) redistribution of energy among the
A
molecules
24. The internal energy of an ideal gas is in the form of:-
C (1) Kinetic energy of molecules
T (2) Potential energy of molecules
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) None (3) Both kinetic and potential energy of
molecules
19. Molecules of air in a room do not fall and settle
(4) Gravitational potential energy of molecules
on the ground because of:-
25. As temperature tends to zero i.e T ® 0 K
(1) all molecules having high temperature (1) Specific heat of all substance approaches zero
(2) their high speed and succesive collision (2) Specific heat of all substance aproaches infinity
(3) they collide perfectly inelastically (3) Specific heat of substance may be zero or infinity
(4) None of the above (4) None of the above
20. Gas leaking from a cylinder in a kitchen takes 26. Some gas at 300K is enclosed in a container
considerable time to diffuse to the other corners now, the container is placed on a fast moving
of the room why : train. While the train as in motion, the
(1) molecules of gas have rather slow speed temperature of the gas.
than sound (1) Rise above 300K (2) Falls below 300K
(2) They collide perfectly inelastically and stick (3) Remains unchanged (4)Becomes unsteady
to each other 27. Choose the correct option.
(3) Due to collision of molecules they can not (1) CP–CV = R is true for monoatomic ideal gas
move straight unhindered (2) CP–CV = R is true for poly atomic ideal gas
(4) None of these (3) CP–CV = R is true for any type of ideal gas
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 2 3 2 4 1 1 1 3 1 3 3 3 2 2 2
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27
Ans. 3 4 2 2 3 3 3 1 1 1 3 3
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

Solutions :
1
1. Due to very large no. of particles. 16. Average energy in one dimension = 2 ´ KT
2
2. a ® T = constant
b ® P = constant In three dimension energy = 3KT
c ® V = constant for one mole energy = 3KT × NA = 3RT
3. Vibrational degree of freedom should be
included. DQ dU
C= = = 3R
DT DT
1
rdiffusion µ 1 µ M 2 ìír = M üý
-
4. 17. We treat water like solid For each atom average
r î Vþ
energy = 3KT
water molecule has three atoms
ì 1 ü
6. E µ T í E = KT ý \ Total energy U = 3 × 3 KT × NA = 9RT
î 2 þ
DQ dU 3RT
1 C= = = = 9R
9. Mean free path l µ DT DT T
2 pnd 2
18. PV = nRT æ mö
n=
N
n ® decreases çn = M÷
è ø
V
l ® increases mRT
PV =
M
3
10. Avg Kinetic Energy/molecule = KT
2
æ mR ö
P=ç ÷T
It does not depend on the mass of the molecule. è MV ø
f
11. KE/molecule = KT
2 Slope µ m
V
KE does not depend on pressure.
mass is doubled and volume is halved, slope
Force Mg becomes four times. Line will have slope more
12. Pressure = = = constant
Area Area of piston than line-A
19. Molecules of air moving at high speed as per
as P = constant VµT
kinetic theory of gas collide and exchange their
If temperature increases than volume increases. energy continously.
13. Because molecules are travelling with different 20. Molecules of gas have a finite though small
speeds size, so they are bound to undergo collision. As
r r a result, they cannot move straight unhindered,
14. P = mv
their path keep getting deflected.
as average velocity of molecule is zero hence 21. As per kinetic interpretation of temperature,
average momentum of molecule will be zero. average kinetic energy of gas molecules is
r r measure of temperature of gas sample.
P = mv
22. It is used to predict specific heat for all.
3KT 23. Adiabatic compression increases it's internal
15. v rms =
m energy which in turn increase the KE of gas
molecules. Piston (moving part) is responsible
and at constant volume P µ T
for it.
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

24. As in an ideal gas the molecular interaction is 26. According to kinetic theory, molecules of a gas
negligible, the concept of potential energy of are in a state of continuous random motion
molecules is not applicable here when the container is placed on fast moving
So,T.E.(U) = KE + PE train, ordered KE of molecules increases, that
U = KE for ideal gas. do not converted into disordered KE so
25. The prediction of specific heat is based on law temperature of gas remains same.
of equipartition of energy as temp T®0, degree 27. Mayer's relation is true for all type of ideal gase.
of freedom get frozen and ineffective at low
temperature.
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
THERMODYNAMICS
1. Consider the following two statements 6. In T-S diagram, ratio of slope of an isobaric
(A) If heat is added to a system, its temperature curve and an isochoric curve is.
must increase. 1
(B) If positive work is done by a system in a (1) g (2) (3) g2 (4) Zero
g
thermodynamic process, its volume must 7. Consider four heat reservoirs A, B, C, D. An
increase. engine working between A and C has an
(1) Both A & B are correct efficiency which is mean of efficiencies of same
(2) A is correct but B is wrong engine working between A, B and A, D. Then
(3) B is correct but A is wrong absolute temperture of C will be : (A is source)
(4) Both A & B are wrong (1) Geometric mean of temperature of A & D
2. A gas is contained in a metallic cylinder fitted with (2) Arithmetic mean of temperature of B & D
a piston. The piston is suddenly moved in to (3) Harmonic mean of temperature of A & D
compress the gas and is maintained at this position. (4) Sum of temperatures of A and D.
As time passes the pressure of the gas in the 8. Which of the following statements is correct for
cylinder :- any thermodynamic system
(1) Increases (1) internal energy changes in all processes.
(2) Decreases (2) internal energy and entropy are state
(3) Remains constant functions.
(4) Depends on the nature of gas (3) change in entropy can never be zero.
3. Which of the following can be called as (4) work done in an adiabatic process is always
thermodynamic property. zero.
9. Which of the following statement is incorrect.
(A) ò PdV (B) ò VdP (C) ò PdV + ò VdP (1) All reversible cycles have same efficiency.
(1) Both A & B (2) Reversible cycle has more efficiency than
(2) Both B & C an irreversible one.
(3) All three (3) Carnot cycle is a reversible one.
(4) Only C (4) Carnot cycle has the maximum efficiency
Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\NCERT BASED OBJECTIVE_PHY(INSIDER)\ENG\XI\12. THERMODYNAMICS.P65
4. For any reversible process, the change in the in all cycles.
entropy of the system and surroundings is 10. Molar specific heat capacity of substance does
(1) 0 (2) 1 not depend on-
(3) ¥ (4) None of these (1) Nature of the substance
5. Which of the following is correct according to (2) Temperature of the substance
Claussius statement of second law of (3) Amount of the substance
thermodynamics. (4) Condition under which heat is supplied
(1) It is possible to transfer heat from a low 11. Which of the following is meaningful statement
temp. reservoir to a high temp. reservoir. (1) A gas in a given state has a certain amount
of heat
(2) No heat engine can have 100% efficiency.
(2) A gas in a given state has a certain amount
(3) No process is possible whose sole result is of work
the transfer of heat from a colder object to (3) A gas in a given state has a certain amount
a hotter object of internal energy
(4) None of these (4) all statements are meaningless
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

12. One calorie is defined to be the amount of heat 17. Which of the following statement is correct.
required to raise the temperature of 1g of water (1) If heat is added to a system, its temperature
from ..... at 1 atm. must increase.
(1) 0°C to 1°C (2) 10°C to 11°C (2) If positive work is done by a system in a
thermodynamic process, its volume must
(3) 4°C to 5°C (4) 14.5°C to 15.5°C
increase.
13. Which of the following statement is not correct-
(3) In free expansion, heat is necessarly
(1) The efficiency of the carnot heat engine absorbed by the system.
depends only on the temperatures of the source (4) In a process, the initial pressure and volume
and sink between which the engine works. are equal to the final pressure and volume
(2) The efficiency of a heat engine can never then the net work done by the system in the
be unity. process must be zero.
(3) For a refrigerator, the co-efficient of 18. A cycle followed by an engine [made of one
performance can never be infinite æ 5ö
(4) None of these mole of perfect gas ç g = ÷ in a cylinder with
è 3ø
14. The pressure P and volume V of an ideal gas a piston is shown in figure.
both increase in a process-

(i) Such a process is not possible P B
(ii) The work done by the system is positive C

A
(iii)The temperature of the system must increase.
(iv)Heat supplied to the gas is equal to the D
V
VA=VB VC=V D
change in internal energy
A to B : Volume constant
choose correct statements :- B to C : Adiabatic
(1) (i), (ii) (2) (ii), (iii) C to D : Volume constant
(3) (iii), (iv) (4) (i), (iv) D to A : Adiabatic
15. Which of the following statement is correct- and VC = VD= 2VA = 2VB
which of the following statement is wrong -
(1) Extensive variables are internal energy (U),
(1) In AB part of the cycle heat is supplied to
Volume (V) and Pressure (P).
the engine from outside
(2) Intensive variables are pressure (P),
(2) In CD part of the cycle heat is being given
Temperature (T) and total mass (M)

to the surrounding by the engine
(3) Extensive variables are volume (V), total
(3) In DA part of the cycle internal energy of
mass (M) and internal energy (U)
the system increases
(4) Intensive variables are temperature, density(r)
(4) In BC part of the cycle internal energy of
and volume (V)
the system increases
16. In case of water from 0°C to 4°C 19. Heat is added to an ideal gas and the gas
(i) Volume decreases and density of water is expands. In such a process the temperature-
maximum at 4°C (1) must increase (2) will remain same
(ii) D work will be negative, since volume decreases (3) must decrease (4) can not say
(iii)Cp > Cv 20. Under isobaric condition if the temperature of
a room increases then-
(iv)Cp < Cv
(1) Total KE of the molecules increases.
Choose correct statements :- (2) Total KE of the molecules decreases.
(1) (i), (ii) (2) (ii), (iii) (3) Total KE of the molecules remain same.
(3) (iii), (i) (4) (i), (ii) & (iv) (4) The density of air increases.
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

21. An ideal gas contained in a cylinder by a 26. If a heat engine floating on the ocean extract
frictionless piston is allowed to expand such heat from water and convert into mechanical
that temperature remains constant then work work. Is it possible?
done by the gas- (1) Yes, from 1st law of thermodynamic
(1) Zero
(2) No, from 1 st law of thermodynamic
(2) Positive
(3) Negative (3) Yes, from 2 nd law of thermodynamic
(4) May increase or decrease (4) Yes, from both 1 st and 2 nd law of
22. During the melting of a slab of ice at 273K at thermodynamic
atomospheric pressure- 27. For a spontaneous process of the system, where
(1) Work done by ice plus water system on S is entropy.
atmosphere is positive
(1) DS > 0 (2) DS = 0
(2) Work done on ice plus water system by
atmosphere is positive (3) DS < 0 (4) None of the above
(3) Internal energy of ice plus water system increases 28. A piston is slowly pushed into a metal cylinder
(4) Both (2) and (3) isothermally containing an ideal gas then
23. For a given process on an ideal gas dW = 0 & incorrect statement is-
dQ < 0 then for the gas- (1) Pressure of the gas increases.
(1) Temp will decrease
(2) Average speed of the gas molecules
(2) Vol. will increase increases.
(3) Pressure will remain constant
(3) The number of molecules per unit volume
(4) Temp will increase
increases
24. A glass of water is stirred and then allowed to stand
until the water stops moving. Then internal energy (4) None of these
of water - 29. Two vessel of the same volume contain the
(1) remains constant same gas at same temperature. If pressure in the
(2) will increase vessel are in ratio of 1 : 2 then-
(3) will decrease
(4) nothing can be said (1) Ratio of v rms is 1 : 2
25. If an ideal gas is compressed suddenly then- (2) Ratio of kinetic energy is 1 : 1

(1) It's temperature will increase (3) Ratio of average velocity is 1 : 2
(2) It's temperature will decrease
(4) Ratio of number of molecules is 1 : 2
(3) Temperature remains constant
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 2 4 1 3 2 2 2 1 3 3 4 4 2 3
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29
Ans. 4 2 4 4 3 2 4 1 2 1 1 1 2 4
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

Solution :
1.008
®
3. In case of ò PdV and ò VdP , integral can be Specific 1.004
evaluated, when P can be expressed in terms of 12. heat 1
V (or V in terms of P). It is not an exact cal
g°C
differential and hence not a property. In case of
ò PdV + ò VdP = ò (PdV + VdP) 0.996

20 40 60 80 100
= ò d(PV) = PV Temp. (°C) ®
So it can be evaluated without knowing a
relation between P & V. It's an exact differential T2
13. h = 1-
and hence is a thermodynamic a property. T1
4. For any reversible process. Q1 = W + Q2 (heat release to the cold resrvoir
DSsystem + DS surrounding = 0 can never be made zero)
5. No spontaneous heat transfer from a cold body Q2
to a hot body is possible. and for a refrigerator b = (external work
W
dQ ds nC can never be zero)
6. ds = Þ =
T dT T 14. · In this Process P µ V or P = KV
dT T · V Þ dV = Åve Þ DW = PdV = Åve
Þ = = slope of T-S graph.
ds nC · PV µ T and (PV) product increases then T
T also increases
Slope of isobaric curve nC p 1 · T Þ dU = Åve, So, DQ = DW + dU
\ = =
Slopeof isochoric curve T g 15. * The variables that remain unchanged for
nC v each part are intensive variables
T T T * The variables whose values yet halved in
7. hAB = 1 - B ; hAC = 1 - C ; hAD = 1 - D each part are extensive variables
TA TA TA
As per conditions given. 16. Between 0°C to 4°C in water, volume decreaes
V¯ Þ DW = 1ve and DQ < dU, So, Cp < Cv
1
hAC =( hAB + hAD ) 17. * In adiabatic compression
2
Q = 0 & TVg–1 = constant than V¯ Þ T
T æ T + TD ö T + TD
Þ1- C = 1-ç B ÷ Þ TC = B * V Þ dV = Åve Þ W = PdV = Åve
TA è 2TA ø 2 * Free expansion of ideal gas is isothermal

8. Internal energy does not change in isothermal expansion process but no heat is exchanged
process. DS can be zero for adiabatic process. Work between system and surrounding
done in an adiabatic process may be non-zero. * Work is a path function, not a state function
9. Efficiency depends on the temperature of 18. AB part Þ V = const. Þ W = 0 Þ Q = dU
source and sink. P µ T Þ P Þ T Þ DU =+ve
10. Molar specific heat capacity of a substance is & DQ = +ve
BC part Þ Q = 0 Þ W = – dU
the amount of heat required to raise the
TVg–1 = const. Þ V Þ T¯ Þ U¯
temperature of on mole of that substance by
CD part Þ V=const. Þ W = 0 Þ Q = DU
unity.
P µ T Þ P¯ Þ T¯ Þ DU = –ve
11. Heat and work in thermodynamics are not state
& DQ = 1ve
variables. The internal energy of a given mass DA part Þ Q = 0 Þ W = – DU
of gas depends on its state described by TVg–1 = const. Þ V¯ Þ T Þ U
specific values of pressure, volume and 25. The water will be slightly warmer after the
temperature. stirring than before, hence temperature, U.
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

OSCILLATIONS
1. The type of motion of earth about its axis is? 6. Time period of oscillation of vertical spring
(1) Simple harmonic motion block system is 2 seconds, physical quantity
which will be having time period 1sec is :-
(2) Periodic but not SHM
(1) Velocity (2) Potential Energy
(3) Oscillatory
(3) Acceleration (4) Momentum
(4) None 7. The equation of motion of a particle is
2. General vibration of a polyatomic molecule x = acos(at)2 the motion is :-
about its equilibrium position is :- (1) Periodic but not oscillatory
(1) Simple harmonic motion (2) Periodic and oscillatory
(2) Neither periodic nor SHM (3) Oscillatory but not periodic
(4) Neither periodic nor oscillatory
(3) Superposition of SHMs
8. A body is doing SHM, which is not true :-
(4) None (1) Average total energy per cycle is equal to
3. A ball performs uniform circular motion on a its maximum kinetic energy
horizontal plane then shadow of ball on the (2) Average kinetic energy per cycle in equal
vertical wall performs. to half of its maximum kinetic energy
(1) Projectile motion (3) Mean velocity over a complete cycle in
(2) Uniform circular motion 2
equal to times of its max. velocity
(3) Simple harmonic motion p
(4) Non uniform circular motion
1
4. Four pendulum A.B.C. and D are suspended (4) Root mean square velocity is times of
2
from the same elastic support as shown in
its maximum velocity
figure. A and C are of same length while B is
9. The displacement of a particle varies with time
smaller than A and D is larger than A. If A is
according to the relation y = a sinwt + bcoswt
given a transverse displacement.
(1) The motion is oscillatory but not SHM
(2) The motion is SHM with amplitude a + b
(3) The motion is SHM with amplitude a2+b2
(4) The motion is SHM with amplitude
B
a2 + b2
Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\NCERT BASED OBJECTIVE_PHY(INSIDER)\ENG\XI\13. OSCILLATIONS.P65
C A
D 10. In SHM when the magnitude of displacement
is greatest, then :-
(1) D will vibrate with maximum amplitude
(1) Magnitude of velocity is least
(2) C will vibrate with maximum amplitude (2) Magnitude of velocity is greatest
(3) B will vibrate with maximum amplitude (3) Magnitude of acceleration is least
(4) All four will oscillate with equal amplitude (4) Magnitude of force is least
5. A particle oscillating under a force 11. In SHM phase difference between
r r r displacement and velocity is :-
F = -Kx - bv is (K and b are constants), then (1) Zero (2) p
oscillator is :- (3) p/2 (4) None of these
(1) Simple harmonic oscillator 12. In damped oscillation mechanical energy
(2) Linear oscillator decreases with time :-
(3) Damped oscillator (1) Linearly (2) Exponentially
(3) Not decreases (4) None of these
(4) Forced oscillator
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

13. In the ideal case of zero damping the amplitude 17. Which of the following displacement time
of SHM at resonance is :- graphs represent under damped harmonic
(1) Minimum
oscillations?
(2) Zero
(3) Infinite x
(4) Maximum but not infinite

14. A displacement equation of a particle executes
t
S.H.M is x = sin2wt, then :- (1)
(a) Mean position x = 0
1
(b) Mean position x =
2 x
p
(c) Time period
w
2p (2) t
(d) Time period =
w
(1) a, d (2) b,c (3) a,c (4) b,d
15. Displacement vs time curve for a particle
executing S.H.M. is shown in fig given below.
Choose the correct statement :- x
displacement
(3) t
1 2 3 4 5 6 7
0
time(s)
x
(1) Phase of the oscillation is same at t = 0s and
t = 2s

t = 6s (4) t
t = 7s
(4) Phase of the oscillation is same at t = 1s and 18. In case of forced oscillations of a body :-
t=3s
16. Which one of the following is not a periodic (1) Driving force is constant
motion ?
(2) Driving force is to be applied only moment
(1) Rotation of the earth about its axis arily
(2) A freely suspended bar magnet displaced
from its N-S direction and released (3) Driving force has to be periodic and
continuous
(3) Motion of hands of a clock
(4) An arrow released from a bow (4) Driving force is not required
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

19. Graph below shows variation of amplitude of 21. Choose incorrect option :-
forced oscillations with respect to frequency of x
driving force. Choose the correct option.
a
5 b
a t
4
Amplitude
b
3
c
2 d
e (1) Amplitude of both are same
1 (2) Both curve have same frequency
(3) Initial phase of both curve are same
0 0.5 1 1.5 2
wd (4) Time period of a is twice of time period of b
w0 22. In SHM :-
(1) Amplitude is maximum at wd = w0 (1) PE is stored due to elasticity of system
(2) KE is stored due to inertia of system
(2) Peak amplitude is maximum for curve (a)
(3) Total energy of system remains conserved
because for curve (a) damping is minimum
(4) All of above
(3) In case of resonance there occur maximum
23. A particle is acted simultaneously by mutually
transfer of energy from driver to driven
perpendicular simple harmonic motion
(4) All of above x =acoswt and y = asinwt. The trajectory of
20. The natural frequency of building depend motion of the particle will be :-
on :- (1) an ellipse (2) a parabola
(a) Its height and other size parameter (3) a circle (4) a straight line
(b) The nature of building material 24. Which of the following is/are not true for a
simple harmonic oscillator ?
The correct statement :- (1) Force acting is directly proportional to
(1) Only (a) displacement from the mean position and
(2) Only (b) opposite to it
(2) Motion is periodic
(3) Both (a) & (b) (3) Acceleration of the oscillator is constant
(4) Neither (a) & (b) (4) Velocity is periodic
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 2 3 3 2 3 2 3 3 4 1 3 2 3 2 2
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24
Ans. 4 2 3 4 3 2 3 4 3
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

Solutions 10. At x = ±A, v = 0 and a = amax
2. A polyatomic molecule has many natural 11. Velocity is ahead by p/2 phase angle from
frequencies of oscillation. Its vibration is the displacement
superposition of individual SHMs.
1
3. It will be a SHM as projection of uniform 12. E= KA 2 e - bt / m (exponentially)
2
circular motion on axis in SHM.
13. b = 0, A = ¥
14. x = sin2wt
UCM
1 - cos ( 2wt )
x=
2
x = 12 1 cos(2wt)
2
SHM Mean Amplitude

l position
4. T= , LA = LC so TA = TC Þ nA = nC
g 2p p
and Timeperiod = =
So C will be in resonance, hence C will vibrate 2w w
with maximum amplitude. 15. at t = 2sec. and t = 6 sec oscillater
r has same consecutime extremes
5. Term –kx represents restoring force but - bv
means phased difference is zero.
represents damping force.
16. Motion of arrow released from a bow is not
6. ndisp = nvelocity = a accn = n periodic (Not repeative motion)
but nPE = 2n 17. In damped oscillations
b
so TPE = T = 2 = 1 sec. - t
2 2 x = A0e 2m sin ( wt + f )
7. Q x = acos(at)2 so graph between disp. time is exponentially
;g ,d dksT;k Qyu gS tks –a ls +a rd ifjofrZr gksxkA decreasing.
It is a cosine function which varies between 18. F = F0cos(wdt)
–a and +a so it is oscillatory. Now for periodic 19. In forced oscillations -
motion. F0
amplitude A ' =
x(t + T) = x(t) but
( )
2
m 2 w2d - w2 + w2d b2
x(t + T) = acos(a(t + T))2
= acos[a2t2 + 2atT+ a2 T2 ] If wd = w than
¹ x(t) so not periodic F0

Amplitude be comes maximum A max =
wd b
1 If damping is minimum then peak amplitude
8. TEav = KEmax. = PEmax. = KA 2
2 maximum.
Vav = AW < cos wt > = 0 20. Natural frequency of the body depends on
shape and size of body and it material.
Vmax. 21. No. of oscillations per unit time is different
but Vrms =
2 means frequencies of both curve are not same.
23. For SHM inertia and elasticity are essential
9. a sin wt + bcos wt = a 2 + b 2 sin(wt + q)
propertes here total energy of system remains
conserved.
Where q = tan -1 æç ö÷ so it is SHM
b
24. x = acoswt
èaø
y = asinwt
with amplitude a 2 + b2 x2 + y2 = a2cos 2wt + a2sin2 wt = a2
x 2 + y 2 = a 2 circle
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

WAVES
1. Motion of air from one place to the other is
known as -
(1) Sound wave 7.
(2) Transverse wave
(3) Wind Which diagram represent the correct reflected
wave.
(4) SHM
2. Which of the following wave not required
medium -
(1)
(1) Seismic wave
(2) Water waves
(3) Sound waves
(4) X - rays
3. Which property of the medium helps to (2)
generate a mechanical wave in a medium or
helps in energy transfer :-
(1) elastic forces (3)
(2) inertia
(3) both (1) & (2)
(4)
(4) none
4. Consider the following statements about sound
8. Select the correct statements :-
passing through a gas.
(A) The pressure of the gas at a point oscillate (1) In standing wave amplitude is fixed at a
in time given location but, it is different at different
(B) The position of a small layer of the gas locations
oscillate in time (2) All particles vibrate in same phase in
(1) Both A & B are correct between successive nodes
(2) A is correct but B is wrong (3) A stationary wave pattern resulting from
(3) B is correct but A is wrong super position of two travelling wave in
(4) Both A & B are wrong opposite direction (same frequency waves)
Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\NCERT BASED OBJECTIVE_PHY(INSIDER)\ENG\XI\14. WAVES.P65
5. Which of the following wave can generate in (4) All the above
spring.
9. In which of the following wave Doppler shifts
(1) Only Longitudinal
are same irrespective of whether the source
(2) Only transverse
moves or the observer moves towards each
(3) Both longitudinal & transverse
other.
(4) None
(1) Ultrasonic (2) Infrasonic
6. Which relation is correct for speed of sound
(3) Infrared (4) Audible
wave in solid (s), liquid(l) & Gases(g) :-
10. Doppler effect used in -
(1) VS > Vl > Vg
(1) sonography
(2) VS < Vl < Vg
(2) echocardiogram
(3) Vs = Vl = Vg
(3) astrophysics, military areas
(4) Vl > Vg > Vs
(4) all the above
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

