CHAPTER 3 – DIESEL PLANT D. Fourth stroke 12.

The portion of the piston which extends below the

piston pin and serves as a guide for the piston and
1. An engine in which the fuel is burned directly Answer: A connecting rod.
within the working cylinder. A. Piston skirt
A. Internal combustion engine 7. Compressing air in a four stroke cycle is B. Piston ring
B. External combustion engine A. First stroke C. Piston scoring
C. Compression ignition engine B. Second stroke D. Piston seizure
D. Spark ignition engine C. Third stroke
D. Fourth stroke Answer: A
Answer: A
Answer: B 13. Rings located in the grooves of the piston usually
2. An engine in which the fuel is burned outside of near the top and near the bottom.
the power cylinder. A. Piston skirt
A. Internal combustion engine B. Piston ring
B. External combustion engine 8. Which of the following strokes is produced by the C. Piston scoring
C. Compression ignition engine burning gases: D. Piston seizure
D. Spark ignition engine A. First stroke
B. Second stroke Answer: B
Answer: B C. third stroke
D. fourth stroke 14. Binding of the piston and the cylinder wall as a
3. An engine where the ignition is caused by heat of result of the lubrication having been destroyed by
compression. Answer: C excessive temperature and friction.
A. Internal combustion engine A. Piston skirt
B. External combustion engine 9. Which of the following strokes expels the burned B. Piston ring
C. Compression ignition engine gases? C. Piston scoring
D. Spark ignition engine A. First stroke D. Piston seizure
B. Second stroke
Answer: C C. Third stroke Answer: D
D. Fourth stroke
4. What temperature is required to ignite the fuel oil? 15. Grooves in the cylinder wall or piston or in both. It
A. 800 to 1000F Answer: D is caused by the piston scraping the cylinder wall
B. 700 to 900F in its movement without proper lubrication.
C. 900 to 1100F 10. Clearing a cylinder of exhaust gases by forcing A. Piston skirt
D. 1000 to 1200F into it a current of air which provides clean air for B. Piston ring
the next compression stroke. C. Piston scoring
Answer: A A. Scavenging D. Piston seizure
B. Supercharging
5. What air pressure is required to produce the C. Choking Answer: C
required ignition temperature? D. Knocking
A. 350 to 500 psi 16. A device which automatically governs or controls
B. 250 to 400 psi Answer: A the speed of an engine.
C. 450 to 600 psi A. Servomotor
D. 150 to 300 psi 11. Increasing the total amount of charging air in the B. Governor
working cylinder of the engine. C. Indicator
Answer: A A. Scavenging D. Speedometer
B. Supercharging
6. In a four stroke Diesel engine, drawing air into the C. Choking Answer: B
cylinder is what stroke? D. Knocking
A. First stroke 17. A combination of liquids which do not mix - or
B. Second stroke Answer: B combine chemically.
C. Third stroke A. Emulsion
 B. Deposition 23. A chamber so proportioned with respect to the Answer: A
C. Evaporation clearance volume proper of the cylinder that only
D. Separation about 30% of the combustion takes place within 28. What are the exhaust gas temperatures at normal
the chamber itself. operating conditions?
Answer: A A. Pre combustion chamber A. Between 400 and 700F
B. Separate combustion chamber B. Between 500 and 800F
18. What temperature should be the maximum to C. Ante combustion chamber C. Between 300 and 600F
which lubricating oil is permitted to rise? D. Mixed combustion chamber D. Between 200 and 500F
A. Not more than 100F
B. Not more than 200F Answer: A Answer: A
C. Not more than 300F
D. Not more than 400F 24. The entire charge is ignited in the separate 29. How are high speed Diesel engines started?
combustion chamber before the initial expansion A. By an electric motor
Answer: A takes place, forcing the burning gases through the B. By compressed air
connecting passages and against the moving C. By diesel fuel
19. What air pressure is needed for air starting a piston. D. By an electric spark
Diesel engine? A. Pre combustion chamber
A. 250 psi B. Separate combustion chamber Answer: A
B. 150 psi C. Ante combustion chamber
C. 350 psi D. Mixed combustion chamber 30. What speeds are considered high speed diesel
D. 450 psi engine?
Answer: B A. 100 to 2000 rpm or 3000 rpm
Answer: A B. 100 to 1000 rpm
25. A chamber so designed that injection takes place C. 100 to 1500 rpm
20. At what temperature will self-igniting cartridges directly opposite its outlet, the chamber extending D. 100 to 1750 rpm
ignite? backward from the outlet.
A. About 200F A. Pre combustion chamber Answer: A
B. About 190F B. Separate combustion chamber
C. About 210F C. Ante combustion chamber 31. It is a device used for atomizing or cracking fuel oil
D. About 250F D. Air cell chamber and through which the fuel oil Is injected into the
working cylinders of Diesel engines.
Answer: B Answer: C A. Atomizer
B. Fuel spray nozzle
21. The fuel is supplied by one pump and switched to 26. Fuel is injected only into the main cylinder, during C. Injector
each cylinder by a multi outlet rotating valve or expansion of the burning gases in the main D. Cracker
distributor. chamber, when the pressure therein drops below
A. Distributor system that of the air in the cell. Answer: A
B. Injector system A. Pre combustion chamber
C. Non injector system B. Separate combustion chamber 32. What is the proper seat width of a spray valve?
D. Non distributor system C. Ante combustion chamber A. 1/16 in.
D. Air cell chamber B. 1/8 in.
Answer: A C. 1/32 in.
Answer: D D. ¼ in.
22. This is virtually a distributor two stage pumping
system that is, modified distributor system. 27. What is the temperature of the air in the cylinder Answer: A
A. Distributor system when the Diesel engine is operating at full load?
B. Injector system A. Between 800 and 1100F 33. A cylindrical vessel connected in the fuel system to
C. Non injector system B. Between 800 and 1000F absorb the shock of the injection pumps and to
D. Non distributor system C. Between 900 and 1200F provide a reservoir at high pressure for supplying
D. Between 900 and 1100F an even flow of fuel oil to the cylinders.
Answer: B A. Absorber
 B. Accumulator 39. The ratio of the clearance volume to the swept C. 14 to 19
C. Governor volume. D. 10.5 to 14.5
D. Injector A. Fractional clearance
B. Compression ratio Answer: A
Answer: B C. Expansion ratio
D. Cut off ratio 45. In standard Diesel, thermal efficiency was not
34. How hot are the exhaust gases? much higher than about what percent?
A. 400 to 700F Answer: A A. 35%
B. 300 to 600F B. 30%
C. 200 to 500F 40. The piston is at maximum reach from the C. 40%
D. 500 to 800F crankshaft to which of the following? D. 50%
A. Top dead center
Answer: A B. Bottom dead center Answer: A
C. ¾ from top center
35. Which of the following is an automatic device used D. ¾ from bottom center 46. A closed heat exchanger that transfers heat from
for keeping constant air pressure? compressed air to cooler air.
A. Relief valve Answer: A A. Regenerator
B. Unloader B. Intercooler
C. Strainer 41. The piston is closest to the crankshaft to which of C. Aftercooler
D. Barometer the following? D. Reheater
A. Top dead center
Answer: B B. Bottom dead center Answer: C
C. ¾ from top center
36. What is the other term of the diameter of the D. ¾ from bottom center 47. Which of the following is used to improve cold
circular cylinder? weather starting?
A. Bore Answer: B A. Poppet valve
B. Stroke B. Glow plug
C. Swept volume 42. Which of the following engines where the C. Check valve
D. Clearance expanding combustion gases act on one end of D. Spark plug
the piston?
Answer: A A. Single acting engine Answer: B
B. Double acting engine
37. What do you call the maximum distance traveled C. Single expansion engine 48. The rated power that the manufacturer claims the
by the piston? D. Double expansion engine engine is able to provide on a continuous basis
A. Bore without incurring damage.
B. Stroke Answer: A A. Brakepower
C. Swept volume B. Continuous duty rating
D. Clearance 43. Which of the following types of engine where the C. Intermittent rating
expanding combustion gases act on both ends of D. Power rating
Answer: B the piston?
A. Single acting engine Answer: B
38. Which of the following is the product of the cylinder B. Double acting engine
area and stroke? C. Single expansion engine 49. What is the peak power rating that can be
A. Bore D. Double expansion engine produced on an occasional basis?
B. Stroke A. Brakepower
C. Swept volume Answer: B B. Continuous duty rating
D. Clearance C. Intermittent rating
44. The compression ratio of a Diesel engine varies D. Power rating
Answer: C from about:
A. 13.5 to 17.5 Answer. C
B. 8 to 10
 50. Which of the following is the value of a property 5. A regenerator in a gas turbine: 11. Which of the following turbine has least weight per
that includes the effect of friction? A. Reduces heat loss during exhaust bhp developed?
A. Brake value B. Allows use of higher compression ratio A. Simple open cycle gas turbine
B. Friction value C. Improves thermal efficiency B. Open cycle gas turbine with inter-cooling and
C. Indicated value D. Allows use of fuels of inferior quality reheating
D. Actual value C. Open cycle gas turbine with inter-cooling,
Answer: C reheating and regenerating
Answer. A D. Closed cycle gas turbine
6. Which of the following compressors is generally
CHAPTER 4 – GAS TURBINE used for gas turbines? Answer: A
A. Lobe type
1. Brayton cycle has: B. Centrifugal type 12. Which of the following is/are advantage of closed
A. Two isentropic and two constant volume C. Axial flow type cycle gas turbine over open cycle gas turbine?
processes D. Reciprocating type A. No containing of working substance with
B. Two isentropic and two constant pressure combustion gases
processes Answer: C B. Inferior quality fuel can be used
C. One constant pressure, one constant volume C. Low maintenance costs
and two adiabatic processes 7. The constant pressure gas turbine works on the D. All of the above
D. Two isothermals, one constant volume and a principle of:
constant pressure process A. Carnot cycle Answer: D
B. Bell-Coleman cycle
Answer: B C. Rankine cycle 13. The range of compression ratio in a gas turbine is:
D. Brayton cycle A. 3 to 5
2. Brayton cycle cannot be used in reciprocating B. 5 to 8
engines even for same adiabatic compression Answer: D C. 8 to 12
ratio and work output because: D. 12 to 20
A. Otto cycle is highly efficient 8. What type of gas turbine is used in air craft?
B. Brayton cycle is less efficient A. Open cycle type Answer: B
C. Brayton cycle is for slow speed engines only B. Closed cycle type with reheating
D. Large volume of low pressure air cannot be C. Closed type with reheating and regeneration 14. A constant volume combustion gas turbine
efficiently handled in reciprocating engines D. Open cycle type with reheating, regeneration operates on:
and intercooling A. Ericson cycle
Answer: D B. Joule cycle
Answer: A C. Brayton cycle
3. Which cycle is generally used for gas turbine? D. Atkinson cycle
A. Otto cycle 9. In a gas turbine combined cycle plant, a waste
B. Dual cycle heat boiler is used to: Answer: D
C. Carnot cycle A. Heat air from intercooler
D. Brayton cycle B. Gases from regenerator 15. Past ME Board Question
C. Recover from regenerator Heat exchanger used to provide heat transfer
Answer: D D. None of the above between the exhaust gases and the air prior to its
entrance to the combustor.
4. When r is the compression ratio, the efficiency of Answer: C A. Evaporator
Brayton cycle is given by: B. Combustion chamber
A. 1-1/𝑟
(𝑘−1)/𝑘 10. Overall efficiency of a gas turbine is: C. Regenerator
𝑘−1 A. Equal to Carnot cycle efficiency D. Heater
B. 1-1/𝑟 B. Equal to Rankine cycle efficiency
𝑘
C. 1-1/𝑟 C. Less than Diesel cycle efficiency Answer: C
D. 1-1/r D. More than Otto or Diesel cycle efficiency
16. Past ME Board Question
Answer: A Answer: C
 How does the value for work per unit mass flow of 21. Large units gas turbine regularly operate: 27. The compression ratio based on pressures of
air in the compressor and turbine influenced by the A. In 100 to 200 MW range heavy duty gas turbine is in the range of ____.
addition of a regenerator? B. In 50 to 100 MW range A. 14 to 15
A. Slightly increased C. Over 150 MW B. 19 to 21
B. Unchanged D. Below 150 MW C. 11 to 16
C. Greatly decreased D. 16 to 18
D. Greatly increased Answer: A
Answer: A
Answer: B 22. Small units gas turbine typically have:
A. Double shafts 28. Aeroderivative combustion turbine have higher
17. Past ME Board Question B. Single shafts compression ratios typically:
What is the ideal cycle for gas turbine work? C. Triple shafts A. 14 to 15
A. Brayton cycle D. Quadruple shafts B. 19 to 21
B. Stag combined cycle C. 11 to 16
C. Bottom cycle Answer: B D. 16 to 18
D. Ericson cycle
23. Heavy duty gas turbines typically have: Answer: B
Answer: A A. Double shafts
B. Single shaft 29. Most heavy duty combustion turbines have how
18. Past ME Board Question C. Triple shafts many compression stages?
Brayton cycle cannot be used in reciprocating D. Quadruple shafts A. 14 to 16
engines even for same adiabatic compression B. 18 to 20
ratio and work output because: Answer: B C. 10 to 12
A. Brayton cycle is highly efficient D. 16 to 18
B. Brayton cycle is for low speed engines only 24. Which of the following is basically a jet engine that
C. Brayton cycle needs large air-fuel ratio exhausts into a turbine generator? Answer: D
D. Large volume of low pressure air cannot be A. Aeroderivative gas turbine
efficient handled in reciprocating engines B. Industrial gas turbine 30. The temperature of the gas entering the expander
C. Brayton engine section is typically:
Answer: D D. Joule turbine A. 1200 C to 1290 C
B. 1000 C to 1200 C
19. Past ME Board Question Answer: A C. 1500 C to 1490 C
In order to increase the gas velocity gas turbines D. 1300 C to 1390 C
generally have fixed nozzles. This is to allow the: 25. Most aeroderivative combustion turbine produce
A. Compression of gases less than: Answer: A
B. Condensation of gases A. 20 MW
C. Expansion of gases B. 30 MW 31. The exhaust temperature which makes the
D. Evaporation of gases C. 40 MW exhaust an ideal heat source for combined cycles
D. 50 MW is typically:
Answer: C A. 540 C to 590 C
Answer: C B. 600 C to 650 C
20. Combustion turbines or gas turbines are the C. 300 C to 350 C
preferred combustion engines in application much 26. The compression ratio based on pressures in the D. 440 C to 490 C
above ______. compression stage in a gas turbine is typically:
A. 8MW A. 11 to 16 Answer: A
B. 9mw B. 5 to 8
C. 10MW C. 12 to 18 32. Most combustion turbines have:
D. 7MW D. 8 to 14 A. 2 to 3 expander stages
B. 3 to 4 expander stages
Answer: C Answer: A C. 4 to 5 expander stages
D. 1 to 2 expander stages
 Answer: B A. 34 to 36 % Answer: A
B. 30 to 32 %
33. The exhaust flow rate in modern heavy duty C. 40 to 42 % 44. A regenerator in a gas turbine has no effect in:
turbines per 100 MW is approximately: D. 26 to 28 % A. Compressor and turbine work
A. 240 to 250 kg/s B. Heat added
B. 140 to 150 kg/s Answer: A C. Thermal efficiency
C. 340 to 350 kg/s D. Combustor
D. 440 to 450 kg/s 39. New combustion turbines on the cutting edge of
technology ( Advanced turbine systems ) are able Answer: A
Answer: A to achieve
A. 38 to 38.5 % 45. In a Brayton cycle multiple stages of compression
34. The Brayton gas turbine cycle is also known as: B. 36 to 36.5 % and expansion will ________.
A. Joule cycle C. 40 to 40.5 % A. Increase thermal efficiency
B. Stirling cycle D. 34 to 34.5 % B. Decrease thermal efficiency
C. Ericsson cycle C. Limit thermal efficiency
D. Atkinson cycle Answer: A D. Control efficiency

Answer: A 40. Aeroderivative turbines commonly achieve Answer: A

efficiencies up to:
35. Approximately how many percent of the turbine A. 42 % 46. In a Brayton cycle, reheating and intercooling will
power is used to drive the high efficiency B. 38 % ___________.
compressor? C. 45 % A. Increase thermal efficiency
A. 50 to 75 % D. 35 % B. Decrease thermal efficiency
B. 60 to 85 % C. Limit thermal efficiency
C. 45 to 70 % Answer: A D. Control efficiency
D. 30 to 55 %
41. Which of the following is the typical backwork ratio Answer: A
Answer: A of gas turbines?
A. 50 to 75 % 47. In a Brayton cycle, reheating has no effect in:
36. Depending on the turbine construction details, the B. 40 to 65 % A. Heat added
temperature of the air entering the turbine will be C. 30 to 55 % B. Thermal efficiency
between: D. 35 to 60 % C. Backwork ratio
A. 650 C to 1000 C D. Network
B. 750 C to 1100 C Answer: A
C. 550 C to 950 C Answer: A
D. 850 C to 1200 C 42. Which of the following is an example of a
regenerator? 48. In a Brayton cycle, intercooling has no effect in:
Answer: A A. A counterflow heat exchanger A. Turbine work
B. A cross flow heat exchanger B. Thermal efficiency
37. Which of the following engines are typically used C. A mixed flow heat exchanger C. Backwork ratio
by Turbojet and turboprop? D. A parallel flow heat exchanger D. Network
A. Open combustors
B. Closed combustors Answer: B Answer: A
C. Turbo combustors
D. High combustors 43. Which of the following is an effect of having a 49. If 𝑊𝑡 is the turbine power and 𝑊𝑐 is the
regenerator? compressor power then the backwork ratio is
Answer: A A. Less heat is added A. 𝑊𝑡 / 𝑊𝑐
B. Compressor work is reduced
38. The full load thermal efficiency of existing heavy C. Turbine work is increased B. 𝑊𝑐 / 𝑊𝑡
duty combustion turbines in simple cycles is D. Compressor work is increased C. 𝑊𝑡 - 𝑊𝑐
approximately:
𝑊𝑡
 D. 𝑊𝑡 - 𝑊𝑐 Answer: A C. 160 – 180 F
ͦ
𝑊𝑐 D. 140 – 160 F ͦ
4. A high pressure chamber or a device in which the
paths of rapidly moving particles can be observed Answer: A
Answer: B and photographed.
A. Cloud chamber 10. The lowest permissible water level of a boiler
50. If 𝑊𝑡 is the turbine power and 𝑊𝑐 is the B. Combustion chamber without internal furnace is _____the height of the
compressor power then the network is: C. Fission chamber shell.
A. 𝑊𝑡 x 𝑊𝑐 D. Air chamber A. 1/2
B. 1/3
B. 𝑊𝑐 / 𝑊𝑡
Answer: A C. 1/4
C. 𝑊𝑡 - 𝑊𝑐 D. 1/5
D. 𝑊𝑡 + 𝑊𝑐 5. The formation of gas bubbles in a liquid is called
A. Bubbling Answer: B
B. Foaming
Answer: C
C. Priming 11. In case of steam engine the cut off ratio is the ratio
D. Carryover of:
51. Physical limitations usually preclude more than
A. Pressure at cut off to supply pressure
how many stages of intercooling and reheating?
Answer: B B. Pressure at cut off to exhaust pressure
A. 2
C. Pressure at cut off to mean effective pressure
B. 3
6. How many check valves should be provided D. Fraction of piston stroke which the piston has
C. 4
between any feed pump and boiler? traveled when cut off occurs
D. 5
A. 1
B. 2 Answer: D
Answer: A
C. 3
D. 4 12. In a condensing steam engine
CHAPTER 5 – STEAM POWER PLANT
A. Condensed steam is supplied
Answer: B B. Steam condenses inside cylinder
1. Which of the following factors does bursting
C. Steam condenses as soon as it leaves the
pressure of boiler doesn’t depend?
7. The water level inside the boiler is indicated by the cylinder
A. Tensile strength of the shell
A. Baffles D. Exhaust steam is condensed in a condenser
B. Thickness of the shell
B. Fusible plug
C. Diameter of the shell
C. Water walls Answer: D
D. Shear strength of shell material
D. Water column
13. Flows through the nozzles and diffusers with
Answer: D
Answer: D increasing fluid velocity will create an equivalent
A. Decrease in the static enthalpy of fluid
2. Which of the following factors does working
8. What is the highest pressure under which B. Increase in the static enthalpy of fluid
pressure of boiler doesn’t depend?
distinguishable liquid and vapor phases can exist C. Decrease in the internal energy of fluid
A. Tensile strength of shell
in equilibrium? D. Decrease in the dynamic enthalpy of fluid
B. Thickness of shell
A. Maximum pressure
C. Factor of safety
B. Atmosphere Answer: A
D. Type of fuel being fired
C. Critical pressure
D. Peak pressure 2
14. The term 𝑉 /2𝐶𝑝responds to the temperature rise
Answer: D
during such a process and is called the
Answer: C
3. Total solid impurities in feed water for a boiler A. Kinetic temperature
depend upon B. High temperature
9. What is the average fuel – oil temperature range of
A. Boiler pressure C. Dynamic temperature
the oil in the discharge line to the boiler?
B. Quantity of steam to be generated D. Elevation temperature
A. 180 – 200 ͦF
C. Type of fuel available
B. 240 – 260 ͦF
D. Quantity of steam Answer: C
15. All of the following mechanism can supply heat to Answer: B 26. Which of the following shows the relationship of
a thermodynamic system except the steam consumption and the load of steam
A. Conduction 21. A converging – diverging nozzle is the standard turbine generator?
B. Natural convection equipment in: A. Dalton’s line
C. Adiabatic expansion A. Subsonic aircraft B. Willan’s line
D. Radiation B. Supersonic aircraft C. Jonval’s line
C. Hypersonic aircraft D. Rankine line
Answer: C D. Trisonic aircraft
Answer: B
16. The flow through the nozzle is Answer: B
A. Isentropic 27. An inventor proposes to develop electrical power
B. Polytropic 22. For back pressure valves, abrupt changes in fluid by withdrawing heat from the geyser fields of
C. Isobaric properties occur in a very thin section of northern California and converting it all to work in
D. Isovolumic converging – diverging nozzle under supersonic power turbines. The scheme will not work
flow conditions, creating because:
Answer: A A. Sound wave A. The geyser fields have only a limited lifetime
B. Tidal wave B. The salinity of the steam is too great
17. If the reservoir is sufficiently large, the nozzle inlet C. Shock wave C. It violates the first law of thermodynamics
velocity is D. None of these D. It violates the second law of thermodynamics
A. Maximum
B. Negative Answer: C Answer: D
C. Positive
D. Zero 23. Is the locus of states which have the same value 28. The isentropic efficiency of a turbine is given by
of stagnation enthalpy and mass flux are called: A. The ratio of actual to ideal energy extracted
Answer: D A. Fanno line B. The ratio of actual to ideal energy inputted
B. Straight line C. The ratio of ideal to actual energy extracted
18. Which of the following is the pressure applied at C. Willan’s line D. None of the above
the nozzle discharge section? D. Cross cut line
A. Stagnant pressure Answer: A
B. Critical pressure Answer: A
C. Back pressure 29. Past ME Board Question
D. Atmospheric pressure 24. Combination of mass and momentum equations Which of the following is not a main part of a
into a single equation and plotted in h-s plane yield typical coal burner?
Answer: C a curve called: A. Air registers
A. Fair line B. Nozzle
19. When the back pressure is reduced to lowest exit B. Freh line C. Atomizer
pressure, the mass flow reaches a maximum value C. Cutting line D. Ignitor
and the flow is said to be: D. Rayleigh line
A. Stacked Answer: C
B. Choked Answer: D
C. Stuck-up 30. Past ME Board Question
D. Clog-up 25. Generally steam turbines in power station operate Measure of ability of a boiler to transfer the heat
at given by the furnace to the water and steam is:
Answer: B A. 3000 rpm A. Grate efficiency
B. 1000 rpm B. Stroke efficiency
20. An increase in stagnation pressure will increase C. 4000 rpm C. Furnace efficiency
the mass flux through the: D. 575 rpm D. Boiler efficiency
A. Diverging nozzle
B. Converging nozzle Answer: A Answer: D
C. Converging – diverging nozzle
D. None of these 31. Past ME Board Question
 A goose neck is installed in the line connecting a Answer: A C. Waste heat recovery
steam gauge to a boiler to: D. Cogeneration
A. Maintain constant steam flow 36. Past ME Board Question
B. Protect the gauge element The process in which heat energy is transferred to Answer: D
C. Prevent steam knocking a thermal energy storage device is known as:
D. Maintain steam pressure A. Adiabatic 41. Past ME Board Question
B. Regeneration Is one whose pressure is higher than the
Answer: B C. Intercooling saturation pressure corresponding to its
D. Isentropic temperature.
32. Past ME Board Question A. Compressed liquid
Which of the following is a great advantage of a Answer: B B. Saturated liquid
fire tube boiler? C. Saturated vapor
A. Steam pressure is not ready 37. Past ME Board Question D. Superheated vapor
B. Contains a large volume of water and When the boiler pressure increases or when the
requires a long interval of time to raise steam exhaust pressure decreases, the amount of Answer: A
and not so flexible as to changes in steam moisture
demand A. Increases 42. Past ME Board Question
C. Cannot use impure water B. Decreases In a steam generator with good combustion
D. Radiation losses are higher because fire is C. Constant control, what occurs if the load is increased?
inside the boiler and surrounded by water D. Zero A. Air temperature leaving air heater decreases
B. Air temperature entering air heater increases
Answer: B Answer: A C. Furnace pressure is approximately constant
D. Economizer gas outlet temperature
33. Past ME Board Question 38. Past ME Board Question decreases
One of the following tasks which is an example of When the number of reheat stages in a reheat
preventive maintenance is cycle is increased, the average temperature Answer: C
A. Cleaning the cup on a rotary cup burner A. Increases
B. Cleaning a completely clog oil strainer B. Decreases 43. Past ME Board Question
C. Replacing a leaking valve C. Is constant Total solid impurities in feed water for a boiler
D. Replacing a blown fuse D. Is zero depend upon
A. Boiler pressure
Answer: A Answer: A B. Type of fuel available
C. Quantity of steam to be generated
34. Past ME Board Question 39. Past ME Board Question D. Quantity of steam
The carbon dioxide ( 𝐶𝑂2 ) percentage in the flue A heat transfer device that reduces a
thermodynamic fluid from its vapor phase to its Answer: A
gas of an efficiency fired boiler should be
liquid phase such as in vapor compression
approximately
refrigeration plant or in a condensing steam power 44. Past ME Board Question
A. 1 %
plant The gaseous state of water
B. 12 %
A. Flash vessel A. Water gas
C. 18 %
B. Cooling tower B. Blue gas
D. 20 %
C. Condenser C. Water vapor
D. Steam separator D. Yellow gas
Answer: B

Answer: C Answer: C
35. ME Board October 1993
When droplets of water are carried by steam in the
40. Past ME Board Question 45. A liquid boils when it vapor pressure equals
boiler
A simultaneous generation of electricity and steam A. The gage pressure
A. Priming
(or heat) in a single power plant B. The critical pressure
B. Foaming
A. Gas turbine C. The ambient pressure
C. Carryover
B. Steam turbine D. One standard atmosphere
D. Embrittlement
 Answer: C A. Thermal treatment A. Decrease in fluids volume
B. Lime soda treatment B. Rise in the temp. and pressure of the fluid
46. Past ME Board Question C. Demineralization process C. Rise in fluid’s volume
What are the main components in a combined D. Ion exchange treatment D. Decrease in the temp. and pressure of fluid
cycle power plant?
A. Diesel engine and air compressor Answer: B Answer: B
B. Gas engine and waste heat boiler
C. Steam boiler and turbine 51. Past ME Board Question 56. Past ME Board Question
D. Nuclear reactor and steam boiler The thermal efficiency of gas-vapor cycle as How can the average temperature during heat
compared to steam turbine or gas turbine is rejection process of a Rankine cycle be
Answer: B A. Greater than decreased?
B. Less than A. Increase boiler pressure
47. Past ME Board Question C. Lower than B. Increase turbine pressure
A change in the efficiency of combustion in a boiler D. Equal to C. Increase condenser pressure
can usually be determined by comparing the D. Reduce turbine exit pressure
previously recorded readings with the current Answer: A
readings of the _________. Answer: D
A. Stack temperature and CO 52. Past ME Board Question
B. Over the fire draft and CO A rapid increase in boiler pressure occurs when 57. Past ME Board Question
C. Ringleman chart and 𝐶𝑂2 there is: Which of the following ascertains the effectiveness
A. Moderate drop in steam load and the size of a condenser?
D. Stack temperature and 𝐶𝑂2
B. Constant drop in steam load A. Number of passes
C. Abrupt drop in steam load B. Thickness of the shell
Answer: D D. Gradual drop in steam load C. Tube sizes
D. Heat transfer
48. Past ME Board Question Answer: C
A boiler steam gauge should have a range of at Answer: D
least 53. Past ME Board Question
A. One half the working steam pressure The most economical and low maintenance cost 58. Past ME Board Question
B. 1 and ½ times the maximum allowable condenser. A boiler has a bursing pressure, BP of 600 kPa
working pressure A. Water – cooled and a factor of safety, FS of 8 is employed in
C. The working steam pressure B. Air – cooled design. As an engineer, would you advice to have
D. Twice the maximum allowable working C. Evaporative a working pressure, WP of 500 kPa?
pressure D. Sub – cooled A. No. WP must be higher than 500 kPa
B. No. WP is only 75 kPa at FS of 8
Answer: B Answer: B C. Yes. Since BP is 600 Pa
D. Yes. To attain better efficiency
49. Past ME Board Question 54. Past ME Board Question
In a water tube boiler, heat and gases of What is commonly done to system when the Answer: B
combustion passed: turbine has excessive moisture?
A. Through the combustion chamber only A. Frosting 59. Past ME Board Question
B. Through the tubes B. Diffusing What cycle is used in vapor cycle of steam power
C. Away from tubes C. Reheating plant?
D. Around the tubes D. Dehumidifying A. Brayton cycle
B. Diesel cycle
Answer: D Answer: C C. Ericsson cycle
D. Rankine cycle
50. Past ME Board Question 55. Past ME Board Question
A chemical method of feedwater treatment which What is the result when the fluid’s kinetic energy Answer: D
uses calcium hydroxide and sodium carbonate as during a stagnation process is transformed to
reagents enthalpy?
 60. Past ME Board Question C. Recharging 11. All of the following terms are synonymous with
Gauge cock in the boiler is designed to determine: D. Reorganizing quanta of electromagnetic theory except:
A. Level of steam A. Packets
B. Specific heat Answer: B B. Corpuscles
C. Level of water C. X-rays
D. Pressure 6. A dense, fine grained, light colored igneous rock D. Photons
which is rich in silica.
Answer: C A. Felsite Answer: C
B. Feldspar
CHAPTER 6 – GEOTHERMAL PLANT C. Flint 12. In geothermal power plants waste water is:
D. Flux A. Recirculated after cooling in cooling lowers
1. Refers to the internal heat from the earth. B. Discharged into sea
A. Geothermal Answer: A C. Evaporated in ponds
B. Thermal energy D. Discharged back to earth
C. Molten heat 7. An opening in lava or in volcanic area through
D. Tectonic heat which steam and other hot gases are escaping Answer: D
into the air is called:
Answer: A A. Fumarole 13. Past ME Board Question
B. Volcanic leaks In a liquid-dominated geothermal plant, what
2. A rock – forming crystalline mixed silicate which C. Seismic outlets process occurs when the saturated steam passes
constitute about 60% of the earth’s surface. D. Seismic leaks through the turbine?
A. Soil A. Isobaric
B. Feldspar Answer: A B. Polytropic
C. Flux C. Isometric
D. Flint 8. Tidal power is the power generated from: D. Isentropic
A. Waves of the ocean
Answer: B B. Rise and fall tides Answer: B
C. Thermal energy of ocean water
3. A compound rock, a crypto – crystalline form of D. Raw sea water 14. Past ME Board Question
silica, which is dens, tough, breaking with a What do you call a conversion technology that
conchoidal fracture. Answer: B yields electricity straight from sunlight without the
A. Gravel aid of a working substance like gas or steam
B. Stalactite 9. Converts chemical energy directly into electrical without the use of any mechanical cycle?
C. Flint energy. A. Power conversion
D. Flux A. Fuel cell B. Stirling cycle conversion
B. Magnetohydrodynamic generator C. Solar thermal conversion
Answer: C C. Battery D. Photovoltaic-energy conversion
D. Thermoelectric generator
4. Is the process of using injection wells to bubble air Answer: D
through groundwater. Answer: A
A. Air stripping 15. Past ME Board Question
B. Staged combustion 10. Generates a voltage from incident light, usually Tidal power plant is attractive because it has:
C. Sparging light in the visible region. A. Low head and intermittent power
D. Soil washing A. Photovoltaic cell B. High head
B. Solar cell C. Cheap energy source
Answer: C C. Dry cell D. Expensive energy source
D. A or B
5. A popular term used by utilities to mean upgrading Answer: C
existing plant. Answer: D
A. Replanting 16. Past ME Board Question
B. Repowering
 What do you call a conversion technology that B. D’Alembert’s paradox 27. How many percent of solar energy survives
yields electricity straight from sunlight without the C. The Heisenberg uncertainty principle absorption and reflection?
aid of a working substance like gas or steam D. Planck’s law A. 40 to 70 %
without the use of any mechanical cycle? B. 30 to 60 %
A. Power conversion Answer: C C. 50 to 80 %
B. Stirling cycle conversion D. 20 to 50 %
C. Solar thermal conversion 22. The flow process through shock waves is highly
D. Photovoltaic-energy conversion irreversible and cannot be approximated as being: Answer: A
A. Polytropic
Answer: D B. Isometric 28. Solar energy is captured in:
C. Hyperbolic A. Sun capturer
17. Past ME Board Question D. Isentropic B. Solar collector
Tidal power plant is attractive because it has: C. Sun collector
A. Low head and intermittent power Answer: D D. Greenhouse capturer
B. High head
C. Cheap energy source 23. Beaufort scale is used for measuring what? Answer: B
D. Expensive energy source A. Beta and gamma radiations
B. Wind speed 29. Which of the following solar collectors are
Answer: C C. Insolation essentially wide, flat boxes with clear plastic or
D. Depth of sea glass coverings known as the glazing.
18. Tidal power is the power generated from: A. Flat plate collectors
A. Waves of the ocean Answer: B B. Concentrating collectors
B. Rise and fall tides C. Focusing collectors
C. Thermal energy of ocean water 24. Betz law is widely used in: D. Evacuated tube collectors
D. Raw sea water A. MHD systems
B. Solar cells Answer: A
Answer: B C. Geothermal power plants
D. Wind mills 30. Which of the following collectors use mirrors
19. Converts chemical energy directly into electrical and/or lenses to focus the suns energy on a small
energy. Answer: D absorber area.
A. Fuel cell A. Flat plate collectors
B. Magnetohydrodynamic generator 25. Rocks having excessive internal stresses may B. Concentrating collectors
C. Battery produce spalling. These rocks are called as ____ C. Non focusing collectors
D. Thermoelectric generator A. Stratified rocks D. Evacuated tube collectors
B. Popping rocks
Answer: A C. Crushed rocks Answer: B
D. Swelling rocks
20. Generates a voltage from incident light, usually 31. Which of the following collectors are more complex
light in visible region. Answer: A but their efficiencies are higher?
A. Photovoltaic cell A. Flat plate collectors
B. Solar cell 26. Solar energy arrives at the outside of the earth’s B. Concentrating collectors
C. Dry cell atmosphere at an average rate of ________. C. Focusing collectors
2
D. A or B A. 1.354 kW/𝑚 D. Evacuated tube collectors
2
B. 1.543 kW/𝑚
Answer: D 2
Answer: D
C. 2.354 kW/𝑚
2
21. The statement that the product of the error in the D. 2.543 kW/𝑚 32. Which of the following collectors are useful when
measured determination of a particle’s position extremely hot transfer fluid is needed and are
and its momentum is of the order of Planck’s Answer: A generally limited to commercial projects?
constant h is known as: A. Flat plate collectors
A. Bohr’s theory B. Concentrating collectors
 C. Focusing collectors 38. Which of the following main approaches to solar A. 200 MW
D. Evacuated tube collectors energy generating systems describes that B. 100 MW
parabolic tracking trough concentrators focus C. 300 MW
Answer: D sunlight on evacuated glass tubes that run along D. 400 MW
the collectors focal lines.
33. The shading factor in calculating the heat A. Trough electric system Answer: A
absorbed by the solar collector has a value of B. Central receiver system
approximately: C. Power tower system 44. Practical and economic issues limit tower electric
A. 0.95 to 0.97 D. Dish/Stirling system systems to approximately:
B. 0.85 to 0.87 A. 100 to 200 MW
C. 0.75 to 0.77 Answer: A B. 150 to 250 MW
D. 0.65 to 0.67 C. 100 to 300 MW
39. Trough electric technology is relatively mature but D. 150 to 400 MW
Answer: A due to the low temperatures, average annual
thermal efficiencies are only: Answer: C
34. The ratio of energy absorbed by the transfer fluid A. 10 to 15 %
to the original incident energy striking the collector. B. 5 to 10 % 45. Thermal efficiency of a geothermal power plant is
A. Collector efficiency C. 15 to 20 % approximately:
B. Sun efficiency D. 25 to 30 % A. 30 %
C. Shading factor B. 22 %
D. Absorptance Answer: A C. 35 %
D. 15 %
Answer: A 40. A field of heliostats or tracking mirrors
concentrates solar energy onto a receiver on a Answer: B
35. As the difference between the ambient air and central tower.
average plate (or inlet) temperatures increases, A. Trough electric system 46. A flash steam cycle can be used if the hot water
what happens to the collector efficiency? B. Distributed collector system temperature is approximately:
A. Increases C. Power tower system A. 165 C or higher
B. Decreases D. Dish/Stirling system B. 150 C or higher
C. Constant C. 145 C to 200 C
D. No effect Answer: C D. Below 200 C

Answer: B 41. In a power tower system typical thermal Answer: A

efficiencies is in the range:
36. Distributed collector system is also known as: A. 10 to 15 % 47. A binary cycle using a separate heat transfer fluid
A. Trough electric system B. 5 to 10 % if the temperature of the hot water is between
B. Central receiver system C. 15 to 20 % approximately _________.
C. Power tower system D. 25 to 30 % A. 165 C and 120 C
D. Dish/Stirling system B. 200 C and 150 C
Answer: C C. 225 C and 175 C
Answer: A D. 300 C and higher
42. A dish engine system has an efficiency of
37. Central receiver system is also known as: A. 10 to 15 % Answer: A
A. Trough electric system B. 5 to 10 %
B. Distributed collector system C. 14 to 19 % 48. For every kilometer of depth, the temperature of
C. Power tower system D. 24 to 28 % the earth’ s crust increase by:
D. Dish/Stirling system A. 30 F
Answer: D B. 40 F
Answer: C C. 50 F
43. Practical and economic issues limit trough electric D. 20 F
systems to about:
 Answer: A Answer: B Answer: A

49. Multiple wells produce steam at 690 to 820 kPa 4. The ability of a substance to absorb neurons is 10. Which of the following is NOT a unit of energy?
and temperature of ________. dependent upon which parameter? A. Atomic unit
A. 205 C A. Absorption cross section B. MeV
B. 155 C B. Scattering cross section C. Dynes
C. 250 C C. Total cross section D. Ergs
D. 175 C D. Atomic number
Answer: C
Answer: A Answer: A
11. An electricity charged atom or radical which
50. In a hot rock systems, water is injected through 5. What kind of bonding do common gases that exist carries electricity through an electrolyte is called:
injection wells into artificially made fractured rock in free as diatomic molecules experiences? A. Ion
beds of how many kilometers below the surface? A. Ionic bonds B. Isotope
A. 1 to 6 km B. Convalent bonds C. Molecule
B. 3 to 9 km C. Metallic bonds D. Hole
C. 4 to 10 km D. Nuclear bonds
D. 6 to 11 km Answer: A
Answer: B
Answer: A 12. What is the smallest particle of an element that
6. Which of the following is NOT a unit of energy? can enter into a chemical reaction?
CHAPTER 7 – NUCLEAR PLANT A. Atomic unit A. Molecule
B. MeV B. Ion
1. Past ME Board Question C. Dynes C. Atom
What is the suggested maximum permissible dose D. Ergs D. Isotope
(MPD) of gamma ray exposure for general
individuals not working in a nuclear setting, by Answer: C Answer: C
choice, in rem/year?
A. 1 7. The process in which a nucleus splits into smaller 13. Beryllium, magnesium, and calcium all belong to
B. 5 fragments. which elemental grouping?
C. ½ A. Fusion A. Noble elements
D. 3 B. Fission B. Halogens
C. Photoelectric effect C. Lanthanons
Answer: C D. Compton’s effect D. Alkaline earth metals

