FEU-NRMF School of Respiratory Therapy

Comprehensive Review 2016

Pre-Broad Examination
(Respiratory Care)

Name: Date:

Multiple choice, choose the BEST answer.

1. Which of the following statements regarding the reported advantages of nasal over orotracheal tubes is/are true?
I. Less skill is required in placement
II. They are preferred whenever long-term intubation is anticipated
III. A larger caliber tube may be used
IV. They are generally tolerated better by the patient
A. I, III and IV only C. II only
B. I,II and IV only D. I, II and III only E. II and IV only
2. Which of the following is the correct progression of the anatomic structures of the upper airway?
I. Vocal cords III. Oropharynx
II. Arytenoid cartilage IV. Epiglottis V. Uvula
A. III, I, IV, II and V C. IV, III, II, I and V
B. IV, III, II, V and I D. III, V, IV, II and I E. III, IV, II, I and V
3. Which of the following would be the preferred method of maintain airway patency in a unconscious patient who is
not in respiratory distress?
A. Nasopharyngeal airway C. Orotracheal intubation
B. Oropharyngeal airway D. Nasotracheal intubation E. Transtracheal catheter
4. Postextubation complications of tracheal intubation include(s);
I. Tracheomalacia III. Glottic and subglotticedema
II. Tracheoesophageal fistula IV. Mucosal ischemia and necrosis V. Tracheal stenosis
A. I, III and V only C. I, IV and V only
B. II, III and V only D. V only E. I and V only
5. All of the following are pathophysiologic sequelae of the use of high pressure tracheal tube cuffs. Place them in their
proper order.
I. Mucosal edema III. Necrosis of cartilaginous tissue
II. Sloughing of mucosa IV. Ischemia to mucosal tissue
A. I, IV, III and II C. I, IV, II and III
B. IV, II, I and III D. IV, I, III and II E. IV, I, II and III
6. Methods of reducing the incidence of tracheal tube cuff-related side effects include:
I. Use of pressure-limited cuffs III. Use of foam type cuffs
II. Use of high residual volume type cuffs IV. Monitoring of intracuff pressure
A. I, II, III and IV C. II, III and IV only
B. I and II only D. II and IV only E. I, II and IV only
7. Which of the complications is not believed to be related to the use of high pressure cuffs?
A. Tracheal dilation C. Brachiocephalic (innominate) artery erosion
B. Tracheal stenosis D. Tracheoesophageal fistula E. Cuff herniation
8. The respiratory therapy practitioner is called to the recovery room. The patient in question is in a deep coma and
according to the anesthesiologist, has no upper airway reflexes. As this patient regains consciousness, which of the following
reflexes will return first?
A. Gag C. Carinal
B. Tracheal D. Swallowing E. Laryngeal

