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Test Bank for Equipment Theory for Respiratory Care 5th Edition by White

Test Bank for Equipment Theory for Respiratory Care


5th Edition by White

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-5th-edition-by-white/

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Chapter 05: Airway Management Equipment


1. Types of cuff pressure manometers include which of the following?
I. mechanical manometers
II. strain gauge manometers
III. differential pressure manometers
IV. venturi manometers
a. I b. I and II
c. I, II, and III d. I, II, III, and IV
ANSWER: b

2. When the diameter of a tube decreases by one-half, resistance increases:


a. 2 times b. 3 times
c. 4 times d. 16 times
ANSWER: d

3. Vacuum regulators operate by:


a. adjusting magnetic attraction against a diaphragm
b. changing the size of an orifice
c. adjusting pressure on a single-stage reducing valve
d. changing the position of a needle valve
ANSWER: c

4. The most common type of airway obstruction is:


a. laryngeal obstruction b. tracheal obstruction
c. foreign body obstruction d. soft tissue obstruction
ANSWER: d

5. The head-tilt chin-lift maneuver is designed to relieve:


a. laryngeal obstruction b. tracheal obstruction
c. foreign body obstruction d. soft tissue obstruction
ANSWER: d

6. When is the head-tilt chin-lift maneuver contraindicated?


a. in the unconscious victim b. when the patient is supine
c. if there is a cervical spine injury d. none of the above
ANSWER: c

7. Anterior mandibular displacement is a technique that may be used:


a. in the unconscious victim b. when the patient is supine
c. if there is a cervical spine injury d. none of the above
ANSWER: c

8. Which of the following simple artificial airways is often used to facilitate bag-mask ventilation?
a. oropharyngeal airway b. nasopharyngeal airway
c. Combitube airway d. laryngeal mask airway
ANSWER: a
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Chapter 05: Airway Management Equipment

9. Which of the following simple artificial airways is often used to facilitate repeated nasotracheal suctioning?
a. oropharyngeal airway b. nasopharyngeal airway
c. Combitube airway d. laryngeal mask airway
ANSWER: b

10. When properly placed, the laryngeal mask airway:


a. is in the esophagus b. is in the trachea
c. is in the posterior pharynx d. is resting on the pyloric sphincter
ANSWER: a

11. When inserting the laryngeal mask airway:


a. it is guided blindly with your fingers
b. it must be placed using a laryngeoscope
c. it must be placed using a bronchoscope to guide it
d. it is inserted with the assistance of a tube exchanger
ANSWER: a

12. The Combitube airway:


I. may be inserted into the trachea
II. may be inserted into the esophagus
III. has two cuffs
IV. has two inflation ports
a. I b. I and II
c. I, II, and III d. I, II, III, and IV
ANSWER: d

13. The Combitube airway:


a. is guided blindly with your fingers
b. must be placed using a laryngeoscope
c. must be placed using a bronchoscope to guide it
d. is inserted with the assistance of a tube exchanger
ANSWER: a

14. When using a mouth-to-mask ventilation device, supplemental oxygen may be provided by:
I. attaching oxygen to the enrichment port on the mask
II. wearing a nasal cannula
III. placing a nasal cannula on the patient
IV. connecting the oxygen reservoir to an oxygen source
a. I and II b. I and III
c. II and III d. II and IV
ANSWER: a

15. Which of the following are advantages of a flow-inflating manual resuscitator?


I. 100% oxygen delivery is ensured
II. patient compliance may be easily assessed
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Chapter 05: Airway Management Equipment


III. it is easy to use with a mask
a. I b. I and II
c. II and III d. I, II, and III
ANSWER: b

16. Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) may be provided during manual resuscitation by:
a. adding a water seal PEEP device to the exhalation port
b. using a spring or magnetic adjustable PEEP valve on the exhalation port
c. increasing oxygen flow to the manual resuscitator
d. none of the above
ANSWER: b

17. The curved laryngeoscope blade is called a:


a. Miller blade b. Macintosh blade
c. fiber-optic blade d. Magill blade
ANSWER: b