11. When both wave superimpose completely then 16. Which of the wave can't propagate in vacuum:-
the energy is in the form of - (1) Radiowave (2) Seismic wave
(3) X - rays (4) Light wave
17. Which of the wave is non-mechanical waves
in nature.
(1) Kinetic Energy
(1) Wave on a string (2) Water waves
(2) Potential Energy (3) X - Rays (4) Sound waves
(3) Partial potential & partial K.E 18. Wave propagating on a streched string is:-
(4) Energy will completelty Loss (1) Electromagnetic (2) Longitudinal
12. In a harmonic plane progressive wave which (3) Transverse (4) Non-Mechanical
factor is different for all the particles in a wave. 19. Sound waves generated in a pipe filled with air
(1) Amplitude (2) Frequency by moving the piston up and down are :-
(3) Phase (4) Time period (1) Electromagnetic (2) Longitudinal
13. Relative to an observer at rest in a medium the (3) Transverse (4) Non-mechanical
speed of a mechanical wave in that medium 20. In the medium steel which type of mechanical
doesn't depends on - wave can propagate :-
(1) Elasticity of medium (2) Mass of medium (1) Only Transverse
(3) Density of medium (4) Vel. of the source (2) Only Longitudinal
(3) Both Transverse and Longitudinal
14. Which wave represent the equation of wave
y = A sin (kx – wt) :- (4) None of the above
y 21. Which one is the displacement function for a
longitudinal wave. (Where S is the
displacement of a medium particle :-
(1) x
(1) S(x1, t) = a sin(wt – ky + f)
(2) S(x1, t) = a sin(wt – kx + f)
(3) S(y, t) = a sin(wt – kx + f)
y
(4) S(x, t) = a sin(wt – kz + f)
22. A wave travelling along a string is described
(2)
x
p
by y(x, t) = 0.005 sin(20pt – 10px + ) cm
2
y
where x is in cm and t is in sec. Calculate the
displacement y of the wave at a distance

(3) x x = 1 cm and time t = 1 sec.?
(1) y = 0.0025 cm
y (2) y = – 0.0025 cm
(3) y = 0.005 cm
(4) x (4) y = – 0.005 cm
23. Speed of sound in air at room temperature is
approximately 343 m/s. What can be the speed
15. A narrow sound pulse is sent across a medium. of sound in Hydrogen at room temperature
The pulse have a definite -
approximately.
(1) Frequency (2) Speed (1) 1284 m/s (2) 2089 m/s
(3) Wave Length (4) Time Period (3) 686 m/s (4) 440 m/s
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

24. Find out correct statement :- 28. A pipe of length L with one end closed and
(1) A travelling wave or pulse suffers a phase other end open vibrates with frequencies given
by :-
p
change of on reflection at a rigid
2 æ v ö
boundary (1) f = n ç ÷ , n = 0, 1, 2, 3, ...
è 2L ø
(2) A travelling wave or pulse suffers no phase
change on reflection at an open boundary
(2) f = æç n +
1 öæ v ö
(3) A travelling wave suffers same phase ÷ç ÷ , n = 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 ...
è 2 øè 2L ø
change from rigid and open boundary
(4) None of these v
(3) f = (2n + 1) , n = 1, 3, 5 ......
25. A pipe, 30 cm long, is open at both ends. which 2L
harmonic mode of the pipe resonates a 1.1 kHz nv
source? will resonance with the same source be (4) f = , n = 2, 4, 6 ......
4L
observed if one end of the pipe is closed?
29. Waves produced by a motorboat sailing in
Take the speed of sound in air as 330 m/s.
water :-
(1) 4th Harmonic, yes
(1) Only transverse
(2) II Harmonic, yes
(2) Only Longitudinal
(3) 4th Harmonic, No
(3) Transverse and Longitudinal
(4) II Harmonic, No
(4) None of these
26. Two sitar strings A and B playing the note 'Dha'
30. Which of following waves are governed by
are slightly out of tune and produces beats of
Newton's laws of motion :-
frequency 5Hz. The tension of the string B is
slightly increased and the beat frequency is (1) Mechanical waves
found to decrease to 3Hz. What is the original (2) Non-Mechanical waves
frequency of B if the frequency of A is 427 Hz? (3) Matter waves
(1) 422 Hz (2) 432 Hz (4) None of these
(3) 424 Hz (4) 430 Hz 31. The picture of a progressive transverse wave
27. Find incorrect statement :- at a particular instant of time gives -
(1) In a stationary wave, wavelength l is twice (1) Shape of wave
the distance between two consecutive (2) Motion of the particle of medium
nodes (3) Velocity of wave
(2) In a progressive wave, wavelength l is (4) None of above

distance between two consecutive points of
32. The displacement of the wave given by
same phase at a given time.
equation y(x, t) = asin(kx – wt + f) where
(3) If k is angular wave number, wavelength f = 0 at point x and t = 0 is same as that at point:-
p
l is . 2np
k (1) x + 2np (2) x +
k
1 (3) kx + 2np (4) None
(4) Frequency n of a wave is defined as and
T 33. Nature of ocean waves is :-
w (1) Longitudinal (2) Transverse
is related to angular frequency by n =
2p (3) Both (4) None
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

34. The waves on the surface of water are called 40. When the observer moves towards stationary
as - source then which of the following is true
(1) P - wave (2) Shear wave regarding frequency and wavelength of wave
(3) Both (4) None observed by the observer -
35. If two sounds of very close frequencies 256 Hz (1) More frequency, less wavelength
and 260 Hz reach our ear simultaneously, then (2) More frequency, more wavelength
we hear a sound of frequency - (3) Less frequency, more wavelength
(4) More frequency, constant wavelength
(1) 258 Hz (2) 4 Hz
41. In a sound wave, a displacement node is a
(3) 2Hz (4) None
pressure - antinode because -
36. Let a wave y(x, t) = asin(kx – wt) is reflected
from an open boundary and then the incident (1) Pressure and density are maximum at
and reflected waves overlaps then amplitude of displacement node
resultant wave - (2) Pressure and densi ty are minimum at
(1) 2asin(kx) (2) 2acos(kx) displacement node
æ kx ö (3) Change in pressure and change in density
(3) 2asin ç ÷ (4) asin(kx) are maximum at displacement node
è 2 ø
37. When a high - pressure pulse of air travelling (4) None
down an open pipe reaches the other end then 42. A meter long tube (open at one end) with a movable
(1) High pressure pulse starts travelling up the piston at the other end, shows resonance with a fixed
pipe frequency source (a tuning fork of frequency 340 Hz)
(2) Low pressure pulse starts travelling up the when the tube length is 25.5 cm or 76.5 cm. Estimate
pipe the speed of sound in air (Ignore edge effect) -
(3) Normal pressure pulse starts travelling up
(1) 347 m/s (2) 333 m/s
the pipe
(3) 330 m/s (4) 370 m/s
(4) None of these
43. The transverse stationary wave on a stretched
38. During Propagation of a plane progressive
mechanical wave, which of the following wire (Clamped at its both ends) is given by -
statement is incorrect:- 2p ö
y(x, t) = 0.06 sin æç x ÷ cos (120 pt)
(1) All the particles are vibrating in the same
è 3 ø
phase
(2) Amplitude of all the particles is equal where x and y are in m and t in second. The
(3) Particles of the medium executes SHM length of string is 1.5 m and it's mass is
(4) Wave velocity wavelength depends upon 3 × 10 –2 kg then all the points on the wire
the nature of the medium vibrate with -
39. Which of the following statements are false for (1) Same phase
stationary wave :- (2) Same amplitude
(1) All the particles cross their mean position (3) Same energy
at the same time (4) Different frequency
(2) All the particles are oscillating with same 44. Speed of sound wave in air
amplitudes (1) is independent of temperature
(3) There is no energy transfer across any plane (2) increases with pressure
(4) There are some particles which are always (3) increases with increase in humidity
at rest (4) decreases with increase in humidity
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

45. Change in temperature of the medium changes 46. A sond wave is passing through air column in
(1) frequency of sound waves the form of compression and rarefaction. In
consecutive compression and rarefactions.
(2) amplitude of sound waves
(1) density remains constant
(3) wavelength of sound waves (2) Boyle's law is obeyed
(4) loudness of sound waves (3) bulk molulus of air oscillates
(4) there is no transfer of heat
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 4 3 1 3 1 1 4 3 4 1 3 4 1 2
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 2 3 3 2 3 2 3 1 2 4 1 3 2 3 1
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 1 2 3 3 1 2 2 1 2 4 3 1 1 3 3
Que. 46
Ans. 4
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

Solution :-
1. A wave is not motion of matter as a whole in gRT 1
23. V= Þ Va
a medium. Mw Mw
2. X - rays are EMW so doesn't required medium.
4. As the wave passes through gas it compress or V
25. For oop n 0 = = 550 Hz
expands a small region of gas. This cause 2l
change in density of that region this change So, 1.1 KHz will be II Harmonic and COP and
induce a change in pressure. OOP of same length can't produce same
5. Spring is a solid material & in solid we can frequency in any Harmonic case.
generate both type of waves. 26. n A : nB = 5
6. Solid & Liquid are much more difficult to
by increasing the tension frequency will
compress than gases and so have much higher
increase
value of Bulk Modulus. This factor
compensates for their higher densities than n A : n B' = 3
gases. If nA = 427 Hz
7. When wave reflects from denser medium or So, that nB = 422 Hz
rigid boundary there is a phase change of p on 30. Mechanical waves require inertia to propogate.
reflection.
31. At a instant picture show position of med
9. The answer here Infrared waves are
particle of that instant. It shows shape of wave.
Electromagnetic waves.
32. For displacement to be same
sin(kx – wt) = sin(kx 1 – wt)
11.
at t = 0 kx + 2np = kx'
2np
Net Displacment = 0 x1 = x +
k
String becomes straight, No strain No. p.e 33. Longitudinal inside water and transverse on
12. Phase is different becuase all particles receive surface of water.
energy at different times.
34. P-wave inside water & S-wave on surface of
water.
Elastic property
13. v=
inertial property n1 + n 2
35. Frequency of resultant wave = navg. =
2
Elastic property
v= not depends on vel. of source 36. yin = asin(kx – wt) = asin[– (wt – kx)]
inertial property
yin = – asin(wt – kx)
15. The pulse does not have a definite wavelength yref = –asin[wt + kx]
or frequency, but has a definite speed of
ysw = yi + yr
propagation (in non - dispersive medium).
16. Seismic wave is a mechanical wave. = – a[sin(wt – kx) + sin(wt + kx)]
17. X-Rays are electromangetic waves. Asw = 2a coskx
19. Sound waves in air are Longitudinal. 37. When compression reaches open end it reflects
22. y = 0.005 sin(20p – 10p + p/2) as rarefraction.
= 0.005 sin(10p + p/2)cm 38. In progressive wave Amplitude of all particles
= 0.005 sin(p/2) of med will be same.
y = 0.005 cm
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

39. In standing wave amp. of diff. particle is diff.
1
max. at Antinode and min at node. 44. Vµ
P
40. Wavelength changes only when source moves.
Pmoist air < P dry air
41. Pressure wave shows change in pressure.
Vmoist air > Vdry air
P - wave and disp. wave has N2 phase diff.
45. Vµ T
l
42. = 25.5 cm Þ l = 102 cm = 1.02 m V = nl
4
Vµl
Now v = nl = (340)(1.02) » 347 m/s
46. The time of compression and rerefaction is too
43. By, comparing l = 3m, l = l/2 one loop is
small, i.e. we can assume adiabatic process and
formed therefore, all particle will oscillate in
hence no transfer of heat.
same phase.
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

ELECTRIC CHARGE & FIELDS
1. Two identical metal spheres A & B are charged r uur
with equal amount. If A is charged positively
7. If Gauss's law Ñò = 0, we can conclude
E.ds
& B charged nagatively, then that -
(1) Mass of A increase (1) E must be zero
(2) Mass of A decrease (2) E must be perpendicular to surface
(3) Mass of B decrease (3) Total flux through the surface is zero
(4) No effect on mass by charging a body (4) Flux is only going in the surface
2. On any body charge is additive by nature, 8. Gauss's Law is true if force due to charge varies
means - with distance (r) as -
(1) Total charge on a system is constant
(1) Force proportional to distance
(2) Proper signs have to be used while adding
(2) Force follow inverse square law
the charge in a system
(3) Charge are of two types (3) Force is proportional to square of distance
(4) Total charge on a body is always zero (4) Gauss's law is independent with relation
3. Charge can increase or decrease only in units between force & distance.
of e, define - 9. While taking off synthetic clothes, seeing a
(1) Conservation of charge spark or hearing a crackle, are due to -
(2) Quantization of charge (1) Motion of ions through air
(3) Total charge is zero (2) Production of shock waves due to motion
(4) Additive nature of charge of electrons
4. If electron & proton are 1Å apart, start moving (3) electric discharge
towards each other, due to mutual attraction. (4) Cannot be explained
Estimate acceleration of electron approximately.
10. Out of gravitational, electromagnetic, vander
(1) 1.4 × 1019 m/s2 (2) 2.5 × 1022 m/s2 Waals, electrostatic and nuclear forces, which
(3) 1 × 109 m/s2 (4) 2.3 × 10–8 m/s2 two are able to provide an attractive force
5. In a glass box charge A is fix, charge B in between two neutrons?
equilibrium, For vertical displacement charge (1) Electrostatic and gravitational
B is in - (2) Electrostatic and nuclear
(3) Gravitational and nuclear
A +qA (4) Some other forces like vander waals.
Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\NCERT BASED OBJECTIVE_PHY(INSIDER)\ENG\XII\15. ELECTRIC CHARGE & FIELDS.P65
11. In general, metallic ropes are suspended from

the carriers to the ground which take
B –qB inflammable material. The reason is -
(1) Stable equilibrium (1) Their speed is controlled
(2) To keep the gravity of the carrier nearer to
(2) Unstable equilibrium
the earth
(3) Neutral equilibrium
(3) To keep the body of the carrier in contact
(4) Depends on mass & charge with the Earth
6. If q is the angle between electric field E & the (4) Nothing should be placed under the carrier
outward normal to the area element then Number 12. When a body is connected to Earth, electrons
of field lines passing through this area is - from the earth flow into the body. This means
the body was initially :-
(1) Equal to EDS
(1) Uncharged
(2) Proportional to EDScosq (2) Charged positively
(3) equal to EDScosq (3) Charged negatively
(4) proportional to EDS(sinq) (4) an insulator
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

13. To charge a body by induction - 16. A electric field line is a space curve, means-
(1) Body to be charged, must be an insulator (1) Field lines are hyperbolic curves
(2) Body to be charged, must be a semi (2) Field lines are two - dimensional curves
conductor
(3) Field lines are three - dimensional curves
(3) Body to be charged, must be a conductor
(4) Field lines are straight lines.
(4) Any type of body can be charged by
induction 17. Two field lines can never cross each other
because :
14. A body A is being charged by another charged
body B by induction process. Then, charge (1) Field lines are closed curves
acquired by A depends on -
(2) Field lines repels each other
(1) Nature of material of A
(3) Field lines crowded only near the charge
(2) Distance between A and B (4) Field has a unique direction at each point
(3) Nature of medium separating A and B 18. A charged particle is free to move in an electric
field. It will travel :-
(1) Always along a line of force
15. Electric field of a system of charges does not
(2) Along a line of force, if its initial velocity
depend on -
is zero
(1) Position of charges forming the system (3) Along a line of force, if it has some initial
(2) Distance of point (at which field is being velocity in the direction of an acute angle
observed) from the charges forming system with the line of force
(3) Value of test charge used to find out the 19. The charge on an electron was calculated by-
field
(1) Faraday (2) J.J Thomson
(4) Separation of charges forming the system (3) Millikan (4) Einstein
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19
Ans. 2 2 2 2 2 2 3 2 3 3 3 2 4 4 3 3 4 2 3
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

Hints & Solution :- 6. It will not be proper to say that number of field
1. If body charged positively, mass will decrease lines equal to EDS cos q
& when negatively, mass will increase. ur uur
2. Additive Nature of charge define scalar nature 7. Ñò E.ds = fEnclosed
of charge. 8. Valid When F µ 1/r2
3. Charge is integral multiple of charge of electron 9. The reason for these experience is a discharge
is called quantization of charge. of electric charges which are accumulated due
to rubbing of insulating surfaces.
( 1 pÎ0 )e 2 / r 2 11. During its motion, body of carrier is charged
4. a= 4 = 2.5 ´ 10 22 m / s2
me due to rubbing with dry air and dust. If spark
occurs near container, the inflammable material
5. For, equilibrium Fe = Mg may catch fire. So, metallic ropes are suspended
A so, that excess charge flow away from carrier
Fe to ground.
B
15. Field is actually the property of source charge
not of test charge.
Mg
For small vertical downward displacement
Fe' < F e so it is unstable equilibrium
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ELECTROSTATIC POTENTIAL & CAPACITANCE

1. A non-conducting solid sphere of radius R is 6. A conductor with a positive charge -
uniformly charged. The magnitude of electric (1) Is always at positive potential
field at a distance r away from the centre. (2) Is always at zero potential
(1) Increases as r increases, for r < R (3) Is always at negative potential
(4) May be +ve, zero or -ve potential
(2) Decreases as r increases, for 0 < r < ¥
7. If a unit positive charge is taken from one point
(3) Decreases as r decreases, for R < r < ¥ to another point over an equipotential surface
(4) Is discontinuous at r = R then -
(1) Work is done on the charge by electric field
2. Given diagram can never represent (2) Work is done by the charge against the
electric field
(3) Work done is non-zero constant by the field
(4) No work is done by the field
8. The electric field inside a uniformly charged
spherical shell is
(1) An electrostatic field
(1) Zero
(2) A magnetostatic field
(2) Constant, less than zero
(3) Field for moving charge (3) Directly proportional to the distance from
(4) An induced electric field centre
3. Which of the following quantities depend on (4) None of the above
the choice of zero potential or zero potential 9. Two charged spheres of radii 10 cm and 15 cm
energy. are connected by a thin wire. No current will
(1) Potential at a point flow, if they have -
(1) The same charge on each
(2) Potential difference between two points
(2) The same potential
(3) Change in potential energy (3) The same energy
(4) Potential energy of a system of two charges (4) The same field on their surfaces
10. Two small spheres each carrying a charge q are
Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\NCERT BASED OBJECTIVE_PHY(INSIDER)\ENG\XII\16. ELECTROSTATIC POTENTIAL & CAPACITANCE.P65

4. Under the influence of the Coulomb field of
charge +q, a charge – q is moving around it on placed r metre apart. If one of the spheres is
an elliptical orbit. Find out the correct taken around the other one in a circular path of
radius r, the work done by electric field will be
statements -
equal to
(1) The angular momentum of the charge – q is (1) Force between them × r
constant
(2) Force between them × 2p r
(2) The linear momentum of the charge – q is (3) Force between them / 2pr
constant (4) zero
(3) The angular velocity of the charge – q is 11. A and B are two concentric metallic shells. If A
constant is positively charged and B is earthed, then
(4) The linear speed of the charge – q is constant electric -
5. Two equal charges q are placed at a distance of B
2a and a third charge – 2q is placed at the A
midpoint. The potential energy of the system is
q2 6q 2
(1) (2)
8pÎ0 a 8pÎ0 a
(1) Field at common centre is non-zero
(2) Field outside B is non-zero
-7q 2 9q 2
(3) (4) (3) Potential outside B is positive
8pÎ0 a 8pÎ0 a (4) Potential at common centre is positive
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

12. A metallic sphere is given some charge. Electric 17. If dW is the work done against electrostatic force
energy is stored.
in bringing of a infinitesimal small test charge dq from
(1) Only inside the sphere
infinity to a point P, then potential at point P is
(2) Only outside the sphere
dW dW
(3) Both inside and outside (1) dq (2) – dq (3) dW · dq (4) None
(4) Neither inside nor outside
18. Work done in moving a charge from one point
13. A hollow charged metallic spherical shell has
to the other inside a uniformly charged
radius R. If the potential difference between its
conducting sphere is -
surface and a point at a distance 3R from the
centre is V then the value of electric field (1) Always zero (2) Non zero
intensity at a point at distance 4R from the (3) May be zero (4) None of these
centre is - 19. For linear isotropic dielectric the polarisation is
3V V 3V 3V (1) p = c e E (2) p = – ce E
(1) (2) (3) (4)
19R 6R 32R 16R
ce
14. Which is the correct statement? (3) p = 2ce E (4) p =
E
(1) If the electric field due to a point charge 20. The total dipole moment of dielectric with polar
varies as r–2.5 instead of r–2, then the Gauss molecules in abscence of an external electric
law will still be valid field is
(2) The Gauss law can be used to calculate the (1) Zero (2) Negative
field distribution around an electric dipole
(3) Infinite (4) None of these
(3) If the electric field between two point charges
21. The extent of polarisation depends on -
is zero somewhere, then the signs of the two
charges are same (1) The dipole potential energy in the external
field tending to align the dipole with the
(4) Work done by external force in moving a
field
charge is always (VB – VA)
(2) Thermal energy tending to disrupt the
15. An imaginary graph is plotted between
r alignment
potential and distance then ( E = electric field)
(3) Both (1) and (2)
V (4) Neither (1) nor (2)

A 22. The maximum electric field that a dielectric
B medium of a capacitor can withstand without
C break down is called its
(1) Polarisation (2) Capacitance
x
(3) Dielectric strength (4) None of these
(1) At point A, E = +ve 23. If dielectric constant and dielectric strength be
(2) At point C, E = -ve denoted by k & x respectively, then a material suitable
for use as a dielectric in a capacitor must have
(3) At point C, E = +ve
(1) high k & high x (2) high k & low x
(4) At point C, E = 0 (3) low k & high x (4) low k & low x
16. Work done against electrostatic force in bringing 24. A parallel plate capacitor has a uniform electric
a unit positive charge from infinity to a point is: field E (V m–1) in the space between the plates.
(1) Equal to the electrostatic potential (V) at that If the distance between the plates is d(m) and
point area of each plate is A (m2) the energy (Joule)
(2) equal to the negative of work done by stored in the capacitor, is :
electrostatic forces 1
(1) Î0 E
2
(2) Î0EAd
(3) Both (1) & (2) 2
(4) Neither (1) nor (2) 1
(3) Î0 E Ad
2
(4) E2Ad/Î0
2
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

25. A small sphere of radius r1 having charge q1 is 30. Figure shows the field lines of negative point
enclosed by a spherical shell of radius r2 having charge then
charge q2. Which charge will necessarily flow
from the sphere to the shell, when connected.
(1) q1 (2) q2
(3) both (1) and (2) (4) May be q2 A B
–
26. Van de graaff generator is used to
(1) Store electrical energy
(2) Build up high voltage of few million volts
(3) decelerate charged particle like electrons
(1) Sign of VB – VA is negative
(4) Both (1) & (2) are correct
(2) Sign of work done by external agency in
27. The plates of a parallel plate capacitor are not
moving a negative charge from B to A is
exactly parallel. The surface charge density
negative
(1) Is lower at the closer end
(2) Will not uniform (3) Sign of work done by the field in moving a
positive charge from A to B is positive
(3) Each plate will have the same potential at every point
(4) Both (2) & (3) (4) Sign of work done by the external agency in
28. Curve A and B represents variation in electric moving a negative charge from B to A is
field and potential of a point charge then positive
31. A molecule of a substance has dipole moment

A 10 –29 c-m. One mole of this substance is
E or V B polarised by applying a strong electric field
105 V/m. If direction of electric field is suddenly

changed by an angle 60° then heat released by
r the substance for the new allignment of the
dipoles.
(1) A represents electric field
(1) 0.3 J (2) 0.6 J
(2) B represents electric field
(3) 3 J (4) 6 J
(3) Any of the curve may represent electric field 32. Which of the following is not correct regarding
and potential
a conductor
(4) Can't be determined
(1) Inside a conductor, electrostatic field is zero
29. Two charge 6 mC and – 4 mC are separated at
(2) Electrostatic field must be normal to the
distance 15 cm apart then the point on the line
charged conducting surface
joining the charges where electric potential is
zero is : (3) Electric potential is necessarily constant
(1) At distance 6 cm from 6 mC throughout the volume of the conductor
(2) At distance 45 cm from 6mC (4) Electrostatic field at a point on the surface of
(3) At distance 30 cm from 6 mC s

the charged conductor is
(4) At distance 60 cm from 6 mC Î0
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

33. A cavity is cut inside a conductor and a charge 36. A metal sphere of radius R is given a potential
q is placed outside it as shown in figure then V then energy stored inside the concentric
incorrect statement is sphere of radius 2R is
conductor 1
(1) pÎ0RV2 (2) pÎ0 RV 2
2
B C
A (3) 2pÎ0 RV2 (4) 4pÎ0 RV2
D q
37. For equipotential surfaces incorrect statement
is
(1) Are closer in region of stronger electric field
(1) Electric field at point A due to induced
charges is zero (2) never be equally spaced
(2) Electric field at point B due to the point (3) Perpendicular to electric field lines
charge q is non zero (4) Are more crowded near sharp edges of a
(3) sc is negative conductor
(4) Electric potentials at A and B are same 38. A cylindrical capacitor has length 54 cm and
34. An air capacitor has capacitance 70 mF with a radii 4 cm and 3 cm. Potential of the inner
separation between plates 20 mm. Now cylinder when it is given a charge 1nC and
distance between plates is doubled and outer cylinder is grounded
dielectric of k = 2 thickness 10 mm is inserted
between the plates of capacitor then its (1) 104 volt (2) 103 volt
capacitance becomes. (3) 105 volt (4) 106 volt
(1) 35 mF (2) 40 mF
39. Two metal spheres of radii R and 2R having
(3) 50 mF (4) Remains unchanged
some charge density s, are brought in contact
35. In the given figure charge on capacitor C2 is
then charge densities becomes
C2 = 2mF
s 2s 2s s
(1) , (2) ,
3 3 3 3
C1 = 1mF 5s 5s 5s 5s
C3 = 3mF (3) , (4) ,