9. The trachea of the average adult approximately cm in length.

A. 7-9 cm C. 12-14 cm
B. 8-10 cm D. 14-16 cm E. 16-18 cm
10. Which of the following is generally considered the route of first choice in establishing the emergency airway?
A. Orotracheal intubation C. Tracheostomy
B. Nasotracheal intubation D. Cricothyroidotomy E. Transtracheal catheter ventilation
11. All of the following measures tend to minimize the complications associated with the use of endotracheal tubes,
EXCEPT;
A. Intubation by experienced personnel only
B. Selection of correct tube size
C. Deflation of cuffs for 5 minutes every hour
D. Suctioning both above and below the cuffs
C. Limiting intracuff pressures to 20 cm to 25 cm H2O
12. The most serious complication resulting from anterior tracheal wall necrosis is ?
A. Tracheoesophageal erosion C. Innominate artery erosion
B. Esophageal compression D. Tracheoesophageal fistula E. C and D are correct
13. When using a nasopharyngeal airway, the distal end should:
A. Be level with the uvula
B. Be level with the tip of the tongue
C. Displace the tongue forward, preventing obstruction
D. Partially open the epiglottis
E. Become obstructed by the soft palate only during inspiration
14. In general, use of high pressure tracheal tube cuffs is least likely to result in which of the following?
A. Tracheal ischemia C. Tracheal malacia
B. Tracheal necrosis D. Tracheal stenosis E. Tracheal aspiration
15. Which of the following actions would not be performed as part of the procedure of tracheal tube cuff care?
A. Suctioning below the cuff
B. Suctioning above the cuff
C. Deflating the cuff prior to suctioning the upper airways
D. Deflating the cuff only under pressure so as to direct pooled secretions into the oropharynx
E. Administering oxygen before and after the procedure
16. Immediate complications of endotracheal intubation may include:
I. Laryngeal trauma III. Tracheal stenosis
II. Iatrogenic hypoxia IV. Endobronchial intubation E. Subcutaneous Emphysema
A. I, II, IV and V only C. I, II, III, IV and V
B. I, II, III and IV only D. I, III and V only E. I, II and V only
17. In patients with cervical spine trauma, visualization of the larynx during nasotracheal intubation may be aided by:
I. Flexion of the head and neck III. Use of the fiberoptic laryngoscope
II. Modified jaw thrust maneuvers IV. Hyperextension of the head and neck
A. III only C. I and II only
B. II only D. I and III only E. II and III only
18. Which of the following hazards is not believed to be associated with the use of the esophageal obturator airway?
A. Low delivered tidal volume C. Aspiration of gastric juice
B. Esophageal rupture D. Tracheal compression E. Hyperventilation
19. Successful orotracheal intubation in the average adult patient is indicated by which of the following?
I. Bilateral chest wall movement during inspiration
II. The endotracheal tube’s 13 cm mark at the patient’s gum line III. Equal and bilateral breath sounds
A. I and III only C. III only
B. II and III only D. II only E. I, II and III

20. Which of the following statement is/are true regarding endotracheal intubation as a means of establishing the
airway during cardiopulmonary resuscitation?
I. It should not be attempted by untrained personnel
II. Preoxygenation is not essential if personnel and equipment are immediately available
III. It should be perform prior to removal of an esophageal obturator airway
21. In general, the minimum vital capacity necessary to provide an effective cough is believed to be:
A. 15 ml/kg C. 40 ml/kg
B. 25 ml/kg D. 15 ml/lb E. 45 ml/lb
22. In postural drainage, if anterior basal segment of the lower lobes is affected the patient’s position
should be in ?
A. Supine position and with foot of the bed elevated 20 inches
B. Supine position and the bed should be flat
C. One-quarter turn from supine with left side up and foot of the bed elevated 12 inches.
D. One-quarter turn from supine with right side up and foot of the bed elevated 12 inches.
E. None of the above
23. Prone, a pillow under the patient’s abdomen and the bed flat describes the position for draining:
A. Basal lobes, apical segment C. Basal lobes, lateral segment
B. Basal lobes, posterior segment D. Basal lobes, anterior E. A and C are correct
24. A respiratory therapist practitioner positions a patient on his back, one-quarter turn to the left side with the foot
the bed elevated 12 inches. The pulmonary segment being drained is ?
A. Right middle lobe C. Medial segment, right basal lobe
B. Anterior segment, right basal lobe D. Lateral segment, right basal lobe E. Posterior segment, right basal lobe
25. If apical segment of the upper lobe is affected, what will be the position of the patient?
A. One-quarter turn from prone with the right side up and supported by pillows with head of the bed flat.
B. Semi-flowler’s position with head of the bed raised 45 degrees.
C. One-quarter turn from supine with left side up and foot of the bed elevated 12 inches.
D. One-quarter turn from supine with right side up and foot of the bed elevated 12 inches.
E. None of the above
26. In postural drainage, if anterior basal segment of the lower lobes is affected the patient’s position
should be in ?
A. Supine position and with foot of the bed elevated 20 inches
B. Supine position and the bed should be flat
C. One-quarter turn from supine with left side up and foot of the bed elevated 12 inches.
D. One-quarter turn from supine with right side up and foot of the bed elevated 12 inches.
E. None of the above
27. Which of the following factors will influence the absolute humidity of therapeutic gases that are delivered by a
bubble type humidifier?
I. The size of the liquid/gas interface III. Type of medical gas administered
II. Gas exposure time (unit liter flow) IV. Temperature within the humidifier device
A. I, II and IV only C. I, II and III only
B. III and IV only D. II and IV only E. III only
28. The device on an ultrasonic nebulizer that converts electrical energy to mechanical/vibrational energy is
called a(n) :
A. Electric transducer C. Piezoelectric transducer
B. Condenser module D. Aerosol generator E. Mechanical transducer
29. Which of the following are true statements regarding the cascade type humidifier?
I. It is used to deliver gases at APTD III. It is not capable of delivering particulate water
II. It is a type of jet humidifier IV. It has been implicated in the transmission of nosocomial
A. I and II only C. I, III and IV only
B. III and IV only D. II, III and IV only E. I and IV only

