Naval Arc

5/29/22, 1:08 AM Directorate General of Shipping
What is a scupper and where is it fitted?
1. it is a discharge pipe for the sewage system

1. 2. it is a discharge pipe from galley 1
3. It is a discharge from bilges
4. it is a draining space for water to drain from the main deck in case of bad weather
https://dgslms.aduacademy.in/form/ebook 1/2
Answer Key
1. it is a draining space for water to drain from the main deck in case of bad weather
The anchor chain passes through the gypsy of the windlass into the chain locker. Name the
component through which the chain enters the chain locker:
1. 1. Forecastle deck. 1
2. upper main deck.
3. Spurling pipe.
4. Hawse pipe.
The last link of the anchor cable is called "bitter end‟ and is secured with the chain locker sides.
What is the provision in this securing arrangement?
2. 1. Provided for adding additional links. 2

2. Permanently welded to locker sides.
3. Provided for release during emergency.
4. Secured with weak links for safety release.
The primary gearing in windlass is enclosed and splash lubricated. What is the type of bearings
provided in windlass which are grease lubricated?
3. 1. Norglide bearing. 2
2. Self lubricating PTFE bearing.
3. Gunmetal sleeve bearings
4. Tapered roller bearing.
Windlasses are normally controlled from a local position. How is the speed of the running cable
controlled?
4. 1. Varying the hydraulic oil pressure with control valve. 2

2. Controlling the speed of drive motor.
3. Manually applying the cable-lifter brake as required.
4. Bypass valve control of hydraulic motor.
Once the ship's anchor is lifted, the chain/cable is stored in the chain locker. What is the position of
anchor after it is lifted?
5. 1. Rests on the bulbous bow of vessel. 2

2. Rests on the hawse Pipe.
3. Rests on the bow of the ship.
4. Rests on the main deck.
How is the anchor chain joined at intermediate lengths?
1. Wide body shackle.

6. 2
2. Sheet-pile shackle.
3. By a lugless “Joining shackle”.
4. Kenter shackle
7. Bow Stopper is fixed in the forecastle, close to the hawse pipe. What is the purpose of Bow 2
Stopper?
1. Resting stand for anchor.

2. Prevents entry of pirates to the vessel through hawse pipe.
3. To secure the anchor, against running out.
4. To stop the windlass when anchor reaches the rest position.
What is a chain locker?
1. it is a locker where all the chain blocks are stored

8. 2. it is a locker where all spare chains are stored 1
3. It is a space where the anchor chain is stored
4. It is a locker for the spare anchor
The seizing wire and the paint marking of anchor chain should be kept in good condition. What is
the purpose of paint marking on links?
9. 1. Helps in maintenance of anchor chain links. 2

2. Helps in addition of links and replacement of corroded links.
3. The number of shackles can be identified when letting go the anchor.
4. To maintain the required length of anchor cable.
All the marked links of anchor cable are generally painted white for ease in identification. Which
colour is used for painting joining shackles?
10. 1. Black. 1
2. Orange.
3. Red.
4. White.
The part of the anchor windlass that engages the anchor chain for lifting is called the ________.
11. 2
1. warping head
2. wildcat
Which machinery is used in heaving up the anchor of a vessel?
1. Hydraulic system for deck machinery.

12. 1
2. Forward cranes.
3. Windlass.
4. Hatch hydraulic machinery for forward most hatch.
What is the name of the shackle which connects the anchor to anchor chain?
1. D-Shackle.
13. 1
2. Wide body shackle.
3. Kenter shackle
4. Sheet-pile shackle.
Answer Key
1. Spurling pipe.
2. Provided for release during emergency.
3. Gunmetal sleeve bearings
4. Manually applying the cable-lifter brake as required.
5. Rests on the bow of the ship.
6. By a lugless “Joining shackle”.
7. To secure the anchor, against running out.
8. It is a space where the anchor chain is stored
9. The number of shackles can be identified when letting go the anchor.
10. Red.
11. wildcat
12. Windlass.
13. Kenter shackle
What is “IV” showing in the figure given below?
1. 1
1. Discharge (Outlet)
2. Suction check valve
3. Suction (Inlet)
4. Discharge check valve
Which of the following valve arrangements permits the,reciprocating pump liquid piston to take
suction from the,suction chamber, and simultaneously discharge through the,discharge chamber during
the up and down strokes?
2. 1. Two sets of suction and,discharge valves in the,liquid cylinder. 1

2. Two sets of valves,,one set each for,suction and discharge,located in the water,chest.
3. One set of valves in the,water chest and another,set in the liquid cylinder.
4. Two relief valves, one on,each of the liquid,cylinder.
The oil from oily bilge separator transferred to ___________.
1. Direct over board

3. 1
2. Incinerator waste oil tank
3. Sludge tank
4. Bilge holding tank
The oil from sludge tank transferred to ___________

4. 1
2. Incinerator waste oil tank and incinerated
3. Oily bilge separator and pump overboard
Why are the engine room bilges pumped out through the oily water separator?
5. 1
1. To separate the oil for recycling
2. To keep the sea free of oil pollution
6. What does “V” indicate in the illustration given below? 2

1. Suction (Inlet)
A pounding noise occurring in one cylinder of a steam,reciprocating general service pump could be
caused by
1. lower than normal,supply steam,temperature

7. 1
2. lower than normal supply steam pressure
3. improper adjustment of steam cushion valves
4. loss of air charge in the pump discharge plenum chamber
Regulations require the emergency bilge system to
1. Be independent of the main bilge system

8. 2
2. Be a part of the independent bilge system
3. Have an independent priming pump
4. Have a cross connection to the ballast system
An inadequate reciprocating bilge pump discharge is most,often caused by__________ .
1. defective intake valves

9. 2. clogged suction strainers 2
3. scarred cylinder walls
4. clogged drain valves
Regulations require the emergency bilge system to

10. 1
2. Be a part of the independent bilge system
3. Have an independent priming pump
4. Have a cross connection to the ballast system
11. which letter represent the “ Air vessel” in the illustration below? 2
1. E
2. F
3. G
4. H
From the illustration given below, identify the name of the marking “III”.
12. 1

3. Valve plate
4. Safety valve
13. Identify one incorrect statement about the Important features of a Bilge Pump , 2
1. A. Capable of handling high suction lifts

2. B. Output is marginally reduced at increased pressure
3. C. Develops a discharge pressure equal to the resistance
4. D. Output is not directly proportional to speed
What is the purpose of relief valve in a positive displacement pump?
1. It relieves excess pressure

14. 2. It indicates excess pressure 2
3. It stops pump in case of excess pressure
4. It maintains discharge pressure
What does “I” indicate in the diagram given below?
15. 1
1. Safety valve
4. Valve plate
Why do you need Accumulators in the reciprocating bilge pump system?
1. A. reduce the pulsations in the discharge

16. 2. B. Accumulators store pressure energy during the high pressure stroke and release this 2
energy to the system during the low pressure part of the stroke.
3. C. Accumulator is a container with air or an air bag or spring loaded device.
4. A and B
5. B and C
The oil from sludge tank transferred to ___________

17. 1
3. Oily bilge separator and pump overboard
18. When repacking a reciprocating pump with more than four rings of packing, the packing is cut square, 2
installed with the ends abutted, and each succeeding ring staggered with the butted ends __________ .
1. 45° apart
2. 90° apart
3. 120° apart
4. 180° apart
Which of the following conditions would prevent a steam,reciprocating pump from delivering its rated
capacity?
1. Excessive suction lift

19. 1
2. Air trapped in the,discharge expansion,chamber
3. A leaking snifter valve,allowing air to enter the,suction side of the pump
4. All of the above
Bilge system pump must be,

A. Self-priming
B. Output is directly proportional to speed
C. Output is marginally reduced at increased pressure
D. Develops a discharge pressure equal to the resistance
E. Capable of handling high suction lifts
F. Handles large amounts of vapor or entrained gases
20. Pick the Three most important properties, among others, that are vital in its operation. 2
1. B, C and F
2. B, C and D
3. A, B and F
4. A, E and F
5. A, B and C
Important features of a Reciprocating pumps include, that they are,
1. Self-priming
2. Output is directly proportional to speed
3. Output is marginally reduced at increased pressure
4. Develops a discharge pressure equal to the resistance
5. Capable of handling high suction lifts
6. Handles large amounts of vapor or entrained gases
Which One of the above features is the most important characteristic for it being chosen as a ship's
21. bilge pump? 2
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
6. 6
The oil from oily bilge separator transferred to ___________.

22. 2
2. Incinerator waste oil tank
3. Sludge tank
23. Which of the following must be provided in a shaft tunnel? 2

1. A watertight door at the engine room bulkhead.

2. Escape trunk at the aft end.
3. A tunnel well for drainage
4. All of the above.
Important features of a Bilge pump is,
1. A. Handles large amounts of vapor or entrained gases

2. B. Output is marginally reduced at increased pressure
24. 2
3. C. Output is not directly proportional to speed
4. A and B
5. B and C
Why are the engine room bilges pumped out through the oily water separator?
25. 1
1. To separate the oil for recycling
26. What is the purpose of relief valve in a positive displacement pump? 2

Which number represents the "Plunger" in the illustration given below?
27. 2
1. IV
2. I
3. II
4. III
28. Bilge Pumps have the following properties: 2

A. Self-priming
B. Develops a discharge pressure equal to the resistance
C. Handles large amounts of vapor or entrained gases
D. High capacity output with a small bore piston
Identify One property that is listed above being incorrect,
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
which letter represents the suction valve of the illustration below?
29. 1
1. A and B
2. B and D
3. E and F
4. D and F
30. Why do you need accumulators in a reciprocating pump? 2

Important features of a reciprocating Bilge pump are,
1. A. Self-priming
2. B. Develops a discharge pressure equal to the resistance
31. 2
3. C. Not Capable of handling high suction lifts
4. A and B
5. B and C
32. which letter represents the closed discharge outlet valve ? 1
1. D
2. E
3. F
4. G
What does “I” indicate in the diagram given below?
33. 2
1. Suction Pipe
2. Discharge Pipe (Outlet)
3. Connection For Drain Pipe
4. Oil Pipe
34. What are the important operating features of positive displacement pumps? 2
Answer Key
1. Suction (Inlet)
2. Two sets of valves,,one set each for,suction and discharge,located in the water,chest.
3. Sludge tank
7. improper adjustment of steam cushion valves
9. clogged suction strainers
11. H
13. D. Output is not directly proportional to speed
14. It relieves excess pressure
16. A. reduce the pulsations in the discharge
18. 90° apart
19. Excessive suction lift
20. A, E and F
21. 1
22. Sludge tank
23. A tunnel well for drainage
24. A. Handles large amounts of vapor or entrained gases
A relief valve releases the excess pressure at the discharge side to the suction side, when the
26.
pressure increases above the set limit. This prevents the failure of pump casing.
27. II
28. D
29. B and D
Accumulators reduce the pulsations in the discharge. Accumulators store pressure energy during the
30. high pressure stroke and release this energy to the system during the low pressure part of the stroke.
Accumulator is a container with air or an air bag or spring loaded device.
31. A and B
32. E
33. Discharge Pipe (Outlet)
Self-priming
Output is directly proportional to speed
Output is marginally reduced at increased pressure
34. Develops a discharge pressure equal to the resistance
Capable of handling high suction lifts
Handles large amounts of vapour or entrained gases
Loading sequence following ballasting procedures, identify the correct column
1. 1
Loading X Y Z N
steps
a Cargo hold full Discharging Cargo Cargo hold empty Discharging Cargo
b Discharging Cargo Cargo hold empty Discharging Cargo Cargo hold empty
c Cargo hold empty Loading Cargo Loading Cargo Cargo hold full
d Loading Cargo Cargo hold full Cargo hold full Loading Cargo
1. X
2. Y
3. Z
4. N
2. Ballasting system piping: you need to transfer ballast in port to the 1S tank and 4P tank from sea to 2
1S tank at the double bottom at below sea level by gravity. Identify the correct line valves to open,
while the pump suction and discharge valves are kept closed.
1. A, C D, 1S and 4P
2. B, C, D, 1S and 4P
3. A, C, D, and 1S
4. B, C, D, and 4P
3. Ballasting system: Automatic remote-control operation of the ship's ballast system: 1
Select the correct Column:
X Y Z N
A Control Valve Pump Motor Pump Motor Pump Motor
B Pump Motor Level Sensor Control Valve Control Valve
C Level Sensor Control Valve Level Sensor Level Sensor
D Sea Chest Sea Chest Overboard Sea Chest
E Overboard Overboard Sea Chest Overboard
1. X
2. Y
3. Z
4. N
Ballasting system: find an error statement
4. 1. As an engine rating you should know the ballast system and the location of all the valves. 1
2. You should be able to carry out all the ballast operations.
3. During deballasting you should make sure that the pump runs dry when the tank gets empty.
4. Stripping is the process of emptying the ballast tank completely.
Purpose of Ballast System are many: identify the statement that captures the requirement for the
BWM Plan succinctly:
1. Ballast water activities are a pathway for the movement of undesirable and alien bio-species
from their natural habitat to other ecosystems
5. 2
2. Ballast water (BW) is essential to control trim, list, draft, stability and stresses of a ship.
3. After discharging the cargo, the ship becomes lighter and floats to a smaller draft and will
have the propellers not completely submerged
4. If the ship sails that way, (known as, in ballast condition), it will require the propellers to go
under the water to propel the ship efficiently through the water.
Purpose of Ballast System: identify the most important reason for ballasting:
1. When the ship is at sea and, full of cargo, it sinks to a certain depth, called the ship’s loaded
draft. At that time, the vessel’s propellers are submerged fully in the water.
2. After discharging the cargo, the ship becomes lighter and floats to a smaller draft and will
6. 2
have the propellers not completely submerged.
3. Without lowering the vessel into the water, it can create problems of stability, or the ability to
remain correctly afloat without heeling over or, get listed to one side.
4. If the ship sails that way, (known as, in ballast condition), it will require the propellers to go
under the water to propel the ship efficiently through the water.
7. Safety in Ballasting Procedures: which of the below statement is most unlikely? 1
1. In a cargo damage case, a vessel pressed up its ballast tanks in order to optimize trim and to
satisfy mandatory stability criteria.
2. The operation resulted in the unexpected flooding of a cargo hold causing extensive damage to
the cargo.
3. The bulk carrier was carrying out ballast exchange operations mid voyage and pressed up one
set of double bottom ballast tanks.
4. On arrival it was observed that one of her holds had significant water inside and considerable
damage to cargo stowed at the uppermost position.
Ballasting system: find an error statement

8. 1
2. Some ships are provided with eductor for stripping the ballast tanks.
3. The eductor is driven by ballast water under pressure
4. The eductor can run without any problem, even after tanks are emptied.
What is a sea chest?
1. it is a reservoir of sea water

9. 2. it provides an intake supply from which sea water pump draws sea water 1
3. it is a chest where sea water is stored
4. It is open to the sea below the ship
10. Ballasting system piping: Using the Ballast pump 2, you need to transfer ballast from 4S tank to 1P 1
tank to correct the list. Identify the correct line valves to open, while the pump suction and
discharge valves are open.
1. 4S, D, F, and 1P
2. 3S, D, E, and 2P
3. 4S, D, C and A
4. 4S, D, E, and 1P
Ballasting system piping: you need to pump out ballast during loading from Forward ballast tanks 1S
and 4P using ballast pump 2 whose suction and discharge valves are open; Identify the correct line
valves to open, while the pump suction and discharge valves are open.
11. 1
1. 1S and 4P and D, F and G

2. 1S and D, E and G
3. 4P and D, E and G
4. 1S and 4P and D, E and G
During ballasting operations there are things that you have to look out for and keep a strong vigil. If
you have to pick the most important Two, which ones will that be?
A. Stability and Free Surface Effect
B. Slack Tanks
C. Shear Force and Bending Moment
D. Torsion Loads
E. Draft and Trim of the Vessel
F. Pumping Limitations. Ballasting must always be carried out at a safe rate, determined by the
12. 1
vessels design.
1. A and B
2. A and C
3. C and F
4. E and F
What is ballast tank and what is its used for?
1. ballast tanks are sea water tanks meant to maintain the stability of ship
13. 2. ballast tanks are meant to carry fresh water for ship’ consumption 1
3. these tanks are used to carry ship’s fuel oil
4. these tanks are meant for collect ship’s grey water
14. Ballasting sequence during loading and unloading, identify the correct column, 2
Ballasting X Y Z N
steps
a BW discharge at Loaded BW tk BW loading at BW loading at

designated port during voyage source port source port
b Empty BW tks during BW loading at Loaded BW tk Loaded BW tk

voyage source port during voyage during voyage
c Loaded BW tk during BW discharge at Empty BW tks BW discharge at

voyage designated port during voyage designated port
d BW loading at source Empty BW tks BW discharge at Empty BW tks

port during voyage designated port during voyage
1. X
2. Y
3. Z
4. N
15. Ballasting system: find an error statement 1

2. Some ships are provided with eductor for stripping the ballast tanks.
3. The eductor is driven by sea water under pressure.
4. The eductor cannot run dry without any problem, once the tank is emptied.
Purpose of Ballast System: identify the incorrect statement for ballasting:
1. As water is abundantly available, it is used for providing the required stability (Position of
ship’s center of gravity and its Port and Starboard-wise sinkage, or sideways inclination) and
trim (Forward and Aft- wise inclination) of the ship.
16. 2. This water is known as ballast water and process of taking ballast water into the ship is known 1
as “ballasting”.
3. The tanks on ships wherein the ballast water is filled are known as ballast tanks. Ships are
supplied with a system that can take-in and discharge ballast water.
4. Ships have a dedicated ballast water system and tanks. The ballast tanks are located at the
uppermost region of the ship and above the machinery room.
Answer Key
1. Y
2. B, C, D, 1S and 4P
3. N
4. During deballasting you should make sure that the pump runs dry when the tank gets empty.
Ballast water activities are a pathway for the movement of undesirable and alien bio-species from
5.
their natural habitat to other ecosystems
Without lowering the vessel into the water, it can create problems of stability, or the ability to remain
6.
correctly afloat without heeling over or, get listed to one side.
On arrival it was observed that one of her holds had significant water inside and considerable damage
7.
to cargo stowed at the uppermost position.
8. The eductor is driven by ballast water under pressure
9. it provides an intake supply from which sea water pump draws sea water
10. 4S, D, F, and 1P
11. 1S and 4P and D, E and G
12. A and C
13. ballast tanks are sea water tanks meant to maintain the stability of ship
14. N
15. The eductor cannot run dry without any problem, once the tank is emptied.
Ships have a dedicated ballast water system and tanks. The ballast tanks are located at the
16.
uppermost region of the ship and above the machinery room.
Sounding pipes are provided to measure_______________.
1. Quality of air
1. 1
2. Quantity of soild
3. Quantity of fluid
4. Quality of fluid
Which of the following describes the purpose of a striker or doubler plate?
1. Provides a surface for the application of force, or the installation of machinery.

2. 1
2. Provides landing surface for the sounding bob of a tank sounding tape.
3. Absorbs machinery vibration.
4. Prevents valve stem over travel.
What is the requirement for scuppers leading from superstructures or deckhouses, which are not
fitted with weathertight doors?
1. Remote arrangement to remove the plugs on scuppers shall be provided.

3. 2
2. Piping leading from scuppers to overboard shall be as far as possible straight with minimum
bends.
3. Scuppers shall be led overboard.
4. Airtight plugs should be provided for the scuppers.
The damage control plan shall include locations and arrangements of cross flooding systems, blow
out plugs mechanical means to correct list due to flooding. What are the components, the locations
of which are included in addition to this plan?
4. 2
1. Transverse bulkheads.
2. Hatch covers with details.
3. All valves and remote control.
4. Longitudinal bulkheads.
What is the language used in preparation of the damage control plan and damage control booklet?
1. Language understood and spoken more in USA and Canada.

5. 1
2. Spanish or English.
3. One of the official languages of the SOLAS Convention,
4. Language understood in European Union.
Ventilator openings shall be provided with efficient weathertight closing appliances. What is the
direction that these openings face?
6. 1. Shall be facing upwards and towards the ship's funnel. 2

2. Shall face forward and be inclined at an angle more than 45 degrees.
3. Shall face aft or athwartships whenever practicable.
4. Fitted with arrangement to alter the facing either forward or aft.
7. Service hatches to machinery, etc. may be arranged as flush hatches provided that the covers are 2
secured by closely spaced bolts, are kept closed at sea. What is the additional arrangement to be
equipped for the service hatches?
1. Tarpaulin covers to protect from rain.

2. Venting arrangement for re entry into space after fire is extinguished.
3. Portable guardrails.
4. portable ladder to enter for inspection.
Air pipe is provided for____________.
1. Lighting
8. 1
2. To satisfy regulation
3. Breathing air
4. Water tightness
All air pipes extending to exposed decks shall have a minimum height measured from the deck as
specified. What is the required minimum height for air pipe, if the deck is less than 0.05L above the
design waterline?
9. 2
1. 250 mm
2. 200 mm
3. 300 mm
4. 100 mm
The damage control plan should be of a scale adequate to show clearly the required content of the
plan. What is the minimum required plan?
10. 1. 1: 100 1
2. 1: 150
3. 1: 200
4. 1: 160
Hose tests shall be carried out for doors in weathertight superstructures. What is the maximum
distance from the door at which the hose is held during the test?
11. 1. 2.5 meters. 2

2. 3.5 meters.
3. 1.5 meters.
4. 1.8 meters.
Open sounding pipe in engine room is ___________.
1. Safe
12. 2
2. Unsafe
3. Easy for measuring the quantity of tank
4. None of the above
Answer Key
1. Quantity of fluid
2. Provides landing surface for the sounding bob of a tank sounding tape.
3. Scuppers shall be led overboard.
4. All valves and remote control.
5. One of the official languages of the SOLAS Convention,
6. Shall face aft or athwartships whenever practicable.
7. Portable guardrails.
8. Breathing air
9. 300 mm
10. 1: 200
11. 1.5 meters.
12. Unsafe
Which of the following takes the weight of the rudder?
1. The steering gear

1. 1
2. The rudder stock
3. The rudder carrier bearing.
4. The locking pintle.
Keyless propellers hubs secured to tail shaft by "pilgrim nuts", are removed by:--
1. Spring-loaded jacks.
2. 2
2. Hydraulic lever arms
3. Hydraulic pressure
4. Heating with a torch.
What is the difference between balanced and unbalanced rudder?
1. The axis of rotation of the balanced rudder is behind its front edge, in case of unbalanced rudder
the whole area of the rudder is in front of its rotational axis
3. 1
2. the balanced rudder is always balanced during running but unbalanced rudder is not
3. Balanced rudder takes more power to rotate but unbalanced takes less power
4. Balanced rudder is more effective than unbalanced rudder
What is a rudder?
1. It controls the flow of water from the propeller when running

4. 2. It guides the flow of water from the propeller while running 1
3. It is used for steering the ship
4. It is a primary control surface used to steer a ship through water
Pitch of propeller is defined as
1. Forward movement of propeller when rotated by 360 degree

5. 2
2. Forward movement of propeller when rotated by 3600 when the vessel is floating in water
3. Forward movement of propeller in un-yielding medium when rotated by 360 degree.
4. Forward movement of propeller when rotated by 360 degree and in sea water.
A bronzed sleeve is secured to the propeller tail shaft by:---
1. Keying.
6. 1
2. Pressing
3. Shrinking
4. Threading.
Most modern day rudders are:
1. Unbalanced.
7. 1
2. Balanced.
3. Semi balanced.
4. None of the above.
8. When the propeller blades are integral with the hub, the propeller is called a _____________. 2
1. Built up propeller.
2. Suction back propeller
3. Solid propeller
4. Controllable pitch propeller.
Most modern type rudders are:---
1. Single plate type.

9. 1
2. Double plate type
3. Streamlined type
4. None of above.
The conical steel or composition cone installed on a propeller, known as a fairwater cone, provides
which of the following benefits?
10. 1. Reduces water resistance 2

2. Helps with lubrication
3. Protects the nut
4. All of the above
The other purpose of the propeller fair water cone is to:---
1. Lock the propeller in position.

11. 2
2. Eliminate cavitation.
3. Minimize water turbulence
4. Eliminate axial thrust.
Answer Key
1. The rudder carrier bearing.

2. Hydraulic pressure
The axis of rotation of the balanced rudder is behind its front edge, in case of unbalanced rudder the
3.
whole area of the rudder is in front of its rotational axis
4. It is a primary control surface used to steer a ship through water
5. Forward movement of propeller in un-yielding medium when rotated by 360 degree.
6. Shrinking
7. Semi balanced.
8. Solid propeller
9. Streamlined type
10. Protects the nut
11. Minimize water turbulence
Vessel propellers are classified as being right hand or left hand. A right hand propeller turns
clockwise when viewed from:--
1. 1. The bow. 1
2. The starboard side
3. The aft
4. The port side
Velocity of advancement is defined as:
1. Velocity of ship
2. 2
2. Velocity of advance condition
3. Axial velocity of propeller w.r.t adjoining water flow
4. Axial velocity of propeller w.r.t fixed object.
In case of merchant ships a combinatory control means option as below:-
1. Ships speed is controlled by cpp and constant speed engine

3. 2
2. Ship speed is controlled by fpp and variable speed engine
3. Ship speeds controlled by cpp and variable speed engine
4. Ship speeds controlled by cpp and variable speed reversible engine
Left hand propeller turns_____________ when producing ahead thrust:
1. Viewed from aft clock wise.

4. 1
2. Viewed from forward anti clock wise
3. Viewed from aft anti clock wise.
What is observed when a Propeller is seen from the Aft end?
1. Leading edge.
5. 1
2. Tail
3. Trailing Edge
4. Bow
Compared to a constant pitch propeller, a controllable pitch propeller:-
1. Develops its rated power at a lower speed.

6. 2
2. Produces the same torque at lower engine power
3. More efficiently uses available engine power.
4. Operates at a lower efficiency at a fixed speed.
7. A vessel departed from point "A" at 1206 with a counter reading of 616729 and arrived at point "B" 2
with a counter reading of 731929 at 1148 the following day. This vessel is equipped with a 20-foot 8
inch diameter propeller, with a pitch of 20 feet. The observed distance of 404.16 miles was covered
at an observed speed of 16.85 knots. What should be the apparent slip for this trip?
1. 0.0104
2. 0.0129
3. - 0.0665
4. - 0.1104
Answer Key
1. The aft
2. Axial velocity of propeller w.r.t adjoining water flow
3. Ship speeds controlled by cpp and variable speed engine
4. Viewed from aft anti clock wise.
5. Trailing Edge
6. More efficiently uses available engine power.
7. - 0.0665
Which of the devices listed prevents water from entering the ship's hull via the propulsion shaft?
1. Oiler rings.
1. 2
2. Spring bearings
3. Stern tube packing or mechanical shaft seal.
4. Deflector ring and drain.
What is stern tube?
1. the tube which accommodate oil

2. 2. it is a tube through which water passes 1
3. it is to accommodate the tail end shaft in which the propeller is fitted
4. this tube forms a part of ship’ structure
A vessel's immediate protection in the event of a broken stern tube is a/an:----
1. Aft collision bulkhead

3. 1
2. Stern frame bulkhead
3. After peak bulkhead.
4. Aft machinery space watertight bulkhead.
The propeller shaft is usually supported by the:---
1. Spring bearings
4. 1
2. Tail bearings
3. Stern tube bearings,
4. Propeller bearings.
Answer Key

2. it is to accommodate the tail end shaft in which the propeller is fitted
3. After peak bulkhead.
4. Stern tube bearings,
A liquid-filled pressure vacuum breaker
1. is fitted on the tank dome

1. 2. is fitted on the main deck a tanker 2
3. is fitted on the inert gas main line of a tanker
4. is fitted in the pump room
Pump room bilge high level alarm should activate in :
1. CCR
2. 2. ECR 2
3. ECR , CCR and navigation bridge
4. Chief officer's cabin
What is ALARP ?
1. As low as reasonably practicable

3. 2
2. As large as represented particles
3. As low as reading practice
4. As little as represented portion
The total capacity of all slop tanks on an oil tanker normally should be
1. 1% of the total oil carrying capacity of ship

4. 1
During loading/unloading operations on a tanker the accommodation ventilation is set to:
1. 70% recirculation and 30% intake from atmosphere.