C4 = 4mF 3 6 6 3
66V
(1) 22 mC (2) 44 mC
(3) 18 mC (4) 36 mC
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 1 1 1 1 3 4 4 1 2 4 4 2 3 3 2 1 1 1 1 1
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39
Ans. 3 3 1 3 1 2 4 1 2 4 1 3 1 2 4 1 2 1 3
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

Solution : 26. Van de graff generator is a machine that can
build up high voltage of the order of a few
kQr
1. Inside the sphere E = and outside the sphere million volts. The resulting large electric fields
R3 are used to accelerate charged particle,
kQ (electron, proton ions) to high energies needed
E= .
r2 for experiments to prob the small scale structure
4. Electric force is a central force, therefore torque of matter.
w.r.t. centre is zero as a result angular 27. Being a conductor, each plate have the same
momentum is conserved. potential at each point. So potential gradient
6. A positively charged conductor can have +ve, will be highest at closest end. As E µ s, so
-ve or zero potential in the presence of any surface charge density s is higher at the closer
other nearly charge. end.
kQ kQ 1 1
11. Potential at centre is VC = R - R . 28. Eµ 2 ,
Vµ
A B r r
16. Considering potential to be zero at infinity. So electric field decreases faster.
Work done by an external force in bringing a
6mC A –4mC B
unit positive charge from infinity to a point
without acceleration = – work done by 29. x1
x2
electrostatic force.
17. The electrostatic potential (V) at any point in a x1 4 2
region with electrostatic field is the work done For point A : 15 - x = = Þ x1 = 6 cm
1 6 3
in bringing a unit positive charge (without
acceleration) from infinity to that point. x2 2
18. Since E = 0 inside the conductor and has no For point B : 15 + x = Þ x2 = 30 cm
1 3
tangential component on the surface, no work
is done in moving a small test charge within the So 45 cm from 6 mC
conductor and on its surface. 30. W = (– q) (VA – VB) {B to A}
19. For linear isotropic dielectric p = ceE (Direction = q (VB – VA) = +ve as (VB > VA)
of P & E are same) 31. Total dipole moment = 6 × 1023 × 10–29

20. In the absence of any external field, the different = 6 × 10–6 C × m
permanent dipole are oriented randomly due to DH = Uf – Ui
thermal agitation, so the total dipole moment is
= – PE (cos 60 – cos 0)
zero.
21. The extent of polarisation depends on the + PE 6´10-6 ´105
relative strength of two mutually opposite = = = 0.3 J
2 2
factor. The potential energy in the external field
33. Net electric field due to induced charges and
tending to align the dipoles with the field and
the charge q is zero.
thermal energy tending to disrupt the alignment.
23. The material suitable for use as dielectric must A Î0
have high dielectric strength x and high 34. C = 20 ´10-3 = 70 mF
dielectric constant k.
Þ AÎ0 = 1400 × 10–2
1 1 æ A Î0 ö 1
÷ ( Ed ) = Î0 E Ad
2 2
24. U= CV 2 = ç A Î0 A Î0 1400
2 2 è d ø 2 C' = = 10-3 ´ 35 = = 40 mF
40 - 10 10 35
+
æ A Î0 ö 1 2
ç c = d ÷ ( v = Ed )
è ø
q1 æ 1 1 ö
25. DV = 4pÎ ç r - r ÷
0 è 1 2 ø
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

35. C ® C1 C2 C3 4pÎ0 r1r2 Q
1 : 2 : 3 38. C = l n (r / r ) and V =
2 1 c
1 1 1 39. qsys = s × 4pR2 + s × 4p(2R)2 = 20spR2
V® : :
1 2 3
R 20
® 6 : 3 : 2 q1' = × 20 spR2 = spR2
R + 2R 3
3
VC2 = ´ 66 = 18 V 40
11 q '2 = spR2
3
q C2 = CV = 36 mC
q 1' 20 spR 2 5
s 1' = = s (S1 = 4pR2)
1 S1 2 =
3 4pR 3
36. U= CDV2
2
5
2 s2 = s
4p Î0 R ´ 2R æ Vö 6
= çV - ÷
2 2R - R è 2ø
= pÎ0 RV2
x2 + r2
r
37.
x
k dq
dVp =
x2 + r2
R
k (s 2prdr)
Vp = ò
0 x2 + r2
Vp =
2kQ
R2
( R 2 + x2 - x )
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
CURRENT ELECTRICITY
1. Two identical cells are connected in (a) series(b) 4. The standard resistance coils are made of
parallel then maximum power transfered to the load manganin because :-
is :- (1) Manganin wire is very sensitive to change
in temperature
(1) Same in both cases
(2) For manganin the temperature coefficient of
resistance varies hyperbolically for large
(2) Different in both cases
range of temperature
(3) May or may not remain same depending (3) For Manganin, the temperature coefficient
upon polarity of the cell connected of resistance is almost zero
(4) None
(4) None 5. An electric bulb connected to a source having
rated voltage consumes more than rated power
2. Two cells of unequal emf E1 and E2 having
just after it is switched on, this may be due to :-
internal resistance r1 and r2 are connected as
(1) As soon as switch is closed a voltage surge
shown in figure :- occurs across the filament which leads to
high power consumption
(2) When filament is at room temperature its
resistance is less than its resistance when
E1,r1 E2,r2 the bulb is fully illuminated
(3) As soon as switch is closed current through
filament increases linearly which leads to
(1) Potential difference across any of the cell high power consumption
cannot be zero (4) because potential difference across filament
is less than E.M.F.
(2) Potential difference across cell of smaller 6. Electrical conductivity of a typical insulator is
EMF may be zero
about 10–22 times that of metal while heat
(3) Potential difference across cell of larger conductivity is about 10–3 because :-
EMF may be zero (1) In electrical conduction only free e– take
part while in thermal conduction both lattice
Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\NCERT BASED OBJECTIVE_PHY(INSIDER)\ENG\XII\17. CURRENT ELECTRICITY.P65

(4) Potential difference can be zero only if EMF and free e– contribute
of both cell are same (2) During electrical conduction no. of free e–
are considerably lesser as compare to
3. Conductivity of electrolyte is very low as compared the number during thermal conduction
to metal at room temperature because :- (3) During electrical conduction no. of collision
of free e– are extremely large whereas during
(1) Charge of each ion of electrolyte is very thermal conductor no. of collision are small
large as compare to charge of each free e– (4) None
7. Current is passed through a metallic wire, heating
(2) Free ion density in electrolyte is much
it red. When cold water is poured over half of its
smaller as compared to e– density of metal
portion :-
(3) Free ion density in electrolyte is very large (1) Rest of the portion will become more hot
as compared to e– density of metal
(2) Rest of the portion will become cold
(4) None (3) Whole rod will become cold
(4) None
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

8. A compartment of a train is lit by 20 identical 13. The brightness of light bulb, when a heating
bulb in series. one of the bulbs fuses and is appliance is switched on will :-
removed from the chain. The remaining bulbs (1) decrease for non-ideal source but remain
now light the room. The light in the compartment same for ideal source
(2) Increase for non-ideal source but remain
will :-
(1) Increases same for ideal source
(2) Decreases (3) Remain same for both ideal and non ideal
(3) Neither increases nor decreases source
(4) None (4) Remain same for non-ideal source but
9. Kirchoff's voltage law in a circuit indicates :- decrease for ideal source
(1) Electric field inside current carrying 14. In which material electric currents develop
conductor is non zero when an electric field is applied ?
(2) Electric field outside current carrying (1) Conductor (2) Wooden piece
conductor is always zero (3) Non-conductor (4) Insulator
(3) Electrostatic field is conservative field 15. In which substance, positive and negative
charges both can move ?
10. A piece of copper and other of germanium are (1) non-electrolytic solution
cooled from room temperature to 100 K :- (2) Electrolytic solution
(1) Conductivity of copper increases and that (3) Both (1) and (2)
of germanium decrease (4) Neither (1) nor (2)
(2) Conductivity of copper decreases and that 16. If we consider a mechanism where, the ends of
of germanium increases the cylinder are supplied with fresh charges to
(3) Conductivity of copper as well as germanium make up for any charges neutralised by electrons
both decreases moving inside the conductor, in that case :-
(4) Conductivity of copper as well as germanium (1) There will be steady electric field in the
both increases conductor
11. A constant potential difference is maintained (2) There will be continuous current rather than
across a conductor .If the temperature of a current for a short period of time
conductor is increased, drift speed of electron (3) Both (1) and (2)
will:- (4) Neither (1) nor (2)

(1) Increase (2) Decrease Irl
17. In V = , current per unit area, I/A is called
A
(3) Remain same (4) Can't say
12. On bending a conducting wire its :- (1) Resistivity (r) (2) Voltage (V)
(1) Resistance will increase because drift (3) Current density (J) (4) Resistance (R)
velocity of electron in bent wire decreases 18. When current flows through copper wire, current
(2) Resistance will decrease because drift density J, electric field E and motion of electrons
velocity of electron in bent wire increases have directions such that :-
(1) J & E in opposite direction
(3) Resistance will remain same because drift velocity
(2) Motion of electrons and E, in opposite
of elctron in bent wire will remain same
direction
(4) Resistance will remain same but drift velocity (3) J & motion of electrons in same direction
of electron in bent wire will decrease (4) J, E & motion of electrons are in same
direction
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

19. High current in solid conductor can be obtained 26. Potentiometer measures the potential difference
because :- more accurately than a voltmeter because :-
(1) drift speed is large (1) it has a wire of high resistance
(2) charge on electron is large (2) it has a wire of low resistance
(3) electron number density is enormous ~ 1029 m–3 (3) it does not draw current from external circuit
(4) it draws a heavy current from external
circuit
20. If charges moved without collisions through
27. In meter bridge for measurement of resistance
the conductor, their kinetic energy would also
the known and the unknown resistances are
change so that the total energy is :-
inter changed. The error so removed is :-
(1) Changed (2) Unchanged
(3) Doubled (4) Halved (1) end correction
21. Is it possible that any battery has some constant (2) index error
non-zero value of emf but the potential (3) due to temperature effect
difference between the plates is zero ? (4) random error
(1) Not possible 28. Which of the following characteristics of electrons
(2) Yes, if another identical battery is joined in determines the current in a conductor ?
supportive and series (1) Drift velocity alone
(3) Yes, if another identical battery is joined in (2) Thermal velocity alone
(3) Both drift velocity and thermal velocity
opposition and series
(4) Neither drift nor thermal velocity
(4) Yes, possible, if another similar battery is
29. Kirchhoff's junction rule is a reflection of:
joined in parallel (1) Conservation of current density vector
22. The algebric sum of changes in potential around (2) Conservation of energy
any closed loop involving resistor and cells in (3) The fact that the momentum with which a
the loop is :- charged particle approaches a junction is
(1) More than zero (2) Less than zero unchanged (as a vector) as the charged
(3) Zero (4) Constant particle leaves the junction
23. The wheat stone bridge and its balance condition (4) The fact that there is no accumulation of
provide a practical method for determination of charges at a junction
an :-
30. The direction of the flow of current through

(1) known resistance
electric circuit is :
(2) unknown resistance
(3) both (1) and (2) (1) from low potential to high potential
(4) none of the above
(2) from high potential to low potential
24. Which of the following draws no current from
the voltage source being measured ? (3) does not depend upon potential value
(1) Meter bridge (2) Wheat stone bridge (4) current can not flow through circuit
(3) Potentiometer (4) None of these
25. In a potentiometer, the null point is received at 31. The electrical resistance of a conductor depends
7th wire. If now we have to change the null point upon:
at the 9th wire, what should we do ? (1) Size of conductor
(1) Attach resistance in series with cell of
secondary circuit (2) Temperature of conductor
(2) Increase resistance in main circuit (3) Geometry of conductor
(3) Decrease resistance in main circuit
(4) All of these
(4) Decrease applied emf
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

32. For which of the following dependences of drift 36. With increase in temperature the conductivity
velocity Vd on electric field E, is Ohm's law obeyed ? of:
(1) Vd µ E (2) Vd µ E2 (1) Metals increases and semiconductor
decreases
1
(3) Vd µ E (4) Vd µ (2) Semiconductor increases and metals
E decreases
33. Which of the following I-V graph represents (3) Increases in both of them
ohmic conductors ? (4) Decreases in both of them
I I 37. An electric heater is connected to the voltage

supply. After few seconds, current get its steady
(1) (2) value then its initial current will be :
O V O V
(1) equal to its steady current
(2) Slightly higher than steady current
I I (3) Slightly less than its steady current
(4) Zero
(3) (4)
V V 38. In the series combination of two or more than
O O
two resistances :
(1) The current is same for each resistance
34. The I-V characteristics shown in figure represents:
(2) The voltage through each resistance is same
(3) Neither current nor voltage through each
I resistance is same
(4) Both current and voltage through each
resistance is same
V
39. Principle of wheatstone's bridge is used in a/an :
(1) Galvanometer (2) Potentiometer

(1) Ohmic conductors (3) Ammeter (4) Voltmeter

40. In a wheat stone bridge if the battery and
(2) Non-ohmic conductors
galvanometer are interchanged the deflection
(3) Insulators in Galvanometer will :
(1) Change in previous direction
(4) Super conductors
(2) Not change
35. Arrange the following materials in increasing (3) Change in opposite direction
order of their resistivity: (4) None of these
Nichrome, Copper, Germanium, Silicon 41. Point out the right statements about the validity
of Kirchoff's junction rule :
(1) Copper < Nichrome < Germanium < Silicon (1) Based on conservation of charge
(2) Germanium < Copper < Nichrome < Silicon (2) Outgoing currents adds up and are equal to
incoming currents at a junction
(3) Nichrome < Copper < Germanium < Silicon (3) Bending or reorienting the wire does not
(4) Silicon < Nichrome < Germanium < Copper change the validity of kirchoff's rule
(4) all of above
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

42. In parallel combination of n-cells we obtain : 43. AB is a wire of potentiometer. With the increase
(1) More voltage in the value of resistance R, the shift in the
balance point J will be :
(2) More current E R
()
(3) Less voltage
J
A B
(4) Less current
G
(1) towards (B)
(2) towards (A)
(3) remains constant
(4) first towards B then back towards A
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 1 2 3 2 1 1 1 3 1 2 3 1 1 2
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 3 3 2 3 2 3 3 2 3 2 3 1 1 4 2
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43
Ans. 4 1 1 2 1 2 2 1 2 2 4 2 1
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

Solutions:- 4. Materials like Nichrome, Manganin and
constantan exhibit a very weak dependence of
E r
resistivity with temperature and are thus used in
1. r
E r E wire bound standard resistors.
E r 5. Rating of the bulb is done at steady state of the
filament when filament is at room temperature its
resistance is less than its resistance when the
R R bulb is at steady state (fully illuminated)
ß ß æ m ö ne2 t
E r/2 6. r = ç 2 ÷; s =
2E 2r è ne t ø m
1
rµ s µ n
n
In electrical conduction only free e– take part so
R R
value of n is small & conductivity is small but
R = 2r R = r/2
in thermal conduction both lattice and free e–
contributes
2E E æEö
i= = i=ç ÷ \ value of n will be greater
4r 2r è r ø \ s will be greater
ærö 7. Resistance decreases due to decrease in
Pd = i2(2r) Pd = i2 ç ÷
è2ø temperature, so current through wire increases.
8. When 20 bulbs are in series
æ E2 ö
æ 1E 2 ö æ V ö
= çè 2r ÷ø Pd = ç ÷ i = ç 20R ÷
è ø
è 2r ø
Opposite polarity V2
( Pd )1 = (i 2 R)20 Þ
20R
When 19 bulbs are in series
æ V ö
i = ç 19R ÷
è ø
R R
æ V2 ö
Pd = 0 Pd = 0 (Pd)2 = (i2R)19 = ç ÷
è 19R ø
(Pd)2 > (Pd)1 Þ Brightness

9. Since potential difference between two points
E1 - E 2 in a circuit does not depend on path therefore
2. I= E1 E2
one can conclude that electrostatic field is
r1 + r2
r1 r2 conservative field
10. Copper has positive temperature coefficient
Potential difference across cells will be same where as germanium has negative temperature
and cannot be zero. coefficient
3. Number of free e– per unit volume of metal is
m
very large as compare to number of free ions 11. I = neA Vd r=
ne2 t
per unit volume of electrolyte V
= neA Vd on T Þ t ¯
R
Þ r
æ ne 2 t ö V
A = ne AVd
s= ç m ÷ rl Þ Vd ¯
è ø
1
sµn Vd µ r
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

12. I = ne AVd 16. There will be steady electric field in body of
V conductor. This will result in a continuous
= neA Vd
R current rather than a current for short period of
æ neAVd ö
R=ç
time. Mechanism which maintain a steady
÷
è V ø electron field are cells and Batteries
Since no. of e–/vol, area of cross section ,applied 17. I/A = J (Current Density)
potential difference & drift velocity remain same
\ Resistance will not change. LV
18. HV
E
RL J
æ E ö
13. i= ç ÷ e
Q
èR+rø
i R r r
J = sE
19. As electron number density in solid conductor
is enormous ® 1029 m–3
E r
20. If charges moved without collisions through the
conductor, their kinetic energy would also
change so that the total energy is unchanged
RL
conservation of total energy would then imply
that,
R
IR E æ RL ö DK = –DUpot i.e., DK = I VDt > 0
IR = ´ç
RRL è R + RL ÷ø 21. If an identical battery is connected in supportive
r+
R + RL Net emf = 2e
E r v1
E1r E1r
E RL
IR = rR + r R + RR
L L
2e e

E I= = , So potential difference across any
2r r
IR = r + R + r R
RL
e
battery v1 = e - Ir = e - ´ r v1 = e - e = 0
iR ¯ Þ Brightness ¯ r
14. In non-conductors, Insulator and wood 22. Loop Rule- The algebric sum of changes in
electrons are bound which will not accelerate potential around any closed loop involving
on application of electric field. In conductors resistors and cells in the loop is zero. this rule is
free electrons are present .Which when electric also obvious, since, electric potential is
field is applied, they accelerate and electric dependent on the location of the point. Thus
current is generated starting with any point, if we come back to the
15. Electrolyte has both positive and negative charge same point, the total change must be zero. In a
carriers. closed loop, we do come back to the starting
point and hence the rule. SIr = SV
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

23. In meter bridge balanced wheat stone bridge is 30. Current always flow from HV® LV.
used to determine unknown resistance. 31. The electrical resistance of a conductor is
24. The potentiometer has the advantage that it depends upon all factors size, temperature and
draws no current from the voltage source being geometry of conductor.
measured.As such it is unaffected by the internal
I J æ sö
resistance of the source. = = E.
nAe ne çè ne ÷ø
32. Vd =
25. The working of potentiometer is based on the
fact that the fall of potential across any portion 33. V = IR is equation of straight line.
of the wire is directly proportional to the length 34. The figure is showing I-V characteristics of
of that portion provided the wire is of uniform non-ohmic or non linear conductors.
area of cross-section and a constant current is 35. Cu 1.7 × 10–8
flowing through it.To shift the balance point on Nichrome 100 × 10–8
higher length, the potential gradient of the wire Germanium 0.46
is to be decreased. The same can be obtained by Silicon 2300
decreasing.The current of the main circuit which 36. Temperature coefficient of metals is positive
is possible by increasing the resistance in series and that of semiconductors is negative. Therefore
of potentiometer wire. with increases in temperature, conductivity of
26. When we measure the emf of a cell by the metal decreases and that of semiconductor
potentiometer then no current flows in the increases.
circuit is zero- deflaction condition i.e., cell is in 37. Initially temperature of heater is low. but later
open circuit.Thus, in this condition the actual its temperature increases and resistance increases
value of emf of a cell is found. In this way, \ Initial current is slightly higher than steady
potentiometer is equivalent to an ideal voltmeter state value.
of infinite resistance. 38. For series combination current is same.
27. In meter bridge for measurement of resistance the 39. Null deflection principle is used in potentiometer.
known and the unknown resistance are inter changed. 40. No change happens due to exchange.
The error so removed is end correction. 41. All statements are correct.
28. The relationship between current and drift speed 42. Due to parallel combination resistance decreases
is given by I = neA Vd Here, I is the current and and current increases.

Vd is the drift velocity. so, I µ Vd 43. Due to increase in resistance(R) the current
29. Kirchhoff's junction rule is also known as decreases, hence potential gradient decreases,
kirchhoff's current law which states that the Therefore balancing length increases,so J will
algebric sum of the currents flowing towards shift towards B.
any point in an electric network is zero i.e.,
charges are conserved in an electric network
so, kirchhoff's junction rule is the reflection of
conservation of charge.
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

MOVING CHARGES AND MAGNETISM
1. An electron (charge - e, mass ' m ' ) is revolving 6. The ratio of the energy density of magnetic field
around a fixed proton in circular path of radius in the middle region of a solenoid to that in
' r '. The magnetic field at the centre due to end region is :
electron is: (1) 4 : 1 (2) 1 : 4 (3) 1 : 1 (4) 2 : 1
7. A charged particle is kept at rest on a smooth
m0 e2
(1) 0 (2) horizontal surface in uniform mangetic field ‘B’
8 p r 2 p mÎ0 r which is directed vertically downwards as
shown in the figure.
m0 e m0 e
(3) (4) 2
8 p r p m Î0 r 4pr p mÎ0 r
2. A charged particle is projected in air
horizontally near the earth's surface at a point
where horizontal component of magnetic field
An observer is moving with constant velocity
is absent . Considering the effect of vertical
v towards right. Then with respect to the
component of the earth's magnetic field and
observer which of the following statements
the gravitational field due to the earth, the path
is/are correct :
of the particle will be :
(A) Path of the charged particle will be straight
(1) circular (2) helical
line.
(3) straight line (4) parabolic
(B) Path of charged particle will be circular.
3. A long hollow tube is carrying an electric
(C) Magnetic force on the charged particle is
current along its length distributed uniformly
zero.
on its circumference. The magnetic field:
(D) Magnitude of magnetic force on charged
(1) increases linearly from the axis of the
particle is qVB.
surface
Pict out the WRONG statement
(2) is constant inside the tube
(1) A and D (2) A and C
(3) is zero only on the axis
(3) B and D (4) B and C
(4) is zero just out-side the tube.
8. Two parallel conductors carrying current in the
4. For the magnetic field produced by a finitely
long current carrying wire. Select wrong same direction attract each other, while two
Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\NCERT BASED OBJECTIVE_PHY(INSIDER)\ENG\XII\18. MOVING CHARGES AND MAGNETISM.P65

statement : parallel beams of electrons moving in the same
(1) the lines of force will be concentric circles direction repel each other. Which of the
with centres on the wire. following statements cannot be the reason for
(2) There can be two points in the same plane this?
where magnetic fields are same.
(1) The conductors are electrically neutral
(3) There can be large number of points where
the magnetic field is same. (2) The conductors produce magnetic fields on
(4) The magnetic field at a point is inversely each other
proportional to the distance of the point (3) The electron beams do not produce
from the wire. magnetic fields on each other
5. Pick out the WRONG statement : (4) The magnetic forces caused by the electron
(1) The gain in the K.E. of the electron moving beams on each other are weaker than the
at right angles to the magnetic field is zero. electrostatic forces between them
(2) When an electron is shot at right angles to 9. In a cyclotron, a charged particle
the electric field, it traces a parabolic path. (1) undergoes acceleration all the time.
(3) An electron moving in the direction of the (2) speeds up between the dees because of the
electric field gains K.E. magnetic field.
(4) An electron at rest experiences no force in (3) speeds up in a dee.
(4) slows down within a dee and speeds up
uniform and constant the magnetic field
between dees.
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