18. The curved laryngeoscope blade is designed to:


a. lift the epiglottis directly b. be inserted into the trachea
c. be inserted into the vallecula d. be inserted into the esophagus
ANSWER: b

19. The straight laryngeoscope blade is called a:


a. Miller blade b. Macintosh blade
c. Fiber-optic blade d. Magill blade
ANSWER: a

20. An adjunctive device that is helpful when intubating a patient nasally is:
a. the Miller blade b. the Macintosh blade
c. Magill forceps d. a stylette
ANSWER: c

21. An adjunctive device that helps to stiffen an endotracheal tube temporarily for insertion is:
a. the Miller blade b. the Macintosh blade
c. Magill forceps d. a stylette
ANSWER: d

22. How is placement of an endotracheal tube confirmed prior to a chest X-ray?


I. end-tidal CO2 monitoring
II. auscultation
III. chest wall expansion
IV. endotracheal tube markings at the teeth
a. I b. I and II
c. I, II, and III d. I, II, III, and IV
ANSWER: b
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Chapter 05: Airway Management Equipment

23. Which of the following adjunctive devices is designed to facilitate the removal of large amounts of secretions, blood,
or vomitus?
a. Miller blade b. Macintosh blade
c. stylette d. Yankauer suction
ANSWER: d

24. Which of the following devices may be most helpful when performing a difficult intubation?
a. Miller blade b. Macintosh blade
c. Fiber-optic laryngeoscope d. Magill blade
ANSWER: c

25. A key to successful intubation without complications is:


a. to prepare and assemble equipment prior to use
b. to use one type of laryngeoscope only and become proficient with it
c. to only intubate orally since the vocal cords may be visualized
d. to use a fiber-optic laryngeoscope to better visualize the airway
ANSWER: a

26. Pressure exerted by an endotracheal tube’s cuff should not exceed:


a. 10 cmH2O b. 15 cmH2O
c. 20 cmH2O d. 25 cmH2O
ANSWER: d

27. Markings on an endotracheal tube include:


I. centimeter markings along the length of the tube
II. inside diameter in centimeters
III. toxicity testing
IV. a radiopaque line
a. I b. I and II
c. I, II, and III d. I, II, III, and IV
ANSWER: d

28. The purpose of the pilot line on an endotracheal tube is:


a. to guide the endotracheal tube into position
b. to facilitate insertion and removal of the tube
c. to enable it to be visualized on a chest X-ray
d. to conduct air to the cuff
ANSWER: d

29. Once inserted, a Bivona foam cuffed endotracheal tube is:


a. inflated to 25 cmH2O b. capped
c. left open to the atmosphere d. instilled with 5 mL of water
ANSWER: c

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Chapter 05: Airway Management Equipment


30. The Lanz endotracheal tube has an inner pilot balloon made of latex that:
a. facilitates insertion
b. will last longer for long-term mechanical ventilation
c. must be left open to the atmosphere once inserted
d. only exerts 16 to 18 cmH2O
ANSWER: d

31. If an endotracheal tube passed the Z-79 anesthesia committee testing for toxicity, it was:
a. tested by implantation into human tissue
b. tested by implantation into rabbit muscle tissue
c. tested by cell culture
d. none of the above
ANSWER: c

32. If an endotracheal tube passed toxicity testing and has the marking IT, this means it was:
a. tested by implantation into human tissue
b. tested by implantation into rabbit muscle tissue
c. tested by cell culture
d. none of the above
ANSWER: b

33. The Murphy eye on an endotracheal tube:


a. provides ventilation in the event the distal tip becomes obstructed
b. facilitates insertion by providing a direct line of sight
c. facilitates maintenance of low cuff pressures by relieving excess pressure in the cuff
d. facilitates secretion removal above the cuff of the endotracheal tube
ANSWER: a

34. To facilitate visualization of an endotracheal tube on a chest X-ray, all endotracheal tubes have:
a. a Murphy eye
b. a pilot line
c. cm markings along the length of the tube
d. a radiopaque line
ANSWER: d

35. An endotracheal tube that facilitates removal of secretions above the cuff is the:
a. nasal RAE tube b. Carlens tube
c. Robertshaw endotracheal tube d. Hi-Lo Evac endotracheal tube
ANSWER: d