30. The size of the aerosol particles that are generated by an ultrasonic nebulizer is believed to be determined by
which of the following factors?
A. Unit ultrasonic frequency C. Type of solution nebulized
B. Unit amplitude D. Shape of the ceramic disk E. Level of water within the nebulizer chamber
31. The majority of particles aerosolized by this device is believed to be in the range of:
A. Less than 10μ C. 20-30μ
B. 10-20μ D. 30-40μ E. 40-50μ
32. The baffle in a nebulizer serves which of the purposes?
A. It increases the aerosol output C. It increases gas density
B. It decreases the aerosol output D. It breaks up the larger particles into smaller particles
33. With which of the following types of ventilators will the delivered tidal volume be directly proportional to the
patient’s lung-thorax compliance?
A. Pressure cycled C. Time cycled
B. Volume cycled D. Flow cycled E. B and C are correct
34. Which of the following microorganisms is most likely to contaminate the water reservoirs of respiratory therapy
equipment?
A. Escherichia coli C. Beta-hemolytic streptococcus
B. Proteus species D. Candida species E. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
35. All of the following methods of transmitting disease have been associated with the development of nosocomial
infections.
Which is believed to be the single major cause?
A. Droplet contamination by coughing and sneezing
B. Use of respiratory therapy devices
C. Increased resistance and virulence of hospital flora
D. Large reservoir of defense compromised hosts
C. Poor handwashing technique
36. All of the following organisms are frequently implicated in the development of nosocomial respiratory tract
infection. The presence of which of the following is most suggestive of contamination by aerosol therapy equipment?
A. Staphylococcus aureus C. Serratia species
B. Hemophilus influenza D. Pneumococcus E. Streptococcus
37. Which of the following is the most common fungal agent causing nosocomial pulmonary infections?
A. Candida species C. Aspergillus fumigatus
B. Histoplasma capsulatum D. Coccidioides immitis E. All of the above
38. Which of the following is not part of the normal or resident flora of the upper respiratory tract?
A. Candida albicans C. Staphylococcus species
B. Hemophilus species D. Klebsiella species E. Pneumococci
39. Which of the following are most frequently implicated in the development of nosocomial pulmonary infections?
A. Viruses C. Fungi
B. Gram-positive bacteria D. Gram-negative bacteria E. Spores
40. All of the following organisms have been held responsible for hospital-acquired pulmonary infections. Which is
associated with the highest mortality rate?
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. Proteus species
B. Serratia species D. Klebsiella pneumonia E. Staphylococcus aureus
41. The respiratory therapy practitioner should be aware that Mycobacterium tuberculosis is transmitted to the host
primarily by:
A. Fomite contamination C. Handling of contaminated respiratory therapy equipment
B. Direct skin-to skin contact D. Handling of infected sputum E. Inhalation of contaminated droplets
42. Which of the following is invariably considered to be an absolute contraindication for IPPB therapy?
A. Active tuberculosis C. Untreated tension pneumothorax
B. Hemoptysis D. Pulmonary emphysema E. Postoperative atelectasis