10. The galavanometer consists of a coil, with 14. The gyromagnetic ratio of an electron in sodium
many turns wound on a cylinderical soft iron atom is :-
core. When a current flows through the coil, a (1) depending upon the atomic number of the atom
torque acts on it. This torque is given by (2) depending upon the shell number of the atom
t = NIAB. The magnetic torque NIAB tends to (3) independent of that orbit it is in
rotate the coil by angle f. A spring provides a (4) depending upon mass of atom
counter torque kf that balances the magnetic 15. Magnetic field at the centre of a circular loop of
torque. The current sensitivity of the area 'A' is 'B'. The magnetic moment of the loop
galvanometer is the deflection per unit current. is :-
Statement-1 : Two galvanometers with identical BA 2 BA A
construction but one with core of greater (1) m p (2)
0 m0
permeability will have lesser current
sensitivity. BA A 2BA A
Statement-2 : Greater is the permeability of iron (3) (4)
m0 p m0 p
core greater is magnetic field.
(1) Statement-I is true, Statement-II is true, 16. The order of magnetic field for human nerve fibre
Statement-II is the correct explanation of is :-
Statement-I (1) 10–2 (2) 10–10 (3) 10–12 (4) 10–5
(2) Statement-I is true, Statement-II is true,
17. A field line is shown in fig. This field cannot
Statement-II is not the correct explanation
represent :-
of Statement-I.
(3) Statement-I is true, Statement-II is false.
(4) Statement-I is false, Statement-II is true.
11. To increase the current sensitivity of a moving
coil galvanometer, we should :–
(1) decrease number of turns in coil (1) Magnetic field
(2) decrease area of cross section of the coil (2) Electrostatic field
(3) increase torsional constant of spiral springs (3) Induced electric field
(4) None of the above (4) All of these

12. Which of the following statement is correct ?
18. Tokamak is a device used for :-
(1) The magnetic field in the open space inside
the toroid is constant (1) accelerate the heavy charge particle
(2) The magnetic field in the open space exterior (2) accelerate the light charge particle
to the toroid is constant
(3) The magnitude of magnetic field inside the (3) plasma confinement in fusion power reactors
core of toroid is constant (4) all
(4) The magnetic field inside the core of toroid 19. Gauss law of magnetism is :-
is zero.
(1) Net electric flux through any closed surface is
13. The nature of parallel and anti-parallel currents
zero
are :-
(1) Parallel current repel and antiparallel currents (2) Net magnetic flux through any surface is zero
attract (3) Net electric flux through any closed surface is
(2) Parallel current attract and antiparallel (Q/e 0 )
currents repel (4) Net magnetic flux through any closed surface
(3) Both currents attracts is zero
(4) Both currents repel
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

20. If E and B denote electric and magnetic 21. An irregular closed loop carrying a current has a
fields respectively, which of the following is shape such that the entire loop cannot lie in a single
dimensionless ? plane. If this is placed in a uniform magnetic field,
E E
the force acting on the loop :
(1) m 0 e0 (2) m 0 e 0 (1) must be zero
B B
(2) can never be zero
æ Bö
2
E m (3) may be zero
(4) e ´ B
0
(3) m 0 e0 çè ÷ø
E 0 (4) will be zero only for one particular direction of
the magnetic field
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 2 2 2 4 3 1 2 3 1 4 4 3 2 3 4
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21
Ans. 2 2 3 4 1 1
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

Sol. 12. magnetic field inside the core of toroid = m0ni
m0 I m0 (e / T) Magnetic moment
1. B= = 14. Gyromagnetic ratio = Angular moment
2r 2r
2pr mv 2 e2
where T = but = neh / 4 pm e
v r 4pe0 r 2 = = = constant.
nh / 2p 2m
m0 e2 15. Let r be the radius of the circular loop

Therefore B =
8pr 2 pme 0 r A
\ A = pr2 or r =
2. Because of vertical magnetic field the charged p
particle moves in horizontal circle. And because Magnetic field at the centre of the loop is
of weight there is verical shift in motion of the
particle. hence the trajectory is a helical path. m0 I m I 2B A
3. B is zero everywhere inside the tube and B= = 0 or I =
2r A m0 p
maximum at the surface. 2
p
6. The expression of magnetic energy density is
So magnetic moment
B2
.
2m 0 2B A 2BA A
M = IA = ´A =
The magnitude of magnetic field at end region m 0 p0 m0 p
is half that of at middle region. Hence the ratio
16. NCERT P.No. - 135 / Table 4.1
of magnetic field energy densities at middle
region to the end region is 4:1 17. Electrostatics field lines never form close loop
7. The charged particle is moving in straight 18. NCERT P.N. - 153 / Magnetic confinement
li ne at sp eed v w. r.t. the o bserver in E 1
backward direction. 20. =c & m0 e 0 =
B c
The magnetic force on the charged particle
is q B v, 21. Net force on current carrying loop placed in uniform
8. NCERT (XII) Page no. 142 magnetic field is always zero.
10. B Þ t Þ current sensitivity
NAB
11. Current sensitivity =

C
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
MAGNETISM & MATTER

1. Unit of magnetic flux density is :- 11. The magnetic moment produced in a substance
(1) Tesla (2) Wb/m 2 of 1 gm is 6 × 10 –7 A×m 2. If its density is
(3) NA–1 m –1 (4) All of the above 5gm/cm3, then the intensity of magnetisation
2. If a magnet of pole strength m is cut into four in A/m will be:-
parts such that length and width of each part (1) 8.3 × 106 (2) 3.0
–7
(3) 1.2 × 10 (4) 3 × 10–6
is half that of initial one, then pole strength of
12. Relative permeability of iron is 5500, then its
each part :-
magnetic susceptibility is :-
(1) m/4 (2) m (3) m/8 (4) m/2 (1) 5500 (2) 5501
3. Magnetic field at a distance d from a short bar (3) 5499 (4) zero
magnet in tan A and tan B position are in ratio:- 13. Superconducting material is :-
(1) 2 : 1 (exact) (1) Diamagnetic (2)Perfect diamagnetic
(2) 2 : 1 (approx) (3) Paramagnetic (4) Ferromagnetic
(3) 1 : 2 (exact) 14. If current is doubled, the deflection is also
(4) 1 : 2 (approx) doubled in :-
4. A magnet of magnetic moment M is situated (1) Tangent galvanometer
having its axis along magnetic field B, the work (2) Moving coil galvanometer
done in rotating the magnet by 180º will be:- (3) both (1) and (2)
(4) None of above
(1) –MB (2) +MB (3) zero (4) +2MB
15. For paramagnetic materials :-
5. Material suitable for making electromagnet
(1) c is positive at all temperature
should have :-
(2) c is negative at all temperature
(1) High retentivity and High coercivity (3) c may be positive or negative
(2) Low retentivity and Low coercivity (4) c does not depend on temperature
(3) High retentivity and Low coercivity 16. Magnetic field lines represent the direction :-
(4) Low retentivity and High coercivity (1) Along which a small magnetised needle aligns
6. A dip circle is at right angle to magnetic (2) Along which moving charge particle
meridian, then apparent dip :- experiences a force
(1) 0º (2) 30º (3) 60º (4) 90º (3) Both (1) and (2)
7. A line passing through places having zero dip (4) None of (1) and (2)
angle is called :- 17. Which effect is responsible for earth magnetic
Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\NCERT BASED OBJECTIVE_PHY(INSIDER)\ENG\XII\19. MAGNETISM & MATTER.P65

(1) Isoclinic lines (2) Aclinic lines field :-
(1) Dynamo effect (2) Photo electric effect
(3) Isogonic lines (4) Agonic lines
(3) Compton effect (4) Solar effect
8. Universal property of all substance is :-
18. When a dip magnetic needle is suspended in
(1) Diamagnetism the earth's magnetic field :-
(2) Paramagnetism (1) In northern hemisphere, the north pole of
dip tilts downwards. At southern
(3) Ferromagnetism
hemisphere south pole of dip tilts
(4) All of above downwards
9. Unit of magnetic susceptibility is :- (2) In northern hemisphere, the south pole of
dip tilts downwards. At southern
(1) Henry (2) Wb/m hemisphere north pole of dip tilts
(3) Amp/m (4) None of these downwards
10. Magnetic field is measured by :- (3) In both (northern and southern hemisphere),
north pole of dip tilts downwards.
(1) Pyrometer (2) Hydrometer (4) In both northern, hemisphere and southern
(3) Thermometer (4) Fluxmeter hemisphere, south-pole of dip t ilts
downwards
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

19. The positions on earth where angle of 26. Which of the following statements are correct?
declination is greater, at :- (A) Magnetic field lines can be entirely
(1) Higher latitudes confined (within the core) of a toroid
(2) Near the equator (B) Magnetic field lines can be entirely confined
(3) Lower latitudes within the core of a solenoid
(4) Same at all position of the earth (C) a bar magnet exert a torque on itself due
20. The position on the earth where angle of to its own field.
declination is smaller, at :- (D) a system can have magnetic moment even
(1) Higher latitudes though its net charge is zero.
(2) Near the equator (1) A, B, D (2) only A, D
(3) Away from equator (3) A, C (4) A, B, C, D
(4) Same at all positions of earth 27. Which planets have maximum & minimum
21. In Delhi and Mumbai magnetic needle shows magnetic fields respectively :-
the true north quite accurately because :- (1) Jupiter & Venus
(2) Mercury & Mars
(1) In Delhi and Mumbai angle of dip is small
(3) Jupiter & Mars
(2) In Delhi and Mumbai angle of dip is large
(4) Venus & Mercury
(3) In Delhi and Mumbai angle of declination is small 28. A solenoid has core of material with relative
(4) In Delhi and Mumbai angle of declination is large permeability 400. The winding of the solenoid
22. When a superconductor is placed near a bar are insulated from the core and carry a current
magnet then :- of 2A. It has 1000 turns/meter. Then
(1) It repels the magnet magnetising current will be :-
(2) It attracts the magnet (1) 798 A (2) 1000 A
(3) Neither repels nor attracted (3) 500 A (4) 1494 A
(4) Some time repels and some time attracts 29. The earth's magnetic field at the equator is
23. Dia-magnetic property of material can be approximately 0.4 G. Then the earth's dipole
explained by :- moment will be :-
(1) 1.05 × 1023 A-m2 (2) 5.05 × 1023 A-m2
(1) Lenz's law (2) Faraday law
(3) 9.5 × 1023 A-m2 (4) 1.05 × 1021 A-m2
(3) Ampere's law (4) Gauss's law 30. If external magnetic intensity on a
24. A ferromagnetic material is placed in an paramagnetic material is made 4 times and the
external magnetic field. The magnetic domains: absolute temperature is made 3 times then how
many times will be the self magnetisation ?
(1) increase in size
(2) decrease in size 1
(1) 4 times (2) times
3
(3) may increase or decrease in size
(4) have no relation with the field 4 3
(3) times (4) times
25. If magnetic monopoles existed, how would the 3 4
Gauss's law of magnetism be modified ? 31. The angle of declination is :-
(Here q m is the monopole magnetic charge (1) The angle of earth magnetic field with
enclosed by surface S) horizontal
(2) The angle of earth magnetic field with
r r qm r r vertical
(1) Ñò B.dS = m 0
(2) Ñò B.dS = q m
(3) The angle beween the geographic axis and
magnetic axis of the earth
r r r r
Ñò B.dS = m q Ñò B.dS = m q (4) The angle between the geographic meridian
2
(3) 0 m (4) 0 m
and the magnetic meridian
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

34. Figure shows the magnetic hysteresis loop that
32. Match the column I, in which magnetic
is the B-H curve for ferromagnetic materials.
susceptibility (cm) and temperature (T) curve
Select the correct statement :-
is given, to the suitable magnetic material of the
B
column-II choose the correct option from the a
b
codes given below :-
Column-I Column-II c
cm O e H
d
(A) T (p) Ferromagnetic
(1) The value of B at H = 0 is called coercivity
material (2) An electromagnet has low remanence and
cm low coercivity
(3) The value of H at C is called remanence.
(4) A permanent magnet has low remanence
(B) (q) diamagnetic material
T and low coercivity
35. When will the field lines be completely expelled
cm
(c = magnetic susceptibility)
(1) c = –1 and mr = 0 (2) –1 £ c and mr >> 1
(C) (r) Paramagnetic material
(3) c £ 1 and mr << 1 (4) c = 1 and mr = 1
T
Tc 36. Select the incorrect statement :-
Code r
(1) When a bar magnet of dipole moment M
A B C r
(1) p q r is placed in a uniform magnetic field B the
r r
(2) r q p torque on it is M ´ B
(3) q p r (2) Gauss's law for magnetism states that the
net magnetic flux through any closed
(4) q r p
surface is zero
33. For the given uses select the correct magnetic
(3) For diamagnetic materials magnetic
material :- susceptibility c = +10 –5 whereas
Column-I Column-II paramagnetic materials c = –10–5
Bext (4) Magnetisation of a paramagnetic material
is inversely proportional to the absolute
temperature T.

(p) Electro magnet (A) H 37. The hysteresis curve for a material is shown in
figure. Then for the material retentivity
coercivity and saturation magnetic field will be
(q) Transformer B respectively:-
BNet (Tesla)
H 1.5 a
(r) Permanent magnet (B) b
1.2
used in generator 1
0.5
Codes : c
–100 –90 –0.5 O e 100 Hext (A/m)
p q r
–1
–1.2
(1) A B B
d –1.5
(2) B B A
(1) 90 A/m, 1.2 T, 1.5 T
(3) B A B
(2) 1.5T, 90 A/m, 1.2 T
(4) A A D (3) 1.2T, 90 A/m, 1.5 T
(4) 90 A/m, 1.5 T, 1.2 T
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

38. The magnetic material having very large 42. Nickel shows ferromagnetic property at room
positive magnetic susceptibility is :- temperature. If the temperature is increased
(1) Ferromagnetic beyond Curie temperature, then it will show :-
(1) paramagnetism
(2) Diamagnetic
(2) ferromagnetism
(3) Paramagnetic (3) no magnetic property
(4) Both Ferromagnetic and Paramagnetic have (4) diamagnetism
large positive magnetic susceptibility 43. Many of the diagrams given in figure, show
39. A long solenoid has 1000 turns per meter and magnetic field lines (thick lines in the figure).
carries a current of 1A. It has a soft iron core Point out which one is/are correct :-
of mr = 1000. The core is heated beyond the
critical temperature, T c.
(A)
(1) The H field in the solenoid is decreases
drastically but the 'B' field is (nearly)
unchanged
(2) The H and B fields in the solenoid are nearly (B)
unchanged.
(3) The magnetisation in the core reverse
direction
(4) The magnetisation in the core diminishes
by a factor of about 108
40. The line on the earth's surface joing the points
(C)
where the field is horizontal is called :-
(1) magnetic meridian
(2) magnetic axis
(3) magnetic line
(4) magnetic equator (D)
41. The magnetic field is now thought to arise due
to electrical currents produced by convective (1) both A and D (2) both B and D
motion of metallic fluid. (consisting mostly of (3) both C and D (4) only C
molten iron and nickel) in the outer core of the 44. New Zealand is situated in southern hemisphere
earth. This is known as the and Russia is situated in Northern hemisphere.
The angle of dip at New Zealand and Russia

(1) dynamo effect
are d1 and d2 respectively, then :-
(2) tidal effect (1) d1 = +(up), d2 = +(up)
(3) both (1) and (2) (2) d1 = –(down), d2 = +(up)
(3) d1 = –(up), d2 = +(down)
(4) None of these
(4) d1 = –(down), d2 = –(down)
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 4 4 2 4 2 4 2 1 4 4 2 3 2 2 1 1 1 1 1 2
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 3 1 1 3 3 2 1 1 1 3 4 4 2 2 1 3 3 1 4 4
Que. 41 42 43 44
Ans. 1 1 4 3
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

Sol.
17. The earth's magnetic field is due to electric The toroid have geometry such that magnetic
current produced by convection motion of lines can loop around electric wires without
metallic fluids (consisting mostly of molten spilling over to the outside.
iron and nickel) in the outer core of the earth. There is no force or torque on an element due
This is known as the dynamo effect. to the field produced by that element itself
18. At northern hemisphere earth's magnetic field An atom of ferromagnetic and paramagnetic
is below the horizontal (angle of dip +ve) but material have non-zero magnetic moment while
at southern hemisphere earth's magnetic field their net charge is zero.
above the horizontal (angle of dip –ve) 27. Jupiter has the fastest rotation rate and Venus
21. The declination in India is small, it being 0º41'E has slower rate of rotation.
at Delhi and 0º58' W at Mumbai 28. The magnetising current (Im) is the additional
22. A superconductor is perfectly diamagnetic current that needs to be passed through the
material so, it moves from strong field to weak windings of solenoid in the absence of the core
field. which would give a magnetic field B value as
23. Electrons in an atom orbiting around nucleus in the presence of the core. Thus
posses orbital angular momentum, these orbital B = m0n (I + Im)
electrons are equivalent to current carrying Here B = m0mrnI
loop and thus possess orbital magnetic moment. m0mrnI = m0n (I + Im) Þ I = 798A
The magnetic moment of single atom of dia 29. The equatorial magnetic field of earth is
magnetic material is zero. When magnetic field m0 M
is applied, those electrons having orbital B=
4pr 3
magnetic moment in the direction of field slow
Here B = 0.4 G = 4 × 10–5 T
down and those in the opposite direction speed
r = radius of earth = 6.4 × 106 m
up. This happen due to induced current in
accordance with Lenz's law. Br 3 4 ´ 10-5 ´ (6.4 ´ 106 )3
M= =
24. When ferromagnetic substance is placed in (m 0 / 4p) 10-7
external magnetic field, the size of domain lying
= 1.05 × 1023 A-m2
in the direction of external magnetic field
increases while size of domain lying in the Bext
30. Mµ for paramagnetic material
opposite direction of field decreases. T

25. Gauss theorem for electric field 31. Definition of angle of declination is the angle
r r q between the geographic meridian and the
Ñò E.dS = e 0
magnetic meridian
32. For diamagnetic material cm is independent of
By comparing electric field and magnetic field temperature, for paramagnetic material
r r
E º B, q º q m 1
cµ , for ferromagnetic material.
1 m 1 T
º 0 Þ º m0
4 pe 0 4 p e0 C
c= (T > Tc )
r r T - Tc
Ñò B.dS = m q 0 m
33. The hysteresis curve of large area has high
26. Magnetic lines form closed loops around a coercivity & high coercivity which is used in
current carrying wire. The geometry of a permanent magnet, curve of small area has low
straight solenoid is such a that magnetic lines coercivity & low remanence which is suitable
cannot loop around circular wires without for electromagnet & transfomer.
spilling over to the outside of solenoid .
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

34. (1) The value of B at H = 0 is called remanence, 42. Nickel is ferromagnetic material and curve
(2) Soft iron has low coercivity and low between cm & T for this material is
remanence, soft iron is suitable material for cm
electromagnets
(3) The value of H at 'C' is called coercivity T
Tc
(4) A permanent magnet has high remanence
and high coercivity When T > Tc the curve represent the ferromagnetic
35. The field lines are completely expelled be have like paramagnetic material.
[for super conductors] 43. (A) Wrong : magnetic field lines can never
when c = –1 and mr = 0 emanate from a point, over any closed surface,
37. From graph at point 'b', the net flux of B must always be zero.
H = 0 so retentivity = 1.2T (B) Wrong : magnetic field lines can never
at point 'c', B = 0 so coercivity = 90 A/m crosses each other
at point 'a' saturation magnetic field = 1.5T (C) Right : magnetic field lines completely
38. Susceptibility, for diamagnetic material is confined within a Toroid.
negative, Fig. (D) is wrong because field lines due to
for paramagnetic material 'c' is small positive, solenoid at it's ends and outside cannot be so
for ferromagnetic material 'c' is large positive completely straight and confined.
40. The value of vertical component of earth 44. In southern hemi sphere angle of dip is
magnetic field at magnetic equator is zero. negative & needle of dip circle becomes up.
In Northern hemisphere angle of dip is positive
& needle of dip circle becomes down.
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION
1. Eddy currents are generated in :- 6. The dimension of the ratio of magnetic flux
and the resistance is equal to that of :
(1) insulator (1) induced emf (2) charge
(2) conductor (3) inductance (4) current
r
(3) both 7. A uniform magnetic field B exists in circular
region of radius R as shown which is
(4) none of these
decreasing with time at a constant rate. There
2. When a high frequency current is passed through is a concentric wooden ring which have
a coil which surrounds the metal the _____ uniformly distributed charge Q and radius 2R
generated in metal produces _____ temperature and another concentric uncharged copper ring
of radius 3R, then select INCORRECT
sufficient to _____ it :- alternative : (Assume rings are placed on
(1) induced emf, low, freeze frictionless surface)
(2) induced current, low, melt
(3) eddy current, high, melt
(4) mechanical energy, high, freeze
3. If a copper plate is allowed to oscillate between
R
(N) pole & (S) pole of a magnet like a simple
2R
pendulum, then :-
3R
(1) it will oscillates for ¥ time
(2) it's motion is accelerated
(3) it will not oscillate (1) There is no induced current in wooden ring.
(4) it's oscillation is damped (2) Induced electric field in wooden ring is
more in magnitude than copper ring.
x x x x x (3) Induced electric field in copper ring is more
x x x x in magnitude than wooden ring.
x x x x
4. R xxxxxxxx V0 (4) Wooden ring will start rotating.
x x x x 8. Three wire loops and an observer are positioned
as shown in the figure. From the observer's point
Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\NCERT BASED OBJECTIVE_PHY(INSIDER)\ENG\XII\20. ELECTROMANGETIC INDUCTION.P65

x x x x x
of view, a current I flows counterclockwise in the
middle loop, which is moving towards the observer
If this rod length of rod ^r to magnetic field is with a velocity v. Loops A and B are stationary.
This same observer would notice that
released with initial velocity V0 then :-
(1) It will continue to move with constant velocity
(2) It will accelerate
(3) It will stop after sufficiently long time
(4) None of these
5. Total amount of work done in establishing the
(1) clockwise currents are induced in loops A and
current I in coil of inductance L is :- B
I I (2) counterclockwise currents are induced in loops
(1) W = ò I (dI) (2) W = ò LI (dI)
2 A and B
0 0 (3) a clockwise current is induced in loop A, but a
counterclockwise current is induced in loop B
I I (4) a counterclockwise current is induced in loop
(3) W = - ò I (dI) (4) W = ò LI(dI) A, but a clockwise current is induced in
0 0
loop B
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

9. In a bicycle speedometer, a bar magnet is 10. A bound wire in the form of a coil on an iron
attached to the spokes of the wheel and a coil is core behaves as an inductor. A rheostat having
attached to the frame so that the north pole of similar structure has :
the magnet moves past it once for every (1) only resistance but no inductance.
revolution of the wheel. As the magnet moves (2) both resistance and inductance.
past the coil, a pulse of current is induced in the
(3) it offers resistance only to DC and
coil. A computer then measures the time
between pulses and computes the bicycle's impedance Z > R to AC.
speed. Figure shows the magnet about to move (4) it doesn’t have iron core so no inductance.
past the coil. Which of the graphs shows the 11. In figure, a lamp P is in series with an iron-core
resulting current pulse ? Take counterclockwise inductor L. When the switch S is closed, the
in figure current to be positive. brightness of the lamp rises relatively slowly to its
Magnet full brightness than it would do without the inductor.
(north pole facing This is due to
Plane of Coil is
the viewer)
nearer to you
w
w (1) the low resistance of P

I I (2) the induced-emf in L
(3) the low resistance of L
(1) t (2) t (4) the high voltage of the battery B
I I
(3) t (4) t
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11
Ans. 2 3 4 3 4 2 3 3 4 1 2
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

Hints & Solutions :
B.A Bvl IA
2. eddy currents are induced hence temp. is increased 6. = A= = Charge
R vl R vl
hence it melt.
7. Induced electric field would be produce
3. its motion is damped because magnetic flux
arround circular ring as shown
associated with the plate keeps on changing as
plate moves in & out of region between magnetic
poles, flux change induces eddy currents in plates,
charging of eddy current is opposite hence opposes
motion of plate.
r if r Þ E ¯
4. A force acts on it in opposite direction of motion
æ Bvl ö
F = Bç l
è R ÷ø
9. Initially for half revolution when magnet
moves towards the loop, flux increases
æ dv ö B l v
2 2
Mç ÷ =
è dt ø
Þ clockwise current. When magnet moves
R
away from the loop, flux decreases
V
dv B2 l2 t Þ anticlockwise current
ò v
= ò dt
mR0 0 10. In a rheostat, first the insulated thin wire is
V0
doubled and then wound around the insulated
cylinder. Thus, due to doubly wound wire it
æ v ö B 2 l2
ln ç ÷ = t has a non-inductive coil with L=0 & effective
è v 0 ø mR resistance only.
v
= e- t / T
v0 v
v = v0 e–t/T
mR t
where T =
B2 l 2
I
5. W = L ò I (dI)