36. Examples of endobronchial endotracheal tubes include the:


I. nasal RAE tube
II. Carlens tube
III. Robertshaw endotracheal tube
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Chapter 05: Airway Management Equipment


IV. Hi-Lo Evac endotracheal tube
a. I and II b. II and III
c. III and IV d. II and IV
ANSWER: c

37. An endotracheal tube that is designed to minimize kinking is the:


a. nasal RAE tube b. wire-reinforced endotracheal tube
c. Robertshaw endotracheal tube d. Hi-Lo Evac endotracheal tube
ANSWER: b

38. An endotracheal tube that is designed to keep the ventilator/anesthesia circuit away from the patient’s head is the:
a. nasal RAE tube b. Carlens tube
c. Robertshaw endotracheal tube d. Hi-Lo Evac endotracheal tube
ANSWER: a

39. An endotracheal tube that is designed to selectively enter the right or left main-stem bronchus is the:
a. nasal RAE tube b. Carlens tube
c. Robertshaw endotracheal tube d. Hi-Lo Evac endotracheal tube
ANSWER: c

40. An adjunct that is helpful when removing an old endotracheal tube and replacing it with a new one is:
a. a stylette b. a bronchoscope
c. a Robertshaw endotracheal tube d. an endotracheal tube exchanger
ANSWER: d

41. A fenestrated tracheostomy tube is helpful when:


a. suctioning a patient b. providing supplemental oxygen
c. placing a new tracheostomy tube d. weaning from a tracheostomy tube
ANSWER: d

42. A type of tracheostomy tube that facilitates keeping the inner cannula patent is:
a. the cuffed disposable endotracheal tube
b. a fenestrated tracheostomy tube
c. one with disposable inner cannulas
d. a Hollinger tracheostomy tube
ANSWER: c

43. A tracheostomy tube that is permanent and made of sterling silver is a:


a. fenestrated tracheostomy tube b. Communitrach
c. Pitt speaking tube d. Hollinger tracheostomy tube
ANSWER: d

44. A technique where the cuff is inflated until no leak is heard during inspiration is termed minimal
a. leak technique b. pressure technique
c. volume technique d. occlusion volume technique
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Chapter 05: Airway Management Equipment


ANSWER: d

45. A technique where the cuff is inflated until a slight leak is heard during inspiration is termed the minimal:
a. leak technique b. pressure technique
c. volume technique d. occlusion volume technique
ANSWER: a

46. When using a mechanical manometer and a three-way stopcock to measure cuff pressure, first:
I. the stopcock must be turned toward the cuff’s port
II. the system must be pressurized with a syringe to 18 cmH2O
III. the stopcock must be rotated to the “off” position
IV. the three-way stopcock must be attached to the endotracheal tube’s pilot line
a. I b. I and II
c. I, III, and IV d. III and IV
ANSWER: a

47. You are using a Posey Cufflator to measure cuff pressure. You added air to reach minimal occlusion volume, but you
added too much. How do you remove air from the tube’s cuff?
a. Squeeze the black bulb.
b. Remove the Cufflator from the pilot line.
c. Press the red button.
d. Pull back on the syringe.
ANSWER: c

48. You are using a three way stop cock and a manometer to measure cuff pressure. You added air to reach minimal
occlusion volume, but you added too much. How do you remove air from the tube’s cuff?
a. Squeeze the black bulb.
b. Remove the stop cock from the pilot line.
c. Press the red button.
d. Pull back on the syringe.
ANSWER: d

49. You have an endotracheal tube that is in good position, but the cuff is leaking. What could you use to “salvage” the
tube without replacing it?
a. a DHD Healthcare, Inc., Cuff-Mate 2
b. a Posey, Inc., Cufflator
c. a Respironics, Inc., PressureEasy
d. a syringe attached to the pilot line
ANSWER: c

50. You are weaning a patient from a tracheostomy tube, and you wish to have access to the stoma for suctioning. What
device might work best in this situation?
a. an aerosol "T" or Briggs adapter b. a Trach-Button
c. a Passy-Muir Valve d. a fenestrated tracheostomy tube
ANSWER: b
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Chapter 05: Airway Management Equipment