5. 2. 80% recirculation and 20% intake from atmosphere. 2
The lowest temperature at which the liquid remains a fluid is called the:
1. The flow point

6. 2. The pour point 2
3. The melting point
4. The Liquefaction point
The purpose of a cofferdam between two compartments is to
1. store tools and equipment that are necessary for the adjacent compartments
7. 1
2. give access to the bulkhead for inspection and repairs when the tanks are full with liquid
3. keep a reserve space if capacity of either compartment needs to be increased
4. prevent different liquids from the two tanks coming in contact in case of a leak
8. Which of the following is a cofferdam? 1
1. Chain locker
2. Pump room on an oil tanker
3. Deep tank
4. Slop tank on an oil tanker
The stretcher for emergency rescue from pump room should be
9. 1. available close to the pump room 1

2. kept permanently rigged for hoisting an injured person
3. kept in ship's hospital and clearly marked
A starting interlock in the ODME ensures
1. the monitoring equipment is fully operational before commencing the discharge of the oil
effluent at sea
10. 2
2. prevents malfunctioning of the system
3. that an alarm is given off when the system malfunctions
4. stops discharge of the oil effluent when the oil content exceeds 5 part per million
When coating a patch as part of maintenance, the film thickness should be
1. 200 to 300 microns

11. 1
3. not less than 400 microns
4. not more than 200 microns
Before gas freeing operations the hydrocarbon content is reduced to:
1. to 15% or less by volume

12. 2. to 10% or less by volume 2
Tanks of tankers do not exceed:
1. 0.1 of ship’s length

13. 2. 0.15 of ship’s length 2
A gas venting system on a tanker that has gas lines in each tank connected to a common gas main
running the full length of the ship is called:
1. A gas-main system
14. 1
2. A common-main system
3. A vent-main system
4. An independent system
Cargo tank fill alarm indicator panels:
1. are normally fitted on the bridge and sometimes on deck

15. 2. are normally fitted in the engine control room and sometimes on deck 2
3. are normally fitted on the bridge and sometimes in the engine control room
4. are normally fitted in the cargo control room and sometimes on deck
16. Bottom washing: 1
1. is done to remove traces of the previous cargo

2. will remove heavy wax sediments at the tank bottom

3. is not effective when carrying a small quantity of refined products
4. cannot be done with chemical solvents
The ring main pipeline system is extensively used on:
1. VLCCs
17. 2. Crude oil tankers 1
3. Medium range tankers
4. Product carriers
A thermoelectric detector:
1. Uses a heat sensor

18. 2. converts heat to electrical energy 1
3. detects a rise in tempetrature
4. uses a fixed temperature stop
Tank coating requirements developed by IMO are applicable to
1. new crude oil tankers of 5000 GRT and above

19. 1
2. new crude oil tankers of 5000 DWT and above
3. new crude oil tankers of 500 GRT and above
Tank washings generated from tanks having different incompatible cargoes
1. can be collected into the same slop tank and discharged to shore
20. 1
2. should be collected in separate slop tanks and pumped out separately to shore
3. can be collected in the pump room bilge and pumped out later
4. should be retained in the cargo tank until discharge to shore
What is Clingage?
1. Solid deposits on the walls of a tank after the bulk of the oil has been removed
2. Oil remaining on the walls of a pipe or on the internal surfaces of tanks after the bulk of the
21. 1
oil has been removed
3. Solid deposits on the upper frames within a tank that remains after bulk of the oil has been
removed
4. The clearance of the oil carrying pipe from the tanktop at the bottom of the oil tank
The main purpose of introducing double hull design in tankers was
1. to offer an extra layer of protection against environmental pollution

22. 1
2. to increase the light weight of ship and reduce ballast required
3. to allow ships to navigate with reduced UKC without worrying about pollution
4. to increase the cargo carrying capacity of the ship with same dimensions
23. The purpose of slop tanks on an oil tanker is to 1
1. minimize pollution by retaining all slops generated by operation of the vessel

2. increase the cargo carrying capacity whenever necessary
3. collect pump room and engine room bilges
4. make crude oil washing possible
In the displacement method of purging and inerting, the inert gas:
1. enters from the top of the tank

24. 2. enters from the bottom of the tank 1
3. mixes with the original tank atmosphere
4. could enter from the bottom or the top of the tank
The terminal indicates to you that they are going to use a booster pump to assist the discharging
operation. You start the discharge and in a few minutes the pressure drops sharply. This could be a
result of the ___________.
25. 1. booster pump coming on the line and discharging 2

2. booster pump failing to start
3. ship's pump speeding up
4. booster pump being lined up in the wrong direction
Which one of the following is not a piping system found on an oil tanker?
1. Ring main system

26. 1
2. Integrated system
3. Direct line system
4. Free flow system
Turbidity:
1. is an optical characteristic that indicates the degree of clarity of a liquid

27. 2. is a motion characteristic that indicates the degree of clarity of a liquid 2
3. is a refractive characteristic that indicates the degree of clarity of a liquid
4. is a characteristic that indicates the degree of clarity of a liquid
Deep tanks on oil tankers are used normally to carry
1. nothing at all
28. 1
2. additional ballast in bad weather
3. extra bunkers for long international voyages
4. more cargo for increasing freight
What is Cold Work?
1. Work that involves working at lower temperatures

29. 1
2. Work that involves using hand tools only
3. Work that cannot create a source of ignition
4. Work that is carried out at lower than ambient temperatures
What is the purpose of tank coating?
1. to add strength to cargo tanks

30. 1
2. to carry heated cargo
3. to prevent corrosion in cargo tanks
31. Class B fires are caused by 1
1. combustible solids
2. flammable gases
3. flammable liquids
4. electricity
What does "VECS" stand for ?
1. vector control system

32. 2. vapour emission control system 2
3. very economical control system
4. an arrangement for release of cargo vapour.
Cargo tanks entrances on tankers are:
1. Weathertight
33. 2. Watertight 1
3. Could be weathertight or watertight
4. Neither watertight or weathertight
Tank bulkheads on a tanker are strengthened using:
1. Web frames, transverse webs and stringers.

34. 2. Longitudinals, transverse webs and stringers. 1
3. Web frames, transverse webs and gusset plates.
4. Gusset plates, transverse webs and longitudinals
The total capacity of the slop tank or tanks should be not less than what percentage of the oil-carrying
capacity of the vessel ?
1. 3%
35. 2
2. 5%
3. 7%
4. 10%
Acidic solutions are formed in cargo tanks of tankers
1. when sulphur compounds in oil cargoes react with water

36. 2. when sulphur compounds in oil cargoes react with oxygen 1
3. when sulphur compounds in oil cargoes react with hydrocarbon gas
4. when sulphur compounds in oil cargoes react with chemicals
The pipeline system that has valves fitted on bulkheads is called:
1. The direct line system

37. 2. The free flow system 1
3. The ring main system
4. The free line system
A restricted tank gauging system
1. Allows limited amounts of vapour to escape

38. 2. Does not allow vapour to escape 2
3. Uses a float gauge
4. Does not use an ullage tape
39. The cargo space is separated from the accommodation on tankers by: 2
1. a thermal and structural boundary, a SOLAS Convention regulation

2. a thermal and structural boundary, a MARPOL Convention regulation
3. a thermal and structural boundary, a class requirement

4. a thermal and structural boundary, a Loadline Convention regulation
Answer Key
1. is fitted on the inert gas main line of a tanker

2. ECR , CCR and navigation bridge
3. As low as reasonably practicable
6. The pour point
7. prevent different liquids from the two tanks coming in contact in case of a leak
8. Pump room on an oil tanker
9. kept permanently rigged for hoisting an injured person
10. the monitoring equipment is fully operational before commencing the discharge of the oil effluent at sea
14. A common-main system
15. are normally fitted in the cargo control room and sometimes on deck
16. is done to remove traces of the previous cargo
17. Product carriers
18. converts heat to electrical energy
20. should be collected in separate slop tanks and pumped out separately to shore
Oil remaining on the walls of a pipe or on the internal surfaces of tanks after the bulk of the oil has
21.
been removed
22. to offer an extra layer of protection against environmental pollution
23. minimize pollution by retaining all slops generated by operation of the vessel
24. enters from the top of the tank
25. booster pump coming on the line and discharging
26. Integrated system
27. is an optical characteristic that indicates the degree of clarity of a liquid
28. extra bunkers for long international voyages
29. Work that cannot create a source of ignition
30. to prevent corrosion in cargo tanks
31. flammable liquids
32. vapour emission control system
33. Watertight
34. Web frames, transverse webs and stringers.
35. 3%
36. when sulphur compounds in oil cargoes react with water
37. The free flow system
38. Does not allow vapour to escape
39. a thermal and structural boundary, a SOLAS Convention regulation
A type 3 chemical tanker is intended to tansport cargoes that have
1. Severe environmental and safety hazards

1. 2
2. Apperciably severe environmental and safety hazards
3. Sufficiently severe environmental and safety hazards
Which of the following is not a commonly used coating inside chemical carrier cargo tanks?
1. Zinc silicate
2. 1
2. Resin
3. concrete
4. Epoxy
Category Z noxious liquid substances from tank cleaning are deemed to present a hazard; find the
correct statement,
3. 1. Justify the prohibition of discharge into the marine environment 2

2. Justify a limitation on the quantity of the discharge into the marine environment
3. Justify less stringent restrictions of discharge into the marine environment

4. 2
2. Appreciably severe environmental and safety hazards
In chemical tankers the coding system used by the IBC Code for an independend tank is
1. 1
5. 2. 2 2
3. G
4. P
Which of the following statements is not true with regard to chemical tanker pump room?
1. Pump discharge pressures can be read from outside the pump room
6. 1
2. Pump room bilge system can be operated from outside the pump room
3. The ladders for normal access should not be vertical and should have platforms
4. Rescue equipment for hoisting injured person should be available at the deck store
Chemical tankers carry :
1. Crude petroleum
7. 2. Products like kerosene 1
3. Noxious liquid substaces
4. Clean products
Which type of cargo tank does '2G' represent on a chemical tanker?
1. Integral gravity type

8. 1
2. Integral pressure type
3. Independent pressure type
4. Independent gravity type
9. In chemical tankers the coding system used by the IBC Code for an integral tank is 2
1. 1
2. 2
3. G
4. P
Which of the following is not a standard type of cargo tank on chemical tankers?
1. Independent tank
10. 1
2. gravity tank
3. Suspended tank
4. Integral tank
Category Y noxious liquid substances are deemed to present a major hazard and therefore
1. Justify the prohibition of discharge into the marine environment

11. 2
In chemical tankers the coding system used by the IBC Code for a pressure tank is
1. 1
12. 2. 2 2
3. G
4. P

13. 2
In chemical tankers the coding system used by the IBC Code for a gravity tank is
1. 1
14. 2. 2 2
3. G
4. P
Which category of NLS chemical in bulk poses maximum threat?
1. Y
15. 2. OS 2
3. X
4. Z
Two valve separation on chemical tankers is used
1. to lock liquid or vapour between the valves

16. 1
2. so that second valve can be opened if one does not
3. so that second valve can be closed if leak is detected
4. to prevent contamination problems due to leaks
17. Category X noxious liquid substances are deemed to present a major hazard and therefore 1

Answer Key

2. concrete
5. 1
6. Rescue equipment for hoisting injured person should be available at the deck store
7. Noxious liquid substaces
8. Integral gravity type
9. 2
10. Suspended tank
12. P
14. G
15. X
16. to prevent contamination problems due to leaks
In an LNG Sales and Purchase agreement who will be responsible for transportation of the LNG by
sea?
1. 1. Can be the buyer or seller as agreed 1

2. Seller is always responsible
3. Buyer is always responsible
4. Members of SIGTTO only
___________ refers to the vapour of petroleum in the air with lowest proportion that will burn.
1. Lower explosive limit

2. 1
2. Zero explosive limit
3. Minimum explosive limit
_________ is an action where the state of liquid is changed into a vapour or gas.
1. Boiling
3. 1
2. Freezing
3. Remains below boiling temperature
What is the material of construction of the primary membranes of technigaz (MARK III) membrane
type cargo tank?
4. 1. 36% nickel - steel alloy, 0.7mm thick invar 1

2. 9% nickel + steel alloy membrane
3. 35 - 180mm thick aluminium alloy
4. 1.2mm thick - austenitic stainless steel
Why is the Moss LNG cargo tank fitted with external insulation?
1. To reduce boil - off

5. 1
2. To reduce tank expansion
3. To reduce cargo leakage
4. To avoid explosions
1. To reduce boil – off

6. 1
Onboard an LNG tanker with NO 96 containment system, what will happen if a minor membrane leak (crack) occurs above
the cargo level?
7. 1. Small flow of liquid into the crack will vaporize. cargo tank pressure will remain the same. 1
2. Direct vapor flow rate into the insulation spaces via the crack changes with cargo tank's pressure
3. Cargo pressure will be tremendously increased boil-off Gas will be out of control
4. Leak will become bigger and primary membrane will collapse inwards
8. What is the use of thermocouples fitted at the surface of the inner hull? 2
1. To monitor cargo tank temperature

2. To monitor hull stresses
3. To monitor the inner steel temperature
4. To monitor inner hull paint thickness
At __________ or absolute zero, the volume of a gas decreases to nothing as per Charles's Law.
1. /-459 Deg F
9. 1
2. /523 Deg F
3. /-148 Deg F
What is the agreement between the supplier and the buyer called
1. Free On Board (FOB)

10. 1
2. Delivery Ex-Ship (DES)
3. Gas Safe Agreement (GSA)
4. Sale and Purchase Agreement (SPA)
Onboard an LNG carrier, with NO 96 containment system, what will happen when pressure inside primary space is equal to
cargo tank pressure?
11. 1. Primary barrier strips will be shifted from its original position 1
2. Primary barrier strips will be pressed hard onto primary insulation box
3. Primary barrier will collapse inward
4. Nothing will happen - no damage to primary barrier
There are a few components in the LNG ; identify one with less than 1% presence from the options
below,
12. 1. methane 1
2. ethane, propane, butane
3. some heavier alkanes
4. nitrogen
What is burnt in an LNG ship’s dual – fuel boilers with steam turbine propulsion?
1. Liquid LNG & Marine Diesel Oil

13. 1
2. Marine Diesel Oil & Heavy Fuel – Oil
3. Boil – off Gas & Marine Diesel Oil
4. Boil – off Gas & Heavy Fuel Oil
The latent heat is termed as latent heat of ____________ in the case of melting.
1. vaporization
14. 1
2. fusion
3. ignition
15. Where can electrical equipment classified as exib be used? 1
1. In Zones 0, 1 and 2
2. In Zones 1 and 2
3. In Zones 0 and 2
4. In Zones 0 and 1
Gas Dangerous Spaces in Zone 0 will not include,
1. Cargo tanks and cargo piping

16. 1
2. A hold space where cargo is carried in a cargo containment system requiring a secondary
barrier
3. A space separated from a hold space described above by a single gas-tight steel boundary
Based on the principles of segregation, what would you classify the cargo compressor room?
1. Gas safe space

17. 1
2. Gas safe zone
3. Gas dangerous zone
4. Gas dangerous space
Statements on Ethylene Oxide cargoes ; find one that is correct in differentiating the ethylene carrier from the LNG vessels
1. ethylene oxide boiling point at atmospheric pressure is high

18. 2. ethylene oxide boiling point at atmospheric pressure is low 1
3. ethylene oxide must be carried at a higher pressure, thus mostly using type C tanks
4. ethylene oxide is not included in the IGC code as a liquefied gas
If insulation damage occurs, how does filling the ballast tanks with sea water help in maintaining the hull steel temperature?
1. Through slow heat transfer, as sea water conducts heat better than air
19. 1
2. Through better heat transfer, as sea water conducts heat better than air
3. Due to the improved heat transfer to outside sea at ambient temperature
4. As sea water temperature is much lower than LNG temperature, thus helping the heat transfer
What is the latest propulsion solution introduced to the LNG shipping industry?
1. Steam turbines
20. 1
2. Duel - Fuel Diesel Electric (DFDE)
3. Low - speed diesel with a BOG reliquefaction plant
4. Gas turbine
In order to avoid condensation in the engine, the saturated steam released by the boilers is heated
again using the
21. 1. heater 1
2. super heater
3. boiler
The unit of measurement of amount of gas is
1. Millibar
22. 1
2. Mole
3. Gramme
23. The effect of layering made up of two vapours or gases with different densities is called 1
1. weathering
2. stratification
3. inertion
What should the Master of an LNG carrier do if the CTS fails?
1. Use the gauging reports of shore receiving tanks.

24. 1
2. Inform the Company and receivers. Use manual gauging and tank tables
3. Inform the terminal and activate ESD button
4. Suspend cargo operation till CTS is repaired
_______________ is an operating problem that happens when the vapour moves over the liquid's
surface rapidly and the liquid droplets get entrapped with the vapour.
25. 1. Flash over 1

2. Liquid carry over
3. HEEL
What will happen to the liquid level within and pressure of a cargo tank when there is a big crack (major leak) in the cargo
tank's primary membrane and adjacent insulation space, underneath the cargo level?
26. 1. The liquid level will increase and pressure will suddenly increase 2
2. The liquid level will drop and pressure will suddenly drop
3. The liquid level will drop and pressure will suddenly rise
4. The liquid level will increase and pressure will be suddenly drop
In the cargo tank of a Moss type LNG cargo tank, where are the pumps, pipe – work and cabling
secured?
27. 1. Tubular tower inside the cargo tank 1

2. Liquid dome area, on main deck
3. Vapor dome area, on main deck
4. Pump room, close to manifold area
The pressure applied at the sea level is called as __________ pressure.
28. 1. absolute 1
2. gauge
3. atmospheric

29. 1
____________ refers to the vapour of petroleum in the air with strongest proportion that will burn.
1. Stronger explosive limit

30. 1
2. Upper explosive limit
3. Maximum explosive limit
31. LNG carriers are designed and constructed to meet the stringent standards of the 2
1. International Code for the Construction and Equipment of Ships Carrying Liquefied Gases in
Bulk (IGC Code).
2. Design and construction of LNG carriers are controlled by the classification society rules
3. Design and construction of LNG carriers are the responsibility of the Government authorities
In addition to water detection sensors fitted at secondary insulation spaces, Which is the other typical sensing devices fitted to
give an early indication of inner hull experiencing structural failure?
32. 1. Water moisture detector inside primary insulation space 1

2. Water moisture detector at the vapor dome
3. Water moisture detector inside secondary insulation space
4. Water moisture detector inside wing ballast tank
Why is Ethylene Oxide carriage is included in the IGC code for transportation ?
1. Its boiling point at atmospheric pressure is very low; thus it needs to be carried as a low
33. temperature liquid and conforms to the IGC code for construction 1
2. Its boiling point at atmospheric pressure is very high
3. Its characteristic is to remain gaseous at ambient conditions
4. It is a pressurized liquid when shipped below 50 deg F
What are the two main contractual arrangements used in LNG shipping?
1. Delivery Ex - Ship (DES) and Freight On Board (FOB)

34. 1
2. Delivery Ex Shore (DES) and Free On Board (FOB)
3. Delivery On Board (DOB) and Free On Board (FOB)
4. Delivery Ex - Ship (DES) and Free On Board (FOB)
On an LNG tanker with NO 96 cargo containment system, what is the first typical sign that indicates a cargo tank's insulation
space is affected by a structural failure?
35. 1. Presence of rust inside secondary barrier 1

2. Presence of water inside the cargo tank's primary insulation spaces
3. Presence of rust inside primary barrier
4. Presence of water inside the cargo tank's secondary insulation spaces
_________ refers to the tank which is filled over the full tank level.
1. Overfull tank
36. 1
2. Spilling tank
3. flowing tank
A major failure of the primary membrane will allow LNG to flood the primary insulation space. In addition there will be a
tendency for the liquid level in the main cargo tank and a space to equalize. Which of the following is this space?
37. 1. The primary insulation space to equalize 1

2. The secondary insulation space to equalize
3. The both insulation space to equalize
4. The vapor dome space to equalize
38. Based on the principles of segregation, what would you classify cargo containment system as? 2

2. Gas dangerous zone
3. Gas safe zone
4. Gas safe space
How is intrinsic safety achieved for electrical circuits used in hazardous areas?
1. By limiting the ignition energy and surface temperature that can arise during operation
39. 1
2. By limiting the number of equipment used in a space
3. By increasing mechanical ventilation to the area
4. By installing machinery which have higher power and thus shorter operation time
Identify the labels
40. 1
1. 1-Insulation; 2- Hold Space; 3- Water Ballast

2. 1- Hold Space; 2- Water Ballast; 3-Insulation
3. 1- Insulation; 2- Water Ballast; 3- Hold Space
How is the inner hull void space between the tanks maintained at a temperature above 0oC during loaded voyage?
41. 1. By filling the void space between the tanks with heated glycol 1
2. By filling the void space between the tanks with hot water
3. By steam or electric heating coils (glycol filled) in each void space between the tanks
4. By injecting high density foam inside the void space between the tanks
42. What is required to enable BOG to be burned in the event of a reliquefaction plant shutdown in an 1
LNG carrier?
1. Gas Combustion Unit (GCU)

2. Steam dump plant

3. Degasification plant
4. Steam boiler
Onboard an LNG carrier, what provisions are made for separation between the deck and electric motors room?
1. Watertight doors
43. 1
2. Airlocks
3. Air intakes
4. Weathertight doors
During a fully loaded passage, cold spots are beyond control. It is confirmed that it is unsafe to delay discharge of cargo from
the damaged cargo tank. What is the action to be taken?
44. 1. To jettison the cargo via the emergency discharge connection 1

2. To discharge all the cargo to nearby ballast tank
3. To transfer cargo of the affected tank to other fully loaded tanks
4. To vent out all the cargo via vapor header mast riser
Which of the following may not contribute to structural failure of inner hull?
1. Destruction of inner hull due to ship grounding

45. 1
2. Destruction of ship side due to collision
3. Destruction of Ballast pump during high speed operation
4. Destruction of the insulation space due to sloshing effect
The pressure that occurs above one atmosphere is called as ____________ pressure.
1. absolute
46. 1
2. atmospheric
3. gauge
The vapor remains in a __________ state till the condensation process is over.
1. supersaturated
47. 1
2. under saturated
3. superheated
When the seller and buyer agree to Free On Board (FOB) what does the buyer pay?
1. Buyer pays freight, insurance, unloading costs and end transportation

48. 1
2. Buyer pays only insurance, unloading costs and end transportation
3. Buyer owns the ship so carries it free of charge
4. Buyer pays only for unloading and end transportation
After discharging the liquid from the cargo tank, a small quantity will be remaining and it will be
difficult to pump it out. This small quantity of liquid is called
49. 1. Liquid trap 1

2. HEEL
3. Mole
50. What is the ideal location for a cargo tank from the shell plating, in any Gas tanker type? 1
1. less than 760 mm from the shell plating

2. less than 750 mm from the ship side
3. less than 740 mm from the main deck
4. less than 730 mm from the summer draft
Answer Key
1. Can be the buyer or seller as agreed

2. Lower explosive limit
3. Boiling
4. 1.2mm thick - austenitic stainless steel
6. To reduce boil – off
7. Direct vapor flow rate into the insulation spaces via the crack changes with cargo tank's pressure
8. To monitor the inner steel temperature
9. /-459 Deg F
10. Sale and Purchase Agreement (SPA)
11. Nothing will happen - no damage to primary barrier
12. nitrogen
13. Boil – off Gas & Heavy Fuel Oil
14. fusion
15. In Zones 1 and 2
16. A space separated from a hold space described above by a single gas-tight steel boundary
18. ethylene oxide boiling point at atmospheric pressure is low
19. Through better heat transfer, as sea water conducts heat better than air
20. Low - speed diesel with a BOG reliquefaction plant
21. super heater
22. Mole
23. stratification
24. Inform the Company and receivers. Use manual gauging and tank tables
25. Liquid carry over
26. The liquid level will drop and pressure will suddenly rise
27. Tubular tower inside the cargo tank
28. atmospheric
30. Upper explosive limit
International Code for the Construction and Equipment of Ships Carrying Liquefied Gases in Bulk (IGC
31.
Code).
32. Water moisture detector inside secondary insulation space
Its boiling point at atmospheric pressure is very low; thus it needs to be carried as a low temperature
33.
liquid and conforms to the IGC code for construction
34. Delivery Ex - Ship (DES) and Free On Board (FOB)
35. Presence of water inside the cargo tank's secondary insulation spaces
36. Overfull tank
37. The primary insulation space to equalize
39. By limiting the ignition energy and surface temperature that can arise during operation
40. 1-Insulation; 2- Hold Space; 3- Water Ballast
41. By steam or electric heating coils (glycol filled) in each void space between the tanks
42. Gas Combustion Unit (GCU)
43. Airlocks
44. To jettison the cargo via the emergency discharge connection

45. Destruction of Ballast pump during high speed operation
46. gauge
47. supersaturated
48. Buyer pays freight, insurance, unloading costs and end transportation
49. HEEL
50. less than 760 mm from the shell plating
As per condition of assignment all discharges from above or below the free board deck from enclosed
space are ______________.
1. 1. To be lead directly overboard. 1

2. Are discharged overboard by pump
3. To be led to engine room bilge tank to have an efficient non return arrangement
4. None of above.
Answer Key
1. To be led to engine room bilge tank to have an efficient non return arrangement
Mechanical Dehumidifying of Cargo Holds; find an error statement,
1. It is important to be aware that on some voyages the only way of removing moisture from the
cargo hold atmosphere, is through air-conditioning of the hold.
2. An open-circuit system uses a dehumidifier and temperature control system so that each hold
1. 1
can be supplied or recirculated with dry air.
3. The air is dried by drawing it through a conditioning plant with a moisture absorbing solution
before it is passed into the cargo hold ventilation system.
4. Alternatively, portable dehumidifiers can be fitted in the cargo holds to remove moisture from
the hold air and control the dew point.
Ventilation: find an error statement,
1. Ventilation, in its most basic form, is the supply of fresh air into a space.
2. All cargoes are affected by condensation due to the changing temperatures of the ship’s hull
2. 2
3. In broader terms, ventilation is understood to be all the steps taken to prevent damage to
cargoes from condensed moisture within the cargo holds.
4. One such option for preventing condensation within a cargo hold is the method of air
conditioning of the cargo hold atmosphere using a dehumidifier
Mechanical Dehumidifying of Cargo Holds; find an error statement,
1. It is important to be aware that on some voyages the only way of removing moisture from the
cargo hold atmosphere, is through air-conditioning of the hold.
2. A closed-circuit system uses a dehumidifier and temperature control system so that each hold
3. 2
can be supplied or recirculated with dry air.
3. The air is dried by drawing it through a conditioning plant with a moisture absorbing solution
before it is passed into the cargo hold ventilation system.
4. Portable dehumidifiers are not permitted to be fitted in the cargo holds to remove moisture
from the hold air and control the dew point.
General Regulatory Requirements and objectives for ventilation for dry bulk cargoes: find an error
statement,
1. The cargo holds of all dry cargo ships have natural or mechanical ventilation systems.
4. 2
2. All ventilation trunks should be made of steel according to the requirements of the
classification societies.
3. The interconnection of ventilation systems for cargo holds with other spaces is not permitted.
4. Ventilator openings on deck shall have a height of at least 960 mm above the poop deck
statement,
1. Self-heating properties of cargoes must be considered when applying ventilation