2. Past ME Board Question Answer: B Answer: D

The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom
of the number of electrons in the orbit of an atom 8. Which of the following is NOT a unit of energy? 14. The thickness of material required to attenuate
A. Atomic volume A. Calories radiation to a particular level depends on
B. Atomic number B. Joules A. The particle
C. Atomic weight C. Pascals B. The particle energy
D. Atomic mass D. MeV C. The shielding material
D. The particle, its energy, and the shielding
Answer: B Answer: C material

3. The process in which a nucleus splits into smaller 9. The ability of a substance to absorb neurons is Answer: D
fragments. dependent upon which parameter?
A. Fusion A. Absorption cross section 15. Particles that are easily stopped within a few
B. Fission B. Scattering cross section millimeter because their double charges generate
C. Photoelectric effect C. Total cross section path ionization and because they are susceptible
D. Compton’s effect D. Atomic number to electrostatic interaction are:
 A. Alpha neurons Answer: B 26. The postulate that no signal or energy can be
B. Alpha radiations transmitted with a speed greater than the speed of
C. Beta radiations 21. The amount of a radiation shield’s density that light is consistent with _________.
D. Gamma radiations reduces radiation to half of its original value is A. The Heisenburg uncertainty principle
called the _____________. B. The Compton effect
Answer: B A. Half-value mass C. Einstein’s law
B. Half-value thickness D. Newton’s second law
16. Radiation consisting of singly charged particles C. Semi-cross section
that generate to intermediate distances are called: D. Iogarithmic decrement Answer: C
A. Fast neurons
B. Alpha radiations Answer: A 27. The total energy of an electron in the same shell is
C. Beta radiations defined by the _________.
D. Gamma radiations 22. Radiation exposure, the measure of gamma A. Principal quantum number
radiation at the surface of an object is measured B. Azimuthal quantum number
Answer: C in: C. Magnetic quantum number
A. Rems D. Hund rule
17. Radiation with no charge, which produces no B. Rads
ionization , and which is difficult to attenuate thus C. Roentegens Answer: A
posing a major health threat is D. Roentegens per second
A. Slow neutrons 28. The direction of an electron’s angular momentum
B. Alpha radiations Answer: C vector is defined by the
C. Beta radiations A. Principal quantum number
D. Gamma radiations 23. Radiation exposure rate, the rate of gamma B. Azimuthal quantum number
radiation at the surface of an object is measured in C. Magnetic quantum number
Answer: D A. Rems D. Electron spin quantum number
B. Rads
18. The property of fluid at a location when the Mach C. Roentegens Answer: C
number is unity (at the throat) are called: D. Roentegens per second
A. Critical properties 29. The electron’s spin angular momentum vector is
B. Sonic properties Answer: D defined by the
C. Dynamic properties A. Azimuthal quantum number
D. Stagnation properties 24. Exposure is a measure of ionization surrounding a B. Magnetic quantum number
person, but biological damage is dependent on the C. Electron spin quantum number
Answer: A amount of energy. D. Hund rule
A. Striking the surface
19. Gamma attenuation is affected by: B. Passing through the body Answer: C
A. Their photoelectric effect C. Absorbed
B. Pair production D. Reflected by the surface 30. The magnitude of an electron’s angular
C. Compton scattering momentum vector is defined by the
D. The photoelectric effect, pair production and Answer: C A. Principal quantum number
Compton scattering B. Azimuthal quantum number
25. All of the following are practical applications of C. Electron spin quantum number
Answer: D Einstein’s principle of special relativity except D. Hund rule
_____.
20. The amount of a radiation shield’s dimensional A. Mass increase Answer: B
geometry that reduces radiation to half of its B. Length contraction
original value is called the _________. C. Time dilation 31. The fact that each orbital of a set of equal-energy
A. Half-value mass D. Space warping orbitals must be occupied with an electron before
B. Half-value thickness any orbitals has two electrons is specified by
C. Semi-cross section Answer: D which of the following?
D. Iogarithmic decrement A. Principal quantum number
 B. Azimuthal quantum number D. Ergs 3. A _________boiler has heat and gases of
C. Magnetic quantum number combustion that pass through tubes surrounded by
D. Hund rule Answer: C water
A. Fire tube
Answer: D 37. Einstein reasoned there was a discrete amount of B. Cast iron sectional
energy needed to remove an electron from a C. Water tube
32. The statement that no two electrons can have the surface , with the rest of the incident photon’s D. Straight tube
same set of four quantum numbers is known as energy contributing to the kinetic energy of the
the photon, the amount of energy is called: Answer: A
A. Hund rule A. Binding energy
B. Heisenburg uncertainty principle B. Work function 4. A ________boiler has water in the tubes and heat
C. Pauli exclusion principle C. Coulomb energy gases of combustion passing around the tubes.
D. Schrodinger equation D. Fermi energy A. Fire tube
B. Cast iron sectional
Answer: C Answer: B C. Water tube
D. Firebox
33. All of the following terms describe the radiation 38. Which of the following is not a postulate of Bohr’s
lines from transitions of electrons in an atom theory of the hydrogen atom? Answer: C
except A. Electron orbits are discrete and non-radiating
A. Sharp and an electron may not remain between 5. Which of the following are used in boilers to direct
B. Principal these orbits the gases of combustion over the boiler heating
C. Obtuse B. The energy change experienced by an surface?
D. Fundamental electron changing from one orbit to another is A. Combustion control
quantized B. Baffles
Answer: C C. Light waves exist simultaneously as high C. Fire tubes
frequency electrical and magnetic waves D. Zone controls
34. When electrons are not shared equally between D. Angular momentum is quantized
two elements, the electrons spend more time with Answer: B
one element than with the other, the bonding is Answer: C
called: 6. The three basic type of low pressure heating
A. Ionic bonding CHAPTER 8 – BOILERS boilers are _______, _______ and _______.
B. Polar covalent bonding A. Firebox; vertical; locomotive
C. Non-polar covalent bonding 1. Which of the following is necessary to generate B. Scotch marine; wet-top; dry top
D. Metallic bonding steam in a boiler? C. Straight-tube; bent tube; multiple pass
A. A container D. Fire-tube; water tube; cast iron sectional
Answer: B B. Heat
C. Water Answer: D
35. When electrons are shared equally( e.g. when the D. All of the above
atoms are the same as in diatomic gases) the 7. In a low pressure gas system, the gas regulator
bonding is called: Answer: D reduces that city gas pressure to ____psi.
A. Ionic bonding A. 0
B. Polar covalent bonding 2. It is the part of the boiler with water on one side B. 2
C. Non-polar covalent bonding and heat on the other side C. 1
D. Resonance bonding A. Furnace volume D. 3
B. Fire side
Answer: C C. Heating surface Answer: A
D. Water side
36. All of the following are units of energy except: 8. In the _________air mixes with the fuel and burns.
A. Atomic units Answer: C A. Fire tubes
B. MeV B. Combustion chamber
C. Dynes C. Water tubes
 D. Breeching D. Firebox 20. Which of the following statements is true for cast
iron sectional boilers?
Answer: B Answer: A A. Cast iron sectional boilers have fire tubes
B. These boilers do not require water
9. The function of the steam boiler is to ______. 15. Which of the following will make a boiler work C. Can be expanded in size
A. Produce condensate more efficiently? D. None of the above
B. Create heat A. More fuel is added
C. Produce steam B. Fire tubes are decrease in size Answer: D
D. Burn fuel C. The heating surface is increased
D. All of the above 21. Which of the following is the most important valve
Answer: C on a boiler?
Answer: C A. Main steam stop valve
10. Which of the following is the most common type of B. Automatic nonreturn valve
water tube boiler? 16. What are the four systems necessary to operate a C. Safety valve
A. Firebox boiler? D. Feedwater stop valve
B. Scotch marine A. Combustion; draft; steam; boiler water
C. Vertical B. Water; steam; combustion; stoker Answer: C
D. Straight-tube multiple pass C. Boiler water; fuel; draft; condense
D. Feedwater; fuel; draft; steam 22. The MAWP on a low pressure steam boiler is
Answer: D _______ psi.
Answer: D A. 10
11. Excess fuel oil in the fuel oil system returns to the: B. 20
A. Combustion chamber 17. The _________forms a vacuum that draws out of C. 15
B. Fuel oil tank the condensate return line and into the vacuum D. 30
C. Burner tank.
D. Suction line A. Suction line Answer: C
B. Main header
Answer: B C. Vacuum pump 23. Which of the following best defines a total force
D. Heating equipment acting on a boiler?
12. It is the system that provides the air necessary for A. Area times diameter
combustion. Answer: C B. Area times pressure
A. Feedwater C. Area times distance
B. Steam 18. Which of the following can be a function of the D. The MAWP times pressure
C. Draft container in a boiler?
D. Fuel A. Holds the water Answer: B
B. Collects the steam that is produced
Answer: C C. Transfers heat to the water to produce steam 24. The ASME code states that boilers with over
D. All of the above _______square feet heating surface must have
13. The gases of combustion leave the boiler through two or more safety valve.
the: Answer: D A. 200
A. Chimney B. 400
B. Blower 19. At what temperature will water normally turns to C. 400
C. Air vent steam? D. 500
D. Breeching A. 100 ͦF
B. 200 ͦF Answer: D
Answer: D C. 150 ͦF
D. 212 ͦF 25. The area of a safety valve 4” in diameter is how
14. Which of the following boiler does not use tubes? many square inches?
A. Cast iron sectional Answer: D A. 2.3562
B. Water tube B. 6.2832
C. Scotch marine C. 3.1416
 D. 12.5664 31. Live steam is prevented from entering the Bourdon Answer: A
tube of the pressure gauge by which of the
Answer: D following? 37. Blowback of a safety valve is to prevent:
A. Automatic nenreturn valve A. Burner cycling
26. Which of the following is the only valve permitted B. Os&y valve B. Premature popping
between the safety valve and the boiler? C. Inspector’s test cock C. Chattering
A. Os&y gate D. Siphon D. Feathering
B. Os&y globe
C. Automatic nonreturn Answer: D Answer: C
D. No valves are permitted between the boiler
and the safety valve 32. What pressure gauge that can read whether 38. The boiler bottom blowdown line should discharge
vacuum pressure or not. to a(n)_________.
Answer: D A. Compound A. Sewer
B. Suction B. Atmospheric tank
27. The range of the pressure gauge should be C. Duplex C. Blowdown tank
_____times the MAWP of the boiler. D. Vacuum D. Return tank or open sump
A. 1 to 2
B. 2 to 3 Answer: A Answer: C
C. 1 ½ to 2
D. 2 ½ to 3 33. Which of the following best defines a vacuum? 39. If the desired cut-in pressure of the boiler is 6 psi
A. A pressure above gauge and the desired cut-out pressure is 10 psi, the
Answer: C B. A pressure below atmospheric differential pressure setting must be _____psi.
C. A pressure below gauge A. 2
28. The ASME code only allows _____safety valve on D. A pressure equal to gauge B. 6
boiler. C. 4
A. Deadweight Answer: B D. 8
B. Spring-loaded pop-type
C. Lever 34. Safety valves are designed to pop open and stay Answer: C
D. None of the above until there is a ___psi drop in pressure.
A. 0 to 1 40. Impurities that build up on the surface of the water
Answer: B B. 5 to 15 in the boiler prevent _____from breaking through
C. 2 to 4 the surface of the water.
29. How much is the total force on a safety valve 2 ½ D. Over 15 A. Air
in diameter and with a steam pressure of 15 psi? B. 𝐶𝑂2
A. 19.5413 Answer: C C. Oxygen
B. 73.63125
D. Steam
C. 29.4525 35. What type of boiler that uses safety valves?
D. 93.7512 A. Fire tube Answer: D
B. Cast iron sectional
Answer: B C. Water tube 41. To prevent air pressure from building up in the
D. All of the above boiler when filling the boiler with water, the ____
30. The steam pressure gauge on the boiler is
must be open.
calibrated to read in: Answer: D A. Safety valve
A. Inches of vacuum
B. Boiler vent
B. Absolute pressure 36. The water column is located at the NOWL so the
C. Main steam stop valve
C. Pounds per square inch lowest visible part of the gauge glass is
D. Manhole cover
D. Pressure below atmospheric pressure _____above the highest surface.
A. 2” to 3” Answer: B
Answer: C B. Just
C. 4” to 5”
D. Never
42. To prevent a vacuum from forming when taking the D. Last; last 53. The term applied when a safety valve opens and
boiler off-line, which of the following must be closes rapidly.
opened when pressure is still on the boiler? Answer: C A. Feathering
A. Safety valve B. Chattering
B. Boiler vent 48. Which of the following is added to boiler so that C. Pressuring
C. Main steam stop valve water changes scale-forming salts into a D. Huddling
D. Man hole cover non-adhering sludge?
A. Oxygen Answer: B
Answer: B B. Slag
C. Minerals 54. The safety valve on a low pressure boiler opens
43. The operating range of the boiler is controlled by: D. Chemicals when pressure in the boiler exceeds how many
A. Squastat psi?
B. Pressure control Answer: D A. 5
C. Vaporstat B. 15
D. Modulating pressure control 49. A ______valve is installed before the _____ to C. 10
allow the steam pressure gauge to be changed if a D. 30
Answer: B malfunction occurs.
A. Globe; safety valve Answer: B
44. The ______ regulates the high and low fire of the B. Globe; U-tube siphon
burner. C. Gate; siphon 55. After the total force of the steam has lifted the
A. Aquastat D. Globe; pigtail siphon safety valve off its seat, the steam enters the
B. Pressure control ______.
C. Vaporstat Answer: C A. Huddling chamber
D. Modulating pressure control B. Steam holding tank
50. What pressure gauge that reads more pressure C. Combustion chamber
Answer: D than is actually in the boiler. D. Main steam line
A. Broken
45. The best time to blow down the boiler to remove B. Uncalibrated Answer: A
sludge and sediment is when the boiler is at: C. Slow
A. Its highest load D. Fast 56. What causes false water level readings in the
B. Half its load gauge glass?
C. Its lightest load Answer: D A. Priming
D. Anytime B. Foaming
51. According to the ASME code, safety valves on low C. Carryover
Answer: C pressure boilers should be tested by hand at least: D. Blowing down
A. Once a month
46. The level of the water in the _____ indicates the B. Once a year Answer: B
water level in the boiler. C. Once a shift
A. Condensate return tank D. Twice a year 57. Fusible plugs are required on ______ boilers by
B. Gauge glass the ASME code.
C. Try cocks Answer: A A. Coal-fired
D. Blowdown tank B. Gas-fired
52. The purpose of the safety valve is prevent the C. Fuel oil-fired
Answer: B pressure in the boiler from: D. All of the above
A. Exceeding its MAWP
47. When blowing down a boiler, the quick-opening B. Causing a boiler explosion Answer: D
valve should always be opened ______and closed C. Dropping below its MAWP
______. D. Relieving water pressure 58. On a pressure control, _______ pressure plus
A. First; first ______pressure equals _______ pressure.
B. Last; first Answer: A A. Differential; cut-out; cut-in
C. First; last B. Cut-in; cut-out; differential
 C. Cut-in; differential; cut-in 64. The feedwater _____ valve should be located as Answer: B
D. Cut-in pressures equals cut-out pressure close to the shell of the boiler as practical.
A. Check 70. Top test the vacuum pump, the operator puts the
Answer: C B. Nonreturn elector switch in the _____ position.
C. Stop A. Float
59. A burner should always start up in ______ fire and D. Regulating B. Float or vacuum
shut down in ______ fire. C. Vacuum
A. Low; low Answer: C D. Continuous
B. High; low
C. Low; high 65. A _________ after each radiator allows _____ to Answer: D
D. High; high pass through to the return line.
A. Steam tarp; steam 71. Water added to the boiler to replace water lost due
Answer: A B. Water trap; steam to leaks and blowing down is known as _____
C. Steam trap; condensate water.
60. The water in the boiler is heated, turns to steam, D. Water trap; condensate A. Extra
and leaves the boiler through the: B. Boiler
A. Feedwater line Answer: C C. Makeup
B. Main steam line D. Feed
C. Main header 66. A ______ valve should be located between the
D. Main branch line boiler and the valve on the feedwater line. Answer: C
A. Stop; check
Answer: B B. Stop; regulator 72. Excessive use of cold city water makeup reduces
C. Check; stop overall efficiency because the water must be
61. When steams gives up its heat in a heat D. Check; regulator ______ before use in the boiler.
exchanger it turns to: A. Vented
A. Low pressure steam Answer: A B. Filtered
B. Makeup water C. Heated
C. Condensate 67. The feedwater ______ valve opens and closes D. Recirculated
D. Exhaust steam automatically.
A. Return Answer: C
Answer: C B. Check
C. Bypass 73. The vacuum pump selector switch is normally in
62. A ________ pump discharges the return water D. Equalizing the position during the heating season.
back to the boiler. A. Float or vacuum
A. Feed Answer: B B. Vacuum only
B. Gear C. Float only
C. Return 68. The vacuum pump pumps water and discharges D. Continuous
D. Vacuum air to the:
A. Expansion tank Answer: A
Answer: D B. Return tank
C. Compression tank 74. The ______ shuts off the burner in the event of
63. How do you call a valve that controls the flow of D. Atmosphere low water.
water in one direction only? A. Low water alarm
A. Gate Answer: D B. Low water fuel cut-off
B. Os&y C. Feedwater regulator
C. Globe 69. The range of pressure on the vacuum switch is D. Automatic low water feeder
D. Check usually:
A. 2 to 6 psi Answer: B
Answer: D B. 2” to 8”
C. 6 to 12 psi 75. Water is supplied to the condensate return tank by
D. 8” to 12” the ______ pump.
 A. Vacuum 81. Gate valves should always be _____ or _____ 87. Condensate in the steam lines can result in:
B. Feedwater closed. A. Carryover
C. Condensate A. Partially open; completely B. Foaming
D. Return B. Completely open; completely C. Priming
C. Wide open; partly D. Water hammer
Answer: A D. Throttled; completely
Answer: D
76. The feedwater regulator is located at the ______ Answer: B
and is connected to the boiler in the same manner 88. Two types of steam traps are the _____ steam
as the ______. 82. Steam header valves should be _____ valves. trap and the _____ steam trap.
A. Right side; gauge glass A. Globe A. Return; float
B. NOWL; water column B. Check B. Nonreturn; thermostatic
C. Bottom; blowdown C. Gate C. Return; nonreturn
D. NOWL; safety valve D. Os&y gate D. Nonreturn; float

Answer: B Answer: C Answer: C

77. What maintains a constant water level in the 83. When open os&y valve offers ______ to the flow 89. The _______ steam trap is the most common
boiler? of steam. steam trap used.
A. Gauge glass A. No resistance A. Thermostatic
B. Automatic city water makeup feeder B. Velocity B. Inverted bucket
C. Water column C. Throttling action C. Return
D. Feedwater regulator D. Full resistance D. Nonreturn; float

Answer: D Answer: A Answer: A

78. The low water fuel cut-off should be tested: 84. Steam traps are _____ devices. 90. Condensate from the nonreturn steam trap is
A. Daily A. Manual pumped from the condensate return tank of the:
B. Semiannually B. Automatic A. Return tank
C. Monthly C. Electrical B. Feedwater heater
D. Annually D. Semiautomatic C. Vacuum tank
D. Boiler
Answer: A Answer: B
Answer: D
79. The burner should be _____ when the low water 85. What valve should be used for throttling flow of
fuel cut-off is blown down. material? 91. Steam returning to the vacuum tank could cause
A. Off A. Gate the condensate pump to become:
B. Tagged out B. Check A. Waterbound
C. Firing C. Globe B. Waterlogged
D. Tested D. Non-return C. Steambound
D. Steamlogged
Answer: C Answer: C
Answer: C
80. Which of the following valves must be used as 86. Steam traps removed ______ and _____ from the
boiler main steam stop valve? steam lines. 92. Steam strainers should be located on the line
A. Globe A. Air; water _____ the steam trap.
B. Check B. Water; oil A. In front of
C. Gate C. Air; oil B. Above
D. Os&y gate D. Air; steam C. After
D. Along sides of
Answer: D Answer: A
 Answer: A B. Steam strainers Answer: B
C. Globe valves
93. As the steam pressure increases the steam D. Steam separators 104. A high vacuum on the fuel oil suction gauge
temperature: normally indicates either _____ or ______.
A. Decreased Answer: B A. Low viscosity; a clogged vent
B. Remains the same B. A closed discharged valve; hot fuel oil
C. Increases 99. When a steam trap is functioning properly there is C. Cold fuel oil; a dirty suction strainer
D. Fluctuates a _______ difference in temperature between the D. Water in the fuel oil; a warm pump
trap inlet and discharge.
Answer: C A. 5 ͦF to 10 ͦF Answer: C
B. 20 ͦF to 30 ͦF
94. When the os&y valve is open the stem is in the C. 10 ͦF to 20 ͦF 105. Fuel oil burners deliver the fuel oil to the furnace in
______ position. D. No a:
A. Floating A. Steady stream
B. Up Answer: C B. Half spray, half steam
C. Locked C. Fine spray
D. Down 100. When burning No. 6 fuel oil strainers should D. None of the above
be cleaned at least once every ______ hours.
Answer: B A. 8 Answer: C
B. 12
95. The thermostatic steam trap opens and closes by C. 10 106. The rotary cup burner uses ______ and _____ to
a(n): D. 24 atomize the fuel oil.
A. Float A. High temperature; pressure
B. Electric sensor Answer: D B. High temperature; air
C. Inverted bucket C. High pressure; steam
D. Flexible bellows 101. When cleaning the fuel oil strainers the _____ D. A spinning cup; high velocity air
must be carefully replaced to prevent ______ from
Answer: D getting into the system. Answer: D
A. Gaskets; fuel oil
96. In the float the thermostatic trap the float rises to B. Cover; water 107. In a low pressure gas burner gas is mixed with air
discharge: C. Gaskets; air in the ________.
A. Condensate D. Cover; fuel oil A. Burner register
B. Feedwater chemicals B. Combustion chamber
C. Steam Answer: C C. Mixing chamber before the burner register
D. Water and steam D. Boiler furnace
102. The ______ pump draws fuel oil from the fuel oil
Answer: A tank. Answer: C
A. Transfer
97. A steam trap that failed to open would cause the B. Condensate 108. In a high pressure gas mixes with the air on the
heating unit to become: C. Fuel oil inside of the:
A. Steambound D. Circulating A. Burner register
B. Very hot B. Combustion chamber
C. Waterlogged Answer: C C. Mixing chamber
D. All of the above D. Boiler furnace
103. The ______ valve protects the fuel lines and pump
Answer: C from excessive pressure. Answer: A
A. Safety
98. Which of the following whose main function is to B. Relief 109. Regardless of the type of fuel oil used the fuel oil
remove dirt and impurities that may cause the C. Bypass must be _____ before it enters the boilers furnace.
steam trap to malfunction? D. Stop A. Pressurized
A. Vacuum pumps B. Treated
 C. Atomized 115. If low water develops in the boiler having a low A. Smoke; soot
D. Measured pressure gas system the ______ will secure the B. Clinkers; ash
gas to the burner. C. Uneven heat; ash
Answer: C A. Whistle valve D. High temperature; smoke
B. Manual reset valve
110. On the low pressure gas system the manual reset C. Vaporstat Answer: A
cannot be opened until the: D. Main gas solenoid
A. Vaporstat proves pressure 121. The _____ of fuels oil is the lowest temperature at
B. Pilot is lighted Answer: D which it will flow as a liquid.
C. Boiler is vented A. Fire point
D. All of the above 116. Combination gas/fuel oil burners permit the B. Pour point
operator to switch from one fuel to another C. Flash point
Answer: B ______. D. Viscosity
A. For economy
111. Before any repair work is attempted on any B. Because of a shortage of fuel being used Answer: B
gas-fired boiler the: C. Because of a failure in the fuel system being
A. Insurance inspector must be notified used 122. The _____ is the temperature at which fuel oil
B. Main gas cock must be secured D. All of the above gives off vapor that flashes when exposed to an
C. State inspector must be notified open flame.
D. Main solenoid valve should be secured Answer: D A. Fire point
B. Pour point
Answer: B 117. Hard coal, known as ______, has a ______ C. Flash point
content. D. Viscosity
112. In a low pressure gas system when the vaporstat A. Bituminous; high carbon
proves gas pressure up to the zero- reducing B. Anthracite; high volatile Answer: C
governor the ______ starts up. C. Bituminous; high volatile
A. Induced draft fan D. Anthracite; high carbon 123. The _____ is the temperature at which fuel oil will
B. Pressure burn continuously when exposed to an open
C. Forced draft blower Answer: D flame.
D. Gas pump A. Fire point
118. Soft coal; known as _____, has a _______ B. Pour point
Answer: C content. C. Flash point
A. Bituminous; high carbon D. Viscosity
113. The butterfly on the low pressure gas system is a B. Anthracite; high volatile
________ valve. C. Bituminous; high volatile Answer: A
A. Slow-opening D. Anthracite; high carbon
B. Screw 124. It is defined as the internal resistance of fuel oil
C. Quick-opening Answer: C flow.
D. Globe A. Fire point
119. Boilers using soft coal must have ______ furnace B. Pour point
Answer: A volume to reduce the danger of _____. C. Flash point
A. Small; overfiring D. Viscosity
114. The amount of gas supplied to the burner in the B. Large; smoking
low pressure gas system is controlled by: C. Small; smoking Answer: D
A. Gas pressure D. Large; overfiring
B. Steam pressure 125. What must be done in order to lower the viscosity
C. The boiler operator Answer: B of the fuel oil?
D. The amount of air passing through the A. Lower its temperature
butterfly valve 120. When burning soft coal, if the volatile gases reach B. Increase its temperature
the heating surface before they have burned C. Lower its pour point
Answer: D completely _____ and ______ develop. D. Increase its pour point
 Answer: B 131. In a screw-feed stoker, what draft fan supplies air Answer: B
for combustion?
126. A leak on the fuel oil suction line between the tank A. Induced 137. It is the burning of all the fuel using the minimum
and the suction side of the fuel oil pump would B. Forced amount of excess air.
result in: C. Combination A. Incomplete combustion
A. The suction gauge pulsating D. Natural B. Complete combustion
B. Air entering the suction line C. Perfect combustion
C. Pulsating of the fire in the boiler Answer: B D. Imperfect combustion
D. All of the above
132. To prevent smoke and to aid in complete Answer: B
Answer: B combustion in the screw-feed stoker, _______ is
provided using a separate damper control. 138. ______ combustion occurs when all the fuel is not
127. Stokers were developed to: A. Underfire air burned resulting in formation of soot and smoke.
A. Increase efficiency of burning coal B. Retort air A. Incomplete
B. Keep furnace temperature constant to protect C. Overfire air B. Perfect
brickwork D. Grate zone air C. Complete
C. Allow for development of larger coal-fired D. Imperfect
boiler Answer: C
D. All of the above Answer: A
133. The ram-feed stoker is a(n) ______ stoker.
Answer: D A. Overfeed 139. Which of the following is required to achieve
B. Side feed complete combustion?
128. Any foreign matter in the coal feed mechanism of C. Travelling grate A. Proper atomization
the screw-feed stoker is best removed by: D. Underfeed B. Proper temperature of fuel
A. Emptying the coal hopper C. Time of complete combustion
B. Reversing the stoker Answer: D D. All of the above
C. Forcing it through with a heavy shear pin
D. Using the cutoff gate at the bottom of the 134. The ram-feed stoker provides: Answer: D
hopper A. Uniform feed
B. Quick ash discharge 140. The combustion process must be complete before
Answer: D C. Even coal distribution the gases combustion come in contact with the:
D. All of the above A. Atmosphere
129. In the event of an obstruction clogging the feed B. Superheater
screw a _____ is used to prevent damage to Answer: D C. Heating surface
transmission. D. Main steam outlet
A. Slip clutch 135. Combustion is the rapid burning of fuel and
B. Shear pin or key oxygen resulting in: Answer: C
C. Fuse A. Release of heat
D. None of the above B. Oxidation 141. Soot buildup on heating surface:
C. Release of steam A. Acts as an insulation
Answer: B D. Nitrogen and oxygen B. Prevents heat transfer
C. Increases temperature of gases of
130. In order to bank the stoker it is necessary to Answer: A combustion
secure the _____ while the _____ continuous to D. All of the above
operate. 136. What combustion occurs when all the fuel is
A. Combination fan; coal feeder burned using the theoretical amount of air? Answer: D
B. Coal feeder; forced draft fan A. Incomplete
C. Feedwater; induced draft fan B. Perfect 142. The purpose of automatic combustion controls is
D. Boiler stop valve; coal feeder C. Complete to control ______ and _______.
D. Imperfect A. High fire; low fire
Answer: B B. Stoker firing; fuel rate
 C. Overfire air; fuel mixture Answer: C B. At jet’s minimum diameter
D. Proper air to fuel mixture; firing rate C. At the orifice minimum diameter
148. Increasing the pressure has what effect of the D. At the orifice maximum diameter
Answer: D boiling point of water?
A. No change Answer: B
143. At 0 psig, how many BTU are necessary to change B. Temperature will be raised
1 lb of water at 212 ̊F of steam? C. Temperature will be lowered 4. The following are all examples of indirect
A. 144 D. Temperature will increase 2 ̊F for every psi (secondary) miscellaneous methods to measure
B. 970 flow except:
C. 180 Answer: B A. Turbine and propeller meters
D. 1190 B. Magnetic flow meters
149. Heat absorbed by water when it changes from C. Positive displacement meters
Answer: B liquid to steam at the boiling point is called: D. Hot-wire anemometers
A. Sensible heat
144. Radiation is: B. Specific heat Answer: C
A. The movement of liquids or gases created by C. Latent heat
a temperature difference D. Superheat 5. One could expect the possibility of Reynolds
B. The transfer of heat by direct molecular number similarity in all of the following cases
contact Answer: C except:
C. The weight of the substance compared to A. Pumps
unity 150. Heat may be transferred in how many ways? B. Fans
D. A form of heat transfer A. One C. Turbines
B. Three D. Weirs
Answer: D C. Two
D. Four Answer: D
145. Steam at 100 psi and 400 ̊F is:
A. Saturated Answer: B 6. One could expect the possibility of Froude number
B. Superheated similarity in all of the following cases except:
C. Wet CHAPTER 9 – HYDROELECTRIC PLANT A. Surface ships
D. None of the above B. Surface wave motion
1. In turbine installation, the air is removed from the C. Flow over weirs
Answer: B condenser by ________. D. Closed-pipe turbulent pipe flow
A. Air pump
146. Which of the following most closely defines B. Air injector Answer: D
sensible heat? C. Air ejector
A. An established relationship comparing any D. Air jet 7. One could expect the possibility of Froude number
substance to the heat content of water similarity in all of the following cases except:
B. Heat quantity that can be felt or measured by Answer: C A. Motion of a fluid jet
a thermometer B. Flow over spillways
C. Heat quantity above the point of saturation 2. The primary purpose of a turbine in a fluid loop is C. Surge and flood waves
D. Measure of heat intensity to: D. Subsonic airfoils
A. Add energy to the flow
Answer: B B. Add mass to the flow Answer: D
C. Extract energy from the flow
147. What is required to raise the temperature of 1 lb of D. None of the above 8. In fluid flow, linear momentum is:
water from 32 ̊ to 212 ̊F? A. A vector quantity equal to the product of
A. 144 Btu Answer: C mass and velocity
B. 970.3 Btu B. A scalar quantity equal to the product mass
C. 180 Btu 3. A vena contracta in a fluid jet issuing through a and velocity
D. Saturated heat hole in a plate is located approximately: C. A scalar quantity equal to the product of force
A. 10 diameters downstream of the hole and length of time is applied
 D. The change in impulse 14. The coefficient of discharge is the ratio of the: A. Venturi meters
A. Area of vena contracta to the orifice area B. Static pressure probes
Answer: A B. Actual discharge to the theoretical discharge C. Turbine and propeller meters
C. Actual velocity to the theoretical velocity D. Magnetic dynamometers
9. All of the following fluid phenomena are based on D. Effective head to the actual head
the force momentum principle of a flowing fluid Answer: D
except: Answer: B
A. Turbines 20. Flow measuring devices include all of the following
B. Pelton wheels 15. The coefficient of velocity is equal to the: except:
C. Diesel automobile engines A. Product of the coefficient of discharge and A. Orifice plate meters
D. Jet engines the coefficient of contraction B. Hot-wire anemometers
B. Actual velocity divided by the theoretical C. Magnetic flow meters
Answer: C velocity D. Mercury barometers
C. Sum of the coefficient of discharge and the
10. The fact that a fluid’s velocity increases as the coefficient of contraction Answer: D
cross sectional area of the pipe through which it D. Difference of the coefficient of discharge and
flow decreases is due to: the coefficient of contraction 21. Flow measuring devices include all of the following
A. Bernoull’s equation except:
B. The continuity equation Answer: B A. Flow nozzles
C. The momentum equation B. Venture area meters
D. The perfect gas law 16. Which of the following is not a similarity between a C. Pilot tubes
submerged culvert and a siphon? D. Precision tachometers
Answer: B A. They both operate full
B. Toricelli’s equation holds Answer: D
11. In the absence of any heat and work interactions C. Both can experience entrance and exit losses
and any changes in potential energy, the D. In both, the water flows downhill 22. The following are examples of indirect (secondary)
stagnation enthalpy of a fluid remains constant measurements to measure flow rates using
during _______. Answer: B obstruction meters except:
A. Unsteady flow A. Variable area meters
B. Steady flow 17. In parallel pipe system originating and terminating B. Venture meters
C. Turbulent flow in common junctions, C. Volume tanks
D. Variable flow A. Mass flows through each branch are equal D. Flow nozzles
B. Pressure drops through each branch are
Answer: B equal Answer: C
C. Lengths of each branch are equal
12. When a falling object reaches a speed at which D. Flow areas of each branch are equal 23. The following are examples of indirect (secondary)
the drag force equals its weight, it has achieved: measurements to measure flow rates using
A. Mach one Answer: B obstruction meters except:
B. A laminar boundary layer A. Pilot static meters
C. A turbulent boundary layer 18. Flows through multi-loop systems maybe B. Static pressure probes
D. Terminal velocity computed by: C. Weight and mass scales
A. Any closed-form solution of simultaneous D. Direction-sensing probes
Answer: C equations
B. The Hardy-Cross method Answer: C
13. The coefficient of contraction is the ratio of the: C. Trial and error
A. Area of vena contracta to the orifice area D. All of the above 24. In series pipe system, all of the following
B. Actual discharge to the theoretical discharge parameters vary from section to section except:
C. Actual velocity to the theoretical velocity Answer: D A. Pressure drop
D. Effective head to the actual head B. Friction loss
19. Flow measuring devices include all of the following C. Head loss
Answer: A except: D. Mass flow
 Answer: D 30. The matching of scale model and full-scale results 35. The magnitude of the drag coefficient of a sphere
for a fluid dynamic phenomena involving in water is dependent upon all of the following
25. Venturi meters, pitot static gauges, orifice meters, compressible fluids requires equality of: except:
flow nozzles, and differential manometers all A. Reynolds number A. Fluid density
depend upon the relationship between: B. Froude number B. Fluid velocity
A. Flow velocity and friction C. Cauchy number C. Units of measure (SI or English Engineering
B. Flow velocity and pressure D. Mach number System)
C. Friction and pressure D. Drag force
D. Pressure and mass flow Answer: D
Answer: C
Answer: B 31. The matching of scale model and full-scale
prototype results for a fluid dynamic phenomena 36. The fact that there is no resistance to bodies
26. The combination of enthalpy and kinetic energy of involving surface tension requires equality of: moving through an ideal (non-viscous) fluids is
fluid is termed as: A. Reynolds number known as:
A. Latent enthalpy B. Weber number A. Reynold’s analogy
B. Heat enthalpy C. Froude number B. D’Alembert’s paradox
C. Throttling enthalpy D. Cauchy number C. Newton’s second law
D. Stagnation enthalpy D. The second law of thermodynamics
Answer: B
Answer: D Answer: B
32. The matching of scale model and full-scale
27. The coefficient of velocity, 𝐶𝑣, accounts for the: prototype results for a fluid dynamic phenomena 37. One could expect the possibility of Reynold’s
A. Effects on the flow area of contraction, friction involving a fully submerged body requires equality number similarity in all of the following cases
and turbulence of: except:
B. Small effect of friction and turbulence of the A. Reynolds number A. Submarines
orifice B. Weber number B. Torpedoes
C. Changes in diameters of a converging pipe C. Froude number C. Seaplane hulls
D. Effects of compressibility D. Mach number D. Supersonic aircraft