51. Which of the following tracheostomy weaning devices has an IPPB adapter for positive pressure ventilation?
a. an Olympic Medical Trach-Talk b. a Trach-Button
c. a Passy-Muir Valve d. a fenestrated tracheostomy tube
ANSWER: b

52. Which of the following tracheostomy weaning devices are intended to be used with the cuff deflated?
I. an Olympic Medical Trach Button
II. a Trach-Button
III. a Passy-Muir Valve
IV. a fenestrated tracheostomy tube
a. I b. I and II
c. I, II, and III d. I, II, III, and IV
ANSWER: d

53. Which of the following are indications for suctioning according to the American Association for Respiratory Care
(AARC) Clinical Practice Guideline: Endotracheal Suctioning of Mechanically Ventilated Adults and Children with
Artificial Airways?
I. coarse breath sounds
II. increased peak inspiratory pressures
III. inability to spontaneously cough
IV. the need to obtain a sputum specimen
a. I b. I and II
c. I, II, and III d. I, II, III, and IV
ANSWER: d

54. A good rule of thumb when selecting a suction catheter for use in an artificial airway is to choose one that does not
exceed:
a. 1/3 the inner diameter of the airway b. 1/2 the inner diameter of the airway
c. 5/8 the inner diameter of the airway d. 3/4 the inner diameter of the airway
ANSWER: b

55. A type of suction catheter that allows ventilation during the suctioning process is:
a. the Argyle Aeroflow catheter b. the Whistletip catheter
c. the Coudé tip catheter d. the closed suction system catheter
ANSWER: d

56. An adjunct to suctioning that may be used for specimen collection is:
a. the Murphy eye b. the Coudé collection system
c. the Lukens trap d. none of the above
ANSWER: c

57. Which of the following are advantages of the diaphragm and duck bill resuscitation valves?

I. They are sensitive to patient’s inspiratory efforts.


II. They facilitate oxygen administration from the bag’s reservoir.
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Chapter 05: Airway Management Equipment


III. They are capable of higher pressures.
IV. They are less sensitive.

a. I
b. I and II
c. I, II, and III
d. I, II, III, and IV
ANSWER: b

58. The correct size of an oropharyngeal airway can be estimated by:


a. Measuring the distance from the corner of the mouth to the ear lobe
b. Measuring the distance from the tip of the nose to the ear lobe
c. Measuring the width of the mouth
d. Measuring the distance from the angle of the jaw to the larynx
ANSWER: a

59. The King LTS-DTM supragolottic airway:


I. may be inserted into the trachea
II. may be inserted into the esophagus
III. has two cuffs
IV. has two inflation ports
a. I
b. I and II
c. I, II, and III
d. I, II, III, and IV
ANSWER: d

60. The King LTS-DTM supragolttic airway:


a. is guided blindly with your fingers
b. must be placed using a laryngeoscope
c. must be placed using a bronchoscope to guide it
d. is inserted with the assistance of a tube exchanger
ANSWER: a

61. The purpose of the ResQPOD® is:


a. increase oxygen delivery
b. decrease CO2 retention
c. decrease intrapleural pressures enhancing venous return
d. none of the above
ANSWER: c

62. One way to reduce the threat of disease transmission when using manual resuscitators is:
a. ensure that they are autoclaved after every use

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Chapter 05: Airway Management Equipment


b. use disposable manual resuscitators
c. wear gloves during the procedure
d. none of the above
ANSWER: b

63. The GlideScope® and King VisionTM are examples of:


a. video laryngeoscopes
b. fiberoptic laryngeoscopes
c. conventional laryngeoscopes
d. rigid laryngeoscopes
ANSWER: a

64. Which of the following may be used to determine endotracheal tube placement by detecting exhaled carbon dioxide?

I. Capncheck II®
II. Easy Cap®
III. Nelcor Onyx
IV. GlideScope
a. I
b. I and II
c. II and III
d. III and IV
ANSWER: b

65. Which of the following helps stiffen a tracheostomy tube to facilitate its initial insertion?
a. a stylette
b. Magill forceps
c. an obturator
d. a trocar
ANSWER: c

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