0
I
W = ò LI2
0
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ALTERNATING CURRENT
1. r.m.s. value of A.C. is defined in terms of 7. Which is true for series R-L-C circuit :
(1) heating effect of current (1) The power rating of an element used in a.c.
circuit refers to its average power rating.
(2) chemical effect of current
(2) The power consumed in an a.c. circuit is
(3) magnetic effect of current
never negative
(4) none of these
(3) The power factor in a R-L-C circuit is a
2. An applied voltage signal consists of a measure of how close the circuit is to
superposition of a d.c. voltage and an a.c. expanding the maximum power.
voltage of high frequency. The circuit consists (4) All
of an inductor and a capacitor in series, then : 8. A choke coil is used for limiting current in
(1) d.c. signal will appear across L and C (1) dc circuit only (2) ac circuit only
(2) d.c. signal will appear across C and a.c. (3) in both ac and dc (4) electronic valves
signal across L. 9. Ohm's law expressed as V = IR
(3) d.c. signal will appear across L and a.c. (1) may never be applied to ac
signal across C (2) applied to ac in the same manner as to dc.
(4) across L and C a.c. signal will appears (3) always applies to ac circuits when z is
substituted for R
3. Which is true for a.c.
(4) tell us that Veff = 0.707 Vmax for ac
(1) r.m.s value is non-zero
10. To express AC power in the same from as DC
(2) average values is zero
power, a special value of current is defined and
(3) instantaneous values may be zero used, is called
(4) All of above (1) root mean square current (Irms)
4. Circuits used for transporting electric power, (2) effective current
requires :
(3) induced current
(1) low power factor
(4) both (1) and (2)
(2) high power factor
11. Which of the following figure shows that the
(3) zero power factor
Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\NCERT BASED OBJECTIVE_PHY(INSIDER)\ENG\XII\21. ALTERNATING CURRENT.P65
p
(4) any values of power factor current phasor I is behind the voltage phasor
2
5. More selective a.c. circuit should have : V.
(1) low R, high L Vm sin wt1
V
(2) low R, low L I
(1) wt1
(3) high R, high L im sin wt1
(4) high R, low L Vm sin wt1 V

6. Metal detector works on principle of
wt1
(1) Newton's third law (2)
I
(2) Resonance in a.c. circuit im sin(wt1–p/2)
(3) heating effect of current

(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) electrostatic shielding effect (4) Neither (1) nor (2)
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

di V Vm æ 1 ö
12. Equation = = sin wt implies that the 16. An alternating emf of frequency n = ç ÷
dt L L è 2 p LC ø
equation for i(t), the current as a function of
is applied to a series L–C–R circuit. For the
time, must be such that
frequency of the applied emf
di (1) the circuit is at resonance and its impedance
(1) its slope is a sinusoidally varying quantity
dt is made up only of a reactive part
with the same phase as the source voltage (2) The current in the circuit is in phase with the
applied emf and voltage across R equals the
Vm applied emf.
(2) an amplitude given by
wL (3) the sum of the potential difference across
(3) Both (1) and (2) the inductance and capacitance equals the
(4) Neither (1) nor (2) applied emf which is 180° ahead of phase
13. The phenomenon of resonance is common of the current in the circuit
among system that have a tendency wL
(1) to oscillate at a particular frequency (4) the quality factor of the circuit is or
R
(2) to get maximum amplitude
1
(3) Both (1) and (2) and this is measure of the voltage
wCR
(4) Neither (1) and (2) magnification (produced by the circuit) at
14. Figure shows the variation of im with w in a resonance as well as the sharpness of
resonance of the circuit
1.0 17. A value of w for which the current amplitude is
F(i) 1
im (A) times its maximum value. At this value the
2
0.5 (ii)
power dissipated by the circuit becomes
(1) double (2) one-fourth
(3) one-third (4) half
w0
18. When a capacitor (initially charged) is connected
0.0 0.5 1.0 1.5 2.0 to a inductor, the charge on the capacitor and
w (rad/s)
the current in the circuit exhibit the phenomenon of

(1) electrical oscillations
(1) R–L–C circuit (2) R–L circuit
(2) induction
(3) R–C circuit (4) None of these
(3) power factor
15. In tuning we vary the capacitance of a capacitor
in the tuning circuit such that the resonant (4) All of these
frequency of the circuit becomes nearly equal 19. Choose the incorrect
to the frequency of the radio signal received. (1) Phasor diagram say nothing about the initial
When this happens, the ......A...... with the condition
frequency of the signal of the particular radio (2) Any arbitrary value of t, draw different
station in the circuit is maximum. Here, A refers phasor which show the relative angle
to between different phasors. The solution, so
(1) Resonant frequency obtained is called the steady-state solution
(2) Impedance (3) We do have a transient solution which exists
even for v = 0. The general solution is the
(3) Amplitude of the current
sum of transient solution and the steady-
(4) Reactance state solution
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

20. Choose the INCORRECT options 22. Same current is flowing in two alternating
(1) If the resonance is less sharp, not only is the circuits. The first circuit contains only
maximum current less, the circuit is close to inductance and the other circuit contains only a
resonance for a larger range Dw of capacitance. If the frequency of the e.m.f. of
frequencies and the tuning of the circuit will A.C. is increased, the effect on the value of the
not be good. current will be
(1) increase in the first circuit and decrease in
(2) Less sharp the resonance less is the selectivity
the other
of the circuit or vice-versa
(2) increased in both circuits
(3) If quality factor is large i.e. R is low or L is
(3) decrease in both circuits
large the circuit is more selective
(4) decrease in the first circuit and increase in
(4) None of the above the other
21. L–C oscillation is not realistic for the following 23. Non-resonant circuit, what will be the nature of
reasons. Which of following reasons is circuit for frequencies higher them the resonant
INCORRECT? frequency ?
(1) Every inductor has some resistance (1) Resistive
(2) Capacitive
(2) The effect of resistance is to introduce a
damping effect on the charge and current in (3) Inductive
the circuit and the oscillations finally dies (4) None of these
away. 24. A choke is preferred over a resistance for
limiting current in AC circuit because
(3) Even if the resistance is zero, the total
energy of the system would not remain (1) choke is cheap
constant. It is radiated away from the system (2) there is no wastage of power
in the form of electromagnetic waves (3) choke is compact in size
(4) None of the above (4) choke is a good absorber of heat
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 1 2 4 2 1 2 4 2 3 4 2 3 1 1 3 2 4 1 4 4
Que. 21 22 23 24
Ans. 4 4 3 2
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

HINTS & SOLUTION 13. For resonance circuit must have internal
1. Chemical and magnetic effect depends on frequency.
direction of current but heating effect not 14. Resonance and quality factor
depends on direction of flow of current. 15. At Resonance amplitude becomes maximum.
2. A signal appears across that element for which 16. When external frequency = circuit frequency,
it comes across high impedance. then circuit is at resonance and XL = XC and
3. The average value of a.c. is zero because it V
oscillates symmetrically between positive and i= .
R
negative values.
4. Pav = Vrms Irms cos f, when power factor (cos f) 1
is low then Irms is large. Since power transmitted 17. At half power frequency current becomes .
2
at fixed voltage, with large Irms, (Ploss = I2rmsR)
is high. 1
18. w=
X L Lw LC
5. Q= =
R R i
6. When we walk through metal detector with (1)
metal the impedance changes then current also R1<R2 X L wL
20. (2) Q= =
changes in circuit, then cause a sound. R R
10. irms = effective value of current w
w0
11. Phase is R way of represent, phases of current
and voltage is AC. 21. Damping always occurs practically.
22. w XL XC ¯
di Vm
12. = sin wt
dt L
Vm
i= (–cos wt)
wL
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES
1. Choose the correct statement : 9. EM waves can be produced by:
(1) Time-dependent electric and magnetic fields (1) Stationary charges
give rise to each other (2) Charges in uniform motion
(2) Time dependent electric field gives rise to (3) Accelerated charges
magnetic field but vice-versa is not true (4) Accelerated mass
(3) Time dependent magnetic field gives rise to 10. If the total energy transferred to a surface in
electric field but vice-versa is not true time t is U, then magnitude of total momentum
(4) There is no dependence between time delivered to a surface (for complete absorption)
varying electric field and magnetic field is given by :
2. Which waves are suitable for Radar systems
U 2U
used in aircraft navigation ? (1) p = (2) p =
C C
(1) Radio waves
(2) Micro waves U 3U
(3) Infrared waves (3) p = (4) p =
2C 2C
(4) Visible rays 11. Particle related to an electromagnetic wave is :
3. Which waves are produced by red hot bodies ? (1) Electron (2) Proton
(1) Visible light (3) Photon (4) Phonon
12. Geiger tubes can detect which radiations :
(2) Ultraviolet rays
(1) Microwaves (2) Radiowaves
(3) Infrared rays (3) Infrared rays (4) Gamma radiations
(4) Microwaves 13. EM waves used for studying crystal structure of
solids :
4. Snakes can detect which of the following
(1) X-rays (2) Microwaves
electro magnetic waves ?
(3) Radio waves (4) g-rays
(1) X-rays (2) Gamma rays
14. In a wave motion,
(3) Ultraviolet rays (4) Infrared waves
y = a sin (kx – wt)
5. Exposure to which radiation produces more
y can represent :
melanin ; causing tanning of the skin :
Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\NCERT BASED OBJECTIVE_PHY(INSIDER)\ENG\XII\22. ELECTROMANGETIC WAVES.P65
(1) Electric field (2) Magnetic field

(1) UV radiation (2) Infrared rays
(3) Pressure (4) All of these
(3) X-rays (4) Gamma rays
15. Infrared radiations are detected by ;
6. UV lamps are used to :
(1) As detectors in satellites (1) Photocell (2) Pyrometer
(2) See the world around us (3) Monometer (4) Photometer
(3) Kill germs in water purifiers 16. If the frequency of oscillating particle is 'n',
(4) Communicate through Cellular phones then the frequency of oscillation of its energy
7. Which rays can damage or destroy living tissues is :
and organisms in case of unnecessary or over (1) n (2) 2n
exposure :
n
(1) X-rays (2) Cathode rays (3) (4) 4n
2
(3) Ultraviolet rays (4) Infrared waves
8. Which high frequency radiation is produced in 17. If Vs, Vx and Vm are the speed of gamma rays,
nuclear reactions and also emitted by X-rays and microwaves respectively in vaccum,
radioactive nuclei : then :
(1) Infrared rays (2) Gamma rays (1) Vs > Vx > Vm (2) Vs < Vx < Vm
(3) Ultraviolet rays (4) Microwave (3) Vs > Vm > Vx (4) Vs = Vx = Vm
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

23. Water molecules rotate about own axis with
18. If sun radiates electromagnetic energy of frequency equivalent to that of :
3.9 × 10 26 watt and radius of sun is (1) Radio waves (2) Micro waves
6.96 × 108 m then intensity of sunlight at the (3) Ultraviolet rays (4) None of these
solar surface will be :- 24. Porcelain container remains unaffected and cool
(1) 5.6 × 106 W/m2 (2) 6.4 × 107 W/m2 inside microwave oven because its molecules
(3) 4.2 × 106 W/m2 (4) 4.2 × 107 W/m2 does not absorb radiation energy as its molecules
vibrate and rotate with frequency :
19. The electric and magnetic field of an
(1) Higher than microwave frequency
electromagnetic wave are : (2) Lower than microwave frequency
(1) In phase and parallel to each other (3) Same as microwave frequency
(2) In opposite phase and perpendicular to each (4) Porcelain molecules are large so they don't
other vibrate and rotate
(3) In opposite phase and parallel to each other 25. If antenna of portable AM radio is turned from
(4) In phase and perpendicular to each other vertical to horizintal position then signals are
20. A wave is propagating in a medium of electric greatly diminished due to phenomenon of :
(1) Interference (2) Diffraction
dielectric constant 2 and relative magnetic
(3) Polarization (4) Reflection
permeability 50. The wave impedance of such 26. Heat waves are :
a medium is : (1) Radio waves (2) X-rays
(1) 5 W (2) 376.6 W (3) Infrared (4) Ultraviolet
(3) 1883 W (4) 3776 W 27. TV remote uses which radiations :
21. A compass is placed between the plates of (1) Radio wave (2) Micro wave
charging capacitor, then its deflection will : (3) Infrared (4) UV
28. LASIK (Laser-assisted in situ keratomileusis)
(1) Be zero always
eye surgery uses which radiations :
(2) will be non-zero always
(1) Microwave (2) Radiowaves
(3) will become zero at steady state (3) UV rays (4) g-radiations
(4) None 29. Electromagnetic waves transport :
22. A parallel plate capacitor with plate area A and (1) Only energy
separation between plate d, is charged by a (2) Only momentum
constant current I. Consider a plane surface of (3) both energy and momentum
(4) neither energy nor momentum
A 30. Microwaves are produced by:
area parallel to plates, what is displacement

4 (1) Vibrations of atoms
current through this area : (2) Radioactive decay
(3) Klystron valve
I I (4) Transition of electron from higher to lower
(1) I (2) 2I (3) (4)
4 2 energy level
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 1 2 3 4 1 3 1 2 3 1 3 4 1 4 2 2 4 2 4 3
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 3 3 2 2 3 3 3 3 3 3
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

Hints and Solutions : A A
22.
1. According to Faraday's law, magnetic field 4
changing with time gives rise to an electric field
and the fact that an electric field changing with
time gives rise to a magnetic field, is the
symmetrical counterpart, and is a consequence source
if the displacement current being a source of
Id = Ie – I
magnetic field. Thus, time dependent electric
and magnetic field give rise to each other
Now current density J =
I
( I' ) = J ´ A4
æ r ur
d
df B ö A
ç Ñò E . dl = - dt ÷
è ø A ' I
So, current through area will be I d = 4
2. NCERT Pg.#281 4
3. Infrared rays are sometimes referred as heat 23. Frequency of rotation of water molecules is
waves. (NCERT Pg.#282) 2.45 GHz. ,When microwave of this frequency
4. NCERT Pg.#282 incident over water molecules then water
molecules absorb this radiation which is
5. NCERT Pg.#282
equivalent to heating of water. it is basic concept
6. NCERT Pg.#282 of working of microwave oven.
7. NCERT Pg.#283 24. Due to large molecules size vibrational and
8. NCERT Pg.#283 rotational frequencies are much smaller to
9. NCERT Pg.#274 absorb energy of radiations.
10. NCERT Pg.#277 25. If an AM radio has a telescopic antenna it
responds to electric part of the signal when
14. In a wave equation, variation can be in pressure,
antenna is turned horizontal then signals are
electric and magnetic field.
greatly diminished.
15. The heating effect produced by infrared
26. Water molecules present in most materials
radiations can be detected by pyrometer.
readily absorb IR radiation. After absorption
17. All EM waves travel in vaccum with the same their thermal motion increases i.e., they heat up
speed c. and heat then surrounding.
P 3.9 ´ 10 26 27. Semiconductor devices like LED etc. emit IR
18. I= = = 6.4 ´ 10 7 radiations which is used in TV remote.
A 4pr 2
28. UV radiations can be focussed into very narrow
mr m beams for high precision application such as

20. Z= ´ 0 LASIK eye surgery.
er e0
29. EM waves carry energy which is shared equally
in electric and magnetic fields. It transport
50
= ´ 376.6 U
2 momentum also as p = where U is energy
C
= 1883 W transferred to surface in time 't'.
21. When capacitor is fully charged then EF inside 30. Klystron valve, thermionic electron tube
it become constant and there will be no induced generates or amplifies microwaves by
magnetic field. controlling the speed of a stream of electrons.
31. A Geiger counter (Geiger-Muller tube) is a
device used for the detection and measurement
of all types of radiations a, b and g radiations.
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

RAY OPTICS
1. The phenomenon of scattering obey Rayleigh's 6. Sun is visible a little before sunrise and until
a little after the actual sunset due to
1
law i.e. I µ . Therefore, then the traffic (1) Reflection
l4
(2) Refraction
signals are of red colour. In this case the (3) Scattering
scattering particle (air molecules) should have (4) Total internal reflection
size 7. While moving in a bus or a car during a hot
(1) greater than the wave length summer day, a distant patch on road appears
to be wet. It is due to
(2) smaller than the wave length
(1) Reflection
(3) of the order of wavelength (2) Total internal reflection
(4) None (3) Scattering
2. Paraxial rays in geometrical optics are those (4) Dispersion
8. Clouds which have droplets of water appear to
rays which are
white. This happens because of
(1) parallel to principal axis making large angle (1) Dispersion
of incidence (2) Scattering
(2) non-parallel to principal axis (3) Chromatic aberration
(3) parallel to principal axis making small angle (4) Total internal reflection
9. In modern microscopes, multi component
of incidence
lenses are used for both objective and eye lens
(4) None to improve image quality by minimising.
3. If an object is placed in front of a concave (1) Reflection (2) Optical aberration
mirror and the lower half of the mirror is (3) Magnifying power (4) Scattering
covered with opaque material then what 10. Thick lenses shows chromatic aberration due to
happens (1) Refraction
(1) lower half of the object will be seen as image (2) Total internal reflection
(2) upper half of the object will be seen as image (3) Dispersion
(3) No change in the image will taken place (4) Scattering
(4) image will be completely formed with less intensity 11. Rainbow formation is due to
4. Optical fibre consists of core and cladding (a) Refraction (b) Dispersion
(c) Internal reflection (d) Scattering Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\NCERT BASED OBJECTIVE_PHY(INSIDER)\ENG\XII\23. RAY OPTICS.P65
whose refractive index are related as
(1) a and b (2) a, b and c
(1) mcore = mclading (3) b and c (4) b, c and d
(2) mcore > mclading 12. The condition for observing a rainbow are that
(3) mcore < mclading sun should be shining in one part of the sky
while it would be raining in
(4) No relation between them
(1) same part of sky
5. Dispersion occurs due to (2) opposite part of sky
(1) Refractive index of medium for different (3) rain is not required
frequencies is same (4) it can rain anywhere
(2) Refractive index of medium for different 13. In secondary rainbow there are
frequencies is different (1) 1 internal reflection
(3) Refractive index is different for same (2) 2 internal reflection
frequency (3) No internal reflection
(4) It does not depends on frequency (4) Depends on the size of water droplet
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
14. Modern telescopes are designed in such a way 21. A person can see his inverted image in a
that there is no chromatic aberration present. concave mirror when he is
It is used by having (1) between focus and center of curvature (C)
(1) Convex lens (2) beyond C
(2) Concave mirror (3) between focus & pole
(3) Both concave mirror and convex lens (4) at focus
(4) Prism 22. Which of the following colours of white light
15. Laws of reflection are strictly valid for deviated most when passes through a prism.
(1) Plane surfaces (1) Red light (2) Violet light
(2) Rough surfaces (3) Yellow light (4) Both (1) & (2)
(3) All types of surfaces 23. An under-water swimmer cannot see very
(4) None of these clearly even in absolutely clear water because of
16. A short pulse of white light is incident from air (1) absorption of light in water
to a glass slab at normal incidence. After (2) scattering of light in water
travelling through the slab, the first colour to
(3) reduction of speed of light in water
emerge is
(1) Blue (2) Green (3) Violet (4) Red (4) change in the focal length of eye lens
17. A passenger in an aeroplane shall 24. The direction of ray of light incident on a
(1) Never see a rainbow concave mirror is shown by PQ while direction
(2) may see a primary and a secondary rainbow in which the ray would travel after reflection
is shown by four rays, marked 1,2,3 and 4
as concentric circles
which of the four rays correctly shows the
(3) may see a primary and a secondary rainbow
direction of reflected ray ?
as concentric arcs.
1
(4) shall never see a secondary rainbow
18. In telescope, which mirror is used as objective Q
2 4
instead of convex lens
(1) Parabolic concave mirror
C f
(2) Plane mirror
(3) Convex mirror 3
Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\NCERT BASED OBJECTIVE_PHY(INSIDER)\ENG\XII\23. RAY OPTICS.P65
P
(4) Mirror can't be used
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
19. Objective lens of telescope has large aperature
25. Optical denseness of a medium is measured in
(1) to increase intensity and resolving power
terms of _____.
(2) to reduce resolving power
(1) refractive index (2) mass density
(3) to obtain small magnifying power
(3) (1) & (2) both (4) can't measure
(4) to reduce intensity
26. An air bubble is formed inside water. It act as
20. In vacuum, all colours
a :-
(1) have same speed
(1) convex mirror
(2) have different-different speed
(2) converging lens
(3) do not move
(3) diverging lens
(4) absorb all colours
(4) plane mirror
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

27. An object is first seen in red light and then in 31. A diminished image of an object is to be
violet light through a simple microscope. In obtained on a screen 1.0 m away from it. This
which case, the magnifying power is more. can be achieved by approximately placing:
(1) violet light (1) a convex mirror of suitable focal length
(2) red light
(3) same in both light (2) a concave mirror of suitable focal length
(4) can't see magnified image (3) a convex lens of focal length more than 0.25 m
28. A prism is made up of flint glass whose
dispersive power is 0.053. Find the angle of (4) a concave lens of suitable focal length.
dispersion if the mean refractive index of flint 32. Shown in the figure is a bi-convex lens made
glass is 1.68 and the refracting angle of prism of different transparent strips of two different
is 3º . refractive indexes. If the parallel rays of light
(1) 20.08º (2) 10.08º is incident on the lens then select INCORRECT
(3) 0.208º (4) 0.108º statement
29. How does refractive index (m) of a material vary n1
with respect to wavelength (l) ? A and B are
n2
constants
B
(1) m = A + Bl2 (2) m = A +
l2
B
(3) m = A + Bl (4) m = A +
l
30. Consider the metal coin in figure. The right half (1) rays will intersect before focussing
is polished, while left half is unpolished.
(2) rays will be focussed at two different points
(3) the lens may have four focal points
different from each other.
Polished
Unpolished (4) None of the these
33. Between the primary and secondary rainbows,
there is a dark bank known as Alexander's dark
In a dark room, this coin is placed face up on band. This is because :-
the floor and illuminated with a thin-beamed (1) Ligh scattered into this region interfore
flashlight, as shown in figure. A and B look at destructively
the coin from the position as indicated in figure. (2) There is no light scattered into this region Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\NCERT BASED OBJECTIVE_PHY(INSIDER)\ENG\XII\23. RAY OPTICS.P65
B eye (3) Light is absorbed in this region

Flashlight beam (4) Angle made at the eye by the scattered rays
with respect to the incident light of the sun
A eye lies between approximately 42° and 50°
·
34. A magnitying lens is used, as the object to be

veiwed can be brought closer to the eye than
Floor the normal near point. This :-
coin (1) A larger angle to be subtended by the object
According to A, which half of the coin at the eye and hence, viewed in greater
(if either) is brighter? detail.
(1) The polished half (2) The formation of real erect image.
(2) The unpolished half (3) Increase in the field of view
(3) Both halves look equally bright (4) Infinite magnification at the near point
(4) Both halves look completely dark
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

35. The phenomena involved in the reflection of 36. The apparent depth of a tank filled with water:-
radiowaves by ionosphere is similar to :-
(1) Will be more for oblique viewing
(1) Reflection of light by a plane mirror
(2) Total internal reflection of light in air during (2) Will be more for normal viewing
a mirage (3) Is independent of the angle of viewing
(3) Dispersion of light by water molecules
(4) None of above
during the formation of a ranbow
(4) Scattering of light by the particles of air
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 2 3 4 2 2 2 2 2 2 3 2 2 2 2 3
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 4 2 1 1 1 2 2 4 1 1 3 1 4 2 1
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36
Ans. 2 4 1, 4 1 2 2
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

Hints & Solutions 12. An observer can see a rainbow only when his
1. When the scattering particles are of size smaller back is towards the sun i.e. sun should be
than the wavelength of light then only shining in one part of sky and it should be
raning in opposite part of the sky.
Rayleigh's law is applicable. Due to this traffic
13. In primary rainbow there is in one internal
signals are of red colour.
reflection where as in secondary rainbow there
2. Paraxial rays are those rays which are incident are two internal reflection.
at a point close to the pole of the mirror and
14. There is no chromatic aberration in mirror, so
makes small angle with principal axis telescope with mirror objectives are called
3. By taking the laws of reflection to be true for reflecting telescopes
all points of the total mirror, the image will be 15. Laws of reflection are valid for all types of
that of the whole object but as the area of surfaces i.e. plane and rough surface
reflecting surface has been reduced, the 16. Freuqency does not change during refraction
intensity of image will decreases. so the velocity of red colour is maximum in
4. Optical fibre has core and cladding in which glass.
the refractive index of core is greater than 17. A passenger in an aeroplane may see primary
refractive index fo cladding so that total internal and secondary rainbow as concentric circles.
reflection takes place from the boundary of 18. Parabolic concave mirror is used because it is
core-cladding interface. free from spherical and chromatic aberration.
5. Dispersion takes place because refractive index 20. vacuum is a non-dispersive medium in which
of medium for different frequency is different all colours travel with same speed.
for eg ® The bending of red light component
21. When person is between focus & centre of
is least and that of violet part is maximum
curvature and at focus, his inverted image is
6. It is due to refraction of light through the
atmosphere. By actual sunrise we mean the formed behind him, but when he stands
actual crossing of the horizon by the sun. Due beyond C, image is formed between focus and
to refraction the apparent shift in the direction center of curvature is in front of him and thus
of sun is about half a degree and corresponding he is able to see his image.
time difference is about 2 minutes.
26. Because refractive index of lens material is
7. This is due to mirages which are caused by
greater than medium therefore air bubble show
total internal reflection.
8. When sunlight is incident on the particle whose diverging nature
size is large as compared to wavelength then D
scattering of all colours are same. 27. M.P. = 1+ Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\NCERT BASED OBJECTIVE_PHY(INSIDER)\ENG\XII\23. RAY OPTICS.P65
f
9. optical aberration i.e. defects of image due to Q fv < fR
lenses i.e. chromatic and spherical aberration so, the magnifying power is larger when the
can be minimized by using multi component object is seen in violet light.
lenses. 28. As the refracting angle is small deviation
10. When white light passes through thick lenses, = (m – 1) A
red and blue colour are focussed at different angle of dispersion
points which is called chromatic aberration
= (m v - 1) A - (mr - 1) A = (m v - mr ) A
11. Rainbow formation is due to the combined
effect of dispersion, total internal reflection and æ m - mr ö
A (mmean - 1) = w A (m
mean - 1)
= ç v
refraction. When sunlight is incident on è mmean - 1÷ø
rainwater droplet then dispersion occurs from
= (0.053) ´ 3 ´ (1.68 - 1) = 0.108°
Ist face, internal reflection occurs from IInd face
and again refraction occurs from I st face by B
which rainbow is formed 29. Cauchy's formula is m = A +
l2
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

30. The light reflects of the coin and reaches A's Þ It has a focal length f1 given as
eye.
R1
f1 = 2(n - 1)
1
Similarly rays 2 and 4 passes through the

medium 2.
Þ It has a focal length
R1
f2 = 2(n - 1)
2
when n2 > n1, f2 < f1 and vice versa.