Answer: B Answer: A Answer: C

28. Expansion factors take into account the: 33. The water hammer phenomenon is primarily what 38. The function of a turbine is to:
A. Area of the vena contracta kind of fluid mechanics? A. Transfer heat from one fluid to another
B. Small effect of friction and turbulence of the A. Static (a phenomena independent of time) B. Increase the total energy content of the flow
orifice B. Dynamic (a time-dependent phenomena) C. Extract energy from the flow
C. Changes in diameters of a converging pipe C. Compressible D. Exchange heat to increase energy to the flow
D. Effects of compressibility D. Incompressible
Answer: C
Answer: D Answer: B
39. Pitot tube is use to measure the:
29. The matching of scale model and full-scale results 34. All of the following are forms of drag on a body A. Velocity of mass
for a fluid dynamic phenomena with a free surface moving through a fluid except: B. Velocity of pipe
requires equality of: A. Skin friction C. Flow
A. Reynolds number B. Wake drag D. Velocity of flow
B. Weber number C. Profile drag
C. Froude number D. D’Alembert’s paradox drag Answer: D
D. Cauchy number
Answer: D 40. Orifice coefficients are used to determine:
Answer: C A. Energy losses
B. Energy gains
C. Mass losses
 D. Energy losses and mass gains A. Inward flow reaction Answer: C
B. Outward flow impulse
Answer: A C. Outward flow reaction 52. Past ME Board Question
D. Inward flow impulse The intake pipe to a hydraulic turbinefrom a dam
41. The coefficient of velocity is the ratio of the: is:
A. Area of vena contracta to the orifice area Answer: A A. Tailrace
B. Actual discharge to the theoretical discharge B. Spiral casing
C. Actual discharge velocity to the theoretical 47. Past ME Board Question C. Surge tank
discharge velocity Which of the following is a type of water turbine? D. Penstock
D. Effective head to the actual head A. Parson
B. Hero Answer: D
Answer: C C. Pelton
D. Bankl 53. Past ME Board Question
42. The volume flow passes through a venturimeter is: A type of water turbine where a jet of water is
A. Increasing Answer: C made to fall on the blades or buckets and due to
B. Decreasing the impulse of water, the turbine starts to move.
C. Constant 48. Past ME Board Question A. Pelton wheel
D. Varying What is the use of a Hydraulic jump? B. Steam turbine
A. Increase the flow rate C. Francis turbine
Answer: C B. Reduce the flow rate D. Reaction turbine
C. Reduce the velocity of flow
43. What must be done to change the direction of D. Reduce the energy of flow Answer: A
rotation of a 440-volt, 3-phase induction motor?
A. Reverse lines to start winding Answer: D 54. Past ME Board Question
B. Interchange any two power leads The lowest portion to storage basin from where the
C. Replace any two wires to the rotor 49. Past ME Board Question water is not drawn is:
D. Remove any power leads A Kaplan turbine is: A. Bottom storage
A. A high head mixed flow turbine B. Sub-soil storage
Answer: B B. An inward flow impulse turbine C. Spring reserve
C. An outward flow reaction turbine D. Dead storage
44. A draft tube is a part of which power plants? D. Low head axial flow turbine
A. Diesel engine power plant Answer: D
B. Gas turbine power plant Answer: D
C. Steam power plant 55. Past ME Board Question
D. Hydro-electric power plant 50. Past ME Board Question In a hydro-electric plant using a Francis turbine
The locus of elevation is: with medium head, the speed can be regulated
Answer: D A. Critical point using the:
B. Hydraulic gradient A. Deflector gate
45. Past ME Board Question C. Energy gradient B. Nozzle
In the hydro-electric plant having a medium head D. Friction gradient C. Wicket gate
and using a Francis turbine, the turbine speed may D. Weir
be regulated through: Answer: B
A. Deflector gate Answer: C
B. Nozzle 51. Past ME Board Question
C. Wicket gate The locus of elevation to which water will rise in 56. Past ME Board Question
D. Forebay the piezometer tube is termed: In the deep well installation or operation, the
A. Energy gradient difference between static water level and operating
Answer: C B. Friction head water level is known as _______.
C. Hydraulic gradient A. Suction lift
46. Past ME Board Question D. Critical path B. Drawdown
A Francis turbine has what flow? C. Priming level
 D. Clogging 62. Past ME Board Question In the deep well installation or operation, the
What is the pressure at the exit of a draft tube in a difference between static water level and operating
Answer: B turbine? water level is called ________.
A. Below atmospheric A. Suction lift
57. Past ME Board Question B. Vacuum B. Drawdown
Which of the following is a characteristic of an C. Atmospheric C. Priming level
impulse turbine? D. Gage D. Clogging
A. Steam striking blades on angle
B. No steam reaction to velocity Answer: C Answer: B
C. Steam striking blades at zero angle
D. Steam reversing direction 63. Past ME Board Question 68. Past ME Board Question
An impulse turbine has: Which of the following is a characteristic of an
Answer: C A. Low head impulse turbine?
B. Medium head A. Steam striking blades of angle
58. Past ME Board Question C. High head B. No steam reaction to velocity
What is the pressure at the exit of a draft tube in a D. Very low head C. Steam striking blades to zero angle
turbine? D. Steam reversing direction
A. Below atmospheric Answer: C
B. Vacuum Answer: C
C. Atmospheric 64. Past ME Board Question
D. Gage High head turbine is a/an: 69. Past ME Board Question
A. Impulse A type of water turbine where a jet of water is
Answer: C B. Francis made to fall on the blades or buckets and due to
C. Reaction the impulse of water, the turbine starts to move.
59. Past ME Board Question D. Propeller A. Pelton wheel
An impulse turbine are used for: B. Steam turbine
A. Low head Answer: A C. Francis turbine
B. Medium head D. Reaction turbine
C. High head 65. Past ME Board Question
D. Very low head The lowest portion to storage basin from where the Answer: A
water is not drawn is:
Answer: C A. Bottom storage 70. Past ME Board Question
B. Sub-soil storage The intake pipe to a hydraulic turbine from a dam
60. Past ME Board Question C. Spring reserve is:
Which of the following is used as high head D. Dead storage A. Tailrace
turbine? B. Spiral casing
A. Impulse Answer: D C. Surge tank
B. Francis D. Penstock
C. Reaction 66. Past ME Board Question
D. Propeller In a hydro-electric plant using a Francis turbine Answer: D
with medium head, the speed can be regulated
Answer: A using the 71. Past ME Board Question
A. Deflector gate In the hydro-electric plant having a medium head
61. In pumped storage plant B. Nozzle and using a Francis turbine, the turbine speed may
A. Power is produced by pumps C. Wicket gate be regulated through:
B. Water is stored by pumping to high pressures D. Weir A. Deflector gate
C. Pressure accumulators are used B. Nozzle
D. Downstream water is pumped upstream Answer: C C. Wicket gate
during offload periods D. Forebay
67. Past ME Board Question
Answer: D Answer: C
72. Past ME Board Question D. Critical path 83. One could expect the possibility of Froude number
A Francis turbine has what flow? similarity in all of the following cases except:
A. Inward flow reaction Answer: C A. Surface ships
B. Outward flow impulse B. Surface wave motion
C. Outward flow reaction 78. In turbine installation, the air is removed from the C. Flow over weirs
D. Inward flow impulse condenser by: D. Closed-pipe turbulent pipe flow
A. Air pump
Answer: A B. Air injector Answer: D
C. Air ejector
73. Past ME Board Question D. Air jet 84. One could expect the possibility of Froude number
Which of the following is a type of water turbine? similarity in all of the following cases except:
A. Parson Answer: C A. Motion of a fluid jet
B. Hero B. Flow over spillways
C. Pelton 79. The primary purpose of a turbine in a fluid loop is C. Surge and flood waves
D. Bankl to: D. Subsonic airfoils
A. Add energy to the flow
Answer: C B. Add mass to the flow Answer: D
C. Extract energy from the flow
74. Past ME Board Question D. None of the above 85. In fluid flow, linear momentum is:
Hydraulic jump is used to: A. A vector quantity equal to the product of
A. Increase the flow rate Answer: C mass and velocity
B. Reduce the flow rate B. A scalar quantity equal to the product mass
C. Reduce the velocity of flow 80. A vena contracta in a fluid jet issuing through a and velocity
D. Reduce the energy of flow hole in a plate is located approximately: C. A scalar quantity equal to the product of force
A. 10 diameters downstream of the hole and length of time is applied
Answer: D B. At jet’s minimum diameter D. The change in impulse
C. At the orifice minimum diameter
75. Past ME Board Question D. At the orifice maximum diameter Answer: A
A Kaplan turbine is:
A. A high head mixed flow turbine Answer: B 86. All of the following fluid phenomena are based on
B. An inward flow impulse turbine the force momentum principle of a flowing fluid
C. An outward flow reaction turbine 81. The following are all examples of indirect except:
D. Low head axial flow turbine (secondary) miscellaneous methods to measure A. Turbines
flow except: B. Pelton wheels
Answer: D A. Turbine and propeller meters C. Diesel automobile engines
B. Magnetic flow meters D. Jet engines
76. Past ME Board Question C. Positive displacement meters
The locus of elevation is: D. Hot-wire anemometers Answer: C
A. Critical point
B. Hydraulic gradient Answer: C 87. The fact that a fluid’s velocity increases as the
C. Energy gradient cross sectional area of the pipe through which it
D. Friction gradient 82. One could expect the possibility of Reynolds flow decreases is due to:
number similarity in all of the following cases A. Bernoull’s equation
Answer: B except: B. The continuity equation
A. Pumps C. The momentum equation
77. Past ME Board Question B. Fans D. The perfect gas law
The locus of elevations to which water will rise in C. Turbines
the piezometer tube is termed: D. Weirs Answer: B
A. Energy gradient
B. Friction head Answer: D 88. In the absence of any heat and work interactions
C. Hydraulic gradient and any changes in potential energy, the
 stagnation enthalpy of a fluid remains constant D. In both, the water flows downhill 99. The following are examples of indirect (secondary)
during: measurements to measure flow rates using
A. Unsteady flow Answer: B obstruction meters except:
B. Steady flow A. Variable area meters
C. Turbulent flow 94. In parallel pipe system originating and terminating B. Venture meters
D. Variable flow in common junctions: C. Volume tanks
A. Mass flows through each branch are equal D. Flow nozzles
Answer: B B. Pressure drops through each branch are
equal Answer: C
89. When a falling object reaches a speed at which C. Lengths of each branch are equal
the drag force equals its weight, it has achieved: D. Flow areas of each branch are equal 100. The following are examples of indirect (secondary)
A. Mach one measurements to measure flow rates using
B. A laminar boundary layer Answer: B obstruction meters except:
C. A turbulent boundary layer A. Pitot static meters
D. Terminal velocity 95. Flows through multi-loop systems may be B. Static pressure probes
computed by: C. Weight and mass scales
Answer: C A. Any closed-form solution of simultaneous D. Direction-sensing probes
equations
90. The coefficient of contraction is the ratio of the: B. The Hardy-Cross method Answer: C
A. Area of vena contracta to the orifice area C. Trial and error
B. Actual discharge to the theoretical discharge D. All of the above 101. In series pipe systems, all of the following
C. Actual velocity to the theoretical velocity parameters vary from section to section except:
D. Effective head to the actual head Answer: D A. Pressure drop
B. Friction loss
Answer: A 96. Flow measuring devices include all of the following C. Head loss
except: D. Mass flow
91. The coefficient of discharge is the ratio of the: A. Venturi meters
A. Area of vena contracta to the orifice area B. Static pressure probes Answer: D
B. Actual discharge to the theoretical discharge C. Turbine and propeller meters
C. Actual velocity to the theoretical velocity D. Magnetic dynamometers 102. Venturi meters, pitot static gauges, orifice meters,
D. Effective head to the actual head flow nozzles, and differential manometers all
Answer: D depend upon the relationship between:
Answer: B A. Flow velocity and friction
97. Flow measuring devices include all of the following B. Flow velocity and pressure
92. The coefficient of velocity is equal to the: except: C. Friction and pressure
A. Product of the coefficient of discharge and A. Orifice plat meters D. Pressure and mass flow
the coefficient of contraction B. Hot-wire anemometers
B. Actual velocity divided by the theoretical C. Magnetic flow meters Answer: B
velocity D. Mercury barometers
C. Sum of the coefficient of discharge and the 103. The combination of enthalpy and kinetic energy of
coefficient of contraction Answer: D fluid is termed as:
D. Difference of the coefficient of discharge and A. Latent enthalpy
the coefficient of contraction 98. Flow measuring devices include all of the following B. Heat enthalpy
except: C. Throttling enthalpy
Answer: B A. Flow nozzles D. Stagnation enthalpy
B. Venture area meters
93. Which of the following is not a similarity betweena C. Pitot tubes Answer: D
submerged culvert and a siphon? D. Precision tachometers
A. They both operate full 104. The coefficient of velocity, 𝐶𝑣 accounts for the:
B. Torricelli’s equation holds Answer: D
A. Effects on the flow area of contraction, friction
C. Both can experience entrance and exit losses and turbulence
 B. Small effect of friction and turbulence of the B. Weber number D. Supersonic aircraft
orifice C. Froude number
C. Changes in diameter of a converging pipe D. Mach number Answer: C
D. Effects of compressibility
Answer: A 115. The function of a turbine is to:
Answer: B A. Transfer heat from one liquid to another
110. The water hammer phenomenon is primarily what B. Increase the total energy content of the flow
105. Expansion factors take into account the: kind of fluid mechanics? C. Extract energy from the flow
A. Area of the vena contracta A. Static (a phenomena independent of time) D. Exchange heat to increase energy to the flow
B. Small effect of friction and turbulence of the B. Dynamic (a time-dependent phenomena)
orifice C. Compressible Answer: C
C. Changes in diameter of a converging pipe D. Incompressible
D. Effects of compressibility 116. Pitot tube is use to measure the:
Answer: B A. Velocity of mass
Answer: D B. Velocity of pipe
111. All of the following are forms of drag on a body C. Flow
106. The matching of scale model and full-scale results moving through a fluid except: D. Velocity of flow
for a fluid dynamic phenomena with a free surface A. Skin friction
rquires equality of: B. Wake drag Answer: D
A. Reynolds number C. Profile drag
B. Weber number D. D’Alembert’s paradox drag 117. Orifice coefficients are used to determine
C. Froude number A. Energy losses
D. Cauchy number Answer: D B. Energy gains
C. Mass losses
Answer: C 112. The magnitude of the drag coefficient of a sphere D. Energy losses and mass gains
in water is dependent upon all of the following
107. The matching of scale model and full-scale results except: Answer: A
for a fluid dynamic phenomena involving A. Fluid density
compressible fluids requires equality of: B. Fluid velocity 118. The coefficient of velocity is the ratio of the:
A. Reynolds number C. Units of measure (SI or English Engineering A. Area of vena contracta to the orifice area
B. Froude number System) B. Actual discharge to the theoretical discharge
C. Cauchy number D. Drag force C. Actual discharge velocity to the theoretical
D. Mach number discharge velocity
Answer: C D. Effective head to the actual head
Answer: D
113. The fact that there is no resistance to bodies Answer: C
108. The matching of scale model and full-scale moving through an ideal (non-viscous) fluids is
prototype results for a fluid dynamic phenomena known as: 119. The volume flow passes through a venturimeter is:
involving surface tension requires equality of: A. Reynold’s analogy A. Increasing
A. Reynolds number B. D’Alembert’s paradox B. Decreasing
B. Weber number C. Newton’s second law C. Constant
C. Froude number D. The second law of thermodynamics D. Varying
D. Cauchy number
Answer: B Answer: C
Answer: B
114. One could expect the possibility of Reynolds 120. Which of the following devices used to measure
109. The matching of scale model and full-scale number similarity in all of the following cases the discharge of outflow from a vessel?
prototype results for a fluid dynamic phenomena except: A. Pitot tube
involving a fully submerged body requires equality A. Submarines B. Orifice
of: B. Torpedoes C. Pump head
A. Reynolds number C. Seaplane hulls D. Obstruction meter
 Answer: B Peak load for a period of time divided by installed 11. Past ME Board Question
capacity is: The ratio of the sum of individual maximum
CHAPTER 10 – VARIABLE LOAD & ENVIRONMENTAL A. Capacity factor demands of the system to the overall maximum
ENG’G. B. Demand factor demand of the whole system.
C. Utilization factor A. Demand factor
1. The maximum continuous power available from a D. Load factor B. Diversity factor
hydro-electric power plant under the most adverse C. Power factor
hydraulic conditions is called _______. Answer: C D. Utilization factor
A. Base power
B. Firm power 7. Past ME Board Question Answer: B
C. Primary power The ratio of the sum of individual maximum
D. Secondary power demands of the system to the maximum demand 12. Load curve refers to the plot of:
of the whole system is: A. Load versus generating capacity
Answer: B A. Diversity factor B. Load versus current
B. Utilization factor C. Load versus time
2. The area under load curve divided by maximum C. Power factor D. Load versus cost of power
demand represents: D. Demand factor
A. Load factor Answer: C
B. Connected load Answer: A
C. Average load 13. Load curve refers to the plot of:
D. Diversity factor 8. Past ME Board Question A. Load versus generating capacity
The ratio between the actual power and the B. Load versus current
Answer: D apparent power in any circuit is known as the C. Load versus time
______ of that circuit. D. Load versus cost of power
3. What is the reverse capacity of a plant? A. Measured power
A. Maximum demand – average demand B. Capacity Answer: C
B. Plant capacity – maximum demand C. Power factor
C. Plant capacity – average demand D. KVAR 14. The ratio of maximum load to the rated plant
D. Plant capacity x (1 – load factor) capacity
Answer: C A. Load factor
Answer: B B. Utilization factor
9. Past ME Board Question C. Maximum load factor
4. Load curve refers to the plot of: The ratio of maximum load to the rated plant D. Capacity factor
A. Load versus generating capacity capacity
B. Load versus current A. Load factor Answer: B
C. Load versus time B. Utilization factor
D. Load versus cost of power C. Maximum load factor 15. The ratio of the average load to the peak load over
D. Capacity factor a designated period of time is called _____.
Answer: C A. Load factor
Answer: B B. Reactive factor
5. The ratio of maximum load to the rated plant C. Diversity factor
capacity is called ________. 10. Past ME Board Question D. Plant use factor
A. Load factor The ratio of the average load to the peak load over
B. Utilization factor a designated period of time is called Answer: A
C. Maximum load factor A. Load factor
D. Capacity B. Reactive factor 16. Past ME Board Question
C. Diversity factor Peak load for a period of time divided by installed
Answer: B D. Plant use factor capacity is _______.
A. Capacity factor
6. Past ME Board Question Answer: A B. Demand factor
C. Utilization factor
 D. Load factor D. Starting tube B. Henry’s law
C. Raoult’s law
Answer: C Answer: A D. Boyle’s law

17. The area under load curve divided by maximum 22. A major cause of air pollution resulting from the Answer: B
demand represents burning of fuel oil is:
A. Load factor A. Nitrous 28. All of the following pollutants are produced
B. Connected load B. Hydrogen because of decaying organic matter except:
C. Average load C. Sulfur dioxide A. Ammonia
D. Diversity factor D. Silicon B. Sulfur dioxide
C. Methane
Answer: D Answer: C D. Hydrogen sulfide

18. Past ME Board Question 23. Heavy water is: Answer: B

The ratio of the sum of individual maximum A. 𝐵2O
demands of the system to the overall maximum B. 𝐻2O 29. The velocity of radiations (v) and the frequency of
demand of the whole system. radiations (f) are related to the wavelength of
A. Demand factor C. 𝑊2O radiations by:
B. Diversity factor D. 𝐷2O A. v/f
C. Power factor B. f/v
D. Utilization factor Answer: D C. vf
2
D. 𝑣f
Answer: B 24. Scintillation counter are used to detect:
A. Beta rays Answer: A
19. Past ME Board Question
B. X-ray
The ratio of the sum of individual maximum 30. Swimming pool water needs
C. Gamma rays
demands of the system to the maximum demand A. Pre-chlorination
D. All of the above
of the whole system is known as ________. B. Super-chlorination
A. Diversity factor Answer: D C. Dual-chlorination
B. Utilization factor D. De-chlorination
C. Power factor 25. All of the following are common types of chemical
D. Demand factor reactions except: Answer: D
A. Direct combination
Answer: A B. Fission 31. Aeration of water is done for all of the following
C. Decomposition purposes except for:
20. Past ME Board Question A. Removal of 𝐶𝑂2
D. Double replacement
The ratio between the actual power and the
apparent power in any circuit is known as the B. Removal of bad taste
Answer: B C. Increasing the amount of oxygen in water
_______ of that circuit.
A. Measured power D. Removal of temporary hardness
26. Redox reactions can often be type of:
B. Capacity A. Direct combination Answer: D
C. Power factor B. Fission
D. KVAR C. Decomposition 32. Which of the following area of work requires lowest
D. Double replacement noise level?
Answer: C
A. Gymnasiums
Answer: D B. Library
21. Yeast as raw material for beer making is added to
the equipment called: C. Lecture halls
27. The fact that the amount of slightly soluble gas D. Kitchens
A. Fermenters absorbed in a liquid is proportional to the partial
B. Brew kettle pressure of the gas is known as: Answer: B
C. Cooler A. Dalton’s law
33. Mycotoxins are poisonous chemicals produced by: Answer: C Answer: D
A. Bacteria
B. Molds 39. Which of the following is not the pollutant from a 45. The effective size of a target atom that interacts
C. Virus sulfuric acid plants? with a moving particle is called its _______.
D. Algae A. Sulfur dioxide A. Length
B. Sulfur trioxide B. Width
Answer: B C. Acid moist C. Cross section
D. Hydrogen sulfide D. Pseudo-area
34. Turbidity in water is due to:
A. Algae Answer: D Answer: C
B. Fungi
C. Organic salts 40. Which of the following is a cold cathode lamp? 46. Most nuclear particles can react with atoms in
D. Finally divided particles of clay, silt and A. Sodium vapor lamp several different ways including ________.
organic matter B. High pressure mercury vapor lamp A. Absorption
C. Low pressure mercury vapor lamp B. Scattering
Answer: D D. Neon lamp C. Absorption and scattering
D. Reflection and absorption
35. Per capita consumption of water is generally taken Answer: D
as: Answer: C
A. 50 – 100 liters 41. Which has an octane rating of more than 100?
B. 150 – 300 liters A. Gobar gas 47. The operation that produces highest noise level is
C. 400 – 500 liters B. Methyl alcohol :
D. 750 – 1000 liters C. Benzol A. Welding
D. Ethyl alcohol B. Riveting
Answer: B C. Machining
Answer: C D. Pressing
36. Which of the following industries have the highest
consumption of water for processing? 42. The part per million is identical to: Answer: B
A. Foundry A. Grains per gallon
B. Automobile industry B. Pounds per cubic foot 48. The ratio absorbed by the transfer fluid to the
C. Paper mill C. Milligrams per kg original incident energy striking the collector.
D. Aluminum industry D. Tones per acre foot A. Shading factor
B. Collector efficiency
Answer: C Answer: C C. Betz coefficient
D. Transmittance
37. The ratio activity of water because of strontium 43. In power plant an electrostatic precipitators is
can be removed by: installed between: Answer: B
A. Aeration A. Forced draft fan and induced draft fan
B. Alum coagulation B. Furnace and chimney 49. A swinging support constructed as part of the
C. Phosphate coagulation C. Primary air and secondary air vessel and that supports the manway cover when
D. Lime D. Furnace and forced draft fan it is unbolted and moved aside.
A. Davit
Answer: C Answer: B B. Handhole
C. Nozzle neck
38. Chemical used for checking the growth of algae in 44. At present, the number of true elementary D. Manway arm
reservoirs is particles, which include leptons and quarks, is
A. Copper sulphate thought to be: Answer: A
B. Alum A. 4
C. Bleaching powder B. 8 50. Is the subjective method in which the smoke
D. Brine C. 10 density is visually compared to five standardized
D. 12 white-black grids.
 A. Ringelman scale 56. A term used to mean the corrective steps taken to B. A conjugate base results when a base
B. Dalton scale return the environment to its original condition. accepts a proton
C. Smoke spot scale A. Stabilization C. Strong acids tend to give weak conjugate
D. Dew point scale B. Remediation bases
C. Greenhouse effect D. The Bronsted – Lowry theory defines bases
Answer: A D. Opacity as proton accepetors

51. The ratio of fugacity at actual conditions to the Answer: B Answer: B

fugacity at some reference state is known as:
A. Compressibility 57. The burning of low – sulfur fuel is known as: 62. Are any solid particulate matter that becomes
B. Activity A. Fuel switching airborne, with the exception of particulate matter
C. Gravimetric coefficient B. Fuel adding emitted from the exhaust stack of a combustion
D. Saturation C. Fuel binding process.
D. Fuel swapping A. Dusts or fugitive dusts
Answer: B B. Dioxins
Answer: A C. Fugitive emissions
52. A type of polymer used for detergents, milk bottles, D. CFCs
oil containers and toys. 58. The removal of particulate matter from a gas flow
A. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC) by exposing the flow to a liquid or slurry is known Answer: A
B. Polystyrene (PS) as:
C. High density polyethelene (HDPE) A. Stripping 63. Equipment leaks from plant equipments are known
D. Polypropylene (PP) B. Spraying as ________.
C. Scrubbing A. Fugitive leaks
Answer: C D. Absorption B. Fugitive dusts
C. Fugitive exhausts
53. A type of polymer used for grocery bags a food Answer: C D. Fugitive emissions
wraps.
A. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC) 59. The drop in a solvent’s vapor pressure and the Answer: D
B. Polystyrene (PS) increase in mole fraction as solute is added is
C. Low density polyethelene (LDPE) described by: 64. What is a substance that absorbs or retains
D. Polypropylene (PP) A. Dalton’s law moisture?
B. Henry’s law A. Surface acting agent
Answer: C C. Raoult’s law B. Dry ultra-fine coal
D. Boyle’s law C. Fossil fuel
54. A radioactive gas produced from the decay of D. Humectant
radium within the rocks beneath a building. Answer: C
A. Spills Answer: D
B. Radon 60. All of the following statements are characteristics
C. Smoke of bases except ________. 65. Is a soluble compound that reduces a liquid’s
D. Smog A. They conduct electricity in aqueous solutions surface tension or reduces the interfacial tension
B. They turn red litmus paper blue between a liquid and a solid.
Answer: B C. They have a pH between 0 to 7 A. Surface – acting agent or surfactant
D. They neutralize acids forming salts and water B. Humectant
55. Consists of ground – level ozone and peroxyacyl C. Oxygenated fuel
nitrates (PAN) Answer: C D. CFC
A. Smog
B. Spills 61. All of the following statements about conjugate Answer: A
C. Sulfur oxide acids and bases are true except _______.
D. Smoke A. A conjugate acid results when a base 66. A material of substance that is accidentally or
accept a proton intentionally introduced to the environment in a
Answer: A quantity that exceeds what occurs naturally.
 A. Waste Answer: B C. Organics
B. Sludge D. Sediments
C. Pollutant 72. A fibrous silicate mineral material that is inert,
D. Biosolids strong and incombustible. Answer: B
A. Fiberglass
Answer: C B. Plastic 78. “Particulate matter” is defined as all particles that
C. Rubber are emitted by a combustion source. What is
67. Refers to organic waste produced from biological D. Asbestos another term for particulate matter?
waterwaste treatment processes. A. Dust
A. Toxic waste Answer: D B. Aerosol
B. Biosolids C. Biosolids
C. Extrinsic waste 73. An insulator with superior tensile strength but low D. Sediments
D. Process waste heat resistance.
A. Rubber Answer: B
Answer: B B. Plastic
C. Fiberglass 79. Are organic compounds manufactured in oily liquid
68. A rule which states that any solid waste mixed with D. Asbestos and solid forms through the late 1970s and
hazardous waste becomes hazardous. subsequently prohibited.
A. The mixture rule Answer: C A. Polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs)
B. The derived from rule B. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC)
C. The environmental rule 74. Are highly concentrated liquid wastes produced in C. Trihalomethanes
D. The hazard rule landfills. D. Plastic
A. Aerosols
Answer: A B. Leachates Answer: A
C. Nitrogen dioxide
69. A rule which states that any waste derived from D. Urea 80. A type of polymer used for Styrofoam cups and
the treatment of a hazardous waste remains a “clam shell” food containers.
hazardous waste. Answer: B A. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC)
A. The mixture rule B. Polystyrene (PS)
B. The treatment rule 75. What is the primary cause of smog formation? C. Low density polyethelene (LDPE)
C. The derived from rule A. Toxins D. Polypropylene (PP)
D. The hazard rule B. Dioxins
C. Oxidants Answer: B
Answer: C D. Nitrogen oxides
81. A type of polymer used for labels, bottles and
70. Generally refers to sulfur trioxide 𝑆𝑂3 in the flue Answer: D housewares.
gas. A. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC)
76. Is a water soluble organic compound prepared B. Polystyrene (PS)
A. Acid rain
from ammonia. It has significant biological and C. Low density polyethelene (LDPE)
B. Acid gas
industrial usefulness. D. Polypropylene (PP)
C. Hydrochloric acids
A. Urea or carbamide urea
D. Stack gas
B. Nitrite Answer: D
Answer: B C. Chlorinated organics
D. Oxidants 82. A type of polymer used for clear bottles.
71. What consists of weak solutions of sulfuric, A. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC)
hydrochloric, and to a lesser extent, nitric acids? Answer: A B. Polystyrene (PS)
A. Stack gas C. Low density polyethelene (LDPE)
77. Are by products of reaction between combustion D. Polypropylene (PP)
B. Acid rain
products
C. Acid compound
A. Photochemicals Answer: A
D. Pollutant
B. Oxidants
83. Refers to the high – temperature removal of tarry C. Biocycle 94. The equilibrium constant for weak solution is
substances from the interior of the carbon granule, D. Bioremediation known as
leaving a highly porous structure. A. Ionization constant
A. Absorbent Answer: A B. Arrhenius exponent
B. Activated C. Solubility product
C. Breakthrough 89. All of the following occur during oxidation of a D. La Chatelier’s constant
D. Adsorbent substance except __________.
A. Oxidation state increases Answer: A
Answer: B B. Loss of electrons
C. The substance becomes less negative 95. What do you call the mixture if the solute particles
84. A substance with high surface area per unit D. Oxidation of the oxidizing agent of solid suspended in a liquid are larger than the
weight, and intricate pore structure, and a molecules?
hydrophobic surface. Answer: D A. Solution
A. Adsorbent substance B. Suspension
B. Adsorbent substance 90. All of the following occur during reduction of a C. Hydration
C. Homogenous substance substance except __________. D. Saturated solution
D. Activated substance A. An increase in negative charge
B. Loss of electrons Answer: B
Answer: A C. An oxidation state decrease
D. Reduction of the oxidizing agent 96. What do you call the mixture when a solvent has
85. Is a high – temperature process that turns dissolved as much solute as it can?
incinerator ash into a safe glass-like material. Answer: B A. Solution
A. Advance oxidation B. Mild solution
B. Biofitration 91. All of the following are units of energy except: C. Hydration
C. Vitrification A. Calories D. Saturated solution
D. Bioventing B. Joules
C. Pascals Answer: D
Answer: C D. MeV
97. The equilibrium constant for weak solution is
86. Refers to the use of composting and soil beds. Answer: C known as:
A. Biofiltration A. Ionization constant
B. Biomediation 92. What do you call the mixture if the solute particles B. Arrhenius exponent
C. Bioventing of a solid suspended in a liquid are larger than C. Solubility product
D. Bioreactors molecules? D. La Chatelier’s constant
A. Solution
Answer: A B. Suspension Answer: A
C. Hydration
87. Are open or closed tanks containing dozens or D. Saturated solution 98. If the solute particles of a solid suspended in a
hundreds of slowly rotating disks covered with a liquid are larger than the molecules, the mixture is
biological film of microorganisms. Answer: B known as:
A. Biofilter A. Solution
B. Bioreactor 93. What do you call the mixture when a solvent has B. Suspension
C. Biomediator dissolved as much solute as it can? C. Hydration
D. Bioinventor A. Solution D. Saturated solution
B. Mild solution
Answer: B C. Hydration Answer: B
D. Saturated solution
88. Refers to the treatment of contaminated soil in a 99. When a solvent has dissolved as much solute as it
large plastic-covered tank. Answer: D can, the mixture is called:
A. Bioventing A. Solution
B. Biological recycling B. Suspension
 C. Hydration 105. Most observed properties of light and other radiant C. Carbon dioxide
D. Saturated solution energy are consistent with waves in nature, but in D. Refrigerants
interactions with matter, electromagnetic energy
Answer: D behaves as though it consists of discrete pieces or Answer: B
A. Blocks
100. When excess solute in a solution settles to the B. Balls 111. Ozone filters out what type of radiation that
bottom of the container, the process is called: C. Quanta damages crops and causes skin cancer?
A. Salvation D. Atomic masses A. Tropospheric radiation
B. Deemulsification B. Atmospheric radiation
C. Precipitation Answer: C C. X-rays
D. Equation D. Ultraviolet radiation
106. The amount of energy absorbed when a
Answer: C substance enters a solution is called the: Answer: D
A. Heat of fusion
101. All of the following express units of concentration B. Heat of sublimation 112. All of the following factors affect rates of reaction
except: C. Endothermic heat solution except:
A. Normality D. Exothermic heat solution A. Exposed surface area
B. Molarity B. Concentrations
C. Formality Answer: C C. Temperature
D. Isotropy D. Pressure
107. The absorption of water by a dessicant often
Answer: D demonstrates: Answer: D
A. Heat of fusion
102. The desirable temperature inside an air B. Heat of vaporization 113. Le Chatelier’s principle predicts the direction of a
conditioned auditorium is: C. Endothermic heat of solution state of chemical equilibrium based on all of the
A. 0 ̊C D. Exothermic heat of solution following factors except:
B. 5 ̊C A. Temperature
C. 10 ̊C Answer: D B. Specific volume
D. 20 ̊C C. Pressure
108. A substance that absorbs moisture from the air is: D. Concentration
Answer: D A. Deliquescent
B. Efflorescent Answer: B
103. Which of the following acts as ignition accelerator C. Effervescent
for internal combustion engine fuels? D. A precipitant 114. The amount of energy necessary to cause a
A. Acetone peroxide reaction to occur is called the _______.
B. Hydrogen peroxide Answer: A A. Heat of formation
C. Aromatic compounds B. Heat of solution
D. N-heptane 109. The removal of a dissolved gas or other volatile C. Activation of energy
component from liquid by exposing the liquid to air D. Heat of fusion
Answer: A or steam is known as:
A. Stripping Answer: C
104. Which of the following does not use ambient air for B. Gas absorption
propulsion? C. Spraying 115. The equilibrium constant for weak solutions is
A. Turbo jet D. Scrubbing known as ________.
B. Turbo-prop A. The ionization constant
C. Pulse jet Answer: A B. The Arrhenius exponent
D. Rocket C. The solubility product
110. Which of the following contribute to the D. Le Chatelier’s principle
Answer: B deterioration of the Earth’s ozone layer?
A. Carbon monoxide Answer: A
B. Chlorofluorocarbons
116. The speed at which a reaction proceeds to Answer: D A. Increases
equilibrium is the purview of _________. B. Decreases
A. Reaction kinetics 122. Which of the following cannot be used to describe C. Remain the same
B. Le Chatelier’s principle neutron kinetic energy levels? D. None of these
C. Neutralization A. Cold
D. Ionization B. Thermal Answer: A
C. Slow
Answer: A D. Freezing 3. Density in term of viscosity is:
A. Kinematic viscosity / dynamic viscosity
117. The color of water is measured: Answer: D B. Dynamic viscosity / kinematic viscosity
A. In terms of pH value C. Kinematic viscosity x dynamic viscosity
B. In terms of degree of hardness 123. All of the following are words used to describe D. None of the above
C. In terms of platinum cobalt scale neutron kinetic energy levels except:
D. Ppm of dissolved solids A. Slow (resonant) Answer: B
B. Fast
Answer: C C. Supersonic 4. Liquids and gases take the following
D. Relativistic characteristic(s) of their contents.
118. What turbidimeter that gives direct readings in A. Volume
ppm? Answer: C B. Shape
A. Jackson turbidimeter C. Shape and volume
B. Hellige turbidimeter 124. The reduction of nuclear radiation intensity (called D. Neither shape nor volume
C. Baylis turbidimeter attenuation) is accomplished by:
D. All of the above A. Matter Answer: B
B. Antimatter
Answer: A C. Shielding 5. Alcohol finds use in manometers as:
D. Neurons A. It provides a suitable meniscus for the
119. Which of the following is not a sound absorptive inclined tube
material? Answer: C B. Its density being less can provide longer
A. Rugs length for a pressure difference, thus more
B. Mirrors 125. The ability of substance to absorb neurons accuracy can be obtained
C. Carpets depends upon its _________. C. A and B above are correct
D. Heavy drapes A. Absorption cross section D. Cheap and easily available
B. Scattering cross section
Answer: B C. Total cross section Answer: C
D. Atomic number
120. The total cross section of a target atom is made up 6. Which of the following statements about a
of ___________. Answer: A Newtonian fluid is most accurate?
A. The absorption cross section A. Shear stress is proportional to strain
B. The scattering cross section CHAPTER 11 – FLUID MECHANICS B. Viscosity is zero
C. The absorption and scattering cross sections C. Shear stress is multi – valued
D. The reflection and absorption cross sections 1. If the energy of the incident photon is less than the D. Shear stress is proportional to rate of strain
work function:
Answer: C A. An electron will be ejected Answer: D
B. More than one electron will be ejected
121. Which of the following cannot be a phenomenon of C. An electron will not be ejected 7. The normal stress is the same in all directions at a
neutron interactions? D. Less than one electron will be ejected point in fluid:
A. Inelastic scattering A. Independent of the motion of one fluid layer
B. Elastic scattering Answer: C relative to an adjacent layer
C. Fission B. When there is no motion of one fluid layer
D. Fusion 2. For supersonic flow, the pressure of fluid must relative to an adjacent layer
decrease as the fluid flow area of the duct. C. Only if the fluid is frictionless
 D. Only if fluid is frictionless and incompressible Answer: D C. At every point the velocity vector is identical
in magnitude and direction for any given
Answer: B 13. Under which condition, the specific weight of water instant
3
is 1000 kg/𝑚 ? D. The change in transverse direction is zero
8. Which of the following is not a characteristic of A. At normal pressure of 760 mm
fluid pressure? B. At 4 ̊C temperature Answer: C
A. It is the same in all directions at a point in the C. At mean sea level
fluid D. All of the above 19. The continuity equation of an ideal fluid flow.
B. Its acts normal to a surface A. States that the net rate in – flow into any
C. It is a shear stress Answer: D small volume must be zero
D. It is linear with depth B. Applies to irrotational flow only
14. All of the following can be characteristics of fluids C. States that the energy remains constant
Answer: C except_________. along streamline
A. kinematic viscosity D. States that energy is constant everywhere in
9. The length of mercury column at a place at an B. surface tension the fluid
altitude will change with respect to that at ground C. bulk modulus
in: D. hysteresis Answer: D
A. A linear relation
B. A parabolic relation Answer: D 20. A pilot tube can be used to measure fluid velocity
C. Will remain constant as described by the Bernoulli’s equation and the
D. First slowly and then steeply 15. Which of the following can be used to measure the relationship between:
flow of water in a pipe of diameter 3000 mm? A. Kinetic energy and static pressure
Answer: D A. Venturimeter B. Fluid pressure and height of the fluid
B. Rotameter C. Fluid pressure and impact energy
10. All of the following dimensionless parameters are C. Nozzle D. Pressure and momentum
applicable to fluid flow problems except the D. Pilot tube
_______. Answer: A
A. Reynolds number Answer: D
B. Froude number 21. In order to avoid vaporization in the pipe line, the
C. Mach number 16. The pressure at a given depth due to several pipe line over the ridge is laid in such a way that it
D. Biot number immiscible liquids is: is not more than:
A. The average of the individual pressures A. 2.4 m above the hydraulic gradient
Answer: D B. The sum of the individual pressures B. 6.4 m above the hydraulic gradient
C. Independent of the individual pressures C. 10.0 m above the hydraulic gradient
11. Mass density of liquid (ρ) is given by which of the D. Unknown D. 5.0 m above the hydraulic gradient
following?
A. Ρ = Mass / volume Answer: B Answer: B
2
B. Ρ = metric slug / 𝑚
2 4 17. The equation of continuity of flow is applicable if: 22. The stream function is a useful parameter in
C. Ρ = kg 𝑠𝑒𝑐 / 𝑚
A. The flow is one dimensional describing_____________.
D. all of the above
B. The flow is steady A. The conservation of mass
C. The velocity is uniform over the cross – B. The conservation of momentum
Answer: D
section C. The conservation of energy
D. All of the above conditions are together D. The equation of state
12. the speed of sound in all fluid is most closely
related to all of the following properties
Answer: D Answer: A
except________.
A. Compressibility
18. Uniform flow takes place when: 23. For high speed flows, the potential energy of fluids
B. Density
A. Conditions remain unchanged with time at are:
C. Bulk module
any point A. Positive
D. Thermal conductivity
B. Rate of change of velocity of fluid is zero B. Negative
 C. Negligible 29. Which of the following is relative velocity? 35. The energy grade line of a pipeline denotes which
D. None of these A. The difference between two velocities of the following?
B. Average velocity A. Total energy
Answer: C C. Sum of two velocities B. Pressure energy
D. Vector difference of two velocities C. Potential energy
24. McLeod gauge used for low pressure D. The sum of pressure energy and potential
measurement operates on the principle of Answer: D energy
_________.
A. Gas law 30. Which of the following is the highest head? Answer: A
B. Boyle’s law A. 33 inch Hg
C. Charles law B. 31.0 ft. water 36. The presence of friction in the energy grade line
D. Pascal’s law C. 1.013 kg kg/𝑐𝑚
2 will always cause the line to slope
D. 75.0 cm of Hg A. Down in the direction of the flow
Answer: B B. Upward in the direction of the flow
Answer: A C. Level (no slope)
25. A Kaplan turbine is D. There is no effect of friction on the energy
A. A high head mixed flow turbine 31. For stable equilibrium of floating body its grade line
B. An impulse turbine, inward flow metacenter should be:
C. A reaction turbine, outward flow A. Below the center of gravity Answer: A
D. Low head axial flow turbine B. Below the center of buoyancy
C. above the center of buoyancy 37. The pilot tube is a device used for measurement of
Answer: D D. above the center of gravity A. Pressure
B. Flow
26. The most common method for calculating frictional Answer: D C. Velocity
energy loss for laminar flowing fluids in noncircular D. Discharge
pipe is: 32. Center of pressure on an inclined plane has ___.
A. The Darcy equation A. At the centroid Answer: C
B. The Hagan – Poisevill equation B. Above the centroid
C. The Hazen - Williams equation C. Below the centroid 38. Hydrometer is used to find out
D. The Swamee – Jin equation D. At metacenter A. Specific gravity liquids
B. Specific gravity solids
Answer: A Answer: C C. Specific gravity gases
D. Relative humidity
27. The parameter f in the expression for head-loss is 33. The line action of the buoyant forces always acts
A. The fraction of flow that is totally turbulent through the centroid of the ______. Answer: A
B. The Darcy friction factor A. Submerged body
C. The height of roughness scale in turbulent B. Volume of the floating body 39. The fluid forces taken into consideration in the
flow C. Volume of the fluid vertically above the body Navier Strokes equation are:
D. The static coefficient of friction D. Displaced volume of the fluid A. Gravity, pressure and viscous
B. Gravity, pressure and turbulent
Answer: B Answer: D C. Pressure, viscous and turbulent
D. Gravity, viscous and turbulent
28. Friction factor for both laminar and turbulent flows 34. The hydraulic grade line of a pipe denotes which
can be found plotted in a of the following? Answer: A
A. Steam table A. Total energy
B. Psychometric chart B. Pressure energy 40. Permissible velocity of water flowing through
C. Moody diagram C. Potential energy concrete tunnel, is generally
D. Mollier diagram D. The sum of pressure energy and potential A. 4-5 m/s
energy B. 10-12 m/s
Answer: C C. 13-16 m/s
Answer: D D. 20 m/s
 Answer: A 46. In a nozzle if back pressure is same as inlet 51. A pilot tube can be used to measure fluid velocity
pressure; then_______________. as described by the Bernoulli’s equation and the
41. Orifice refers to an opening A. No flow takes place relationship between:
A. With closed perimeter and of regular form B. Maximum flow takes place A. Kinetic energy and static pressure
through which water flows C. Flow becomes subsonic in diverging section B. Fluid pressure and static pressure
B. With prolonged sides having length of 2 to 3 D. Flow becomes supersonic in converging as C. Fluid pressure and impact energy
diameters of opening in thick wall well as supersonic section D. Pressure and momentum
C. With partially full flow
D. In hydraulic structure with regulation Answer: A Answer: A
provision
47. The flow on two sides of a normal shock wave is 52. The ratio of the area to the wetted penmeter is
Answer: D called___________. known as __________.
A. Sonic A. Flow factor
42. The value of coefficient of discharge in comparison B. Sub-sonic B. Hydraulic radius
to coefficient of velocity is found to be_______. C. Supersonic C. Kutter’s C
A. More D. Supersonic on one side and sub-sonic on the D. Value of k in Darcy - Weisbach formula
B. Less other side
C. Same Answer: B
D. More/less depending on flow Answer: D
53. What is the coefficient of contraction?
Answer: B 48. Which of the following is the basic of Bernoulli’s A. The ratio of the area of vena contracta to the
law for fluid flow? area of the orifice
43. Weir refers to an opening A. Continuity equation B. The ration of actual discharge to the
A. Having closed perimeter and of regular form B. Principle of conservation of energy theoretical discharge
through which water flows C. Fourier’s law C. The ratio of the actual velocity to the
B. Having prolonged sides with length of 2 to 3 D. Principle of conservation of mass theoretical velocity
diameters of opening in thick wall D. The ratio of the effective head to the actua;
C. Having partially full flow Answer: B head
D. In hydraulic structures with regulation
provision 49. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Answer: A
fluid pressure?
Answer: C A. It is a shear stress 54. Where is vena contracta most likely loacated?
B. It is the same in all directions at a point in the A. At the orifice
44. Which of the following parameters determine the fluid B. At a distance approximately ½ the diameter
friction factor of turbulent flow in a rough pipe? C. It acts normal to a surface of the orifice
A. Froude number and relative roughness D. It is linear with depth C. At a distance approximately equal to the
B. Froude number and Mach number diameter of the orifice
C. Reynolds number and relative roughness Answer: A D. At a distance approximately twice the
D. Mach number and relative roughness diameter of the orifice
50. Refers to the compressibility of a fluid, the
Answer: C fractional change in fluid volume per unit change in Answer: B
fluid.
45. Power transmitted through a pipe is maximum A. Viscosity 55. A substance that is able to flow and yields to any
when the loss of head due to friction is: B. Bulk modulus force tending to change its shape without changing
A. One-half of the total head supplied C. Density its volume such as water and air.
B. One-third of the total head supplied D. Pressure A. Fluid
C. One-fourth of the total head supplied B. Flux
D. Equal to the total head supplied Answer: D C. Gas oil
D. Water gas
Answer: B
Answer: A
56. The velocity of a fluid particle at the center of the C. Laminar or turbulent Answer: A
pipe section is______. D. Newtonian or non-newtonian
A. Maximum 67. The volumetric change of the fluid caused by a
B. Minimum Answer: B resistance is called ________.
C. Average A. Volumetric strain
D. Logarithmic average 62. Which of the following is not a dimensionless B. Volumetric index
parameter? C. Compressibility
Answer: A A. Kinetic viscosity D. Adhesion
B. Weber number
57. For supersonic flow, the pressure of fluid must C. Darcy Weisbach friction factor Answer: D
increase as the fluid flow area of the duct: D. Froude number
A. Increases 68. Compressibility of a fluid relates the fractional
B. Decreases Answer: A change in fluid volume per unit change in fluid.
C. Constant A. Temperature
D. None of these 63. Which of the following is not a characteristic of real B. Density
fluids? C. Pressure
Answer: B A. Finite viscosity D. Viscosity
B. Non-uniform velocity distributions
58. Which is incorrect statement regarding apparent C. Compressibility Answer: C
shear forces. D. Experience of eddy current and turbulence
A. It can never be found in frictionless fluid 69. Property of a fluid whereby its own molecules are
regardless of its motion Answer: D attracted is known as ________.
B. It can never be found when the fluid is at rest A. Adhesion
C. It depends upon cohesive forces 64. Which of the following is not the mass density of B. Cohesion
D. It may occur owing to cohesion when the fluid water? C. Surface tension
is at rest A. 62.5 lbm/𝑓𝑡
3 D. Viscosity
3
B. 100 kg/𝑚
Answer: D Answer: B
3
C. 1 g/𝑐𝑚
59. The time required for half a quantity of radioactive D. 1 kg/L 70. The term subsonic flow refers to a flowing gas with
particles to decay (disintegrate) is called a speed:
its_____________. Answer: B A. Less than the local speed of sound
A. Average life B. Equal to the speed of sound
B. Median life 65. The upper critical Reynolds number for pipe flow C. Greater than the speed of sound
C. Time constant is: D. Much greater than the speed of sound
D. Half time A. Of no practical importance to designers
B. Always used to design pipes for strength Answer: A
Answer: D C. The number at which turbulent flow changes
over to laminar flow 71. The pressure at a point in a fluid will not be same
60. SI unit of viscosity is: D. The number at which laminar flow changes in all the directions if the fluid is:
A. 10 times poise into turbulent flow A. Viscous
B. 9.81 times poise B. Viscous and static
C. 1/9.81 time poise Answer: A C. Inviscous and in motion
D. 1/10 times poise D. Viscous and is in motion
66. Which of the following statements about gauge
Answer: A pressure is most correct? Gauge pressure are Answer: D
measured relative to _________.
61. For computation convenience, fluids are usually A. Atmospheric pressure 72. The statement that “the hydrostatic pressure a
classed as: B. A vacuum fluid exerts on an immersed object or on container
A. Rotational or irrotational C. Each other walls is a function only of fluid depth” is
B. Real or ideal D. The surface A. The perfect gas law
 B. D’Alembert’s paradox 78. Neglecting the forces due to inertia, gravity and C. 4wd/s
C. The hydrostatic paradox frictional resistance, the design of a channel can D. 4ws/d
D. Boyle’s law be made by comparing
A. Weber number Answer: A
Answer: C B. Reynolds number
C. Froude’s number 84. The study of the practical laws of fluid flow and the
73. Bernoulli’s equation is s/an ___________. D. Prant’l number resistance of open pipes and channels.
A. Momentum equation A. Fluid mechanics
B. Conservation of energy equation Answer: C B. Hydraulics
C. Conservation of mass equation C. Aerodynamics
D. Equation of state 79. The difference between stagnation pressure and D. Thermodynamics
total pressure is:
Answer: B A. Due to height difference Answer: B
B. Due to fluid kinetic energy
74. An ideal fluid is one that: C. None of the terms are interchangeable 85. Which of the following turbine is different from the
A. Is very viscous D. Important only in supersonic flow others?
B. Obeys Newton’s law of viscosity A. Fourneyron turbine
C. Is assumed in problems in conduit flow Answer: C B. Francis turbine
D. Is frictionless and incompressible C. Kaplan turbine
80. Fully turbulent flow in a pipe is characterized by all D. Pelton wheel
Answer: D of the following except:
A. A parabolic velocity profile Answer: D
75. The relationship between pressure and altitude in B. A momentum exchange due to fluid masses
the atmosphere is given by the: rather than molecules 86. Running away speed of a Pelton wheel gives:
A. Perfect gas law C. A maximum velocity at the fluid center line A. Actual operating speed
B. Conservation of mass D. A 1/7 velocity profile B. No load speed
C. Barometric height relationship C. Full load speed
D. First law of thermodynamics Answer: A D. No load speed when governor mechanism
fails
Answer: C 81. The laminar friction factor of fluid flowing through a
pipe is a function of all of the following except: Answer: D
76. The fact the buoyant force on a floating object A. Fluid velocity
equal to the weight of the water displaced is: B. Pipe diameter 87. Which of the following turbine is different from the
A. Bernoulli’s law C. Pipe roughness others?
B. Archimedes’ principle D. Reynolds number A. Pelton wheel
C. The law of diminishing returns B. Banki turbine
D. The conservation of mass Answer: C C. Jonval turbine
D. Kaplan turbine
Answer: B 82. The continuity equation is applicable to:
A. Viscous unviscous fluid Answer: D
77. Which of the following terms does not appear in B. Compressibility of fluids
the steady flow energy equation (the extended C. Conservation of mass 88. The characteristic length of the Reynold’s number
Bernoulli’s equation)? D. Steady unsteady flow used to calculate the friction in noncircular full
A. Kinetic energy running pipes is based on the __________.
B. Potential energy Answer: C A. Run length
C. Friction losses B. Pipe length
D. Hysteresis losses 83. The rise or fall of head ‘h’ in a capillary tube of C. Hydraulic diameter (the equivalent diameter)
diameter ‘d ‘ and liquid surface tension ‘s’ and D. Wetted circumference
Answer: D specific weight ‘w’ is given by:
A. 4s/wd Answer: C
B. 4ds/w
89. The hydraulic radius of noncircular pipe is: 95. What do you call the lowest portion to storage paths of the individual particles do not cross each
A. The square root of the flow area basin from where the water is not drawn? other?
B. The ratio of the area to the wetted perimeter A. Bottom storage A. Steady flow
C. The radius of a pipe of equivalent area B. Sub soil storage B. Laminar flow
D. None of the above C. Spring reserve C. Uniform flow
D. Dead storage D. Turbulent flow
Answer: B
Answer: D Answer: B
90. The Darcy equation can be used for all liquids and
flows except: 96. The presence of friction in the hydraulic grade line 101. Which of the following refers to the measure of a
A. Water will always cause the line to slope: fluid’s sensitivity to changes in viscosity with
B. Alcohol A. Down in the direction of the flow changes in temperature?
C. Gasoline B. Upward in the direction of the flow A. Viscosity index
D. Air flowing supersonically C. Level (no slope) B. Coefficient of viscosity
D. There is no effect of friction on the energy C. Viscosity ratio
Answer: D grade line D. Viscosity factor

