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CAREERS360

TISSNET Sample Paper


2022 by Hitbullseye
Diagnostic Test - TISS

Directions of Test

Test Name Diagnostic Test - TISS Total Questions 100 Total Time 100 Mins

Section Name No. of Questions Marks per Question Negative Marking


Problem Solving & Analytical Reasoning 30 1 0
Verbal 30 1 0
GK 40 1 0

Section : Problem Solving & Analytical Reasoning

0
DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.

36
Question No. : 1

A man buys 3 Pens, 10 Sharpeners and 12 Erasers for Rs. 38/-. If he had purchased 10 Pens, 3 Sharpeners and 1 Eraser, the cost
would have been Rs. 79/-. How much he would have paid, had he purchased a Pen, a Sharpener and an Eraser?

A) Rs. 13 B) Rs. 7 C) Rs. 9 D) None of these S


R
DIRECTIONS for the question: The question given below has a problem and four alternatives. You have to choose the best
answer from the alternatives a, b, c and d.

Question No. : 2
E

Find the real value of x for which the eqauation x2+5x+5 is zero.

A) 2 B) 0 C) 3 D) None of these


E

Question No. : 3
R

DIRECTIONS for the question: Analyse the table/s given below and answer the question that follows.
Answer the question based on the data given in the table which shows the installment amounts for monthly repayments (in
A

Rupees) on housing loans for different periods.

Loan Repayment Period (Years)


C

Amount
(Rs) 10 15 20 25

1, 00, 000 1250 1050 900 850


2,00,000 2500 2050 1800 1600
10,00,000 12950 10300 9000 8450
15,00,000 19400 15450 13500 12650
20,00,000 25900 20600 18000 16800

How much more money would be paid on a loan of Rs. 20,00,000 taken out over 20 years compared to the same loan taken
over a period of 15 years?

A) Rs. 4,25,000 B) Rs. 3,00,000 C) Rs. 5,50,000 D) Rs. 6,12,000


Diagnostic Test - TISS

Question No. : 4
DIRECTIONS for the question: Analyse the table/s given below and answer the question that follows.
Answer the question based on the data given in the table which shows the installment amounts for monthly repayments (in
Rupees) on housing loans for different periods.
 
Loan Repayment Period (Years)
Amount
(Rs) 10 15 20 25

1, 00, 000 1250 1050 900 850


2,00,000 2500 2050 1800 1600
10,00,000 12950 10300 9000 8450
15,00,000 19400 15450 13500 12650

0
20,00,000 25900 20600 18000 16800
 

36
What is the total amount repaid over 25 years on a loan of Rs. 15,00,000?

A) Rs. 37,95,000 B) Rs. 22,50,000 C) Rs. 45,30,000 D) Rs. 55,70,000

Question No. : 5 S
DIRECTIONS for the question: Analyse the table/s given below and answer the question that follows.
Answer the question based on the data given in the table which shows the installment amounts for monthly repayments (in
Rupees) on housing loans for different periods.
R
 
Loan Repayment Period (Years)
Amount
E

(Rs) 10 15 20 25

1, 00, 000 1250 1050 900 850


E

2,00,000 2500 2050 1800 1600


10,00,000 12950 10300 9000 8450
R

15,00,000 19400 15450 13500 12650


20,00,000 25900 20600 18000 16800
 
A

The monthly repayment on a loan of Rs. 15,00,000 over 20 years is reduced to Rs. 12,500. By how much would this reduce the
total amount on the loan over the full period?
C

A) Rs 2,40, 000 B) Rs. 1,30,000 C) Rs. 2,24,000 D) Rs. 1,26,000


Diagnostic Test - TISS

Question No. : 6
DIRECTIONS for the question: Analyse the table/s given below and answer the question that follows.
Answer the question based on the data given in the table which shows the installment amounts for monthly repayments (in
Rupees) on housing loans for different periods.
 
Loan Repayment Period (Years)
Amount
(Rs) 10 15 20 25

1, 00, 000 1250 1050 900 850


2,00,000 2500 2050 1800 1600
10,00,000 12950 10300 9000 8450
15,00,000 19400 15450 13500 12650

0
20,00,000 25900 20600 18000 16800
 

36
Instead of taking a loan of Rs. 10,00,000 with a repayment period of 15 years, the society proposes to take a loan of Rs.
15,00,000 to be paid back in 10 years to provide for a generator set. What is the cumulative financial impact?

A) Rs 4,74, 000 B) Rs. 4,54,000 C) Rs. 5,67,000 D) Cannot be assessed

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option


S
Question No. : 7
R
The third term of G.P is 3, then what is the product of the first five terms?

A) 343 B) 243 C) 342 D) Insufficient data


E

DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.
E

Question No. : 8
R

A person distributes his property equally among his daughter Rita and son Ram. Rita further distributes the property equally
among her three sons A, B and C and Ram also distributes his property equally among his sons P and Q. Find the ratio of the
money received by B and Q?
A

A) 2:3 B) 3:2 C) 1:1 D) Data insufficient

DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.
C

Question No. : 9

The three natural numbers are in the ratio 3:2:5 and if the sum of their squares is 1862, then the greatest of three natural
number is

A) 17 B) 24 C) 61 D) 35

DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.

Question No. : 10

Find the interest earned when 700 is invested at 7.5% per annuam for 4 years .

A) Rs. 300 B) Rs. 350 C) Rs. 220 D) None of these


Diagnostic Test - TISS

DIRECTION for the question: Mark the best option.


Question No. : 11

A train passes a station platform in 36 seconds and a man standing on the platform in20 seconds. If the speed of the train is 54 km/h find
the length of the platform.

A) 225 m B) 235 m C) 230 m D) 240 m

DIRECTION for the question: Mark the best option.


Question No. : 12

A man who can swim 48 m/min in still water swims 200 m against the current and 200 m with the current. If the difference between those 2
times is 10 minutes, find the speed of the current.

A) 30 m/min B) 29 m/min C) 31 m/min D) 32 m/min

0
DIRECTION for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best option.
Question No. : 13

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A) 4 B) 8 C) 6 D) 10 S
DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.
R
Question No. : 14

A cube of side 10 cm is coloured red with a 2cm wide green strip along all the sides on all the faces. The cube is cut into 125
E

smaller cubes of equal size. Answer the following questions based on this statement:

How many cubes have one face red and an adjacent face green?
E

A) 0 B) 6 C) 8 D) 16


R

DIRECTION for the question: Answer the following question as per the best of your judgement.
Question No. : 15
A

 
If a square region has area A, what is the length of the diagonal in terms of A?

A) 2A B)  C)  D) 


C

DIRECTION for the question: Answer the following question as per the best of your judgement.
Question No. : 16

 
If the perimeter of a rectangular plot is 34 meters and its area is 60 square meters, what is the length of shorter side?

A) 10 m B) 15 m C) 17 m D) 5 m


Diagnostic Test - TISS

DIRECTIONS for the question:Read the information carefuly and answer the question that follows:

Question No. : 17

1,496 cm3 of a metal is used to cast a pipe of length 28 cm. If the internal radius of the pipe is 8 cm, the outer radius of the pipe
is

A) 7 cm B) 10 cm C) 9 cm D) 12 cm

DIRECTION for the question: Answer the following question as per the best of your judgement.
Question No. : 18

 
If x is to be chosen at random from the set {1, 2, 3, 4} and y is to be chosen at random from the set (5, 6, 7), what is the

0
probability that xy will be even?

A)  B)  C)  D) 

36
DIRECTION for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.

Question No. : 19 S
 
A speaks truth in 75% of cases and B in 80% of cases. In what percent of cases are they likely to contradict each other in
R
narrating the same event?

A) 35% B) 5% C) 45% D) 22.5%


E

DIRECTIONS for the question : Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.
E

Question No. : 20

If log 7 log 5 (√x + 5 + √ x) = 0, find the value of x.