5. 2
2. Special attention cannot be paid to oxygen-depleting cargoes by ventilation.
3. The occurrence of an explosive atmosphere in cargo holds shall be avoided.
4. Toxic gases and vapors shall be removed from the cargo holds as far as possible.
5. Toxic gases, vapor and dust shall be kept away from accommodation spaces.
6. Mechanical Ventilation System: find an error statement, 2
1. Mechanical ventilation, is a system where the movement of air is forced using electrical fans
within the ventilator shafts.
2. An open-circuit system draws atmospheric air into the hold by fan induction and exhausts it
from the hold by fan extraction.
3. When cargo is carried, the number of air changes per hour decreases, as there is less air in
the hold
4. The capacity of a ship’s hold ventilation fans is normally expressed in the number of air
changes that can be achieved in an empty hold per hour.
statement,
1. Self-heating properties of cargoes must not be considered when applying ventilation

7. 1
2. The occurrence of an explosive atmosphere in cargo holds shall be avoided.
3. Toxic gases and vapors shall be removed from the cargo holds as far as possible.
4. Toxic gases, vapor and dust shall be kept away from accommodation spaces.
5. Special attention shall be paid to oxygen-depleting cargoes.
Ventilation System: find an error statement,
1. Ventilation may be required if the cargoes are liable to deplete oxygen (IMSBC Code Appendix
1).
2. Prior to the entry of cargo holds and enclosed spaces adjacent to cargo holds, the atmosphere
8. 2
must be measured and spaces must be ventilated, as necessary.
3. For cargo holds, natural ventilation can be sufficient, whereas the ventilation of adjacent
spaces are not supported by using mobile ventilation fans.
4. Recommendations for entering enclosed spaces can be found in IMO Resolution A.1050(27)
“Revised recommendations for entering enclosed spaces aboard ships”.
Ventilation, on bulk carriers, generally means the provision of ----A----- into the cargo holds, which
is achieved through either ------- B--------- means.
select X Y Z M
A Fresh Air Pipeline Hatchcover Pumps
9. B Natural or Mechanical Hydraulic or Electrical or Electrical or 1

mechanical hydraulic hydraulic
1. X
2. Y
3. Z
4. M
10. Mechanical Ventilation System: find an error statement, 1
1. For cargoes like FERROSILICON 14082 or ALUMINIUM SILICON POWDER, the mechanical
ventilation system must have a capacity of at least six air changes / hour based on cargo
space (SOLAS Regulation II and the IMSBC Code Appendix 1).
2. For the removal of gases and vapors, exhaust ventilation is recommended.
3. For cargoes with self-heating properties, mechanical ventilation should only be applied in
special circumstances.
4. In all cases the ventilation should be directed into the body of the cargo (IMSBC Code
subsection 3.5.6 and Appendix 1)
Ventilation decision rules; find an error statement,
1. The 3-degree rule avoids the need to take readings in the holds after the voyage has
commenced and relies on the fact that the temperature of the cargo mass, except at the
boundaries, only slowly changes during a voyage.
11. 2. To apply the rule, it is necessary for the ship’s crew to take a number of cargo temperature 2
readings during loading. Hand-held infrared thermometers are ideal for this task.
3. Based on the above considerations, if ventilation can and has to be carried out; it should
continue to take place not only in daytime but, importantly, also at night.
4. Generally, on a voyage from cold to warm regions, ventilation is required; but from warm to
cold regions, only surface ventilation is required.
1. The ventilation shall be arranged such that toxic gases, vapours or dust cannot enter
accommodation spaces (IMSBC Code subsection 3.5.5).
2. According to SOLAS Regulation II, natural ventilation shall also be provided if there is no
12. 1
provision for mechanical ventilation.
3. For some cargoes this is in contradiction to the requirements of the IMSBC Code. The IMSBC
Code stipulates some cargoes shall not be ventilated during the voyage.
4. The operational requirement of the IMSBC Code cannot be applied due to the SOLAS
regulations.
1. For cargoes liable to emit toxic gases, natural ventilation is required (IMSBC Code subsection
3.5.1) as a minimum.
13. 2. The ventilation shall be arranged such that toxic gases, vapours or dust cannot enter 2
accommodation spaces (IMSBC Code subsection 3.5.5).
3. A close distance between ventilation outlets and accommodation spaces should be kept.
4. According to SOLAS Regulation II, natural ventilation shall also be provided if there is no
provision for mechanical ventilation.
Ventilating the cargo is not merely allowing the outside air into the cargo hold; it is a precise
process where several factors need to be considered. The decision to ventilate should be taken after
considering the following factors: find an error statement,
1. Instructions may not be contained in the charter party or voyage order

14. 1
2. Temperature, nature and requirements of the cargo
3. Temperature, relative humidity and dew point of air inside and outside the hold
4. Sea temperature, as it may lower the temperature of the hold steel adjacent to or in contact
with the sea, resulting in condensation forming on the shell plating (ship sweat)
5. Vent opening should not be exposed to sea spray
15. Ventilation decision rules; find an error statement, 2
1. There are three ventilation rules which the Master should check and confirm when voyage
orders are received.
2. Dew Point Rule- Ventilate if the dew point of the air inside the hold is higher than the dew
point of the air outside the hold.
3. Do not ventilate if the dew point of the air inside the hold is lower than the dew point of the
air outside the hold.
4. Three Degree Rule- Ventilation requirements may be estimated by comparing the average
cargo temperature at the time of loading with the outside air temperature.
statement,
1. The cargo holds of most dry cargo ships have mechanical ventilation systems.
16. 1
2. All ventilation trunks should be made of steel according to the requirements of the
classification societies.
3. The interconnection of ventilation systems for cargo holds with other spaces is not permitted.
Natural Ventilation System: find an error statement,
1. Through ventilation is when the air is forced into the body of the cargo. It is generally not
required for solid bulk cargoes and is difficult to achieve.
2. When a hold is loaded with a solid bulk cargo, the ventilation provided is usually surface
17. 1
ventilation, with air flowing over the surface of the cargo from ventilators.
3. On newer designs of dry cargo ships (particularly bulk carriers), the hinged-door type
ventilators are often fitted on the sides of the hatch cover.
4. The hinged doors can then be closed depending on the relative wind direction to provide
adequate surface ventilation within the cargo hold.
Mechanical Ventilation System: find an error statement,
18. 2. All type of fans can be present in cargo holds (exhaust, supply or reversible). 1
3. With some systems, it is possible to vary the speed of the fans to further control the
ventilation.
4. A closed-circuit system draws atmospheric air into the hold by fan induction and exhausts it
from the hold by fan extraction.
General Regulatory Requirements on ventilation for dry bulk cargoes; find an error statement,
1. From a regulatory perspective, the reason for ventilating is not purely safety based
2. The requirements are governed by Regulation II- SOLAS as well as the relevant IMO circulars
19. and the International Maritime Solid Bulk Cargoes Code (IMSBC Code). 2
3. The IMSBC Code came into force on 1 January 2011 and is applicable to all ships engaged in
the carriage of dry bulk cargoes, irrespective of the keel-laying date.
4. The provisions on ventilation in section 3.5 and in the individual schedules of solid bulk
cargoes in Appendix 1 of the IMSBC Code are treated as mandatory.
20. Ventilation System: find an error statement, 2
1. Ventilation may not be required if the cargoes are liable to deplete oxygen (IMSBC Code
Appendix 1).
2. Prior to the entry of cargo holds and enclosed spaces adjacent to cargo holds, the atmosphere
must be measured and spaces must be ventilated, as necessary.
3. The means of ventilation are not described in the IMSBC Code.
4. For cargo holds, natural ventilation can be sufficient, whereas the ventilation of adjacent
spaces is usually supported by mobile ventilation fans.
Ventilation arrangements; find an error statement,
1. Electrical machinery and installations (switch cabinets, etc.) are to be protected such that
water particles penetrating into the air ducts will not cause disturbances. Risks of this kind
are to be minimized by appropriate arrangement (water traps) of ducts and air in/outlets.
21. 2. The number of ventilation openings in watertight subdivisions shall be reduced to the 2
minimum compatible with the design and proper working of the ship.
3. If valves are provided at watertight boundaries to maintain watertight integrity, then the
valves are Not to be operated from a remote location
4. Where ventilation ducts are routed through watertight decks and bulkheads, arrangements
shall be made to ensure the watertight integrity.
1. If continuous ventilation is required, the cargo holds shall be ventilated by a mechanical

ventilation system during the entire voyage.
2. The ventilation should only be interrupted in adverse weather conditions.
22. 2
3. For some cargoes, two separate fans are to be provided per cargo hold to maintain forced
ventilation if one fan fails (IMSBC Code Appendix 1).
4. For continuous ventilation, the ventilation openings shall comply with the requirements of the
International Convention on Load Lines (ICLL) Regulation for openings not fitted with
weathertight closures.
2. When cargo is carried, the number of air changes per hour increases, as there is less air in
23. 1
the hold
3. The capacity of a ship’s hold ventilation fans is normally Not expressed in the number of air
changes that can be achieved in an empty hold per hour.
4. Mechanical ventilation is to be provided for cargoes liable to emit flammable gases or vapors
(IMSBC Code).
24. Ventilator heights: Find the correct statement, 1
1. Ventilator openings on deck shall have a height of at least 900 mm in Position 1 and at least
760 mm above the deck in Position 2.
The primary purposes of ventilation are to minimize damage to the cargo and to ensure the safety
of the crew and vessel; find an error statement,
25. 1. minimizing the formation of sweat by dew point control 1

2. removing hazardous gases which may be emitted by the cargo
3. Not removing taint
4. preventing excessive heating of the cargo
1. A natural ventilation system, is based on nature’s law of air circulation. Air can enter and
leave the hold through the vents located above the deck level.
2. Natural ventilation system allows cool, heavier air from the outside atmosphere to replace the
lighter, rising warm air inside the cargo hold.
26. 1
3. Some older designs of dry cargo ships were fitted with ventilator shafts leading to the lower
parts of the cargo hold.
4. This was less effective on general cargo ships carrying bagged or breakbulk cargoes requiring
through ventilation.
5. Air circulation in the cargo hold was achieved by trimming the ventilators (cowl direction) with
respect to the wind direction.
27. Ventilation decision rules; find an error statement, 1
1. Ventilate if the dry bulb temperature of the outside air is at least 3°C cooler than the average
cargo temperature at the time of loading.
2. Do not ventilate if the dry bulb temperature of the outside air is less than 3°C cooler than the
average cargo temperature at the time of loading, or warmer.
3. The 3-degree rule avoids the need to take readings in the holds before the voyage has
commenced and relies on the fact that the temperature of the cargo mass, except at the
boundaries, changes greatly during a voyage.
4. To apply the rule, it is necessary for the ship’s crew to take a number of cargo temperature
readings during loading. Hand-held infrared thermometers are ideal for this task.
1. Air circulation in the cargo hold was achieved by trimming the ventilators (cowl direction) with
respect to the wind direction.
2. This was more effective on general cargo ships carrying bagged or breakbulk cargoes
28. 2
requiring through ventilation.
3. Through ventilation is when the air is forced into the body of the cargo.
4. It is generally a must for solid bulk cargoes but is difficult to achieve.
5. When a hold is loaded with a solid bulk cargo, the ventilation provided is usually surface
ventilation, with air flowing over the surface of the cargo from ventilators.
1. For cargoes liable to emit toxic gases, natural ventilation is required (IMSBC Code subsection
3.5.1) as a minimum.
2. An appropriate distance between ventilation outlets and accommodation spaces should be
29. 2
kept.
3. Both the SOLAS and the IMSBC Code specify what a proper or appropriate distance should
be, between ventilation outlets and accommodation spaces
4. Appropriate distance between ventilation outlets and accommodation spaces for toxic gases
are specified by DNV GL as being 10 m.
General Regulatory Requirements on ventilation for dry bulk cargoes; find an error statement,
1. From a regulatory perspective, the reason for ventilating is purely safety based
2. The requirements are governed by Regulation II- SOLAS as well as the relevant IMO circulars
30. and the International Maritime Solid Bulk Cargoes Code (IMSBC Code). 2
3. The IMSBC Code came into force on 1 January 2011 and is Not applicable to all ships engaged
in the carriage of dry bulk cargoes, irrespective of the keel-laying date.
4. The provisions on ventilation in section 3.5 and in the individual schedules of solid bulk
cargoes in Appendix 1 of the IMSBC Code are treated as mandatory.
1. Continuous ventilation is Not required for cargoes that fall under IMDG Class 4.3 and are
substances which, in contact with water, emit flammable gases, such as hydrogen gas, falling
within the UN N.5 test as Dangerous Goods.
31. 2. There are cargoes assigned MHB (WF) such as ‘FERROPHOSPHORUS (including briquettes)’ 1
and ‘FERROSILICON that require continuous ventilation.
3. Cargoes with a low gas evolution rate, such as DIRECT REDUCED IRON (A), or cargoes where
ventilation would support self-heating, such as COAL, shall only occasionally be ventilated.
4. If continuous ventilation is required, the cargo holds shall be ventilated by a mechanical
ventilation system during the entire voyage.
32. Ventilator heights: Find the correct selection for A, B, C and D: 2
Select X Y Z M
A 800 mm 800 mm 900 mm 760 mm
B 900 mm 900 mm 760 mm 900 mm
C 2300 mm 2000 mm 2300 mm 2300 mm
D 4500 mm 4000 mm 4500 mm 4500 mm
1. X
2. Y
3. Z
4. M
Answer Key
An open-circuit system uses a dehumidifier and temperature control system so that each hold can be
1.
supplied or recirculated with dry air.
2. All cargoes are affected by condensation due to the changing temperatures of the ship’s hull
Portable dehumidifiers are not permitted to be fitted in the cargo holds to remove moisture from the
3.
hold air and control the dew point.
5. Special attention cannot be paid to oxygen-depleting cargoes by ventilation.
6. When cargo is carried, the number of air changes per hour decreases, as there is less air in the hold
7. Self-heating properties of cargoes must not be considered when applying ventilation
For cargo holds, natural ventilation can be sufficient, whereas the ventilation of adjacent spaces are
8.
not supported by using mobile ventilation fans.
9. X
In all cases the ventilation should be directed into the body of the cargo (IMSBC Code subsection
10.
3.5.6 and Appendix 1)
Generally, on a voyage from cold to warm regions, ventilation is required; but from warm to cold
11.
regions, only surface ventilation is required.
12. The operational requirement of the IMSBC Code cannot be applied due to the SOLAS regulations.
13. A close distance between ventilation outlets and accommodation spaces should be kept.
14. Instructions may not be contained in the charter party or voyage order
There are three ventilation rules which the Master should check and confirm when voyage orders are
15.
received.
16. The cargo holds of most dry cargo ships have mechanical ventilation systems.
The hinged doors can then be closed depending on the relative wind direction to provide adequate
17.
surface ventilation within the cargo hold.
A closed-circuit system draws atmospheric air into the hold by fan induction and exhausts it from the
18.
hold by fan extraction.
19. From a regulatory perspective, the reason for ventilating is not purely safety based
Ventilation may not be required if the cargoes are liable to deplete oxygen (IMSBC Code Appendix
20.
1).
If valves are provided at watertight boundaries to maintain watertight integrity, then the valves are
21.
Not to be operated from a remote location
22. The ventilation should only be interrupted in adverse weather conditions.
The capacity of a ship’s hold ventilation fans is normally Not expressed in the number of air changes
23.
that can be achieved in an empty hold per hour.
Ventilator openings on deck shall have a height of at least 900 mm in Position 1 and at least 760 mm
24.
above the deck in Position 2.
25. Not removing taint
This was less effective on general cargo ships carrying bagged or breakbulk cargoes requiring through
26.
ventilation.
The 3-degree rule avoids the need to take readings in the holds before the voyage has commenced
27. and relies on the fact that the temperature of the cargo mass, except at the boundaries, changes
greatly during a voyage.
28. It is generally a must for solid bulk cargoes but is difficult to achieve.
Both the SOLAS and the IMSBC Code specify what a proper or appropriate distance should be,
29.
between ventilation outlets and accommodation spaces
The IMSBC Code came into force on 1 January 2011 and is Not applicable to all ships engaged in the
30.
carriage of dry bulk cargoes, irrespective of the keel-laying date.
31. Continuous ventilation is Not required for cargoes that fall under IMDG Class 4.3 and are substances
which, in contact with water, emit flammable gases, such as hydrogen gas, falling within the UN N.5
test as Dangerous Goods.
32. M
Concerning cargo-hold dehumidification, what statement is true?
1. Cargo hold moisture content is increased by supplying relatively humid air from the outside
and exhausting relatively dry air to the outside
2. Cargo hold moisture content is reduced by supplying relatively humid air from the outside and
1. 1
exhausting relatively dry air to the outside
3. Cargo hold moisture content is increased by supplying relatively dry air from the outside and
exhausting relatively humid air to the outside.
4. Cargo hold moisture content is reduced by supplying relatively dry air from the outside and
With regard to the cooling and heating coils and humidification and regeneration chambers of a
liquid cargo-hold dehumidification system, what statement is true?
1. The chamber that processes the cargo-hold air contains the cooling coil and is known as the
regeneration chamber. The chamber that processes the outside air contains the heating coil
and is known as the humidification chamber.
2. The chamber that processes the cargo-hold air contains the heating coil and is known as the
2. humidification chamber. The chamber that processes the outside air contains the cooling coil 1
and is known as the regeneration chamber.
3. The chamber that processes the cargo-hold air contains the cooling coil and is known as the
humidification chamber. The chamber that processes the outside air contains the heating coil
and is known as the regeneration chamber.
4. The chamber that processes the outside air contains the cooling coil and is known as the
humidification chamber. The chamber that processes the cargo-hold air contains the heating
coil and is known as the regeneration chamber.
Identify correct labelling selection:
3. 1
1. A- Hygroscopic; B-Non-hygroscopic; C- Cargo Sweat; D- Cargo damage by sweat

2. A - Non-hygroscopic; B- Hygroscopic; C- Cargo Sweat; D- Cargo damage by sweat
3. A- Cargo Sweat; B-Non-hygroscopic; C -Cargo damage by sweat ; D- Hygroscopic
4. A- Hygroscopic; B-Non-hygroscopic; C -Cargo damage by sweat; D- Cargo Sweat
4. Ventilation rules: Find an incorrect statement for Cargo space ventilation 1
1. Ship's sweat: is the condensation of water vapor on the ship's outside hull structure.
2. Ship sweat takes place when the 'dew point' in a cargo space exceeds the temperature of the
structural parts of the ship.
3. It is minimized, or eradicated, by passing adequate volumes of outside air over the cargo,
more particularly necessary in a vessel passing from warm to colder atmospheric conditions.
4. Cargo sweat: is the condensation of water vapor directly on to the cargo.
What statement is true concerning a liquid desiccant cargo-hold dehumidification system?
1. Water absorbed in the liquid desiccant is evaporated and driven out of the desiccant by means
of a heating coil located in the regeneration chamber.
2. Water absorbed in the liquid desiccant is evaporated and driven out of the desiccant by means
5. of a cooling coil located in the regeneration chamber
1
3. Water absorbed in the liquid desiccant is condensed and absorbed into the desiccant by
means of a cooling coil located in the regeneration chamber
4. Water absorbed in the liquid desiccant is condensed and absorbed in to the desiccant by
means of a heating coil located in the regeneration chamber.
What common feature is found on both liquid-desiccant and solid-desiccant cargo- hold
dehumidification systems?
1. Both systems require a continuous source of cooling water to drive the moisture out of the
6. desiccant. 1
2. Both systems require a continuous source of heat to drive the moisture out of the desiccant.
3. Both systems require a continuous source of heat to absorb moisture into the desiccant.
4. Both systems require a continuous source of cooling water to absorb moisture into the
desiccant.
Ventilation rules: Find an incorrect statement for Cargo space ventilation
1. Of all the reasons, moisture is one of the most common causes of cargo damage and a source
of significant cargo claims.
2. Moisture responsible for cargo damage is also called “sweat” on ships.
7. 1
3. Sweat is mainly of two types: Cargo sweat and Vessel sweat
4. Cargo sweat refers to the condensation that occurs on the exposed surface of the cargo as a
result of warm, moist air introduced into holds containing substantially warm cargo.
5. Cargo sweat generally occurs when the vessel is travelling from a colder to a warmer place
and the outside air has a dew point above the temperature of the cargo.
1. Ship's sweat: is the condensation of water vapor on the ship's inner hull structure.
2. Cargo sweat can arise when passing from cold to warmer climatic conditions since the cause
8. 2
is from the warmer moisture laden air condensing on the cargo.
3. Cargo sweat prevention is making sure Not to seal off the ventilating facilities
4. Extraction fans may be necessary to offset any moisture effects emanating from the cargo
itself, or its dunnaging materials.
9. What statement is true concerning a liquid desiccant cargo-hold dehumidification system? 1
1. Water vapor from the humid air inlet from the cargo hold is condensed and absorbed into the
liquid desiccant by means of a heating coil located in the humidification chamber
2. Water from the humid air inlet from the cargo hold is evaporated and driven out of the liquid
desiccant by means of a cooling coil located in the humidification chamber.
3. Water vapor from the humid air inlet from the cargo hold is condensed and absorbed into the
liquid desiccant by means of a cooling coil located in the humidification chamber.
4. Water from the humid air inlet from the cargo hold is evaporated and driven out of the liquid
desiccant by means of a heating coil located in the humidification chamber.
1. Damage to cargo can happen because of several reasons such as accident, flooding,
rainwater, etc.
10. 2. Of all the reasons, moisture is Not one of the most common causes of cargo damage but, a 2
source of significant cargo claims.
3. In order to prevent damage of cargo because of moisture, ships are fitted with natural or
forced ventilation systems.
4. Moisture responsible for cargo damage is also called “sweat” on ships.
Cargo ventilation system is guided by the following: find an incorrect statement
1. The dew point of the air, both inside and outside the cargo hold plays an important role in
determining the quality of cargo. Here, the “Dewpoint Rule” is taken into consideration to
provide ventilation and keep the temperature within the favorable range.
2. According to the Dewpoint Rule, ventilation must be provided if the dewpoint of the air inside
11. 2
the hold is higher than the dewpoint of the air outside the hold.
3. Ventilation must be provided if the dewpoint of the air inside the hold is lower than the
dewpoint of the air outside the hold.
4. If it is impractical to measure the dewpoint temperature of the cargo hold, ventilation is
provided by comparing average cargo temperature at the time of loading with the outside air
temperature.
Cargo ventilation system helps in the following: find an incorrect statement
1. Prevent cargo and ship sweat

12. 2. Non-Supply fresh air to the cargo 1
3. Prevent building up of poisonous gases
4. Removing smell of previous cargo
5. Getting rid of heat/moisture given off by some cargo types
To prevent damage to dry cargoes, the cargo hold ventilation and dehumidification systems play a
key role. In terms of the maintained dew point, what statement is true?
1. The dew point temperature of the cargo hold is normally maintained at the surface
temperature of the cargo or ship structure.
13. 2. The dew point temperature of the cargo hold is normally maintained 10°F above the surface 1
3. The dew point temperature of the cargo hold is normally maintained 10°F/ -12°C below the
surface temperature of the cargo or ship structure.
4. The dew point temperature of the cargo hold is normally maintained at a constant
temperature regardless of the surface temperature of the cargo or ship structure.
14. Cargo ventilation on ships is important for both hygroscopic and non-hygroscopic cargoes. Find an 1
incorrect answer:
1. Hygroscopic cargo has natural water/moisture content.

2. Hygroscopic cargo is mainly plant products, which absorb, retain, and release water within
the cargo.
3. Hygroscopic cargo water leads to significant heating and spreading of moisture in the cargo
and result in caking or spoiling or cargo.
4. Non-hygroscopic cargo has no water content; however, and they cannot get spoilt in moist
environment.
To determine the average cargo hold dew point temperature, at what location would the dew point
be measured?
15. 1. The dew point is taken at the ventilation exhaust trunk. 1

2. The dew point is taken at the ventilation supply trunk.
3. The dew point is taken near a central location of the cargo hold.
4. The dew point is taken near the bottom of the cargo hold.
1. Cargo sweat refers to the condensation that occurs on the exposed surface of the cargo as a
result of warm, moist air introduced into holds containing substantially cooler cargo.
2. In addition to minimizing the onset and degree of sweat, ventilation may also serve to
remove taint and disperse any gases which some cargoes may emit.
16. 3. Sweat is condensation which forms on all surfaces and on all goods in a compartment or hold 2
due to the inability of cooled air to hold in suspension as much water vapor as warm air.
4. The ship’s officer can collect only limited evidence of hold atmospheric conditions through the
use of wet and dry bulb temperature readings in a few locations in the holds and on the open
deck.
5. Just by comparing the dew points of the hold air and the outside air, it is not possible for
decisions to be taken as to whether or not to continue ventilating
Answer Key
Cargo hold moisture content is reduced by supplying relatively dry air from the outside and
1.
The chamber that processes the cargo-hold air contains the heating coil and is known as the
2. humidification chamber. The chamber that processes the outside air contains the cooling coil and is
known as the regeneration chamber.
3. A- Hygroscopic; B-Non-hygroscopic; C- Cargo Sweat; D- Cargo damage by sweat
4. Ship's sweat: is the condensation of water vapor on the ship's outside hull structure.
Water absorbed in the liquid desiccant is evaporated and driven out of the desiccant by means of a
5. heating coil located in the regeneration chamber.
6. Both systems require a continuous source of heat to drive the moisture out of the desiccant.
Cargo sweat refers to the condensation that occurs on the exposed surface of the cargo as a result of
7.
warm, moist air introduced into holds containing substantially warm cargo.
8. Cargo sweat prevention is making sure Not to seal off the ventilating facilities
Water vapor from the humid air inlet from the cargo hold is condensed and absorbed into the liquid
9.
desiccant by means of a cooling coil located in the humidification chamber.
Of all the reasons, moisture is Not one of the most common causes of cargo damage but, a source of
10.
significant cargo claims.
Ventilation must be provided if the dewpoint of the air inside the hold is lower than the dewpoint of
11.
the air outside the hold.
12. Non-Supply fresh air to the cargo
The dew point temperature of the cargo hold is normally maintained 10°F/ -12°C below the surface
13.
Non-hygroscopic cargo has no water content; however, and they cannot get spoilt in moist
14.
environment.
15. The dew point is taken at the ventilation exhaust trunk.
Just by comparing the dew points of the hold air and the outside air, it is not possible for decisions to
16.
be taken as to whether or not to continue ventilating
Pumproom monitoring systems: find an error statement,
1. Where audible alarms are fitted to warn of the release of fire extinguishing medium into pump
rooms, they may be of the pneumatic type or electric type.
2. Where periodic testing of alarms is required, CO2 operated alarms should be used owing to
1. 2
the possibility of the generation of static electricity in the CO2 cloud.
3. Air operated alarms may be used provided the air supply is clean and dry.
4. When electrically operated alarms are used, the arrangements are to be such that the electric
actuating mechanism is located outside the pump room, except where the alarms are certified
intrinsically safe.
Pumproom Ventilation; find an error statement,
1. Cargo pumprooms need to be mechanically ventilated and discharges from the exhaust fans
must lead to a safe place on the open deck.
2. The ventilation of the pumprooms must have sufficient capacity to minimize the possibility of
2. 1
accumulation of flammable vapors
3. The number of changes of air must be at least 20 per hour. For this assessment, the gross
volume of the space of the pumproom shall not be considered
4. The air-ducts must be arranged in a manner that will ensure that the entire space is
effectively ventilated
Pump room ventilation requirement from IACS; find an error statement,
1. The ventilation systems are to be capable of 20 air changes per hour, based on the gross
volume of the pump room or space.
2. The ventilation ducting is to be arranged to permit extraction from the vicinity of the pump
3. 1
room bilges, immediately above the transverse floor plates or bottom longitudinals.
3. An emergency intake located about 2 m above the pump room lower grating. The emergency
intake would be used when the lower intakes are sealed off due to flooding in the bilges.
4. When the lower access inlets are closed then at least 20 air changes per hour should be
obtained through the upper inlets.
Among many pre-entry precautions, identify a statement OCIMF does not recommend,
1. That clear procedures are established regarding undertaking pre-entry checks.