91. The Hazen – Williams formula for head loss due to Answer: A Answer: A
friction is based upon:
A. Rigorous mathematical derivation 97. The presence of a minor loss in the energy grade 102. If the Mach number is greater than 1 but lesser
B. Empirical data line will cause the line to slope: than 5, what is the standard classification of the
C. Semi-empirical analysis A. Down in the direction of the flow travel?
D. Screndipity B. Upward in the direction of the flow A. Transonic travel
C. Vertically downward B. Subsonic travel
Answer: B D. There is no effect of friction on the energy C. Hypersonic travel
grade line D. Supersonic travel
92. The extended Bernoulli equation includes all of the
following terms except: Answer: A Answer: D
A. Potential energy
B. Kinetic energy 98. What do you call the pressure which the fluid 103. What is measured by a Pitot tube?
C. Nuclear energy exerts on an immersed object or container walls? A. Volumetric discharge
D. Friction losses A. Normal pressure B. Mass flow
B. Standard liquid pressure C. Pressure
Answer: C C. Hydrostatic pressure D. Velocity
D. Gage pressure
93. An equipotential line is one that: Answer: D
A. Has no velocity component tangent to it Answer: C
B. Has uniformly varying dynamic pressure 104. What is the difference between the energy grade
C. Has no velocity component normal to it 99. Viscosity for a fluid is defined as the constant of line and the hydraulic grade line?
D. Exists in case of rotational flow proportionality between shear stress and what A. Potential energy
other variable? B. Pressure energy
Answer: A A. The spatial derivative of velocity C. Kinetic energy
B. The time derivative of pressure D. Friction losses
94. What is the use of a Hydraulic jump? C. The time derivative of density
A. Increase the flow rate D. The spatial derivative of density Answer: C
B. Reduce the flow rate
C. Reduce the velocity of flow Answer: A 105. Kinetic energy is not neglected in calculations of:
D. Reduce the energy of flow A. High speed flow
100. What is the classification of the fluid flow if the fluid B. Low speed flow
Answer: D travels parallel to the adjacent layers and the C. Steady flow
D. Equilibrium flow
 Answer: A Answer: B D. Clay slurries

106. Discharge losses through orifice are due to: 112. The flow is supersonic when Mach no. is: Answer: B
A. Friction losses A. Greater than zero
B. Minor losses B. Less than 1 118. What is the critical pressure of water?
C. Both friction and minor losses C. Greater than 1 A. 150 kg/𝑐𝑚
3

D. Pressure losses D. None of these 2

B. Less than 200 kg/𝑐𝑚
2
Answer: C Answer: C C. More than 200 kg/𝑐𝑚
2
D. 100 kg/𝑐𝑚
107. Which of the following is considered as an 113. The flow is transonic when
important parameter in the study of compressible A. M = 0 Answer: C
flow? B. M < 1
A. Speed of fluid C. M > 1 119. Past ME Board Question
B. Speed of sound D. M = 1 The volumetric change of the fluid caused by a
C. Speed of light resistance is called:
D. Speed of fluid flow Answer: D A. Volumetric change
B. Volumetric index
Answer: B 114. The pressure decreases as the temperature and C. Compressibility
velocity increases while the fluid velocity and Mach D. Adhesion
108. Is the velocity at which an infinitesimal small number:
pressure wave travels through a medium. A. Increases Answer: D
A. Subsonic velocity B. Decreases
B. Hypersonic velocity C. Remains constant 120. Past ME Board Question
C. Sonic velocity D. None of these The energy of a fluid flowing at any section in a
D. Monatomic velocity pipeline is a function of:
Answer: A A. Velocity of flow only
Answer: C B. Pressure only
115. The Mach number is unity or one at the location of C. Height above a chosen datum, density,
109. It is the ratio of the actual velocity of the fluid to the smallest flow area, called the: internal energy, pressure and velocity of flow
velocity of sound. A. Decreasing are D. Pressure, height above a chosen datum,
A. Mach number B. Throat velocity of flow, density of fluid
B. Froude number C. Increasing area
C. Sonic number D. None of these Answer: C
D. Euler number
Answer: B 121. Past ME Board Question
Answer: A If the fluid travels parallel to the adjacent layers
116. What happens to the velocity of fluid after passing and the paths of individual particles do not cross,
110. The flow is called sonic when Mach number is: the throat although the flow area the fluid is said to be:
A. Equal to 1 A. Increases rapidly A. Turbulent
B. Less than 1 B. Decreases rapidly B. Critical
C. More than 1 C. Remains constant C. Dynamic
D. None of these D. None of these D. Laminar

Answer: A Answer: A Answer: D

111. The following flow is sub-sonic when Mach no. is: 117. Which of the following is an example of Newtonian 122. Past ME Board Question
A. Greater than 1 fluid? Center of pressure on an inclined plane lies:
B. Less than 1 A. Motor oils A. At the centroid
C. More than 1 B. Gas B. Above the centroid
D. None of these C. Paints C. Below the centroid
 D. At the metacenter The flow of the convergent section of a nozzle is 5. In a four stage compressor system, the first and third
always subsonic. If the flow is subsonic then the 2
stage pressures are 1 and 9 kg/𝑐𝑚 respectively.
Answer: C Mach number is: What is the fourth stage delivery pressure?
A. Greater than unity 2
123. Past ME Board Question A. 9 kg/𝑐𝑚
B. Less than unity
2
At any instant, if the number of particles passing C. Near unity B. 81 kg/𝑐𝑚
every cross-section of the stream is the same, the D. Unity C. 27 kg/𝑐𝑚
2

flow is said to be: 2

D. 243 kg/𝑐𝑚
A. Steady flow Answer: B
B. Uniform flow
Answer: C
C. Continuous flow CHAPTER 12 – FLUID MACHINERY
D. Laminar flow
6. For a six compression of air set, the minimum work
1. The volumetric efficiency of a compressor having
conditions are:
Answer: A clearance factor is given by:
1/𝑛 A. Pressure rise per stage will be equal
A. 1 + c – c(𝑝2/𝑝1) B. Work done in successive stages will be in
124. Past ME Board Question
B. 1 + c + c(𝑝2/𝑝1)
1−𝑛 geometrical progression
The ratio of cross-sectional area of flow to the
C. Cylinder volumes will be same
wetted perimeter is: 𝑛
C. 1 + c - c(𝑝2/𝑝1) D. Temperature rise in the cylinders will be the
A. Hydraulic lead
𝑛+1 same
B. Hydraulic section D. 1 + c + c(𝑝2/𝑝1)
C. Hydraulic mean depth
Answer: D
D. Hydraulic gradient
Answer: A
7. Which of the following give the optimum intermediate
Answer: C
2. In case of axial flow compressors for minimum fluid pressure in case of two stage compression?
friction and blade tip clearance losses, the blades of 𝑝1+𝑝2
125. Past ME Board Question A. 𝑝2 =
an axial flow compressor are designed for____ 2
If A is the cross-sectional area of the flow and Pw 𝑝1+𝑝2
A. 80% reaction B. 𝑝2 = 𝑝1 +
is the wetted perimeter of a pipe, then what is the 2
B. 85% reaction
hydraulic depth. 𝐻𝑑?
C. 60% reaction C. 𝑝2 = 𝑝1𝑝3
A. Pw – A D. 53% reaction 2 2
B. Pw / A D. 𝑝2 = 𝑝1+ 𝑝1 + 𝑝3
C. A / Pw Answer: D
D. Pw x A Answer: C
3. Centrifugal blowers can supply
Answer: C A. Large volumes of air at low pressures 8. In air compressor performance curve a surge line
B. Small volumes of air at high pressures represents what?
126. Past ME Board Question C. Large volumes of air at high pressures A. Limit of compressor efficiency
If Q is the volume in gallon; D is height or elevation D. Small volumes of air at low pressures B. Limit of compressor discharge
in ft. and m is weight in lbs. per gallon, what is the C. Limit of stable operation
desired energy to lift the water from lower to higher Answer: A D. Lower critical speed of shaft
elevation?
A. E = mD/Q 4. Which of the following is a safety device on a Answer: C
B. E = mDQ compressor?
C. E = mQ/D A. Relief valve 9. Which of the following is a displacement
D. E = QD/m B. Strainer compressor?
C. Over speed shut down A. Reciprocating air compressor
Answer: B D. Over pressure shut down B. Vane blower
C. Centrifugal blower
127. Past ME Board Question Answer: A D. Axial flow compressors

Answer: B
10. Stalling of the blades of axial flow compressor is: A. Change of mass flow rate in proportion to A.
3 3
1 𝑓𝑡 /min to 2000 𝑓𝑡 /min
A. An unsteady periodic and reversal of flow pressure ratio 3 3
B. 30 𝑓𝑡 /min to 2500 𝑓𝑡 /min
B. The fixed mass flow rate irrespective of B. Change of mass flow rate in inverse
3 3
pressure ratio proportion to pressure ratio C. 1 𝑓𝑡 /min to 2500 𝑓𝑡 /min
3 3
C. The reduction in lift force at higher angle of C. Fixed mass flow rate irrespective of pressure D. 30 𝑓𝑡 /min to 2000 𝑓𝑡 /min
incidence D. All of the above
D. All of the above Answer: B
Answer: C
Answer: C 21. Most permanent installations use piston compressors
16. Crankshaft of a reciprocating compressor is basically available as stock items of what pressure?
11. Surging is made of what? A. 150 psi
A. An unsteady, periodic and reversal of flow in A. Semi-steel B. 200 psi
the compressor B. Aluminum alloy C. 250 psi
B. The fixed mass flow rate irrespective of C. Steel forging D. 300 psi
pressure ratio D. Cast iron
C. The reduction in lift force at higher angle of Answer: A
incidence Answer: D
D. None of the above 22. When the piston is top center of the cylinder in a
17. Most plant air systems to operate the tools and double-acting reciprocating compressor:
Answer: A machines which require 70 to 90 psig are maintained A. All suction valves are open and all discharge
at_______. valves are closed
12. In an axial flow compressor, the pressure rise takes A. 90 to 110 psig B. All suction valves are closed and all discharge
place in: B. 110 to 130 psig valves are closed
A. Fixed blades only C. 130 to 150 psig C. All suction valves are closed and all discharge
B. Moving blades only D. 70 to 90 psig valves are open
C. Both fixed and moving blades D. All suction valves are open and all discharge
D. None of the above Answer: B valves are open

Answer: C 18. The capacity of portable air compressors used for Answer: B
construction, mining, road building, and painting
13. An axial flow compressor is suitable for: ranges from ______________. 23. Past ME Board Question
A. High volume flow rates with small pressure A.
3 3
1 𝑓𝑡 /min to 2000 𝑓𝑡 /min Pump used to increase air pressure above normal,
rise 3 3 air is then used as a motive power.
B. 30 𝑓𝑡 /min to 2500 𝑓𝑡 /min
B. Low volume flow rates with low pressure rise A. Air cooled engine
3 3
C. High volume flow rates with high pressure C. 1 𝑓𝑡 /min to 2500 𝑓𝑡 /min B. Air compressor
3 3
rise D. 30 𝑓𝑡 /min to 2000 𝑓𝑡 /min C. Air condenser
D. Low volume flow rates with high pressure rise D. Air injection
Answer: A
Answer: A Answer: B
19. The power of portable air compressors used for
14. Which of the following is a positive displacement construction, mining, road building, and painting 24. A device used for raising fluids from a lower to higher
rotary compressor? ranges from: level.
A. Roots blower A. 1 hp to 500 hp A. Compressor
B. Centrifugal compressor B. ½ hp to 500 hp B. Pump
C. Axial flow compressor C. 1 hp to 1000 hp C. Turbine
D. None of the above D. ½ hp to 1000 hp D. Blowers

Answer: A Answer: B Answer: B

15. Choking is 20. Most permanent installations use piston compressors 25. When a pump is opening at a vacuum of 4 in Hg,
available as stock items in size ranging from which of the following is not correct?
 A. The pressure is 25.92 in Hg D. Actual energy extracted to the ideal energy Answer: C
B. The pressure is 10.721 psia extracted
C. The pressure is 158.4 torr 36. Past ME Board Question
D. The pressure is 0.8663 atm Answer: C Cooling water system consists of equipment to
dissipate heat absorbed by the engine jacket water,
Answer: C 31. A condenser’s water – circulating pump is belt-driven lube oil and the heat to be removed from air
by an electric motor with an adjustable pitch motor intercooler is measurable to keep the engine outlet
26. The amount of energy actually entering the fluid from sheave. This sheave water temperature constant and the differential of the
a pump is the A. Permits adjustment of pump speed cooling water at a minimum preferably not to exceed:
A. Brake horsepower B. Prevent overload abd/or burnout of the pump A. 10 to 30 ̊F
B. Hydraulic horsepower and motor B. 10 to 50 ̊F
C. Theoretical horsepower C. Prevents excessive wear on the belt and motor C. 10 to 20 ̊F
D. Hydraulic, theoretical, or water horsepower shaft bearings D. 10 to 40 ̊F
D. Facilitates belt replacement
Answer: D Answer: C
Answer: C
27. Primary purpose of a pump in a fluid loop is to 37. Past ME Board Question
A. Add energy to the flow 32. The function of a pump or compressor is to Which of the following is one of the most popular
B. Add mass to the flow A. Transfer heat from one fluid to another types of compressor utilized for supercharging
C. Extract energy from the flow B. Increase the total energy content of the flow engine?
D. None of the above C. Extract energy from the flow A. Roots type blower
D. Exchange heat to increase energy to the flow B. Pulse turbo charger
Answer: A C. Constant pressure turbo charger
Answer: B D. Turbo compressor
28. The isentropic efficiency of a pump is given by the
A. Ratio of actual to ideal energy extracted 33. Past ME Board Question Answer: A
B. Ratio of ideal to actual energy supplied An aftercooler on a reciprocating air compressor is
C. Ratio of ideal to actual energy extracted used primarily to: 38. Past ME Board Question
D. Ratio of actual to ideal energy supplied A. Cool the lubricating oil The power required to deliver a given quantity of fluid
B. Condense the moisture in the compressed air against a given head with no losses in the pump is
Answer: B C. Improve compressor efficiency called:
D. Increase compressor capacity A. Wheel power
29. The electrical efficiency of a device is the ratio of the B. Brake power
: Answer: B C. Hydraulic power
A. Electrical energy output to the electrical energy D. Indicated power
input 34. Past ME Board Question
B. Mechanical energy input to the mechanical A receiver in an air compression system is used to Answer: C
energy output of the device A. Avoid cooling air before using
C. Actual energy extracted to the ideal energy B. Increase the air discharge pressure 39. Past ME Board Question
extracted C. Collect water and grease suspended in the air Fluids that are pumped in processing work are
D. Actual to the ideal energy input D. Reduce the work needed during compression frequently more viscous than water. Which of the
following statement is correct?
Answer: C Answer: C A. Reynolds number varies directly as the viscosity
B. Efficiency of a pump increases as the viscosity
30. The adiabatic pump efficiency is the ratio of the 35. Past ME Board Question increases
A. Electrical energy output to the electrical energy Crankshaft of reciprocating compressor is basically C. Increased fluid friction between the pump parts
input made of: and the passing fluid increased useful work.
B. Mechanical energy input to the electric energy A. Semi-steel D. Working head increases as the viscosity
output of the device B. Aluminum alloy
C. Ideal energy input to the pump to the actual C. Cast iron Answer: C
energy input D. Steel forging
40. Past ME Board Question B. Start easier Mr. De La Cruz wanted to buy a pump for his farm.
A reciprocating pump is considered positive C. Stop easier What is suitable for deepwell?
displacement pump because D. Run faster A. Reciprocating
A. Displacement of the liquid is affected by the B. Airlift
displacement of the piston Answer: A C. Hand lift
B. Positive pressure is given to the liquid D. Centrifugal
C. Liquid is discharge with positive pressure 45. Past ME Board Question
D. Liquid is lifted due to the vacuum created inside The performance of a reciprocating compressor is Answer: D
the cylinder expressed as:
A. Adiabatic work divided by adiabatic input 50. Past ME Board Question
Answer: A B. Adiabatic work divided by indicated work A tank contains H2O. what is the intensity of
C. Isothermal work divided by indicated work pressure at a depth of 6 meters?
41. Past ME Board Question D. Isothermal work divided by adiabatic work A. 68 kPa
To protect adequately the engine bearings, what type B. 58.8 kPa
and better arrangement of lubricating oil filter is most Answer: B C. 78.0 kPa
practical? D. 48.7 kPa
A. Full-flow type filter installed between the 46. Past ME Board Question
lubricating oil pump and the bearings For reciprocating compressor slip at positive or Answer: B
B. Duplex filter installed before the lubricating negative displacement:
pump A. 𝐶𝑑 = 1 51. Past ME Board Question
C. Bypass filter with cleanable and replaceable B. 𝐶𝑑 > 1 In order to avoid cavitation the NPSH of an
elements installation should be:
C. 𝐶𝑑 < 1 A. At least equal or greater than the NPSH of the
D. Splash lubricating system in the crank case
D. 𝐶𝑑 = 0 pump
Answer: A B. At least equal or less than the NPSH of the
Answer: C pump
42. Past ME Board Question C. Equal to the NPSH of the pump only
Medium pressure when applied to valves and fittings 47. Past ME Board Question D. Greater than the NPSH of the pump only
are suitable for a working pressure of: In order that cavitation will not take place in the
A. 862 to 1200 kPa suction line of a pump, what should be the sum of the Answer: A
B. 758 to 1000 kPa velocity head and pressure head at suction
C. 500 to 1000 kPa 52. Past ME Board Question
compared to the vapor pressure of the liquid?
D. 658 to 1050 kPa The actual head, neglecting the kinetic energy in
A. sufficiently lower
which the pump work against.
B. constant
Answer: A A. Delivery head
C. adequately greater
B. Pressure head
D. equal
43. Past ME Board Question C. Velocity head
The function of an unloader on an electric Answer: C D. Suction head
motor-driven compressor is to:
A. Reduce the speed of the motor when the 48. Past ME Board Question Answer: B
maximum pressure is reached Which of the following components of a pump
B. Drain the condensate from the cylinder 53. Past ME Board Question
converts mechanical energy to pressure energy?
C. Release the pressure in the cylinder in order to Flow of water in a pipe have a velocity at 10 meters
A. Impeller
reduce the starting load per second. Determine the velocity head of the water
B. Valve
D. Prevent excess pressure in the receiver A. 50.1 meters
C. Shaft
B. 5.1 meters
D. Delivery pipe
Answer: C C. 8.2 meters
Answer: A D. 100 meters
44. Past ME Board Question
An unloader is used on air compressor to: 49. Past ME Board Question Answer: B
A. Relieve air pressure
54. Past ME Board Question B. End suction pump B. End suction pump
Find the velocity head for a velocity of 18 m/s C. In line pump C. In line pump
A. 33.0 m D. Horizontal pump D. Vertical shaft turbine pump
B. 0.92 m
C. 1.8 m Answer: A Answer: D
D. 16.5 m
59. A single suction pump having its suction nozzle on 64. A pump that takes suction from a public service main
Answer: D the opposite side of the casing from the stuffing box or private use water system for the purpose of
and having the face of the suction nozzle increasing the effective water pressure.
55. Past ME Board Question perpendicular to the longitudinal axis of the shaft. A. Horizontal split case pump
The size of a steam reciprocating pumps is generally A. Centrifugal pump B. Submersible pump
designated by a three-digit number size as 646. The B. End suction pump C. Booster pump
first digit designates. C. In line pump D. Vertical shaft turbine pump
A. Stroke of the pump in inches D. Horizontal pump
B. Inside diameter of the steam cylinder measured Answer: C
in inches Answer: B
C. Percent clearance 65. A vertical turbine pump with the pump and motor
D. Number of cylinders 60. A pump with the shaft normally in a horizontal closed coupled and design to be installed
position underground, as in the case of a deepwell pump.
Answer: B A. Centrifugal pump A. Horizontal split case pump
B. End suction pump B. Submersible pump
56. Past ME Board Question C. In line pump C. Booster pump
If 𝑄𝑎is the actual discharge flow and 𝑄𝑏 is the D. Horizontal pump D. Vertical shaft turbine pump
theoretical discharge flow, what will the coefficient of
Answer: D Answer: A
discharge be equal to during positive displacement
slip?
61. A centrifugal pump whose drive unit is supported by 66. An underground formation that contains sufficient
A. 𝑄𝑎 x 𝑄𝑏
the pump having its suction and discharge flanges on saturated permeable material to yield significant
B. 𝑄𝑏/𝑄𝑎 approximately the same center. quantities of water.
C. 𝑄𝑎/𝑄𝑏 A. Horizontal split case pump A. Aquifer
B. End suction pump B. Wet pit
D. 1 − 𝑄𝑎/𝑄𝑏
C. In line pump C. Ground water
D. Vertical shaft turbine pump D. Well water
Answer: C
Answer: C Answer: A
57. Past ME Board Question
Two pumps are connected in series. If 𝑄1is the 62. A centrifugal pump characterized by a housing which 67. A timber, concrete or masonry enclosure having a
discharge of pump 1 and 𝑄2 is the discharge of pump is split parallel to the shaft screened inlet kept partially filled with water by an
A. Horizontal split case pump open body of water such as pond, lake, or steams.
2 where 𝑄1<𝑄2. What is the discharge?
B. End suction pump A. Aquifer
A. 𝑄2 C. In line pump B. Wet pit
B. 𝑄1 D. Vertical shaft turbine pump C. Ground water
D. Well water
C. 𝑄1+𝑄2 Answer: A
D. 𝑄1/𝑄2 Answer: B
63. A centrifugal pump with one or more impellers
discharging into one or more bowls and a vertical 68. Water which is available from a well, driven into
Answer: A
eductor or column pipe used to connect the bowls to water bearing subsurface strata (aquifer)
58. A pump in which the pressure is developed the discharge head on which the pump driver is A. Aquifer
principally by the action of centrifugal force mounted. B. Wet pit
A. Centrifugal pump A. Horizontal split case pump C. Ground water
 D. Well water 74. A means of throttling the leakage which would Answer: D
otherwise occur at the point of entry of the shaft into
Answer: C the casing. 80. The most common means of throttling the leakage
A. Impeller between the inside and outside of the casing.
69. The level with respect to the pump, of the body of B. Casing A. Packing
water from which it takes suction when the pump is C. Stuffing box B. Gland
not in operation. D. Shaft sleeve C. Seal gage
A. Static water level D. Mechanical seal
B. Pumping water level Answer: B
C. Suction head Answer: A
D. Discharge head 75. Protects the shaft where it passes through the
stuffing box. 81. To position and adjust the packing pressure.
Answer: A A. Impeller A. Packing
B. Casing B. Gland
70. The level with respect to the pump, of the body of C. Stuffing box C. Seal gage
water from which it takes suction when the pump is in D. Shaft sleeve D. Mechanical seal
operation.
A. Static water level Answer: D Answer: B
B. Pumping water level
C. Suction head 76. Keeps internal recirculation down to a minimum. 82. Provides passage to distribute the sealing medium
D. Drawdown A. Wearing rings uniformly around the portion of the shaft that passes
B. Bearings through the stuffing box. Also known as water seal of
Answer: B C. Frame lantern ring.
D. Coupling A. Packing
71. The vertical difference between the pumping water B. Gland
level and the static water level. Answer: A C. Seal gage
A. Static water level D. Mechanical seal
B. Pumping water level 77. Accurately locate shaft and carry radial and thrust
C. Suction head loads. Answer: C
D. Drawdown A. Wearing rings
B. Bearings 83. Provides a mechanical sealing arrangement that
Answer: D C. Frame takes the place of the packing.
D. Coupling A. Packing
72. Imparts velocity to the liquid, resulting from B. Gland
centrifugal force as the impeller is rotated. Answer: B C. Seal gage
A. Impeller D. Mechanical seal
B. Casing 78. Which of the following is used to mount unit rigidly
C. Stuffing box and support bearings. Answer: D
D. Shaft sleeve A. Wearing rings
B. Stuffing box 84. A positive displacement pump consisting of a fixed
Answer: A C. Frame casing containing gears, cams, screws, vanes,
D. Coupling plungers or similar elements actuated by rotation of
73. Gives direction to the flow from the impeller and the drive shaft.
converts this velocity energy into pressure energy. Answer: C A. Rotary pumps
A. Impeller B. Reciprocating pumps
B. Casing 79. Connects the pump to the driver. C. Deep well pumps
C. Stuffing box A. Wearing rings D. Centrifugal pumps
D. Shaft sleeve B. Bearings
C. Frame Answer: A
Answer: B D. Coupling
85. A positive displacement unit wherein the pumping rotor is fitted with a series of vanes, blades or 94. A type of deep well pump that represent the
action is accomplished by the forward and backward buckets which follow the bore of the casing thereby application of vertical centrifugal pump to deep well
movement of a piston or plunger inside a cylinder displacing the liquid with each revolution of the drive service and are built for heads up to 305 meters and
usually provided with valves. shaft. for capacities up to 28,495 liters per minute.
A. Rotary pumps A. Cam and piston pump A. Plunger pump
B. Reciprocating pumps B. Gear pump B. Turbine pump
C. Deep well pumps C. Screw pump C. Ejector centrifugal pump
D. Centrifugal pumps D. Vane pump D. Air lift