R

A) 1 B) 0 C) 2 D) None of these

DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.
A

Question No. : 21
C

If the average of 7 consecutive even numbers is 20, then what is the product of the smallest and the biggest number?

A) 352 B) 562 C) 432 D) 364

DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.

Question No. : 22

A librarian had a number of books to place in the shelf. At first he tried to place 4 in each row; then 5; then 6; then 8; then 9; but
had always 2 left. On trying 13; he had none left. What is the number of books that he could have?

A) 362 B) 468 C) 1802 D) 2522


Diagnostic Test - TISS
DIRECTIONS for the question: Go through the pie chart/s given below and answer the question that follows.

Question No. : 23
The pie chart shows the hourly distribution (in degrees) of all the major activities of a student.
 

0
36
The percentage of time which he spends in school is approximately equal to:

A) 38% B) 30% C) 40% D) 25%

DIRECTIONS for the question: Go through the pie chart/s given below and answer the question that follows.
S
Question No. : 24
R
The pie chart shows the hourly distribution (in degrees) of all the major activities of a student.
 
E
E
R
A
C

How much time (in percent) does he spend in games in comparison to sleeping?

A) 30% B) 40% C) 25% D) None of these


Diagnostic Test - TISS
DIRECTIONS for the question: Go through the pie chart/s given below and answer the question that follows.

Question No. : 25
The pie chart shows the hourly distribution (in degrees) of all the major activities of a student.
 

0
36
If he spends the time in games equal to the home work (reducing the time in sleeping) and remains constant in other activities,
then the percentage decrease in time of sleeping:

A) 15% B) 12.5% C) 20% D) None of these


S
DIRECTIONS: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option
R
Question No. : 26

3x+3 × 92x-5 =33x+7 ,then x is equal to:


E

A) 1 B) 3 C) 5 D) 7


E

DIRECTION for the question: Answer the following question as per the best of your judgement.
R

Question No. : 27

 
A lawn is in the form of an isosceles triangle. The cost of turfing it came to Rs. 1200 at Rs. 4.0 per m2. If the base of the lawn is
A

40m long, then the length of each side is –

A) 25 m B) 40 m C) 50 m D) 35 m


C

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option.

Question No. : 28

Two cm rain has fallen on a sq. km of land: Assuming that 50% of the rain drops could have been collected and contained in a
pool having a 100 m × 10 m base by what level would the water level in the pool has increased?

A) 15 m B) 10 m C) 20 m D) 25 m


Diagnostic Test - TISS

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option.


Question No. : 29

 
Two pipes P and Q would fill a cistern in 24 and 32 minutes, respectively. Both pipes are kept open. When should the first pipe
be turned off so that the cistern may be just filled in 16 minutes?

A) After 10 minutes B) After 12 minutes C) After 14 minutes D) None of these

DIRECTIONS for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.

Question No. : 30

The least integer, which when added to both terms of the ratio 5:9 makes the ratio greater than 7:10, is

0
A) 4 B) 3 C) 5 D) 6

Section : Verbal

36
DIRECTIONS for the question: Pick the word from the alternatives given that is most appropriate in the given context.

Question No. : 31

B) Crowded against C) Part of


S
Jostle - We were jostled by a big crowd at the entrance to the circus.

A) Encircled D) Philandered
R
DIRECTIONS for the question: Pick the word from the alternatives given that is most appropriate in the given context.
E

Question No. : 32

Dominate - She spoke with the authority needed to dominate the meeting.
E

A) Impact B) Sort out C) Control D) Adjourn


R

DIRECTIONS for the question: Pick the word from the alternatives given that is most appropriate in the given context.

Question No. : 33
A

Agile - You need an agile mind to solve puzzles.

A) Responsive B) Analytical C) Intellectual D) Quick


C

DIRECTIONS for the question: Pick the word from the alternatives given that is most appropriate in the given context.

Question No. : 34

Ratify - The Senate ratified the treaty.

A) Realised B) Approved C) Blocked D) Reconsidered


Diagnostic Test - TISS
DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

Question No. : 35
On August 3, 1492 , Christopher Columbus set sail from Palos , Spain , with less than a hundred crew members to discover a
new route to Asia. After spending a difficult time at sea, the party sighted land early on the morning ofOctober 12, 1492. They
set foot on an island in the Bahamas which they named Al Salvador. Columbus presumed that the indigenous people were
Native Indians as he was under the mistaken belief that he had set foot on Indian soil. Probably some 10 million American
Indians were natives to the land before the large-scale inhabitation by Europeans and subsequent annihilation of Native
Americans started.
 
However, it took more than a hundred years after Columbus discovered America for the Europeans to finally take the
momentous decision to make the New World their home.
 
The Native Americans actually welcomed the pale-skinned visitors primarily out of curiosity than anything else. They were
fascinated by the steel knives and swords, fire spewing cannons, brass and copper utensils, etc. that these visitors brought with

0
them. Eventually, cultural differences erupted. The natives could not stomach the arrogance of the newcomers and the scant
respect they paid to nature. The European settlers viewed every resource — plants, animals, and people as something to be

36
commercially exploited.
 
The native Indians were vastly outnumbered in the wars that ensued. The resistance they put up never proved enough to stop
the European settlers. The nomadic lifestyle of the Indians, the relatively unsophisticated weapons at their disposal, the
unwillingness of some of their own people to defend themselves, and the diseases of the white men — all contributed to the
virtual elimination of their race. Some of the diseases brought by Europeans from their overcrowded cities that decimated the
S
natives were: small pox, plague, measles, cholera, typhoid, and malaria. These deadly diseases, to which most natives had
developed no resistance, devastated many tribes between 1775 and 1850.
 
R
America was named after an Italian navigator, Amerigo Vespucci, who explored the Northern parts of South America in 1499
and 1500 and later announced to the world about the discovery of a new
continent.                                                                                            
E

Why did the natives welcome the settlers from Europe?


E

A) They were not an aggressive lot and refrained from fighting


B) They did not anticipate the evil designs of Columbus and his crew
C) They were not aware that the Europeans were infected with communicable disease.
R

D) They were fascinated by the novel articles brought by the settlers.


A
C
Diagnostic Test - TISS
DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

Question No. : 36
On August 3, 1492 , Christopher Columbus set sail from Palos , Spain , with less than a hundred crew members to discover a
new route to Asia. After spending a difficult time at sea, the party sighted land early on the morning ofOctober 12, 1492. They
set foot on an island in the Bahamas which they named Al Salvador. Columbus presumed that the indigenous people were
Native Indians as he was under the mistaken belief that he had set foot on Indian soil. Probably some 10 million American
Indians were natives to the land before the large-scale inhabitation by Europeans and subsequent annihilation of Native
Americans started.
 
However, it took more than a hundred years after Columbus discovered America for the Europeans to finally take the
momentous decision to make the New World their home.
 
The Native Americans actually welcomed the pale-skinned visitors primarily out of curiosity than anything else. They were
fascinated by the steel knives and swords, fire spewing cannons, brass and copper utensils, etc. that these visitors brought with

0
them. Eventually, cultural differences erupted. The natives could not stomach the arrogance of the newcomers and the scant
respect they paid to nature. The European settlers viewed every resource — plants, animals, and people as something to be

36
commercially exploited.
 
The native Indians were vastly outnumbered in the wars that ensued. The resistance they put up never proved enough to stop
the European settlers. The nomadic lifestyle of the Indians, the relatively unsophisticated weapons at their disposal, the
unwillingness of some of their own people to defend themselves, and the diseases of the white men — all contributed to the
virtual elimination of their race. Some of the diseases brought by Europeans from their overcrowded cities that decimated the
S
natives were: small pox, plague, measles, cholera, typhoid, and malaria. These deadly diseases, to which most natives had
developed no resistance, devastated many tribes between 1775 and 1850.
 