2. A formalized permit system is employed to control pumproom entry, regardless of whether a
4. fixed gas detection system is in use or otherwise 1
3. Procedures should not advocate the use of personnel gas monitors for those entering the
space, creating a false sense of security.
4. Arrangements should be established to enable effective communication to be maintained at
all times between personnel within the pumproom and those outside.
5. Pump room ventilation; find an error statement, 1
2. An emergency intake located about 3 m above the pump room lower grating.
3. The emergency intake would be used when the lower intakes are sealed off due to flooding in
the bilges.
4. The emergency intake should have a damper fitted which is capable of being opened or closed
from the exposed main deck and lower grating level.
Pump room ventilation; find an error statement,
2. An emergency intake located about 2 m above the pump room lower grating. The emergency
6. 2
intake would be used when the lower intakes are sealed off due to flooding in the bilges.
3. The emergency intake should have a damper fitted which is capable of being opened or closed
from the exposed main deck and lower grating level.
4. The exhaust system is not in association with open grating floor plates to allow the free flow
of air.
Pumproom monitoring systems: find an error statement,
1. Where audible alarms are fitted to warn of the release of fire extinguishing medium into pump
rooms, they may only be of the pneumatic type.
2. Sequential sampling of concentration of hydrocarbon gases is acceptable as long as it is
7. dedicated for the pump room only, including exhaust ducts, and the sampling time is 1
reasonably short.
3. Sampling of concentration of hydrocarbon gas detection positions are the zones where air
circulation is reduced (e.g., recessed corners).
4. Bilge high-level alarms are acceptable as an alternative means for the level monitoring
devices.
Pumproom precautions: find an error statement,
1. Ventilation fans must not be started prior to switching on the pump room lighting.
2. Only approved lighting shall be used in the pump room and shall be maintained in proper
condition.
8. 2
3. Steel drums containing equipment and clean rags must be stowed over suitable wooden
dunnage to prevent formation of sparks. All storage drums must be provided with suitable
lids.
4. Pump-room bilges should be drained of any liquid that has leaked from joints, pipelines or
valves; such liquid is usually transferred into a slop tank for contaminated liquids.
Among many pre-entry precautions, identify a statement OCIMF does not recommend,
1. Arrangements should be established to enable effective communication to be maintained at

all times between personnel within the pumproom and those outside.
2. Regular communication checks should be made at pre-agreed intervals and failure to respond
9. 2
should not be caused to raise the alarm.
3. A communications system should provide links between the pumproom and the navigation
bridge, engine room and cargo control room.
4. Audible and visual repeaters for essential alarm systems, such as the general alarm, should
be provided within the pumproom.
10. Pump rooms in tankers: find an error statement, 2
1. Industry studies have indicated that the integrity of the protection afforded by the design of
electrical equipment is often compromised owing to incorrect maintenance procedures and
that the necessary skills and training required are often lacking.
2. OCIMF recommended that training for pumproom electrical equipment, especially pumproom
lighting systems, is included in the appropriate Certificate of Competency or, be required
when applying for dangerous cargo endorsements for their Certificates.

3. When the lighting in cargo pumprooms can be commonly used as the emergency lighting, this
lighting should not be interlocked with the ventilation systems.
4. The lighting interlock should not prevent operation of the emergency lighting in case of the
loss of the main source of electrical power.
Answer Key
Where periodic testing of alarms is required, CO2 operated alarms should be used owing to the
1.
possibility of the generation of static electricity in the CO2 cloud.
The number of changes of air must be at least 20 per hour. For this assessment, the gross volume of
2.
the space of the pumproom shall not be considered
When the lower access inlets are closed then at least 20 air changes per hour should be obtained
3.
through the upper inlets.
Procedures should not advocate the use of personnel gas monitors for those entering the space,
4.
creating a false sense of security.
5. An emergency intake located about 3 m above the pump room lower grating.
6. The exhaust system is not in association with open grating floor plates to allow the free flow of air.
Where audible alarms are fitted to warn of the release of fire extinguishing medium into pump rooms,
7.
they may only be of the pneumatic type.
8. Ventilation fans must not be started prior to switching on the pump room lighting.
Regular communication checks should be made at pre-agreed intervals and failure to respond should
9.
not be caused to raise the alarm.
When the lighting in cargo pumprooms can be commonly used as the emergency lighting, this lighting
10.
should not be interlocked with the ventilation systems.
Fuel Oil Tanks which are commonly called “Service Tanks”; find an error statement,
1. For each type of fuel used on board for the propulsion and generator systems, two fuel oil service tanks are
to be provided.
2. Each tank must have a capacity of at least 12 hours operation at sea, at the maximum continuous rating of
1. 1
the propulsion plant and / or generating plant
3. While one fuel oil service tank is being repaired or cleaned, the other one should be capable of continuing to
supply to the relevant machinery.
4. For vessels of less than 500 GT, the capacity of each fuel oil service tank may be less than for 8 hours
operation.
Fuel Oil Settling Tanks: In these tanks, with the use of gravity, the particles that have a higher density than that of
the fuel, are separated out. How effectively the process of “settling” can take place would Not depend on: -
1. The pressure of the pump discharge after taking suction from tank
2. The time available for the fuel oil to settle.
2. 1
3. The time available is assessed at the design stage itself, since that will decide the number of such tanks’
capacity
4. The temperature of the tank- since higher the temperature, lower would be the density of the fuel.
5. The Stoke’s law explains that increase in difference of density and reduction in viscosity does help in the rate
of separation.
Oil fuel tanks: find an error statement,
1. Means must be provided to ensure that no overpressure is created in any oil tank, or, any part of the oil fuel
system, including in the filling-pipes fitted to the shipboard pumps.
3. 2. Air pipes, overflow pipes and relief valves shall release to a location which pose no risk of fire or explosion 2
from the oils or vapors so released.
3. Use of cylindrical gauge glasses on oil tanks is not allowed.
4. The Administration may allow the fitment of oil-level gauges with round glasses, and, self-closing valves
between the tanks and their respective gauges.
Prior to the burning or welding of a fuel tank on a Vessel, regulations require that an inspection be made. An entry
in the official logbook is required if this inspection is made by ______________.
4. 1. A marine chemist 2
2. The Surveyor from MMD.
3. The inspector from the department of explosive
4. The Master in charge of the Vessel.
1. Appropriate means must be provided for ascertaining the amount of fuel in any oil fuel tank.
2. Where sounding pipes are used, they must never end in any space where there is risk of ignition of the
5. spillage. 1
3. Administration may permit the termination of these sounding pipes in machinery spaces, provided, an oil-
level gauge is provided, meeting the requirements.
4. When the sounding pipes end in locations which are remote from ignition hazards, unless precautions such as
the fitting of effective screens which prevent the spillage coming into contact with a source of ignition
6. The MARPOL regulation for fuel oil tank protection: find an error statement, 2
1. The practice of placing FO tanks in double bottom has been stopped by new revised MARPOL Annex I,
Regulation 13A.
2. The regulation 13 A applies to all ships with an aggregate oil fuel capacity of 600m3 and above
3. According to the new regulation, individual oil fuel tanks shall not have a capacity of over 2500m3.
4. The provisions of this regulation will apply to all oil fuel tanks except small tanks with an individual capacity
not greater than 20m3, provided that the aggregate capacity of such excluded tanks is not greater than
600m3.
1. Thickness of the plating of service, settling and other oil tanks, which do not form part of the structure
(therefore called “separate”) of the ship, should be at least 5 mm. In case of very small tanks, this may be 3
7. mm. 2
2. Wherever necessary, stiffeners are to be provided.
3. The testing head should not be less than 1.5 m above the crown of the tank.
4. Tanks are to be tested by a head of water which is equal to the maximum head to which the tanks may be
subjected.
1. Means must be provided to ensure that no overpressure is created in any oil tank, or, any part of the oil fuel
system, including in the filling-pipes fitted to the shipboard pumps.
8. 2. Air pipes, overflow pipes and relief valves shall release to a location which pose no risk of fire or explosion 1
from the oils or vapors so released.
3. Vapor releases must not lead to crew spaces, passenger spaces, special category spaces, closed ro-ro
spaces, machinery spaces.
4. Use of cylindrical gauge glasses is acceptable.
Settling tank arrangements: find an error statement,
1. To be provided with means for draining water from the bottom of the tanks.
2. If the settling tanks are not provided, the fuel oil bunkers or the daily service tanks are to be fitted with
water drains.
9. 1
3. Open drains for draining the water from oil tanks are to be fitted with self-closing valves or cocks. (May be
spring-loaded) type.
4. Usually provided with two suction valves, high and low. Both these valves are of similar design and one of
them can be closed remotely.
5. Suitable means are to be provided for collecting the oily discharge.
The MARPOL regulation for fuel oil tank protection: find an error statement,
1. Old vessels, but unfortunately also many new ones, have bunkers in double hull and any shell damage can
result in oil spill.
10. 2. The practice of placing FO tanks in double bottom has been stopped by new revised MARPOL Annex I, 2
Regulation 13A.
4. The regulation MARPOL 13A applies to all ships with an aggregate oil fuel capacity of 600m3 and above
1. Administration may permit the termination of the sounding pipes in machinery spaces, provided, an oil-level
gauge is provided, meeting the requirements.
11. 2
2. The end of the ER sounding pipes are fitted with a self-closing blanking devices (viz. weighted cocks) and,
with a small self-closing control cock positioned below the blanking device for ascertaining, before the
blanking device is opened, that oil fuel is not present.
3. Any spillage of oil fuel through the self-closing control cock can pose to be an ignition hazard.
12. Oil fuel tanks: find an error statement, 1
1. The forepeak tank is not to be used for the carriage of fuel oil, lubrication oil and other flammable oils
2. As far as is practicable, oil fuel tanks shall be part of the ship’s structure and must be located outside the
machinery spaces of Category A.
3. Where oil fuel tanks, other than double bottom tanks, are necessarily located adjacent to or within machinery
spaces of Category A, all their vertical sides must be contiguous to the machinery space boundaries.
4. Prior to the burning or welding of a fuel tank on a Vessel, regulations require that an inspection be made. An
entry in the official logbook is required if this inspection is made by the inspector from the department of
explosive.
1. Where oil fuel tanks, other than double bottom tanks, are necessarily located adjacent to or within machinery
spaces of Category A, at least one of their vertical sides must be contiguous to the machinery space
boundaries.
2. In case such tanks are situated within the boundaries of machinery spaces of Category A, they shall not
13. 2
contain oil fuel having a flash point of less than 100 deg C.
3. If the damage to oil fuel pipes allows oil to escape from a storage, settling or daily service tank, (of 500 L
capacity or more and situated above the double bottom), such oil fuel pipes shall be fitted with a cock or
valve directly on the tank.
4. Storage, settling or daily service tank oil fuel pipe’s cock or valve shall be closable from a safe position
outside the space in the event of a fire occurring in the space in which such tanks are situated.
Answer Key
Each tank must have a capacity of at least 12 hours operation at sea, at the maximum continuous rating of the
1.
propulsion plant and / or generating plant
2. The pressure of the pump discharge after taking suction from tank
The Administration may allow the fitment of oil-level gauges with round glasses, and, self-closing valves between
3.
the tanks and their respective gauges.
4. The inspector from the department of explosive
5. Where sounding pipes are used, they must never end in any space where there is risk of ignition of the spillage.
The provisions of this regulation will apply to all oil fuel tanks except small tanks with an individual capacity not
6.
greater than 20m3, provided that the aggregate capacity of such excluded tanks is not greater than 600m3.
7. The testing head should not be less than 1.5 m above the crown of the tank.
8. Use of cylindrical gauge glasses is acceptable.
Usually provided with two suction valves, high and low. Both these valves are of similar design and one of them can
9.
be closed remotely.
11. Any spillage of oil fuel through the self-closing control cock can pose to be an ignition hazard.
Where oil fuel tanks, other than double bottom tanks, are necessarily located adjacent to or within machinery
12.
spaces of Category A, all their vertical sides must be contiguous to the machinery space boundaries.
In case such tanks are situated within the boundaries of machinery spaces of Category A, they shall not contain oil
13.
fuel having a flash point of less than 100 deg C.
All bulkhead classes are subject to a Standard fire test
1. True 1
False
For type C bulkhead, find an incorrect statement
1. C- class divisions need not meet requirements relative to the passage of smoke and flame
and limitations relative to the temperature rise.
2. 2. Combustible veneers are not permitted in C-class divisions even if they meet the 2
requirements.
3. Class C panels are constructed from fireproof materials.
4. The C-panels do not need to meet requirements, such as insulation or preventing the passage
of smoke or flame
For structural fire protection, identify the need for a vessel which is under five years old:
1. Pay close attention to the requirements of the individual regulations

2. Have concise and accurate drawings of the proposed arrangements prepared and examined
by competent personnel.
3. 1
3. Use only those materials and fittings which have been correctly evaluated, and fire tested.
4. Ensure that materials and fittings used are correctly installed by competent personnel
5. Ensure that the means of protection are inspected and tested at regular intervals, not just at
the time of statutory inspections, and that they are repaired or renewed promptly, whenever
necessary
For structural fire protection, identify the need for a vessel under the construction stage:

4. 2
necessary
The structural fire protection aims for ships can only be achieved by paying attention to detail
when -------A------ the arrangements and -----B--------the means of protection.
Select X Y Z M
A Applying FSS Applying FSS Planning Designing
5. 1
B Installing Planning Designing Installing
1. X
2. Y
3. Z
4. M
6. For structural fire protection: find an error statement, 2
1. The SOLAS chapter II-2 lays out guidelines which have been adapted into ships structures by
IACS members in their construction rules.
2. In December 2000, IMO adopted a completely revised SOLAS chapter II 2, which entered into
force on 1 July 2002.
3. The new SOLAS concentrates on the fire scenario progress. They include prevention,
detection, suppression, and escape.
4. The new SOLAS has Not moved the technical requirements to the Fire Safety Systems Code
(FSS).
For structural fire protection, identify the need for a vessel under the planning stage:

7. 2
necessary
The -----X------ class bulkhead must be so constructed that, if subjected to the standard fire test,
they are capable of preventing the passage of flame for ----Y-- minutes.
Select Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4
X A-Class B-Class A-Class B-Class

8. 2
Y 90 minutes 40 minutes 45 minutes 30 minutes
1. Option 1
2. Option 2
3. Option 3
4. Option 4
Requirements for ships carrying crude oil or petroleum products having a flashpoint not exceeding
(closed cup test), as determined by an approved flashpoint apparatus, and a Reid vapor
pressure which is below the atmospheric pressure or other, liquid products having a similar fire
hazard.
9. 1
1. International Bulk Chemicals Code
2. International Gas Code
3. International Fire Safety Systems Code
4. Fire test procedures Code
Fire protection and integrity consists of
1. Prevention of fire
10. 1
2. Suppression of fire
3. Escape arrangements
4. Training
11. Basic principles of structural fire protection consist of the following: all require bulkheads, divisions 1
and separators to achieve their ends, except one- identify that:
1. Division of the ship into main vertical zones by thermal and structural boundaries
2. Separation of accommodation spaces from the remainder of the ship by thermal and
structural boundaries
3. Restricted use of combustible materials
4. Detection of any fire in the zone of origin
5. Containment and extinction of any fire in the space of origin
6. Protection of the means of escape or access for firefighting
FSS Code has the following: find an incorrect statement,
1. Preamble - The purpose of this Code and Applicability

2. Chapter 1 - General: technical terms are defined for transparent and smooth implementation
12. of the FSS code. 1
3. Chapter 2 – Personal protection: details of personal protective equipment and clothing like
fire fighter suit, breathing apparatus and EEBD.
4. Chapter 2 - International shore connection: This chapter gives details for dimension and
materials for International Shore Connection (ISC).
The engine room casing is a B class bulkhead
13. True 1
False
A-Class bulkheads or decks, if subjected to the standard fire test, they are capable of preventing
the passage of smoke and flame for 1 hour. In addition, if subjected to the fire test for the
applicable time period listed below, the average temperature on the unexposed side does not rise
more than 139 °C (250 °F), nor does the temperature at any one point, including any joint, rise
more than 181 °C (325 °F) above the original temperature: Find the incorrect applicable time for
the test
14. Select the incorrect Row 1
1. Type of A-Class Bulkhead - A-60 Class ; Applicable Time of Fire Test - 60 Minutes
15. B-Class bulkheads and decks must be constructed of ------A----- materials and made intact with the 1
main structure, such as shell, structural bulkheads, and decks, except that a B-Class bulkhead need
not extend above an approved ------B-------.
A Non-combustible Combustible Non-combustible Non-combustible
B Continuous A-class Continuous B-class Continuous B-class Continuous C-class

ceiling ceiling ceiling ceiling
1. Option 1
2. Option 2
3. Option 3
4. Option 4
Continuous B class ceilings are
1. B class ceilings which terminate at an "A or B class division.

16. 1
2. B – 60 ceilings
3. B - 30 ceilings terminating at a C class division
4. All the above
The standard fire test time temperature curve raises the temperature after 10 minutes by
1.
17. 2
2.
3.
4.
Type and construction of fire control bulkheads and decks -

A-Class bulkheads or decks must be composed of ----A-----steel or equivalent material, suitably ----
-B------stiffened and made intact with the main structure of the vessel, such as the shell, structural
bulkheads, and decks. They must be so constructed that, if subjected to the standard fire test, they
can prevent the passage of smoke and flame for----C------ 1 hour.
A Steel Steel Aluminium Steel

18. 2
B Stiffened Stiffened Fixed Fixed
C One hour 90 minutes One hour 90 minutes
1. Option 1
2. Option 2
3. Option 3
4. Option 4
The purpose of structural fire protection is stated: in case of a fire in the engineroom, how are the
crew in the engineroom protected?
1. The structural arrangement will restrict the spread of fire and smoke within the
accommodation spaces
19. 1
2. The structural arrangement provides sufficient degree of protection within accommodation
and working spaces
3. The fire protection measures enable the crew to evacuate the immediate area of fire and
reach the muster stations
4. Crew should be able to abandon ship, should the fire become unmanageable.
20. Liquid cargoes with a flashpoint exceeding other than oil products or liquid cargoes subject 2
to The requirements of the international Bulk
1. Chemical Code do not require

2. Inert gas system
3. Deck foam system

4. Paint store sprinkler system
How many types of fire resistant bulkheads do you find on merchant cargo vessels
1. 4
21. 1
2. 3
3. 2
4. 5
Regulations concerning fire prevention and integrity are contained in
1. International Fire Safety Systems Code

22. 1
2. SOLAS
3. MARPOL
4. SOLAS Chapter II-2
The Steel A-60 bulkhead must be so insulated with approved structural insulation, bulkhead panels,
or deck covering so that, if subjected to the standard fire test for one hour, the average
temperature on the unexposed side does not rise more than ----A--------above the original
temperature, nor does the temperature at any one point, including any joint, rise more than -----B-
-----above the original temperature.
23. A 140 Degree C 129 Degree C 139 Degree C 149 Degree C 1
B 180 Degree C 181 Degree C 181 Degree C 181 Degree C
1. Option 1
2. Option 2
3. Option 3
4. Option 4
How many chapters do the FSS code have, under the SOLAS chapter II 2?
1. 14
24. 1
2. 15
3. 16
4. 17
25. The purpose of structural fire protection is stated: in case of a severe fire in the engineroom that 2
goes beyond control, how are the crew protected?
and working spaces
For type C bulkhead, find an incorrect statement
1. C- class divisions are divisions constructed of approved non-combustible materials.

26. 2. C- class divisions need to meet requirements relative to the passage of smoke and flame and 2
limitations relative to the temperature rise.
3. Combustible veneers are permitted provided they meet the requirements.
4. Class C panels are constructed from fireproof materials.
What is FSS code under the SOLAS chapter II 2?
1. The International Code for Fire Safety Systems

27. 1
2. The International Code for Fire Safety for crew and associated Systems
3. The International Code for Fire Systems and Safety
4. International FSS Code
The purpose of structural fire protection is stated: in case of a fire in the engineroom, how are the
crew outside the engineroom protected?
28. 2
and working spaces
Non-combustible material, find the correct selection,

A material which neither ---A------ nor gives off -----B------ in sufficient quantity for -----C------
when heated to approximately 750°C, this being determined in accordance with the Fire Test
Procedures Code (SOLAS II-2/A).
A Burns Flammable Vapors Self-ignition Burns

29. 1
B Flammable Vapors Burns Burns Self-ignition
C Self-ignition Self-ignition Flammable Vapors Flammable Vapors
1. Option 1
2. Option 2
3. Option 3
4. Option 4
A Class divisions are
1. Made of materials other than steel

30. 1
2. Stiffened
3. Insulated
4. Painted with fire retardant paint
31. Basic principles of structural fire protection consist of the following: all require bulkheads, divisions 2
and separators to achieve their ends, except a few - identify those:
1. Division of the ship into main vertical zones by thermal and structural boundaries
2. Separation of accommodation spaces from the remainder of the ship by thermal and
structural boundaries
3. Restricted use of combustible materials
5. Containment and extinction of any fire in the space of origin
6. Protection of the means of escape or access for firefighting
7. Ready availability of fire extinguishing appliances
8. Minimization of possibility of ignition of flammable cargo vapor
A and B Class bulkhead constructions shall be constructed of noncombustible materials with the
following exceptions: find an error statement,
32. 1. Adhesives and vapor barriers, should not have low flame spread characteristics 2
2. Sealing materials used in penetration systems
3. Seal for gas, water and weather tight doors
4. Filing material within glazing systems
Type and construction of fire control bulkheads and decks -

The hull, structural bulkheads, columns and stanchions, superstructures, and deckhouses must be
composed of ---A---- or ------B------ material
Select X Y Z
33. A Aluminium Steel Steel

1
B Steel Equivalent High Tensile Steel
1. X
2. Y
3. Z
Answer Key
1. FALSE
2. Combustible veneers are not permitted in C-class divisions even if they meet the requirements.
Ensure that the means of protection are inspected and tested at regular intervals, not just at the time
3.
of statutory inspections, and that they are repaired or renewed promptly, whenever necessary
Use only those materials and fittings which have been correctly evaluated, and fire tested.
5. M
6. The new SOLAS has Not moved the technical requirements to the Fire Safety Systems Code (FSS).
Pay close attention to the requirements of the individual regulations
Have concise and accurate drawings of the proposed arrangements prepared and examined by
competent personnel.
7.
Use only those materials and fittings which have been correctly evaluated, and fire tested.
Ensure that materials and fittings used are correctly installed by competent personnel
8. Option 4
International Fire Safety Systems Code
9.
Fire test procedures Code
Prevention of fire
Suppression of fire
10.
Escape arrangements
Training
Chapter 2 – Personal protection: details of personal protective equipment and clothing like fire fighter
12.
suit, breathing apparatus and EEBD.
13. FALSE
15. Option 3
16. B class ceilings which terminate at an "A or B class division.
17.
18. Option 1
The fire protection measures enable the crew to evacuate the immediate area of fire and reach the
19. muster stations
20. Inert gas system
21. 3
22. SOLAS Chapter II-2
23. Option 3
24. 17
C- class divisions need to meet requirements relative to the passage of smoke and flame and
26. limitations relative to the temperature rise.
27. The International Code for Fire Safety Systems

The structural arrangement will restrict the spread of fire and smoke within the accommodation
28. spaces
29. Option 1
Made of materials other than steel
Stiffened
30.
Insulated
Detection of any fire in the zone of origin
31. Ready availability of fire extinguishing appliances
Minimization of possibility of ignition of flammable cargo vapor

32. Adhesives and vapor barriers, should not have low flame spread characteristics
33. Y
Drawings of your deck plans show the use of A60 bulkheads. "A" indicates which of the following?
1. "A" class bulkheads must not allow flame or smoke passage for 15 minutes when subjected to
a fire test
1. 1
a fire test
a fire test
a fire test
During repairs it is necessary to replace an existing vessel bulkhead. Drawings indicate it is a "B"
class bulkhead. This indicates which of the following?
1. "B" class bulkheads must not allow flame or smoke passage for 15 minutes when subjected to
2. a fire test. 1
2. "B" class bulkheads must not allow flame passage for 30 minutes when subjected to a fire test.
4. "B" class bulkheads must not allow flame passage for 120 minutes when subjected to a fire
test.
During repairs it is necessary to replace an existing vessel bulkhead. Drawings indicate the bulkhead
is A60. "A" indicates which of the following?
a fire test
3. 2. "A" class bulkheads must not allow flame or smoke passage for 30 minutes when subjected to 1
a fire test
a fire test
a fire test
Drawings of your ship indicate the use of "B" class bulkheads. The "B" indicates which of the
following?
1. "B" class bulkheads must not allow flame or smoke passage for 15 minutes when subjected to
4. a fire test. 1
4. "B" class bulkheads must not allow flame passage for 120 minutes when subjected to a fire
test.
Answer Key
"A" class bulkheads must not allow flame or smoke passage for 60 minutes when subjected to a fire
1.
test
"A" class bulkheads must not allow flame or smoke passage for 60 minutes when subjected to a fire
3.
test
The knife edges and gaskets of watertight doors should be __________.
1. clean and uncoated

1. 2. lightly coated with tallow 1
3. coated with petroleum jelly
4. painted to prevent weathering
In the event of a collision, watertight integrity may be lost if __________.
1. the sounding tube cap from a damaged tank is missing

2. 2. the dogs on a manhole cover are secure 1
3. you have recently replaced a gasket in a watertight door
4. you operate the dewatering system from a flooded compartment
If deck cargo is carried, it should be stowed so that it __________.
1. is not higher than 12 inches above the deck

3. 1
2. does not block access to the fire station hydrant
3. will cover less than 25 percent of deck space
4. will be easily visible from the bridge
The double bottom in a vessel is a space comprised of...
1. Plating forming the engine room tank top.