Answer: B Answer: D Answer: B

86. A type of rotary pump consists of an eccentrically 90. A type reciprocating pump having a steam cylinder 95. A type of deep well pump that has come into wide
bored cam rotated by a shaft concentric in a with no lap on valves, a water cylinder and a use for small capacities combines a single stage
cylindrically bored casing, with an aburment or common piston rod. centrifugal pump at the top of the well and an ejector
follower so arranged that with each rotation of the A. Direct acting steam pump or jet located down in the water.
drive shaft a positive quantity of liquid is displaced B. Crank and flywheel reciprocating pump A. Plunger pump
from the space between the cam and the pump C. Power driven pump B. Turbine pump
casing. D. Piston pump C. Ejector centrifugal pump
A. Cam and piston pump D. Air lift
B. Gear pump Answer: A
C. Screw pump Answer: C
D. Vane pump 91. A type of reciprocating pimp driven by compound,
cross compound, or triple expansion steam engines. 96. A type of deep well pump wherein compressed air is
Answer: A A. Direct acting steam pump admitted to the well to lift water to the surface, for
B. Crank and flywheel reciprocating pump successful operation of the system, the discharge
87. A type of rotary pump consists of two or more gears, C. Power driven pump pipe must have its lower end submerged in the well
operating in closely fitted casing so arranged that D. Piston pump water.
when the gear teeth unmesh on one side liquid fills A. Plunger pump
the space between the gear teeth and is carried Answer: B B. Turbine pump
around in the tooth space to the opposite side and C. Ejector centrifugal pump
displaced as the teeth mesh again. 92. A type of reciprocating pump that receives its forward D. Air lift
A. Cam and piston pump and backward motion of the piston and plunger from
B. Gear pump the rotary motion of a revolving crankshaft by means Answer: D
C. Screw pump of a crank and connecting rod.
D. Vane pump A. Direct acting steam pump CHAPTER 13 – HEAT TRANSFER
B. Crank and flywheel reciprocating pump
Answer: B C. Power driven pump 1. One of the reasons for insulating the pipes is:
D. Piston pump A. They may not break under pressure
88. A type of rotary pump consists of two or three screw B. There is minimum corrosion
rotors so arranged that as the rotors turn liquid fills Answer: C C. Capacity to withstand pressure is increased
the shape between the screw threads and is D. Heat loss from the surface is minimized
displaced axially as the rotor threads mesh. 93. A type of deep well pump which are refinement of the
A. Cam and piston pump old hand pump that have played such an important Answer: D
B. Gear pump role in country home and small town water supply
C. Screw pump from wells. 2. The rate of radiant energy, that is emitted by a
D. Vane pump A. Plunger pump surface at any temperature and in small
B. Turbine pump wavelengths is found from the known rate of
Answer: C C. Ejector centrifugal pump energy that under the same conditions will be
D. Air lift emitted from a black surface, by multiplying with
89. A type of rotary pump consists of one rotor in a the absorptivity. The above enunciation is called:
casing machined eccentrically to the drive shaft. The Answer: A A. Lambert’s law
 B. Kirchhoff’s law 8. For glass wool thermal conductivity changes from C. Warm in summer
C. Planck’s law sample to sample due to changes in: D. Cool in summer
D. Stefan Boltzmann’s law A. Structure
B. Density Answer: A
Answer: B C. Composition
D. All of the above 14. The nature of flow of a fluid inside a tube, whether
3. Which of the following is generally used to it is turbulent or laminar, can be ascertained by:
measure the temperature inside the furnace? Answer: D A. Flow velocity
A. Mercury thermometer B. Surface conditions
B. Alcohol thermometer 9. Which of the following is the S.I. unit of thermal C. Viscosity of fluid
C. Ash thermometer conductivity? D. Reynolds number
D. Optical pyrometer A. W/m-hr- ̊K
B. W/m ̊K Answer: D
Answer: D C. KJ/m-hr- ̊C
D. W/m-hr- ̊C 15. By which of the following modes of heat transfer is
4. All heat transfer processes: the Stefan-Boltzmann law applicable?
A. Involve transfer of energy Answer: B A. Conduction
B. Involve temperature difference between the B. Radiation
bodies 10. What is the value of the Prandt’l number for air? C. Conduction and radiation combined
C. Obey first law of thermodynamics A. 10 D. Convection and radiation combined
D. Obey second law of thermodynamics B. 6.7
C. 67 Answer: B
Answer: B D. 0.7
16. At all wave lengths and temperatures the
5. What is thermal diffusivity? Answer: D monochromatic emissivity of a white body is equal
A. A mathematical formula to:
B. A physical property of the material 11. According to Prevost theory of heat exchange, A. Zero
C. A configuration for heat conduction A. It is impossible to transfer heat from low B. 0.5
D. A dimensionless parameter temperature source to high temperature C. Unity
source D. 0.1 to 0.5
Answer: B B. Heat transfer by radiation needs no medium
C. All bodies above absolute zero emit radiation Answer: A
6. Which of the following is a unit of thermal D. Heat transfer in most of the cases occurs by
diffusivity? combination of conduction, convection and 17. The radiation from flames is having
A.
2
𝑚 /hr radiation A. Continuous radiation from burning soot
2 particles of microscopic and submicroscopic
B. kcal/𝑚 hr
Answer: C dimensions
2
C. kcal/𝑚 hr ̊C B. Radiation from suspended larger particles of
2
D. 𝑚 /hr ̊C 12. Thermal conductivity of wood depends on which of coal, coke, or ash contributing to flame
the following? lumininossity
Answer: A A. Moisture C. Infared radiation from water vapor and
B. Temperature carbon dioxide
7. Non-isotropic conductivity is shown by which of the C. Density D. All of the above
following? D. All of the above
A. Brass Answer: D
B. Copper Answer: D
C. Wood 18. The statement that the emissivity and absorptivity
D. Steel 13. A fur coat on an animal will help the animal to of a surface is surrounded by its own temperature
remain: are the same for both monochromatic and total
Answer: C A. Warm in winter radiation is called:
B. Cool in winter A. Lambert’s law
 B. Kirchhoff’s law Answer: D C. Single liquid cools two liquids at different
C. D’Alambart’s temperature
D. Law of emissivity 24. What do you call the first stage of crystal D. Two tubes of cold fluid pass through one tube
formation? of hot fluid
Answer: B A. Nucleation
B. Foaming Answer: A
19. A reservoir that supplies energy in the form of heat C. Separation
is called: D. Vortexing 29. A correction of LMTD is essential in case of:
A. Source A. Parallel flow heat exchanger
B. Sink Answer: A B. Counter current heat exchanger
C. Cold reservoir C. Cross flow heat exchanger
D. Heat reservoir 25. In heat exchanger design, one transfer unit D. None of the above
implies:
Answer: A A. One fluid which is exchanging with another Answer: C
fluid of the same chemical composition
20. In regenerator type heat exchanger, heat transfer B. The section of heat exchanger which will 30. Which of the following is used as entrainer in
occurs by: cause temperature drop of one degree acetic acid – water separation?
A. Direct mixing of hot and cold fluids centigrade A. Methyl alcohol
B. A complete separation between hot and cold C. The section of heat exchanger where heat B. Phosphorous
fluids transfer surface area has been one square C. Butyl acetate
C. Flow of hot and cold fluids alternately over a meter D. Hexane
surface D. Condition when the change in temperature of
D. Generation of heat again and again one steam is numerically equal to the Answer: C
average driving force
Answer: C 31. A type of radiation consisting of singly charged
Answer: D particles that generate to intermediate distances.
21. Least value of Prandt’l number can be expected in A. Nuclear radiation
case of ____________. 26. Dritus Boelter equation can be applied in case of B. Alpha radiation
A. Liquid metals fluids flowing in: C. Beta radiation
B. Sugar solution A. Transition region D. Gamma radiation
C. Salt solution B. Turbulent region
D. Water C. Laminar region Answer: C
D. Any of the above
Answer: A 32. An electrically charged atom or radical which
Answer: B carries electricity through an electrolyte is called:
22. “The boiling point of a solution is a linear function A. Ion
of water at the same pressure.” The above 27. In sugar mills can just is evaporation in: B. Isotope
statement is called ___________. A. Zigzag tube evaporators C. Molecule
A. Dubring’s rule B. Long vertical tube evaporators D. Hole
B. Petit and Dulong’s law C. Short vertical tube evaporators
C. Fick’s rule D. Horizontal tube evaporators Answer: A
D. Reynolds law
Answer: B 33. The energy of a body that can be transmitted in
Answer: A the form of heat.
28. A 1-2 heat exchanger refers to which of the A. Heat energy
23. Floating heads are provided in heat exchangers to following? B. Thermal energy
A. Increase the pressure drop A. Single pass on shell side and double pass on C. Entropy
B. Decrease the pressure drop tube side D. Internal energy
C. Facilitate maintenance B. Single pass on tube side and double pass on
D. Avoid deformation of tubes because of shell side Answer: B
thermal expansion
34. In an isometric process, the heat transferred is Answer: B B. The logarithmic mean temperature difference
equal to: C. Fourier’s law
A. Change in enthalpy 40. The heat transfer term in the first law of D. Kirchoff’s law
B. Change in entropy thermodynamics may be due to any of the
C. Change in internal energy following except: Answer: D
D. Work nonflow A. Conduction
B. Convection 46. The temperature potential between temperature at
Answer: C C. Radiation the two ends of a heat exchanger are given by:
D. Internal heat generation (e.g., chemical A. The logarithmic mean temperature difference
35. A substance that is able to absorb liquids or gases reaction) B. The Stefan-Boltzmann law
and is used for removing them from a given C. Fourier’s law
medium or region. Answer: D D. Kirchoff’s law
A. Absorbent
B. Cohesive 41. All heat transfer processes require a medium of Answer: A
C. Adsorbent energy exchange except:
D. Adhesive A. Conduction 47. The function of a heat exchanger is to:
B. Natural convection A. Increase the water temperature entering the
Answer: A C. Forced convection boiler and decrease combustion
D. Radiation requirements
36. Radiant heat transfer is described by: B. Transfer heat from one fluid to another
A. Newton’s law Answer: D C. Increase the total energy content of the flow
B. Fourier’s law D. Exchange heat to increase energy to the flow
C. The logarithmic mean temperature 42. Thermal conduction is described by:
D. Kirchhoff’s law A. Newton’s law Answer: B
B. The logarithmic mean temperature difference
Answer: D C. The Stefan-Boltzmann law 48. The function of a superheater is to:
D. Fourier’s law A. Increase the water temperature entering the
37. A reservoir that absorbs energy in the form of heat boiler and decrease combustion
is called __________. Answer: D requirements
A. Source B. Transfer heat from one fluid to another
B. Sink 43. Convection is described by which of the following C. Increase the total energy content of the flow
C. Cold reservoir laws? D. Exchange heat to increase energy to the flow
D. Heat reservoir A. Newton’s law
B. The logarithmic mean temperature difference Answer: D
Answer: B C. The Stefan-Boltzmann law
D. Fourier’s law 49. What is the series of processes that eventually
38. When the entire heat exchanger is selected as bring the system back to its original condition?
control volume, heat becomes __________. Answer: A A. Reversible process
A. Unity B. Irreversible process
B. Zero 44. Radiation heat transfer is described by C. Cycle
C. Undefined A. Newton’s law D. Isentropic process
D. Indeterminate B. The logarithmic mean temperature difference
C. Fourier’s law Answer: C
Answer: B D. Kirchoff’s law
50. Past ME Board Question
39. Heat is conducted in the direction of: Answer: D A theoretical body which when heated to
A. Increasing temperature incandescence would emit a continuous light-ray
B. Decreasing temperature 45. The equivalent of ratio of emissive power to spectrum.
C. Increasing and decreasing temperature absorptivity for bodies in thermal equilibrium is A. Black body radiation
D. Constant temperature described by: B. Black body
A. Newton’s law C. Blue body
 D. White body The radiant heat transfer depends on: C. Convection
A. Temperature D. Condensation
Answer: B B. Heat rays
C. Heat flow from cold to hot Answer: A
51. Past ME Board Question D. Humidity
Which of the following is the reason for insulating 60. What is the heat transfer due to density
the pipes? Answer: B differential?
A. They may not break under pressure A. Convection
B. There is minimum corrosion 56. Past ME Board Question B. Conduction
C. Capacity to withstand pressure What kind of heat exchanger where water is C. Nuclear
D. Heat loss from the surface is minimized heated to a point that dissolved gases are D. Radiation
liberated?
Answer: D A. Evaporator Answer: A
B. Condenser
52. Past ME Board Question C. Intercooler 61. What do you call the passing of heat energy from
Heat transfer due to density differential D. Deaerator molecule to molecule through a substance?
A. Convection A. Conduction
B. Nuclear Answer: D B. Conservation
C. Conduction C. Radiation
D. Radiation 57. Past ME Board Question D. Convection
Heat transfer processes which include a change of
Answer: A phase of a fluid are considered __________. Answer: A
A. Convection
53. Past ME Board Question B. Thermal radiation 62. The transmission of heat from one place to
The term “exposure” in radiological effects is used C. Conduction another by fluid circulation between the spots of
as a measure of a gamma ray or an X-ray field in D. Radiation different temperature is called _______.
the surface of an exposed object. Since this A. Convection
radiation produces ionization of the air surrounding Answer: A B. Conservation
the object, the exposure is obtained as C. Radiation
A. Number of ions produced per mass of air x 58. Past ME Board Question D. Conduction
coulombs per kg A hot block is cooled by blowing cool air over its
B. Mass of air x surface area of an exposed top surface. The heat that is first transferred to the Answer: A
object air layer close to the block is by conduction. It is
C. Mass of air over surface area of an exposed eventually carried away from the surface by 63. Which of the following requires the greatest
object ___________. amount of heat per kilogram for a given increase in
D. Number of ions produced per mass of air + A. Convection temperature?
coulombs per kg B. Radiation A. Ice
C. Conduction B. Water
Answer: A D. Thermal radiation C. Steam
D. Copper
54. Past ME Board Question Answer: A
The passing of heat energy from molecule to Answer: B
molecule through a substance 59. Past ME Board Question
A. Conduction A body that is hot compared to its surroundings 64. What do you call the effectiveness of a body as a
B. Radiation illuminates more energy than it receives, while its thermal radiator at a given temperature?
C. Conservation surrounding absorbs more energy than they give. A. Absorptivity
D. Convection The heat is transferred from one to another by B. Conductivity
energy wave motion. What is this mode of heat C. Emissivity
Answer: A transfer? D. Reflectivity
A. Radiation
55. Past ME Board Question B. Conduction Answer: C
65. The natural direction of the heat flow between two Answer: A A. Conduction
reservoirs is dependent on which of the following? B. Radiation
A. Their temperature difference 71. In the process of freeze drying, ice goes directly C. Convection
B. Their internal energy into water vapor. What is the temperature at which D. Absorption
C. Their pressures this process can take place?
D. Their states, whether solid, liquid and gas A. Below the triple point of water Answer: C
B. At the triple point of water
Answer: A C. Above the triple point of water 77. The ratio of the radiation of actual body to the
D. Any of the above, depending on the pressure radiation of a blackbody is known as _______.
66. Why are metals good conductors of heat? A. Emittance
A. Because they contain free electrons Answer: A B. Reflectance
B. Because their atoms are relatively far apart C. Absorptance
C. Because their atoms collide infrequently 72. What usually happen when a vapor condenses D. Transmittance
D. Because they have reflecting surfaces into a liquid?
A. It evolves heat Answer: A
Answer: A B. It generates heat
C. Its temperature increases 78. Which of the following is the usual geometric view
67. In natural convection a heated portion of a fluids D. It boils with temperature less than 100 ̊C factor for a black body?
moves because: A. Zero
A. Its molecular motions become aligned Answer: A B. Infinity
B. Of molecular collisions within it C. One
C. Its density is less than that of the surrounding 73. In a cooling tower, the water is cooled mainly by: D. Indeterminate
fluid A. Condensation
D. Of currents in surrounding fluid B. Convection Answer: C
C. Evaporation
Answer: C D. Conduction 79. What happens to the heat transferred radially
across insulated pipe per unit area?
68. In order to emit electromagnetic radiation, an Answer: C A. The heat will flow at constant rate
object must be at a temperature: B. Decreases with the increase in thermal
A. Above 0 K 74. How do you classify a body that has an emissivity conductivity
B. Above 0 ̊C factor of 0.7? C. Decrease from pipe wall to insulated surface
C. Above that of its surrounding A. Gray body D. Partially increases from pipe wall to insulated
D. High enough for it to glow B. Black body surface
C. White body
Answer: A D. Theoretical body Answer: C

69. The rate at which an object radiates Answer: A 80. What do you call a change of phase directly from
electromagnetic energy does not depend on its: vapor to solid without passing through the liquid
A. Surface area 75. At what particular condition that no more heat can state?
B. Mass that be removed from a substance and the A. Sublimation
C. Temperature temperature can no longer be lowered? B. Solidification
D. Ability to absorb radiation A. Freezing point C. Vaporization
B. Absolute zero D. Deposition
Answer: B C. Critical point
D. Ground zero Answer: D
70. Sublimation refers to:
A. The vaporization of solid without first Answer: B 81. Which of the following is the Stefan-Boltzmann
becoming liquid constant?
B. The melting of a solid 76. What refers to the heat transfer wherein the heat is A. 5.77 x 10
−7 2 4
W/𝑚 𝐾
C. The vaporization of a liquid transferred from one point to another by actual −9 2 4
movement of substance? B. 7.67 x 10 W/𝑚 𝐾
D. The condensation of a gas into liquid
 C. 4.78 x 10
−10 2 4
W/𝑚 𝐾 D. Kirchhoff’s law of radiation Answer: C
−8 2 4
D. 5.67 x 10 W/𝑚 𝐾 Answer: D 92. What do you call a substance that is able to
absorb liquids or gases and is usually used for
Answer: D 87. It refers to the ratio of the internal thermal removing liquids (or gases) from a given medium
resistance of a solid to the boundary layer thermal or region?
82. What is the usual value of transmissivity for
resistance (or external resistance of the body). A. Absorbent
opaque materials?
A. Biot number B. Liquifier
A. 0
B. Prandtl number C. Adsorbent
B. Indeterminate
C. Nusselt number D. Adhesive
C. 1
D. Reynolds number
D. Infinity
Answer: A
Answer: A
Answer: A
93. In which direction that heat is transferred through
88. It refers to the ratio at the rate of heat transferred conduction?
83. A body whose emissivity is less than 1 is known as
by conduction to the rate of energy stored. A. Increasing temperature
a real body. What is the other term for real body?
A. Reynolds number B. Decreasing temperature
A. Gray body
B. Fourier number C. Increasing and decreasing temperature
B. White body
C. Biot number D. Constant temperature
C. Black body
D. Prandtl number
D. Theoretical body
Answer: B
Answer: B
Answer: A
94. Which of the following statements is based on
89. A hot block is cooled by blowing cool air over its Prevost theory of heat exchange?
84. What refers to an ideal body that absorbs all of the
top surface. The heat that is first transferred to the A. All bodies above absolute zero emit radiation
radiant energy that intrudes on it and also emits
air layer close to the block is by conduction. It is B. The substance moves because of the
the maximum possible energy when acting as a
eventually carried away from the surface by: decrease in its density which is caused by
source?
A. Conduction increase in temperature
A. White body
B. Radiation C. The substance moves because of the
B. Black body
C. Thermal application of mechanical power such as that
C. Gray body
D. Convection of a fan
D. Red hot body
D. Heat transfer in most of the cases occurs by
Answer: D combination of conduction, convection and
Answer: B
radiation
90. It is the term used to describe the energy of a body
85. The thermal resistance for one-dimensional steady
that can be transmitted in the form of heat. Answer: A
conduction heat transfer through cylindrical wall in
A. Enthalpy
the radial direction is expressed in which of the
B. Thermal energy 95. Which of the following is the emissivity of white
following functions?
C. Entropy body?
A. Linear
D. Internal energy A. Zero
B. Exponential
B. 0.5
C. Logarithmic Answer: B C. 1
D. Trigonometric
D. 0 < e < 1
91. Which of the following is the equivalent heat
Answer: C transferred of a gas undergoing isometric Answer: A
process?
86. The law which states that “the ratio of the emissive
A. Change in enthalpy 96. The mechanism of heat transfer in which there is
powers to absorptivities are equal when the two
B. Change in entropy no medium ( i.e. water, air, solid concrete) required
bodies are in thermal equilibrium” is known as:
C. Change in internal energy for the heat energy to travel is:
A. Stefan-Boltzmann law
D. Work nonflow A. Conduction
B. Newton’s law of convection
B. Radiation
C. Fourier’s law
 C. Convection D. None of the above D. Thermal radiography
D. Diffusion
Answer: B Answer: B
Answer: B
102. How do you call a phenomenon wherein the heat 107. Two metals were kept together at room
97. The temperature potential between temperature at is transferred by motion of fluid under the action of temperature and it was found out that one is colder
the two ends of a heat exchanger are given by: mechanical device? than the other. Which of the following is the best
A. The logarithmic mean temperature difference A. Forced convection reason why one metal is colder than the other?
B. The Stefan-Boltzmann law B. Natural convection A. The heat transfer coefficient of one metal is
C. Fourier’s law C. Forced conduction of higher
D. Kirchoff’s law D. Thermal radiation B. One metal is of lower temperature as
compared to the other
Answer: A Answer: A C. One metal is of higher temperature as
compared to the other
98. Which of the following best describe function of 103. In conduction heat transfer, what happens to the D. The thermal conductivity of one metal is high
heat exchanger? heat transfer per unit time when the thermal as compared to the other
A. Increase the water temperature entering the conductivity decreases?
system A. The heat flow will increase Answer: D
B. Transfer heat from one fluid to another B. The heat flow remains constant
C. Evaluate the total energy of the flow C. The heat flow will decrease 108. In convection heat transfer, what happens to the
D. Exchange heat to increase energy to the flow D. The heat flow will partially increase and then heat transfer coefficient if the viscosity of the fluid
will decrease decreases?
Answer: B A. The heat transfer coefficient also increases
Answer: C B. The heat transfer coefficient will decrease
99. What refers to a form of energy associated with C. The heat transfer coefficient remains
the kinetic random motion of large numbers of 104. Which of the following is the driving force in heat constant
molecules? transfer? D. The heat transfer coefficient partially
A. Heat A. Temperature gradient increases then decreases
B. Heat of fusion B. Thickness gradient
C. Entropy C. Viscosity gradient Answer: A
D. Internal energy D. Dielectric gradient
109. A body that is hot compared to its surroundings
Answer: A Answer: A illuminates more energy than it receives, while its
surrounding absorbs more energy than they give.
100. How much id the part of light that is absorbed by 105. Which of the following is the measure of the The heat is transferred from one to another by
the body that transmits and reflects 80% and 10% relative effectiveness of momentum and energy energy of wave motion. What is this mode of heat
respectively? transport by diffusion in the velocity and thermal transfer?
A. 10% boundary layer? A. Radiation
B. 30% A. Nusselt’s number B. Conduction
C. 20% B. Prandtl number C. Convection
D. 5% C. Reynold’s number D. Condensation
D. Dimensional measurement
Answer: A Answer: A
Answer: B
101. In convection heat transfer, what happens to the 110. What do you call theoretical body where
heat transfer coefficient if the viscosity of the fluid 106. Which of the following is the property of the solid absorptivity and emissivity are independent of the
increases? that provides the measure of the rate of heat wavelength over the spectral region of the
A. The heat transfer coefficient will increase transfer to the energy storage? irradiation and the surface emission?
B. The heat transfer coefficient will decrease A. Thermal efficiency A. White body
C. The heat transfer coefficient remains B. Thermal diffusivity B. Opaque body
constant C. Thermal conductivity C. Black body
 D. Transparent body Answer: A 121. Which of the following has the highest thermal
conductivity?
Answer: D 116. The true mean temperature difference is also A. Mercury
known as: B. Gasoline
111. Which of the following is the structure designed to A. The average mean temperature difference C. Water
prevent the spread of fire having a fire resistance B. The logarithmic mean temperature difference D. Alcohol
rating of not less than four hours? C. The trigonometric mean temperature
A. Fire escape difference Answer: A
B. Fire exit D. The exponential temperature difference
C. Fire shield 122. Which of the following is the requirement of the
D. Fire wall Answer: B temperature of a body for it to emit radiation?
A. Above zero Celsius
Answer: D 117. Which of the following can be a geometric view B. Above zero Kelvin
factor of a gray body? C. Above of the temperature of the surroundings
112. Which of the following heat exchange device used A. Greater than one D. High enough for it to glow
to provide heat transfer between the exhaust B. Less than one
gases and air prior to the entrance of a C. Equal to one Answer: B
combustor? D. Greater than zero but less than one
A. Regenerator 123. Which of the following is the color of iron when it is
B. Economizer Answer: D heated to a highest temperature?
C. Condenser A. White
D. Reheater 118. The heat transfer by conduction occurs in which of B. Red
the following? C. Orange
Answer: A A. Only in liquids D. Yellow
B. Only in solids
113. Which of the following transfer of heat is involved C. Only in liquids and gases Answer: A
in the changing of boiling water (at 100 ̊C) to D. In solids, liquids and gases
vapor at the same temperature? 124. Which of the following is the reason why metals
A. Conduction Answer: D are good conductors of heat?
B. Convection A. Metals contain free electrons
C. Radiation 119. Which of the following reasons why one gram of B. Metals have atoms the frequently collide
D. Evaporation steam at 100 ̊C causes more serious burn than another
one gram of water at 100 ̊C? C. Metals have reflecting surfaces
Answer: B A. Steam is less dense than boiling water D. Atoms in metals are very far to each other
B. The steam has higher specific heat
114. Which of the following is the science of low C. Steam contains more internal energy Answer: A
temperatures? D. Steam is everywhere thus it strikes greater
A. Cryogenics force 125. The rate at which heat flows through a slab of
B. Thermo-kinetics some material does not depend on which of the
C. Thermodynamics Answer: C following?
D. Ergonomics A. The thickness of the slab
120. What usually happens when vapor condenses into B. The area of the slab
Answer: A liquid? C. The temperature difference between two
A. It absorbs heat faces
115. Which of the following thermal state of the body B. It rejects heat D. The specific heat of the material
considered as reference to communicate heat to C. Its temperature increases
the other bodies? D. Its temperature decreases Answer: D
A. Temperature
B. Pressure Answer: B 126. Which of the following is the primary function of a
C. Internal energy thermal radiator?
D. Entropy
 A. To transferring the heat by using moving C. Cal/s 137. Which of the following is not a heat exchanger?
fluids D. Btu/Hp-hr A. Condenser
B. To transfer heat from hot to cold body by B. Boilers
using a forced-draft fan Answer: D C. Evaporators
C. To transfer heat by allowing molecules to D. Water hammer
vibrate one to another 132. The thermal conductivity does not depend on
D. To transfer heat with or without a medium which of the following? Answer: D
A. Chemical composition
Answer: D B. Physical state or texture 138. Which of the following heat exchangers where fluid
C. Temperature and pressure flow in the same direction and both are of
127. What is the reason why Styrofoam is a good D. Gravitational pull changing temperatures?
insulating material? A. Parallel flow
A. Because it contains many tiny pockets of air Answer: D B. Cross flow
B. Styrofoam is a white object C. Counter flow
C. The structure of Styrofoam is very unstable 133. In Maxwell’s theory for thermal conductivity of D. Mixed flow
and heat cannot flow gases and vapors, which of the following is the
D. Styrofoam structure is very dense value of “a” for triatomic gases? Answer: A
A. 1.7
Answer: A B. 2.4 139. What happens to the thermal conductivity of
C. 1.3 diatomic gases if the temperature is increase?
128. What usually happens to the surrounding when D. 2.4 A. The thermal conductivity will also increase
water vapor condenses? B. The thermal conductivity decreases
A. It warms the surrounding Answer: A C. The thermal conductivity remains constant
B. The surrounding temperature decreases D. The thermal conductivity partially increases
C. It neither warm nor cold the surrounding 134. Which of the following conductivities where then decreases
D. The surroundings will be dehumidified Sutherland equation is used?
A. Thermal conductivities of solids Answer: A
Answer: A B. Thermal conductivities of gases
C. Thermal conductivities of metal 140. What device is used to measure the amount of
129. The rate of radiation does not depend on which of D. Thermal conductivities of liquids infrared radiation in each portion of a person’s skin
the following? that is emitted?
A. Temperature of the radiating body Answer: B A. Thermograph
B. The emissivity of the radiation surface B. Thermometer
C. The area of the radiating body 135. For pure metals, what happens to the thermal C. Pyrometer
D. The thickness of the radiating body conductivity if the temperature is extremely high? D. Potentiometer
A. Approaches infinity
Answer: D B. Decreases except for ferrous metals Answer: A
C. Almost constant except for ferromagnetic
130. Which of the following is not a good conductor of materials 141. The heat transfer by convection occurs in which of
heat? D. Increases except for steel the following?
A. Metals A. Only in gases
B. Rocks Answer: C B. Only in liquids
C. Glass C. Only in gases and liquids
D. Asbestos 136. Which of the following liquids that has the highest D. Only in gases and solids
thermal conductivity?
Answer: D A. Gasoline Answer: C
B. Glycerin
131. Which of the following is not a unit of the rate of C. Water 142. In convection heat transfer, what mechanism heat
heat transfer? D. Alcohol transfer where the fluid moves due to the decrease
A. Watt in its density caused by increase in temperature?
B. Btu per hour Answer: C A. Forced convection
 B. Natural convection Answer: A 11. Thermal expansion valves are usually of the:
C. Density convection A. Diaphragm
D. Radial convection 6. Valves and piping in an ammonia system are B. Magnetic tape
made of: C. Bellows type
Answer: B A. Brass D. A or C
B. Bronze
CHAPTER 14 – REFRIGERATION C. Iron Answer: D
D. Copper
1. Which of the following could be used to check a 12. When checking zinc plates in a condenser, one
leak in an ammonia system? Answer: C should:
A. Litmus paper A. Install all new plates
B. Halide torch 7. The relief valve on an ammonia machine is B. Clean the plates and renew worn out ones
C. Sulfur stick located: C. Ground each plate to the shell
D. A and C A. On the discharge pipe from the condenser D. Paint the plates with red lead
B. On the discharge pipe from the compressor
Answer: D C. In the compressor head Answer: B
D. A and B
2. Ammonia leaks in the condenser can be detected 13. The scale trap is located between the:
by: Answer: C A. Compressor and oil separator
A. Smelling the discharge water B. Expansion valve and evaporators coils
B. Applying litmus paper to the circulating water 8. When purging an ammonia condenser into a C. King (liquid) valve and expansion valve
discharge bucket of water, one can tell when the air is out D. Evaporator coils and compressor
C. Adding oil of peppermint to the system and and ammonia starts to come through by the:
tracing the smell A. Smell of the ammonia being liberated from Answer: C
D. Applying a soapy solution to the condenser the water
heads and looking for bubbles B. Color of the water turning green 14. When the evaporator coils are located in the
C. Color of the water turning bluish icebox, the system is known as:
Answer: B D. Change of bubbling sound of air to the A. Indirect system
crackling sound of ammonia B. Direct system
3. A sulfur stick burning in the presence of ammonia C. High-pressure system
will give off a _______. Answer: D D. Low-pressure system
A. Dense yellow smoke
B. Dense red smoke 9. The crossover connection in an ammonia system Answer: B
C. Dense white smoke can be used to ___________.
D. Dense green smoke A. Hot-gas defrost 15. The purge valve is located:
B. Pump air out of the system A. On the receiver discharge
Answer: C C. Add refrigerant to the system B. In the highest part of the system
D. Reduce the pressure on the discharge side of C. In the lowest part of the system
4. An ammonia leak will turn litmus paper _______. the condenser D. On the evaporators coils
A. Blue
B. Green Answer: A Answer: B
C. Red
D. Yellow 10. How is an ammonia system purged so that 16. The solenoid valve is:
operator will not be overcome by the fumes? A. A pressure-controlled stop valve
Answer: A A. Into a bucket of lube oil B. A temperature-controlled stop valve
B. Back into the compressor C. A Freon-controlled check valve
5. In an ammonia system the oil gauge must be kept: C. Into a bucket of water D. None of the above
A. Closed except when checking oil level D. Into the atmospheric line
B. Open at all times Answer: B
C. Close when machine is shut down Answer: C
D. Open when machine is shut down
17. The thermal expansion valve is located between Answer: A Answer: C
the:
A. Solenoid valve and the evaporator coils 23. The solenoid valve is located between the 29. A device for holding open the suction valve and
B. Charging valve and the solenoid valve _______. drawing gas from the suction manifold and
C. Receiver and the king valve A. Thermal expansion valve and the evaporator returning it to the suction line without compressing
D. King valve and the solenoid valve B. Scale trap and the thermal expansion valve it is called ___________.
C. King valve and the scale trap A. Relief valve
Answer: A D. Automatic and manual expansion valves B. Suction line by-pass
C. Cylinder unloader
18. The purpose of the scale trap is to: Answer: B D. Discharge line by-pass
A. Dissolved scale and dirt in the system
B. Remove insoluble gases from the refrigerant 24. A device used to keep moisture from passing Answer: C
C. Remove dirt, scale and metal chips from the through the system is called:
refrigerant A. Humidifier 30. The solenoid valve can be typed as a _______.
D. Control the amount of scale going to the B. Dehydrator A. Bellows valve
compressor C. Aerator B. Bimetallic valve
D. Trap C. Thermal valve
Answer: C D. Magnetic stop valve
Answer: B
19. The oil separator (trap) is located between the: Answer: D
A. Compressor discharge valve and condenser 25. The relief valve is located on the:
B. Receiver and the expansion valve A. Discharge side on the condenser 31. The bulb for the thermal expansion valve is
C. Receiver and the king valve B. Outlet of the evaporator coils located
D. Condenser and the receiver C. Receiver tank A. Near the evaporator coil outlet
D. Discharge side of the compressor B. In the middle of evaporator coils
Answer: A C. Near the evaporator coil inlet
Answer: D D. On the bottom row of evaporator coils
20. The charging connection in a refrigerating system
is located: 26. The dehydrator is used: Answer: A
A. Before the receiver A. To remove moisture from the system
B. Between the condenser and the receiver B. When adding refrigerant to the system 32. The elements of a thermostat switch are usually of
C. Between the receiver and the king valve C. To remove air from the system the ___________
D. Between the king valve and the solenoid D. A and B A. Pilot-valve type
valve B. Bimetal type
Answer: D C. Diaphragm type
Answer: D D. Valve type
27. Which of the following is another name for the
21. The dehydrator is located between the liquid valve? Answer: B
A. Condenser and receiver A. Freon valve
B. Receiver and the expansion valve B. King valve 33. The expansion valve is located between the
C. Condenser and the king valve C. Shutoff valve A. Compressor and condenser
D. Receiver and the king valve D. Master valve B. Evaporator and compressor
C. Receiver and evaporator
Answer: B Answer: B D. Condenser and receiver