R
America was named after an Italian navigator, Amerigo Vespucci, who explored the Northern parts of South America in 1499
and 1500 and later announced to the world about the discovery of a new
continent.                                                                                            
E

Where did Columbus and his crew land first on their arrival in America?
E

A) South America B) Palos C) The Bahamas D) Canada


R
A
C
Diagnostic Test - TISS
DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

Question No. : 37
On August 3, 1492 , Christopher Columbus set sail from Palos , Spain , with less than a hundred crew members to discover a
new route to Asia. After spending a difficult time at sea, the party sighted land early on the morning ofOctober 12, 1492. They
set foot on an island in the  Bahamas  which they named Al Salvador.  Columbus  presumed that the indigenous people were
Native Indians as he was under the mistaken belief that he had set foot on Indian soil. Probably some 10 million American
Indians were natives to the land before the large-scale inhabitation by Europeans and subsequent  annihilation  of Native
Americans started.
 
However, it took more than a hundred years after Columbus discovered America for the Europeans to finally take the
momentous decision to make the New World their home.
 
The Native Americans actually welcomed the pale-skinned visitors primarily out of curiosity than anything else. They were
fascinated by the steel knives and swords, fire spewing cannons, brass and copper utensils, etc. that these visitors brought with

0
them. Eventually, cultural differences erupted. The natives could not stomach the arrogance of the newcomers and the scant
respect they paid to nature. The European settlers viewed every resource — plants, animals, and people as something to be

36
commercially exploited.
 
The native Indians were vastly outnumbered in the wars that ensued. The resistance they put up never proved enough to stop
the European settlers. The nomadic lifestyle of the Indians, the relatively unsophisticated weapons at their disposal, the
unwillingness of some of their own people to defend themselves, and the diseases of the white men — all contributed to the
virtual elimination of their race. Some of the diseases brought by Europeans from their overcrowded cities that decimated the
S
natives were: small pox, plague, measles, cholera, typhoid, and malaria. These deadly diseases, to which most natives had
developed no resistance, devastated many tribes between 1775 and 1850.
 
R
America was named after an Italian navigator, Amerigo Vespucci, who explored the Northern parts of South America in 1499
and 1500 and later announced to the world about the discovery of a new continent.

The word annihilation in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to


E

A) Subjugation B) Extermination C) Colonization D) Exploitation


E
R
A
C
Diagnostic Test - TISS
DIRECTIONS for the question: Read the passage and answer the question based on it.

Question No. : 38
On August 3, 1492 , Christopher Columbus set sail from Palos , Spain , with less than a hundred crew members to discover a
new route to Asia. After spending a difficult time at sea, the party sighted land early on the morning ofOctober 12, 1492. They
set foot on an island in the Bahamas which they named Al Salvador. Columbus presumed that the indigenous people were
Native Indians as he was under the mistaken belief that he had set foot on Indian soil. Probably some 10 million American
Indians were natives to the land before the large-scale inhabitation by Europeans and subsequent annihilation of Native
Americans started.
 
However, it took more than a hundred years after Columbus discovered America for the Europeans to finally take the
momentous decision to make the New World their home.
 
The Native Americans actually welcomed the pale-skinned visitors primarily out of curiosity than anything else. They were
fascinated by the steel knives and swords, fire spewing cannons, brass and copper utensils, etc. that these visitors brought with

0
them. Eventually, cultural differences erupted. The natives could not stomach the arrogance of the newcomers and the scant
respect they paid to nature. The European settlers viewed every resource — plants, animals, and people as something to be

36
commercially exploited.
 
The native Indians were vastly outnumbered in the wars that ensued. The resistance they put up never proved enough to stop
the European settlers. The nomadic lifestyle of the Indians, the relatively unsophisticated weapons at their disposal, the
unwillingness of some of their own people to defend themselves, and the diseases of the white men — all contributed to the
virtual elimination of their race. Some of the diseases brought by Europeans from their overcrowded cities that decimated the
S
natives were: small pox, plague, measles, cholera, typhoid, and malaria. These deadly diseases, to which most natives had
developed no resistance, devastated many tribes between 1775 and 1850.
 
R
America was named after an Italian navigator, Amerigo Vespucci, who explored the Northern parts of South America in 1499
and 1500 and later announced to the world about the discovery of a new
continent.                                                                                            
E

What can be inferred from the third paragraph?


E

A) The native Americans did not have any weapons with which to defend themselves.
B) The native Americans probably attached a lot of importance to and respected nature.
C) The native Americans did not know how to use natural resources.
R

D) The early settlers became arrogant as they could commercially exploit resources.

DIRECTIONS for the question: Choose the word from the options which is most Similar in meaning to the given word.
A

Question No. : 39
C

HARSH

A) Novel B) Ruthless C) Stark  D) Kind

DIRECTIONS for the question: Choose the word from the options which is Opposite in meaning to the given word.

Question No. : 40

Vainglorious

A) Humble B) Haughty C) Burdensome D) Reluctant


Diagnostic Test - TISS
DIRECTIONS for the question : Read the passage and answer the question based on it. 

Question No. : 41
The strength of Indian democracy lies in its tradition, in the fusion of the ideas of democracy and national independence which
was the characteristic of the Indian nationalist movement long before Independence. Although the British retained supreme
authority in India until I947, the provincial elections of 1957 provided real exercise in democratic practice before national
independence; during the Pacific war,  India was not overrun or seriously invaded by the Japanese and after the War was over,
the transfer to power to a government of the Indian Congress Party was a peaceful one as far as Britain was concerned. By 1947
‘Indianisation’ had already gone far in the Indian Civil Service and Army, so that the new government could start with effective
instruments of central control.  After independence, however, India was faced with two vast problems; the first, that of
economic; growth from a very low level of production, and the second was that of ethnic diversity and the aspirations of sub
nationalities. The Congress leadership was more aware of the former problem than of the second; as a new political elite which
had rebelled not only against the British Raj but also against lndia's old social order, they were conscious of the need to initiate
economic development and undertake social reforms, but as nationalists who had led a struggle against the alien rule on behalf
of all parts of India, they took the cohesion  of the Indian nation too much for granted and underestimated the centrifugal

0
forces of ethnic  division, which were bound to be accentuated rather than diminished as the popular masses were more and
more drawn into politics. The Congress Party was originally opposed to the idea of recognizing any division of India on a

36
linguistic basis and preferred to retain the old provinces of British India which often cut across linguistic States was conceded as
the basis for a federal `Indian Union`. The rights granted to the States created new problems for the Central Government. The
idea of making Hindi the national language of a united India was thwarted by the recalcitrance of the speakers of other
important Indian languages, and the autonomy of the States rendered central economic planning extremely difficult. Land
reforms remained under the control of the States and many large—scale economic projects required a degree of cooperation
between the Central Government and one or more of the States which it was found impossible to achieve. Coordination of
S
policies and difficult even when the Congress Party was in power both in the States and at the Centre; when a Congress
Government in Delhi was confronted with non-Congress parties in office in the states, it became much harder
R
Why was central economic planning found to be difficult?

A) It was difficult because of Multiplicity of States and Union Territories


B) There was lack of coordination in different Government departments
E

C) The Autonomy given to the States in certain matters D) There was lack of will in implementing land reforms
E
R
A
C
Diagnostic Test - TISS
DIRECTIONS for the question : Read the passage and answer the question based on it. 