43. Which of the following are established clinical goals of IPBB therapy?
I. Deliver aerosolized medication III. Provide long-term improvement in arterial blood gas abnormalities
II. Improve bronchial hygiene IV. Prevent the need for intubation and mechanical ventilation
A. II and IV only C. I, II and IV only
B. I and IV only D. II and III only E. I, II, III and IV
44. The primary use of sustained maximal inspiratory therapy (incentive spirometry) is to ?
A. Treat atelectasis C. Decrease the work of breathing
B. Mobilize secretions D. Prevent atelectasis E. Maintain normal blood gases
45. When used for the administration of continuous ventilatory support, pressure-cycled ventilators may have which of
the following disadvantages?
I. Volume delivery may be unreliable
II. Precise FIO2 administration may require equipment modification
III. They are generally more expensive than volume-cycled ventilators
IV. They cannot be adapted to include exhaled tidal volume monitors
A. I and II only C. II, III and IV only
B. I and IV only D. I, II and IV only E. II only
46. Which of the following is the primary physiologic effect of PEEP and CPAP therapy?
A. Increase in cardiac output C. Increase in anatomic deadspace
B. Decrease in PaCO2 D. Increase in functional residual capacity E. Decrease in urine output
47. Which of the following conditions is (are) known to cause intrapulmonary (right-to-left) shunting?
I. Sarcoidosis III. Ventricular septal defects
II. Left ventricular failure IV. Adult respiratory distress syndrome
A. I, III and IV only C. II only
B. II and IV only D. II and IV only E. I only
48. Which of the following statements regarding the administration of helium and oxygen mixtures is (are) true?
I. It is usually indicated in the management of acute restrictive disorders
II. Low gas density may decrease the work of breathing
III. It should not be used on patients prone to airtrapping
IV. It is of particular benefit when used as a vehicle for medical aerosols
A. I and IV only C. I, II and IV only
B. III and IV only D. II only E. II and III only
49. In which of the following conditions may the administration of hyperbaric oxygen be indicated?
I. Carbon monoxide poisoning II. Diaphragmatic hernia III. Gas gangrene infections
A. I and II only C. III only
B. I only D. I and III only E. I, II and III only
50. The most efficient mechanism the body has to compensate for arterial hypoxemia is ?
A. Pulmonary vasoconstriction C. Increased cardiac output
B. Increased peripheral vascular resistance D. Cerebral vasodilation E. Increased minute ventilation
51. During pressure limited ventilation, a presence of an increase airway resistance will:
A. Reduced the delivered tidal volume C. Increased the delivered tidal volume
B. Raise the peak airway pressure D. Deliver a constant tidal volume

52. A patient hook on a pressure limited ventilation is in a PCV mode. The monitored mean airway pressure is 35 cmH2O. All of
the following settings would decrease the mean airway pressure except:
A. ↓ RR C. ↓ PEEP
B. ↓ PIP D. ↓ FiO2
53. The most recent blood gas analysis of a mechanically ventilated patient shows that the patient is hypoventilating
(PaCO2: 65 mmHg). Which of the following set parameters would improve this?
A. Decrease the tidal volume C. increase respiratory rate
B. Increase FiO2 D. decrease peak flow rate