22. The charging valve is located between the:
A. King valve and the expansion valve
B. Evaporator coils and the compressor
C. Compressor and the receiver
D. Receiver and the condenser
28. If no gaskets are used in the piping joints of a Answer: C
Freon system, the joints must be:
A. Welded joints 34. The oil separator is located between the:
B. Finished joints A. Condenser and dehydrator
C. Ground joints B. Compressor and condenser
D. Soldered joints C. Evaporator and compressor
 D. Solenoid valve and thermal expansion valve 40. When there is a Freon leak, the halide torch will 44. The purpose of relief valves on refrigeration
burn machines is to:
Answer: B A. Orange A. By-pass the compressor when dehydrating
B. Green B. Prevent overloading in the iceboxes
35. Zinc rods are found in the: C. Blue C. Prevent excessive pressure in case of
A. Salt-water side of condenser D. White stoppage on the discharge side of the system
B. Compressor crankcase D. A and B
C. Evaporator coils Answer: B
D. Refrigerant side of condenser Answer: C
41. Large leaks in a Freon system cannot always be
Answer: A detected with a halide torch because it changes 45. A leaky suction valve can usually be detected by
color with the slightest amount of Freon present. A A. A higher suction pressure
36. A double-trunk piston is used to large leak can be detected easier by applying B. A fluctuating suction pressure gauge
A. Prevent oil from mixing with the refrigerant ____________ C. Closing in on the suction valve having no
B. Absorb some of the side thrust A. Sheets of litmus paper to all joints and watch effect on the suction pressure
C. Prevent gas from getting to crankcase for color change D. Any of the above
D. All of the above B. A soapsuds solution, mixed with a little
glycerin to hold the solution together, and Answer: D
Answer: D watch for bubbles
C. A thin layer of mineral oil to all joints and 46. Too low suction pressure could be caused by
37. Which of the following gasket materials should be watch for bubbles A. Too much oil in the system
used on a Freon system? D. A lighted candle at the joints and watch for B. Shortage of refrigerant gas
A. Asbestos leaky spots blowing candle flame C. Dirty scale traps
B. Metallic D. Any of the above
C. Rubber Answer: B
D. A and B Answer: D
42. The relief valve on a 𝐶𝑂2 machine is located
Answer: D 47. What do you call a system in which the evaporator
A. Next to the king valve
coils are located in a brine solution and the brine is
B. In the compressor head
38. Many pressure gauges on a Freon system have pumped through the icebox?
C. On the discharge pipe between the
two dials or graduations on one gauge. The two A. An indirect system
compressor and the discharge valve
dials represent B. A double-evaporator system
D. On the discharge pipe from the condenser
A. Suction and discharge pressure C. A direct system
B. Pressure and temperature D. A low-pressure system
Answer: C
C. Liquid and gas pressure
D. Cooling water inlet and outlet temperatures Answer: A
43. The discharge pressure of the compressor should
be:
Answer: B 48. Before securing a compressor to do maintenance
A. The pressure which corresponds to a
work on it, be sure to:
temperature from 5 ̊F to 15 ̊F below that of
39. A double-pipe condenser has ___________. A. Purge the system
the condenser discharge
A. Two pipes for cooling water and one for B. Have spare parts ready
B. The pressure which corresponds to a
refrigerant C. Pump down the system
temperature equal to that of the condenser
B. A small pipe inside a larger pipe, the cooling D. B and C
discharge
water passing through the small pipe and the
C. The pressure which corresponds to a
refrigerant through the large pipe Answer: D
temperature from 5 ̊F to 15 ̊F higher than
C. Two piping systems side by side, one with
the condenser discharge
cooling water and one with refrigerant 49. Obstruction of the expansion valve is usually
D. None of the above
D. None of the above caused by
A. Scale
Answer: C
Answer: B B. Congealed oil in the system
C. Water in the system
 D. Any of the above B. Insufficient superheat 61. If the solenoid valve closed by accident, the
C. Too much superheat compressor would be stopped by which of the
Answer: D D. Expansion valve hung up following?
A. Automatic trip
50. Excess frost on the evaporator coils Answer: A B. Low-pressure cutout switch
A. Does not affect the system C. Low-water cutout switch
B. Takes load off compressor 56. Which of the following is the usual cause of D. High-pressure cutout switch
C. Reduces efficiency of the plant slugging?
D. Keeps the icebox cooler A. Too much refrigerant in the system Answer: B
B. Too much oil in the system
Answer: C C. Expansion valve not operating properly 62. The purpose of the low-pressure cutout switch is
D. Too much cooling water to condenser to:
51. Air circulation in the icebox is accomplished by the A. Cut out the compressor at a set pressure
use of which of the following? Answer: C B. Maintain a preset suction pressure to the
A. Hollow sidewalls compressor
B. Diffuser fans 57. What operates low-pressure cutout switch C. Maintain liquid refrigerant at the suction of the
C. Louver doors A. Bellows compressor
D. Air vents to deck B. Spring tension D. Cut compressor in and out at a preset
C. A magnet pressure
Answer: B D. Water pressure
Answer: D
52. The cooling-water side of the condenser should be Answer: A
opened for inspection every 63. If the cooling water to the condenser suddenly
A. Six months 58. Which of the following must be checked up if an fails?
B. Two years automatic Freon system will not start up? A. An alarm will ring to notify the engineer
C. Year A. High-pressure cutout B. The compressor will shut down
D. Three months B. Reset mechanism C. The expansion valve will close
C. Low-pressure cutout D. The solenoid valve will close
Answer: D D. All of the above
Answer: B
53. Some causes of a noisy compressor are Answer: D
A. Worn bearings, pins, etc. 64. The most likely cause of high superheat would be
B. Slugging due to flooding back of refrigerant 59. Which of the following is the probable cause of hot A. Too much refrigerant
C. Too much oil in crankcase suction line? B. Expansion valve open too wide
D. Any of the above A. Insufficient lubrication C. Expansion valve closed too much
B. Too much refrigerant D. Back-pressure valve set too high
Answer: D C. Insufficient refrigerant
D. Expansion valve closed too much Answer: C
54. If the thermal expansion valve becomes
inoperative, the iceboxes will have to be controlled Answer: C 65. What do you call the liquid reaching the
by the __________. compressor through the suction?
A. King valve 60. What do you call the device that is used as a A. Superheating
B. Manual expansion valve low-pressure control and high-pressure cutout on B. Overflowing
C. Manual solenoid valve a compressor? C. Flooding back
D. Solenoid valve A. Pressure controller D. Recycling
B. Controller switch
Answer: B C. Cutout Answer: C
D. Cutout switch
55. Sweating of the crankcase is caused by which of 66. The suction pressure switch is operated by which
the following? Answer: A of the following?
A. Too much oil in the system A. Electric current
 B. Pressure on a bellow C. The pressure which corresponds with a Answer: D
C. A relay cutout temperature equal to the temperature of the
D. Thermocouple icebox 77. The high-pressure side of the system is
D. None of the above sometimes referred to as the
Answer: B A. Hot side
Answer: B B. Suction side
67. If the compressor short-cycles on the C. Cold side
high-pressure cutout, which of the following would 72. If any of the electrically controlled devices in a D. Cooling side
you check? Freon system malfunction, which of the following
A. Check for too much refrigerant in the system valve will also automatically shut off? Answer: A
B. If plenty of cooling water is running through A. King valve
but it is not picking up heat, the condenser B. Condenser cooling-water inlet valve 78. If the compressor were to run continuously without
tubes need cleaning C. Expansion valve lowering the temperature, the trouble would
C. Be sure system is getting cooling water D. Solenoid valve probably be:
D. All of the above A. Leaky discharge valves
Answer: D B. Insufficient refrigerant in the system
Answer: D C. Leaks in the system
73. A leaky discharge valve can usually be detected D. Any of the above
68. A Freon unit will tend to short-cycle when by
operating under: A. A drop in icebox temperature Answer: D
A. Normal conditions B. A discharge pressure lower than normal
B. Heavy loads C. A fluctuating high-pressure gauge 79. Which of the following would cause a high head
C. Light loads D. Any of the above pressure?
D. All of the above A. Suction valve not open enough
Answer: D B. Too much cooling water
Answer: C C. Insufficient cooling water
74. The dehydrating agent in a Freon system is D. Icebox door left open
69. Air is remove from the system by usually
A. Opening the purge valve A. Sodium chloride Answer: C
B. Increasing the amount of cooling water B. Calcium chloride
C. Running the refrigerant through an aerator C. Activated alumina 80. If frost forms on the cylinders, the cause would be
D. Running the refrigerant through a deaerator D. Slaked lime A. Charging valve left open
B. Expansion valve not open wide enough
Answer: A Answer: C C. Expansion valve open too wide
D. Dehydrator not working properly
70. Short-cycling means that the machine 75. If the compressor short-cycles on the low-pressure
A. Runs to slow cutout, the trouble might be: Answer: C
B. Stop and starts frequently A. Too much frost on the evaporator coils
C. Runs too fast B. Dirty traps and strainers 81. Which of the following would cause low head
D. Grounds out frequently C. Lack of refrigerant pressure?
D. Any of the above A. Insufficient cooling water
Answer: B B. Too much cooling water
Answer: D C. Insufficient refrigerant gas
71. The suction pressure in a Freon system should be D. B and C
A. The pressure which corresponds with a 76. If an electrically operated compressor failed to
temperature about 20 ̊F above the start, the cause might be: Answer: D
temperature of the icebox A. A blown fuse
B. The pressure which corresponds with a B. Burned out holding coils in solenoid valve 82. Too high suction pressure could be cause by
temperature about 20 ̊F below the C. An open switch A. Leaky suction valves
temperature of the icebox D. Any of the above B. Expansion valve bulb not working properly
C. Expansion valve open too wide
 D. Any of the above B. The same as an ammonia system 93. If the compressor had been running satisfactorily
C. Back to the extra supply tank for a long period of time but suddenly the
Answer: D D. The same as a 𝐶𝑂2 system compartment temperature started to rise, the
trouble might be
83. Which of the following would cause high head A. A refrigerant leak has developed
Answer: D
pressure? B. The expansion valve may contain frozen
A. Air in the condenser 89. If the compressor discharge temperature is higher water
B. Insufficient cooling water than the receiver temperature: C. The solenoid valve has jammed shut
C. Dirty condenser A. Add more refrigerant to the system D. Any of the above
D. Any of the above B. Decrease the amount of cooling water to the
condenser Answer: D
Answer: D
C. Increase the amount of cooling water to the
condenser 94. If the compressor had been running satisfactorily
84. An excessively high head pressure could be for a long period of time but the oil level was rising
D. Remove some of the refrigerant from the
caused by slowly, one should:
system
A. Insufficient cooling water to the condenser A. Check the dehydrator cartridge
B. Insufficient cooling water to the evaporator B. Check to see if there is too much refrigerant
Answer: B
coils in the system
C. Solenoid valve shutoff 90. How is a 𝐶𝑂2 system purged? C. Shut down the compressor and check the oil
D. Too much cooling water to the condenser level with the machine stopped
A. When 𝐶𝑂2 comes out of the purge valve, frost
D. Drain out sufficient oil to bring it down to the
Answer: A will form on a piece of metal held near the proper running level
outlet
85. Which of the following would cause a high suction B. Through the king valve Answer: C
pressure? C. Pumped out with a suction pump
A. Expansion valve open too wide D. The 𝐶𝑂2 will come out of the purge valve in 95. The purpose of the oil trap is :
B. Dirty dehydrator A. To add oil to the compressor
liquid form
C. King valve not open wide enough B. To remove oil from the refrigerating gas
D. Expansion valve not open wide enough C. To remove oil from the charging tank
Answer: A
D. None of the above
Answer: A
91. If the head pressure is too high:
A. The relief valve should open and let excess Answer: B
86. If a compressor runs continuously, the cause might
refrigerant pass to receiver
be a 96. Too much oil in the compressor would :
B. Close in on the suction valve
A. Clogged scale trap A. Absorb to much refrigerant from the system
C. The relief should open before the
B. Defective thermal bulb B. Deposit oil on the condenser tubes
high-pressure cutout
C. Stuck high-pressure switch C. Damage the expansion valve
D. The high-pressure cutout switch should
D. Stuck low-pressure switch D. Cause leakage through the shaft seals
operate before the relief valve opens
Answer: D Answer: A
Answer: D
87. Low suction pressure is caused by 97. The oil level in the compressor should be check
92. The system should be purged
A. Expansion valve causing flooding back A. Just before starting the compressor
A. While starting up
B. Solenoid valve not functioning properly B. After a long period of operation
B. After the system has been shut down for a
C. Leaky compressor suction valves C. After an extend lay-up period
few hours
D. Air in the system D. While the compressor is in operation
C. While system is operating
D. Once a week
Answer: B Answer: B
Answer: B
88. How is a Freon system purged? 98. The agent used in an indirect reefer system is
A. With a reefer pump A. Calcium chloride
 B. Potassium chloride D. Small circuit breaker 109. The purpose of the evaporator is to
C. Sodium chloride A. Absorb latent heat of vaporization
D. A or C Answer: C B. Absorb latent heat fusion
C. Transfer latent heat of vaporization
Answer: D 104. Before securing a compressor to do maintenance D. Transfer latent heat of fusion
work on it, be sure to:
99. Air can be prevented from getting into the system A. Have gas mask handy Answer: A
by B. Make arrangements to have perishables
A. Running the refrigerant through an aerator taken care of 110. The purpose of the dehydrator is to
B. Keeping the dehydrator clean at all times C. Notify the engineer A. Add more refrigerant to the system
C. Keeping all glands and stuffing boxes on the D. A and B B. Remove oil from the refrigerant
high-pressure side tight C. Remove moisture from the crankcase oil
D. Keeping all glands and stuffing boxes on the Answer: D D. Remove moisture from the refrigerant
low-pressure side tight
105. When securing a Freon system for repairs Answer: D
Answer: D A. Pump down to 1 or 2 pounds pressure
B. Pump down to a slight vacuum 111. The principle of mechanical refrigeration is
100. Which of the following would not cause high C. Pump down to 10 to 15 pounds pressure A. The conversion of a liquid to gas
suction pressure? D. Remove all refrigerant from the system B. The absorption of temperature under heat,
A. Suction valve not adjusted properly pressure, compression and expansion
B. Expansion valve stuck open Answer: A C. The compression of a liquid under
C. Leaky suction valves temperature and expansion
D. Insufficient refrigeration 106. When charging Freon system, all the valves D. The absorption of heat under temperature,
should be in their normal position except the: compression, pressure and expansion
Answer: D A. Solenoid valve
B. Purge valve Answer: D
101. Water in the refrigerant is liable to C. King (liquid) valve
A. Freeze on the expansion valve seat and cut D. Expansion valve 112. A thermostat is a
the flow of refrigerant A. Temperature-operated switch
B. Clog the oil trap Answer: C B. Pressure-operated switch
C. Freeze in the king (liquid) valve C. Superheat-operated switch
D. Emulsify the oil in the compressor 107. The purpose of the receiver is to: D. Back-pressure-operated switch
A. Cool the refrigerant gas
Answer: A B. Separate the oil from the refrigerant Answer: A
C. Store the refrigerant
102. The function of the expansion valve is to: D. Condense the refrigerant 113. The thermal expansion valve responds to the
A. Regulate the amount of liquid refrigerant to A. Amount of superheat in the vapor
the expansion coils Answer: C B. Amount of superheat in the liquid
B. Change the gas refrigerant to a liquid C. Temperature in the evaporator coils
C. Shut off the flow of refrigerant to the 108. The solenoid valve controls the D. Pressure in the evaporator coils
condenser A. Amount of refrigerant entering the evaporator
D. Change the high-pressure liquid to a coils Answer: A
low-pressure liquid B. Amount of refrigerant going to the expansion
valve 114. The expansion valve on a Freon system controls
Answer: A C. Amount of refrigerant going to the the
compressor A. Superheat of the gas leaving the compressor
103. When heavy electrical currents are involved, the D. Pressure of the refrigerant going to the B. Back pressure in the evaporator
thermostat will be operated by a: evaporator coils C. Temperature of the icebox
A. Pressure pipe D. Superheat of the gas leaving the evaporator
B. Fusetron Answer: B
C. Relay Answer: D
115. The purpose of the expansion valve by-pass is to: D. The discharge pressure is not too high C. + 22 ̊C
A. Increase the efficiency of the plant D. - 22 ̊C
B. Increase the capacity of the evaporator Answer: B
C. Control the refrigerant to the evaporator in Answer: B
case the automatic valves fail 121. To help a person who had been overexposed to
D. Bypass the compressor ammonia gas, one would: 127. The boiling point of 𝐶𝑂2 at atmospheric pressure
A. Apply cold compresses is
Answer: C B. Apply artificial respiration A. – 110 ̊F
C. Douse with cold water B. + 110 ̊F
116. The thermal expansion valve D. Wrap in warm blankets C. + 110 ̊C
A. Controls the amount of gas coming from the D. – 110 ̊ C
dehydrator Answer: B
B. Controls the quantity of liquid refrigerant Answer: A
going to the evaporator coils 122. Ammonia will corrode
C. Controls the amount of gas going to the A. Brass 128. The boiling point of 𝑁𝐻3 at atmospheric pressure
receiver B. Copper
C. Bronze is
D. Removes trapped oil from the refrigerant
D. All of the above A. + 28 ̊C
Answer: B B. + 28 ̊ F
Answer: D C. - 28 ̊ C
117. The function of the compressor is to D. - 28 ̊ F
A. Pull the refrigerant gas through the system 123. A refrigerating unit of one (1) ton capacity can
B. Increase the pressure of the refrigerant remove: Answer: D
C. Discharge the refrigerant to the condenser A. 100 Btu’s per min.
B. 288 Btu’s per min. 129. Which of the following would you apply if a person
D. All of the above
C. 200 Btu’s per min. got Freon in his eyes?
Answer: D D. 500 Btu’s per min. A. Clean water
B. Soapy water
118. The solenoid valve is controlled by Answer: C C. Sodium bicarbonate
A. The amount of liquid in the system D. Sterile mineral oil
B. The amount of gas in the system 124. The refrigerant with the lowest boiling point is
C. The temperature in the condenser A. 𝑁𝐻3 Answer: D
D. The temperature in the icebox B. 𝐹12 130. A double-seated valve allows the valve to be
Answer: D C. 𝐶𝑂2 A. Packed only in the closed position
D. 𝐹22 B. Packed in the wide open or closed position
119. Oil is added to a Freon compressor by C. Operated as a suction or discharge valve
A. Shutting down the machine and pouring in D. Removed for replacement without shutting
Answer: C down
through the crankcase inspection plate
opening 125. A ton of refrigeration is equal to the removal of
B. Pumping in with an electric-driven pump Answer: B
A. 288,000 Btu per 24 hrs.
C. Pumping in with a hand pump B. 28,800 Btu per 24 hrs. 131. The amount of 𝐶𝑂2 or Freon in a cylinder is
D. Pouring through oil hole in base C. 28,000 Btu per 24 hrs.
D. 280,000 Btu per 24 hrs. measured by
Answer: C A. Pressure
Answer: A B. Weight
120. When adding oil to a Freon system, one must be C. Volume
sure that 126. The boiling point of Freon-12 at atmospheric D. Psi
A. The condenser is shut down pressure is:
B. All air is removed from the pump and fitting A. + 22 ̊F Answer: B
C. There is not too high a suction pressure B. - 22 ̊F
132. The latent heat of fusion of ice is: A. Vegetable oil 143. What is the combination of a wet and dry bulb
A. 500 Btu B. Straight mineral oil thermometer is called a
B. 188 Btu C. Lube oil SAE 20 A. Hygrometer
C. 144 Btu D. Lube oil SAE 10 B. Psychrometer
D. 970 Btu C. Hydrometer
Answer: B D. A or B
Answer: C
139. One disadvantage of a 𝐶𝑂2 system is the fact that Answer: D
133. Latent heat A. It is difficult to condense the refrigerant if the
A. Can be measured with a pyrometer circulating water temperature is too high. 144. A pressure controller is usually operated by the
B. Cannot be measured with a thermometer B. It takes more refrigerant to keep the iceboxes movement of a
C. Changes as the refrigerant cools cold A. Bellows
D. Can be measured with a thermometer C. Due to high pressure it is difficult to keep oil B. Siphon
from mixing with the refrigerant C. Diaphragm
Answer: B D. A or C
D. It is difficult to condense the refrigerant if the
circulating water temperature is too low
134. Absolute zero is: Answer: D
A. 144 ̊ below zero on the Fahrenheit scale
Answer: A
B. The same as zero on the Fahrenheit scale 145. The critical temperature of a refrigerant is:
C. 970 ̊ below zero on the Fahrenheit scale 140. The disadvantage of 𝐶𝑂2 system over an ammonia A. The temperature at which it will freeze
D. 460 ̊ below zero on the Fahrenheit scale B. The temperature above which it cannot be
system is the fact that __________ liquefied
Answer: D A. The pipes and fittings of a 𝐶𝑂2 system must C. The temperature below which it cannot be
be of high pressure type liquefied
135. A ton of refrigeration is equal to the cooling effect B. The 𝐶𝑂2 system operates at a much higher D. None of the above
of
pressure
A. 2,000 lbs. of ice melting in 24 hrs. Answer: B
C. The 𝐶𝑂2 system requires a larger prime
B. 2,000 lbs. of water being converted to ice
C. 2,000 lbs. of ice melting in 12 hrs. mover 146. If the critical temperature of a refrigerant is too
D. 2,240 lbs. of ice melting in 24 hrs. D. All of the above close to the desired condensing temperature, the
equipment must necessarily be of:
Answer: A Answer: D A. Extra heavy construction
B. The direct expansion type
136. Which of the following best described a Freon? 141. A good refrigerant should be: C. Light construction
A. Odorless A. Non-inflammable D. The indirect expansion type
B. Non-poisonous B. Non-poisonous
C. Colorless C. Non-explosive Answer: A
D. All of the above D. All of the above
147. A good refrigerant should have a
Answer: D Answer: D A. High sensible heat
B. Low sensible heat
137. What is another name of discharge pressure? 142. What tonnage of refrigerating machine is required C. High latent heat
A. Absolute pressure if the refrigerating system extracted 48,000Btu per D. Latent heat
B. Head pressure hour?
C. Suction pressure A. 2 tons Answer: C
D. Condenser pressure B. 5 tons
C. 4 tons 148. Which of the following is the most common
Answer: B D. 3 tons method of heat flow in refrigeration?
A. Conduction
138. Which of the following is the oil used in a Answer: C B. Expulsion
refrigeration system? C. Radiation
 D. Convection B. 10 ̊ to 20 F
̊ 160. Excessive head pressure is caused by:
C. 40 ̊ to 50 F ̊ A. Air or noncondensable gas in the system
Answer: D D. 15 ̊ to 30 F ̊ B. Dirty condenser tubes
C. Insufficient cooling water to condenser
149. From which of the following processes where the Answer: A D. Any of the above
largest quantities of heat are available?
A. Vaporization 155. The temperature in the dairy box should be Answer: D
B. Melting approximately
C. Fusion A. 20 ̊ to 30 ̊ F 161. The capacity of a centrifugal type compressor
D. Cooling B. 0 ̊ to 10 ̊ F controlled by which of the following?
C. 10 ̊ to 20 ̊ F A. Regulating the discharge pressure
Answer: A D. 30 ̊ to 40 ̊ F B. Regulating the speed
C. Regulating the suction pressure
150. What is the most common Freon gas used in Answer: D D. B or C
centrifugal compressors?
A. F – 12 156. Which of the following can be the cause of low Answer: D
B. F – 11 head pressure?
C. F – 22 A. Too much or too cold condensing water 162. Where is solenoid coil installed?
D. F – 21 B. Leaky discharge valves A. Vertically above the valve
C. Insufficient charge of refrigerant B. Horizontally above the valve
Answer: B D. Any of the above C. Vertically below the valve
D. Horizontally below the valve
151. What is the most common Freon gas used in Answer: D
reciprocating compressors? Answer: A
A. F – 12 157. If thermostatic expansion valve did not appear to
B. F – 11 be functioning properly, the cause could be: 163. What is the condition of the compressor when
C. F – 22 A. Foreign matter in the valve purging a refrigeration system?
D. F – 21 B. Ruptured control bulb tubing A. The compressor is running
C. Moisture in the system B. Compressor is running but the condenser is
Answer: A D. Any of the above secured
C. Shut down
152. What is the other name of hygrometer? Answer: D D. Running with the bypass open
A. Hydrometer
B. Manometer 158. Which of the following is used in measuring the Answer: C
C. Psychometer density of a brine solution?
D. A or C A. Litmus paper 164. What must be done first when opening a single
B. A chemical test packed stop valve?
Answer: C C. A hydrometer A. Loosen the packing before opening
D. A or B B. Tighten packing before opening
153. The temperature in the meat and fish box should C. Check to see that the seal is not scored
be approximately Answer: C D. None of the above
A. 10 ̊ to 20 ̊F
B. - 10 ̊ to 0 ̊F 159. Which of the following would not be cause for a Answer: A
C. 0 ̊ to -10 ̊F refrigerating system to short cycle on HP cutout?
D. - 10 ̊ to 10 ̊F A. Discharge valve leaking 165. Excessive head pressure is caused by:
B. Pressure cutout set incorrectly A. Flooded condenser tubes
Answer: A C. System overcharge with refrigerant B. Too much cooling water to condenser
D. Insufficient cooling water C. Cooling water temperature too high
154. The temperature in the vegetable box should be D. A or C
approximately: Answer: A
A. 35 ̊ to 45 ̊F Answer: D
166. Everything is in its normal operating position when Answer: A C. The presence of liquid in the condenser
charging a system except the ________. causing excessive noise
A. Compressor discharge valve 172. What do you call the storage tank for liquid D. The pounding of liquid refrigerant in the
B. Purge valve refrigerant? suction line at a point of restriction
C. Solenoid valve A. Receiver tank
D. King (receiver discharge) valve B. Charging tank Answer: A
C. Purging
Answer: D D. Any of the above 178. All refrigerator compressor valves are opened and
close by __________.
167. How often the condenser must be cleaned? Answer: A A. A cam shaft
A. Once a year B. Springs
B. Every month 173. A precooler is sometimes installed between the C. Manual
C. When pressure goes above normal ___________. D. B or C
D. Every 6 months A. Compressor and condenser
B. Condenser and expansion valve Answer: B
Answer: D C. Expansion valve and evaporator
D. Evaporator and compressor 179. Which of the following is also known as the
168. Which do you think is the cause of a hot suction “hidden heat” in refrigeration work?
line of a refrigerating compressor? Answer: B A. Sensible heat
A. Lack of refrigerant B. Heat intensity
B. Insufficient condensing cooling water 174. The solenoid valve controls which of the following? C. Latent heat
C. Excess refrigeration A. Pressure in the evaporator coils D. A or C
D. B or C B. Amount of refrigerant entering the evaporator
C. Flow of refrigerant to the expansion valve Answer: C
Answer: A D. Amount of circulating water to the condenser
180. A bull’s eye in a full liquid line will appear
169. Which of the following vital components of the Answer: C ________.
refrigeration system where both temperature and A. Cloudy
pressure are increased? 175. Closing the solenoid valve will stop the B. Clear
A. Compressor compressor through the _________. C. Latent
B. Condenser A. Low water-pressure cutout switch D. A or C
C. Evaporator B. Bypass relief valve
D. A and C C. Low-pressure cutout switch Answer: B
D. High-pressure cutout switch
Answer: A 181. A compressor capacity reduction device reduces
Answer: C compressor capacity ___________.
170. The refrigerant temperature is at its maximum just A. By reducing the compressor speed
before it enters the ____________. 176. What are the four basic methods of determining B. By bypassing hot gas
A. Expansion valve whether the proper amount of refrigerant is being C. As the refrigerant load dictates
B. Compressor added to the system? D. By reducing compressor horsepower
C. Condenser A. Bull’s-eye, weight, pressure and frost line proportionately
D. Evaporator B. Temperature, weight, pressure and frost line
C. Bull’s-eye, weight, pressure and dip stick Answer: C
Answer: C D. Bull’s-eye, weight, litmus test and frost line
182. If a Freon -12 compressor trip out on “cut-out”, the
171. The greatest decrease in refrigerant temperature Answer: A solenoid valve closes by which of the following?
occurs in the __________. A. An electrical release
A. Evaporator 177. What is the cause of liquid “slugging”? B. Temperature and spring control
B. Compressor A. Liquid in the compressor clearance space C. Pressure and bellows control
C. Condenser B. Excessive liquid refrigerant in the receiver D. Bellows control
D. A or C
 Answer: A C. Prevent oil from missing with gas 194. The temperature bulb of a solenoid valve is
D. All of the above attached to the ____________.
183. The thickness of the head gasket is important A. Icebox coil
because it may cause __________. Answer: D B. Wall of the icebox
A. Re-expansion C. Evaporator coil inlet
B. Decreased efficiency due to increased 189. How do you call the process of changing a solid to D. Evaporator coil outlet
clearance a liquid?
C. The piston to strike the head A. Evaporation Answer: B
D. All of the above B. Vaporization
C. Fusion 195. What usually happens if the specific gravity of the
Answer: D D. Condensation brine is too low?
A. The brine will freeze
184. If the expansion valve capillary tube is pinched, Answer: C B. Solids will deposit
which of the following must be replaced? C. It will be more heat-absorbing
A. Tube 190. If there is too much lube oil in the system, what D. All of the above
B. Diaphragm must be done?
C. Bulb A. Remove same at once Answer: A
D. All of the above (called the power element B. Wait until next overhaul to remove
unit) C. Wait until next recharging to remove 196. The cooling water regulator is automatically
D. Any of the above actuated by which of the following?
Answer: D A. The discharge pressure of the refrigerant
Answer: A B. The temperature of the refrigerant
185. When removing reusable refrigerant from a C. An electric relay
system, the line to the storage drum must 191. The temperature bulb of the thermo-expansion D. A thermo relay
A. Be made of copper valve is attached to which of the following?
B. Have no bends in it A. Icebox coil Answer: A
C. Contain a strainer-dryer B. Evaporator coil outlet
D. Be above the level of compressor C. Evaporator coil inlet 197. What will happen to the capacity if the superheat is
D. Wall of the icebox increased on the suction side?
Answer: C A. Increases
Answer: B B. Decreases
186. Which of the following must be considered when C. Remains the same
adding or removing oil from a refrigerator unit? 192. What is the use of the suction pressure regulating D. Will double
A. Use new oil valve?
B. Do not overcharge A. Cuts in the compressor Answer: B
C. Watch crankcase pressure B. Maintains the back pressure in the
D. All of the above evaporator coils 198. Which do you think is very important in adjusting
C. Cuts out the compressor compressor “V” belts?
Answer: D D. Controls the expansion valve A. Allow about ½” slack
B. Make it as tight as possible
187. Where is the excess refrigerant removed? Answer: B C. Make belt just tight enough to turn pulley
A. Suction side of the system D. Keep belts parallel
B. Discharge side of the system 193. How is a one-ton plant described?
C. Bypass A. Remove one ton of heat from the reefer box Answer: A
D. Charging side of the system B. Melt one ton of ice in 24 hours
C. Make one ton of ice in 24 hours 199. Which of the following is important for evaporator
Answer: D D. Remove the heat required to melt one ton of coils?
ice in 24 hours A. It must be placed in the top of the
188. A double trunk piston is used to _________. compartment
A. Absorb side thrust Answer: D B. It must be secured to the sides
B. Seal off gas from crankcase
 C. It should have air completely surrounding B. Low head pressure – high suction pressure 210. Which of the following type valves are not found
them C. Gradual or sudden decrease in capacity on a Freon -12 system?
D. It must be placed in front of circulating fans D. Any of the above A. Bellows
B. Duplex
Answer: C Answer: D C. Diaphragm
D. Single packed
200. If there were a 15 ̊F to 20 ̊F temperature 205. What is the probable cause if a compressor runs
differential between the temperature continuously? Answer: B
corresponding to the pressure at the compressor A. A clogged condenser
discharge and the temperature at the condenser B. Insufficient refrigerant 211. How much will be removed by one-ton
outlet, it would probably indicate the need for C. Faulty cooling water valve refrigeration unit?
_____________. D. Any of the above A. 200 Btu per min.
A. More refrigerant B. 144 Btu per min.
B. Purging the system Answer: D C. 400 Btu per min.
C. More circulating water D. 2000 Btu per min.
D. Less circulating water 206. To test a thermostatic valve, immerse the bulb in:
A. Crushed ice Answer: A
Answer: B B. Hot water
C. Oil 212. Which of the following is the primary purpose of
201. Which of the following is the most appropriate D. None of the above the evaporator?
definition of Latent heat? A. Transmit latent heat of fusion
A. Heat removed to melt ice Answer: A B. Transmit latent heat of evaporation
B. Heat removed to change temperature of a C. Absorb latent heat of fusion
substance 207. If a compartment requires the removal of 36,000 D. Absorb latent heat of evaporation
C. Heat added to change temperature of a Btu per hour, how much is the necessary
substance compressor capacity? Answer: D
D. Heat added to change the state of substance A. 6 tons
B. 3 tons 213. An automatically controlled Freon -12 compressor
Answer: D C. 2 tons will start when the __________.
D. 1 ton A. Expansion valve opens
202. If the compressor discharge becomes frosted, the B. Solenoid valve opens
probable cause would be __________. Answer: B C. Expansion valve closes
A. Refrigerant flooding back D. Solenoid valve closes
B. Expansion valve improperly set 208. Which of the following must be done to eliminate
C. Too much cooling water frost on the discharge pipe of the compressor? Answer: B
D. Insufficient cooling water A. Open the expansion valve
B. Regulate water to the condenser 214. A single trunk piston-type compressor is
Answer: A C. Crack bypass valve undesirable for a Freon unit because the:
D. None of the above A. Lubricant mixes with the refrigerant
203. The low-pressure control switch: B. Refrigerant reduces the crankcase pressure
A. Is a safety device Answer: D C. Lubricant temperature becomes excessive
B. Actuates the cooling water D. Refrigerant becomes superheated
C. Cuts out the compressor to maintain proper 209. The following are standard characteristics of Freon
flow -11 except: Answer: A
D. Regulates the King valve A. Non-toxic
B. Separates from water 215. Calcium chloride is sometimes used in
Answer: C C. Boiling point over 200 ̊F refrigeration system as a:
D. Very volatile A. Refrigerant
204. Which of the following is an indications of faulty B. Lubricant
Freon compressor valves? Answer: C C. Primary coolant
A. Compressor runs continuously D. Secondary coolant
 Answer: D D. 10 Btu C. 0 ̊
D. -100 ̊
216. When the outlet temperature of the evaporator Answer: D
exceeds the inlet temperature the condition is Answer: B
called ___________. 222. Superheat is heat added _________.
A. Boiling A. In changing liquid to vapor 228. A quick method of detecting a leaky condenser on
B. Superheating B. After all liquid has been changed to vapor a Freon system would be to __________.
C. Melting C. To increase pressure A. Compare temperatures and pressures
D. Freezing D. To increase temperature B. Test circulating water with proper chemicals
C. Open vent on head and test with halide torch
Answer: B Answer: B D. Use soapsuds on condenser outlet fittings

217. Which of the following refrigerants would give the 223. The expansion valve does not seem to be Answer: C
most trouble when operating with warm circulating operating properly. There is high superheat. Test
water? by listening to the sound of Freon flooding through 229. Which of the following is not a characteristic of
A. Freon -12 the tubes and _____________. Freon -12?
B. 𝐶𝑂2 A. Warm bulb with hand A. Corrosive
B. Place bulb in cold water B. Non-inflammable
C. Ammonia
C. Place bulb in hot water C. Odorless
D. Ethyl chloride
D. Any of the above D. Boiling point -21 ̊F
Answer: B
Answer: A Answer: A
218. As Freon leaves the expansion valve:
224. What do you call a material in a dryer? 230. In the discharge line between the compressor and
A. Pressure increases – volume increases
A. Drain the condenser one would find:
B. Pressure decreases – volume increases
B. Dryer A. High pressure, high temperature gas
C. Pressure decreases – volume decreases
C. Desiccant B. High pressure, low temperature liquid
D. Pressure increases – volume decreases
D. A or C C. High temperature, high pressure liquid
Answer: B D. High pressure, low temperature gas
Answer: C
219. The suction pressure switch is actuated by: Answer: A
225. What is the main function of a receiver?
A. Pressure on a bellows
A. Separate the oil from the refrigerant 231. For a low speed compressor the belt drive is
B. Temperature on a bellows
B. Cool the hot gases preferred to the direct drive because it:
C. A thermo-pressure regulator
C. Store the refrigerant A. Eliminates the use of mineral lubricating oils
D. A thermostatic temperature device
D. Condense the refrigerant B. Permits the use of a smaller high-speed
Answer: A motor
Answer: C C. Absorbs torsional vibration
220. A thermometer senses which of the following? D. Reduces the number of automatic controls
226. During the re-expansion portion of the refrigeration
A. Latent heat
compressor cycle Answer: B
B. Sensible heat
A. The suction valve is open
C. Heat of fusion
B. The suction valve is closed 232. Refrigerant leakage from the compressor
D. Specific heat
C. The discharge valve is closed crankcase is prevented by
Answer: B D. B and C A. Using skirt type pistons
B. Maintaining a vacuum in the crankcase
221. Five pounds of water heated to raise the Answer: D C. Using shaft seals
temperature 2 ̊F requires how many Btu? D. Using lantern rings
227. Absolute zero on the Fahrenheit scale is equal to:
A. 20 Btu
A. -273 ̊ Answer: C
B. 5 Btu
B. -460 ̊
C. 2 Btu
233. The heat used to change a liquid to a gas or vapor C. Pressure and temperature B. A secondary coolant is pumped through the
is called latent heat of D. Size and tonnage evaporator coils
A. Absorption C. The refrigerant passes through coils in the
B. Vaporization Answer: B evaporator
C. Fusion D. Any of the above
D. Liquid 239. A hot crankcase and cylinder head accompanied
by a low suction pressure would be caused by Answer: C
Answer: B A. Excess refrigerant
B. Insufficient refrigerant 245. A “CARRENE” is a type of
234. What is the compression ratio of a refrigerator C. Air in the system A. Refrigerant oil
compressor? D. Stuck discharge valve B. Refrigerant
A. The ratio of the absolute suction pressure to C. Scale cleaner
the absolute discharge pressure Answer: B D. None of the above
B. The ratio of the absolute discharge pressure
to the absolute suction pressure 240. Which of the following characteristics that is not Answer: B
C. The ratio of the excessive liquid refrigerant in desirable in a refrigerant?
the receiver to that in the system A. Low latent heat fusion 246. What is the first step that must be done when
D. None of the above B. High latent heat of vaporization securing a system?
C. Low latent heat of vaporization A. Open bypass valve
Answer: B D. A and C B. Close receiver (King) valve
C. Open solenoid valve
235. The thermostatic expansion valve is designed to Answer: C D. Cut out compressor on high pressure
maintain a constant _________.
A. Superheat 241. The principle of the centrifugal system is based on Answer: B
B. Flow which of the following?
C. Pressure A. Kinetic energy 247. When securing a Freon-12 system for repairs
D. Temperature B. Potential energy A. Open the line at 1 to 2 pounds pressure
C. Lenz’s law B. Open the line at 5 to 10 pounds pressure
Answer: A D. Boyle’s law C. Pump down to a slight vacuum
D. Pump down to 10 ̊ vacuum
236. A refrigerant gives up heat when it Answer: A
A. Vaporizes Answer: A
B. Evaporates 242. The temperature in the vegetable box should be
C. Condenses approximately 248. The most common reason for the small usage of
D. Boils A. -5 ̊F 𝐶𝑂2 system is:
B. 20 ̊F A. It is too dangerous
Answer: C C. 38 ̊F B. Its upkeep is too high
D. 10 ̊F C. The machinery is too heavy
237. The cooling component of a refrigeration cycle is D. It is too costly
called _________. Answer: C
A. A receiver Answer: C
B. An evaporator 243. The compressor will run continuously if there is
C. A condenser A. Insufficient refrigerant 249. To increase heat transfer in the evaporator
D. A desiccant B. Air in the system A. Increase suction pressure
C. Too heavy a load B. Increase air circulation
Answer: B D. Any of the above C. Defrost coils
D. B and C
238. When ordering an expansion valve which of the Answer: D
following information is necessary? Answer: D
A. Size and pressure 244. A “direct” refrigeration system is one in which:
B. Size, tonnage, temperature and pressure A. Ice is used for cooling
250. When the compressor is operated in short spurts Answer: B C. Circulating water too warm
after a lay-up or overhaul the purpose is to: D. Liquid freezing back
A. Allow refrigerant time to circulate 256. The greatest decrease in the temperature of the
B. Determine actual compressor oil level refrigerant is at the _________ Answer: D
C. Effect gradual cooling A. Condenser
D. None of the above B. Expansion valve 262. A “cold diffuser” is a:
C. Evaporator A. Type of condenser
Answer: D D. Receiver B. Special valve used as a bypass
C. Type of evaporator
251. Which of the following types of valve are not used Answer: C D. None of the above
for suction or discharge?
A. Gate 257. The temperature of the refrigerant is highest just Answer: C
B. Diaphragm before it enters the:
C. Metallic A. Receiver 263. Which do you think is the effect of “subcooling”?
D. Ring B. Evaporator A. It causes flooding back to the compressor
C. Condenser B. It reduces the horsepower per ton of
Answer: A D. King valve refrigeration
C. It increases the compression ratio
252. What usually happened if brine has a high specific Answer: C D. It increases the horsepower per ton of
gravity? refrigeration
A. It will freeze 258. A hot suction line could be caused by:
B. It will crystalize A. Insufficient refrigerant Answer: B
C. Nothing will happen B. Excess refrigerant
D. It will solidify C. Excess cooling water 264. Subcooling is to:
D. Insufficient cooling water A. Cool the evaporator below its normal
Answer: B temperature
Answer: A B. Cool the liquid before it enters the evaporator
253. When does the refrigerant gives-up heat? C. Cool a liquid at constant pressure to a
A. When it evaporates 259. Which of the following devices will prevent the temperature lower than its considering
B. When it condenses relief valve from opening in the event of excessive temperature
C. When it vaporizes pressure? D. Cool the refrigerant gas before it enters the
D. When it boils A. Water failure switch receiver
B. High-pressure cutout switch
Answer: B C. Low-pressure cutout switch Answer: C
D. Any of the above
254. The thermostatic expansion valve is designed to 265. When figuring compression ratio, the ratio will
maintain constant_____________ Answer: B increase with a ______________
A. Pressure A. Lower suction pressure
B. Flow 260. Which of the following would cause the suction B. Higher suction pressure
C. Temperature switch to remain open? C. Higher discharge pressure
D. Superheat A. Insufficient spring tension D. A and C
B. Too much spring tension
Answer: D C. Bellows broken or jammed Answer: D
D. A or B
255. A reactor plate is essential to the operation of a 266. Copper tubing is used in Freon system because:
___________. Answer: C A. It has less internal resistance
A. Thermostatic valve B. It is cheaper
B. Halide torch 261. Which of the following would not cause high head C. It is easier to check leaks
C. Solenoid bulb pressure? D. Iron corrodes
D. None of the above A. Air in system
B. Overcharge of refrigerant Answer: A
267. The cooling water regulator is actuated by: B. Head pressure too high A. Superheat temperature
A. An electric relay C. Refrigerating compartment too cold B. Saturation temperature
B. Pressure of the refrigerant D. Air in system C. Back pressure
C. Temperature of the refrigerant D. Vacuum
D. None of the above Answer: A
Answer: B
Answer: B 273. Subcooling of the refrigerant results in:
A. Less circulating water needed 279. Moisture in a system will cause a:
268. If there is a 20 ̊F temperature drop between the B. Effect of refrigerant increased A. Faulty expansion valve
temperature corresponding to the pressure at the C. Liquid less likely to vaporize B. High suction pressure
compressor discharge and the condenser outlet, D. B and C C. High suction temperature
one should: D. Low discharge temperature
A. Decrease the amount of circulating water Answer: D
B. Increase the amount of circulating water Answer: A
C. Purge the system 274. Which of the following is the reason when the
D. None of the above crankcase is cooler than the suction line? 280. Which of the following is not essential to a
A. Too much refrigerant centrifugal type of compressor system?
Answer: C B. Insufficient refrigerant A. Evaporator
C. Expansion valve open too wide B. Distiller
269. If refrigeration controls were constructed with little D. Suction valve leaking C. Condenser
or no differential, the: D. Expansion valve
A. Compressor would short cycle Answer: A
B. Icebox would get too cold Answer: B
C. Icebox would get too warm 275. If the outlet of the thermostatic valve is warmer
D. Refrigerant would be subcooled than the inlet, it indicates: 281. A scale trap in a Freon system will be found on the
A. Flooding back :
Answer: A B. Thermostatic valve working properly A. Receiver
C. Thermostatic valve not working properly B. Discharge side
270. What is the use of back pressure regulating valve? D. Solenoid valve not working properly C. Suction side
A. Controls the evaporator temperature by D. Condenser
throttling the flow of liquid refrigerant Answer: C
B. Maintains a fixed pressure in the evaporator Answer: C
coils 276. High temperature of cylinder heads and crankcase
C. Controls the flow of circulating water in the is caused by: 282. Which of the following would cause expansion
condenser tubes A. Insufficient refrigerant valve failure?
D. Controls the temperature in the evaporator B. Too much refrigerant A. Dirt in the valve
coils C. High head pressure B. Moisture in the system
D. Noncondensable gases C. Bulb in icebox ruptured
Answer: B D. Any of the above
Answer: A
271. If the thermal bulb becomes loose on the Answer: D
evaporator coils, it will cause____________ 277. Frost on the high- pressure side of a thermostatic
A. An electrical short expansion valve would probably be caused by 283. Two compressor should not be run in parallel
B. Flooding back of the refrigerant A. High head pressure because:
C. Improper operation of expansion valve B. Dirty expansion valve A. There is a possibility of losing oil
D. Any of the above C. Refrigerator box too cold B. It will give over-capacity
D. Loss of circulating water to condenser C. It is not efficient
Answer: C D. A or B
Answer: B
272. External frost on inlet of expansion valve indicates: Answer: A
A. Expansion valve plugged or dirty 278. A Freon-12 gage shows pressure and _______
284. The process that takes place in the evaporator is
called:
A. Transfer of the latent heat of vaporization
B. Absorption of the latent heat of vaporization
C. Absorption of the latent heat of fusion
D. Transfer of the latent heat of fusion
Answer: B
285. What is the use of the low-water cutout switch?
A. Recirculates the cooling water when there is
too much refrigerant in the condenser
B. Stops the compressor when there is no
refrigerant running to the evaporator
C. Stops the flow of refrigerant when the
condenser temperature is too low
D. Stops the compressor when there is
insufficient cooling water
Answer: D
286. The high-pressure cutout switch:
A. Stops the flow of refrigerant when the
condenser temperature is too high
B. Recirculates the refrigerant through the
compressor under emergency conditions
C. Stops flow of water to condenser when there
is no refrigerant passing through
D. Stops compressor when head pressure is too
high
Answer: D
289. What is the effect if the refrigerant is removed from the 295. With one machine serving several compartments, with
system too fast? one compartment reaches the desired temperature in that
A. It may flood the evaporator compartment is maintained by:
B. It may “freeze-up” the condenser A. the expansion valve
C. It will lower the icebox temperature B. the solenoid valve
D. None of the above C. the back-pressure valve
D. any of the above
Answer: B
Answer: B
290. Closing the solenoid valve stops the compressor
through the: 296. The back-pressure regulating valve:
A. high-pressure cutout switch A. controls the water flow through the condenser
B. low water-pressure cutout switch B. stops the flow of liquid refrigerant when temperature drops
C. low-pressure cutout switch in evaporator
D. high water-pressure cutout switch C. maintains a fixed pressure in the evaporator coils
D. none of the above
Answer: C
Answer: C
291. A precooler, if used, is located between the:
A. expansion valve and evaporator 297. Faulty F-12 compressor valves will be indicated by:
B. compressor and condenser A. low head pressure-high suction pressure
C. evaporator and compressor B. compressor running continuously
D. condenser and expansion valve C. gradual or sudden decrease in capacity
D. all of the above
Answer: D
Answer: D
292. When the outlet temperature at the evaporator exceeds
the inlet temperature, the condition is known as: 298. How were tubing joints done?
A. superheating A. brazed
B. desuperheating B. welded
C. dehydrating C. screwed
D. saturating D. silver soldered

287. Zinc rods are found in this: Answer: A Answer: D

A. Gas side of the condenser
B. Salt water side of the condenser 299. When starting a refrigerating unit, be sure the water
C. Evaporator area 293. The purpose of providing hot-gas defrosting facilities: side of the condenser is _____.
D. Compressor crankcase A. defrosting without raising compartment temperature A. secured
above 32 ℉ B. bypassed
Answer: B B. thawing frozen coils C. vented
C. defrosting automatically D. B and C
288. Which of the following is not essential to a D. B or C
compression refrigeration system?
Answer: C
A. A receiver Answer: A
B. A condenser 294. The suction control switch on the compressor is a 300. The water regulating valve is operated by the
C. An evaporator A. thermal element A. compressor discharged pressure
D. A dehydrator B. thermostat B. compressor discharged temperature
C. pressure element C. compressor suction pressure
Answer: A D. bellows D. none of the above

Answer: C Answer: D
 Answer: D Answer: B
301. High superheat of the vapor in the steam would cause
A. an increase in capacity 307. In a Freon-11 system there is no 313. Which of the following will cause an automatically
B. a more efficient unit A. receiver controlled F-12 compressor to start?
C. a decrease in capacity B. distiller A. closing the expansion valve
D. A and B C. condenser B. opening the expansion valve
D. evaporator C. closing the solenoid valve
Answer: C D. opening the solenoid valve
Answer: B
302. The solenoid valve is actuated by which of the Answer: D
following? 308. The suction pressure control valve is actuated by which
A. a bellows of the following? 314. Where is the solenoid coil installed?
B. a magnet A. thermostat A. horizontally over the valve
C. a spring B. bellows B. vertically over the valve
D. any of the above C. thermal element C. vertically below the valve
D. pressure diaphragm D. horizontally below the valve
Answer: B
Answer: D Answer: B
303. Which of the following stops the compressor before the 309. Which of the following would cause the crankcase and
relief valve opens? head to get hot with low suction pressure? 315. The “refrigeration effect” of a refrigerant is:
A. low water-pressure cutout A. excess refrigeration A. quantity of heat that 1 pound of refrigerant absorbs while
B. high-pressure cutout B. air in system flowing through the evaporator under given condition
C. low oil-pressure cutout C. insufficient refrigeration B. amount of heat it can remove in a given time
D. low-pressure cutout D. insufficient cooling water C. quantity of heat that 1 pound of refrigerant absorbs
Answer: B D. A or B
304. What is the effect if the thermal bulb is loose on the Answer: C
evaporator coils? Answer: A
A. improper operation of expansion valve 310. Which of the following is the function of a suction
B. flooding back of refrigerant pressure regulating valve? 316. The “refrigerant effect” of a refrigerant is always:
C. vibration causing leaks A. cuts out the compressor A. more than its latent heat
D. improper operation of solenoid valve B. controls the expansion valve B. more than its sensible heat
C. cuts in the compressor C. less than its sensible heat
Answer: A D. maintains the proper back pressure D. less than its latent heat

305. If the superheat on the suction side of the compressor Answer: D Answer: D
is increased, what will happen to the tonnage capacity of the
unit? 311. Which of the following is the cause if the outlet of a 317. What will happen if the expansion valve is opened too
A. increases thermostat valve is warmer than the inlet inside? wide?
B. decreases A. valve is working properly A. liquid will flow back to the compressor
C. no change B. valve is not working properly B. it will make no difference, as the automatic expansion
D. none of the above C. solenoid valve is not working properly valve is still operating
D. none of the above C. the condenser coils will overheat
Answer: B D. A or C
Answer: B
306. What do you usually do to correct slugging and flooding Answer: A
back? 312. How is a thermostatic valve tested?
A. change the discharged pressure A. immersing its bulb in warm water 318. Which of the following should not be used to clean
B. clean the traps B. immersing its bulb in ice water scale tarps?
C. removes some refrigerant C. holding its bulb in one’s hand A. compressed air
D. check the expansion valve D. shorting out the cutout switch B. cotton waste
C. kerosene
D. diesel oil A. driers B. more than 1
B. evaporators C. equal to 1
Answer: B C. dehumidifies D. depends upon the make of it
319. If one of the ship’s service boxes suddenly stops D. coolers
cooling, the most likely cause would be the malfunction of Answer: B
the: Answer: A
A. discharge valve 331. Horsepower per ton of refrigeration is expressed as:
B. king valve 325. Which of the following refrigerants has lowest freezing A. 4.75/COP
C. solenoid valve point temperature? B. 4.75 x COP
D. expansion valve A. Freon 12 C. COP/4.75
B. Ammonia D. 4.75/COP
Answer: C C. Freon 22
D. Freon 11 Answer: C
320. Which of the following items is not important when
using a halide torch? Answer: C 332. The highest temperature in vapor compression cycle is
A. move flame slowly around joints produced during:
B. hold flame close to the joints 326. During compression in a vapor compression cycle when A. expansion valve
C. adjust to a clear white flame the refrigerant is super-heated, what happens to the B. evaporator
D. adjust to a clear blue flame performance? C. condenser discharged
A. C.O.P. is reduced D. compressor discharged
Answer: C. B. C.O.P. remains unchanged
C. work done is increased Answer: D
321. A system should be purged when the liquid outlet D. refrigerating effect is reduced
temperature from the condenser is more than the 333. Which type of compressor is used in refrigeration
temperature corresponding to the discharge pressure: Answer: A system?
A. 10 ℉ above A. reciprocating
B. 20 ℉ below 327. A Bell-Coleman Cycle is also known as _____. B. centrifugal
C. 20 ℉ above A. reversed Otto cycle C. rotary sliding vane
D. 5 ℉ below B. reversed Joule cycle D. all of the above
C. reversed Rankine cycle
Answer: D D. reversed Carnot cycle Answer: D