Question No. : 42
The strength of Indian democracy lies in its tradition, in the fusion of the ideas of democracy and national independence which
was the characteristic of the Indian nationalist movement long before Independence. Although the British retained supreme
authority in India until I947, the provincial elections of 1957 provided real exercise in democratic practice before national
independence; during die Pacific India was not overrun or seriously invaded by the Japanese and after the War was over, the
transfer to power to a government of the Indian Congress Party was a peaceful one as far as Britain was concerned. By 1947
‘Indianisation’ had already gone far in die Indian Civil Service and Army, so that the new government could start with effective
instruments of central control.  After independence, however, India was faced with two vast problems; the first, that of
economic; growth from a very low level of production, and the second was that of ethnic diversity and the aspirations of sub
nationalities. The Congress leadership was more aware of the former problem than of the second; as a new political elite which
had rebelled not only against the British Raj but also against lndia's old social order, they were conscious of the need to initiate
economic development and undertake social reforms, but as nationalists who had led a struggle against the alien rule on behalf
of all parts of India, they took the cohesion  of the Indian nation too much for granted and underestimated the centrifugal

0
forces of ethnic  division, which were bound to be accentuated rather than diminished as the popular masses were more and
more drawn into politics. The Congress Party was originally opposed to the idea of recognizing any division of India on a

36
linguistic basis and preferred to retain the old provinces of British India which often cut across linguistic States was conceded as
the basis for a federal `Indian Union`. The rights granted to the States created new problems for the Central Government. The
idea of making Hindi the national language of a united India was thwarted by the recalcitrance of the speakers of other
important Indian languages, and the autonomy of the States rendered central economic planning extremely difficult. Land
reforms remained under the control of the States and many large—scale economic projects required a degree of cooperation
between the Central Government and one or more of the States which it was found impossible to achieve. Coordination of
S
policies and difficult even when the Congress Party was in power both in the States and at the Centre; when a Congress
Government in Delhi was confronted with non-Congress parties in office in the states, it became much harder
R
Which of the following problems India was faced with after Independence?

A) Military attack from a country across the border B) Lack of coordination between the Central and State Governments
C) Improper coordination between various Government policies D) Increasing the production from a very low level
E
E
R
A
C
Diagnostic Test - TISS
DIRECTIONS for the question : Read the passage and answer the question based on it. 

Question No. : 43
The strength of Indian democracy lies in its tradition, in the fusion of the ideas of democracy and national independence which
was the characteristic of the Indian nationalist movement long before Independence. Although the British retained supreme
authority in India until I947, the provincial elections of 1957 provided real exercise in democratic practice before national
independence; during the Pacific India was not overrun or seriously invaded by the Japanese and after the War was over, the
transfer to power to a government of the Indian Congress Party was a peaceful one as far as Britain was concerned. By 1947
‘Indianisation’ had already gone far in die Indian Civil Service and Army, so that the new government could start with effective
instruments of central control.  After independence, however, India was faced with two vast problems; the first, that of
economic; growth from a very low level of production, and the second was that of ethnic diversity and the aspirations of sub
nationalities. The Congress leadership was more aware of the former problem than of the second; as a new political elite which
had rebelled not only against the British Raj but also against lndia's old social order, they were conscious of the need to initiate
economic development and undertake social reforms, but as nationalists who had led a struggle against the alien rule on behalf
of all parts of India, they took the cohesion  of the Indian nation too much for granted and underestimated the centrifugal

0
forces of ethnic  division, which were bound to be accentuated rather than diminished as the popular masses were more and
more drawn into politics. The Congress Party was originally opposed to the idea of recognizing any division of India on a

36
linguistic basis and preferred to retain the old provinces of British India which often cut across linguistic States was conceded as
the basis for a federal `Indian Union`. The rights granted to the States created new problems for the Central Government. The
idea of making Hindi the national language of a united India was thwarted by the recalcitrance of the speakers of other
important Indian languages, and the autonomy of the States rendered central economic planning extremely difficult. Land
reforms remained under the control of the States and many large—scale economic projects required a degree of cooperation
between the Central Government and one or more of the States which it was found impossible to achieve. Coordination of
S
policies and difficult even when the Congress Party was in power both in the States and at the Centre; when a Congress
Government in Delhi was confronted with non-Congress parties in office in the states, it became much harder
R
Which of the following issues was not appropriately realized by the Central Government?

A) Ethnic diversity of the people B) A national language for the country
C) There was no Implementation of the Formulated policies D) Centre-State relations
E
E
R
A
C
Diagnostic Test - TISS
DIRECTIONS for the question : Read the passage and answer the question based on it. 

Question No. : 44
The strength of Indian democracy lies in its tradition, in the fusion of the ideas of democracy and national independence which
was the characteristic of the Indian nationalist movement long before Independence. Although the British retained supreme
authority in India until I947, the provincial elections of 1957 provided real exercise in democratic practice before national
independence; during the Pacific India was not overrun or seriously invaded by the Japanese and after the War was over, the
transfer to power to a government of the Indian Congress Party was a peaceful one as far as Britain was concerned. By 1947
‘Indianisation’ had already gone far in die Indian Civil Service and Army, so that the new government could start with effective
instruments of central control.  After independence, however, India was faced with two vast problems; the first, that of
economic; growth from a very low level of production, and the second was that of ethnic diversity and the aspirations of sub
nationalities. The Congress leadership was more aware of the former problem than of the second; as a new political elite which
had rebelled not only against the British Raj but also against lndia's old social order, they were conscious of the need to initiate
economic development and undertake social reforms, but as nationalists who had led a struggle against the alien rule on behalf
of all parts of India, they took the cohesion  of the Indian nation too much for granted and underestimated the centrifugal

0
forces of ethnic  division, which were bound to be accentuated rather than diminished as the popular masses were more and
more drawn into politics. The Congress Party was originally opposed to the idea of recognizing any division of India on a

36
linguistic basis and preferred to retain the old provinces of British India which often cut across linguistic States was conceded as
the basis for a federal `Indian Union`. The rights granted to the States created new problems for the Central Government. The
idea of making Hindi the national language of a united India was thwarted by the recalcitrance of the speakers of other
important Indian languages, and the autonomy of the States rendered central economic planning extremely difficult. Land
reforms remained under the control of the States and many large—scale economic projects required a degree of cooperation
between the Central Government and one or more of the States which it was found impossible to achieve. Coordination of
S
policies and difficult even when the Congress Party was in power both in the States and at the Centre; when a Congress
Government in Delhi was confronted with non-Congress parties in office in the states, it became much harder
R
Which, according to the passage, can be cited as exercise in democratic practice in India before Independence?

A) The handing over of power by British to India B) The Indianisation of the Indian Civil Service
C) Several democratic institution created by the Indian National Congress D) None of the following
E
E
R
A
C
Diagnostic Test - TISS
DIRECTIONS for the question : Read the passage and answer the question based on it. 

Question No. : 45
The strength of Indian democracy lies in its tradition, in the fusion of the ideas of democracy and national independence which
was the characteristic of the Indian nationalist movement long before Independence. Although the British retained supreme
authority in India until I947, the provincial elections of 1957 provided real exercise in democratic practice before national
independence; during die Pacific India was not overrun or seriously invaded by the Japanese and after the War was over, the
transfer to power to a government of the Indian Congress Party was a peaceful one as far as Britain was concerned. By 1947
‘Indianisation’ had already gone far in die Indian Civil Service and Army, so that the new government could start with effective
instruments of central control.  After independence, however, India was faced with two vast problems; the first, that of
economic; growth from a very low level of production, and the second was that of ethnic diversity and the aspirations of sub
nationalities. The Congress leadership was more aware of the former problem than of the second; as a new political elite which
had rebelled not only against the British Raj but also against lndia's old social order, they were conscious of the need to initiate
economic development and undertake social reforms, but as nationalists who had led a struggle against the alien rule on behalf
of all parts of India, they took the cohesion  of the Indian nation too much for granted and underestimated the centrifugal

0
forces of ethnic  division, which were bound to be accentuated rather than diminished as the popular masses were more and
more drawn into politics. The Congress Party was originally opposed to the idea of recognizing any division of India on a

36
linguistic basis and preferred to retain the old provinces of British India which often cut across linguistic States was conceded as
the basis for a federal `Indian Union`. The rights granted to the States created new problems for the Central Government. The
idea of making Hindi the national language of a united India was thwarted by the recalcitrance of the speakers of other
important Indian languages, and the autonomy of the States rendered central economic planning extremely difficult. Land
reforms remained under the control of the States and many large—scale economic projects required a degree of cooperation
between the Central Government and one or more of the States which it was found impossible to achieve. Coordination of
S
policies and difficult even when the Congress Party was in power both in the States and at the Centre; when a Congress
Government in Delhi was confronted with non-Congress parties in office in the states, it became much harder
R
Why was the linguistic reorganization of the States accepted?