As the polished half is smoother than the Therefore, there are two focal points at right
unpolished half, hence the polished half ¢ R2
behaves more like a mirror. So, most of the hand sides; for the other sides f1 =
2(n1 - 1)
light striking the polished half of the coin
R2
reflects instead of going diffusion reflection. and f2¢ = . Therefore, another two
Hence, A sees a high percentage of the light 2(n 2 - 1)
that hits the polished part of the coin.Light focal points are for left hand side. We see that
hitting the unpolished half undergoes more the focal points (focal lengths) need not to be
diffuse reflection, bouncing off the coin in all same if R1 ¹ R2 we obtain four focal points but
different directions. Hence, a smaller they are different from each other.
percentage of that light reaches A's eyes. So, 33. Alexander's dark band lies between primary
for A the polished half looks more brighter than and secondary rainbows, forms due to light
the unpolished half. scattered into this region interfere destructively.
31. Image can be formed on the screen if it is real.
Primary rainbow subtends an angle nearly 41°
Real image of reduced size can be formed by
to 42° at observer's eye, whereas secondary
a concave mirror or a convex lens of maximum
rainbows subtends an angle nearly 51° to 54°
focal D/4.
at observer's eye w.r.t. incident light ray.
32. Shown in the ray diagram, is an incident beam
So the scat tered rays with respect to the
of parallel rays 1,2,3 & 4. Rays 1 & 3 pass
incident light of the sun lies between
through the medium 1
approximately 42° and 50°.
1
2
3
4
F2 F1
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

WAVE OPTICS
1. Wave theory of light is not initially accepted 6. In the phenomenon of interference, energy
because :- is :-
(1) It does not explain reflection and refraction (1) Destroyed at destructive interference
processes (2) Created at contructive interference
(2) It does not explain photoelectric effect (3) Conserved but it is redistributed
(3) It does not explain doppler's effect (4) Same at all points
(4) It does not explain propagation of light 7. The shape of the fringe obtained on the screen
through vacuum in case of YDSE is :-
2. According to Maxwell light waves are associated (1) a straight line (2) a parabola
with :- (3) a hyperbola (4) a circle
(1) a constant magnitude electric field 8. In young's double slit experiment, if source S
(2) a magnetic field of constant magnitude is shifted by an angle f as shown. Then central-
(3) changing electric and magnetic fields bright fringe will be shifted by angle f towards:-
(4) electric and magnetic fields of constant magnitude S' A
S1
3. A wavefront is a :-
(1) a surface imagined parallel and coplaner f
S 0
with light rays
(2) a surface around a source such that each S2 B
point of it is at a constant distance from the
(1) end A of screen
source
(2) end B of screen
(3) a surface which contains the plane of
(3) does not shift at all
oscillations of electric field of light
(4) either end A or B depending on extra phase
(4) a surface which is created by medium
difference caused by shifting of source
particles oscillating in same phase
9. In young's double-slit experiment the central
4. If AB is incident wavefront. Then refracted
bright fringe can be identified.
wavefront (just after transmission) is :-
(1) as it has greater intensity than the other
bright fringe
A (2) as it is wider than the other bright fringes
(3) as it is narrower than the other bright fringe
(4) by using white light instead of
Biconvex
B lens monochromatic light
10. Diffraction is a general characteristic exhibited Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\NCERT BASED OBJECTIVE_PHY(INSIDER)\ENG\XII\24. WAVE OPTICS.P65
by:-
A' A' A' A' (1) Sound waves (2) Light waves
(3) Water waves (4) All of the above
(1) (2) (3) (4) 11. For better resolution, a telescope must have
B' B' B' B' a :-
(1) Large diameter objective
5. Two source are said to be coherent when :-
(2) Small diameter objective
(1) Phase difference between waves produced
(3) May be large
by them is a function of time
(4) Neither large nor small
12. The resolving power of a microscope is
by them is p/2
basically determined by the :-
(1) Speed of the light used
by them is 0
(2) Wavelength of the light used
(4) Phase difference between them remains
(3) Both (1) and (2)
constant with time
(4) Neither (1) nor (2)
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

13. Which of the given statement is/are correct for 18. When plane polarized light having plane of
phenomenon of diffraction ? incident as plane of vibration is incident at
(i) For diffraction through a single-slit the Brewster's angle :-
wavelength of wave must be comparable (1) reflected light will be polarised

(2) There will be no reflection
to the size of the slite
(3) there will be no refraction
(ii) The diffraction is very common in sound (4) none of the above
19. When scattering sunlight is being caused by air
wave but not so common in light waves
molecule in sky it rediate energy :-
(iii)Diffraction is only observed in electro- (1) Equally in all direction
magnetic waves (2) Maximum energy in the direction of
oscillations
(1) Only i (2) ii and iii (3) No energy in the direction of oscillations
(4) Does not radiate energy at all
(3) i and ii (4) i, ii, and iii
20. Beyond Fresnel distance :-
14. The phenomenon of polarisation of light (1) Diffraction becomes insignificant
indicates that :- (2) Diffraction are smaller compared to the size
(1) light is a longitudinal wave of beam
(3) Spreading of light due to diffraction
(2) light is a transverse electromagnetic wave dominates over ray optics
(3) light is a transverse wave only (4) Ray optics is valid
21. Mark incorrect option :-
(4) either (2) or (3)
(1) A telescope produces images of far object
15. Which factor could possibly influence the near to eye
speed of light in vacuum :- (2) A telescope produces images of far object
(1) Motion of the source or observer magnified
(3) A microscope produces images of near
(2) Frequency of light/wave length of light
object magnified
(3) Intensity of light wave (4) A microscope produces image of near
(4) None of the above object far from eye
22. Presence of oil in oil immerged microscope is
16. Which factor could possibly influence the
to:-
speed of light in isotropic medium :-
(1) to increase magnification of microscope
(1) Direction of propogation (2) increase aperture of microscope
Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\NCERT BASED OBJECTIVE_PHY(INSIDER)\ENG\XII\24. WAVE OPTICS.P65
(3) increase numerical aperture of microscope

(2) Nature of source
(4) to make numerical aperture less than one
(3) Motion of source relative to the medium in microscope
(4) Motion of the observer relative to the 23. Interference and diffraction effect are :-
medium (1) Inconsistent with energy conservation
(2) Consistent with energy conservation
17. When scattering of light is taking place and (3) Destruction in region of darkness
observer is observing at 90º scattered light will (4) Creation of energy in the region of
be :- brightness
(1) Unpolarized 24. How we can increase number of interference
fringes inside the central maxima of diffraction
(2) Partially polarised
patter of double slit :-
(3) Circularly polarised (1) by increasing distance of the screen
(4) Perfectly plane polarised (2) by increasing size of slits
(3) by decreasing seperation between slits
(4) by decreasing size of slits
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

25. What is the effect on the interference fringes 33. A plane wavefront is incident on a prism then
in YDSE when source slit moved closer to the emerging wavefront will be :-
double slit plane :- (1) Plane
(1) b increases
(2) b decrease (2) Spherical
(3) Fringes become less sharp (3) Cylindrical
(4) fringes become more sharp
(4) None
26. What is the effect on interference fringes in
YDSE when width of the source slit increased. 34. Which statement is wrong about interference
(1) b increases and diffraction :-
(1) In interference distance between bright and
(2) b decreases
dark is same but in diffraction width of
(3) Fringes become less sharp central maxima is double of other maxima
(4) Fringes become more sharp (2) Interference pattern is superposition of two
27. For two light source to be coherent :- waves originating from two narrow slits
(1) their amplitude must be same diffraction pattern is superposition of a
(2) phase of wave should not change continuous family of waves originating
(3) phase difference between waves must from each point on a single slit
remain constant (3) For a single slit of width a the first null of
(4) wave must be transverse the interference pattern occurs at an angle
28. The principle of superposition of waves applies
l l
whenever two or more sources of light :- of . At the same angle of we get a
a a
(1) are coherent
maxima for two narrow slits separated by
(2) are of same frequency
a distance a
(3) obtained from same source (4) Intensity is same for all bright band in
(4) illuminate the same point interference and diffraction
29. The equation of a light wave is written as 35. In double slit experiment if one slit is blocked
y = Asin (kx – wt). Here y represents :- then what we get on screen.
(1) displacement of ether particles (1) Uniform brightness on screen
(2) Pressure in the medium (2) Diffraction pattern on screen
(3) density of medium (3) Interference pattern remain same
(4) Electric field (4) Intensity becomes half of Initial intensity
30. Light waves emitted from an ordinary source 36. If a medium is placed between object and
change in time of order of :- objective lens of microscope then resolving
(1) 10 –2 sec (2) 10–8 sec power of microscope will :-
(3) 10 sec
–4
(4) 1 sec (1) Increase
31. A plane wavefront is incident on concave
(2) Decrease
mirror then spherical wavefront will converge
at :- (3) No change
(1) focus (2) centre of curvature
(4) Nothing can be prediced
f 37. Colour appear in CD is due to :-
(3) infinity (4) point
2
(1) Interference
32. What happens when two separate light source
illuminate a wall :- (2) Diffraction
(1) Uniform illumination (3) Polarisation
(2) Interference fringes
(4) None
(3) Dark appear
(4) Four times intensity of each source
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

38. If the light from an ordinary source passes 44. When a low flying aircraft passes overhead a
through a polaroid sheet then intensity of light slight shaking picture appear on our T.V.
becomes:- screen. This is due to :-
(1) half (1) Wind effect on antenna
(2) T.V. gets vibrated due to aircraft pressure
(2) remain same
(3) Interference of signal
(3) one fourth (4) Polarization of signal
(4) Three fourth 45. What will be the shape of wavefront when light
39. An ordinary light is pass from a polaroid emerging out of a convex lens for a point
sheet P 1 . Then after P 1 another polaroid sheet source placed at its focus ?
P 2 is placed then. Intensity of light after P 2 (1) Spherical (2) Planar
will be :- (3) Cylindrical (4) None
(1) remain same 46. What will be the shape of wavefront for the
(2) half portion of the wavefront of light from distant
source.
(3) Zero
(1) Spherical (2) Planar
(4) Charge from zero to half of intensity of (3) Cylindrical (4) None
unpolarised light when P 2 is rotate
47. Huygen's principle of secondary wavelets may
perpendicular to direction of propagation
be used to :-
40. Light appears to travel in straight line since :-
(1) Find new position of a wavefront
(1) It is not absorbed by the atmosphere (2) Explain snell's law
(2) It is reflected by the atmosphere (3) Explain law of reflection
(3) Its wavelength is very small (4) All of these
(4) Its velocity is very large 48. Doppler effect of light is the basis for the
measurement of :-
41. In a single slit diffraction experiment, the width
of the slit is made double the original width. (1) Radial velocities of distant galaxies
How does this affect the intensity of the central
(2) Velocity of light
diffraction band ?
(1) becomes double (3) Velocity of observer
(2) becomes half (4) None
(3) becomes one-fourth 49. In the wave picture of light, intensity of light
(4) becomes 4 times is determined by the square of amplitude of the
wave. What determines the intensity of light in
42. When a tiny circular obstacle is placed in the
the photon picture of light at a given frequency?

path of light from distant source. What is
(1) No. of photon crossing an unit area per unit
observed at the centre of the shadow of the
time
obstacle.
(2) Area of cross section only
(1) Dark spot (3) Density of medium
(2) Bright spot (4) All of these
(3) Dark & bright fringe 50. Upto what distance ray optics is valid in
(4) None diffraction.
43. On which factor speed of light in a medium a2 a
(1) (2)
depends :- l l2
(1) Nature of source
a a2
(2) Direction of propagation (3) (4)
l l2
(3) Wavelegnth
Where a is size of aperture
(4) None of these
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

51. Consider sunlight incident on a pinhole of 52. Consider the diffraction pattern for a small
width 103 Å. The image of the pinhole seen on pinhole. As the size of the hole is increased :-
a screen shall be :- (1) The intensity increases
(1) A sharp white ring
(2) The intensity decreases
(2) Different from a geometrical image
(3) The intensity remains constant
(3) A diffused central spot, white in colour
(4) Diffused coloured region around a sharp (4) Intensity will be disappeared
central white spot
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 4 3 4 2 4 3 3 2 4 4 1 2 3 2 4 4 4 2 3 3
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 2 3 2 4 3 3 3 4 4 2 1 1 1 4 2 1 2 1 4 3
Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52
Ans. 4 2 4 3 2 2 4 1 1 1 2, 4 1
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

Hints & Solutions
//
1. The wave theory was not readily accepted 31.
///
because light could travel through vacuum and
////////
it was felt that a wave would always require a Z F
medium to propagate from one point to the
///
other. These two facts contradict each other. Concave mirror
2. Light wave consists of electric and magnetic
field which are time and space varying field. 32. Two separate sources are two independent
3. A wavefront is locus of all the particles source meanes two non coherent source, so we
oscillating in same phase. obtain average intensity (uniform intensity).
5. Two source are coherent then the phase
33. Time between object means incident wave
difference f at any point will not change with
front & image (emergent wave front) will be
time and we will have a stable interference
same for every point hight will take more time
pattern.
to cross prism but upper side it will take less
6. In the phenomenon of interference, energy in
time so cover more distance as compare to base
conserved but it is redistributed. In interference
of prism towards base of prism.
of light, the enegy is transferred from the region
of destructive interference to the region of
constructive interference. The average energy
being always equal to the sum of the energies
of the interfering waves. Thus the phenomenon
of interference is in complete agreement with
the law of conservation of energy.
34. In interference intensity same for all bright
9. By using white light, the central maxima will
band but in diffraction. It decrease when we
be white while the fringes closest on either side
move away from central maxima.
of central fringe is red and farthest will appear
blue. 35. Due to one slit we obtain diffraction pattern on
11. Thus DQ will be small if the diameter of the screen.
objective is large. This implies that the
2m sin b
telescope will have better resolving power if 'a' 36. Resolving power =
is large. It is for this reason that for better 1.22 l
resolution, a telescope must have a large
diameter objective.
38.
12. From equation d min 1.22l
=
2m sin q Intensity Intensity
I I/2
It is to be noted that it is not possible to make
39. According to malus law
sin q larger than unity. Thus, we see the
resolving power of a microscope is basically I
I' = cos2 q
determined by the wavelength of light used. 2
when q = 90 I' = 0
14. The phenomenon of polarisation is based on
the fact that light waves are transverse E.M. I
when q = 0 I' =
wave. 2
30. When e – move from ground state to excited when 0 < q < 90°
state. Then it remain 10–8 sec in excited state 0 < I' < I/2
and come to ground state.
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

40. Light has a wavelength of about half a 48. According to Huygen's principle, each point of
micrometer. If it encounters an obstacle of the wavefront is the source of a secondary
about this size, it can bend around it and can disturbance and the wavelets emanating from
be seen on the other side. these points spread out in all direction with the
General life object are generally much bigger speed of the wave. These wavelets emanating
than wavelength of light. from the wavefront. are usually referred to as
41. The size reduces by half according to relation secondary wavelets & if we draw a common
l tangent to all these spheres, we obtain the new
size ; \ the intenstity increases four fold.
d position of the wavefront at a later time.
42. Waves diffracted from the edge of the circular 49. Doppler shift can be expressed as
obstacle interfere constructively at the centre Df - Vradial
of the shadow producing a bright spot. =
F C
43. The speed of light in vacuum is a universal Where Vradial is the component of the source
constant independent of all the factors listed velocity along the line joining the observer to
and anything else. In particular note the the source relative to the observer.
surprising fact that it is independent of the 50. For a given frequency, intensity of light in the
relative motion between source & observer. photon picture is determined by the number of
44. Wave speed does not depend on nature of photons crossing an unit area per unit time.
source it depends on property of medium, also 51. ZF = a2/l. The spreading due to diffraction is
it is independent of direction of propagation for smaller compared to the size of the beam. When
isotropic medium. distance between slit & screen is much smaller
45. Interference of the direct signal received by the than ZF.
antenna with the signal reflected by the passing ZF = a2/l
air craft. 52. Width of pinhole = 103Å = 1000 Å
wavelength of sun light ranges from 4000Å to
8000Å
46. wavelength l < width of the slit Hence, light
is diffracted from the hole. Due to diffraction
from the slight the image formed on the screen
Plane wavefront
will be different from the geometrical region.
47. Planar as a small area on the surface of a large 1
sphere is nearly planar. 53. Intensity µ
area Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\NCERT BASED OBJECTIVE_PHY(INSIDER)\ENG\XII\24. WAVE OPTICS.P65
hole size width of central maxima¯ Intensity
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION & MATTER

1. The photo electrons emitted from a surface of 7. If an electron and a photon propagate in form of
sodium metal are such that they: waves having the same wavelength, it implies
(1) All are of the same frequency that they can have the same:
(2) Have the same KE (1) Energy
(3) Have the same de-Broglie wave-length (2) Momentum
(4) Have their speed varying from zero to a certain
(3) Velocity
maximum
(4) Angular momentum
2. The wave-length of the matter-wave depends
on :
(1) Mass (2) Velocity i
(3) Momentum (4) All of these A
B
3. In a photoelectric experiment, if stopping C
potential is applied, the photo current becomes 8. D
zero. This means that: V
(1) The emission of photoelectron is stopped
(2) The photoelectrons are emitted but are The figure shows the result of an experiment
accumulated near the emitter metal surface. involving photoelectric effect.
(3) The photoelectrons are dispersed from the The graph A, B, C and D relate to a light beam
emitter surface
having different wavelength.
(4) None
Select correct:
4. If the frequency of light in a PEE is doubled
then maximum KE of photoelectron: (a) Beam B has a highest frequency
(1) Doubled (b) Beam C has longest wavelength
(2) Be halved (c) Beam A has highest rate of photoelectric
emission
(3) Become more than double
(d) Highest momentum is possesed by some
Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\NCERT BASED OBJECTIVE_PHY(INSIDER)\ENG\XII\25. DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION & MATTER.P65
(4) Become less than double

electrons emitted by B
5. Let P and E denote the linear momentum and (1) a & b only
energy of photon. (in same medium) for another
(2) a, b & c
photon of smaller wavelength:
(3) a, b, c & d
(1) Both P and E increase
(4) a & c only
(2) P increase and E decrease 9. For photo-electric effect,
(3) P decrease and E increase l ® incident photon wavelength
V0 ® stopping potential.
(4) Both P and E decrease
V0 V0
6. Stopping potential for photoelectrons:
(1) Does not depend on the frequency of
incident light (1) (2)
l l®
(2) Does not depend on the nature of cathode
material V0 V0
(3) Depends on both the frequency of incident
light and nature of cathode material (3) (4)
(4) Depends on intensity of incident light 1
l l®
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

10. The graph between intensity of light falling on 16. Free electrons can not normally escape out of
a metallic plate(I) with current(i) generated is: metal surface because:
(1) Free electrons are bounded to one or other
i i
ion core
(2) Free electrons lie deep inside atom
(1) (2)
(3) Free electron are held in metal lattice by
I® I
attraction force of protons
(4) If an electron attempts to come out of metal,
i i the metal surface acquires a positive charge
and pulls the electron back to metal
(3) (4) 17. Colour of glow in a discharge tube at a pressure
I® I of 0.001 mm of mercury column depends on:
(1) Nature of gas in the discharge tube
11. A polychromatic light is used in an experiment
(2) Potential difference between cathode and anode
on photoelectric effect. The stopping potential:
(3) Nature of material of cathode
(1) Is related to mean wave-length
(4) Nature of glass of the discharge tube
(2) Is related to the longest wave-length
18. X-ray can be deflected by applying:
(3) Is related to shortest wave-length
(1) A magnetic field
(4) Is not related to the wave-length
(2) An electric field
12. The equation E = pc is valid:
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(1) For an electron as well as for photon
(4) None of these
(2) For an electron but not for a photon
(3) For a photon but not for electron e
19. Value of (specific charge) of the cathode
(4) Neither for an electron nor a photon m
13. Which of the properties should be in metal for particles:
thermionic emission: (1) Depends on potential difference of cathode
(1) Low melting point and high work function and anode
(2) High melting point and low work function (2) Depends on nature of gas in the discharge
(3) High melting point and high work function tube

(4) Low melting point and low work function (3) Is independent of material of cathode or gas
14. Two Black object of same diameter, a sphere in tube
and a disc are placed in front of uniform beam (4) Depends on nature of metal used for cathode
of light. The plane of disc is perpendicular to 20. Lenard observed that no electrons are emitted
light rays. The force acting upon them by the when frequency of light is less than a certain
light is: minimum frequency. This minimum frequency
(1) Zero depends on:
(2) Bigger on disc (1) Potential difference of emitter and collector
(3) Bigger on sphere plates
(4) The same on both (2) Distance between collector and the emitter plate
(3) Size (area) of the emitter plate
15. In photoelectric effect, if a weak intensity
(4) Material of the emitter plate
radiation instead of strong intensity of suitable
frequency is used then: 21. Photo emission with visible light is possible in:
(1) Photoelectric effect will get delayed (1) alkali metals

(2) Photoelectric effect will not take place (2) alkaline earth metals
(3) Maximum KE will decrease (for photo electron) (3) metalloids
(4) Saturation current will decrease
(4) Semiconductors
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

22. A positively charged zinc plate is connected to 28. Cathode rays are:
an electroscope. It is then irradiated by UV (1) Streams of positive ions
light. Result is: (2) Streams of negative charged particles
(3) Streams of nuclei
+++++ (4) Streams of neutrons
29. Cathode rays are streams of fast moving
negative charged particles. Their speed range
d
(consider c ; 3 × 108 m/s):
+++++ ––––– (1) 0.1 c to 0.2 c
(2) c
(3) Greater than c
(1) (2) (4) Around 10–5c to 10–6c
d' d'
d' = d d' < d 30. Photoemission of electrons:
(1) is instantaneous process with a time lag of
+++++ less than nano second
(2) is slow with a large time lag
(3) (4) None (3) shows a time lag of around 1 second
d' (4) None of these
d' > d
31. The stopping potential for having zero photo-electron
23. Stopping potential is more negative for: current:
(1) Higher frequency of incident radiation (1) is inversely porportional to wavelength of
(2) Lower frequency of incident radiation incident light
(3) Higher intensity of incident radiation (2) increases uniformly with increase in
(4) Lower intensity of incident radiation wavelength of incident light
24. In an electron-photon collision, which is not true? (3) is not dependent on frequency of incident light
(4) increases linearly with increase in frequency
(1) Photon-electron collision is elastic
of incident light
(2) Photon can rebound from an electron 32. Work function depends on:
(3) In an photon electron collision number of (a) frequency of incident light
photons is not conserved (b) properties of metal
(4) Photons are deflected by a strong electric field (c) Intensity of incident light
(d) Nature of surface of metal
25. Macroscopic objects in our daily life do not (1) (a, b) (2) (c, d) (3) (b, d) (4) (b, c)
show wave like properties: 33. The time taken by photo e– to come out after
(1) de-Broglie's hypothesis is not true photon strikes is approximately:
(2) de-Broglie's hypothesis is true only for electron (1) 10–9 s (2) 10–4 s (3) 10–1 s (4) 1 s
(3) de-Broglie's hypothesis is true only for photons 34. Which of the following is sometimes called
(4) Wavelength associated with macroscopic electric eye:
object is small (1) Zener diode (2) LED
26. Wave nature of electrons is exploited in: (3) Photo cell (4) Solar cell
(1) mass spectrometer (2) coolidge tube 35. Work function is maximum for:
(3) synchrotrons (4) electron microscope (1) Aluminium (2) Sodium
27. Wavelength of an electromagnetic wave is: (3) Caesium (4) Platinum
36. In photon-particle collision which of following
(1) more than de-Broglie wavelength of its photon
quantities may not be conserved:
(2) less than de-Broglie wavelength of its photon (1) Total energy (2) Number of photons
(3) there is no relation between wavelength of a (3) Total momentum (4) None of these
radiation and de-Broglie wavelength of its photon 37. Caesium is sensitive to:
(1) Ultra violet rays (2) Visible light
(4) wavelength of radiation is equal to de-Broglie
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None
of its photon
E
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38. G.P. thomson experimentally confirmed existence 44. The photocurrent in experiment of photo electric
of matter waves of electrons by phenomena: effect increases if:
(1) Refraction (2) Diffraction (1) intensity of source is increased
(3) Polarisation (4) Reflection (2) exposure time is increased
39. Which of the following statement are true: (3) exposure time is decerased
(a) Dual nature of matter is evident in (4) intensity of source is decreased
h 45. Which phenomenon best supports the theory
de-Broglie equation l = . that matter has a wave nature ?
p
(b) Wave nature of macroscopic particles are (1) Electron momentum
not visible in daily life (2) Electron diffraction
(3) Photon momentum
h
(c) l = is not satisfied by a photon (4) Photon
p
46. The specific charge of an electron is :-
(1) (a, c) (2) (a, b)
(1) 1.6 × 10–19 coulomb
(3) (b, c) (4) (a, b, c)
(2) 4.8 × 10–10 stat coulomb
40. In Davisson-Germer experiment, deflection in
ammeter connected to e– detector is proportional to: (3) 1.76 × 1011 coulomb/kg
(1) Kinetic energy of electrons entering detector (4) 1.76 × 10–11 coulomb/kg
(2) Momentum of electrons entering detector 47. Energy conversion in photoelectric cell takes
(3) Intensity of electron beam entering detector place from :-
(4) None of these (1) Chemical to electrical
41. Which of the following statements is correct (2) Magnetic to electrical
regarding photons: (3) Optical to electrical
(1) Photons do not carry momentum (4) Mechanical to electrical
(2) Photon is a material particle 48. The electron are emitted in the photoelectric
(3) Photon energy depends on intensity of given light effect from a metal surface :-
(4) In interaction of radiation with matter (1) Only if the frequency of the incident
radiations behaves like photons radiation is above a certain threshold value
42. Resolving power of electron microscope is:
(2) Only if the temperature of the surface is
(1) less than optical microscope
high