54. If a mechanically ventilated patient is being ventilated at high airway pressures, this may lead to which of the
following conditions?
A. Renal failure C. barotrauma
B. Decrease in cardiac output D. all of the above
 55. A patient is hook on a volume pre-set ventilation with the following settings: Mode- A/C, Vt – 500ml, RR – 15 BPM,
Fi02 – 100 %, PFR – 50LPM. A decrease in the lung compliance of the patient will cause which of the following:
A. An increase delivery in tidal volume C. A delivery of constant tidal volume
B. A decrease delivery in tidal volume D. None of the above
56. If a particular patient is currently being mechanically ventilated on a volume limited ventilation in a control mode,
which of the following set parameters can affect his I:E ratio?
I. PFR III. PEEP
II. Vt IV. RR
A. I, II and III only C. II, III and IV only
B. I, II and IV only D. I, II, III and IV only E. I, III and IV only
57. A patient is currently mechanically ventilated on a pressure pre-set ventilation with the following settings: Mode:
PCV, PIP: 20cmH2O, I time: .5 seconds, RR – 15 BPM, Fi02 – 50 %. If the I time is increased to 1 second, which of the following
responses will most likely occur?
A. mPaw will increase C. Vt will decrease
B. Peak inspiratory will increase D. FiO2 will increase
58. The following data are collected from a 60 kg patient with ARDS receiving volume controlled ventilation. Which of
the following is the most appropriate recommendation?

Mode: A/C ABG:

Rate: 15 bpm pH 7.35
Vt: 600 ml PaCO2 43 mmHg
PEEP: 15 cmH2O PaO2 120 mmHg
FiO2: 80 % HCO3 24 mEq
PPlat: 33 cmH2O
PAP: 48 cmH2O

A. Decreased RR to 12 bpm C. Decreased PEEP to 13 cmH2O

B. Decreased Vt to 500 ml *D. Decreased FiO2 to 70 %
59. A patient is hook on a pressure pre-set ventilation with the following settings: Mode- PCV, PIP – 20cmH2O, RR – 15
BPM, Fi02 – 100 %. A decrease in the lung compliance of the patient will cause which of the following:
A. An increase delivery in tidal volume C. A delivery of constant tidal volume
*B. A decrease delivery in tidal volume D. An increase in Peak airway Pressure
60. The following data has been collected from a 75 kg patient receiving mechanical ventilation with a volume
ventilator. Based on these data’s, which of the following ventilator setting changes would you recommend?

Mode: A/C ABG:

BUR: 12 bpm pH: 7.37
Vt: 750 ml PaCO2: 42 mmHg
FiO2: 80% PaO2: 161 mmHg
PEEP: 10 cmH2O HCO3: 25 mEq

A. increase Vt to 800 ml C. Increase ventilatot rate to 15 bpm

B. decrease PEEP to 8 cmH2O *D. Decrease FiO2 to 70%
61. Which of the following PEEP setting is the optimal PEEP?

PEEP(cmH2O) PAP(cmH2O) PPLAT(cmH2O) Vt (ml)

4 36 20 500
6 39 22 500
8 42 23 500
10 45 27 500

A. 4 cmH2O C. 8 cmH2O
B. 6 cmH2O D. 10 cmH2O
62. The following data has been collected from a patient receiving mechanical ventilation with a volume ventilator. On
the basis of the following data, which of the following should the therapist recommend?
 Mode: SIMV pH 7.30
Vt: 750 PaCO2 50 mmHg
RR: 4 bpm PaO2 80mmHg
Spontaneous rate: 12 bpm HCO3 26 mEq
FiO2: 35%

A. Increase the Vt to 850 *C. Increase the rate to 8 bpm

B. Increase the FiO2 to 40% D. Change to assist control

63. This is the type of sensitivity setting that is considered the most sensitive in sensing patient effort:
A. Pressure sensitivity *C. Flow sensitivity
B. Volume sensitivity D. None of the above
64. If you want a longer expiratory time (E time) of your current volume pre – set ventilation settings, this can be
achieved by:
A. Decreasing PFR C. Increasing Vt
*B. Increasing PFR D. None of the above
65. An asthmatic patient in acute exacerbation has been intubated and hook on a volume ventilator. The Plateau
pressure and Peak Airway Pressure were as follows:
TIME PPLAT PAP

7:00 AM 10 cmH20 45 cmH20

8:00 AM 10 cmH20 30 cmH20
9:00 AM 10 cmH20 20 cmH20

What do these measurements indicate:

A. A decreasing dynamic compliance C. An increasing dynamic compliance
B. An increasing static compliance D. A decreasing static compliance
66. A patient hook on a volume ventilator displayed the Plateau pressure and Peak Airway Pressure as follows:
TIME PPLAT PAP

7:00 AM 10 cmH20 30 cmH20

8:00 AM 15 cmH20 35 cmH20
9:00 AM 20 cmH20 40 cmH20

Which of the following conditions could manifest these changes:

I. Obesity III. airway obstruction
II. Retained secretions IV. ARDS
A. I, II and III only C. I, II, III and IV
B. II, III and IV only D. I, II and IV only E. I, III and IV only

67. The following data have been collected from a patient using a volume ventilator:

Mode: Control ABG:

Rate: 10 bpm pH 7.44
Vt: 700 ml PaCO2 42 mmHg
FiO2: 50% PaO2 58 mmHg
Based on this information, the respiratory therapist should recommend which of the following ventilator changes?
*A. Increase FiO2 to 0.60 C. add 5 cmH2O PEEP
B. increased Vt to 800 ml D. initiate CPAP with 4 cmH2O and an FiO2 of 0.50
68. The physician ask the therapist to evaluate the following ventilatory parameters for possible weaning attempt.
Which of the following suggest successful weaning?
A. Spontaneous frequency (f) = 40/min C. Minute ventilation 16 L
*B. Spontaneous Vt = 7 ml/kg D. PaCO2 = 55 mmHg
69. A patient has an average spontaneous frequency of 20/min and Vt of 400ml. What is the calculated RSBI?
*A. 50 breaths/min/L C. 200 breaths/min/L
B. 80 breaths/min/L D. 800 breaths/min/L
 70. The following data are collected from a patient receiving mechanical ventilation with a volume ventilator. Which of
the following is the optimal PEEP?

PEEP PaO2 PvO2

4 cm H20 68 mmHg 36 mmHg
6 cm H20 73 mmHg 38 mmHg
8 cm H20 77 mmHg 34 mmHg
10 cm H20 80 mmHg 32 mmHg

A. 4 cm H2O C. 8 cm H2O
*B 6 cm H2O D. 10 cm H2O
71. The following data are obtained from a patient receiving mechanical ventilation with a volume ventilator:

Mode: SIMV ABG:

Rate: 6 bpm pH 7.44
Vt: 700 ml PaCO2 36 mmHg
FiO2: 35 % PaO2 89 mmHg

On the basis of this information, the respiratory therapist should recommend which of the following?
A. Administer NaHCO3 C. Extubate and have the patient begin using a 35% Venturi mask
B. Add mechanical VD *D. Decrease the ventilator rate to 4/min
72. Which of the following could cause an increase in peak airway pressure on a volume ventilator?
I. Decreased CL III. Partially occluded ET Tube
II. Decreased RAW IV. High inspiratory flow setting
A. I and II only *C. I, III and IV only
B. II and III only D. I, II, III and IV
73. Which of the following indicates that a ventilator patient is most likely ready to be weaned?
I. VD/VT of 0.65 III. VC of 17 mL/kg of body weight
II. MIP of – 28 cm H2O
A. II only *C. 2 and 3 only
B. I and II only D. 1, 2, and 3
74. The following data are collected for a 75-kg (165-lb) patient receiving ventilation in the pressure-control mode:

Mode: control ABG:

Rate: 12 bpm pH 7.27
Exhale Vt 300ml PaCO2 54 mmHg
FiO2: 50% PaO2 68 mmHg
PEEP 5 cmH20 HCO3 24 mEq/L
The respiratory therapist should recommend which of the following?
*A. Increase the PIP to 26 cm H2O C. Increase PEEP to 10 cm H2O
B. Increase the FiO2 to 0.70 D. Increase the rate to 15/min.
75. A patient hook on a volume ventilator displayed the Plateau pressure and Peak Airway Pressure as follows:
TIME PPLAT PAP

7:00 AM 30 cmH20 45 cmH20

8:00 AM 22 cmH20 40 cmH20
9:00 AM 16 cmH20 35 cmH20

Which of the following conditions could manifest these changes?