A) The States were not cooperating with the Central Government


B) Non Congress Governments in the States demanded such a reorganization of die States
E

C) No common national language could be emerged.


D) Strong pressure from the States was exerted on the Central Government to create such States
E

DIRECTIONS for the question: The question consists of five statements labelled A, B, C, D and E which when logically ordered
form a coherent passage. Choose the option that represents the most logical order.
R

Question No. : 46

A.   In simpler terms, it is the Indian version of the Razzies.


A

B.  The 3rd Golden Kela Awards will be hosted by Cyrus Broacha this year.
C.  It was created in order to ridicule the bad performances and as a revenge for wasting our precious time and money on such
idiotic films.
C

D.  The Golden Kela is held each year where awards are given for the year's worst in Bollywood.
E.  It was created by Random magazine, India's longest running humor magazine in the year 2009.

A) DAECB B) BACDE C) ACEDB D) CEADB


Diagnostic Test - TISS
DIRECTIONS for the question: The question consists of five statements labelled A, B, C, D and E which when logically ordered
form a coherent passage. Choose the option that represents the most logical order.

Question No. : 47

A.  Despite the strong performance of the economy in 2010-11, the outlook for 2011-12 is clouded by stubborn and
persistently high inflation, and rising external risks.
B.  The three key macroeconomic concerns before the Union Budget 2011-12 were high inflation, high current account deficit
(CAD), and fiscal consolidation.
C.  Additionally, there was an expectation that the government would restart the reform process.
D.  While the Budget sets a lower nominal gross domestic product (GDP) growth target of 14%, we believe that the real GDP
growth target of 9% factored in the Budget is on the optimistic side.
E.  The Budget has made an attempt to address all these issues, albeit through small steps.
 

A) BCEAD B) CBAED C) DACEB D) ADCEB

0
DIRECTIONS for the question: The question consists of five statements labelled A, B, C, D and E which when logically ordered

36
form a coherent passage. Choose the option that represents the most logical order.

Question No. : 48

A. These were mainly bulwarks against winter, the hoarded dregs of more plentiful seasons.
B. The first were the earliest mince pies, which saw cooked, shredded meat, dried fruits, alcohol with its preservative qualities
S
and perhaps a few spices or herbs, all encased in large pies.
C. Subsequently, people baked this into a kind of pie, adding bread-crumbs for bulk, eggs to bind it, and upping the dried fruits
and called it 'plum pudding'.
R
D. The pudding seems to have had two principal forerunners.
E. The second main pudding was a pottage or soup called frumenty, a fast dish involving cracked wheat, currants and almonds
which was ladled out at the start of a meal.
E

A) ECDAB B) BAECD C) DACEB D) DBAEC


E

DIRECTIONS for the question: The question consists of five statements labelled A, B, C, D and E which when logically ordered
form a coherent passage. Choose the option that represents the most logical order.
R

Question No. : 49
A

A.   In a bid to placate the associate members, the ICC has decided to increase the number of participating teams to 16 in the
Twenty20 World Cup, as the game's governing body feels these countries will have a greater chance of competing on an
equal footing in cricket's shortest format.
B.   It is convenient just now to forget that in the last edition of the tournament, considerable criticism was heaped on the
C

governing body for the inordinate length of the tournament, thanks in large part to the presence of the associates.
C.  To be fair to the ICC, criticism of the move to restrict the number of teams in the next edition of the Cup is a case of damned
if you do, damned if you don't.
D.  The ICC's decision to restrict the number of teams in the 2015 World Cup has evoked mixed responses, with opinion divided
among players of the full member teams.
E.  Not surprisingly, the associate members aren't too thrilled about the idea of being kept out of cricket's showpiece event.
 

A) ECDAB B) BAECD C) DACEB D) DEACB


Diagnostic Test - TISS
DIRECTIONS for the question: Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent
paragraph.

Question No. : 50

A. The two neighbors never fought with each other.


B. Fights involving three male fiddler crabs have been recorded, but the status of the participants was unknown.
C. They pushed or grappled only with the intruder.
D. We recorded 17 cases in which a resident who was fighting an intruder was joined by an immediate neighbor, an ally.
E. We therefore tracked 268 intruder males until we saw them fighting a resident male.
 

A) BEDAC B) DEBAC C) BDCAE D) BCEDA

0
DIRECTIONS for the question: The sentence has two blanks, indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of
words that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

36
Question No. : 51

I am not attracted by the _______________ life of the ______________, always wandering through countryside, begging for charity.

A) proud, almsgiver B) affluent, mendicant C) peripatetic, vagabond D) natural, philanthropist


S
DIRECTIONS for the question: The sentence has two blanks, indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of
words that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
R
Question No. : 52
E

Though the country has ______________ free medical service for the poor, it is _____________.

A) stopped, unaffordable B) maintained, admirable C) favoured, appreciable D) instituted, inadequate


E

DIRECTIONS for the question: The sentence has two blanks, indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of
R

words that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

Question No. : 53
A

If criminals are _____________ to join electoral fray, _____________ is likely to increase.

A) allowed, extortion B) encouraged, harmony C) invited, voting D) compelled, brotherhood


C

DIRECTIONS for the question: The sentence has two blanks, indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of
words that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

Question No. : 54

They fought most ____________ yet success _____________ them.

A) courageously, dishonoured B) valiantly, eluded C) sincerely, failed D) bravely, favoured


Diagnostic Test - TISS
DIRECTIONS for the question: Complete the sentence by filling in the appropriate blank/blanks from the options provided.

Question No. : 55

The frequent business trips though ______________at times gave the executive a unique chance to meet interesting people.
 

 
 

A) crucial B) monotonous C) malevolent D) influential

DIRECTIONS for the question: Choose the pair of words which best expresses the relationship similar to that expressed in the
capitalized pair.

0
Question No. : 56

Cobbler is related to shoes in the same way plumber is related to _____

36
A) Wires B) Chairs C) Clothes D) Pipes

DIRECTIONS for the question: Choose the pair of words which best expresses the relationship similar to that expressed in the
capitalized pair.

Question No. : 57
S
If Gold is related to Ornament, then Wood is related to?
R
A) Table B) Chair C) Decoration D) Furniture
E

DIRECTIONS for the question: Choose the pair of words which best expresses the relationship similar to that expressed in the
capitalized pair.
E

Question No. : 58

Agency : Organization
R

A) Father  : Mother B) Mother : Parent C) Sister : Brother D) Night : Sleep


A

DIRECTIONS for the question: Choose the pair of words which best expresses the relationship similar to that expressed in the
capitalized pair.
C

Question No. : 59

Entertain : Movie

A) Hard work : sucess B) Cheese : Milk C) Fit : Exercise D) Fire : Smoke

DIRECTIONS for the question: Choose the pair of words which best expresses the relationship similar to that expressed in the
capitalized pair.

Question No. : 60

Interest  : Obsession  :: ?

A) Dream  : Fantasy B) Highlight  : Indication C) Mood  : Feeling D) Weeping : Sadness E) Plan : Negation
Diagnostic Test - TISS

Section : GK

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Question No. : 61

“Yellow Cake” is a popular name given to

A) Gold biscuits B) Opium packets C) Uranium D) Sulphur

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best choice.