322. Which of the following would cause the compressor to Answer: B 334. What is the reason why a thermometer in vapor
run continuously? compression system is installed close to the compressor?
A. low-pressure switch jammed 328. Critical Temperature is that temperature above which: A. because it helps the operator in adjusting compressor for
B. high-pressure switch jammed A. a gas will never liquefy greatest efficiency
C. clogged strainer B. a gas gets immediately liquefy B. because temperature indicates whether liquid or vapor
D. defective thermal bulb C. water gets evaporated refrigerant is going to compressor
D. water will never evaporate C. because temperature helps in calculating the coefficient of
Answer: A Answer: A performance
D. because the performance of other units of the cycle can
323. In a vapor compression cycle the lowest temperature is 329. Rating of a domestic refrigerator is of the order of: be controlled
found in ____. A. 0.1 tons
A. receiver B. 50 tons Answer: A
B. condenser C. 100 tons
C. compressor D. 40 tons 335. Which refrigerant has the highest critical point
D. evaporator temperature?
Answer: A A. ammonia
Answer: D B. Freon 11
324. The moisture in a refrigeration system can be removed 330. What is the usual COP of a domestic refrigerator? C. Freon 12
with the help of which of the following? A. less than 1 D. Freon 22
 Answer: D
Answer: B 342. Which of the following secondary refrigerants generally Answer: C
used milk chilling plants?
336. White ice is A. Brine 348. Which refrigerant is used for the air-conditioning of the
A. Fast cooled water B. Ammonia solution passenger aircraft cabin?
B. sub cooled water C. Glycol A. ammonia
C. due to dissolved air, gases and impurities C. Sodium silicate B. Freon 12
D. formed by blowing air during freezing C. Freon 11
Answer: C D. air
Answer: C
343. What is the cycle where a refrigeration system generally Answer: D
337. Clear ice operates?
A. is pure ice A. open cycle 349. Oil separator in a refrigeration cycle is installed between
B. contains dissolved gases B. close cycle the ___________.
C. contains dissolved air C. mixed cycle A. compressor and condenser
D. is formed by blowing air during freezing D. Hybrid cycle B. condenser and evaporator
C. metering device and evaporator
Answer: D Answer: B D. none of the above

338. Dry ice is 344. Which of the following is also known as Refrigerant Answer: A
A. free from water No.R-717?
B. free from dissolved air and gases A. Ammonia 350. A flash chamber is installed in the refrigeration circuit so
C. does not contain impurities B. Freon 22 as to:
D. solidified form of carbon dioxide C. Freon 12 A. improve overall heat transfer coefficient
D. methyl chloride B. reduce pressure losses through the evaporator
Answer: D C. reduce the size of the evaporator by avoiding vapors
Answer: A going to evaporator
339. The leaks in the refrigeration system using Freon can D. all of the above
be detected by: 345. In which part of the vapor compression cycle there is
A: Halide torch which detention forms greenish flame lighting abrupt change in pressure and temperature Answer: D
B. Sulfur sticks which on detection forms white smoke A. solenoid valve
C. using certain reagents B. evaporator 351. The color of the flame of halide torch, in case of
D. smelling C. expansion valve leakage of Freon refrigerant, will change to:
D. drier A. yellow
Answer: A B. red
Answer: C C. green
340. The lower horizontal line of the refrigeration cycle D. orange
plotted on pressure-enthalpy diagram represents: 346. What do you call a plate or vane used to direct or
A. compression of the refrigerant vapor control movement of fluid or air within the confined area? Answer: C
B. evaporation of the refrigerant liquid A. baffle
C. condensation of the refrigerant vapor B. bellows 352. What is the boiling temperature of F-12?
D. metering of the refrigerant liquid C. regulator A. -33.33 ℃
D. diffuser B. -78.5 ℃
Answer: B C. - 29.8 ℃
Answer: A D. -40 ℃
341. Which of the following uses a secondary refrigerant?
A. domesticated refrigerator 347. Brazing is used for joining two _____. Answer: C
B. room air conditioner A. two ferrous material
C. deep freezer B. one ferrous and non-ferrous material 353. What is the boiling temperature of F-22?
D. ice plant C. two non-ferrous material A. -33.33 ℃
D. two non-metals
B. - 29.8 ℃ 359. Past ME Board Question A. -33.33 ℃
C. -78.5 ℃ Can any refrigerant be used with a booster system? B. -78.5 ℃
D. -40 ℃ A. Yes C. -29.8 ℃
B. No D. -40.7 ℃
Answer: D C. Used for some Answer: C
D. Used for all
354. The following gas is preferred in refrigeration system: Answer: B 365. Past ME Board Question
A. F-11 Boiling temperature of Freon 22 is:
B. F-22 360. Past ME Board Question A. -33.33 ℃
C. 𝐶𝑂2 What is the chemical formula of methylene chloride? B. -29.8 ℃
A. 𝐶𝐻𝐶𝑙2𝐹 C. -78.5 ℃
D. 𝑁𝐻3
B. 𝐶𝐻2𝐶𝑙2 D. -41.04 ℃
Answer: D
Answer: B C. 𝐶𝐶𝑙𝐹3
D. 𝐶𝐵𝑅𝐹3 366. Past ME Board Question
355. The bhp/ton refrigeration requirement with increase in
Answer: B The faster way to remove frost from a direct-expansion
condenser temperature, in a vapor compression system that
finned-tube evaporator is to:
uses reciprocating compressor receiving refrigerant gas at
361. Past ME Board Question A. sent hot gas through the coil
constant suction temperature, will follow:
What is the chemical formula of butane? B. scrape off frost
A. linearly decreasing characteristic
A. 𝐶2𝐻5𝐶𝑙 C. wash with warm water
B. linearly increasing characteristic
D. shut down warm let frost melt
C. first increase rapidly and then decrease slowly B. 𝐶3𝐻8
Answer: A
D. first increase slowly and then rapidly C. 𝐶2𝐻4𝑂2
D. 𝐶4𝐻10 367. Past ME Board Question
Answer: B
You want to change refrigerants in a Freon 12 plant using a
Answer: D
reciprocating single-acting compressor. Which refrigerants
356. Antifreeze chemicals are:
requires smallest amount of change to the system?
A. same as refrigerants
A. Carbon dioxide
B. those that are added to refrigerants for better performance 362. Past ME Board Question
B. Ammonia
C. those that lower down the freezing points of liquids Type of refrigerant control which maintains pressure
C. Methyl chloride
D. those that do not freeze at all difference between high side and low side pressure in
D. Aqua ammonia
refrigerating mechanism.
Answer: C
Answer: C A. Suction valve
B. Expansion valve
357. The capacity of ice making is always C. Service valve
A. less than the refrigerating effect D. Solenoid valve
B. greater than the refrigerating effect Answer: B
368. Past ME Board Question
C. equal to the refrigerating effect
Soft copper tubing that is used for refrigerant piping erected
D. directly proportional to the refrigerating effect 363. Past ME Board Question
on premises containing other than the Group 1 refrigerant
The dividing point between the high pressure and low
must be protected by _____.
Answer: D pressure sides of the refrigeration cycle occurs at the:
A. Supporting it by approved clamps
A. expansion valve
B. Limiting its length between supports up to 10 feet
358. To check the lack of refrigerant or clogged refrigerant B. compressor
C. A rigid or flexible metal enclosure
lines C. condenser
D. Wrapping it with insulation tape throughout its
A. installing service valves must be necessary D. cooling coil
length
B. installing king valve must be an option Answer: A
Answer: C
C. sight glasses can be possibly used
D. discharge pressure and temperature must be monitored
369. Past ME Board Question
A Freon 12 refrigeration system is fitted with thermal
Answer: A 364. Past ME Board Question
expansion valves. The valves are rated in:
Boiling temperature of Freon 12 is:
 A. Pound per minute Answer: B B. Evaporator
B. Super heat setting C. Condenser discharge
C. Tons of refrigeration 375. Past ME Board Question D. Compressor discharge
D. Cubic feet per minute A refrigeration system in which only part of the refrigerant Answer: D
Answer: C passes over the heat transfer surface is evaporated and the
balance is separated from the vapor and recirculated. 381. Past ME Board Question
370. Past ME Board Question A. Direct expansion system The boiling point of Freon 12 is:
The vapor cycle in thermal efficiency as the refrigeration B. Chilled water system A. -41.04 ℉
cycle is to the ______. C. Flooded system B. -40.60 ℉
A. Energy efficiency ratio D. Multiple system C. -38.40 ℉
B. COP for a refrigerator Answer: C D. -31.40 ℉
C. COP for a heat pump Answer: A
D. Carnot efficiency 376. Past ME Board Question
Answer: B A device whose primary function is to meter the flow of 382. Past ME Board Question
refrigerant to the evaporator. The secondary refrigerant used in milk chilling plants is
371. Past ME Board Question A. Sniffer valve generally:
The main purpose of a sub cooler in a refrigerating system B. Equalizer A. Brine
especially a two-stage system is to: C. Thermostatic expansion valve B. Ammonia
A. Increase the heat rejection per ton and avoid D. Crossover valve C. Glycol
system shutdown Answer: C D. Sodium silicate
B. Improve the flow of evaporator gas per ton and Answer: C
increase the temperature 377. Past ME Board Question
C. Reduce the total power requirements and return oil Select the one in which secondary refrigerant is used. 383. Past ME Board Question
to the compressor A. Domestic refrigerator The sensible heat ratio is 0.8. That is
D. Reduce the total power requirements and heat B. Room air conditioner A. 20% latent heat and 60% sensible heat
rejection to the second stage C. Deep freezer B. 80% sensible heat and 20 % latent heat
Answer: D D. Ice plant C. 80% sensible heat and 20% sensible heat and
Answer: D latent heat
372. Past ME Board Question D. 20% latent heat and 80% sensible heat and latent
Ton of refrigeration is a unit equivalent to: 378. Past ME Board Question heat
A. 50.4 kCal/sec AN odorless refrigerant whose boiling point varies over a Answer: B
B. 12,660 kN-m/hr wide range of temperature.
C. 3413 kW/hr A. Freon 22 384. Past ME Board Question
D. 2545 Btu/hr B. Freon 12 The effect of superheating the refrigerant is to:
Answer: B C. Ammonia A. Increase the COP
D. Freon 11 B. Increase and decrease the COP
373. Past ME Board Question Answer: A C. Decrease COP
In a refrigerating system, the heat absorbed in the D. Maintains COP
evaporator per kg mass of refrigerant passing through: 379. Past ME Board Question Answer: A
A. Equals the increase in enthalpy The part that directs the flow of refrigerant through the
B. Does not depend on the refrigerant used compressor. 385. Past ME Board Question
C. Is decreased if pre-cooler is used A. Wrist pin The ice making capacity is always
D. Equals the increase in volume B. Valve A. Directly proportional to the refrigerating effect
Answer: A C. Piston B. Less than the refrigerating effect
D. Connecting rod C. Greater than the refrigerating effect
374. Past ME Board Question Answer: B D. Equal to the refrigerating effect
Lithium bromide is used in refrigeration system in: Answer: A
A. Condensate return lines 380. Past ME Board Question
B. Absorbers The highest temperature in vapor compression cycle is 386. Past ME Board Question
C. Centrifugal compressors produced during: The amount of sensible heat for a sensible heat ratio of 0.80
D. Ion exchangers A. Receiver and a total cooling load of 100 is:
 A. 80 Answer: B D. 32℃
B. 20 Answer: C
C. 100 392. Past ME Board Question
D. 60 A salimeter reads the: CHAPTER 15 – AIR CONDITIONING
Answer: A A. Density of brine
B. Rate of brine 1. How do you call the water vapor content of air?
387. Past ME Board Question C. Dew point temperature A. Moisture
The high pressure of refrigerant system consist of the line to D. Relative humidity B. Humidity
the expansion valve, the receiver, the uppermost half of the Answer: A C. Dew
compressor and the: D. Vapor
A. Line after the expansion valve 393. Past ME Board Question
B. Lower most half of compressor Which of the following measure the density of salt in water? Answer: B
C. Condenser A. Salimeter
D. Evaporator B. Hydrometer 2. When air contains all of the water vapor it can hold, it is
Answer: C C. Pitot tube said to be
D. Calorimeter A. Simulated
388. Past ME Board Question Answer: A B. Loaded
Which of the following material is suitable for tubing in C. Saturated
refrigeration application where refrigerant ammonia is D. Moistured
employed? 394. Past ME Board Question
A. Plastic What is the device used to protect the compressor from Answer: C
B. Brass overloading due to high head pressure?
C. Steel copper A. Overload relay 3. What is the instrument used to register relative
D. Copper B. Hold back suction valve humidity?
Answer: C C. Thermostatic expansion valve A. Hygrometer
D. Expansion valve B. Hydrometer
389. Past ME Board Question Answer: A C. Perometer
If PV is the power required for a vapor-compression D. Manometer
refrigeration system, then what is the power required for an 395. Past ME Board Question
air-refrigeration system, assuming that they have the same The purpose of the expansion valve is to control the flow of Answer: A
capacity? the refrigerant to the evaporator. The other function is to:
A. 5PV A. Reduce the pressure of the liquid refrigerant 4. Humidity is a measure of which of the following?
B. 2PV B. Increase the pressure of the vapor refrigerant A. water vapor content
C. PV/10 C. Reduce the pressure of the vapor refrigerant B. temperature
D. 1/PV D. Increase the pressure of the liquid refrigerant C. latent heat
Answer: A Answer: A D. any of the above

390. Past ME Board Question 396. Past ME Board Question Answer: A

Tons of refrigeration in Btu/24 hours is It prevents the refrigerant from the condenser to go back to
A. 288,000 the compressor. 5. Air conditioning is the process of:
B. 28,800 A. Check valve A. keeping a place cool
C. 290,000 B. Float switch B. removing heat from a specific area
D. 29,000 C. Expansion valve C. maintaining the air at a required temperature and humidity
Answer: A D. Low side float D. A or C
Answer: A
391. Past ME Board Question Answer: C
R-22 is: 397. If the freezing point of water is 0℃, which of the
A. Dichlorodiflouromethane following is its melting point? 6. In an air-conditioning system, before the air is circulated to
B. Monochlorodiflouromethane A. slightly less than 0℃ the required area, it is:
C. Methyl chloride B. slightly more than 0℃ A. cooled
D. Trichlorodiflouromethane C. 0℃ B. filtered
C. dehumidified B. 12 to 15% 18. Dirt and foreign materials normally build-up on the side of
D. all of the above C. 10 to 20% the condenser tubes. To ensure adequate condenser
D. 30 to 40% capacity, a certain factor is used in calculating the overall
Answer: D heat transfer through the walls of the tubes including the
Answer: C heat transfer rate of the layers dirt and foreign materials.
7. The temperature at which water vapor in the atmosphere What is this factor?
begins to condense is known as the: 13. Cooling towers are used for cooling water: A. Booster Factor
A. vapor point A. to be injected in circulating air B. Factor of Safety
B. dew point B. to be used for humidification C. Fouling Factor
C. moisture point C. to be used for filtration of air D. Compression Factor
D. none of the above D. to be used for cooling the compressor
Answer: C
Answer: B Answer: D
19. The engineer was tested to design the air conditioning
8. Saturation temperature is the same as; 14. By which of the following processes heat mainly system for a ball room dance hall. Considering that this
A. dew point dissipates in cooling towers? involve a lot of activity from its users, the engineer would
B. vapor temperature A. conduction design that will require:
C. steam temperature B. convection A. Maximum attainable effective temperature
D. humidity C. radiation B. Constant Effective temperature
D. evaporation C. Higher Effective Temperature
Answer: A D. Lower Effective Temperature
Answer: D
9. When the bypass factor is B, the coil efficiency for Answer: A
sensible cooling of air is equal to: 15. Which one is commonly used liquid absorbent?
A. 1 + B A. silica gel 20. What is the value of the Mach No. throat of the
B. 1 – B B. activated alumina converging-diverging nozzle?
C. 1 – B / B C. ethylene glycol A. Zero
D. 1 + B / B D. any of the above B. Two
C. One
Answer: B Answer: C D. Ten

10. The psychrometric chart in air conditioning determines 16. In sensible heating cooling following parameter remains Answer: C
the unchanged
A. wet bulb and dry bulb temperatures A. dry bulb temperature 21. What do bodies at a temperature above absolute zero?
B. psychrometric temperature requirements B. wet bulb temperature A. It emits Energy
C. saturation temperature and relative humidity C. relative humidity B. It emits Thermal Radiation
D. moist air conditions D. humidity ratio C. It emits Heat for Conduction
D. It emits Heat for convection
Answer: D Answer: D
Answer: B
11. Which of the following is considered as comfort condition 17. Heating and dehumidification can be obtained
in air conditioning? simultaneously if air is passed through: 22. When air is saturated, the wet bulb depression is:
A. 40℃ DBT, 80% RH A. sprays of water kept at a temperature higher than the dew A. zero
B. 30℃ DBT, 60% RH point temperature of the entering air B. indefinite
C. 30℃ DBT, 80% RH B. a solid absorbent surface C. unity
D. 20℃ DBT, 60% RH C. a liquid absorbent spray D. 100%
D. any one of B and C
Answer: D Answer: A
Answer: D
12. The drift loss in cooling towers is about: 23. In a window air conditioning unit which of the following is
A. 1% only usually done by the owner?
A. Semiannual cleaning or replacement of filters
B. Annual cleaning of the evaporator, condenser fan blades, 29. The use of water to carry heat occupied spaces Answer: B
fan motor, compressor and casing A. Hydronic Heating System
C. Inspection of fan motors and lubricate them B. Water Boiling System 35. The amount of CO can be determined by the color of
D. All of these C. Hydrokinetic Heating System Palladium Chloride. An amount of 30 ppm to 70 ppm will
D. Hydraulic Heating System cause:
Answer: A A. Slight Darkening
Answer: A B. Grey Color
24. Fan motors in air conditioning units usually have: C. Red Color
A. 2 or 3 speeds 30. The method of cooling which primarily used where D. Black Color
B. 3 or 4 speeds ambient air temperatures are high and relative humidity is
C. 1 or 2 speeds used: Answer: A
D. 4 or 5 speeds A. Swamp Cooling
B. Evaporative Cooling 36. The term used to express the amount moisture in a given
Answer: A C. Condensate Cooling sample of air. It is compared with the amount of moisture in a
D. Hydroionic Cooling given sample of air.
25. Which of the following capacitors that can usually be A. Humidity
found in an air conditioning unit? Answer: A B. Relative Humidity
A. Starting capacitors C. Absolute Humidity
B. Running capacitors 31. The other name for Swamp Cooling is: D. Humidity Ratio
C. Fan motor capacitors A. Evaporative Cooling
D. all of these B. Condensate Cooling Answer: B
C. Wet Roof Cooling
Answer: D D. Excelsior Cooling 37. How should the window type air conditioning unit be
placed?
26. Which of the following troubles commonly occurs inside Answer: C A. Slant toward the inside of the home
an air conditioning unit? B. Slant toward the outside of the home
A. Stuck Compressor 32. Evaporative Condenser is used to cool C. Level
B. Clogged Refrigerant circuit A. condenser vapor 𝑜
D. Slant at approximately 15 from the horizontal
C. Short Circuit, open circuit, grounded motor winding B. condenser surface
D. All of these C. condensate liquid Answer: B
D. All of these
Answer: D 38. A dehumidifier is usually a small hermitic refrigerating
Answer: A system. It has both a condenser and an evaporator. Many
27. The motor condition of an air conditioning unit can be older systems use R-12 or R-500. The newer units use:
checked with: 33. A method of cooling which uses water as refrigerant. A. R-134a
A. the continuity of light or with an ohmmeter Pressure on the water surface is reduced to lower its boiling B. R-145a
B. the flow of refrigerant in the receiver temperature. C. R-217a
C. the discharge pressure in the compressor A. Steam Jet Cooling D. R-121a
D. All of these B. Evaporative Cooling
C. Vortex Tube Cooling Answer: A
Answer: A D. Pressurized Cooling
39. The normal cut-out setting of a window unit thermostat is
28. An air conditioning system wherein the entire systems Answer: A between:
are mounted in the cabinet: A. 13℃ to 16℃
A. Console Air Conditioners 34. Palladium Chloride may be used to measure the B. 16℃ to 21℃
B. Centralized Air Conditioners presence of:
C. 17℃ to 22℃
C. Package Type Air Conditioners A. vapor
D. 10℃ to 15℃
D. Multizone Split Ductless System B. CO
C. ammonia
Answer: A
Answer: A D. refrigerant
 Answer: D A. 23%
40. Thermostat are used with most window units. They have B. 27%
differentials which vary between: 45. Measurement of a device’s ability to remove atmospheric C. 77%
A. 2℃ to 4℃ air from test air. D. 73%
B. 3℃ to 5℃ A. Atmospheric Dust Spot Efficiency
C. 4℃ to 5℃ B. Atmospheric Dry Air Efficiency Answer: A
D. 1℃ to 2℃ C. Test Air Efficiency
D. Baudelot Air Efficiency 51. Substances that have the ability to absorb moisture from
Answer: A the air are called:
Answer: A A. Desiccants
41. In an air conditioning unit, the thermostat fails. The unit B. Moisturizer
did not start. How do you test the operation of the 46. A liquid mixture having constant maximum and minimum C. Dehygroscopic substance
thermostat? boiling points. Refrigerants comprising this mixture do not D. Moisture absorber
A. Cover the air outlet and air inlet with a cloth. The air will combine chemically, yet the mixture provides constant
recirculate into the unit and the temperature will quickly drop characteristics Answer: A
to the cut out temperature A. Azeotropic Mixture
B. Cover the outlet and the air will not circulate and the B. Homogeneous Mixture 52. When the dry bub and the wet bulb temperatures are
thermostat functions because no air movement C. Conzeotropic Mixture identical, the air is said to be:
C. Cover both the inlet and outlet so that the recirculating air D. Cryogenic Mixture A. saturated
has the same temperature B. compressed
D. Never cover any air passage so that the air can freely Answer: A C. humidified
move and thermostat functions well D. dehumidified
47. Refrigerant in Group A1 (R-11). Chemical combination of
Answer: A carbon, chlorine and fluorine Answer: A
A. Carrene
42. Which of the following dehumidifier is often used to B. Cerrene 53. In what form that water exists in air?
reheat the air after moisture is removed? C. CCL group A. Solid
A. Evaporator D. HCL group B. Liquid
B. Chiller C. Vapor
C. Condenser Answer: A D. Saturated
D. Compressor
48. Which of the following refrigerants is popular in the Answer: C
Answer: C industrial refrigerating system; also popularly absorption
system of refrigerant. 54. When air is heated, what happened to its relative
43. Which of the following refrigerant is added sometimes to A. R-717 (Ammonia) humidity?
other refrigerant to improve oil circulation? B. R-600 (Butane) A. Increase
A. R-117 C. R-611 (Methyl Formate) B. Decrease
B. R-777 D. R-504 C. Remain Constant
C. R-170 (Ethane) D. May increase or Decrease Depending on temperature
D. R-270 Answer: A
Answer: B
Answer: C 49. Which of the following is a function of air conditioning?
A. Temperature and Humidity Control 55. The Horizontal Scale (Abscissa) in the Psychrometric
44. A refrigeration that deals with producing temperature of B. Air, Filtering, Cleaning, and Purification Chart represents:
-157 ℃ or lower, C. Air Movement and Circulation A. Dry bulb temperature
A. Low temperature refrigeration D. All of these B. Wet bulb temperature
B. Extremely low temperature refrigeration C. Relative Humidity
C. Absolute zero refrigeration Answer: D D. Humidity
D. Cryogenics
50. Oxygen is approximately what percent by weight in the Answer: A
atmosphere?
56. Most people are comfortable with the relative humidity of: B. Cloud Point
A. 30% to 70% Answer: A C. Saturated Point
B. 10% to 40% D. Critical Point
C. 20% to 30% 62. The ozone concentration of 0.10 parts per million (ppm)
D. 40% to 80% is generally considered the maximum permissible for how Answer: A
many hours exposure?
Answer: A A. 8 hrs 68. Why should you avoid bending or twisting of fan blades
B. 4 hrs in an air conditioning unit?
57. The temperature below which water vapor in the air will C. 7 hrs A. It will cause ice build-up
start to condense. D. 3 hrs B. It will wear out the motor bearings and cause noise
A. Condensing Temperature C. It may slice suction line
B. Dry Bulb Temperature Answer: A D. It decreases the volume flow refrigerant
C. Dew Point Temperature
D. Wet Bulb Temperature 63. How may moisture be removed from air? Answer: B
A. Condensation
Answer: C B. Absorption 69. A type of refrigerant that will not damage the ozone layer
C. A and B A. Hydroflourocarbons (HCF’s)
58. Which of the following is not used as method to measure D. none of these B. Hydrochloroflourocarbons (HCHF’s)
air velocities? C. R- 22
A. Hot wire Anemometer Answer: C D. R-12
B. Rotating Anemometer
C. Swinging Vane Velocimeter 64. In cooling cycle, the dry bulb temperature (db) of the air Answer: A
D. Open type Barometer is lowered. When this happens, the relative humidity
A. increases 70. Which of the following is the type of refrigerant that
Answer: D B. decreases damages Ozone layer?
C. remains constant A. Hydrochloroflourocarbons (HCHF’s)
59. It is a form of oxygen photochemically produced in D. increases or decreases depending on the temperature at B. R-12
nature. which it is cooled C. R-22
A. Ozone D. All of these
B. Oxidation Answer: A
C. Oxidizing Agent Answer: D
D. 𝐷𝑂2 65. What is the effect of superheating the refrigerant?
A. It increases the Coefficient of Performance 71. Large-bulb alcohol thermometer used to measure air
Answer: A B. It decreases the Coefficient of Performance speed or atmospheric condition by means of cooling.
C. It lowers the boiling point of the refrigerant A. Kata Thermometer
60. What is the chemical formula of Ozone? D. It increases the suction pressure of the refrigeration B. Kelvin Thermometer
A. 𝑂3 C. JJ Thompson Thermometer
Answer: A D. Wet Bulb Thermometer
B. 𝑂2
C. 𝐷2𝑂 66. In sensible heating the absolute humidity remains Answer: A
constant but the relative humidity:
D. 𝑂1
A. increases 72. Which of the following components of the window air
B. decreases conditioning system must be cleaned annually?
Answer: A C. Remains constant A. Evaporator and Condenser
D. zero B. Motor and compressor
61. In the upper atmosphere, ozone is made by ultraviolet C. Fan Blades and Fan motor
light reacting with: Answer: B D. All of these
A. Oxygen
B. Hydrogen 67. The relative humidity becomes 100% and where the Answer: D
C. Nitrogen water vapor starts to condense
D. Water Vapor A. Dew Point
73. The phenomenon that warm air rise and cold air settle is D. Damper 84. A number used to compare energy usage for different
called: areas. It is calculated by dividing the energy consumption by
A. Stratification Answer: A the fottage of the conditioned are.
B. Sedimentation A. Energy Utilization Unit
C. Setting due 79. It is used to control the air-throw distance, height and B. Energy Utilization Efficiency
D. Ventilation spread, as well as the amount of air. C. Energy Utilization Index
A. Grille D. Energy Utilization Ratio
Answer: A B. Register
C. Diffuser Answer: C
74. Air delivered to the room from the supply duct, moving at D. Damper
a velocity of 150 ft/min or more is called: 85. The ratio of the rated cooling capacity divided by the
A. Primary Air Answer: A amount of electrical power used:
B. Secondary Air A. Energy Efficiency Ratio (EER)
C. Saturated Air 80. It is used to deliver widespread, fan-shaped flows of air B. Energy Efficiency Index (EE)
D. Air Turbulence into the room. C. Cooling Efficiency (CE)
A. Grille D. Energy Cooling Ratio (ECR)
Answer: A B. Register
C. Diffuser Answer: A
75. Carries needed to deliver air to the conditioned space. It D. Damper
is made of sheet of metals like aluminum, galvanized sheet 86. Heat exchanger in which water flows by gravity over the
steel and some structural materials that will not burn. Answer: C outside of the tubes or plates.
A. Duct A. Baudelot Cooler
B. Air Inlet 81. Which of the following fans in air conditioning systems B. Free Cooler
C. Air Outlet which can be classified as centrifugal flow? C. Newtonian Cooler
D. Diffuser A. Axial fan D. Bourdon Cooler
B. Propeller fan
Answer: A C. Bi-axial fan Answer: A
D. None of these
76. From what principle that air ducts operate? 87. A popular air conditioning system that includes a single
A. Principle of Pressure Difference Answer: B outdoor condenser, three independent evaporators, and
B. Principle of Temperature Difference individual evaporator temperature control. The condensing
C. Forced Draft Fan Principle 82. The most common controller in the heating and cooling unit is located outside on a slab. They are frequently used in
D. Principle of Natural Convection systems. legal and medical offices, motels and homes without ducts.
A. Thermostat A. Multizone Ductless Split System
Answer: A B. Pressure gage B. Package Terminal Air Conditioner
C. Barometer C. Console Air Conditioner
77. Which of the following is the common classification of D. Sling Psychrometer D. Window type Air Conditioner
ducts?
A. Condition-Air Ducts Answer: A Answer: A
B. Recirculating
C .Fresh-air Ducts 83. A thermostat that functions as increase or decrease 88. An air conditioning system which is a combination of
D. All of these instead of starting and stopping system is called: heating and cooling system. It is designed to serve an
A. modulate individual room or zone.
Answer: D B. heating-cooling the thermostat A. Multizone Ductless Split System
C. interlocked B. Package Terminal Air Conditioner
78. It is used deliver concentrated airstreams into a room. D. compound thermostat C. Console Air Conditioner
Many have one-way or two-way adjustable air stream D. Window type Air Conditioner
deflectors. Answer: A
A. Register Answer: B
B. Grille
C. Diffuser
89. Which of the following is to be checked as regular 100. All of the following process can be found on a
monthly maintenance schedule of a console air conditioning Answer: C psychrometric chart except:
units? A. heating and humidifying
A. Water Leaks 95. An instrument used in measuring air velocity by B. cooling and dehumidification
Fan Speeds velocity-pressure method C. black body radiation
C. Cooling Tower A. Pitot Tube D. evaporative cooling
D. Duct Dampers, Registers and Diffusers B. Anemometer
C. Aneroid Barometer Answer: C
Answer: D D. Flowmeter
101. Which is not commonly used to cool and dehumidify
90. Which of the following is to be checked as part of the Answer: A equipment?
weekly maintenance schedule of a console air conditioners? A. Calcium chloride
A. Filters 96. What is the specific humidity of dry air? B. Activated alumina
B. Humidifiers A. 100 C. Sodium zeolite
C. Safety valves B. 20 D. Silica gel
D. Cooling Tower C. 0
D. 50 Answer: A
Answer: D Answer: C
102. All the following temperatures have meaning in
91. A mechanism that removes moisture. 97. When hot soup was served in a cup during dinner, an psychrometrics excepts:
A. Humidifiers engineer was so eager to drink it. Since it was hot, he added A. dry-bulb temperature
B. Dehumidifiers ice cubes of ice to cool the soup stirred it. He noticed that B. wet-bulb temperature
C. Moisturizers dew starts to form on the outermost surface of the cup. He C. adiabatic wall temperature
D. Cooling Towers wanted to check the temperature of the outermost surface of D. dew point
the cup. What is the temperature equal to?
Answer: B A. superheated temperature Answer: C
B. equal to zero
92. When coil surface temperature is below the dew point of C. standard temperature 103. The relative humidity is given by the:
the air. D. equal to air’s dew point temperature A. ratio of the actual humidity to the saturated humidity at the
A. moisture will condense out of the air same temperature and pressure
B. vapor will evaporate through the air Answer: D B. ratio of the partial pressure of water vapor to the
C. air is dehumidified saturation pressure
D. air is humidified and saturated 98. The temperature at which the water vapor in the gas C. ratio of wet-bulb to dry-bulb temperature
begins to condense in a constant pressure process. D. ratio of dry-bulb temperature to dew point
Answer: A A. Dew point
B. Vapor point Answer: B
93. Nitrogen occupied almost how much of the Earth’s C. Flue point
Atmosphere D. Gas point 104. The determination of properties and behavior of
A. One-fourth atmospheric air usually the purview of:
B. Three-fourths Answer: A A. thermodynamics
C. One-half B. psychrometrics
D. One-third 99. All the following processes can be found on a C. forced convection
psychrometric chart except: D. Kirchoff’s law
Answer: B A. humidification
B. sensible heating Answer: B
94. Water in vapor form remains a vapor as long as its C. natural convection
temperature is what relations to the dew point temperature. D. sensible cooling 105. Past ME Board Question
A. above Which of the following statements is correct?
B. equals Answer: C The relative humidity of an air water vapor mixture
C. below A. Is the ratio of the partial pressure of the water
D. almost vapor to the partial pressure of the air
 B. Indicates the mass of water vapor in the mixture D. Moisture removal process
C. Is equal to the mole fraction of water vapor in the Answer: B
mixture at the mixture temperature Answer: C
D. Is the ratio of the partial pressure of water vapor to 116. Past ME Board Question
the saturation pressure at the mixture temperature 111. Past ME Board Question During sensible heating, the humidity remains constant but
Answer: D In a cooling tower, the water is cooled mainly by: the relative humidity.
A. Condensation A. Increases
106. Past ME Board Question B. Evaporation B. Decreases
In sensible cooling process, moisture content C. Convection C. Remains constant
A. Does not change D. Conduction D. Zero
B. Decreases
C. Indeterminate Answer: C Answer: B
D. Increases
112. Past ME Board Question 117. Past ME Board Question
Answer: A Which of the following types of air dryers works by absorbing The relative humidity becomes 100% and where the water
moisture on a solid dessicant or drying material such as vapor starts to condense.
107. Past ME Board Question activated alumina, silicon gel, or molecular sieve? A. Critical point
What amount of air is required in a low bypass factor? A. Regenerative dryer B. Saturated point
A. Greater B. Deliquescent dryer C. Dew point
B. Lesser C. Spray dryer D. Cloud point
C. Indeterminate D. Refrigerated dryer
D. Constant Answer: C
Answer: B
Answer: B 118. Past ME Board Question
113. Past ME Board Question What is the specific humidity of dry air?
108. Past ME Board Question The relationship of water vapor in the air at the dew point A. 150
The design of an air supply duct of an air conditioning temperature to the amount that would be in the air if the air B. 100
system _______. were saturated at the dry bulb temperature is: C. 50
A. Adds moisture to the air A. Partial pressure actual at dew point D. 0
B. Lowers the temperature of the air B. Percentage humidity
C. Does not affect the moisture of air C. Relative humidity Answer: D
D. Affects the distribution D. Partial pressure of water
119. Past ME Board Question
Answer: D Answer: C An engineer inspected an air-conditioning unit. He found out
that the unit does not produce any cooling effect, however,
109. Past ME Board Question 114. Past ME Board Question the air-conditioning unit is running. He checked the
What is the lowest temperature to which water could possibly When the air is saturated, the wet bulb depression is: temperatures of the condenser and evaporator and had the
be cooled in a cooling tower? A. Zero unit run. He found out that there was no change in
A. The effective temperature B. Indefinite temperature. What should he do?
B. The temperature of adiabatic compression C. Unity A. Replace fuse
C. The wet bulb depression D. 100% B. Charge with new refrigerant
D. The dew point temperature of the air C. Replace relay
Answer: A D. Adjust door seal
Answer: B
115. Past ME Board Question Answer: B
110. Past ME Board Question A temperature measurement in an ordinary thermometer
Combined process of cooling and humidifying is also known which has constant specific humidity 120. Past ME Board Question
as: A. Critical temperature What is the temperature range of air in air conditioning
A. Heating and humidifying B. Dew point temperature application where the dry air can be considered ideal gas?
B. Cooling tower C. Dry bulb temperature A. 100 to 125 ℃
C. Evaporative cooling process D. Wet bulb temperature B. 50 to 75 ℃
 C. 75 to 100 ℃ D. 4,125 kg/𝑐𝑚
2 Answer: C
D. -10 to 50 ℃
Answer: A 10. The minimum vertical distance from the floor or soil level
Answer: D to the top edge of the foundation must be around
5. Anchor bolts in a machine foundation should be _________.
121. Past ME Board Question embedded in concrete of at least how many times the bolt A. 150 mm
What is the value of air stratification in air conditioning diameter? B. 100 mm
design fit for human comfort? A. 12 C. 200 mm
A. Minimum B. 20 D. 120 mm
B. Maximum C. 30
C. Less than air temperature D. 25 Answer: D
D. Equal to air temperature
Answer: C 11. For stability, the total combined engine, driven equipment
Answer: C and foundation center of gravity must be kept _____.
6. As a good practical rule, the foundation depth may be A. below the foundation top
CHAPTER 16-MACHINE FOUNDATION AND CHIMNEY taken as how many times of the engine stroke? B. above the foundation top
1. Past ME Board Question A. 2.2 to 3.2 C. 120 mm above the foundation top
Foundations are preferably built of concrete in the proportion B. 3.2 to 4.2 D. none of the above
of what measure of Portland cement; sand; crushed stones? C. 2.5 to 3.5
A. 1 : 2 : 5 D. 3.5 to 4.5 Answer: A
B. 2 : 4 : 6
C. 2 : 3 : 5 Answer: B 12. There shall be no foundation bolts less than ____.
D. 1 : 2 : 4 A. 12 mm in diameter
7. To secure the belts embedded within the foundation, the B. 16 mm in diameter
Answer: D distance of the edges of the foundation from the bedplate C. 18 mm in diameter
must be _________. D. 20 mm in diameter
2. Past ME Board Question A. 120 mm to 300 mm
For design stability, the center of gravity of the total B. 150 mm to 330 mm Answer: A
combined engine, driven equipment and foundation should C. 100 mm to 280 mm
be kept _________. D. 200 mm to 380 mm 13. The weight of steel bar reinforcements should be how
A. Anywhere many times the weight of the foundation?
B. Above the foundation top Answer: A A. ½% to 1%
C. In line with surface of the foundation B. 1% to 1.5%
D. Below the foundation top 8. The weight of the machine foundation is how many times C. 3% to 5%
of the weight of the engine? D. 3.2% to 4.2%
Answer: D A. 4 to 5 times
B. 3 to 5 times Answer: A
3. The machine foundation must have a factor of safety of C. 2 to 3 times
A. 4 D. 4 to 6 times 14. Concrete foundation should have steel bar
B. 5 reinforcements placed vertically and horizontally to avoid
C. 6 Answer: B ____.
D. 7 A. breaking
9. To eliminate transmission of vibration, the foundation B. thermal cracking
Answer: B should be isolated from floor slabs or building footings at C. melting
least how many mm around its perimeter? D. vibration
4. The diesel engine foundation safe soil bearing pressure is: A. 15
A. 4,890 kg/𝑐𝑚
2
B. 20 Answer: B