(2) better than optical microscope
(3) At a rate that is indenpendent of the nature
(3) equal to optical microscope
of the metal
(4) none of these
43. Minimum frequency of incident light required (4) With a maximum velocity proportional to
to produce photo electric effect depends on: the frequency of the incident radiation
(1) distance between light source and metal 49. The order of photo current that can be obtained
(2) Intensity of light from photo cell is :-
(3) Stopping potential (1) nA (2) mA
(4) Nature of metal (3) µA (4) None of these
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 4 4 2 3 1 3 2 3 1 2 3 3 2 4 4
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 4 4 4 3 4 1 3 1 4 4 4 4 2 1 1
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 4 3 1 3 4 2 3 2 2 3 4 2 4 1 2
Que. 46 47 48 49
Ans. 3 3 1 3
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

Hints & Solutions 27. Momentum of a photon of energy hu
16. If an electron attempts to come out of the metal,
the metal surface acquires a positive charge and hu h h
p= = Þl= …(i)
pulls the electron back to the metal. c l p
Consequently, the electron can come out of the
metal surface only if it has got sufficient energy Also, by de-Broglie wavelength formula
to over come the attractive pull.
h
17. In the discharge tube a fluoresent glow is seen l= …(ii)
p
on the glass opposite to cathode. The colour of
glow of the glass depended on the type of glass.
Both agrees to same value.
It being yellowish-green for soda glass.
28. Cathode rays are streams of negatively charged
18. X-rays does not have charge, they are simple
electromagnetic radiation, hence, it cannot be particles.
deflected by applying electric and magnetic 29. The particles speed ranges from 0.1 C to 0.2 C.
field. Here C is the speed of light in vacuum which is
19. The value of e/m was found to be independent 3 × 108 m/s.
of the nature of the material or metal used as the
30. Experimentally it is found that, if frequency of
cathode (emitter) or the gas introduced in the
discharge tube. the incident radiation exceeds the threshold
20. Hallwachs and Lenard also observed that when frequency, the photoelectric emission starts
ultraviolet light felt on the emitter plate, no instantaneously without any apparent time lag,
electrons were emitted at all when the frequency even if the incident radiation is very dim. It is
of the incident light was smaller than a certain
now known that emission starts in a time of the
minimum value, called the threshold frequency.
order of 10–9 sec or less.
This minimum frequency depends on the nature
of the material of the emitter plate. 31. eV0 = hn – f
21. Some alkali metals such as, lithium, sodium, 33. Photo electric effect is instantaneous process
potassium, caesium and rubidium are sensitive without any apparent time (~10–9 s or less) even
even to visible light. All these photosensitive when incident light is made dim.
substances emit electrons when they are
34. Photo cell is used to detect light.
illuminated by light.
22. Positive charge on a positively charged zinc 35. Work function is maximum for platinum &
plate was found to be further enhanced when it minimum for cesium.
was illuminated by ultraviolet light. So, leaves 36. Photon may be absorbed or a new photon may
of electroscope will move further apart. be created.
23. Stopping potential is more negative for higher
37. For caesium f = 2.14 eV
frequency.
Energy of ultraviolet & visible light is greater
24. Photons are electrically neutral and so are not
deflected by strong electric or magnetic field. than work function of caesium so they can
25. This wavelength is so small that it is beyond any cause photo emission.
measurement. This is reason why macroscopic 38. G.P. Thomson observed diffraction effects with
objects in our daily life do not show wavelike beams of electrons scattered by crystals.
properties.
26. The wave properties of electron have been h
39. (a) In l = equation ®
utilised in the design of electron microscope p
which is a great improvement, with higher l is characterstic of wave & p (momentum) is
resolution, over the optical microscope.
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

characterstic of particle. 42. Wave nature of e– is utilized in e– microscope.
(b) Mass of macroscopic particles is high so 43. Minimum frequency for photo electric effect is
de-Broglie wavelength is very small. threshold frequency n0 which depends on work
function of metal by equation
h
(c) l = is applicable for material particle & f = hn0
p
44. For a given source,
photons as well. Intensity a number of photons per sec.
40. Intensity of electron beam is proportional to a number of photo e– per sec.
number of e– per unit time entering detector so a current
current is proportional to intensity.
e 1.6 ´ 10 -19
46. = = 1.76 ´ 1011 C / kg
h m 9.1 ´ 10 -31
41. Photons have momentum given by
l
It is not material particle & it is packet of energy.
Photon energy depends on frequency of light.
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ATOMS
1. In a Rutherford a scattering experiment when 5. The minimum energy to ionise an atom is the
a projectile of charge Z 1 and mass M 1 energy required to:
approaches a target nucleus of charge Z2 and (1) add one electron to the gaseous state of
mass M2, the distance of closest approach is r0. atom
The energy of the projectile is: (2) excite the atom from its ground state to its
(1) directly proportional to M1 × M2 first excited state.
(3) remove one outermost electron from the
(2) directly proportional to Z1Z2
gaseous state of atom
(3) directly proportional to Z1
(4) remove an innermost electron from the
(4) directly proportional to mass M1 gaseous state of atom
2. The Bohr model of Atom: 6. As an electron makes transition from an excited
(1) Assumes that the angular momentum of state to the ground state of a hydrogen like
electrons is quantised. atom/ion:
(2) Uses Einstein's photoelectric equation. (1) Kinetic energy decrease, potential energy
increases but total energy remains same
(3) Predicts continous emission spectra for atoms
(2) Kinetic energy and total energy decrease
(4) Predicts the same emission spectra for all but potential energy increases
types of atoms. (3) Its kinetic energy increases but potential
3. According to Bohr's theory of hydrogen atom, energy and total energy decreases
for the electron in the nth allowed orbit the: (4) Kinetic energy, potential energy and total
energy decrease
I. Linear momentum is proportional to 1/n.
7. If we have to apply Bohr model to a particle of
II. Radius is proportional to n. mass m and charge q moving in a plane under
III. Kinetic energy is proportional to 1/n2. the influence of a magnetic field B, the energy
of the charged particle in the nth level will be:
IV. Angular momentum is proportional to n.
é hqB ù
(1) n ê
ë 2pm úû
Choose the correct option from the codes given
below:
é hqB ù
(1) I, III and IV (2) n ê
ë 4pm úû
(2) Only I
é hqB ù
Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\NCERT BASED OBJECTIVE_PHY(INSIDER)\ENG\XII\26. ATOMS.P65
(3) n ê
(3) I and II ë 8pm úû
(4) Only III é hqB ù
(4) n ê
4. A hydrogen atom and Li++ ion are both in the ë pm úû
second excited state. If LH and LLi are their 8. In a hypothetical system, a particle of mass m
respective electronic angular momenta and EH and charge (–3q) is moving around a very
and ELi their respective energies, then: heavy particle charge q. Assume that Bohr's
(1) LH > LLi and |EH| > |ELi| model is applicable to this system, then velocity
of mass m in first orbit is:
(2) LH = LLi and |EH| < |ELi|
3q 2 3q 2
(1) (2)
(3) LH = LLi and |EH| > |ELi| 2e 0 h 4e0 h
(4) LH < LLi and |EH| < |ELi| 3q 3q
(3) (4)
2pe0 h 4 pe0 h
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

9. An electron of energy 11.2 eV undergoes an 13. If in hydrogen atom, radius of nth Bohr orbit is
inelastic collision with a hydrogen atom in its rn. Time period and frequency of revolution of
ground state. [Neglet recoiling of atom as mH >> me]. electron in nth orbit are Tn and fn choose the
Then in this case: correct option:
(1) The outgoing electron has energy 11.2 eV
(2) The entire energy is absorbed by the H-atom Tn
and the electron stop.
(3) 10.2 eV of the incident electron energy is (1)
absorbed by the H-atom and electron would O n
come out with 1.0 eV energy.
r
10. The diagram shows the energy levels for an log rn
1
electron in a certain atom. Which transition
shown represents the emission of a photon with (2)
the most energy?
log n
n=4
n=3 f1
log
fn
n=2
n=1 (3)
I II III IV log n
(1) III (2) IV (3) I (4) II

11. The following diagram indicates the energy
levels of a certain atom when the system moves 14. The hydrogen ion consists of:
from 4E level to E. A photon of wavelength l1 (1) One neutron only
is emitted. The wavelength of photon during its
(2) One proton only
7
transition from E level to E is l2. The ratio (3) One proton and one electron
3
(4) One proton, one neutron and one electron
l1
will be : 15. In an atom for the electron to revolve around
l2
the nucleus, the necessary centripetal force is
4E obtained from the following force excerted by Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\NCERT BASED OBJECTIVE_PHY(INSIDER)\ENG\XII\26. ATOMS.P65
7E the nucleus on the electron:

3
E (1) Nuclear force
(2) Gravitational force
9 4 3 7
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 9 2 3 (3) Magnetic force
12. The wavelengths involved in the spectrum of (4) Electrostatic force
deuterium ( ) are slightly different from that
2
1D 16. Ruther ford model could not explain the:
of hydrogen spectrum, because: (1) Electronic structure of an atom
(1) Size of the two nuclei are different
(2) nuclear forces are different in the two cases (2) Stability of an atom
(3) masses of the two nuclei are different (3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Attraction between the electron and the
nucleus is different in the two cases. (4) None
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

17. On bombarding a beam of a particles on the 23. Which one is not a failure of Bohr model:
atom of gold foil, a few particles get deflected (1) not applicable for more than one electron
whereas most of them go straight and remains (2) define frequency of radiation emitted by
undeflected. This is due to: hydrogen atom
(1) The nucleus occupy much smaller volume (3) Unable to explain the relative intensity of
as compared to the volume of atom the frequency of spectrum
(2) The force of repulsion on fast moving a (4) Does not include electrical forces between
particles is very small electrons
(3) The neutrons in the nucleus do not have any 24. Bohr's atomic model suggests that:
effect of a particles (1) Electrons have a particle as well as wave
(4) The force of attraction on a particles by the character
oppositely charged electron is not sufficient (2) Atomic spectrum of atom should contain
18. According to the Thomson model of an atom, only five lines
mass of the atom is assumed to be: (3) Electron in hydrogen atom can have only
(1) Uniformly distributed over the atom certain values of angular momentum
(2) Randomly distributed over the atom (4) All of the above
(3) Partially distributed over the atom 25. According to Bohr theory the energy of an
(4) None of these electron in the orbit:
19. The spectrum of radiation emitted by a substance (1) changes with time
after absorbing energy is called: (2) does not change with time
(1) absorption spectrum (3) change with pressure
(2) emission spectrum (4) none of the above
(3) white light spectrum 26. The only series of lines appear in the visible
(4) none of the above region in the electro magnetic spectrum of
20. According to the Bohr's model of hydrogen atom: hydrogen is:
(1) Total energy of electron is quantised (1) Lyman series (2) Balmer series
(2) Angular momentum of the electron is (3) Paschen series (4) Pfund series
27. The emission spectra of atoms in gaseous phase
nh
quantised and given as do not show a continous spread of wavelength
2p
from red to violet, rather they emit light only at
(3) Both (1) and (2) specific wavelength with dark spaces between
(4) Neither (1) nor (2) them. Such spectra is/are called:
21. The frequency of EMW emitted by the revolving (1) line spectra (2) atomic spectra
electron is equal to (According to classical (3) both (1) and (2) (4) none of these
theory): 28. What kind of spectrum for electromagnetic

(1) Double of the frequency of revolution radiation is obtained from solids and rarefied
(2) Equal to the frequency of revolution gases at a given temperature?
(3) Less than frequency of revolution (1) Solids ® Continuous ; gases ® discrete
(2) Solids ® discrete ; gases ® discrete
(4) Cannot say
(3) Solids ® Continuous ; gases ® continuous
22. If total energy of electron in an orbit is equal to
(4) Solids ® discrete ; gases ® continuous
E, is positive:
29. The most important contribution by Niel Bohr
(1) Electron will revolve in an closed orbit for explaination of Hydrogen atom was?
(2) Electron will not follow a closed orbit around (1) Theory of stable orbits
the nucleus. (2) Angular momentum Quantization
(3) Electron will be bound to nucleus (3) Energy level quantization
(4) Cannot say (4) e– has dual nature
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

30. Choose the correct alternative :- 33. Correct figure of Geiger-Marsden experiment
(1) Emission spectrum ® White background is
with dark lines
Absorption spectrum ® Dark background
with bright lines
(2) Emission spectrum ® Dark background (1)
with bright lines a-source Gold foil
Absorption spectrum ® White background
with dark lines.
(3) 1 & 2 both
(4) None of these (2)
31. JJ Thomson's experiment revealed that a-source Gold foil

(1) atoms are smallest entities of matter
(2) atoms are round in shape
(3) atoms are not electrically neutral (3)
(4) atoms contains negatively charged particles a-source Gold foil
32. Graph of total number of a-particles scattered
at different angles is
(4)
Number of
a-particles
a-source Gold foil

(1)
34. Rutherford's atomic model could account for
20° 160° q I. concept of stationary orbits
II. the positively charged central core of an atom
III. origin of spectra
IV. stability of atoms
Number of
a-particles
Choose the correct option from the codes given

(2) below.
20° 160° q (1) Only I is correct
(2) Only II is correct Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\NCERT BASED OBJECTIVE_PHY(INSIDER)\ENG\XII\26. ATOMS.P65
(3) I, III and IV are correct

(4) All of these
Number of
a-particles
35. A line emission spectrum of a material is

(3) (1) unique like a fingerprint
20° 160° q (2) same for all
(3) may be same for few elements
(4) depends on excitation produced
36. According to classical electromagnetic theory,
Number of
a-particles
emission spectrum of Rutherford atom must be

(4)
(1) a line emission spectrum
20° 160° q (2) a line absorption spectrum
(3) a continuous spectrum
(4) a band absorption spectrum
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

37. Which of these statements are correct regarding 41. In Bohr's atomic model, in going to a higher
Bohr's model of hydrogen atom? level (PE = potential energy, TE = total energy)
I. Orbiting speed of electron decreases as it
shift to discrete orbits away from nucleus. (1) PE decreases, TE increases
II. Radii of allowed orbits of electron are (2) PE increases, TE increases
proportional to the principal quantum (3) PE decreases, TE decreases
number. (4) PE increases, TE decreases
III. Frequency of revolution of an electron is
inversely proportional to the cube of 42. Bohr's second postulate defines the stable orbits
principal quantum number. on the basis of
IV. Binding force with which electron is bound (1) linear momentum of electron
to nucleus increases as electron shifts to (2) angular momentum of electron
outer orbits.
(3) kinetic energy of electron
(1) I and III (2) II and IV
(3) I, II and III (4) II, III and IV (4) total energy of electron
38. In Bohr's model where 43. A set of atoms in an excited state decays
(1) linear momentum is conserved while angular (1) in general to any of the states with lower energy
momentum is not conserved (2) into a lower state only when excited by an
(2) potential energy is conserved while kinetic external electric field
energy is not conserved (3) all together simultaneously into a lower
(3) only potential energy is quantised state
(4) only angular momentum is quantised
(4) to emit photons only when they collide
39. The de-Broglie wavelength of an electron in
44. When white light is passed through an unexcited
first Bohr's orbit is
gas (in rarified state), then transmitted light
1 consists of
(1) equal to of circumference of orbit
4 (1) few bright lines in dark background
1 (2) few dark lines in bright background
(2) equal to of circumference of orbit (3) alternate dark and bright lines
2
(3) equal to twice of circumference of orbit (4) alternate dark and bright bands
(4) equal to the circumference of orbit 45. In an absorption spectrum, dark lines
40. The simple Bohr model cannot be directly corresponds to same wavelengths which were
applied to calculate the energy levels of an found in emission line spectrum of gas. Above
atom with many electrons as statement is
(1) electrons not subjected to a central force (1) correct for all gases
(2) electrons are colliding with each other (2) correct only for hydrogen like atoms
(3) electrons are subjected to screening effects (3) incorrect for all gases
(4) force between nucleus and electrons is not (4) incorrect except for hydrogen
subjected to Coulomb's force
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 2 1 1 2 3 3 2 1 3 1 2 3 4 2 4 3 1 1 2 3
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 2 2 2 3 2 2 3 1 3 2 4 4 4 2 1 3 1 4 4 1
Que. 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 2 2 1 2 1
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

Hints & Solutions 6. As electron makes a transition from an excited
1. The energy of the projectile will be equivalent state to a ground state, n decrease there for
to potential energy of the charge system. kinetic energy increase but potential energy
and total energy decrease.
1 (Z1e)(Z 2e)
E = 4 pe r0 e2
0 K.E. =
8pe 0 n 2 a 0
Energy [E µ Z1 Z2]
2. According to Bohr's hypothesis, electron can -e 2
revolve only in those orbits in which its angular P.E. =
4 pe0 n 2 a 0
h
momentum is an integral multiple of ; where -e 2
2p T.E. =
h is planck constant. This is called quantisation 8pe 0 n 2 a 0
of angular momentum.
nh
3. According to Bohr's theory 7. mvR = …(1)
2p
h mv2 mv
We know mvr = n Þ [mvr µ n] qvB = ; qB = …(2)
2p R R
from Eq. (1) & (2)
h
mv = n æ nh ö
2pr qB ç ÷ = mv
è 2 pmv ø
nh 1 1
Linear momentum p = mv = mv 2 = nhqB
2pr 2 4pm
n é hqB ù
pµ E = nê
r ë 4pm úû
As r µ n2 mv 2 3q 2
8. =
r 4 pe0 r 2
1
Hence pµ
n 3q 2
mvr = …(1)
4 pe0 v
1
We know KE µ and r µ n2 nh
r = mvr
and
2p
1
using (1) & (2) and putting [n = 1]

KE µ
n2 h 3q 2
=
4. In the second excited state n = 3 2p 4pe0 v
LH = LLi = 3 æç ö÷
h 3q 2
è 2p ø v=
2e 0 h
ZH = 1; ZLi = 3; E µ Z2 9. As the collision is inelastic, it means a part of
|ELi| = 9|EH| K.E. is transformed into some other form due to
or |EH| < |ELi| collision. In this case, the KE of incident electron
5. The minimum energy to ionise an atom is the can be absorbed by H atom and it can absorb
energy required to excite an electron in the only 10.2 eV out of 11.2 eV, so that it can reach
atom from its ground state to its ionisation level to 1st excited state and electron leaves with
corresponding to n = ¥. remaining energy i.e. 1.0 eV.
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

14. Hydrogen atom is one electron revolving around
é1 1ù
10. E = Rhc ê n 2 - n 2 ú a proton. A hydrogen ion is obtained when
ë 1 2 û electron is removed.
15. Coulomb's electrostatic force of attraction
é1 1ù é 7 ù between nucleus and electron supplies the
(II) E4 – 3 = Rhc ê 2 - 2 ú = Rhc ê
ë3 4 û ë 9 ´ 16 úû necessary centripetal forces.
E[4 – 3] = 0.05 Rhc 31. By the nineteenth century, enough evidence
é1 1ù had accumulated in favour of atomic hypothesis
(IV) E[4 – 2] = Rhc ê 2 - 2 ú = 0.2Rhc
ë2 4 û of matter. In 1897, the experiments on electric
discharge through gases carried out by the
é1 1 ù English physicist JJ Thomson (1856-1940)
(III) E[2 – 1] = Rhc ê 2 - 2 ú = 0.75 Rhc
ë1 2 û
revealed that atoms of different elements contain
é1 1ù negatively charged constituents (electrons) that
(I) E[1 – 4] = Rhc ê 2 - 2 ú = -0.9 Rhc are identical for all atoms.
ë4 1 û
(it is absorbtion not emission)
32.
11. For transition from 4E to E 7
10
Number of scattered
hc hc particles detected
6
(4E – E) = Þ l1 = …(1) 10
l1 3E 5
10
4
7 10
For transition from E to E 3
3 10
2
10
7 hc 3hc
E-E= Þ l2 = …(2) 10
3 l2 4E 20 40 60 80 100 120 140 160 180
Scattering angle q (in degree)
l1 4
Thus Þ =
l2 9 The dots are a-particle scattering data for a thin
12. Masses of 1H1 and 1D2 are different, gold foil obtained by Geiger and Marsden. The
Hence the corresponding wavelengths are solid curve is the theoretical prediction based
different. on the assumption that atom has a small dense
and positively charged nucleus.
1 æ 1 1 ö
= Rz 2 ç 2 - 2 ÷ 33. Correct option is '4' as most of a-particles pass

l è n1 n 2 ø
straight through, few are deflected at small
13. Radius of nth orbit rn µ n2
angles and very few are deflected by larger
graph between rn and n is a parabola. Also
angles.
2
rn æ n ö ær ö
= ç ÷ Þ loge ç n ÷ = 2 log e (n) 34. Rutherford atomic model is also called nuclear
r1 è 1 ø è r1 ø model as through this model nucleus as a point
Comparing this equation with y = mx + c charge entity with whole mass was described
first time.
ær ö
graph between log e ç n ÷ and loge(n) will be a
è r1 ø
straight line, passing from origin.
Time period (Tn) µ n3
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