Question No. : 62

0
National Income of India is compiled by

A) Finance Commission B) Indian Statistical Institute C) National Development Council

36
D) Central Statistical Organisation

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Question No. : 63 S
The group of languages spoken by the largest number of people in India is:

A) Austro-Asiatic B) Indo-Aryan C) Dravidian D) None of these


R
DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:
E

Question No. : 64

Which one of the countries never had a woman as the President/Prime Minister?
E

A) Sri Lanka B) Australia C) Bangladesh D) United States


R

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:


A

Question No. : 65

Visakhadatta sketches the events after the death of Samudragupta in his work
C

A) Mudrarakasam B) Devichandra Guptam C) Mrichhkatikam D) Malavikagnimitra

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Question No. : 66

The author of “A Town Called Malgudi” is

A) Mulk Raj Anand B) RK Narayan C) Salman Rushdie D) Khushwant Singh

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Question No. : 67

Name the Indian tribe which is still living on trees?

A) Jenu Kuruba B) Khasi C) Paharia D) Oangs


Diagnostic Test - TISS
DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Question No. : 68

Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL) had closed down the Telegram service, making Telegraph a thing of past. In which year
was the first Telegram sent in India?

A) 1848 B) 1854 C) 1853 D) 1857

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Question No. : 69

GAAR stands for

0
A) General Anti Avoidance Regulations B) Generic Anti Avoidance Rules C) General Anti Avoidance Rule
D) General Anti Avoidance Reforms

36
DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Question No. : 70

“The Red Shirts” was a famous movement launched by

A) Chandra shekhar Azad B) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:


S
C) Bhagat Singh D) None of these
R
Question No. : 71
E

The plants that love to grow in salty environments are called

A) Halophytes B) Mesophytes C) Xerophytes D) Aquaphytes


E

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:


R

Question No. : 72

The carrier in case of dengue is


A

A) Plasmodium falciparum B) Male Anopheles C) Female Anopheles D) Aedes aegypti

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:


C

Question No. : 73

Geomorphology is the science of

A) Stars B) Earthquakes C) Landscape forms on earth's surface D) Internal structure of the earth

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Question No. : 74

The “sea of tranquility” is on the

A) Jupiter B) Moon C) Sun D) Pacific ocean


Diagnostic Test - TISS
DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Question No. : 75

‘Sakshat’is

A) an educational website B) a missile C) an artificial satelite D) a Railway project

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Question No. : 76

In Column 1 are the names of some great Indians, whose birthdays are celebrated as special days, which are given in Column 2.
Match the birthday with the day of celebration
 

0
Column 1: Birthday of Column 2: Celebrated in India as
i.     Swami Vivekananda a.   Harmony Day

36
ii.     M. Visvesvaraya b.  Doctors Day
iii.     Rajiv Gandhi c.   National Youth Day
iv.     B.C. Roy d.   Engineers Day

A) i-a; ii-b; iii-c; iv-d B) i-c; ii-b; iii-d; iv-a C) i-c; ii-d; iii-a; iv-b
S D) i-d; ii-c; iii-b; iv-a

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:


R
Question No. : 77

Which of the following groups of countries is not a member of the United Nations?
E

A) Taiwan, Yemen, Tunisia B) Tunisia, Vatican City, Turkish Cyprus C) Tunisia, Turkish Cyprus, Vatican City
D) Vatican City, Turkish Cyprus, Taiwan
E

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:


R

Question No. : 78

Beyond atomic number _____, all elements are known to be radioactive.


A

A) 95 B) 92 C) 101 D) 87

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:


C

Question No. : 79

Which of the following is an ore of Uranium?

A) Pitch Blende B) Bauxite C) Cryolite D) Cryolite

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Question No. : 80

What is used for measuring the relative humidity of the atmosphere?

A) Hygrometer B) Hydrometer C) Barometer D) Manometer


Diagnostic Test - TISS
DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Question No. : 81

The New Economic Policy was introduced in India in the year

A) 2012 B) 2013 C) 1991 D) 2001

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Question No. : 82

Atoms of a gas X reacts with ozone and converts it into simple oxygen which is unable to absorb UV rays. X is

A) Carbon Dioxide B) Helium C) Chlorine D) Hydrogen

0
DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

36
Question No. : 83

Who is fondly known as 'Madiba?

A) Mahatma Gandhi B) Aung San Suu Kyi C) Nelson Mandela D) Dalai Lama

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:


S
R
Question No. : 84

The antibiotic Penicillin is obtained from a


E

A) Virus B) Protozoan C) Bacterium D) Fungus

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:


E

Question No. : 85
R

The Sargasso sea is situated in the :

A) Indian Ocean B) Arctic Ocean C) Atlantic Ocean D) Pacific Ocean


A

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:


C

Question No. : 86

The Taj Mahal was modelled on

A) Alai Minar B) Babur's mausoleum C) Black Taj D) Humayun's tomb

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Question No. : 87

Who among the following Englishmen was the first to visit the Mughal court?

A) Sir Thomas Roe B) Captain William Hawkins C) King James D) None of the above
Diagnostic Test - TISS
DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Question No. : 88

Which of the following rivers is called the sorrow of Bihar?

A) Gandaki B) Kosi C) Bramhaputra D) Mahananda

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Question No. : 89

UNESCO is a United Nations agency. UNESCO stands for ________________.

A) United Nations Environmental, Social and Cultural Organisation

0
B) United Nations Ecological, Scientific and Cultural Organisation
C) United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation
D) United Nations Educational, Social and Cultural Organisation

36
DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Question No. : 90

Which of the following has never held the position of the Chief Justice of India?
S
A) V. N. Khare B) Y. K. Sabharwal C) R. C. Lahoti D) R. S. Sarkaria
R
DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option.
Question No. : 91
E

The book 'The Google Story' has been authored by

A) David A. Vise B) Eric Newmann C) Fredrick Forsyth D) None of these


E

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:


R

Question No. : 92

Phool Walon Ki Sair is an annual festival of national integration held in


A

A) Lucknow B) Hyderabad C) New Delhi D) Meerut


C

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Question No. : 93

Ustad Vilayat Ali Khan is known for playing

A) Sitar B) Flute C) Sarod D) Tabla

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Question No. : 94

Who among the following was the first lady of the Indian silver screen?

A) Madhu Bala     B) Noorjehan C) Suraya D) Devika Rani Roerich


Diagnostic Test - TISS
DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Question No. : 95

The Satyajit Ray Film and Television Institute is located at

A) Bombay B) Calcutta C) Jamshedpur D) Puna

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Question No. : 96

In which sport do players follow Marques of Queensberry rules?

A) Boxing B) Karate C) Wrestling D) Taekwondo

0
DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

36
Question No. : 97

Which of the following is the correct descending order of the top civilian honours given by the government?

A) Bharat Ratna - Padma Shri - Padam Bhushan - Padam Vibhushan


B) Bharat Ratna - Padam Bhushan - Padam Vibhushan - Padma Shri S
C) Bharat Ratna - Padam Bhushan – Padam Shri - Padam Vibhushan
D) Bharat Ratna - Padam Vibhushan - Padam Bhushan - Padma Shri
R
DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:
E

Question No. : 98

Which Pak girl has been in the forefront of a fight against the Taliban to secure children’s right to education?
E

A) Asma Jahangir B) Jemima Khan C) Tehmina Jahangir D) Malala Yousofzai

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:


R

Question No. : 99
A

In which state is the Karni Mata temple that is famous for its rats?

A) Rajasthan B) Gujrat C) Maharashtra D) Bihar


C

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Question No. : 100

"Turning Points – A Journey Through Challenges" is a book authored by

A) Ratan Tata  B) Nandan Nilekani  C) Sunil Bharti Mittal D) APJ Abdul Kalam
Diagnostic Test - TISS

QNo:-  1  ,Correct Answer:-  C

Explanation:-  
3P  + 10S + 12E = 38 ...............(1)
10P + 3S  + 1E   = 79................(2)
 
Add both the equations, we get;
13P + 13S + 13E = 117.
So, (P + S + E) = 117/13 = Rs 9.
 

QNo:-  2  ,Correct Answer:-  D

Explanation:-  

0
The roots will be;

(-5 ± √5) / 2

36
it will never yield an integral value.