B. 4,500 kg/𝑐𝑚
2 C. 25
D. 30 15. Foundations bolt length should be at least how many
2
C. 4,490 kg/𝑐𝑚 times the anchor bolt diameter?
A. 16 times
B. 18 times Answer: A C. Induced draft
C. 20 times D. Balanced draft
D. 30 times 21. Fans located before the furnace that are used to supply
air for burning. Answer: D
Answer: B A. Natural draft
B. Forced draft 27. In order to keep combustion products inside the
16. Foundation bolts of specified size should be used and C. Induced draft combustion chamber and stack system, balanced draft
surrounded by a pipe sleeve with an inside diameter of at D. Balanced draft system may actually operate with a slight
least how many times the diameter of the anchor bolt? A. negative pressure
A. 3 Answer: B B. positive pressure
B. 4 C. positive and negative pressures
C. 5 22. Forced draft fans are run at relative high speed in the D. absolute pressure
D. 6 range of:
A. 1200 to 1800 rpm Answer: A
Answer: A B. 1000 to 1600 rpm
C. 1500 to 2000 rpm 28. The static pressure drop due to friction through the boiler
17. For a diesel engine’s foundation, in pouring a concrete D. 900 to 1500 rpm and stack.
mixture, it should be poured: A. draft loss
A. one time Answer: A B. available draft
B. two times C. stack effect
C. three times 23. Chimneys that rely on natural draft are sometimes D. fan boost
D. four times referred to as
A. natural chimney Answer: A
Answer: A B. gravity chimney
C. normal chimney 29. The difference between the theoretical draft and the draft
18. For foundations of steam turbine, the concrete mixture D. stack loss.
should be _________. A. draft loss
A. 1: 2: 4 Answer: B B. available draft
B. 1: 3: 5 C. stack effect
C. 1: 2: 3 24. Force draft fans create a positive pressure of: D. fan boost
D. 1: 3: 4 A. 0.5 to 2.5 kPa
B. 1.0 to 3.0 kPa Answer: B
Answer: A C. 2.0 to 4.0 kPa
D. 0.2 to 2.2 kPa 30. In a balanced system, the available draft is:
19. The steam turbine foundation should be designed to A. unity
support the machine load plus how many percent of the Answer: A B. zero
impact, condenser load, floor loads and dead loads? C. 100
A. 15 25. Fans that are used to draw combustion products through D. infinite
B. 20 the furnace bed, stack, and pollution control system by
C. 25 injecting air into the stack after combustion. Answer: B
D. 30 A. Natural draft
B. Forced draft 31. The total pressure supplied by the fan at maximum
Answer: C C. Induced draft operating conditions.
D. Balanced draft A. net rating or fan boost
20. Which of the following draft rely on the stack effect to B. draft loss
draw off combustion gases? Answer: C C. available draft
A. Natural draft D. stack effect
B. Forced draft 26. The term used when the static pressure is equal to the
C. Induced draft atmospheric pressure. Answer: A
D. Balanced draft A. Natural draft
B. Forced draft 32. Generally the higher the chimney
A. the smaller the stack effect B. 2.83 m in diameter Answer: B
B. the greater the stack effect C. 1.45 m in diameter
C. stack effect is zero D. 2.45 m in diameter 44. Foundation bolts of specified size should be used and
D. the stack effect approaches unity surrounded by a pipe sleeve with an inside diameter of at
Answer: A least how many times the diameter of the anchor bolt?
Answer: B A. 3
39. The angle between the stack and the guy wire is usually: B. 4
33. Modern stacks are seldom built higher than A. 30 degrees C. 5
A. 60 m B. 45 degrees D. 6
B. 50 m C. 60 degrees
C. 40 m D. 75 degrees Answer: A
D. 30 m
Answer: C 45. Foundation bolts of specified size should be used and
Answer: A surrounded by a pipe sleeve with a length of at least how
40. Guyed stacks height seldom exceeds: many times the diameter of the bolt?
34. Most stacks are built of height less than: A. 30.48 m A. 18
A. 60 m B. 34.80 m B. 14
B. 50 m C. 43.80 m C. 15
C. 40 m D. 48.30 m D. 16
D. 30 m
Answer: A Answer: A
Answer: D
41. The maximum unit pressure of turbine and generator on 46. Foundation should be designed to support the machine
35. The average flue gas temperature is the reinforced concrete should not exceed load plus how many percent of the impact, condenser load,
A. the temperature entering the stack A. 17.62 kg/𝑐𝑚
2 floor loads and dead loads?
B. the temperature leaving the stack 2 A. 25
B. 18.62 kg/𝑐𝑚
C. the temperature halfway up the stack B. 34
2
D. the sum of the temperatures C. 16.62 kg/𝑐𝑚 C. 15
2
D. 19.62 kg/𝑐𝑚 D. 36
Answer: C
Answer: A Answer: A

36. The coefficient of velocity is approximately 42. Foundations should be isolated from floor slabs or 47. In guyed steel stacks, the angel between wires in a set of
A. 0.30 to 0.50 building footings by at least how many mm to eliminate three is:
B. 0.40 to 0.60 transmission of vibration. A. 120 deg.
C. 0.20 to 0.40 A. 25 mm B. 110 deg.
D. 0.50 to 0.70 B. 15 mm C. 135 deg.
C. 35 mm D. 145 deg.
Answer: A D. 45 mm
Answer: A
37. For realistic problems, the achievable stack effect Answer: A
probably should be considered to be: 48. Guys are usually applied in how many sets?
A. 75% of the ideal 43. Concrete foundations should have steel bar A. 1 to 3
B. 80% of the ideal reinforcements placed both vertically and horizontally to B. 2 to 4
C. equal to the ideal avoid C. 3 to 5
D. half the ideal A. vibrations D. 4 to 6
B. thermal cracking
Answer: B C. breakdown Answer: A
D. rupture
38. Guyed stacks seldom exceed: 49. The empirical coefficient e in machine foundation if not
A. 1.83 m in diameter given is assumed
A. 0.11 C. Boiler 10. An instrument used to measure the density of gases is
B. 0.25 D. Vapor bomb known as:
C. 0.32 A. aerovane
D. 0.15 Answer: B B. aerometer
C. hygrometer
Answer: A 7
5. A unit of work or energy equal to 10 ergs. It is equivalent D. atmometer
to the work done by a force of one Newton acting through a
50. The term suction units is used with distance of one meter. Answer: A
A. Natural draft A. Btu
B. Forced draft B. Calorie 11. Which of the following is the apparatus used for mixing
C. Induced draft C. Joule air with other fluids?
D. Balanced draft D. Watt A. Carburetor
B. Dehydrator
Answer: C Answer: C C. Gas mixer
D. Aerator
6. An electromagnetic device for separating isotopes by
electrical sorting of their ions. Answer: D
CHAPTER 17 – INSTRUMENTATION A. Ion sorter
1. An instrument used for measuring evaporation, generally B. Isotopes sorter 12. A device that supplies air to an air-injection system is
that of water, into the atmosphere. C. Isotron called
A. Aerometer D. Jolly balance A. air pump
B. Atmometer B. air nozzle
C. Anemometer Answer: C C. gas scrubber
D. Fadometer D. air injector
7. A device used for the determination of the specific gravity
Answer: B of a substance by weighing it in air and in water. Answer: B
A. Kelvin balance
2. An instrument for testing the resistance of materials to B. Spring balance 13. An instrument used for measuring pressure, flow velocity
fading when they are exposed to artificial sunlight or C. Hysometer and discharge rate of a fluid flowing in a conduit.
ultraviolet light under controlled conditions. D. Jolly balance A. Kampometer
A. Fadometer B. Flowmeter
B. Fulgurator Answer: D C. Pitot tube
C. Odometer D. Katharometer
D. Atmometer 8. Which of the following instruments is NOT used to
measure flow rates? Answer: B
Answer: A A. Anemometer
B. Rotameter 14. An instrument used for measuring radiant energy
3. The type of calorimeter in which the specific heat of a C. Flowmeter especially in the thermal region.
specimen is measured by the quantity of ice it melts is the: D. Velometer A. Kampometer
A. ice calorimeter B. Luxmeter
B. heat calorimeter Answer: D C. Kapnometer
C. vapor calorimeter D. Katharometer
D. hysometer 9. An instrument used to measure the quality of steam is the:
A. psychometer Answer: A
Answer: A B. gas calorimeter
C. pyrometer 15. An instrument for determination of the composition of the
4. An instrument used for determination of the boiling point of D. steam calorimeter gas mixture by measuring variations in the thermal
water for estimating the altitude above sea level from its conductivity.
known variation with atmospheric pressure. Answer: D A. Kampometer
A. Vapor calorimeter B. Atmometer
B. Hysometer C. Kapnometer
D. Katharometer 21. A device to measure vertical distances or
displacements? Answer: C
Answer: D A. Kampometer
B. Kapnometer 27. Past ME Board Question
16. An apparatus used for measuring the surface tension of C. Altimeter Hydrometer is used to find out:
a liquid by recording the force necessary to detach a metal D. Cathetometer A. Specific gravity of liquids
ring from the surface. B. Specific gravity of solids
A. Tachometer Answer: D C. Specific gravity of gases
B. Tensiometer D. Relative humidity
C. Odometer 22. A precision instrument for measuring very short time
D. Telemeter intervals. Answer: A
A. Clinometer
Answer: B B. Chronoscope 28. Past ME Board Question
C. Stop watch What is the clockwork operated device which records
17. An instrument used for measuring various quantities at a D. Decremeter continuously the humidity of the atmosphere?
distance. A. Hetrograph
A. Tachometer Answer: B B. Hygrometer
B. Odometer C. Hygrodeik
C. DME 23. Which of the following is a laboratory method for the D. Hygrograph
D. Telemeter determination of the boiling range of petroleum?
A. Jolly balance Answer: D
Answer: D B. Kelvin balance
C. Engler distillation 29. Past ME Board Question
18. An apparatus used for determination of the transition D. Fractional distillation A device whose function is to pass an information in an
point by measuring the temperature at which the vapor unchanged form or in some modified form.
pressure of the two modifications become equal. Answer: C A. Relay
A. Tensiometer B. Sensor
B. Tensimeter 24. An instrument used to measure the humidity in the air. C. Transmitter
C. Tachometer A. Hygrometer D. Transducer
D. Bourdon gage B. Hydrometer
C. Pressure gauge Answer: A
Answer: B D. Wind vane
30. Past ME Board Question
19. An instrument for measuring the revolutions per minute Answer: A A general term for a device that receives information in the
of a rotating shaft. form of one or more physical quantities, modifies the
A. Tachometer 25. An instrument used to measure the specific gravity or information and or its form if required and produces a
B. Odometer relative density of liquids. resultant output signal.
C. All of the choices A. Hygrometer A. Converter
D. Speedometer B. Hydrometer B. Transducer
C. U – tube C. Sensor
Answer: A D. Manometer D. Scanner

20. A device used for demonstrating the extreme force Answer: B Answer: B
exerted by water when if freezes is called:
A. Ice calorimeter 26. An apparatus used for the determination of the 31. Past ME Board Question
B. Hysometer concentration of solid or liquid particles dispersed in a gas, An engine indicator is generally used to measure what?
C. Ice bomb such as the density of smoke in fog. A. Steam temperature
D. Freezer A. Kampometer B. Heat loss
B. Atmometer C. Steam cylinder pressure
Answer: C C. Kapnometer D. Gauge reading errors
D. Katharometer
Answer: C Answer: D B. cycloid
C. semicircle
32. Past ME Board Question 2. In power station practice “spinning reverse” is D. parabola
In the processing section, there is an instrument frequently A. reverse generating capacity that is in operation but not in
used to measure the flow rate of fluids. What is the service Answer: A
instrument consisting of a vertical passage with variable B. reserve generating capacity that is connected to bus and
cross-sectional area, a float and a calibrated scale? ready to take load 8. Sag is provided in overhead transmission lines so that:
A. Rotameter C. reserve generating capacity that is available for service A. repairs can be carried out easily
B. Pitot tube but not in operation B. corona can be reduced
C. Rota Aire D. capacity of the part of plant remains under maintenance C. skin effect can be reduced
D. Manometer D. safe tension is not exceeded
Answer: B
Answer: A Answer: D
3. Turnaround efficiency of battery energy storage system is
33. Past ME Board Question about 9. The string efficiency in an AC system is:
What is the function of a steam separator? A. 75 percent A. 50.75%
A. Trapping the steam and letting water through B. 40 percent B. 100%
B. Throttling C. 25 percent C. 25.50%
C. Changing the direction of the steam flow D. 80 percent D. 70.7%
D. Steam metering
Answer: A Answer: D
Answer: A
4. Most of the generators in thermal power plants run at: 10. Satellites are powered by
34. Past ME Board Question A. 15000 rpm A. solar cells
A salimeter reads the: B. 1500 rpm B. thermo-electric generators
A. Density of brine C. 750 rpm C. thermionic converters
B. Dew point temperature D. 3000 rpm D. photo-electric cells
C. Rate of brine
D. Relative humidity Answer: B Answer: A

Answer: A 5. The power supplied to domestic consumers is at 220 11. A ship is powered by:
volts. This represents: A. steam turbine
35. Past ME Board Question A. mean value of voltage B. diesel engines
Which of following measures the density of salt in the water? B. seak value of voltage C. steam turbines or diesel engine
A. Salimeter C. RMS value of voltage D. steam turbines, diesel engines, hydraulic turbines or
B. Pitot tube D. none of the above nuclear reactors
C. Hydrometer
D. Odometer Answer: C Answer: C

Answer: A 6. The conductors that are used for transmitting bulk of 12. Which of the following plant is suitable for peak load?
power at high voltage are of which of the following type? A. Diesel engine plant
A. Cadmium copper B. Steam power plant
CHAPTER 18 – BASIC ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING B. Galvanized steel C. Nuclear power plat
1. Ebb current refers to: C. Any of the above D. All of the above
A. the eddy current D. Copper
B. the movement of the tidal current away from shore or Answer: A
down a tidal stream Answer: D
C. the removal by screen of undesirable fine materials from 13. The term ‘critical’ is associated with power plant of the
broken ore 7. When a conductor is suspended between two supports at type:
D. none of the above the same level its shape becomes: A. steam power plant
A. catenary B. diesel engine power plant
C. gas turbine power plant D. carbon arc lamp
D. nuclear power plant Answer: D
Answer: D
Answer: D 26. Which of the following affects corona?
20. In a fluorescent tube circuit, choke acts as A. Conductor size
14. A turbocharger is a part of: A. a starter B. Spacing between conductors
A. thermal power plant B. a device for improving the power factor C. Line voltage
B. diesel engine power plant C. a current limiting device D. All of the above
C. hydro-electric power plant D. a source of heat
D. nuclear power plant Answer: D
Answer: B
Answer: B 27. The statement that the product of the error in the
21. Transient disturbances are due to: measured determination of a particle’s position and its
15. Which of the following plant has least pollution problem? A. switching operations momentum is of the order Planck’s constant “h” is known as
A. Steam power plant B. load variations A. Bohr’s theory
B. Gas turbine power plant C. faults B. D’Alembert’s paradox
C. Nuclear power plant D. any of the above C. the Heisenberg uncertainty principle
D. Hydro-electric power plant D. Planck’s law
Answer: D
Answer: D Answer: C
22. Bottoming cycle is quite common in:
16. Which of the following power plant can be installed within A. cement plants 28. The phenomenon of physical adhesion of molecules of
the shortest time? B. sugar mills the surfaces of solids without chemical reaction is
A. Nuclear power plant C. paper mills A. dredging
B. Hydro-electric power plant D. all of the above B. adsorption
C. Gas turbine power plant C. coking
D. Diesel engine plant Answer: A D. liquation

Answer: D 23. Which of the following is the most highly developed Answer: B
device for confining plasma with magnetic field?
17. Which of the following item consumes least power? A. Tokamak 29. Fuses and circuit breakers do not protect electric motors
A. Toaster B. Tomahawk from:
B. Desert cooler C. Breeder reactor A. short circuiting
C. Electric shaver D. Cyclotron B. motor burnout
D. Electric iron C. overload
Answer: A D. overheating
Answer: C
24. Fuses and circuit breakers do not protect electric motors Answer: D
18. Which of the following needs highest level of from:
illumination? A. short circuiting 30. In which of the following systems where Betz law is
A. Proof reading B. motor burnout widely used?
B. Hospital wards C. overload A. MHD system
C. Railway platforms D. overheating B. solar cells
D. Foyer for cinema halls C. geothermal power plants
Answer: D D. wind mills
Answer: A
25. Corona generally results in: Answer: D
19. The lamp that is used for cinema projectors is a: A. violet glow
A. frosted GLS lamp B. hissing noise 31. At what rpm where most of the generators in thermal
B. nitrogen filled GLS lamp C. production of ozone gas power plants run?
C. mercury vapor lamp D. all of the above A. 15000 rpm
B. 1500 rpm A. Volts
C. 750 rpm B. Horsepower 5. Past ME Board Question
D. 3000 rpm C. Hertz Reheating process is normally employed in steam plane
D. Knot when:
Answer: B A. There is excess steam
Answer: C B. Subcooling is required
32. Turnaround efficiency of battery energy storage system C. Turbine undergoes excessive moisture
is about CHAPTER 19 – LATEST BOARD QUESTION D. Dehumidifying is required
A. 75 percent 1. Past ME Board Question
B. 40 percent A pump with capacity 𝑄1 and head 𝐻1 is connected in series Answer: C
C. 25 percent with another pump with capacity 𝑄2 and head 𝐻2. What is the
D. 80 percent 6. Past ME Board Question
head developed if 𝑄2 is less than 𝑄1? Where does the final removal of water vapor in an absorption
Answer: A A. 2𝐻2 𝐻1 refrigeration system occur?
A. Analyzer
B. 𝐻2 + 𝐻1
33. The conductors that are used for transmitting bulk of B. Generator
power at high voltage are of which of the following type? C. 𝐻2 / 𝐻1 C. Condenser
A. Cadmium copper D. 𝐻2𝐻1 D. Rectifier
B. Galvanized steel
C. Any of the above Answer: D
Answer: B
D. Copper
7. Past ME Board Question
2. Past ME Board Question
Answer: D If the average temperature of liquid of power cycle during
At ordinary temperature what substance will behave as inert
heat addition process is as high as possible, then the
gas and will not react in the combustion process?
34. Corona generally results in thermal efficiency of the cycle will:
A. Nitrogen
A. violet glow A. Increase
B. Sulfur
B. hissing noise B. Remain constant
C. Hydrogen
C. production of ozone gas C. Decrease
D. Carbon
D. all of the above D. Zero
Answer: A
Answer: D Answer: A
3. Past ME Board Question
35. Which of the following affects corona? 8. Past ME Board Question
Which of the following cycles is ideal for spark-ignition
A. Conductor size What is the temperature of lubricant at which it will ignite
reciprocating engine?
B. Spacing between conductors thus limits its application?
A. Diesel cycle
C. Line voltage A. Cold point
B. Dual cycle
D. All of the above B. Burning point
C. Rankine cycle
C. Flash point
D. Otto cycle
Answer: D D. Use point
Answer: D
36. When a conductor is suspended between two supports Answer: C
at the same level its shape becomes
4. Past ME Board Question
A. catenary 9. Past ME Board Question
What is the relative humidity when the dew point and dry
B. cycloid What is the heat that is removed from the space to be
bulb temperature are equal?
C. semicircle cooled, which is the same as the heat absorbed by the
A. 110%
D. parabola cooling coils?
B. 0%
A. Heating capacity
C. 100%
Answer: A B. Enthalpy
D. 50%
C. Work compression
37. Past ME Board Question D. Refrigerating effect
Answer: C
What is the unit of electromagnetic wave frequency?
Answer: D Answer: B A. On the suction line on compressor line
B. In the water inlet
10. Past ME Board Question 15. Past ME Board Question C. Anywhere in the system
An air conditioning system in which water is chilled or cooled As far as combustion chamber design is considered, the D. In the water outlet
and which passes the evaporator coils. maximum power output of a given engine can be increased
A. Chilled water system by: Answer: D
B. Direct expansion A. Increasing combustion time
C. Absorption B. Increasing combustion chamber volume
D. Water circulation system C. Decreasing combustion chamber volume 20. Past ME Board Question
D. Providing small values When there is no work between the thermodynamic system
Answer: A and its surrounding, the quantity of net heat transfer is equal
Answer: C to:
11. Past ME Board Question A. Total energy of an open system
A multi-stage refrigeration system which is realizable in using 16. Past ME Board Question B. Temperature of an open system
different refrigerants A water conservation device which employs both air and C. Total energy of a closed system
A. Direct water is condensed a condenser and cooling tower D. Temperature of a closed system
B. Cascade combined into one is called:
C. Flooded A. Shell and tube condenser Answer: D
D. Vapor B. Air-cooled condenser
C. Water-cooled condenser 21. Past ME Board Question
Answer: B D. Evaporative condenser In order to attain equilibrium in the condenser, the cooling
tower range must be _______ with respect to temperature
12. Past ME Board Question Answer: D rise in the condenser.
Very large pipe diameter means a thicker wall and high cost. A. Greater
It also means 17. Past ME Board Question B. Equal
A. Zero pressure drop In order to perform efficiently, a power cycle must be C. Less
B. High pressure drop communicated with the outside temperature of its D. Zero
C. Constant temperature surroundings and into one is called:
D. Low pressure drop A. Kirchoff’s Law Answer: B
B. Second Law of Thermodynamics
Answer: B C. Kelvin-Planck Law 22. Past ME Board Question
D. Frist Law of Thermodynamics If ice will form in a solution of water and salt, then it is at a
13. Past ME Board Question temperature called:
Aside from maintaining appropriate temperature for food cold Answer: B A. Dew point
storage, how is desiccation minimized or decreased? B. Freezing point depression
A. Low oxygen 18. Past ME Board Question C. Boiling point depression
B. Maintain humidity ratio Water is heated in a container. It expands and becomes less D. Critical point
C. Low air circulation dense and lighter. It rises up the container because of its
D. Increase humidity ratio reduced density and replaced by cooler air. As this process Answer: B
continues, the heat is transferred and disturbed all
Answer: B throughout. What is this mode of heat transfer called? 23. Past ME Board Question
A. Condenser The flow of the convergent section of a nozzle is always
14. Past ME Board Question B. Radiation subsonic. If the flow is subsonic then the mach number is:
During combustion process, only limited air is supplied and C. Conduction A. Greater than unity
not enough to supply two molecule of oxygen per one D. Convection B. Less than unity
molecule of carbon, then the product is: C. Near than unity
A. Hydration Answer: D D. Unity
B. Carbon monoxide
C. Carbonic acid 19. Past ME Board Question Answer: B
D. Carbon dioxide When required, a regulator water valve in refrigerating
system should be 24. Past ME Board Question
One hundred twenty percent theoretical air was supplied for A refrigeration control that guards the compressor from
combustion. What is the equivalent excess equal to: overloads brought about by abruptly increases loads 34. Past ME Board Question
A. 20% resulting from defrosting, warm products and others, is The force when applied to a mass of one kilogram will give
B. 100% called: mass an acceleration of one meter per second for every
C. 240% A. Safety valve second called:
D. 120% B. Suction hold-back valve A. Watt
C. Solenoid valve B. Joule
Answer: A D. Expansion valve C. Newton
D. Pascal
25. Past ME Board Question Answer: B
If Pi is the indicated horsepower and Pb is the indicated Answer: C
horsepower of a compressor, then what is mechanical 30. Past ME Board Question
efficiency, Em, equal to: What does fossil-fuel fired power plants release, which in 35. Past ME Board Question
A. Em = Pb / Pi turn produces the key ingredient in acid rain? The kinetic energy of a moving fluid is used to isentropically
B. Em = Pi / Pb A. Nitrogen compressed the fluid to state of zero velocity. The
C. Em = Pb – Pi B. Sulfur emission temperature of a moving fluid at the state zero velocity is
D. Em = Pi – Pb C. Carbon monoxide called:
D. Carbon dioxide A. Stagnation temperature
Answer: B B. Partial temperature
Answer: B C. Critical temperature
26. Past ME Board Question D. Absolute temperature
What is the least number of compressors a multistage 31. Past ME Board Question
system that will use? The fraction of the radiation energy incident on a surface Answer: A
A. Three which is absorbed by the surface is called:
B. Two A. Convection 36. Past ME Board Question
C. Four B. Absorptivity The dew point temperature of the products of combustion in
D. One C. Emission the saturation temperature that corresponds to the partial
D. Radiation pressure of the _____ in the products.
Answer: B A. 𝑆𝑂2
Answer: B B. 𝐻2𝑂
27. Past ME Board Question
The relation between the Fahrenheit absolute scale and the 32. Past ME Board Question C. 𝑁2
Celsius absolute scale is: Which of the following power plants uses energy from D. 𝐶𝑂2
A. R = 1.8 K uranium to produce electric power?
B. R = 32 K A. Diesel Plant
Answer: B
C. R = 3.2 K B. Geothermal Plant
D. R = 18 K C. Nuclear Plant
37. Past ME Board Question
D. Hydroelectric Plant
What do we call a device that is used to boiler operation that
Answer: A
will stop the burner or at least send a signal to the operator if
Answer: C
the water drops to a low level that is no longer safe?
28. Past ME Board Question
A. Safety valve
The sum of the internal energy and the product of pressure 33. Past ME Board Question
B. Dead-weight valve
and specific volume is known as the: Ice cubes added to a glass of water and stirred. Moisture
C. High water cut off
A. Enthalpy starts to form on the outer surface of the glass. At this point,
D. Low water cut off
B. Entropy what is the temperature at the outer surface called?
C. Total work A. Critical temperature
Answer: D
D. Total internal energy B. Surface temperature
C. Dew point temperature
38. Past ME Board Question
Answer: A D. Saturation temperature
Dry analysis is a fractional analysis of the products of
combustion which does not include:
29. Past ME Board Question Answer: C
 A. Water vapor B. Decrease thermal efficiency C. Throw the brine solution
B. Carbon dioxide C. Moderate thermal efficiency D. Low the temperature of the brine
C. Sulfur dioxide D. Low thermal efficiency
D. Carbon monoxide Answer: B
Answer: A
Answer: A 49. Past ME Board Question
44. Past ME Board Question What will happen when the pressure at any point inside a
If the pressure exerted on a liquid is higher than the centrifugal pump goes below the vapor pressure
saturation corresponding to its temperature. The liquid is a: corresponding to the temperature of the liquid?
39. Past ME Board Question A. Saturated liquid A. Turbulent flow
The size of a reciprocating pump is stamped on the builder’s B. Subcooled liquid B. Laminar flow
plate 3” x 4” x 6”. The diameter of the liquid cylinder is: C. Superheated liquid C. Cavitation
A. 5” D. Highly superheated liquid D. Priming
B. 6”
C. 3” Answer: B Answer: C
D. 4”
45. Past ME Board Question 50. Past ME Board Question
Answer: D In a power driven pump, each piston stroke is displaced by What does a negative Joule-Thompson coefficient means
𝑜
360 divided the ______. during a throttling process?
40. Past ME Board Question A. Revolution per minute A. Fluid pressure is constant
One foot water is equal to: B. Bore B. Fluid temperature drops
A. 0.4138 lb/𝑖𝑛
2
C. Length of the stroke C. Fluid temperature rises
2 D. Number of cylinders D. Fluid pressure zero
B. 68.3 lb/𝑓𝑡
2
C. 0.8673 lb/𝑖𝑛 Answer: C
Answer: D
2
D. 62.43 lb/𝑓𝑡
46. Past ME Board Question 51. Past ME Board Question
Answer: D If the air is compressed without discarding heat, then what For steam power plants, increasing the operating pressure of
do you call this kind of compression? the boiler will:
41. Past ME Board Question A. Isobaric A. Increase thermal efficiency
The freezing point of R – 22 is: B. Isochoric B. Decrease thermal efficiency
A. -109 ℉ C. Adiabatic C. Bring thermal efficiency to zero
B. -252 ℉ D. Isothermal D. Make thermal efficiency constant
C. -256 ℉
D. -211 ℉ Answer: C Answer: A
47. Past ME Board Question
Answer: C If a gas possesses internal energy, then it is due to its: 52. Past ME Board Question
A. Velocity The ratio of the average load to that of the rated capacity of
42. Past ME Board Question B. Pressure and volume values a plant is called:
Which of the following is a type of evaporator? C. Height from a certain datum level A. Output factor
A. Shell-and-tube condenser D. Molecular motion B. Load factor
B. Shell-and-tube water cooler C. Demand factor
C. Oil lantern rings Answer: D D. Capacity factor
D. Polyphase motors
48. Past ME Board Question Answer: D
Answer: A The pressure of ammonia was detected in brine solution.
How can ammonia be removed? 53. Past ME Board Question
43. Past ME Board Question A. Freeze the brine solution What is the method used to evaluate all welds performed on
For Brayton cycle, the result of regeneration is: B. Heat the brine to a high temperature enough to pressure parts of boiler tube materials?
A. Increase in thermal efficiency free the ammonia A. Hydrostatic test
B. Orsat analysis
 C. Vacuum test A valve that releases steam from the boiler by opening at a C. Above atmospheric
D. Radiographic test pre-determined pressure in order to keep the steam pressure D. Zero
from rising more than the pressure from which the valve is
Answer: D set is called a Answer: B
A. Ammonia valve
54. Past ME Board Question B. Stop valve 63. Past ME Board Question
If the pressure is disregarded in the various other C. Check valve In order to remove the fly ashes from the flue gas, which of
components of a steam of gas power plants, the pressure D. Safety valve the following must a power plant equipped with?
rise in the pump or compressor is ____ to the pressure drop A. Condenser
in the turbine. Answer: D B. Demineralizer
A. Inversely proportional C. Electrostatic precipitator
B. Constant 59. Past ME Board Question D. Desulphurization plant
C. Equal What is the relationship of the capacity of a centrifugal pump,
D. Varying Q, to impeller diameter, D, when there are two impeller Answer: C
diameters in the same pump?
Answer: C A. Q is directly proportional to the square of the ratio 64. Past ME Board Question
of D If Hs is the total suction head of a pump, Hp is its suction
55. Past ME Board Question B. Q is inversely proportional to the ratio of D surface pressure, and Hf is its suction friction head, then
What is the effect on saturated temperature if the pressure of C. Q. is directly proportional to the ratio of D calculate the total suction head, Ht.
the fluid is decreased? D. Q is inversely proportional to the square of the A. Ht = Hs – Hp – Hf
A. There is no effect ratio of D B. Ht = Hs + Hp – Hf
B. Saturation temperature decreases C. Ht = Hs + Hp + Hf
C. Saturation temperature remains constant Answer: C D. Ht = Hs – Hp + Hf
D. Saturation temperature increases
60. Past ME Board Question Answer: C
Answer: B If Wt is the turbine shaft work of a gas turbine unit, Wc is its
compressor shaft work and Q is the heat supplied in fuel, 65. Past ME Board Question
56. Past ME Board Question then determine its thermal efficiency. The constant spending of certain percentage of circulated
If V3 is the cylinder volume after the combustion process of a A. Q / (Wt – Wc) water in a cooling tower in order to prevent accumulation of
Diesel cycle and V2 is its cylinder volume before B. Q / (Wt + Wc) dissolved mineral solids and other impurities in the
combustion, then calculate the cut-off ratio, r. C. (Wt + Wc) / Q condenser water is called
A. r = V3 – V2 D. (Wt – Wc) / Q A. Approach
B. r = V2 – V3 B. Drift
C. r = V2 / V3 Answer: D C. Range
D. r = V3 / V2 D. Bleed-off
61. Past ME Board Question
Answer: D The schedule number of a pipe, N, indicates the thickness of Answer: D
the pipe wall. If the allowable stress of the pipe is S, then
57. Past ME Board Question what is the internal pressure equal to? 66. Past ME Board Question
Compare the temperature of discharge vapor refrigerant A. N – S What process is employed when the turbine steam power
leaving the compressor for a superheated cycle and B. N / S plants experience excessive moisture?
saturated cycle, for the same condensing temperature and C. N x S A. Reheating
pressure. D. S / N B. Supercooling
A. There is no difference C. Subcooling
B. Higher for the superheated cycle Answer: C D. Freezing
C. Higher for the saturated cycle
D. Lower for the superheated cycle 62. Past ME Board Question Answer: A
What is the pressure present inside the casing of an impulse
Answer: B turbine? 67. Past ME Board Question
A. Vacuum
58. Past ME Board Question B. Atmospheric pressure
A company is interested to produce a water turbine wherein D. There is no effect
only little energy is required or necessary because the guide Answer: C
vanes are to be controlled. The turbine must be a: Answer: D
A. Gas turbine 72. Past ME Board Question
B. Propeller turbine What type of fuel is used with stationary power plants where 77. Past ME Board Question
C. Kaplan turbine gas is available by pipeline? Compare the refrigerating effect per unit mass of refrigerant
D. Francis turbine A. Gaseous fuels circulated for a superheated cycle that produces useful
B. Solid fuels cooling and a saturated cycle, for the same vaporizing and
Answer: C C. Coal condensing temperature.
D. Liquid fuels A. Lower for a superheated cycle
68. Past ME Board Question B. Greater for a saturated cycle
If Et is the total net energy generated by a plant in a certain Answer: A C. The same
period of time and Er is the rated net energy capacity of the D. Greater for a superheated cycle
plant during the same period of time, then what is the plant 73. Past ME Board Question
operating factor? Wb is shaft work of an engine and Wi is the indicated work of Answer: D
A. Er – Et an engine. If mechanical friction is present in the engine
B. Et / Er mechanism, then: 78. Past ME Board Question
C. Et – Er A. Wb is equal to Wi It is important to take some moisture from the air to
D. Er / Et B. Wb is less than Wi dehumidify it if the relative humidity reaches high levels. To
C. Wb is proportional to Wi do this, it requires cooling the air:
Answer: B D. Wb is greater than Wi A. At wet-bulb temperature
B. Above its dew point temperature
69. Past ME Board Question Answer: B C. At critical temperature
If W is the work output of a heat engine and H is the total D. Below its dew point temperature
heat input of an engine, then determine its thermal efficiency, 74. Past ME Board Question
e. What is the saturation pressure at the critical temperature, or Answer: D
A. e = H/ W the lowest pressure in which a substance can be in the liquid
B. e = W / H state at its critical pressure? 79. Past ME Board Question
C. e = W x H A. External pressure What does enthalpy measure in a substance?
D. e = l – ( W – H ) B. Critical pressure A. Its coldness
C. Condensing pressure B. Its heat content
Answer: B D. Evaporation pressure C. Its humidity
D. Its dew point
70. Past ME Board Question Answer: B
Which of the following is converted to mechanical energy by Answer: B
a water. 75. Past ME Board Question
A. Internal energy What is the significance of a high dielectric strength of 80. Past ME Board Question
B. Kinetic energy lubricating oil? Pneumatic tools are powered by:
C. Potential energy A. Oil is thick A. Natural gas
D. Hydraulic energy B. Oil is contaminant – free B. Air
C. Oil is thin C. Electricity
Answer: C D. Oil is not clean D. Steam

71. Past ME Board Question Answer: B Answer: B

What must be the value of the available Net Positive Suction
Head (NPSH) of a centrifugal pump compared to its require 76. Past ME Board Question 81. Past ME Board Question
NPSH to avoid losing priming? Theoretically, what is the effect of the compressor clearance The pump will not cavitate if the available Net Positive
A. Available NPSH lesser than required NPSH on horsepower? Suction Head (NPSH) is:
B. Available NPSH equal than required NPSH A. Varies in direct proportion A. Less than the required NPSH
C. Available NPSH greater than required NPSH B. Increase power B. Equal or lesser than the required NPSH
D. Available NPSH constant at all times C. Decrease power C. Equal or greater than the required NPSH
 D. Zero compared to the required NPSH of 1 When vapor compression takes place on one side of the D. Expansion and check valves
piston and one during one revolution of the crankshaft, then
Answer: C the compressor is: Answer: B
A. Double-acting
82. Past ME Board Question B. Four-cycle 91. Past ME Board Question
A water-tube condenser has a total of 60 tubes. If these are C. Two-revolution The diesel cycle is the ideal cycle for a :
two passes, then compute the number of tubes per pass. D. Single-acting A. Absorption
A. 6 C B. Steam-jet
B. 15 Answer: D C. Compression-ignition engine
C. 3 C D. Gas turbine
D. 2
Answer: C
Answer: B 87. Past ME Board Question
In Stirling and Erickson Cycles, the efficiency can be 92. Past ME Board Question
83. Past ME Board Question increased by: If a Carnot cycle is at the same maximum and minimum
If Ev is the volumetric efficiency of a reciprocating pump, A. Compressibility temperatures as a Rankine cycle, then how would you
then determine SLIP which represents all losses of capacity B. Superheating compare the efficiency of a Rankine cycle to that of the
given in percentage of the displacement. C. Regeneration Carnot cycle?
A. 1 / Ev D. Subcooling A. Efficiency is the same
B. 1 – 1 / Ev B. Higher efficiency
C. 1 – Ev Answer: C C. Efficiency is higher by 30%
D. Ev + 1 D. Lower efficiency
88. Past ME Board Question
Answer: C Which of the following is used to control refrigeration Answer: D
compressor capacity?
84. Past ME Board Question A. Dehumidifier 93. Past ME Board Question
What is the relationship of the horsepower of a centrifugal B. Check valve Compute the wall gain load of a load storage room when A is
pump, Hp, to the impeller speed, S, if the pump is at two C. Solenoid valve the outside surface area of the wall, D is the temperature
different rotative speeds? D. Unloader differential across the wall, and U is the overall coefficient of
A. Hp is inversely proportional to the cube of the ratio heat transmission.
of S Answer: D A. AU / D
B. Hp is directly proportional to the ratio of S B. D / AU
C. Hp is inversely proportional to the ratio of S 89. Past ME Board Question C. A / UD
D. Hp is directly proportional to the cube of the ratio During a cooling and dehumidifying process, sensible and D. AUD
of S latent heats are removed in the cooling coil. If Hs is the
sensible heat and Ht is the total heat transferred, then Answer: D
Answer: D determine the coil sensible heat factor.
A. Ht – Hs 94. Past ME Board Question
85. Past ME Board Question B. Hs – Ht If m is the mass of dry air and H is the specific enthalpy of
What is likely to occur when sections of the impeller of a C. Ht / Hs the water vapor in air and r is the humidity ratio, then
centrifugal pump are handling vapor and other sections are D. Hs / Ht determine the latent heat of any dry air.
handling liquid? A. m / (r – H)
A. Erosion of the pump Answer: D B. r / (H – m)
B. High head and low capacity C. (m – r) / H
C. Excessive vibration 90. Past ME Board Question D. m (r x H)
D. Complete failure to operate Based on the PSME Code, what should be provided in each
stream outlets if two or more boilers will be connected in Answer: D
Answer: D parallel?
A. Relief and check valves 95. Past ME Board Question
86. Past ME Board Question B. Non-return and shut-off valves When an electric motor nameplate indicates a “100-kw
C. Expansion and shut-off valves electric motor” then what does a 100-kw rating refers to?
 A. Thermal energy input There are three basic boiler types, namely: What is the cause of pressure drop in the boiler, condenser
B. Thermal energy output A. Water-tube, horizontal tube and cast-iron boilers and the pipings between different components? Because of
C. Electrical power output B. Cast-iron, fire-tube and water tube boilers this drop, steam leaving the boiler is at lower pressure.
D. Mechanical power output C. Fire-tube, cast-iron and water tube boilers A. Positive slip
D. HRT, fire-tubes and Scotch Marine boilers B. Fluid friction
Answer: D C. Negative slip
Answer: B D. Low thermal efficiency
96. Past ME Board Question
For a hydraulic power to be transmitted at its maximum what 101. Past ME Board Question Answer: B
should be the value of loss of head due to friction if H is the The amount of heat necessary to bring up the temperature of
total available head? a unit mass of a substance through a unit degree is called:
A. 11H A. Specific volume
B. 1/3 H B. Thermal heat
C. 1/4 H C. Total heat
D. 5H D. Specific heat

Answer: C Answer: D

97. Past ME Board Question 102. Past ME Board Question

The ratio of the average load during a certain time to peak What is the specific gravity of an oil which has a Baume
the load occurring during the same period of time is called: reading g of 28 degrees F?
A. Demand factor A. 0.215
B. Capacity factor B. 0.562
C. Load factor C. 0.886
D. Output factor D. 0.774

Answer: C Answer: C

98. Past ME Board Question 103. Past ME Board Question

Based on the PSME Code, what should be the effective If C is the capacity of the compressor in a refrigeration
temperature of the air to be maintained for comfort cooling at system and F is the heat rejection factor, then calculate the
an air movement from 0.0761 to 0.127 meter per second? condenser load, L.
A. 25 – 29 degrees C A. L = F – C
B. 35 – 39 degrees C B. L = F / C
C. 20 – 24 degrees C C. L = C x F
D. 30 – 34 degrees C D. L = C / F

Answer: C Answer: C

99. Past ME Board Question 104. Past ME Board Question

If R is the delivery rate of a pump, H is the total pumping Based on the PSME Code, what should be the humidity ratio
head and e is the efficiency of the pump, then compute the of air to be used for comfort cooling?
power required to drive the pump. A. 75% - 80% relative humidity
A. R / H x e B. 50% - 60% relative humidity
B. 1 – (R + H) / e C. 60% - 70% relative humidity
C. (R x H) / e D. 70% - 75% relative humidity
D. (H – R) / e
Answer: B
Answer: C
105. Past ME Board Question
100. Past ME Board Question