35. A line emission spectrum is unique, just like a 40. As electrons are not subjected to a central force.
finger print. Line emission spectrum consists of So, Bohr's model cannot be applied to a multi-
bright lines on a dark background. The spectrum electron atom.
emitted by atomic hydrogen is shown in figure. 13.6
The study of emission line spectra of a material 41. Here, E n = - eV
n2
can therefore serve as a type of 'fingerprint' for
Un = Potential energy
identification of the gas.
27.2
2E n = - eV
n2
1875 nm
122 nm
365 nm
656 nm
820 nm
Wavelength, l
91 nm
13.6
and Kn = |En| = Kinetic energy = = eV
n2
Clearly, or n increases PE and total energy
being negative increases, where as KE
decreases.
Lyman series Balmar series Paschen series 42. Bohr's second postulate defines these stable
Emission lines in the spectrum of hydrogen orbits. This postulate states that the electron
revolves around the nucleus only in those orbits
36. As the electrons spiral inwards, their angular for which the angular momentum is some integral
velocities and hence their frequencies would multiple of h/2p, where h is Planck's constant
change continuously, and so will the frequency (=6.6 × 10–34 J–s). Thus, the angular momentum
of the light emitted. Thus, they would emit a (L) of the orbiting electron is quantised i.e.,
continuous spectrum, in contradiction to the L = nh/2p.
line spectrum actually observed. Clearly,
43. A set of atoms in an excited state decays in
Rutherford model tells only a part of the story
general to any of the state emits a photon and
implying that the classical ideas are not sufficient
achieves lower energy state.
to explain the atomic structure.
1 44. When white light passes through a gas and we
37. As we know, orbital speed v n µ and
n analyse the transmitted light using a
1 spectrometer, we find some dark lines in the
frequency of revolution of an electron f µ 3 .
n spectrum. These dark lines correspond precisely
Hence, it conclude that orbiting speed of an to those wavelengths which were found in the Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\NCERT BASED OBJECTIVE_PHY(INSIDER)\ENG\XII\26. ATOMS.P65
electron decreases as it shift to discrete as orbit emission line spectrum of the gas. This is called
away from nucleus and binding force of an the absorption spectrum of the material of the
electron towards nucleus increases as electron gas.
shift to other orbits. 45. In an absorption spectrum, dark lines
38. In Bohr's model angular momentum of corresponds to same wavelength which were
revolving electron is found in emission line spectrum for all gases.
h Given statement is correct for all gases.
L= n
2p
So, it is quantised.
39. For an electron by de-Broglie's hypothesis
nl =2pr
In ground state, n = 1
\ l =2pr = circumference of orbit.
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
NUCLEI
1. Pick out the incorrect statement from the 5.5 With regard to Geiger and Marsden experiment,
following : pick out the incorrect statement from the
(1) b– emission from the nucleus is always following :
accompanied by a neutrino.
(1) If electrons are used, instead of a particle,
(2) The energy of a particle emitted from a
given nucleus is characteristic in nature size of nuclei can be accurately measured.
(3) g ray emission makes the nucleus more (2) If a particles with energy much higher than
stable 5.5 MeV are used, significant deviations is
(4) Nuclear force is charge independent calculations may be observed
2. Pick out the incorrect statement from the (3) a-particles suffer inelastic scattering against
following : gold nuclei
(1) Neutron is the most effective projectile in
nuclear reactions. (4) Trajectory of a a-particle depends upon the
(2) Photon has zero spin, while a neutrino has impact parameter
1 h 6. Nuclear forces acting between two nucleons
spin inside nucleus :
2 2p
(1) Has saturation property
(3) Tritium nuclei do not occur naturally and (2) Is short ranged which explains the constancy
are prepared artificially in laboratories. is BE/A in the range 30 < A < 170.
(4) A proton can never convert into a neutron (3) Has zero associated potential energy
as it is lighter than neutron associated when distance between nucleons
3. Pick out the incorrect statement from the is 0.8 fm.
following (4) Is the strongest force inside nucleus
7. For radioactivity, pick the incorrect statement :
(1) Lighter elements are better moderators for (1) Radioactivity was discovered by Marie Curie
nuclear reactors than heavier moderators. (2) In a spontaneous radioactive decay, mass of
(2) In a natural uranium reactor, heavy water is products is less than mass of initial nucleus
a preferred moderator to ordinary water (3) One can never predict which nucleus will
undergo decay first
(3) Mass energy inter-conversion takes place (4) 92 U238 is non fissionable but radioactive
only in nuclear reactions and never in while 92 U 235 is fissionable but non-
chemical reactions. radioactive
8. With regard to neutrinos, pick the incorrect
(4) Cadmium rods are provided in reactors.
Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\NCERT BASED OBJECTIVE_PHY(INSIDER)\ENG\XII\27. NUCLEI.P65
statement :
4. Pick out the incorrect statement from the (1) They are generated during b+-decays
following (2) They have strong interactions with other
particles
(1) Accurate measurement of atomic masses is (3) They are neutral particles
carried out by mass spectrometer (4) They are hard to detect
(2) Energy available from bombardment of 9. In a thermonuclear fusion, which statement is
beryllium nuclei with a particles is incorrect :
equivalent to that of photons. (1) Energy is provided by raising the temperature
(2) Energy must be provided to overcome
(3) Isotopes have identical chemical behavior columbic repulsion between approaching
positively charged nuclei.
(4) Even we round off mass of neutron and
proton to 1 amu, atomic mass of an element (3) Is responsible for the formation of red giant
may not be an integral multiple of amu star
(4) Required temperature is of the order of 108 K.
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

10. Which of the following statement is incorrect 14. Which of the following statement is incorrect
for a nuclear reaction for nuclear decays
(1) If nuclei with less total binding energy (1) g decay takes place when nucleus in excited
transform to nuclei with greater binding state spontaneously decays into ground state
energy, there will be a net energy release.
(2) After a decay and b decay, g decay can take
(2) Nuclear reactions are not balanced in the
same way as chemical reactions place
(3) Both the number of protons and number of (3) When an electron and positron come together,
neutrons are conserved, but the total mass is they can annihilate each other giving energy
not conserved. in the form of g rays
(4) In b– decay a neutrino is generated, while is (4) If b + emission is energetically allowed,
b+ decay an anti-neutrino is generated electron capture is necessarily allowed and
11. Pick the incorrect statement : vice versa.
(1) Fission of 1kg of Uranium generates equal
15. Corresponding to nuclear decays, which of the
energy as burning of 1kg of coal. following statements is incorrect ?
(2) During fission of 92U235 , different pairs of
(1) In a decay, more than 95% of Q-value is
intermediate mass fragments can be
realized as kinetic energy of a particle
obtained
(2) Energy spectrum of a, b and g particles are
(3) The peaks at nuclides like 2He4, 8O16 is an
discrete line spectrums.
evidence of shell like structure inside nuclei.
(4) Decay of unstable 6C14 isotope into stable (3) In b decay, daughter nucleus is an isobar
of parent nuclei.
7
N14 is the principle of carbon dating.
(4) g rays are electromagnetic radiations of
12. Considering the efficient functioning of a
wavelengths shorter than X-rays
nuclear reactor, which of the following
statement is incorrect ? 16. When a nucleus in an atom undergoes a
(1) Moderators slow down fast neutrons released radioactive decay, the electronic energy levels
in a fission reaction via elastic scattering
of the atom
(2) The core of a nuclear reactor is surrounded
with reflectors to prevent leakage (1) do not change for any type of radioactivity.
(3) Heavy water is used as moderators in fast (2) change for a and b radioactivity but not for
breed reactors that use Plutonium - 239 as g radioactivity.
fuel
(3) change for a radioactivity but not for others.
(4) Averagely 2 1 2 neutrons are released per
fission of a 92U235 nucleus (4) change for b radioactivity but not for others.
13. For the central portion of an atom, called nuclei, 17. Heavy stable nucleus has more neutrons than
pick the incorrect statement protons. This is because of the fact that
(1) Nuclei also have discrete energy levels (1) neutrons are heavier than protons.
(2) For stability of nuclei, number of neutron:
(2) electrostatic force between protons are
number of proton ratio has to be around
repulsive.
1 : 1 for lighter nuclei and 3 : 2 for heavier
nuclei (3) neutrons decay into protons through beta
(3) Density of nuclear matter is independent of decay.
size of nucleus
(4) nuclear forces between neutrons are weaker
(4) As mass of proton is smaller than mass of than that between protons.
neutron, a proton can never convert into a
neutron.
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

18. Suppose we consider a large number of 20. Outside a nucleus :-
containers each containing initially 50,000 (1) Neutron is stable
atoms of a radioactive material with a half-life (2) Proton & neutron both are stable
of 1 year. After 1 year, (3) Neutron is unstable
(1) all the containers will have 25,000 atoms of (4) Neither neutron nor proton is stable
the material.
21. Fusion reaction takes place at high temperature
(2) all the containers will contain the same
number of atoms of the material but that because :-
number will only be approximately 25,000. (1) Molecules break up at high temperature
(3) the containers will in general have different (2) Nuclei break up at high temperature
numbers of the atoms of the material but (3) Atoms get ionised at high temperature
their average will be close to 25,000. (4) Kinetic energy is high enough to overcome
(4) none of the containers can have more than the coulomb repulsion between nuclei
25,000 atoms. 22. Half life of radioactive element depends upon :-
19. In a nuclear reactor, moderators slow down the (1) Amount of element present
neutrons which come out in a fission process. (2) Temperature
The moderator used has light nuclei. Heavy (3) Pressure
nuclei will not serve the purpose because (4) Nature of element
(1) they will break up. 23. In which radioactive disintegration, neutron
(2) elastic collision of neutrons with heavy dissociates into proton & electron :-
nuclei will not slow them down. (1) a emission (2) b– emission
(3) the net weight of the reactor would be (3) g emission (4) Positron emission
unbearably high.
(4) substances with heavy nuclei do not occur
in liquid or gaseous state at room
temperature.
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 1 4 3 2 3 3 1 2 3 4 1 3 4 4 2
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23
Ans. 2 2 3 2 3 4 4 2
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

1. b – emission from the nucleus is always 5. Electron scattering gives more accurate results
accompanied by an antineutrino according to because electron scattering senses charge
nuclear reaction : n ® p + e– + v [antineutrino]. distribution while a scattering senses nuclear
Energy of a-particle emitted from a given matter. If a-particle of higher energy are used,
nucleus is always constant and is equal to they may come closer and suffer strong short
ranged nuclear forces. However, Rutherford
A
Q. g emission takes place while an excited took only columic forces into account. Deviation
A-4 of an a-particle is governed by impact
nucleus goes to ground state and thus becoming parameter-lesser the impact parameter, higher
more stable. the deviation. However, a-particles suffer elastic
2. Neutron is the most effective projectile as it can scattering against gold nuclei because neither
hit the nucleus directly without being attracted the a particle nor the gold nuclei are internally
or repelled by nucleus or electrons. Tritium is excited during collision.
not found in observable quantity as its half life 6. The property that a given nucleon influences
is shorter than life of universe. A free proton only nucleons close to it makes is referred as
cannot convert into a neutron but a proton saturation property of nuclear force. Inside
inside nucleus can convert according to the nucleus, the order of strength is : FN > FE > FG.
reaction : However, potential energy associated with
nuclear force is minimum but non-zero when
p11 ® n10 + b0+1 + v distance between nucleons is 0.8 fm
3. A good moderators has two properties; it slows 7. Radioactivity was discovered by Henry
down neutrons by elastic collision and it doesn't Becquerel. A spontaneous decay is an
remove them from the core. That is why lighter exothermic process, where energy liberation is
elements are better moderators. Heavy water is due to mass defect as per E = Dmc2. According
used in reactors because it has lesser absorption to Rutherford - Soddy law, radioactivity is
probability of neutrons than ordinary water. governed by law of probability where we cannot
Mass defect does take place in chemical predict which radionuclide disintegrates first.
processes. However, the mass defects involved Out of three Uranium isotopes i.e., 92U233, 92U235
in chemical reactions are almost negligible than and 92U238 , the highly abundant 92U238 is non-
those in a nuclear reactions. Cadmium rods are fissionable.
used for absorbing thermal neutrons and keep 8. b– is generated when neutron converts into
chain nuclear reaction controlled. proton n ® p + b– + v while b+ is emitted when
4. Mass spectrometer is used to measure atomic proton converts into neutron p ® n + b+ + v.
mass. Chemical properties depend upon the Neutrinos are neutral particles, have almost
electronic configuration and isotopes have same negligible [probably zero] mass as compared to
electronic structure, hence isotopes have electrons and penetrate deep into matter while
identical chemical behavior. Atomic mass is showing weak interaction with other particles.
the weighted average of atomic masses of This makes them hard to detect.
different isotope of same element takes against
9. Two nuclei undergoing fusion must come close
relative abundance, therefore it may come out
enough so that attractive short- range nuclear
to be non-integer.
force is able to affect them. However, since
However, from bombardment of beryllium they are both positively charge particles, they
nuclei with a particles neutral radiations experience columbic repulsion. They, therefore,
consisting of neutrons are emitted that have must have enough energy to overcome columbic
much lower energy than photons. barrier which is provided by raising the
temperature that is in the order of 10 8 K.
Thermonuclear fusion of hydrogen is the source
of energy output inside stars. Once the hydrogen
depletes, starts starts collapsing under gravity,
which will raise the temperature of core and star
starts expanding resulting in red giant star.
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

10. Greater the binding energy, the less is the total 12. In some reactions, 2 neutrons are emitted while
mass of the bound system, such a nucleus. in some 3 neutrons are emitted, making an
Therefore, energy is released when nuclei with average of 2 1 2 neutrons per fission. These
less total binding energy transform to nuclei neutrons, unless slowed down, will escape from
with greater binding energy. A chemical the reactor without interacting with the uranium
equation is balanced in the sense that the number nuclei. Therefore, moderators are provided to
of atoms of each element is the same on both slow down thermal neutron via elastic collisions.
sides of the equations. In a nuclear reaction, However, fast breed reactors use fast neutrons
elements may be transmuted. Thus, the number for sustaining chain nuclear reaction, hence
of atoms of each element is not necessarily moderators are not required.
conserved in a nuclear reaction. However, the
number of protons and the number of neutrons 13. Nuclei also have energy level like atoms. Atomic
are both separately conserved in a nuclear energy level spacing is of the order of eV, while
reaction. Now, since proton number and neutron difference in nuclear energy levels is MeV. By
number are conserved in a nuclear reaction, the electron scattering experiments, it was found
total rest mass of neutrons and protons is the that radius of nuclei, R = R 0 A1/3 and also
same on either side of a reaction. But the total M = mA, where m is the mass of one nucleon.
binding energy of nuclei on the left side need This implies that nuclear density is independent
not be the same as that on the right hand side. of A. In heavier nuclei, more neutrons are
The difference in these binding energies appears required to overcome the effect of repulsion
as energy released or absorbed in a nuclear among the protons, hence neutron : proton ratio
reaction. Since binding energy contributes to increases slightly to 3 : 2. However, inside
mass, the difference in the total mass of nuclei nucleus a proton may convert into neutron by
on the two sides get converted into energy or reaction p ® n + b+ + v
vice-versa. 14. After a or b decay nucleus goes into excited
However, in b – decay an antineutrino is state and spontaneously decays into ground
generated when neutron converts into proton state emitting a g particle with energy equal to
energy difference between two states. Electrons
[n ® p + b– + v ] while in b+ decay a neutrino
and positrons can undergo pair annihilation
is generated when proton converts into neutron reaction : e– + b+ ® 2g. However, if b+ emission
[p ® n + b+ + v]. is energetically allowed, electron capture is
11. Energies involved in exothermic chemical necessarily allowed but vice versa is not true.
reactions are in the range of eV, while in 15. Q-value i.e., energy liberated during nuclear
nuclear reactions energy release is of order of reactions appear as kinetic energies of products
MeV. Therefore, fission of 1 kg of Uranium of which kinetic energy of daughter nuclei is
produces 1014 J, while burning of 1 kg coal
generates 107 J. Fission of 92U235 may result in 4
KED = Q , while kinetic energy of a-particle
different pair of daughter nuclei : A
1
n + 235
92 U ®56 Ba + 36 Kr + 30 n
144 89 1
A-4
0
is given by KEa = Q . In both b+ and
A
1
0 n + 92
235
U ®133
51 Sb + 41 Nb + 4 0 n
99 1
b– decay, mass number remains unchanged,
hence reactant nuclei and product nuclei are
1
n + 92
235
U ®140
54 Xe + 38 Sr + 2 0 n
94 1
0 isobar. However, in b-decay continuous
But approximately same amount of energy spectrum is observed.
[200 MeV] is released per fission. When the 16. As we know that,
organism is dead, its interaction with the a-particle: 2 unit of positive charge
atmosphere (which maintains the above b-particle: 1-unit positive charge
equilibrium activity) ceases and its activity g-particle: No charge
begins to drop. From the known half-life (5730 Due to this reason, energy levels of the atom
years) of 6C14, and the measured activity, the change for a and b but not for others.
age of the specimen can be approximately So the electronic energy level of the atom
estimated changes in emission of a and b particle, but not
in g decay.
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

17. Electrostatic force between proton-proton is 19. For elastic collision masses of both must be
repulsive which causes the instability of nucleus. equal so that they can exchange the velocities.
So, neutrons are larger than proton. To slow down the speed of neutron substance
18. Half-life time for a radio-active substance is should be made up of 1 proton for perfectly
defined as the time in which a radioactive elastic, that is, we need light nuclei not heavy.
atomic substance remains half of its original For heavy nuclei only direction will change not
value of radio-active atom. Given that, Half-life the speed.
= 1 year. So, after 1 year means one half-life, 21. For fusion to take place, the 2 nuclei must come
that is, average atoms of radioactive substance close enough so that attractive short-range
remain after 1 year in each container is equal to nuclear force is able to attract them. However,
half of 50,000 = 25,000 atoms (average). since both are positively charged particles, they
experience coulomb repulsion. To overcome
this repulsion they must have enough kinetic
energy. This is achieved by high temperature.
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
SEMICONDUCTOR ELECTRONIC
1. When a semiconductor is doped its electrical 7. Statement-1 : The number of electrons in n-
conductivity : type semiconductor is higher than the number
(1) Increases
of electrons in a pure silicon semiconductor.
(2) Decreases in the direct ratio of the doped
material Statement-2 : The law of mass action is
(3) Decreases in the inverse ratio of the doped applicable to n-type semiconductors.
material (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
(4) Remains unaltered Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
2. Which of the following semiconductor is Statement-1.
electrically positive ?
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statament-2 is True;
(1) Intrinsic semiconductor
(2) P-type semiconductor Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation
(3) N-type semiconductor for Statement-I.
(4) None of these (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
3. The depletion layer of a p-n junction : (4) Statement-1 False, Statement-2 is True.
(1) is of constant width irrespective of the bias 8. In a p-n junction,
(2) acts like an insulating zone under reverse (1) new holes and conduction electrons are
bias produced continuously throughout the
(3) has a width that increases with an increases material
in forward bias (2) new holes and conduction electrons are
(4) is depleted of ions produced continuously throughout the
4. Let n p and n e be the numbers of holes and material except in the depletion region
conduction electrons in an extrinsic (3) holes and conduction electrons recombine
semiconductor :- continuously throughout the material.
(1) np > ne (2) np = ne (4) holes and conduction electrons recombine
(3) np < ne (4) np ¹ ne continuously throughout the depletion
5. Which of the following statements is region.
INCORRECT :- 9. A Si and a Ge diode has identical physical
(1) The resistance of intrinsic semiconductor dimensions. The band gap in Si is larger than
Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\NCERT BASED OBJECTIVE_PHY(INSIDER)\ENG\XII\28. SEMICONDUCTOR ELECTRONICS.P65
decrease with increase of temperature that in Ge. An identical reverse bias is applied
(2) Doping pure Si with trivalent impurities gives across the diodes
P-type semiconductors (1) The reverse current in Ge is larger than that
(3) The majority carriers in N-type in Si
semiconductors are holes (2) The reverse current in Si is larger than that
(4) A PN-junction can act as a semiconductor in Ge
diode (3) The reverse current is identical in the two
6. The conductivity of a semiconductor increases diodes
with increase in temperature because (4) The relative magnitude of the reverse
(1) number density of free current carriers currents cannot be determined from the
increases. given data only
(2) relaxation time increases. 10. Diffusion current in a p-n junction is greater
(3) both number density of carriers and than the drift current in magnitude :-
relaxation time increase. (1) If the junction is forward-biased
(4) number density of current carriers increases, (2) If the junction is reverse-biased
relaxation time decreases but effect of (3) If the junction is unbiased
decrease in relaxation time is much less
(4) In no case.
than increase in number density.
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

11. Statement-1 : Transistor can act as a switch. 14. In a transistor symbol, the arrow is drawn on
Statement-2 : When the transistor is not (a) and it represents direction of
conducting it is said to be switched off and (b) , then (a) and (b) are respectively.
when it is driven into saturation it is said to be (1) Emitter ; hole movement
switched on. (2) Emitter ; electron movement
(1) Statement-I is true, Statement-II is true, (3) Collector ; hole movement
Statement-II is the correct explanation of (4) Base ; hole movement
Statement-I 15. One end of a device is connected to positive
terminal and the other end to the negative
(2) Statement-I is true, Statement-II is true,
terminal and the current is flowing. If the
Statement-II is not the correct explanation terminals of supply are interchanged, then there
of Statement-I. is approximately zero current. The device can
(3) Statement-I is true, Statement-II is false. be :-
(1) p-n junction (2) transistor
(4) Statement-I is false, Statement-II is true. (3) capacitor (4) inductor
12. In P-type semiconductor, drift velocity of 16. In a half wave rectifier if input frequency is
electrons compared to holes is : 50 Hz then output ripple frequency will be :–
(1) 25 Hz (2) 50 Hz
(1) More
(3) 100 Hz (4) 200 Hz
(2) Less
17. In which of the following cases, the transistor
(3) Equal is operating in the active region ?
(4) None of these 1V 0V
13. The energy band diagrams for three
2V 2V
semiconductor samples of silicon are as shown. (1) (2)
We can then assert that :-
0V 1V
0V 2V
1V 1V
(3) (4)

X Y Z 2V 0V
(1) Sample X is undoped while samples Y and

18. The circuit diagram shows a logic combination
Z have been doped with a trivalent and a
with the states of output X, Y and Z given for
pentavalent impurity respectively
inputs P, Q, R and S all at state 1. When inputs
(2) Sample X is undoped while both samples Y
and Z have been doped with a pentavalent P and R change to state 0 with inputs Q and S
impurity still at 1, the states of outputs X, Y and Z change
(3) Sample X has been doped with equal to
amounts of trivalent and pentavalent P(1)
impurities while samples Y and Z are X(1)
Q(1)
undoped Z(0)
(4) Sample X is undoped while samples Y and R(1)
Z have been doped with a pentavalent and S(1) Y(0)
a trivalent impurity respectively
(1) 1, 0, 0 (2) 1, 1, 1
(3) 0, 1, 0 (4) 0, 0, 1
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

19. Energy band gap of silicon is 1.14 eV. 22. Doping of intrinsic semiconductor is done :-
Maximum wavelength at which silicon will (1) To neutralize charge carriers
start showing conductivity is ?
(1) 10888 nm (2) 1088.8 nm (2) To increase the concentration of majority
(3) 108.88 nm (4) 10.888 nm charge carriers
20. Mobility of electrons is more than holes, (3) To make it neutral before disposal
because electrons
(4) To carry out further purification
(1) are lighter
(2) are negatively charged 23. If l1, l2, l3 are the length of the emitter, base &
(3) undergo small number of collisions collector of a transistor then :-
(4) require less energy to move through lattice (1) l1 = l2 = l3 (2) l3 < l2 > l1
21. A hole in a P-type semiconductor is :-
(3) l3 < l1 < l2 (4) l3 > l1 > l2
(1) An excess electron
(2) A missing electron
(3) A missing atom
(4) A donor level
ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 1 4 2 4 3 4 2 1 1 1 1 1 4 1 1
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23
Ans. 2 4 3 2 4 2 2 4
E
TG: @Chalnaayaaar

Hints & Solutions
1. Extrinsic semiconductors have more C
conductivity.
2. Semiconductors are electrically neutral. 2V
3. It is depleted of charge carriers and decreases
in forward bias. B
17. 1V P
5. In N-type semiconductor majority charge
carries are electrons.
N
9. The reverse current is more in Ge because of
less band gap. E
V
10. In forward bias potential barrier decreases
12. electron have higher mobility compared to holes
in semiconductors. VP - VN = 1 – 0 = + ve
13. In sample x no impurity level seen, so it is
Base emitter junction = F.B.
undoped. In sample y impurity energy level
[VP – VN] = 1 – 2 = –ve
lies below the conduction band so it is doped
Base collector junction = R.B.
with fifth group impurity.
Active region
In sample z, impurity energy level lies above
the valence band so it is doped with third group
18. Use the characteristic equations for different
impurity.
gates.
15. Characteristic of p-n junction
16. fi = f0 for half wave rectifier hc 1240
19. l= » nm » 1088nm
E 1.14

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ALLEN Pre-Medical : Physics 1

(4) Given statement is wrong, as buoyancy with in nucleus

2 Pre-Medical : Physics ALLEN

UNIT & MEASUREMENTS

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ALLEN Pre-Medical : Physics 3

æ 2pt ö (4) None of these

(3) to repeat the experiment many times and to

4 Pre-Medical : Physics ALLEN

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ALLEN Pre-Medical : Physics 5

given equation = 1 MSD – 1 VSD

6 Pre-Medical : Physics ALLEN

MOTION IN A STRAIGHT LINE

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ALLEN Pre-Medical : Physics 7

(3) 0.8 sec (4) 0.9 sec 10

4th floor and stops on 4th floor. Taking ground

8 Pre-Medical : Physics ALLEN

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ALLEN Pre-Medical : Physics 9

13. Motion of the object with negative 2

10 Pre-Medical : Physics ALLEN

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ALLEN Pre-Medical : Physics 11

(2) A scalar quantity is the one that can never

12 Pre-Medical : Physics ALLEN

ALLEN Pre-Medical : Physics 13

(1) Negative slope and zero curvature (1) negative

14 Pre-Medical : Physics ALLEN

ALLEN Pre-Medical : Physics 15

At any particular instant, direction of motion In projectile motion, horizontal component of

16 Pre-Medical : Physics ALLEN

NEWTON LAWS OF MOTION

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ALLEN Pre-Medical : Physics 17

18 Pre-Medical : Physics ALLEN

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ALLEN Pre-Medical : Physics 19

(3) The tension in a string always pulls a body F

(1) Its ability to remain at rest (1) increase its speed

(3) The action and reaction always act on direction of motion

20 Pre-Medical : Physics ALLEN

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ALLEN Pre-Medical : Physics 21

V = const, velocity must be const and in

22 Pre-Medical : Physics ALLEN

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ALLEN Pre-Medical : Physics 23

WORK, POWER & ENERGY

(2) decreases continuously

24 Pre-Medical : Physics ALLEN

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ALLEN Pre-Medical : Physics 25

26 Pre-Medical : Physics ALLEN

SYSTEM OF PARTICLES AND ROTATIONAL MOTION

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ALLEN Pre-Medical : Physics 27

(3) Frictional force is acting backwards (3) Both X and Y Component

28 Pre-Medical : Physics ALLEN

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