A. Increasing static compliance C. Increasing dynamic compliance
B. Decreasing static compliance D. Decreasing dynamic compliance
76. A patient hook on a volume ventilator displayed the Plateau pressure and Peak Airway Pressure as follows:

TIME PPLAT PAP

7:00 AM 15 cmH20 30 cmH20
8:00 AM 20 cmH20 40 cmH20
 9:00 AM 25 cmH20 50 cmH20
Which of the following conditions could manifest these changes:
A. Increasing static compliance C. Increasing dynamic compliance
B. Decreasing static compliance D. Decreasing dynamic compliance
77. The following data are obtained from a patient receiving mechanical ventilation with a volume ventilator:

Mode: control ABG:

Rate: 12 bpm pH 7.44
Vt: 700 ml PaCO2 36 mmHg
FiO2: 35 % PaO2 55 mmHg

To increase the PaO2 to 80 mmHg, what must be your FiO2?

A. 35 % C. 45 %
B. 40 % *D. 50%
78. The following data has been collected from a 75 kg patient receiving mechanical ventilation with a volume
ventilator. Based on these data’s, which of the following ventilator setting changes would you recommend?

Mode: Control ABG:

BUR: 12 bpm pH: 7.22
Vt: 750 ml PaCO2: 57 mmHg
FiO2: 100% PaO2: 98 mmHg
PEEP: 5 cmH2O HCO3: 25 mEq
A. Increase Vt *C. Increase ventilator rate
B. Decrease PEEP D. Decrease FiO2
79. The following data has been collected from a 75 kg patient receiving mechanical ventilation with a volume
ventilator. Based on these data’s, which of the following ventilator setting changes would you recommend?

Mode: Control ABG:

BUR: 12 bpm pH: 7.37
Vt: 750 ml PaCO2: 43 mmHg
FiO2: 40% PaO2: 58 mmHg
PEEP: 5 cmH2O HCO3: 25 mEq
A. Increase Vt C. Increase ventilator rate
B. Increase PEEP *D. Increase FiO2
80. The following data are collected from 80 kg patient with ARDS receiving volume controlled ventilation. Which of
the following is the most appropriate recommendation?

Mode: A/C ABG:

Rate: 18 bpm pH 7.35
Vt: 800 ml PaCO2 43 mmHg
PEEP: 15 cmH2O PaO2 53 mmHg
FiO2: 80 % HCO3 24 mEq
PPlat: 38 cmH2O
PAP: 55 cmH2O
A. Increase PEEP to 20 cmH2O *C. Switched to PCV
B. Increase FiO2 to 100 % D. Increase Vt to 900 ml
81. A device that registers flow rate as a result of backpressure created by a fixed orifice is ?
A. A Thorpe tube C. A rotameter
B. A kinetic flowrate D. A thermistor E. A bourdon gauge
82. When full cylinders of gaseous oxygen usually contain a pressure of ?
A. 1100 psig C. 2500 psig
B. 1000 psig D. 1500 psig E. 2200 psig