Alternatively; Using options we can see that 2,0 or 3 do not satisfy this equation.

QNo:-  3  ,Correct Answer:-  D
S
R
Explanation:-  
Repayment amount on loan of Rs. 2000000 = 18000×20×12 = 4320000
Repayment amount on loan of Rs. 1500000 = 20600×15×12 = 3708000
E

Difference = Rs. 612000


E

QNo:-  4  ,Correct Answer:-  A

Explanation:-  
R

Total amount repaid over a period of 25 years = 12650×12×25 = Rs. 3795000


A

QNo:-  5  ,Correct Answer:-  A

Explanation:-  
C

Monthly repayment is reduced by Rs. 1000. So the total reduction = 1000×12×20 = 2,40,000.

QNo:-  6  ,Correct Answer:-  A

Explanation:-  
Difference between the repayment for a period of 15 years and repayment period for 10 years = 10300 × 15 × 12 – 19400 × 10 ×
12 = Rs. 474000

QNo:-  7  ,Correct Answer:-  B

Explanation:-  
Let 5 terms which are in G.P.= a/r2, a/r, a , ar , ar2. Taking product of five terms= a5.
35= 243. Thus answer is 2nd option.
Diagnostic Test - TISS

QNo:-  8  ,Correct Answer:-  A

Explanation:-  
Let total property = 12, so both Rita and Ram each got Rs 6. Each of Rita’s son got Rs 2 and each of Ram’s son got Rs 3.
Therefore, ratio becomes 2:3

QNo:-  9  ,Correct Answer:-  D

Explanation:-  
Let three numbers be 3x , 2x and 5x respectively.
Now according to question.
(3x)2 + (2x)2 +(5x)2 = 1862
⇒Solving x = 7 and greatast number = 5 × 7 = 35.

0
QNo:-  10  ,Correct Answer:-  D

36
Explanation:-  
SI =( 7.5 x 4)% of 700 = 30% of 700 = 210
none of these

QNo:-  11  ,Correct Answer:-  D
S
Explanation:-  
R
The speed of train in m/s is 54 x 5/18 = 15 m/s.
The train crosses the man in 20 seconds, therefore length of train is (15 x 20) = 300m.
 
E

Now, let the length of platform be P.


E

=> 300 + P = 540


=> P = 240
R

QNo:-  12  ,Correct Answer:-  D
A

Explanation:-  
C
Diagnostic Test - TISS

QNo:-  13  ,Correct Answer:-  B

Explanation:-  
15M = 24W = 36B
so 12W = (15/2)M and 6B = (15/6)M
so let number of men required = x
[x+(15/2) +(15/6)]M = (x+10)M
M              H            D          W
15              8            12          1
(x+10)        6            30         9/4
on solving we get
15*8*12*(9/4) = (x+10)*6*30*1 => x = 8

QNo:-  14  ,Correct Answer:-  A

0
Explanation:-   Clearly, upon colouring the cube as stated and then cutting it into 125 smaller cubes of equal size we get a stack

36
of cubes as shown in the following figure.

S
R
E

The figure can be analysed by assuming the stack to be composed of 5 horizontal layers.
E

There is no cube having one face red and an adjacent face green.
R

QNo:-  15  ,Correct Answer:-  D

Explanation:-  
A
C

QNo:-  16  ,Correct Answer:-  D

Explanation:-  

QNo:-  17  ,Correct Answer:-  C

Explanation:-  

Solve this equation and get the radius as 9 cm.


Diagnostic Test - TISS

QNo:-  18  ,Correct Answer:-  D

Explanation:-  
Total cases = 4 × 3 = 12. (as we have 4 values of x and 3 values of y)
Now, favourable cases are (1 × 6),(2 × 5),(2 × 6),(2 × 7),(3 × 6),(4 × 5),(4 × 6),(4 × 7).
Total 8 cases, so, probability = 8/12 = 2/3
 

QNo:-  19  ,Correct Answer:-  A

Explanation:-  

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36
QNo:-  20  ,Correct Answer:-  B S
Explanation:-  
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E

QNo:-  21  ,Correct Answer:-  D

Explanation:-  
E

Let the numbers be x, x+2, x+4, x+6, x+8, x+10, x+12. As the average of these numbers is 20.as number of terms = 7 i.e. odd so
avg must be (7+1)/2 =4th term
which is x+6 = 20
R

Therefore on solving we get x = 14.


Thus the smallest number is 14 and the largest is 26. So product is 14×26 = 364
 
A

QNo:-  22  ,Correct Answer:-  D
C

Explanation:-  
LCM (4, 5, 6, 8, 9) = 360. We need a multiple of 13 and no remainder should be there, So it will be in the form 360 k + 2. We will
check for the multiple of 13 where it satisfies. If the value of k is 7 then it satisfies. i.e. 2520 + 2 = 2522 is totally divisible by 13.

QNo:-  23  ,Correct Answer:-  B

Explanation:-  
% time spent in school = (105/360)×100 = 29.16% = 30% (approx)

QNo:-  24  ,Correct Answer:-  C

Explanation:-  
% time spent in games in comparison to sleeping = (30/120)×100 = 25%
Diagnostic Test - TISS

QNo:-  25  ,Correct Answer:-  B

Explanation:-  
% reduction in sleeping time = (15/120)×100 = 12.5%

QNo:-  26  ,Correct Answer:-  D

Explanation:-  
3 (x+3) ×  9 (2x-5)  = 3 (3x+7);
3 (x+3) × 3 (4x-10) = 3 (3x+7);
3 (5x-7) = 3 (3x+7) ;
so, 5x - 7 = 3x + 7
x=7

0
QNo:-  27  ,Correct Answer:-  A

36
Explanation:-  

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E

QNo:-  28  ,Correct Answer:-  B
E

Explanation:-  
Volume of water collected = volume of pool
R

⇒ 1/2 × 2/100 × 1000 × 1000


= 100 × 10 × h
So h = 10 m is the answer
A

QNo:-  29  ,Correct Answer:-  B
C

Explanation:-  

QNo:-  30  ,Correct Answer:-  C

Explanation:-  
Using options we get (5+x)/(9+x)> 7/10 when x=5
Diagnostic Test - TISS

QNo:-  31  ,Correct Answer:-  B

Explanation:-  
Jostle is to make one's way by pushing or elbowing. Philander to flirt with women,

QNo:-  32  ,Correct Answer:-  C

Explanation:-  
Dominate is to control. Adjourn is to discountinue or suspend.

QNo:-  33  ,Correct Answer:-  D

0
Explanation:-  
Agile is energetic or active. Responsive is sympathetic or concerned . Intellectual is intelligent or thoughtful.

36
QNo:-  34  ,Correct Answer:-  B

Explanation:-  
Ratify is to approve.

QNo:-  35  ,Correct Answer:-  D
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R
Explanation:-  
The second paragraph provides the necessary support.
 
E

QNo:-  36  ,Correct Answer:-  C
E

Explanation:-  
In the first paragraph, it is mentioned that they set foot on an island in the Bahamas which they named Al Salvador.
R

 
A

QNo:-  37  ,Correct Answer:-  B

Explanation:-  
C

The word annihilation means ‘destroy completely.’


 

QNo:-  38  ,Correct Answer:-  B

Explanation:-   As per the lines 'They were fascinated by the steel knives and swords, fire spewing cannons, brass and copper
utensils, etc. that these visitors brought with them. Eventually, cultural differences erupted. The natives could not stomach the
arrogance of the newcomers and the scant respect they paid to nature' , it is clear that answer is option 2. .

QNo:-  39  ,Correct Answer:-  C

Explanation:-  
Stark : Complete or utter; extreme
Ruthless : merciless,Having no mercy
Diagnostic Test - TISS

QNo:-  40  ,Correct Answer:-  A

Explanation:-  
“Vainglorious” is one who is a braggart, humble is the antonym.