4. 2
2. Doubler plating installed over the flat keel plate.
3. A watertight boundary formed by the inner bottom.
4. Compartments between the inner and outer bottoms.
Vertical structural members used to support and transmit the downward force of the load and
distribute that force over a large area, are called...
5. 1. Pillars 2
2. Stanchions.
3. Columns.
4. All of the above
In a compartment that has been completely flooded with water, the greatest pressure will be exerted
__________.
1. along the bottom of any bulkhead

6. 1
2. at the vertical center of the bulkhead
3. along the top of the bulkhead
4. at a point that is one-third from the bottom of the bulkhead
7. When opening a watertight door to check a compartment suspected of flooding, which of the dogs 2
shown in the illustration should you back off FIRST?
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
In a compartment that has been completely flooded, the greatest! pressure will be exerted...
8. 1. Along the bottom of any bulkhead. 2

2. At the center of all bulkheads.
3. Along the top of any bulkhead.
4. On the overhead of the compartment.
Which of the following statements describes the correct procedure for closing a watertight door?
1. Lossely set up one dog on the opposite side from the hinges, snugly set up two dogs on the
hinge side, then evenly set up all the remaining dogs.
2. Lossely set up two dogs adjacent to the hinges, snugly set up one dog on the opposite side
9. 1
from the hinges, then evenly set up all the remaining dogs.
3. Snugly set up two dogs on the opposite side from the hinges, then evenly set up all the
remaining dogs.
4. Loosely set up one dog on the hinge side, snugly set up two dogs on the opposite side from
the hinges, then evenly set up all the remaining dogs.
The wooden plug fitted tightly in the vent of a damaged tank may prevent the tank from __________.
1. filling completely
10. 2. developing free surfaces 1
3. developing free surface moments
4. collapsing
11. The wooden plug fitted tightly in the vent of a damaged lank may prevent the tank from... 2
1. Filling completely
2. Developing free surfaces.
3. Developing free surface moments.

4. Collapsing.
In ship construction, which of the listed strengthening members act to support the decks?
1. Pillars.
12. 2
2. Girders.
3. Bulkheads.
4. All of the above
Stern tube and strut bearings lined with hardwood or rubber composition materials are lubricated
with...
13. 1. Saltwater 2
2. Graphite
3. Light lubricating oil.
4. Heavy lubricating oil
Following a grounding, you can best determine that a SLACK fuel oil tank has been holed by
__________.
1. sounding the tank

14. 1
2. waiting for the vessel to list
3. examining tank boundaries
4. checking fuel oil strainers
The inner bottom of a ship is the...

15. 2
2. Doubler plating installed over the fat keel plate
3. Watertight boundary formed by the skin of the ship.
4. Compartment between the tank top and skin of the ship.
Which of the devices listed prevents water from entering a ship's hull via the propulsion shaft?

16. 2
2. Deflector ring and drain.
3. Spring bearings.
4. Oiler rings.
The hulls of most modern towing vessels constructed today are fabricated from...
1. Wrought iron.
17. 2
2. High alloy steel.
3. Mild steel.
4. Corrosion resisting steel.
18. Vessel propellers are classified as being right hand or left hand. A right hand propeller turns 2
clockwise when viewed from...
1. The bow
2. The stem.
3. The port side.

4. The starboard sick
A cofferdam is a/an...
1. Empty space between tank tops and bilges.

19. 2. Cement baffle in a fresh water tank. 2
3. Tank for storing chemicals
4. Empty space separating compartments to prevent the contents of one compartment from
entering another in case of leakage.
The purpose of bilge keels is to...
1. Lower the center of gravity of the ship.

20. 2
2. Reduce the amplitude of roll
3. Reduce pitching.
4. Reduce yawing.
The purpose of swash bulkheads is to...
21. 1. Minimize the effect of a listing condition. 2

2. Restrict flooding within a tank.
3. Separate cargoes in a common tank.
4. Reduce liquid movement and surging within a tank.
22. When opening a watertight door to check a compartment suspected of flooding, which of the dogs 1
shown in the illustration should you backoff FIRST?
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
The collision bulkhead is located...
1. On the bridge deck.

23. 2
2. Between the passenger and cargo areas
3. At the stern of the ship.
4. As the first watertight bulkhead aft of the bow in the ship.
Your vessel has run aground and upon taking fuel oil tank soundings, you find that a fuel tank level
has increased. You therefore should suspect __________.
1. condensation in the fuel tank

24. 1
2. a crack in the hull portion of the fuel tank
3. a load of bad fuel
4. contamination from the saltwater flushing system
The structural members of the hull extending in a fore and alt direction are called...
1. Frames
25. 2
2. Joiners.
3. Longitudinals.
4. Knees.
26. The device used to retain the packing, that keeps water from entering the ship through the opening 2
where the propeller shaft passes through the hull, is called a...
1. Packing nut.
2. Hawse pipe.
3. Stuffing box.
4. Seal cage.
Ferrous metals are metals containing...
1. No iron
27. 2
2. A large percentage of copper.
3. A large percentage of iron.
4. A large percentage of aluminum.
Vertical transverse structures in the double bottom are known as...
1. Pillars
28. 2
2. Floors.
3. Ceilings
4. Stanchions.
In ship construction, structural hull members installed athwart ship are...
1. Deck beams
29. 2
2. Stringers.
3. Girders
4. Breast hooks.
When the propeller blades are integral with the hub, the propeller is called a...
1. Built up propeller
30. 2
2. Solid propeller
3. Controllable pitch propeller
4. Suction back propeller.
Your vessel has run aground and upon taking fuel oil tank soundings, you find that a fuel tank level
has increased, You therefore should suspect...
31. 2
1. Condensation in the fuel tank.
2. A crack in the hull portion of the fuel tank.
3. A load of bad fuel.
4. Contamination from the saltwater flushing system.
lf deck cargo is carried, it should be stowed so that it...
1. Is not higher than 12 inches above the deck.

32. 2
2. Does mot block access to the fire station hydrant.
3. Will cover less than 25 percent of deck space.
4. Will be easily visible from the bridge.
33. Following a grounding, you can best determine that a slack fuel oil tank has been holed by... 2
1. Sounding the tank.

2. Waiting for the vessel to list.
3. Examining tank boundaries.
4. Checking fuel oil strainers.
Where should you expect to find striking plates on liquid storage tanks?
1. In the bow of the ship at the waterline.

34. 2
2. On the bottom of a fuel or ballast tank under the sounding tube.
3. Under the counter above the propeller blade tips.
4. On the cofferdam manhole.
Which of the following statements describes the correct procedure for closing a watertight door?
1. Loosely set up one dog on the opposite side from the hinges, snugly set up two dogs on the
hinge side, then evenly set up all the remaining dogs.
2. Loosely set up two dogs adjacent to the hinges, smugly set up one dog on the opposite side
35. 2
from the hinges, then evenly set up all the remaining dogs.
3. Snugly set up two dogs on the opposite side from the hinges, then evenly set up all the
remaining dogs.
4. Loosely set up one dog on the hinge side, snugly set up two dogs on the opposite side from
the hinges, then evenly set up all the remaining dogs.
A flat block placed under the end of a shore for the purpose of distributing pressure is referred to as
a...
36. 1. Strong back. 2

2. Butt piece.
3. Shore foot
4. Shole
In the event of a collision, watertight integrity may be last if...
1. The sounding tube cap from a damaged tank is missing.

37. 2
2. The dogs on a manhole cover are secure
3. You have recently replaced a gasket in a watertight door
4. You operate the dewatering system from a flooded compartment
The knife edges and gaskets of watertight doors should be kept...
1. Clean and uncoated.

38. 2
2. Lightly coated with tallow.
3. Coated with petroleum jelly.
4. Painted to prevent weathering.
39. In ship construction, the hull frame members extending athwart ship are called... 2
1. Deck frames
2. Stringer frames.
3. Longitudinal frames.
4. Transverse frames.
A flat block placed under the end of a shore for the purpose of distributing pressure is referred to as
a _____.
40. 1. Strong back. 1

2. Butt piece.
3. Shore foot.
4. Shole.
Answer Key
1. clean and uncoated

2. the sounding tube cap from a damaged tank is missing
3. does not block access to the fire station hydrant
4. Compartments between the inner and outer bottoms.
5. All of the above
6. along the bottom of any bulkhead
7. 2
8. Along the bottom of any bulkhead.
Lossely set up one dog on the opposite side from the hinges, snugly set up two dogs on the hinge
9.
side, then evenly set up all the remaining dogs.
10. filling completely
11. Filling completely
12. All of the above
13. Saltwater
14. sounding the tank
17. Mild steel.
18. The stem.
Empty space separating compartments to prevent the contents of one compartment from entering
19.
another in case of leakage.
21. Reduce liquid movement and surging within a tank.
22. 2
23. As the first watertight bulkhead aft of the bow in the ship.
24. a crack in the hull portion of the fuel tank
25. Longitudinals.
26. Stuffing box.
27. A large percentage of iron.
28. Floors.
29. Deck beams
30. Solid propeller
31. A crack in the hull portion of the fuel tank.
32. Does mot block access to the fire station hydrant.
33. Sounding the tank.
34. On the bottom of a fuel or ballast tank under the sounding tube.
Loosely set up one dog on the opposite side from the hinges, snugly set up two dogs on the hinge
35.
side, then evenly set up all the remaining dogs.
36. Shole
37. The sounding tube cap from a damaged tank is missing.
38. Clean and uncoated.
39. Transverse frames.
40. Shole.
What is the simplest method of repairing a fairly small hole during flooding of a vessel.
1. Apply soft patch.

1. 1
2. Apply Cardobond resin compound mix.
3. Insert some kind of plug.
4. Blank the hole with steel backed rubber.
What is the immediate next step after closing all watertight doors and hatches during flooding of a
damaged vessel?
2. 1. Muster crew. 1
2. Prepare ballast pumps.
3. Sound all compartments to ascertain the extent of damage.
4. Inform nearest coast guard.
What is advantage of using eductor for dewatering?
1. Has large capacity.

3. 1
2. Can handle viscous liquids.
3. No moving parts.
4. Silent operation.
What is the SOLAS Regulation XII/13.1 for bulk carriers?
1. Capacity of ballast pump shall be above 500 cub.M.Hr

4. 2. Operation of draining bilges from cargo holds shall be located in navigation bridge. 1
3. Means for draining and pumping ballast tanks forward of the collision bulkhead, and bilges of
dry spaces any part of which extends forward of the foremost cargo hold.
4. Shall have minimum of two ballast pumps.
What is the requirement for bilge wells of dry spaces, any part of which extends forward of the
foremost cargo hold?
1. The minimum capacity of bilge wells is 5.0 cubic-metre.

5. 1
2. Bilge wells shall be located one on port side and the other one on starboard side.
3. Provided with gratings or strainers that will prevent blockage of the dewatering system with
debris.
4. Bilge wells shall be below the deck plating.
What is the location for operating means of draining and pumping ballast tanks forward of the
collision bulkhead, and bilges of dry spaces any part of which extends forward of the foremost cargo
hold?
6. 1. Navigation bridge. 1
2. Engine control room
3. Readily accessible enclosed space, the location of which is accessible from the navigation
bridge or propulsion machinery control position without traversing exposed freeboard.
4. Cargo control room
7. What is the task of forward space dewatering control system? 1
1. To measure the rate of water drainage.

2. Control the rate of discharge.
3. To operate and supervise the drainage system by control and indication for open/close of
valves in corresponding spaces.
4. To indicate the number of valves in open position.
How is the amount of water ingress determined in the flooded compartments?
1. By Echo sounder.
8. 1
2. By trim calculation.
3. Sounding measurements.
4. Measurement of midship draft.
What type of pump is used for dewatering?
1. Double acting piston pump.

9. 1
2. Wilden pump.
3. Centrifugal pump.
4. gear pump.
Where is the status panel of the closed hatches located on the vessel?
1. ECR
10. 1
2. Pump-room
3. Bridge
4. CCR
Answer Key
1. Insert some kind of plug.

2. Sound all compartments to ascertain the extent of damage.
3. No moving parts.
Means for draining and pumping ballast tanks forward of the collision bulkhead, and bilges of dry
4.
spaces any part of which extends forward of the foremost cargo hold.
5. Provided with gratings or strainers that will prevent blockage of the dewatering system with debris.
Readily accessible enclosed space, the location of which is accessible from the navigation bridge or
6. propulsion machinery control position without traversing exposed freeboard.
To operate and supervise the drainage system by control and indication for open/close of valves in
7. corresponding spaces.
8. Sounding measurements.
9. Centrifugal pump.
10. Bridge
What is the process of Shoring in a sinking or sagging vessel?
1. Plugging the hole

1. 2. Blanking the hole with soft patch. 1
3. Placing props against the side of a structure, or beneath or above anything, to prevent
sinking or sagging
4. Ballasting the vessel to raise the damaged portion above water level.
Name any one factor on which the pressure on a bulkhead or deck of a flooded compartment
depends upon?
2. 1. The rate of flooding. 1

2. The depth of sea water.
3. The flooded area.
4. The volume of flooded water.
State any one advantage of using steel shapes in shoring operations:
1. Take lesser time to fit.

3. 1
2. Occupies considerable space.
3. It is fireproof.
4. Ease in fixing.
What is the thickness of wood used as Wooden sholes and strong-backs?
1. 3/4 inch
4. 1
2. 3/8 inch
3. One inch or more
4. 1/2 inch
What is the width of wood used as Wooden sholes and strong-backs?
1. 2 to 4 inches
5. 1
2. 4 to 8 inches
3. 8 to 12 inches
4. 20 to 24 inches
How are the cleats and shores fixed with ref to sketch " Better method of shoring"?
1. Glue
6. 1
2. Rivets
3. Nails
4. Bolts and nuts.
7. Name any two materials used in shoring apart from shores, wedges, sholes, and strong-backs 1
1. Toll box and metal containers.

2. Chemical drums and oil drums.
3. Axes and wooden battens.
4. Socks and shoes
What are the best woods available for shores?
1. Rose wood
8. 1
2. Teak wood
3. Douglas fir and yellow pine
4. Bamboo
How are the steel wedges fixed when making semi-permanent repairs?
1. Rivetted
9. 1
2. Nailed.
3. Welded in place
4. Glued
What is the limitation on the length of a shore/shole based on its minimum thickness?
1. 40 times its minimum thickness

10. 1
3. Not more than thirty times its minimum thickness
What is the pressure of sea water at a depth of 20 feet?
1. 2.88 PSI
11. 1
2. 8.0 PSI
3. 8.88 PSI
4. 4.0 PSI
Answer Key
Placing props against the side of a structure, or beneath or above anything, to prevent sinking or
1. sagging
2. The flooded area.
3. It is fireproof.
4. One inch or more
5. 8 to 12 inches
6. Nails
7. Axes and wooden battens.
8. Douglas fir and yellow pine
9. Welded in place
10. Not more than thirty times its minimum thickness
11. 8.88 PSI
What is the advantage of anodized aluminium angle in hull patches?
1. It is easy to join together.

1. 1
2. It can be welded in place.
3. Can be cut for use as bracing or backing
4. It can be easily fixed with glue.
What is the average rate of handling by the bilge pump while fixing the plug?
1. 4 gallons per minute.

2. 1
It is not possible to plug the hole unless you can find it. What is the biggest obstacle in this process?
1. Finding the right size of plug.

3. 1
2. Finding the right person to plug the hole.
3. Getting at the puncture.
4. Measuring the size of the hole.
What is the height of waterline above second deck, after flooding with ref to - Figure: Profile view of
shoring, heavy cruiser with bow blown off at frame 20.
4. 1. 6 feet. 1
2. 15 feet.
3. 10 feet 6 "
4. 2 feet.
What is the best method to secure the plug while fixing it?
1. Keep the plugin a safe pocket.

5. 1
2. Keep the plug in hand.
3. Attach the plugs to their through-hulls with lanyards-
4. Keep the plug safely with the helping hand.
What does the letter-"T" denote with ref to -Figure: A mattress and mess table patch shored against
a large hole?
6. 1. Wedge 1
2. Hammocks
3. Mess table.
4. Crew mattress.
7. How are the three hammocks H held in place with ref to figure-"Shoring a patch in place"? 1
1. By cross piece-"C"
2. By strong backs-"S"
3. By Mess table-"T"
4. By shores- "A and B"
Answer Key
1. Can be cut for use as bracing or backing

3. Getting at the puncture.
4. 10 feet 6 "
5. Attach the plugs to their through-hulls with lanyards-
6. Mess table.
7. By Mess table-"T"
Which type of repair method is a permanent repair for pipe leaks?
1. Pipe clamp.
1. 1
2. Banding patch.
3. Crop-and-replace repair method
4. Weld repair in place
Pipe clamps are built to accommodate various pipe diameters. How are secured ?
1. Nuts and bolts.

2. 1
2. Self locking nuts.
3. By wing nuts.
4. Hele coils.
Which type of pipe patches is currently the only approved temporary patch for high pressure
systems with the exception of steam?
3. 1. Soft Patch 1
2. Banding Patch
3. Pipe Jumper Hose System
4. Jubilee Patch
What type of patches are used for low-pressure pipe damages on vessels?
1. Wooden plugs
4. 1
2. Metal plugs
3. Soft patches
4. Pipe clamps
Which type of pipe rupture is most severe in repairs?
1. Simple – a rupture with no protruding edges, located on a straight section of pipe.

5. 2. Elbow – a rupture with no protruding edges, located on a curved section of pipe. 1
3. Compound – a rupture having protruding edges, ruptures in fittings, mangled pipes, and
similar piping damage.
4. Severed – a section of pipe that has been completely separated.
What is required for more complex repairs in damage control patches?
1. Speed reduction of vessel.

6. 1
2. Shore based assistance.
3. Complete system isolation and system re-routing or bypassing
4. Vessel stoppage.
7. For non-metallic composite repairs under ASME PCC2 and ISO 24817 standards, most of the repair 1
solutions provided is considered semi-permanent. How many years can these type of repairs
sustain?
1. up to 10 years.
2. up to 12 years.
3. up to 20 years.
4. up to 5 years.
How are the sheet metal clamps secured in temporary repair of leaking pipes?
1. Metal wires.
8. 1
2. Manila rope.
3. Fastening the clamps with bolts and nuts.
4. Banding clamps.
State any one type of pipe patches and equipment available for emergency temporary pipe
patching?
9. 1. Hose clamp 1
2. Sheet metal clamp.
3. Jubilee Patch
4. Manila rope.
What is a simple method of making a temporary repair of a leaky pipe?
1. Banding patch.
10. 1
2. Soft patch.
3. Use a length of rubber hose.
4. Pipe clamp.
E-WARP is for either low or high pressure systems on vessels. What is " E-WARP"?
1. Exhaust Waste Aided Repair Process.

11. 1
2. Engine Waste Added Repair Product
3. Emergency Water Activated Repair Patch
4. Elementary Water Added Repair Patch.
Answer Key
1. Crop-and-replace repair method

2. By wing nuts.
3. Pipe Jumper Hose System
4. Soft patches
Compound – a rupture having protruding edges, ruptures in fittings, mangled pipes, and similar
5.
piping damage.
6. Complete system isolation and system re-routing or bypassing
7. up to 20 years.
8. Fastening the clamps with bolts and nuts.
9. Jubilee Patch
10. Use a length of rubber hose.
11. Emergency Water Activated Repair Patch
State any one of the necessary actions to be followed in case of machinery spaces casualty:
1. Prepare for launching life boat.

1. 1
2. Sound engineer's alarm
3. Call Chief Engineer / Inform Bridge
4. Stop ballast pumps.
In maritime industry, damage control is the emergency control of situations that may cause the
sinking of a vessel. Give any one example:
2. 1. Failure of sewage system. 1

2. Failure of one unit in propulsion machinery.
3. Damage from grounding.
4. Damage of one of the main air compressor.
What is required of subordinate officers and petty officers in the damage-control station?
1. Should be able to coordinate various teams.

3. 1
2. Must be able to support repair teams.
3. Must be able to continue its efficient operation in the absence of damage control officer.
4. Should not interfere with operations of repair team.
What is important requirement of List, trim and draft indicators installed on vessels?
1. Alarm for excessive trim.

4. 1
2. Alarm for excessive list.
3. Ship's position in the water may be determined instantly
4. Ease in stability calculations.
What is most important in emergency control of situations?
1. Call for help.

5. 1
2. Mustering crew members.
3. Immediate action
4. Team effort.
What is the main requirement of Inter-communicating systems fitted in damage control station?
1. Easy understanding of marine language.

6. 1
2. Audio/Video communication.
3. Quick and easy communication between repair stations.
4. Video conferencing.
What is essential for seafarers with regard to damage control?
1. Daily meetings.
7. 1
2. Training for risk assessment.
3. Training
4. Group conferences.
8. Give one example for a simple measure to stop flooding of a vessel? 1
1. Ballasting ballast tanks.

2. Jettisoning Cargo.
3. Blocking the damaged area by wedging a box around a tear in the ship's hull,
4. Soft patch on leaking pipe.
Answer Key
1. Call Chief Engineer / Inform Bridge

2. Damage from grounding.
3. Must be able to continue its efficient operation in the absence of damage control officer.
4. Ship's position in the water may be determined instantly
5. Immediate action
6. Quick and easy communication between repair stations.
7. Training
8. Blocking the damaged area by wedging a box around a tear in the ship's hull,
Flooding of any compartment in a ship, results in a serious loss of reserve buoyancy, and will
always:______
1. 1. Increase ship stability. 2

2. Decrease the heeling moment.
3. Reduce ship stability.
4. cause a serious permanent list.
Stability after the unintentional flooding of a compartment on a cargo vessel is called. ( if intentional
flooding, that’s called intact stability)
2. 1. Intact stability 2
2. Initial stability.
3. Damage stability
4. Immersion stability.
With reference to a vessel's structural integrity, the most significant characteristic of a cryogenic
liquid is its ______________.
3. 1. Toxicity at atmospheric pressure. 2

2. Vapour cloud which reacts violently with saltwater
3. Capability of causing brittle fractures
4. highly corrosive action on mild steel.
Answer Key

2. Damage stability
What is the material of the hull of a ship?
1. it is made of high tensile steel

1. 2. it is made of alloy of iron 1
3. Modern ships are made of steel with ultimate tensile strength of 340 MPa
4. It is made of stainless steel
Answer Key
1. Modern ships are made of steel with ultimate tensile strength of 340 MPa
A vessel that is between 145 to 165 m in length with engine room aft is required to have how many
bulkheads
1. 1. 5 1
2. 12
3. 7
4. 4
What is the item of structure numbered 11 in the figure called?
2. 1
1. Web
2. Bulkhead
3. Floor Plate
4. Wash Plate
Collision bulkheads are to be fitted within 0.05L or 10 m from the forward perpendicular
3. True 1
False
Categories of bulkheads are
1. Oil tight
4. 1
2. Corrugated
3. Watertight
4. All of the above
Stanchions prevent the entire deck load on a ship from being carried by the:---
1. Bulkheads
5. 1
2. Stringers
3. Frames and beam brackets
4. Deck longitudinal.
Racking stresses in a ship can be reduced by fitting a good system of
1. side girders
6. 1
2. bulkheads
3. stringers
4. deck girders
7. Vertical support member used to strengthen bulkheads are called:----- 1
1. Panels
2. Brackets.
3. Stiffeners.
4. stanchions.
What class of bulkhead is required around the galley on a ship?
1. class D.
8. 1
2. class C
3. Class A
4. Class B.
Joiner bulkheads on a ship provide:--
1. Structural support.
9. 1
2. Watertight integrity
3. Compartmentation
4. Tank boundaries.
SOLAS 2014 Chapter III lays out the method oc calculating the subdivision index.
10. True 1
False
A vessel has to have the following bulkheads
1. Collision
11. 1
2. Aft peak
3. Bulkheads forward and aft of the engine room
4. All of the above
What is bulkhead?
1. vertical partition either athwartships or fore and aft

12. 2. plate which connect the deck keel 1
3. plate which divide two tanks
4. plates which forms the deck
Bulkhead forming parts of the tanks on vessel are stiffened to withstand: -----
1. Deck load from above.

13. 2
2. Dynamic forces while afloat.
3. Hydrostatic pressure.
4. Overpressure.
A peak tank bulkhead is tested by
1. Head of water up to top of tank

14. 1
2. Greater of head of water up to air pipe head and 2.4 m above tank top
3. Ultrasonic test
15. What could the steel section shown in the figure be used to construct? 1
1. Tank Top
2. Hatch Cover
3. Bulkhead
4. Steering Flat
Between the side frames of a Vessel, support for the deck beams is provided by
_________________.
16. 1. Deck stringers 1

2. Web frames
3. Stanchions
4. Brackets
Aft peak bulkhead stiffeners are bracketed to the deck longitudinal at a spacing of
1. 700 mm
17. 1
2. 600 mm
3. 450 mm
4. 500 mm
Penetrations in watertight bulkheads should be
1. Kept to a minimum
18. 2. Heat sensitive materials should not be used 1
3. Main transverse watertight bulkhead should no be penetrated by valves or cocks that are not
a part of the piping system
4. All of the above
Plating on bulk heads are generally fitted _______ for better graduation of thickness
1. Vertically in bulk heads

19. 2
2. Horizontally in transverse bulk head only
3. Horizontally.
4. Vertically in transverse bulk head only.
20. The lower and the upper stools are provided for bulk carriers:---- - 2
1. with plate type of transverse watertight bulkheads and they normally extend athwart ship
from ship side to ship side.
2. with corrugated type of transverse watertight bulkheads and they normally extend athwart
ship from ship side to ship side.
3. with corrugated type of transverse watertight bulkheads and they normally extend athwart
ship from one side lower hopper to other side lower hopper
4. with plate type of transverse watertight bulkheads and they normally extend athwart ship
from one side lower hopper to other side lower hopper.
Vertical partitions providing strength and compartmentation on a Vessel are called _____________.
1. Decks.
21. 1
2. Walls
3. Bulkheads
4. Joiner work.
When the ship's bulkheads are reinforced against bending and bulging, the bulkheads are provided
with:--
22. 1. Stanchions 1
2. Girders
3. Stiffeners
4. Rabbits
A bulkhead capable of preventing the passage of smoke and flame for one hour would be classified
as an ____________.
23. 1. D-60 1
2. C-60
3. A-60
4. B-60
Answer Key
1. 7
2. Wash Plate
3. TRUE
4. Oil tight
5. Frames and beam brackets
6. bulkheads
7. Stiffeners.
8. Class A
9. Compartmentation
10. FALSE
12. vertical partition either athwartships or fore and aft
13. Hydrostatic pressure.
14. Greater of head of water up to air pipe head and 2.4 m above tank top
15. Bulkhead
16. Stanchions
17. 600 mm
19. Horizontally.
with corrugated type of transverse watertight bulkheads and they normally extend athwart ship from
20.
one side lower hopper to other side lower hopper
21. Bulkheads
22. Stiffeners
23. A-60
The minimum possible number of transverse watertight bulkheads in ships with machinery spaces
amidships would be:
1. 1. 4 1
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5
Which of the following statements is false?
1. A collision bulkhead must be fitted on all types of ships.

2. 2
2. An afterpeak bulkhead must be fitted on all types of ships.
3. The aft peak bulkhead must extend to the upper deck
4. One bulkhead at each end of machinery spaces must be fitted on all types of ships.
Answer Key
1. 4
2. The aft peak bulkhead must extend to the upper deck
What is a collision bulkhead?
1. ship’s bulkhead to prevent collision damage

2. The bulkhead which fails when collision occurs
1. 1
3. The bulkhead meant to prevent ingress of water from forward
4. A watertight transverse bulkhead in the fore part of the ship to prevent water flowing aft in case
of collision
A collision bulkhead must be fitted to all ships at _________________ of ships length abaft the stem
at the load water line.
2. 1. 6% to 9% 1
2. 5% to 9%
3. 5% to 8%
4. 4% to 6%
Answer Key
A watertight transverse bulkhead in the fore part of the ship to prevent water flowing aft in case of
1.
collision
2. 5% to 8%
A continuous watertight bulkhead on a Vessel may also be a/an _____________.
1. Joiner bulkhead.
1. 1
2. Centre-line bulkhead.
3. Structural bulkhead.
4. Exterior bulkhead.
Collision bulkhead plates are: ______ % thicker than other watertight bulkhead plates.
1. 4
2. 1
2. 6
3. 12
4. 8
In ship construction, a large number of watertight bulkheads results in:--
1. Greater deck load capacity.