83. Which of the following safety systems was designed for use with the connecting valves of large medical gas
cylinders (F-H)?
A. Pin Index Safety System (PISS) C. Color Code Safety System
B. Diameter Index Safety System (DISS) D. American Standard Safety System (ASSS)
84. Which of the following organizations is responsible for regulating the purity of compressed medical gases?
A. Compressed Gas Association C. United States Pharmacopeia
B. National Formulary D. Food and Drug Administration E. Department of Transportation
85. When a medical gas cylinder has been designed and stamped with the symbol 3AA, which of the following is true?
A. It is capable of containing medical quality gases C. It has been produced from high carbon steel
B. It can withstand pressures up to 5000 psig D. It has undergone hydrostatic testing
86. The Food and Drug Administration requires that medical oxygen be at least in purity.
A. 90 % C. 98 %
B. 99 % D. 99.99 % E. 99.5 %
87. Federal regulations regarding the construction of cylinders used in transport of medical gases are under the
jurisdiction of the ?
A. Department of Transportation C. Food and Drug Administration
B. Interstate Commerce Commission D. Department of Commerce
88. After attaching a regulator to a medical gas cylinder, the respiratory therapy practitioner must open the cylinder
valve slowly. Which of the following best explains the rationale for this procedure?
A. The cylinder will explode
B. The flow rate will be inaccurate
C. The cylinder valve handle may not be calibrated properly
D. Heat from the recompression of gases in the regulator should be allowed to dissipate
E. The cylinder valve is prevented from being stuck in the open position.
89. The Diameter Index Safety System would be used on which of the following gas systems?
A. Those with pressures greater than 2200 psig C. Those with pressures less than 500 psig
B. Those with pressures greater than 500 psig D. Those with pressures less than 200 psig
90. An air entrainment type mask would most likely be used on a patient suffering from which of the following
disorders?
A. Advanced stage emphysema C. Carbon monoxide poisoning
B. Bronchial asthma D. ARDS E. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
91. During oxygen rounds, the respiratory therapy practitioner discovers a humidifier that is producing a high-pitched
whistle. What is the most likely cause of this?
A. The humidifier is empty
B. The cannula is disconnected from the humidifier
C. The delivery tubing is crimped
D. The cannula is off the patient
E. The heater on the humidifier is malfunctioning
92. A so-called universal adaptor has which of the following inside and outside diameters?
A. 51 mm I.D./33 mm O.D. C. 15 mm I.D./22 mm O.D.
B. 12 mm I.D./22 mm O.D. D. 15 mm I.D./24 mm O.D. E. 22 mm I.D./33 mm O.D.
93. You are having dinner with your friend, when suddenly you see her do the universal choking sign. She tries to talk
but no voice can be heard. What do you do?
A. Attempt to get the foreign body from her throat by doing a finger sweep C. Leave and call for help
B. Encourage her to cough D. Start doing abdominal thrusts
94. The rescuer giving the bag-mask ventilation is positioned…
A. In front of the 1st rescuer C. Beside the 1st rescuer
B. Above the head of the victim D. Wherever the rescuer feels comfortable to give the ventilation
95. What is the compression depth for child BLS?
A. At least 1/3 of AP size C. At least ½ of AP size
B. At least 2/3 of AP size D. None of the above

96. A patient pulse drops from 92 to 54 bpm when a suction catheter inserted into the oropharynx. The most likely
cause is?
A. Hypoxia C. Hypocarbia
B. Vagal stimulation D. Coughing
97. Initiation of an inspiratory pause during mechanical ventilation may be contraindicated in patients with which of
the following conditions?
A. Pulmonary edema C. Atelectsis
B. Hypotension D. Hypoxemia
98. You are asked to deliver a low percentage of O2 to a patient whose respiratory rate is 30/min with an irregular
breathing pattern. Which device would be the best choice?
A. Nasal cannula C. Simple O2 mask at 5 L/min
B. Venturi mask at 28% D. Partial rebreathing mask at 8 L/min
99. The following data are collected on a patient on a volume ventilator.
Mode: Control
Vt: 800 ml
Ventilator Rate: 10/min
FIO2: 0.40
Inspiratory rate: 40 L/min
The I:E ratio rating using these ventilator setting is which of the following?
A. 1:1 C. 1:3
B. 1:2 D. 1:4
100. The following data are collected from a patient on a volume ventilator.
PEEP level PaO2 PvO2 Vt
6 cm H2O 64 torr 35 torr 800 ml
8 cm H2O 70 torr 38 torr 800 ml
10 cm H2O 75 torr 43 torr 800 ml
12 cm H2O 80 torr 34 torr 800 ml
Which of the following represents optimal PEEP?
A. 6 cm H2O C. 10 cm H2O
B. 8 cm H2O D. 12 cm H2O