QNo:-  41  ,Correct Answer:-  C

Explanation:-  
It was difficult because of the autonomy given to the states by the centre.

QNo:-  42  ,Correct Answer:-  D

0
Explanation:-  
Given directly in the paragraph. The production was started from a very low level.

36
QNo:-  43  ,Correct Answer:-  A

Explanation:-  
It is mentioned in the line “the congress leadership…….  ethnic division.”

QNo:-  44  ,Correct Answer:-  D
S
R
Explanation:-  
None of the above cited option was  exercised  in democratic practice in India before independence.
E

QNo:-  45  ,Correct Answer:-  C
E

Explanation:-  
Refer to the last six-seven lines of the paragraph.”The congress party……………..
R

QNo:-  46  ,Correct Answer:-  A
A

Explanation:-  
The paragraph talks about Golden Kela Awards. D introduces the Golden Kela awards,so it is the opening sentence (INTRO)
A explains what the awards are.Hence A follows D.( keywords: in simpler terms) (EXPLANATION OF TOPIC)
C

E is dependent on A as it continues the intro of kela awards by telling about its creation.( HISTORY)
C statement tells the purpose of these awards..(PURPOSE)
B statement talks about the present .that is why it is the closing sentence
 

QNo:-  47  ,Correct Answer:-  A

Explanation:-  
B is the opening sentence, as it is independent and introduces three main problems.
The word Additionally means that there must be something before sentence C. These issues in E are the issues mentioned in B and
C. B will be followed by C, which will be followed by E. Hence, BCE is the mandatory pair.
Diagnostic Test - TISS

QNo:-  48  ,Correct Answer:-  D

Explanation:-  
The passage talks about puddings which is introduced in sentence D.Sentence D talks about two types of puddings.
Sentence B talks about the first type of pudding .It is dependent on sentence D .The keyword is ' FIRST'
In A 'these' is referring to the ingredients like shredded meat, fruits and alcohal etc and also preservatives which save the food
from getting spoiled ( bulwarks mean defense )
E follows A because it is referring to the second main pudding. Keyword is SECOND
C is dependent sentence which follows E because it talks about the same pudding.
 

QNo:-  49  ,Correct Answer:-  D

Explanation:-  

0
The paragraph talks about the ICC’s decision to restrict the number of teams and the response that it evoked.The decision is
introduced in sentence D.

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On one hand the ICC was criticized because of the inordinate length of the tournament and now it is criticized when it wants to
reduce the number of teams. Hence, DEAC forms a logical sequence.
Sentence C will be followed by B as B shows the other side of the coin.

QNo:-  50  ,Correct Answer:-  A S
Explanation:-  
The paragraph start with fights involving and also the status of the participants unknown.
R
 Line E also talks about 268 intruders.
Line D refers 17 cases.
The sequence is BEDAC.
E

 
E

QNo:-  51  ,Correct Answer:-  C

Explanation:-  
R

vagabond means 'wanderer' and 'peripatetic' means life of a wanderer pertaining to itinerant. the key words are 'wandering
through the countryside........
A

QNo:-  52  ,Correct Answer:-  D

Explanation:-  
C

The key word is ‘though’ meaning that it has not served the purpose. Hence, [4]

QNo:-  53  ,Correct Answer:-  A

Explanation:-  
If criminals are elected, you cannot expect harmony and brotherhood to increase. Hence, option A is the correct answer.
Also, arrival of criminals to join electoral fray is not a valid indicator for voting to increase or decrease.
 
 
 
Diagnostic Test - TISS

QNo:-  54  ,Correct Answer:-  B

Explanation:-  
Only option 2 brings out the correct information that despite fighting bravely they could not succeed. Hence, [2].The word for
second blank in option C is correct but for the first blank the given word(sincerely) is inappropriate.

QNo:-  55  ,Correct Answer:-  B

Explanation:-  
The question is based on thought reverser trick. The key words are 'frequent'  'though' and 'unique chance'. The context says that
trips are frequent so they will be monotonous but at the same time these trips give unique chance to meet interesting people.

QNo:-  56  ,Correct Answer:-  D

0
Explanation:-  

36
Cobbler makes shoes, the same way plumber does the pipe work.

QNo:-  57  ,Correct Answer:-  D

Explanation:-   S
Gold is used to make an ornament(unspecific), similarly, wood for furniture(unspecific; table and chair are specific, hence  rejected).
R
QNo:-  58  ,Correct Answer:-  B

Explanation:-  
E

Agency is also an Organization, and Mother is also a Parent


E

QNo:-  59  ,Correct Answer:-  C

Explanation:-  
R

As movie entertains us, Exercise keeps us fit.


A

QNo:-  60  ,Correct Answer:-  A

Explanation:-  
C

‘Obsession’ is higher in degree than interest, ‘Fantasy’ posses higher degree than dream.

QNo:-  61  ,Correct Answer:-  C

Explanation:-  

QNo:-  62  ,Correct Answer:-  D

Explanation:-  

QNo:-  63  ,Correct Answer:-  B

Explanation:-  
Diagnostic Test - TISS

QNo:-  64  ,Correct Answer:-  D

Explanation:-  

QNo:-  65  ,Correct Answer:-  A

Explanation:-  

QNo:-  66  ,Correct Answer:-  B

Explanation:-  

0
QNo:-  67  ,Correct Answer:-  A

36
Explanation:-  

QNo:-  68  ,Correct Answer:-  B

Explanation:-   S
QNo:-  69  ,Correct Answer:-  C
R
Explanation:-  
E

QNo:-  70  ,Correct Answer:-  B
E

Explanation:-  
R

QNo:-  71  ,Correct Answer:-  A

Explanation:-  
A

QNo:-  72  ,Correct Answer:-  D
C

Explanation:-  

QNo:-  73  ,Correct Answer:-  C

Explanation:-  

QNo:-  74  ,Correct Answer:-  B

Explanation:-  

QNo:-  75  ,Correct Answer:-  A

Explanation:-  
Diagnostic Test - TISS

QNo:-  76  ,Correct Answer:-  C

Explanation:-  

QNo:-  77  ,Correct Answer:-  D

Explanation:-  

QNo:-  78  ,Correct Answer:-  B

Explanation:-  

0
QNo:-  79  ,Correct Answer:-  A

36
Explanation:-  

QNo:-  80  ,Correct Answer:-  A

Explanation:-   S
QNo:-  81  ,Correct Answer:-  C
R
Explanation:-  
E

QNo:-  82  ,Correct Answer:-  C
E

Explanation:-  
R

QNo:-  83  ,Correct Answer:-  C

Explanation:-  
A

QNo:-  84  ,Correct Answer:-  D
C

Explanation:-  

QNo:-  85  ,Correct Answer:-  C

Explanation:-  

QNo:-  86  ,Correct Answer:-  D

Explanation:-  

QNo:-  87  ,Correct Answer:-  B

Explanation:-  
Diagnostic Test - TISS

QNo:-  88  ,Correct Answer:-  B

Explanation:-  

QNo:-  89  ,Correct Answer:-  C

Explanation:-  

QNo:-  90  ,Correct Answer:-  D

Explanation:-  

0
QNo:-  91  ,Correct Answer:-  A

36
Explanation:-  

QNo:-  92  ,Correct Answer:-  C

Explanation:-   S
QNo:-  93  ,Correct Answer:-  A
R
Explanation:-  
E

QNo:-  94  ,Correct Answer:-  D
E

Explanation:-  
R

QNo:-  95  ,Correct Answer:-  B

Explanation:-  
A

QNo:-  96  ,Correct Answer:-  A
C

Explanation:-  

QNo:-  97  ,Correct Answer:-  D

Explanation:-  

QNo:-  98  ,Correct Answer:-  D

Explanation:-  

QNo:-  99  ,Correct Answer:-  A

Explanation:-  
Diagnostic Test - TISS

QNo:-  100  ,Correct Answer:-  D

Explanation:-  

0
36
S
R
E
E
R
A
C

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