3. 2
2. Reduced compartmentation.
3. Increased capacity to set flooding boundaries.
4. Decreased capacity to set flooding boundaries.
Structural bulkheads on a ship are usually:---
1. Continuous.
4. 1
2. Nonwatertight
3. Watertight
4. Transverse
Answer Key
1. Structural bulkhead.
2. 12
3. Increased capacity to set flooding boundaries.
4. Watertight
The penetration of a watertight bulkheads and watertight decks by rigid non-metallic piping is
prohibited except when:----
1. Two non-remotely operated metallic valves are installed on either side of the deck or bulkhead
regardless of accessibility..
1. 2
2. Metallic shut off valves are welded to non-metallic hull materials.
3. using an acceptable metallic fitting, welded or otherwise is attached to the bulkhead or deck by
an acceptable method.
4. The rigid non-metallic plastic pipe is at least of schedule 160 and a metallic shut off valve is
provided adjacent to the through deck or bulkhead fitting.
Answer Key
using an acceptable metallic fitting, welded or otherwise is attached to the bulkhead or deck by an
1.
acceptable method.
From the illustration given below, identify the name of the marking “H”.
1. 1
1. Stem bar
2. Plate stem
3. Panting beams
4. Chain locker
What does “F” indicate in the illustration given below?
2. 1
1. Wash bulkhead
2. Bulkhead door
3. Collision bulkhead
4. Bulkhead stiffeners
3. What does “A” indicate in the diagram given below? 1

2. Wash bulkhead
4. Bulkhead door
In the diagram given below, “B” represents __________.
4. 1
1. Stem bar
2. Plate stem
3. Panting beams
5. What does figure “C” represent? 1
1. Panting beams
2. Panting stringers
3. None of these above
What is “G” showing in the figure given below?
6. 1
3. Wash bulkhead
7. What does “D” stand for in the image given below? 1
1. Plate stem
2. Stem bar
3. Floors
What is the function of the item marked “I” in the diagram given below?
8. 1
1. Stem bar
2. Floors
3. Panting beams
9. The part “E” indicates _________. 1
1. Wash bulkhead
2. Chain locker
3. Floors
4. Plate stem
Answer Key
1. Panting beams
3. Wash bulkhead
4. Plate stem
5. Panting stringers
7. Stem bar
8. Floors
9. Chain locker
Peak tanks are tested by:
1. Hose test
1. 2. By filling them with water up to load water line 2
3. By filling them with water up to the maximum head which can come on them in practice or
2.44 m above tank crown, whichever is higher
Answer Key
By filling them with water up to the maximum head which can come on them in practice or 2.44 m
1.
above tank crown, whichever is higher
A cofferdam is a/an : --
1. Empty space between tank tops and bilges

1. 2. Cement baffle in a freshwater tank 2
3. Empty space separating compartments to prevent the contents of one compartment from
entering another in case of leakage.
4. Tank for storing chemicals.
Answer Key
Empty space separating compartments to prevent the contents of one compartment from entering
1.
another in case of leakage.
Hand opened sliding doors are categorized as
1. Class 1
1. 1
2. Class 2
3. Class 3
Openings in Shell abaft the collision bulkhead, enclosed superstructures, stern and below freeboard
decks
1. Stern and shell side: Doors which ensure the structural strength and water tightness that the
particular area requires. The strength should be at least equivalent to the area where the
2. opening is situated 1
2. Except for the pilot boarding door which is allowed to open inward, all other doors below the
freeboard deck will open outward. If they open inwards additional securing devices are
required.
3. Weather tight doors are to open inwards
A watertight door which may be opened at sea to allow the passage of passengers and crew but
closed after transit belongs to category
3. 1. A 1
2. B
3. C
4. D
What is the difference between water tight and weather tight doors?
1. watertight doors are through which the water is allowed to flow but the weather tight door can
withstand any weather
4. 2. watertight door prevents water from draining but from weathertight door water can drain out 1
3. Both the doors are equally strong
4. Watertight doors are through which no water can penetrate in any condition but weathertight
doors can withstand any pressure or force of water
Match the Phrase Correct Phrase
Time of closing doors, RORO decks, side ramps, and side scuttles Daily
5. Drills for operation of ash chutes Weekly at sea 4
Hinged and power operated watertight doors in transverse bulkheads in Before proceeding on
operation at sea voyage
Inspection of valves, the operation of which is required to make a
At least weekly
compartment watertight
Bow doors are to be located above the bulkhead deck
6. True 1
False
7. A watertight door which complies with SOLAS regulation II-I/13.5.1 – 13.5.3 and 13.6 requires to 1
be kept closed at sea.
True
False
A watertight door is designed to prevent the passage or ingress of water in any one direction
8. True 1
False
9. 8
Alarm B
Power Unit H
Watertight door A
Control valve E
Hand pump G
Hydraulic cylinder C
Isolating switch D
Deck F
This category of door shall be closed before the voyage commences and remain closed throughout
the voyage
1. Doors that do not comply with SOLAS regulation II-I/13.5.1 – 13.5.3 and 13.6 including the
10. provisions of SOLAS II – I/13 paragraphs 7 1
2. Doors that comply with SOLAS regulation II-I/13.5.1 – 13.5.3 and 13.6 including the
provisions of SOLAS II – I/13 paragraphs 7
3. All of the above
All openings below the free board deck that terminate at the bulkhead deck have to be protected by
weather tight doors
11. 1
True
False
Answer Key
1. Class 2
Stern and shell side: Doors which ensure the structural strength and water tightness that the
particular area requires. The strength should be at least equivalent to the area where the opening is
situated
2.
Except for the pilot boarding door which is allowed to open inward, all other doors below the
freeboard deck will open outward. If they open inwards additional securing devices are required.
3. C
Watertight doors are through which no water can penetrate in any condition but weathertight doors can
4.
withstand any pressure or force of water
Before proceeding on
Time of closing doors, RORO decks, side ramps, and side scuttles
voyage
Drills for operation of ash chutes At least weekly
5. Hinged and power operated watertight doors in transverse bulkheads in
Daily
operation at sea
Inspection of valves, the operation of which is required to make a
Weekly at sea
compartment watertight
6. FALSE
7. FALSE
8. FALSE
Alarm H
Power Unit F
Watertight door B
Control valve G
9.
Hand pump D
Hydraulic cylinder A
Isolating switch E
Deck C
Doors that do not comply with SOLAS regulation II-I/13.5.1 – 13.5.3 and 13.6 including the
10.
provisions of SOLAS II – I/13 paragraphs 7
11. FALSE
For a large passenger vessel, the centre of buoyancy and the metacentre are in the line of action of
the buoyant force ____________.
1. 1. Only when there is positive stability 2

2. Only when there is negative stability.
3. At all times
4. Only when there is neutral stability.
Answer Key
1. At all times
Why are anchors provided?
1. Anchors are provided to hold the ship in a fixed position

1. 2. They are provided to prevent dragging of the ship at anchorage 1
3. They are provided to tow other vessel in case of emergency by using their anchor chain
4. Anchors can be used to check movement of a ship in an demergency
The potential weakest part of the anchor chain would be the:---
1. Stud link
2. 1
2. Solid link.
3. Detachable link
4. Fluke link.
What is the anchor and what its function?
1. it is a metal piece to take the load of the ship while stationary

2. it is required to keep the ship afloat
3. 1
3. this heavy piece of metal is required to stabilize the ship
4. It is a heavy object made of steel when dropped into water with its chain it prevents the ship from
drifting
Answer Key
1. Anchors are provided to hold the ship in a fixed position

2. Detachable link
3. It is a heavy object made of steel when dropped into water with its chain it prevents the ship from drifting
At the ends of the ships, to prevent making plates too narrow, pairs of adjacent strakes are made to
run into one strake with the help of:------
1. 1. Coffin plates 2
2. Shoe plates
3. Stealer plates
4. Oxter plates.
A vessel's immediate protection in the event of a broken stern tube is a/an:--
1. Aft collision bulkhead.

2. 2
2. Stern frame bulkhead
3. After peak bulkhead
4. Aft machinery space watertight bulkhead.
Answer Key
1. Stealer plates
2. After peak bulkhead
You can generally improve the vessel's stability in a hazardous situation by _______________.
1. Pumping double bottoms to the forepeak.

1. 1
2. De-ballasting double bottoms
3. Ballasting deep tanks
4. Transferring ballast athwartships.
Deep tanks are tested by:
1. Hose test
2. Filling them with water up to maximum level
2. 2
3. Filling them with water up to maximum head, which will come on them, i.e. to the top of the
air pipe or 2.45 above the crown of the tank whichever is higher
4. Filling them with water up to maximum head, which will come on them, i.e. to the top of the
air pipe or 2.45 above the crown of the tank whichever is lower.
Answer Key
1. Ballasting deep tanks

Filling them with water up to maximum head, which will come on them, i.e. to the top of the air pipe
2.
or 2.45 above the crown of the tank whichever is higher
In longitudinally framed double bottoms, the maximum spacing between solid floors should not
exceed ______________ in any region.
1. 1. 2.5m 1
2. 3.0m
3. 3.8m
4. 2.9m
In the diagram given below, “B” represents __________.
2. 1
1. Bottom longitudinal
2. Girders
3. Bottom plating
4. Floor
What is double bottom of the ship?
1. Two parallel bottoms across the length of the ship to store water
3. 2. the bottom of the ship has two complete layers of watertight hull surface 1
3. ship’s bottom has double plates
4. The space between double bottoms can be used
1. Side longitudinal
2. Tank top
1. Tank top
2. Girders
3. Floor
4. Bottom plating
In longitudinally framed double bottoms, in frame spaces where there are no solid floors, the
brackets on tank sides and centre girder should not be more than ____ apart.
6. 1. 2.5m 1
2. 3.7m
3. 1.25m
4. 3.8m
As per rules, all ships above 120 m length should have ____ in double bottoms.
1. Transverse frame
7. 1
2. Combination
3. Longitudinal.
4. Any frame.
Which letter represents the "Floor" in the illustration given below?
8. 1
1. E
2. C
3. F
4. D
The double bottom in a vessel is a space comprised of: ______________.

9. 2
2. Doubler plating installed over the flat keel plate.
3. Compartments between the inner and outer bottoms
4. A watertight boundary formed by the inner bottom.
10. Vertical transverse structures in the double bottom are known as:-- 1
1. Pillars.
2. Stanchions
3. Floors
4. Ceilings.
What does “D” stand for in the image given below?
11. 1
1. Girders
2. Tank top
3. Floor
In longitudinally framed double bottoms, solid plate floors are fitted at _________ frame space in
pounding region and at _______frame space under the main engine.
12. 1. Every, alternate (in case of transverse put Every, Every) 1

2. Every, every
3. Alternate, every
4. Alternate, alternate
1. Tank top
2. Top longitudinals
3. Girders
In transversely framed double bottoms, the maximum spacing between solid floors should not
exceed ______________ in any region.
14. 1. 2.5m 1
2. 3.7m
3. 3.0m
4. 3.8m
Answer Key
1. 3.8m
2. Bottom plating
3. the bottom of the ship has two complete layers of watertight hull surface
5. Girders
6. 1.25m
7. Longitudinal.
8. F
9. Compartments between the inner and outer bottoms
10. Floors
11. Tank top
12. Alternate, every
13. Top longitudinals
14. 3.0m
Many vessels are provided with flume tanks, which also have a dump tank located under the flume
tanks. In the event the ship is damaged, you could dump the flume tanks into the dump tank which
would:----
1. 2
1. Reduce the free surface effect and raise the KG
2. Not have any effect on free surface and raise the KG
3. Reduce the free surface effect and lower the KG
4. Not have any effect on free surface and lower the KG.
Answer Key
1. Reduce the free surface effect and lower the KG
What is a bulbous bow of the ship?
1. bow of a ship fitted with a round tank

1. 2. bow of the ship fitted with steel cylinder 1
3. It is a protruding bulb at the bow of the ship below the waterline
4. Redesigned bow of the ship
Answer Key
1. It is a protruding bulb at the bow of the ship below the waterline
Plates used to connect stern frames to flat plate keel are called:------
1. Shoe plates
1. 1
2. stealer plates.
3. Coffin plates
4. Boss plates.
What is stern frame?
1. It holds the aft structure of the ship

2. 2. this structure which supports the rudder and the propeller shaft 1
3. This frame is attached to the ship’s aft side
4. It is the part of the ship at the extreme stern
Answer Key
1. Coffin plates
2. this structure which supports the rudder and the propeller shaft
The primary purpose of fitting a bulbous bow is to:
1. Improve the appearance of the ship.

1. 2
2. Strengthen the bow.
3. Overcome resistance from ship's bow wave.
4. Improve resistance to pounding.
The a bulbous bow also helps to:
1. Improve the appearance of the ship.

2. 2
2. Strengthen the bow
3. Improve propulsive efficiency
4. Improve resistance to pounding.
Answer Key
1. Overcome resistance from ship's bow wave.

2. Improve propulsive efficiency
State any one of the damages due to hydrodynamic impact loading of ship during rough seas:
1. Corroded shell plating.

1. 2
2. Thinning down of longitudinal frames.
3. Distorted and buckled longitudinal and frames
4. Fatigue cracking in stern frame.
When a ship sails in heavy seas, the hull slams into the water surface and the vessel experiences
heavy impulse pressures to the local forefoot structure and subsequent whipping forces to the entire
hull structure. What is the effect of these heavy impulse pressures and subsequent whipping forces?
2. 2
1. Deformation of stern frame.
2. Bulging of tank tops.
3. Cause high frequency stresses and extensive local damage to ship's structure.
4. Thinning down of shell plating.
Which part of the ship's hull plating must be reinforced to avoid bending of the plating due to
pounding?
3. 1. The stern end of the ship. 2

2. Bottom shell plating.
3. The bow end of the ship.
4. Side shell plating at midship.
At which part of the ship, the frames require reinforcement to prevent exaggerated movement of the
hull plating due to 'Panting'?
4. 1. Tank tops. 2
2. At midship.
3. At the ship's ends.
4. Stern frame.
The terms "slamming" and "pounding" have been associated with wave impact on vessels. State any
one section of the vessel impacted by slamming?
5. 1. Midship-Port. 2
2. Midship-starboard.
3. Bottom of the vessel.
4. Stern of the vessel.
Answer Key
1. Distorted and buckled longitudinal and frames

2. Cause high frequency stresses and extensive local damage to ship's structure.
3. The bow end of the ship.
4. At the ship's ends.
5. Bottom of the vessel.
Panting arrangements extend for __________ percent of ships length from forward perpendicular.
1. 10
1. 1
2. 20
3. 15
4. 25
What is windlass?
1. it is the equipment through which the ships anchor is fixed and operated
2. 2. It is an equipment on forward deck which is meant to tie the ship 1
3. It is an equipment to prevent the ship from moving when anchored
4. It is meant for handling moorings of the ship
Pounding arrangements are usually fitted up to ------ percentage of ships length abaft stem.
1. 10
3. 1
2. 20
3. 25
4. 15
What is a fore castle deck?
1. it is a bridge deck
4. 2. It is the foremost part of the upper deck 1
3. it is a poop deck
4. It is the forward part of te upper deck
What is a fore castle deck?
1. it is a bridge deck
5. 2. It is the foremost part of the upper deck 1
3. it is a poop deck
4. It is the forward part of te upper deck
What is windlass?
6. 2. It is an equipment on forward deck which is meant to tie the ship 1
3. It is an equipment to prevent the ship from moving when anchored
4. It is meant for handling moorings of the ship
Horizontal web plates which support the part of stern formed by radiused plates, between deck, is
known as:--
7. 1. Panting stringer 1
2. Breast stringer
3. Breast hook.
4. Breast stiffener
Answer Key
1. 15
3. 25
4. It is the foremost part of the upper deck
5. It is the foremost part of the upper deck
7. Breast hook.
What is the purpose of cant frames in steel vessels?
1. To support the overhang of the stern

1. 2
2. To add strength to the deck beams which support the weather decks
3. To provide strength to shell plating at the stern.
4. To support the plating of a cylindrical tank.
What is a mooring winch?
1. It is a device to secure the rope of the ship

2. 2. It is a device to keep the ship stationary 1
3. It is a mechanical device used to secure the ship by mooring lines
4. It is a device for storing mooring lines
Most commonly used stern construction is –
1. Cruiser stern.
3. 1
2. Steel stern
3. Transom stern.
What is a mooring winch?
1. It is a device to secure the rope of the ship

4. 2. It is a device to keep the ship stationary 1
4. It is a device for storing mooring lines
Which of the following statements is true?
1. A transom floor need not have the same depth as cellular double bottoms.
5. 2. Counter or elliptical sterns are most commonly used in merchant ships. 2
3. Cant framing when omitted in a cruiser stern and replaced by a flat plate, forms the transom
stern.
4. Cant framing radiating out like spokes of wheel from transom, forms the transom stern.
Answer Key
1. To provide strength to shell plating at the stern.

3. Transom stern.
5. Cant framing when omitted in a cruiser stern and replaced by a flat plate, forms the transom stern.
5/28/22, 11:32 PM Directorate General of Shipping
When flooding occurs in a damaged vessel, reserve buoyancy __________.
1. Shifts to the low side.

1. 1
2. Increases
3. Decreases
4. Remains the same.
Answer Key
1. Decreases
If a vessel rolls to the starboard side, and there are no movable or moving weights onboard, the
center of gravity will
1. 1. move to starboard 1
2. move to port
3. move directly down
4. stay in the same position
In the absence of external forces, adding weight to one side of a floating vessel, will cause the vessel
to
2. 1. decrease draft at the center of flotation 1

2. list until the center of buoyancy is aligned vertically with the center of gravity
3. heel until the angle of loll is reached
4. trim to the side opposite TCG until all moments are equal
What is static stability?
1. Ability of a ship to regain its upright equilibrium position, after removal of external factor
3. 2. ship remains upright in any condition 1
3. Ship is stable all the time
4. Ship remains always in stable condition
You may improve a vessel's stability by
1. keeping at least one fuel tank empty for slops

4. 1
2. keeping the fuel tanks at least half full
3. increasing the free surface effect
4. keeping the fuel tanks topped off
Answer Key
1. stay in the same position

2. list until the center of buoyancy is aligned vertically with the center of gravity
3. Ability of a ship to regain its upright equilibrium position, after removal of external factor
4. keeping the fuel tanks topped off
The important stability parameter 'KG' is defined as the
1. height of the center of buoyancy above the keel

1. 1
2. height of the center of gravity above the keel
3. metacentric height
4. height of the metacenter above the keel
The existence of liquids in partially full tanks or compartments of a Ship causes a virtual rise in the
height of the _______________.
2. 1. Metacentre 1
2. Centre of buoyancy
3. Centre of gravity
4. Centre of flotation
With no environmental forces acting on the vessel, the center of gravity of an inclined vessel is
vertically aligned with the _______
3. 1. center of flotation 1
2. original vertical centerline
3. metacenter
4. longitudinal centerline
A vessel's center of gravity is lowered when the
1. freeboard is increased
4. 1
2. tanks are ballasted
3. trim is increased
4. reserve buoyancy increases
Answer Key
1. height of the center of gravity above the keel

3. original vertical centerline
4. tanks are ballasted
Which abbreviation represents the height of the center of buoyancy?
1. BM
1. 1
2. CB
3. BK
4. KB
When the height of the meta centre has the same value as the height of the centre of gravity, the
meta centric height is equal to:-
2. 1. Height of the metacentre 1

2. Height of the centre of gravity.
3. Zero
4. Same as half the height of the metacentre.
The vertical distance between "G" and "M" of a vessel is used as a measure of __________.
1. Stability at all angles of inclination.

3. 2
2. stability at angle less than the down-flooding angle
3. Initial static stability
4. Stability at angles less than the limit of positive stability
When a vessel is floating upright, the distance from the centre of gravity to the metacentre is called
the __________.
4. 1. Metacentric differential 1
2. Height of the baseline
3. Height of the metacentre.
4. Righting arm.
What is the stability status of a vessel, when the height of the metacentre is less then the height of
the centre of gravity?
5. 1. Stable 1
2. Neutral
3. Unstable
4. Positive.
Answer Key
1. KB
2. Zero
3. Initial static stability
4. Height of the metacentre.
5. Unstable
What is the usual effect of moving weight from low in the vessel to above the main deck?
1. The stability is increased

1. 2
2. The draft is increased
3. The stability is decreased.
4. The reserve buoyancy is decreased.
A vessel's centre of gravity is lowered when the:--
1. Freeboard is increased
2. 1
2. Reserve buoyancy increases
3. Tanks are ballasted.
4. Trim is increased.
Which of the following conditions will occur to the ship's centre of gravity if 200 tons of steel is
transferred to the ships cargo hold from shore side?
3. 1. The reserve buoyancy will rise. 1

2. The centre of gravity will remain in the same position.
3. The centre of gravity will be lowered.
4. The reserve buoyancy will remain the same
Answer Key

2. Tanks are ballasted.
3. The centre of gravity will be lowered.
KG of ship increases with:______
1. Ballasting double bottom tank.

1. 2
2. Moving weight in transverse direction
3. Adding weight above on present KG
4. Moving weight in forward direction.
How many ways a ship may loses her stability?
1. By sudden shifting of weights from one side to other, by flooding two compartments
simultaneously
2. 1
2. with a strong wind hitting on one side of the ship
3. when ship is encountering a heavy sea
4. when the is grounded
Answer Key
1. Adding weight above on present KG

2. By sudden shifting of weights from one side to other, by flooding two compartments simultaneously
When a weight is moved in transverse direction it may cause:
1. Loll
1. 1
2. Heel
3. List
4. Trim
If a vessel rolls to the starboard side, and there are no movable or moving weights onboard, the
centre of gravity will ____________.
2. 1. Move to port 1
2. Move to starboard
3. Stay in the same position.
4. Move directly down.
At all angles of inclination, the true measure of a vessel's stability is the;____
1. Metacentric height
3. 2
2. Displacement
3. Righting moment
4. Inclining moment.
Stability of a vessel is defined as:
1. Vessel will come not back to its initial position when external disturbance is withdrawn.
4. 2. Vessel will float at different position when external disturbance is withdrawn 2
3. Vessel will come back to its initial position when external disturbance is withdrawn and by
suitably shifting of weights.
4. Vessel will come back to its initial position when external disturbance is withdrawn.
Answer Key
1. List
2. Stay in the same position.
3. Righting moment
Vessel will come back to its initial position when external disturbance is withdrawn and by suitably
4.
shifting of weights.
GM cannot be used as an indicator of stability at all angles of inclination because:
1. There is no G at large angles.

1. 2
2. There is no M at large angles
3. M is not fixed at large angles.
4. G is not fixed at large angles.
Answer Key
1. M is not fixed at large angles.
The inclining experiment conducted on a merchant ship is the method for determining the exact
location of the:____
1. 1. Ship's displacement in seawater. 1

2. Position of the ship's metacentre
3. Position of the ship's centre of gravity
4. Position of the ship's centre of buoyancy.
In the absence of external forces, adding weight to one side of a floating vessel, will cause the vessel
to ____________.
2. 1. Heel until the angle of loll is reached. 2

2. Decrease draft at the centre of flotation
3. List until the centre of buoyancy is aligned vertically with the centre of gravity.
4. Trim to the side opposite TCG until all moments are equal.
By what method is the final light ship weight, longitudinal and vertical centers of gravity of a vessel,
and final assignment of the load lines determined?
3. 1. By relying on calculations based on ballasting a light vessel to full load displacement. 1

2. By relying on naval architectural design calculations.
3. By relying on resultant calculations from an inclining experiment.
4. By actually shifting ballast horizontally and longitudinally and relying on resultant calculations.
The purpose of the inclining experiment on a ship is to determine:______
1. The maximum load line.

4. 2
2. The position of the centre of buoyancy.
3. Metacentric height of the ship in the Light condition as built or after a ship's conversion.
4. The position of the metacenter.
Adding weight to one side of a floating vessel will cause the vessel to list until the centre of buoyancy
is vertically aligned with the:
5. 1. Longitudinal centreline 2
2. Centre of flotation.
3. Centre of gravity.
4. Original vertical centreline.
Answer Key
1. Position of the ship's centre of gravity

2. List until the centre of buoyancy is aligned vertically with the centre of gravity.
3. By relying on resultant calculations from an inclining experiment.
4. Metacentric height of the ship in the Light condition as built or after a ship's conversion.
5. Centre of gravity.
A vessel having a concentration of weight toward the top of the vessel is said to be
1. tender
1. 1
2. stiff
3. neutral
4. buoyant
Which of the listed conditions will occur to the ship's center of gravity if 200 tons of steel is
transferred to the ship's cargo-hold from shore side?
2. 1. The center of gravity will remain in the same position. 1

2. The reserve buoyancy will rise.
3. The center of gravity will be lowered.
4. The reserve buoyancy will remain the same.
What is the usual effect of moving weight from low in the vessel to above the main deck?
1. The stability is increased.

3. 1
3. The draft is increased.
4. The reserve buoyancy is decreased.
Answer Key
1. tender
2. The center of gravity will be lowered.
What is righting lever?
1. GM is the righting lever

1. 2. KM is the righting lever 1
3. KG is the righting lever
4. GZ is known as righting lever
Adverse effects due to free surface will result when
1. the vessel's draft is increased, thus increasing the vessel's wetted surface area
2. 1
2. the vessel is trimmed by the stern
3. a portion of liquid is removed from a full tank
4. the vessel's draft is decreased exposing more surface area to the wind and current
What is angle of LOLL?
1. It is the state of the ship that is unstable when upright

3. 2. The angle at which KG=KM 1
3. At this angle GM=0
4. The GM is negative
If the cause of a sudden severe list is due to negative initial stability, counter flooding into empty
ballast tanks may.
4. 1. cause an increase in the righting arm 1

2. bring the unit to an upright equilibrium position
3. cause the unit to flop to a greater angle
4. increase the righting moment
Increasing the free surface of a confined liquid has the effect of raising the
1. virtual height of the center of gravity

5. 1
2. uncorrected 'KG'
4. metacenter
Answer Key
1. GZ is known as righting lever

2. a portion of liquid is removed from a full tank
3. It is the state of the ship that is unstable when upright
4. cause the unit to flop to a greater angle
5. virtual height of the center of gravity
The purpose of bilge keels is to _____________.
1. Lower the centre of gravity of the ship.

1. 1
2. Reduce yawing
4. Reduce pitching.
The horizontal distance between the vertical lines of action of gravity and the buoyant forces is called
the:_______
2. 1. Height of the centre of buoyancy. 1

2. Metacentric radius.
3. righting arm.
GM of ship will change with:_________
1. Shifting of weight longitudinally

3. 1
2. Shifting of weight transversely
3. Shifting of weight vertically
Answer Key

2. righting arm.
The stability of a vessel is normally the greatest when all fuel and water tanks are full because the:
_____
1. 1. Hull freeboard is increased. 2

2. Reserve buoyancy is unchanged.
3. Centre of gravity is lowered.
4. Centre of buoyancy is lowered.
A vessel's centre of gravity is lowered when the:____
1. Freeboard is increased.
2. 1
2. Trim is increased
3. All ballast tanks are ballasted fully.
4. Reserve buoyancy increases.
Stability is determined principally by the relationship of the centre of gravity and the:_______
1. Aft perpendicular.
3. 1
2. Centre of flotation
4. Keel.
Answer Key
1. Centre of gravity is lowered.

2. All ballast tanks are ballasted fully.
After transferring a weight forward on a vessel, the draft at the center of flotation will ______
1. Change, depending on the location of the LCG.

1. 1
2. Increase.
3. remain constant
4. Decrease.
Answer Key
1. remain constant
The difference between the average of the forward and aft drafts is _____________.
1. List
1. 1
2. Heel
3. Trim
4. Flotation.
The COASTAL BARGE has a trim of 2.13 metres by the stern. The draft at the forward draft marks is
observed to be 8.0 metres The draft at the center of flotation is _________.
1. 7.00 metres
2. 1
2. 8.58 metres
3. 9.00 metres
4. 9.42 metres
What is the trim of a Barge with forward draft of 11 metres and aft draft of 13.75 metres
1. 1.38 metres by the stern

3. 2. 1.45 metres by the stern 1
Those ship's tanks that are particularly important for trimming the ship are the _________.
1. domestics
4. 2. settlers 1
3. deeps
4. peaks
The draft at the forward draft mark of a Barge is 11 .25 metres while the draft at the aft draft mark is
12 .75 metres. The value of trim is_________.
1. 0.5metres to the stern

5. 1
2. 1 .5 metres to the stern
3. 3 metres to the stern
4. 24 metres to the stern
A tow astern is veering from side to side on its towline. The best way of controlling the action is to
1. trim the tow by the bow

6. 2. trim the tow by the stern 2
3. list the tow to windward
4. adjust the length of the towing bridle
What is NOT a motion of the vessel?
1. Pitch
7. 2. Roll 1
3. Trim
4. Yaw
8. The ship's tanks most effective for trimming are the 1
1. deeps
2. domestics
3. peaks
4. settlers
If the cause of severe list or trim of a vessel is due to off-center ballast, counter flooding into empty
tanks will
9. 1. increase list or trim 2

2. increase the righting arm
3. increase the righting moment
4. decrease list or trim
The difference between the forward and aft drafts is
1. list
10. 2. heel 1
3. trim
4. flotation
Which action will affect the trim of a vessel?
1. Moving high weights lower

11. 2. Adding weight at the tipping center 2
3. Moving a weight forward
4. All the options are possible
The center of flotation of a vessel is_________.
1. the center of volume of the immersed portion of the vessel

12. 2. the center of gravity of the water plane 2
3. that point at which all the vertical downward forces of weight are considered to be concentrated
4. that point at which all the vertical downward forces of weight are considered to be concentrated
The "trimming arm" of a vessel is the horizontal distance between the_________.
1. LCB and LCF

13. 2. LCF and LCG 2
3. LHA and LCG
4. LCB and LCG
The COASTAL BARGE has a trim of 2.13 metres by the stern. If the draft at the forward draft marks
is 8.0 metres, the draft at the after draft marks is _________.
1. 7.00 metres
14. 2
2. 9.00 metres
3. 9.42 metres
4. 10.13 metres
The average of draught aft and draught forward known as ____________.
1. Mean of the calculated drafts

15. 2
2. True mean draft
3. Mean draft.
4. Draft at the centre of flotation.
16. What is the trim of a Barge with a forward draft of 12 metres and an after draft of 13 metres? 1


4. 0.5 metres by the head
A vessel trimmed down by the bow has
1. a low mean draft

17. 1
2. a greater draft aft than forward
3. zero trim
4. a greater draft forward than aft
A vessel trimmed by the stern has a __________.
1. list
18. 2. drag 1
3. set
4. sheer
Which of the following types of tanks can aid in improving the draught without considerably altering
the trim?
19. 1. Double bottom tanks 2

2. deep tanks.
3. Top side tanks.
4. Peak tanks.
When a vessel's LCG is aft of her LCB, the vessel will
1. trim by the stern

20. 2. trim by the head 1
3. be on an even keel
4. be tender
That center around which a vessel trims is called the
1. center of floatation
21. 2. center of buoyancy 2
3. center of gravity
4. turning center
The vessel trims about a transverse axis drawn through the longitudinal centre of flotation (COF).
COF is also called the ________.
22. 1. Turning centre. 1

3. Tipping centre
4. Centre of buoyancy.
Answer Key
1. Trim
2. 9.42 metres
4. peaks
5. 1 .5 metres to the stern
6. trim the tow by the stern
7. Trim
8. peaks
9. decrease list or trim
10. trim
11. Moving a weight forward
12. the center of gravity of the water plane
13. LCB and LCG
14. 10.13 metres
15. Mean draft.
17. a greater draft forward than aft
18. drag
19. Top side tanks.
20. trim by the stern
21. center of floatation
22. Tipping centre
What is the new location of the transverse center of gravity if 200 short tons are discharged from 10
feet to port of the centerline on a MODU with TCG 0.7 foot starboard of the centerline, and the
displacement is 9,000 short tons?
1. 1. 0.94 foot starboard of centerline 1

2. 0.90 foot starboard of centerline
3. 0.47 foot port of centerline
What is the shift in the longitudinal center of gravity if 200 short tons are discharged from 30 feet
forward of amidships on a MODU with LCG 1.5 fet forward of amidships, and displacement 9,000
short tons?
2. 1. 0.62 foot aft 1

2. 0.65 foot aft
3. 0.68 foot aft
4. 0.71 foot aft
A continual worsening of the list or trim indicates
1. negative GM
3. 2. progressive flooding 1
3. structural failure
4. an immediate need to ballast
What is the new location of the transverse center of gravity if 200 short tons are placed 10 feet to port
of the centerline on a MODU with TCG 0.7 foot starboard of the centerline, and displacement 9,000
short tons?
4. 1. 0.47 foot starboard of centerline 1

Your vessel is listing 4° to port and has a short rolling period. There is loose firefighting water in the
hull. The ship is trimmed down by the head with one foot of freeboard at the bow. Which action
should you take FIRST?
5. 1. Press up the slack NO.1 starboard double bottom tank. 1

2. Pump out the forepeak tank.
3. Eliminate the water in the 'tween decks aft.
4. Jettison stores out of the paint locker in the forecastle.
The two points that act together to trim a ship are the
1. LCF and LCB

6. 2. LCG and LCB 1
3. metacenter and LCG
4. VCG and LCG
7. What is the longitudinal shift in the center of gravity if 200 short tons is moved ten feet to port and 30 1
feet forward on a MODU with a displacement of 8,960 long tons?
1. 0.20 foot
2. 0.22 foot
3. 0.67 foot
4. 0.84 foot
The addition of weight at centre of flotation will cause:_______
8. 1. Increase the forward draft and decrease the after draft. 2

2. Decrease the forward draft and increase the after draft
3. Bodily sink age
4. Have no effect on the stability.
The change in trim of a vessel may be found by
1. dividing the trim moments by MTCM

9. 2. subtracting the LCF from the LCB 1
3. looking at the Hydrostatic Properties Table for the draft of the vessel
4. dividing longitudinal moments by the displacement
Progressive flooding may be indicated by
1. ballast control alarms

10. 2. excessive draft 1
3. excessive list or trim
4. a continual worsening of list or trim
What is the transverse shift in the center of gravity if 200 short tons are placed 10 feet to port of the
centerline on a MODU with TCG 0.7 foot starboard of the centerline, and the displacement is 9,000
short tons?
11. 1. 0.03 foot 1

2. 0.20 foot
3. 0.23 foot
4. 0.62 foot
What is the new location of the longitudinal center of gravity if 200 short tons are discharged from 30
feet forward of amidships on a MODU with LCG 1.5 feet forward of amidships, and displacement
9,000 short tons?
12. 1. 0.88 foot forward of amidships 1

2. 0.85 foot forward of amidships
Your tank vessel is fully loaded, and you find that she is down slightly by the head. To adjust the trim,
you may__________.
1. add ballast aft

13. 2
2. load more cargo aft
3. shift cargo aft
4. All of the above
14. Your drafts are: FWD 5 metres, AFT 6 metres. From past experience, you know that the vessel will 1
increase her draft 1 cm for every 3.57 tonnes loaded. There is water on board and 11 tonnes of deck
cargo. How many more tonnes of cargo can be loaded and sti
1. None
2. 10 tonnes
3. 18 tonnes
4. 24 tonnes
The difference between the initial trim and the trim after loading is known as_________.
1. trim
15. 2. change of trim 1
3. final trim
4. change of draft
A semisubmersible which flops between forward and aft angles of trim is likely to have __________.
1. KML less than KGL

16. 2. an off-center LCG 1
3. LCG greater than LCB
4. KML greater than KMT
Your tank vessel is loaded down to her marks, and you find that she has too much trim by the stern. To
adjust the trim you may________.
1. add ballast forward

17. 1
2. load more cargo forward
3. shift bunkers forward
4. All of the above
After transferring a weight forward on a vessel, the draft at the center of flotation will __________.
1. change, depending on the location of the LCG

18. 2. increase 1
3. decrease
4. remain constant
Answer Key

2. 0.65 foot aft
3. progressive flooding
5. Pump out the forepeak tank.
6. LCG and LCB
7. 0.67 foot
8. Bodily sink age
9. dividing the trim moments by MTCM
10. a continual worsening of list or trim
11. 0.23 foot
13. shift cargo aft
14. 24 tonnes
15. change of trim
16. KML less than KGL
17. shift bunkers forward
18. remain constant
Shear forces are created by
1. By opposite and parallel forces

1. 2
2. By opposing forces perpendicular to each other
3. Forces acting in the same direction
4. All of the above
Allowable Wave bending moments are
1. Greater than allowable Still water bending moments

2. 1
2. The same as allowable Still water bending moments
3. Less than allowable Still water bending moments
The area under the loads curve is considered to be the
1. Sheer force at that point

3. 2
2. The Bending moment at that point
3. Weights curve
A vessel whose BM is +ive is said to
1. Sag
4. 2
2. Hog
3. Shear
4. Twist
A beam AM 12 m long mass 61.163 kg is suspended horizontally by 2 wires at 2 points C & K so that
AC = KM = 2m. Find SF/ BM at point K
5. 1. +100/-100 2
2. -200/+100/-100
3. -200/-100
4. +200/+100/-100
A beam AM 12 m long mass 61.163 kg is suspended horizontally by 2 wires at 2 points C & K so that
AC = KM = 2m. Find SF/ BM at point K
6. 1. +100/-100 2
2. -200/+100/-100
3. -200/-100
4. +200/+100/-100
Answer Key
1. By opposite and parallel forces

2. Less than allowable Still water bending moments
3. Sheer force at that point
4. Sag
5. -200/+100/-100
6. -200/+100/-100
How torsional stress are induced into the hull structure?
1. By ballasting and deballasting

1. 2. Either by cargo (Static torsion) or wave action (Dynamic torsion) 1
3. By loading and discharging
4. By propeller shaft turning
Answer Key
1. Either by cargo (Static torsion) or wave action (Dynamic torsion)
Fundamentals of Strain Gauge Measurements; find an error statement,
when an amount of the applied force and cross-sectional area will be known, stress can be calculated.
when the measuring object consists of complicated structures, complicated applied loads or complex
conditions, it may be challenging to calculate data with high accuracy.
stress measurements with strain gages are widely used as the surest and practical method as
verification of the safety structure design.
Find the correct relationship for the expression , where,
X Y Z
1. 2
Stress E
Strain
Young’s Modulus E E
1. X
2. Y
3. Z
A typical trim and stability booklet will contain the following data: which one of these is used by the ship’s
officer to plan his cargo loading?
A. Hydrostatic properties (KM, LCB, LCF, etc.) tabulated or plotted as a function of mean draft.
B. Metacentric Height (GM) diagram, showing GM for tabulated conditions of loading and minimum required
GM for vessel service.
C. Trim diagram to calculate vessel trim when weights are added at locations other than the vessel center of
gravity.
D. Weight distribution and stability information for various conditions of loading.
E. Liquid loading diagram, showing the location, capacity, and effect on list and trim of the ship’s tanks.
2. X Y Z M 2
A D B E
B E C A
1. X
2. Y
3. Z
4. M
3. Fundamentals of Strain Gauge Measurements; Find the correct column to complete the statements below, 2
A. The amount of electrical resistance is in ----A----- to the cross-sectional area and is proportional to the
length.
B. If a metal wire is pulled, the cross-sectional area becomes smaller, and the length becomes longer,
thereby making the…………B…….
C. If the metal wire is ------C--------, the electrical resistance becomes smaller.
D. Elongation or shrinkage proportionally changes the -----D------of metal with the specific constant.
E. If the metal wire is -----E----------, it elongates or shrinks as the structure elongates or shrinks.
F. measurement of the changing electrical resistance of the metal wire enables detection of, ----F---------i.e.,
“strain” of the structure.
X Y Z M
A electrical resistance compressed bonded to structure inverse proportion
B compressed electrical resistance inverse proportion resistance larger
C bonded to structure bonded to structure resistance larger compressed
D Elongation/shrinkage Elongation/shrinkage compressed electrical resistance
E bonded to structure bonded to structure electrical resistance bonded to structure
F inverse proportion inverse proportion Elongation/shrinkage Elongation/shrinkage
1. X
2. Y
3. Z
4. M
Frequency Modulated Continuous Wave (FMCW) Concept; find an error,
1. The radar principle used is FMCW (Frequency Modulated Continuous Wave).

2. The FMCW-radar transmits a high frequency signal whose frequency increases linearly during the
4. 2
measurement phase (called the frequency sweep).
3. The signal is emitted, reflected on the measuring surface and received with a time delay, t.
4. Delay time, t=2d/c, where d is the distance to the product surface and c is the speed of sound in the
gas above the product.
Stress Calculating equipment; find an error statement,
1. It is common for tankers to use radar gauges and not pressure transducers (strain gauge device) in
cargo tanks that connect with loadicator in the cargo control room
5. 2. The CARGOMASTER system offers complete solutions for tank monitoring and alarming. 1
3. The system sends readings from all tanks and lines onboard to software which runs on all standard
marine computers.
4. In addition to tank monitoring, the system may include monitoring of pumps and cargo lines and
integration to other systems onboard.
6. Commercial ships usually have a trim and stability booklet which may contain either curves of form or 2
hydrostatic tables and stability and trim characteristics for various conditions of loading.
A typical trim and stability booklet will contain the following data: which one of these is used by the ship’s
officer to calculate stability?
A. Vessel characteristics, including principal dimensions, tonnage, location of draft marks, builder, official and
registry numbers, etc.
B. Instructions for use of the nomograms, curves, and other data in the booklet
C. General operating instructions and precautions.
D. Tabulated tank and hold capacities.
X Y Z M
A B B A
D C D B
1. X
2. Y
3. Z
4. M
Using Strain Gauges- strain gauge measurements are done by strategically positioned strain gauges. Find the
correct column to complete the statements below,
The principle of pressure gauging requires ---A---- in each tank connected to a microcomputer in the
cargo control room.
One transducer is located at the bottom of the tank, one at about the 60 percent level, and one above
the highest ---B------.
The ---C----- measures the tank pressure.
When loading is started, the bottom transducer measures an approximate level based on a ----G------
provided by the chief mate.
After the ---D-------- is covered, the computer calculates the actual specific gravity and from that point
the ----F------- is extremely accurate.
Tonnage information from this program can be loaded directly into the ship's loading computer to
obtain a continuous readout of ----------E----------
Selection X Y Z M
A liquid level SF and BM second sensor Three pressure

transducers
7. B Three pressure liquid level liquid level liquid level 2

transducers
C upper transducer upper transducer upper transducer upper transducer
D second sensor second sensor Three pressure second sensor

transducers
F ullage measurement ullage measurement ullage measurement ullage measurement
E SF and BM Three pressure SF and BM SF and BM

transducers
G specific gravity specific gravity specific gravity specific gravity
1. X
2. Y
3. Z
4. M
1. A strain is a quantity of the deformation - elongation or contraction of a material in proportion to

applied external force.
8. 2. Strain gage detects this stress as an electrical signal. 2
3. There are structures made of different materials in varied sizes and shape such as automobiles,
aircrafts, locomotives and ships, dams, bridges, and skyscrapers.
4. Measurement of “stress,” which is a criterion of the strength of these structures operating under severe
conditions, is indispensable for assurance of the strength and safety.
9. Cargo Loading procedure: find an error statement 1
1. Loading Manual: A Loading Manual is a document which describes: - the loading conditions on which
the design of the ship has been based
2. The loading manual does not define the permissible limits of still water bending moment and shear
force
3. The loading manual can help to find results of the calculations of still water bending moments, shear
forces
4. The manual also provides limitations due to torsional and lateral loads- the allowable local loading for
the structure (hatch covers, decks, double bottom, etc.)
Stress Calculating equipment; find an error statement,
1. There are two ways of determining the stress during the cargo loading operations.
10. 2. Using the stability booklet that provides the various stability data to identify the SF and BM 1
3. Another way is to use a Loadicator. This uses a computer which replicates the stability booklet and
more sophisticated quick calculations.
4. Loadicator cannot, however, integrate all the stability information to generate cross curves of stability
Selection of strain gauge based on measuring object material and measurement environment; which type of
strain gauge will you select for tank level measurements?
1. Strain gages for general stress measurement

11. 2. Strain gages for composite materials, printed boards, plastics and rubber 1
3. Strain gages for ultra-small strain measurement
4. High temperature strain gages
5. Low temperature strain gages
6. Non-magneto resistive gages
1. It is difficult to determine the stress of an object or a material directly.

12. 2. we calculate stress by measuring the stress-based "strain." 1
3. Based on the Hooke’s law, that stress is proportionate to strain in the inelastic region
4. Stress is determined by measuring strain with strain gages.
5. We often use strain measurement and stress measurement synonymously.
13. Fundamentals of Strain Gauge Measurements; find an error statement, 1
1. Resistance changes of strain gages - bonded to the target object- are extracted, converted to voltage
and amplified.
2. To elongate or shrink the strain gages together with the measuring objects, bond them securely by
using a dedicated adhesive.
3. To accurately measure the electrical resistance change of the strain gage, form a bridge circuit to
convert the resistance change to voltage change.
4. Since the voltage is small in strain gauge measurement, as expressed in μV, it is usually amplified by a
minimum of 100,000 times.
1. "Strain" is a coefficient of elongation (or shrinkage) and is not a unitless number.

14. 2. Since strain indicates quite small value, it is written with "×10-6 strain" and is called "microstrain." 1
3. Metal changes its electrical resistance as it deforms. Strain gages take advantage of this property.
4. The amount of electrical resistance is in inverse proportion to the cross-sectional area and is
proportional to the length.
15. CARGOMASTER LOADING INSTRUMENT: identify the functions correctly 2
Loading instrument: CARGOMASTER UNITS X Y Z M
Signal Control Unit: A B A A
Computer Unit: B C D D
Uninterrupted Power Supply: C D C B
Tank sensors: D A B C
Loading instrument functions:

A. handling sensor inputs and communication to other systems
B. obtain a picture of tank contents and liquid cargo operations.
C. secure the system to run for at least 30 minutes
D. IACS approved equipment using monitoring and alarm software
1. X
2. Y
3. Z
4. M
Frequency Modulated Continuous Wave (FMCW) Concept; find an error,
1. The signal is emitted, reflected on the measuring surface and received with a time delay, t.
2. Delay time, t=2d/c, where d is the distance to the product surface and c is the speed of light in the gas
16. above the product. 1
3. For further signal processing the difference Δf is calculated from the actual transmit frequency and the
receive frequency.
4. The difference is directly proportional to the distance. A large frequency difference corresponds to a
smaller distance and vice versa.
Fundamentals of Strain Gauge Measurements; select the correct column,
17. 2
X Y Z
1 Fixed Resistor Strain Amplifier Strain Amplifier
2 Strain Amplifier Fixed Resistor Fixed Resistor
3 Strain gauge Strain gauge Supply Voltage
4 Supply voltage Supply voltage Strain gauge
1. X
2. Y
3. Z
18. Stress Calculating equipment; find an error statement, 1

1. There are three ways of determining the stress during the cargo loading operations.
2. Using the stability booklet that provides the various stability data to identify the SF and BM in various
strength members of the subdivision bulkheads based on draught, trim and cargo weights or tank
sounding information.
3. Stability booklet is a manual way of determining the metacentric heights and other stability conditions
at different stages of cargo operations.
4. Another way of stress calculation is to use a loadicator. The process is automated, using a computer
based loadicator, which replicates the stability booklet
Using Strain Gauges- strain gauge measurements are done by strategically positioned strain gauges. Find an
error statement,
1. The principle of pressure gauging requires three pressure transducers in each tank connected to a
microcomputer in the cargo control room.
19. 1
2. One transducer is located at the bottom of the tank, one at about the 40 percent level, and one in the
deck stand (above the highest liquid level).
3. The upper transducer measures the tank pressure.
4. When loading is started, the bottom transducer measures an approximate level based on a specific
gravity provided by the chief mate.
Loading Instrument: find the correct column for true statements,

A. A loading instrument is an instrument, which is neither analogue or digital
B. A loading instrument can quickly ascertain, at specified read-out points, the still water bending moments,
shear forces,
C. A loading instrument can quickly ascertain, the still water torsional moments and lateral loads, where
applicable, in any load or ballast condition
D. A loading instrument can quickly ascertain that the effects of loading in way of Sf and BM will not exceed
the specified permissible values.
E. A loading instrument may or may not have an operational manual so long as the software is class
approved
F. Single point loading instruments are acceptable.
20. X Y Z M 2
A D B C
B E C D
C F D E
1. X
2. Y
3. Z
4. M
21. Frequency Modulated Continuous Wave (FMCW) Concept; find the correct column describing the FMCW 2
process:
X Y Z M
M Modulation in Radar Modulation in Radar Frequency spectrum Signal process by FFT

Frequency Frequency level computation
N Time Delay by Wave Frequency spectrum Modulation in Radar Frequency spectrum

Propagation level computation Frequency level computation
R Frequency Difference Time Delay by Wave Time Delay by Wave Time Delay by Wave
Df Propagation Propagation Propagation
P Signal process by FFT Frequency Difference Df Frequency Difference Frequency Difference

Df Df
Q Frequency spectrum Signal process by FFT Signal process by FFT Modulation in Radar
level computation Frequency
1. X
2. Y
3. Z
4. M
Answer Key
1. X
2. Y
3. M
Delay time, t=2d/c, where d is the distance to the product surface and c is the speed of sound in the gas
4.
above the product.
It is common for tankers to use radar gauges and not pressure transducers (strain gauge device) in cargo
5.
tanks that connect with loadicator in the cargo control room
6. Y
7. M
8. Strain gage detects this stress as an electrical signal.
9. The loading manual does not define the permissible limits of still water bending moment and shear force
10. Loadicator cannot, however, integrate all the stability information to generate cross curves of stability
11. Strain gages for general stress measurement
12. Based on the Hooke’s law, that stress is proportionate to strain in the inelastic region
Since the voltage is small in strain gauge measurement, as expressed in μV, it is usually amplified by a
13.
minimum of 100,000 times.
14. "Strain" is a coefficient of elongation (or shrinkage) and is not a unitless number.
15. Z
The difference is directly proportional to the distance. A large frequency difference corresponds to a smaller
16.
distance and vice versa.
17. Y
18. There are three ways of determining the stress during the cargo loading operations.
One transducer is located at the bottom of the tank, one at about the 40 percent level, and one in the deck
19.
stand (above the highest liquid level).
20. Z
21. X
Hull Stress Monitoring System: find an error statement,
1. In 1994, the International Maritime Organization (IMO) originally recommended the utilization of hull stress
monitoring systems to facilitate the safe operation of ships.
2. The IMO’s resolution MSC/Circ.646 (June 1994): Recommendations for The Fitting of Hull Stress Monitoring Systems
1. – Annex: Recommendations for the Fitting of Hull Stress Monitoring Systems for Improving the Safe Operations of 2
Ships Carrying Dry Cargo in Bulk.
3. Mandated by the IMO and included in SOLAS regulations, structural stress and fatigue monitoring systems have in
fact been used for providing real-time safety warnings on large and specialist vessels for more than two decades.
4. Requirements for a typical hull structural monitoring system are regulated by class societies including ABS (1995), LR
(2004), and DNV (2011).
Hull Stress Monitoring System: how does it help in deep sea voyage for the ship’s crew?
1. The frequent loss of bulk carriers and tankers during the late 1980’s prompted the IMO (International Maritime
Organization) to make the recommendation for fitting the hull stress monitoring systems for the improvement of the
safety of ships
2. 2
2. The HSMS applies to ships of 20,000 dwt and above, carrying dry cargo in bulk.
3. Real-time data from these sensors is provided for immediate use and for the evaluation of the course and/or speed
changes.
4. Hull Stress Monitoring measures and analyzes important parameters affecting Hull Stresses on ships. Such
parameters include Bending moments, Pitching, Rolling and Pounding.
Hull Stress Monitoring System; find an error statement,
1. The frequent loss of bulk carriers and tankers during the late 1980’s prompted the IMO (International Maritime
Organization) to make the recommendation for fitting the hull stress monitoring systems for the improvement of the
safety of ships
3. 1
3. Large tankers, bulk carriers or container vessels, where the hull girder stiffness is relatively low compared to their
size, and which need hull monitoring systems to measure the forces, motions and resulting stresses caused by the
sea state, can benefit from having HSMS.
4. The system includes various sensors, such as long-base strain gauges, rosette gauges and trio-axial accelerometers
to monitor hull girder deck stresses and localized stresses on bulkheads, side shell, cross-deck strip and double
bottom structure.
Fiber Optic Sensors. Identify one major benefit of this type of sensors on a LNG carrier:
1. In a hull stress monitoring technology that uses fiber optics, the sensors are completely resistant to electrical
interference and passive
4. 1
2. Considerably less cabling is required to install a hull stress monitoring system.
3. The sensors are very small - just 250 microns in diameter and a few millimeters long - and a large number can be
fitted on a single optical fiber.
4. Being factory calibrated the sensors need no maintenance.
Hull Stress Monitoring System: find an error statement,
1. Alarms are given if any parameter deviates from the allowed region, and correlations between parameters are easily
obtained.
2. Online transverse stability (GM) is measured and displayed from the rolling period, and parametric rolling probability
5. is calculated based on actual roll and pitch parameters. 2
3. The system should be used to give useful information to masters on possible actions such as ballasting, changing
course etc.
4. The system is based on dedicated sensors such as Long Base Strain Gauges, Accelerometers (measuring Pounding
and Slamming) and inclinometers. The Hull stress monitoring should not be integrated with a stress and stability
software.
6. HSMS: Limitations of LBSG Sensors; find an error statement, 2
1. Sensors for strain and fatigue are either SBSG (Short Base Strain Gauge, 100 mm) or LBSG (Long Base Strain
Gauge, 1700 mm).
2. The aim being to measure the longitudinal strain, the LBSGs are oriented in longitudinal direction
3. For the sections at 0.25 L from the bow and from the stern, the measurements on only one side of the deck do not
allow to distinguish between the horizontal and vertical bending.
4. The hypothesis adopted is actually that the horizontal bending in 0.25L sections are Not negligible.
HSMS: Limitations of LBSG Sensors; identify the major limitation of the sensor,
1. For the amidships section, the measurements on the two sides of the deck give an estimate of the horizontal and
vertical bending of the ship’s girder. This estimate is global for the section where the LBSGs are located but concerns
only this section.
7. 1
2. A LBSG measures the strain in only one direction. The shear strains are therefore not measured.
3. The vertical static shear strains are assessed by the loading computer.
4. Vessels with large deck openings, like container ships or “box” bulk carriers, are subject to significant torsional shear
strains, which add to the vertical shear strains. These torsional strains are estimated by computation for given sea
states.
HSMS: Limitations of LBSG Sensors; find an error statement,
1. Sensors for strain and fatigue are either SBSG (Short Base Strain Gauge, 100 mm) or LBSG (Long Base Strain
8. Gauge, 1700 mm). 2
2. The aim being to measure the longitudinal strain, the LBSGs are oriented in athwartships direction
3. LBSG sensors are located on deck to measure the longitudinal strain of hull girder.
4. A LBSG gives the value of the strain averaged between its two ends.
The HSMS sensors specified by IMO are as follows: which one of these will be measuring the roll and sway?
1. Long-based gauges for strain measurements, located on the main deck at different positions along the ship’s length,
to detect stresses
2. The gauges for strain measurement should be located on the main deck in way of each cargo hold and, if necessary,
9. 1
at the location where the maximum hull girder wave bending stress
3. One accelerometer for measuring vertical accelerations at the bow.
4. Two accelerometers for, suitably located at the center line of the ship.
5. The system should include: An electronic data storage recording device suitable for accumulating statistical
information for feedback purposes.
The minimal HSMS set of sensors specified by almost all Class Societies for Tankers, Bulk Carriers and General Cargo ships:
Identify an error statement,
10. 1. One LBSGs at amidships, port and starboard, on the deck, 2

2. One LBSG at 0.25 L from the bow, on the deck,
3. One LBSG at 0.25 L from the stern, on the deck,
4. One vertical accelerometer located at the bow.
HSMS set of sensors - Ships with large deck openings like container ships are usually Not equipped with:
11. 1. Six LBSGs at amidships, port and starboard, on the deck and close to the bottom, 1
2. One LBSG at 0.25 L from the bow, on the deck,
3. One vertical accelerometer located at the bow.
Fiber Optic Sensors. Identify one major benefit of this type of sensors:
1. In a hull stress monitoring technology that uses fiber optics, the sensors are completely resistant to electrical
interference
12. 2
2. Considerably less cabling is required to install a hull stress monitoring system.
3. The sensors are very small - just 250 microns in diameter and a few millimeters long - and a large number can be
fitted on a single optical fiber.
4. Being factory calibrated the sensors need no maintenance.
13. HSMS can be linked to other internal or external systems; find an error statement, 1
1. The loading computer

2. Generate fuel bunker supply request for Low Sulfur Fuel based on tank soundings
3. Onboard or external wave measurement
4. Propulsion data (propeller RPM, fuel consumption, speed)
5. Onboard or ashore route planning
Bow Accelerometer. Find an error statement,
1. The aim of the measurement of the vertical acceleration at the bow is to estimate the impact of the water on the
forefoot of the vessel.
14. 2
2. This is used for detecting the occurrence of slamming.
3. This measurement can be useful to determine whether structural damage, detected by others means, has been
produced by a slam.
4. The sensor can directly give the information about the occurrence of damage.
The adaptation of HSMS to the VDR functions. Identify the reason for having the VDR,
1. VDR acts only as a recorder, the main evolution that will allow the VDR to perform its function for structural damage
lies in the HSMS.
15. 1
2. For safety purposes, some ship structures are monitored with a Hull Structure Monitoring Systems (HSMS) and its
outputs are recorded in the VDR.
3. The function of VDRs is to support of an accident investigation.
4. VDR secondary function is a posteriori operational analysis.
Identify the parts of the HSMS:
16. 2
Y Z M
1 Processor/Display/Recorder Zener barriers Processor/Display/Recorder
2 Signal Conditioner Processor/Display/Recorder UPS
3 UPS UPS Signal Conditioner
4 Zener barriers Signal Conditioner Zener barriers
7 Midship LB strain gauge Midship LB strain gauge Midship LB strain gauge
9 Accelerometer Accelerometer Accelerometer
10 Pressure Transducer Pressure Transducer Pressure Transducer
1. Y
2. Z
3. M
17. Principle of operation of the fiber optic HSMS; find an error statement, 1
1. A fiber Bragg grating (FBG) is a periodic modulation of the index of refraction in the core of an optical fiber.
2. Knowing the filter’s transmission wavelength at the point in time when we detect light reflected by a Bragg grating
enables us to determine the strain at several Bragg grating sensors reflecting different wavelengths of light.
3. FBGs are especially well suited for distributed strain sensing because a large number of sensor elements are not
included in a single fiber (multiplexed)
4. By illuminating the sensor fiber with a broadband optical source, we can perform quasi-distributed strain sensing with
many point sensors on a single fiber.
Class Notations-The ABS class notations are represented by the symbols HM1, HM2, HM3 and +R and a notation inside
each symbol. Which one will be the most important and major choice for a bulk carrier?
18. 1. HM1: Motion Monitoring Notations: Slam Warning; Green Seas Warning; Ship Motion 2
2. HM2: Stress Monitoring Notations: Hull Girder Stress; Local Stress Monitor; Fatigue Monitor
3. HM3: Voyage Data Recording Notations: Compliance with the IMO A.861(20) resolution; 24 hours of recording; Four
hours of UPS ; Recording of the raw data, except for the radar.
19. Principle of operation of the fiber optic HSMS- scanning Fabry-Perot filter technique: identify the correct column of 2
activities,
Knowing the filter’s transmission wavelength at the point in time when we detect -------A----- reflected by a Bragg
grating enables us to determine the strain at a number of -------B-------, reflecting different ---C-----.
The region containing the modulation, acts as a selective filter that passes all but a narrow band of light when
illuminated by a broadband optical source.
The narrow wavelength-band is reflected, and the -----D--------- of the band, the----E--------, is determined by the
periodicity of the modulation.
Axially stretching the fiber in the region of the modulation affects the periodicity, the fiber grating lends itself
naturally to ------F------ as the Bragg wavelength shifts linearly with the applied axial strain.
X Y Z M
A Wavelengths of light Light Strain sensing Bragg wavelength
B Bragg grating sensors Bragg grating sensors Bragg grating sensors Light
C Light Wavelengths of light Wavelengths of light Bragg grating sensors
D Bragg wavelength Center wavelength Center wavelength Wavelengths of light
E Center wavelength Bragg wavelength Bragg wavelength Center wavelength
F Strain sensing Strain sensing Light Strain sensing
1. X
2. Y
3. Z
4. M
Answer Key
Mandated by the IMO and included in SOLAS regulations, structural stress and fatigue monitoring systems have in fact been
1.
used for providing real-time safety warnings on large and specialist vessels for more than two decades.
2. Real-time data from these sensors is provided for immediate use and for the evaluation of the course and/or speed changes.
In a hull stress monitoring technology that uses fiber optics, the sensors are completely resistant to electrical interference
4.
and passive
The system is based on dedicated sensors such as Long Base Strain Gauges, Accelerometers (measuring Pounding and
5.
Slamming) and inclinometers. The Hull stress monitoring should not be integrated with a stress and stability software.
6. The hypothesis adopted is actually that the horizontal bending in 0.25L sections are Not negligible.
7. A LBSG measures the strain in only one direction. The shear strains are therefore not measured.
8. The aim being to measure the longitudinal strain, the LBSGs are oriented in athwartships direction
9. Two accelerometers for, suitably located at the center line of the ship.
10. One LBSGs at amidships, port and starboard, on the deck,
11. Six LBSGs at amidships, port and starboard, on the deck and close to the bottom,
The sensors are very small - just 250 microns in diameter and a few millimeters long - and a large number can be fitted on
12.
a single optical fiber.
13. Generate fuel bunker supply request for Low Sulfur Fuel based on tank soundings
14. The sensor can directly give the information about the occurrence of damage.
15. The function of VDRs is to support of an accident investigation.
16. M
FBGs are especially well suited for distributed strain sensing because a large number of sensor elements are not included in
17.
a single fiber (multiplexed)
18. HM2: Stress Monitoring Notations: Hull Girder Stress; Local Stress Monitor; Fatigue Monitor
19. Y
Find an incorrect statement,
1. The delivered horsepower is usually 95%-98% of the Brake Horsepower, depending on the propulsion system.
1. 1
2. The propeller converts the rotational power into useful thrust.
3. THP – “Thrust Horsepower” is the power from the propeller thrust.
4. THP is equal to the product of the speed of ship and the thrust generated by the propeller.
Fill in the blanks from given selection:

EHP – “Effective Horsepower” is the power required to move the ship’s hull at a given speed in the ----------------of
propeller action.
2. 1
1. Absence
2. Presence
3. Direction
4. Kinetics
Ships are often designed to carry a certain amount of payload (weight and volume) at a given speed. The design of
a ship is a trade-off between a sphere (minimal wetted area) and a toothpick (minimum viscous coefficient), with
suitable concerns for stability and seakeeping added in. Find the incorrect statement,
1. Reducing Viscous Resistance for a design is to reduce the coefficient of viscous resistance or to decrease the
3. 1
surface area for a given volume.
2. A sphere has the smallest wetted surface area per unit volume but would create a lot of waves at the surface.
3. Increasing the length of a ship, and reducing beam for a given speed tend to increase the viscous resistance
coefficient
4. Increasing the length of a ship and reducing beam for a given speed tend to increase wetted surface area.
1. EHP – “Effective Horsepower” is the power required to move the ship’s hull at a given speed in the absence of
propeller action.
4. 2. EHP is equal to the product of the resistance of a ship and the speed of the ship. 1
3. EHP is equal to the Brake Horsepower minus losses due to the gearbox, shafting and propeller, excepting the
effects of interaction between the propeller and the hull.
4. EHP is equal to the Brake Horsepower minus losses due to the gearbox, shafting and propeller, as well as
interaction between the propeller and the hull.
1. The gear, shaft and propeller efficiencies are all affected due to mechanical or fluid losses.
2. “Hull Efficiency” includes the interaction between the hull and the propeller, which varies with ship type.
5. 3. Instead of having to deduce the effect of all the separate efficiencies of each component in the drive train, the 1
separate efficiencies are often combined into a single efficiency called the propulsive efficiency (ηP) or
propulsive coefficient (PC).
4. The propulsive efficiency is the ratio of indicated horsepower to shaft horsepower, therefore allowing the
designer to make a direct determination of the shaft horsepower required to be installed in the ship.
6. Find an incorrect assumption: Given the plot of a model test, 1
1. Model testing is carried out over the speed range of the ship with resistance data collected at each testing
speed.
2. Effective horsepower is calculated and plotted.
3. Speed and power are linearly related
4. It will be observed from the plot that the doubling of speed from 7 to 14 knots increases the power by a factor
of 10
7. Find the correct labelling selection: 1
X Y Z M
Select
A Viscous Resistance Air resistance Total Resistance Viscous Resistance
B Wavemaking Resistance Wavemaking Resistance Air resistance Wavemaking Resistance
C Total resistance Viscous Resistance Wavemaking Resistance Air Resistance
D Air Resistance Total resistance Viscous Resistance Total Resistance
1. X
2. Y
3. Z
4. M
1. The propulsive efficiency is the ratio of effective horsepower to shaft horsepower, therefore allowing the
8. 2. Once a value of shaft horsepower has been determined, various combinations of prime movers can be 1
considered based on power produced, weight, fuel consumption, etc for installation in the ship.
3. A “prime mover” is another term for an engine or motor (i.e., a source of mechanical power).
4. Common prime mover types include steam turbines, gas turbines engines, diesel engines, and electric
motors; of which the gas turbines are the most poweful.

BHP – “Brake Horsepower” is the ---------------- of the engine. It is called “brake” because engines are tested by
applying a mechanical load to the shaft using a brake.
9. 1
1. power output
2. power input
3. torque output
4. brake input
Find an error statement, for wavemaking resistance:
10. 1
1. Unlike the simple wave pattern developed by a moving pressure point, a real ship creates many wave
systems, most prominently the bow and stern wave systems
2. As ship speed increases and wave height increases, wave making resistance becomes less dominant.
3. The effects waves have on eachother waves as they collide and overlap is called constructive (adding) or
destructive (reducing) interference.
4. Wave theory states that the energy in a wave is proportional to the square of the wave height.
11. Find the correct answer: 1

Given,
Model testing has determined that a ship has an EHP of 21, 000 kW at a speed of 16 knots. Assuming a propulsive
efficiency of 70%, what SHP is required to be installed to achieve 16 knots?
1. 35,000 kW
2. 32,000 kW
3. 30,000 kW
4. 33,000 kW

The reduction gear reduces the RPM of the engine to an efficient ----A---------, such as reducing from a few
thousand RPM for ------B------- to few hundred RPM for a warship.
X Y Z M
select
A Shaft Speed Shaft Speed Propeller speed Diesel Engine

12. 1
B Gas turbines Diesel Engine Gas turbines Propeller speed
1. X
2. Y
3. Z
4. M
1. Reducing Viscous Resistance for a design is to reduce the coefficient of viscous resistance or to increase the
13. 1
surface area for a given volume.
2. A sphere has the smallest wetted surface area per unit volume but would create a lot of waves at the surface.
3. Increasing the length of a ship, and reducing beam for a given speed tend to reduce the viscous resistance
coefficient
4. Increasing the length of a ship, and reducing beam for a given speed tend to increase wetted surface area.
1. Reducing Viscous Resistance for a design is to reduce the coefficient of viscous resistance or to decrease the
14. surface area for a given volume. 1
2. A sphere has the smallest wetted surface area per unit volume but would not create a lot of waves at the
surface.
3. Increasing the length of a ship, and reducing beam for a given speed tend to reduce the viscous resistance
coefficient
4. Increasing the length of a ship, and reducing beam for a given speed tend to increase wetted surface area.
Find an error statement for wavemaking resistance:
1. One major component of hull resistance is the resistance due to wave making.
2. The creation of waves requires energy. As ship speed increases, the height of the waves produced by the ship
15. increases and therefore the energy required to produce these waves also increases. 1
3. The lost energy is referred to as wave making resistance and often becomes a limiting factor in the speed of a
ship.
4. An object moving through the water creates both divergent waves, which spread inwards from the ship,
together with transverse waves
16. Fill in the blanks from given selection: 1

DHP – “Delivered Horsepower” is the power delivered to the ----------------, which includes the losses due to the
gearbox, the bearings, and the stern tube seal.
1. Thrust Collar
2. Ship’s Hull
3. Propeller
4. Tail Shaft
1. Effective horsepower is often determined through model data obtained from towing tank experimentation.
2. In towing tank experiments, a hull model is towed through the water at a given speed while measuring the
17. 1
amount of force resisting the hull’s movement through the water.
3. Knowing a ship’s friction resistance and its speed through the water, the ship’s effective horsepower can be
determined
4. Model resistance data can then be scaled up to full-scale ship resistance.

For external flow over flat plates (or ship hulls), typical Reynolds number magnitudes are as follows:
1. Laminar flow: Rn < 5 x 105

18. 1
2. Turbulent flow: Rn > 1 x 106
3. Transition from Laminar to Turbulent Flow: 5 x 105< Rn < 1 x 106
4. Ships have laminar flow over nearly their entire length except when operating at very low speeds.

SHP – “Shaft Horsepower” is equal to the --------A------ minus any -------B-------- in the reduction gear.
X Y Z M
select
A Indicated Power Brake Horsepower Indicated Power Brake Horsepower
19. 1
B Brake Horsepower Mechanical losses Hysteresis Losses Indicated Power
1. X
2. Y
3. Z
4. M
Find an error statement for wavemaking resistance:
1. One major component of hull resistance is the resistance due to wave making.
2. The creation of waves requires energy. As ship speed increases, the height of the waves produced by the ship
20. increases and therefore the energy required to produce these waves also increases. 1
3. The lost energy is referred to as wave making resistance and often becomes a limiting factor in the carrying
capacity of a ship.
4. An object moving through the water creates both divergent waves, which spread outward from the ship, and
also transverse waves
21. Simplified ship drive train. Identify correct labelling. 1
Labels X Y Z M
A Brake Horsepower Shaft Horsepower Shaft Horsepower Brake Horsepower
B Shaft Horsepower Brake Horsepower Brake Horsepower Shaft Horsepower
C Thrust Horsepower Delivered Horsepower Thrust Horsepower Delivered Horsepower
D Delivered Horsepower Thrust Horsepower Delivered Horsepower Thrust Horsepower
Select:
1. X
2. Y
3. Z
4. M
1. EHP – “Effective Horsepower” is the power required to move the ship’s hull at a given speed in the presence of
propeller action.
22. 2. EHP is equal to the product of the resistance of a ship and the speed of the ship. 1
4. Ordinarily in design, the Effective Horsepower is estimated first before the efficiencies are assumed for each
portion of the drivetrain to estimate the required Brake Horsepower to be installed.
1. The gear, shaft and propeller efficiencies are all affected due to mechanical or fluid losses.
2. “Hull Efficiency” includes the interaction between the hull and the propeller, which does not vary with ship
type.
23. 1
3. Instead of having to deduce the effect of all the separate efficiencies of each component in the drive train, the
separate efficiencies are often combined into a single efficiency called the propulsive efficiency (ηP) or
propulsive coefficient (PC).
4. The propulsive efficiency is the ratio of effective horsepower to shaft horsepower, therefore allowing the
24. Find an incorrect statement, 1

1. EHP – “Effective Horsepower” is the power required to move the ship’s hull at a given speed in the absence of
propeller action.
2. EHP is equal to the product of the resistance of a ship and the speed of the ship.
4. Ordinarily in design, the Effective Horsepower is estimated last before the efficiencies are assumed for each
portion of the drivetrain to estimate the required Brake Horsepower to be installed.

The power of a rotating engine is the product of the -----A------ and the ------B---------
Resistance
Torque
Indicated power
Rotational speed
select X Y Z M
25. 1
A Torque Resistance Indicated power Resistance
B Rotational speed Rotational speed Torque Torque
1. X
2. Y
3. Z
4. M
1. The propeller cannot convert the rotational power into useful thrust.
26. 1
2. THP – “Thrust Horsepower” is the power from the propeller thrust.
3. THP is equal to the product of the speed of advance and the thrust generated by the propeller.
4. The thrust power includes the losses of the gearbox, shafting, and propeller.
1. The delivered horsepower is usually 95%-98% of the Brake Horsepower, depending on the propulsion system.
27. 1
2. The propeller converts the rotational power into useful thrust.
3. THP – “Thrust Horsepower” is the power from the propeller rotation
4. THP is equal to the product of the speed of advance and the thrust generated by the propeller.
Answer Key
1. THP is equal to the product of the speed of ship and the thrust generated by the propeller.
2. Absence
Increasing the length of a ship, and reducing beam for a given speed tend to increase the viscous resistance
3.
coefficient
EHP is equal to the Brake Horsepower minus losses due to the gearbox, shafting and propeller, excepting the effects
4.
of interaction between the propeller and the hull.
The propulsive efficiency is the ratio of indicated horsepower to shaft horsepower, therefore allowing the designer to
5.
make a direct determination of the shaft horsepower required to be installed in the ship.
6. Speed and power are linearly related
7. M
Common prime mover types include steam turbines, gas turbines engines, diesel engines, and electric motors; of
8.
which the gas turbines are the most poweful.
9. power output
10. As ship speed increases and wave height increases, wave making resistance becomes less dominant.
11. 30,000 kW
12. Z
Reducing Viscous Resistance for a design is to reduce the coefficient of viscous resistance or to increase the surface
13.
area for a given volume.
14. A sphere has the smallest wetted surface area per unit volume but would not create a lot of waves at the surface.
An object moving through the water creates both divergent waves, which spread inwards from the ship, together
15.
with transverse waves
16. Propeller
Knowing a ship’s friction resistance and its speed through the water, the ship’s effective horsepower can be
17.
determined
18. Ships have laminar flow over nearly their entire length except when operating at very low speeds.
19. Y
The lost energy is referred to as wave making resistance and often becomes a limiting factor in the carrying capacity
20.
of a ship.
21. M
EHP – “Effective Horsepower” is the power required to move the ship’s hull at a given speed in the presence of
22.
propeller action.
23. “Hull Efficiency” includes the interaction between the hull and the propeller, which does not vary with ship type.
Ordinarily in design, the Effective Horsepower is estimated last before the efficiencies are assumed for each portion
24.
of the drivetrain to estimate the required Brake Horsepower to be installed.
25. X
26. The propeller cannot convert the rotational power into useful thrust.
27. THP – “Thrust Horsepower” is the power from the propeller rotation
The ship’s model estimates the:_____
1. Hull Frictional Resistance.

1. 2
2. Surface resistance from dented hull.
3. Hull Wave Making Resistance
Why does the frictional resistance increase when the draft increases?
1. Dead weight of the vessel increases.

2. 2
2. Length of water plane increases.
3. Wetted surface increases.
4. Temperature of water reduces as draft increases.
Answer Key
1. Hull Wave Making Resistance

2. Wetted surface increases.
Speed of advancement is defined as:--
1. velocity of ship
1. 2
2. velocity of advance condition
3. Axial velocity of propeller w.r.t adjoining water flow.
4. Axial velocity of propeller w.r.t fixed object.
Answer Key
1. Axial velocity of propeller w.r.t adjoining water flow.
The actual speed of a ship is...
1. less than the theoretical speed of the ship

1. 2. greater than the theoretical speed of the ship 2
3. less than or greater than the theoretical speed of the ship
4. equal to, less or greater than the theoretical speed of the ship
The difference between the theoretical speed and the actual speed of the ship is called the...
1. apparent slip
2. 2. true slip 2
3. negative slip
4. wake speed
Apparent slip is defined as, s= :--
1. s = (PN- V_S)/V_
3. 2
2. s = (PN- V_a)/PN
3. s
4. s = (PN- V_a)/V_
Answer Key
1. less than the theoretical speed of the ship

2. apparent slip
3. s
The distance between the bottom of the keel and the waterline is called:_____
1. Tonnage
1. 1
2. Reserve buoyancy
3. Draught
4. Freeboard.
The greatest breadth of the ship measure to the inside of the shell plating is known as ___________
1. Breadth extreme
2. 1
2. Breadth absolute
3. Breadth moulded
4. Breadth perpendiculars
Answer Key
1. Draught
2. Breadth moulded
If there are two similar cubical figures with displacements (Δ1 /Δ2) and surface areas (S1, S2). In this
case, Δ1 /Δ2 =
1. 1. (S1/S2)1/2 2
2. (S1/S2)2/3
3. S1/S2
4. (S1/S2)3/2
Assume two similar cubical figures with displacements (Δ1 /Δ2) and drafts (d1, d2). In this case, Δ1 /
Δ2 =
2. 1. (d1/d2)1/2 2
2. (d1/d2)3
3. d1/d2
4. (d1/d2)1/3
Consider two similar cubical figures with lengths (L1, L2) and volumes (V1, V2). In this case, V1/V2=
1. (L1/L2)3
3. 2
2. (L1/L2)2
3. L1/L2
4. (L1/L2)1/3
Consider two similar rectangular figures with lengths (L1, L2) and areas (A1, A2). In this case, A1/A2=
1. (L1/L2)3
4. 2
2. (L1/L2)2
3. L1/L2
4. (L1/L2)1/3
Assume two similar cubical figures with lengths (L1, L2) and drafts (d1, d2). In this case, L1/L2=
1. (d1/d2)2
5. 2
2. (d1/d2)1/3
3. d1/d2
4. (d1/d2)2/3
Answer Key
1. (S1/S2)3/2
2. (d1/d2)3
3. (L1/L2)3
4. (L1/L2)2
5. d1/d2
Static water pressure on the hull of a ship is greatest at the
1. bow
1. 1
2. stern
3. boot topping
4. keel
Answer Key
1. keel
Block coefficient of crude oil carrier is between:_____
1. 1. 0.7-0.75 1
2. 0.75 to 0.85
3. 0.9 - 0.95
4. 1-1.05.
The main dimension of a vessel is 150 m long, 30 m beam and is floating at draft 10 m. The block
coefficient and mid-ship section coefficients are 0.86 and 0.95 respectively. A constant section,
length 30 m, is added at mid-ship. Find the new block coefficient.
2. 2
1. 0.925
2. 0.9
3. 0.875
4. 0.85
What is block coefficient?
1. The ratio of the volume of the displacement of a ship to that of a rectangular block having the
same length, breadth and draft
3. 1
2. ratio of the underwater volume of ship to the volume of water displaced
3. ratio of the total volume of the ship to the water displaced
4. Ratio of the underwater volume to maximum volume of ship
Answer Key
1. 0.9 - 0.95
2. 0.875
The ratio of the volume of the displacement of a ship to that of a rectangular block having the same
3.
length, breadth and draft
Why TPC is not constant for ship like structure along the draft?
1. Length between the perpendiculars changes as draft changes.

1. 2
2. AWP of the water plane varies along draft of ship.
3. The TPC of a ship varies with its draught.
4. Draft of any floating structure does not influence the value of TPC.
Answer Key
1. The TPC of a ship varies with its draught.
The main dimension of a vessel is 150 m long, 30 m beam and is floating at draft 10 m. The block
coefficient and mid-ship section coefficients are 0.86 and 0.95 respectively. A constant section,
length 30 m, is added at mid-ship. Find the new block coefficient.
1. 2
1. 0.925
2. 0.900
3. 0.875
4. 0.85
Answer Key
1. 0.875
Curves of immersed cross-sectional area of a ship, plotted against draught for each transverse
section, are known as:_________
1. Cross curves of Stability

1. 1
2. Displacement Curves
3. Bonjean Curves.
4. Hydrostatic Curves
Answer Key
1. Bonjean Curves.
What standard mathematical formula is commonly used to calculate a vessels water plane area for
stability purposes?
1. 1. Reynolds Number Rule 1

2. Simpsons Rule
3. Pythagorean Rule
4. Standard Logarithmic Rule
Answer Key
1. Simpsons Rule
Find the TPC when offset of water plane is as follows:

Station AP 2 3 4 5 FP, breadth (m) 0.9 1.5 2.1 1.6 0.9 0.1
Length of water plane is 15 meters.
1. 2
1. 0.2 t/cm
2. 0.3 t/cm
3. 0.4 t/cm
4. 0.5 t/cm
Transverse areas at different stations are given as follows:

AP 1 3 4 FP 3.4 m2 4.1 m2 5.8 m2 2.8 m2 1.4 m2
Length of the vessel is 24m. Find the Displacement of vessel;
2. 2
1. 350.0 tonnes.
2. 382.8 tonnes
3. 360.1 tonnes
4. 345.2 tonnes.
Find TPC of a vessel whose breadths of the water plane as follows:

Station: AP 1 2 3 4 FP, Breadths (M) 1.0 1.44 1.55 1.33 0.89 0.2
Length between perpendiculars is 14 meters.
Consider the nearest value.
3. 2
1. 0.56 tonnes/cm.
2. 0.65 tonnes/cm
3. 0.34 tonnes/cm
4. 0.43 tonnes/cm
Find the Cw of the following AP-2-3-4-Fp 0.6-1.1-1.6-0.9-0.1 Breadth is 15
1. 0.82
4. 2
2. 0.72
3. 0.62
4. 0.52
Find the TPC of the water plane. Length between perpendiculars is 15 m. Station: AP 2 3 4 FP ??
breadth (m): 0.6 1.1 1.6 0.9 0.1
1. 0.5 tonnes/cm
5. 2
2. 0.4 tonnes/cm
3. 0.3 tonnes/cm.
4.
d( 0.2 tonnes/cm
Find centre of buoyancy from Aft , L=18 AP ,1 2 3 4 , FP Breadth 2.4, 3.1,4.8, 1.8, 0.8, 0.1
1. 7.876 from aft.

6. 2
2. 5.876 from aft
3. 6.627 from aft
4. 5.123 from aft.
Answer Key
1. 0.4 t/cm
2. 360.1 tonnes
3. 0.34 tonnes/cm
4. 0.62
5. 0.3 tonnes/cm.
6. 6.627 from aft
The Simpson’s first rule is applicable in case of _______________ number of ordinates.
1. One
1. 2
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
The Simpson’s first rule is applicable in case of _______________ number of ordinates.
1. Four
2. 2. Five 2
3. Eight
4. Ten
Which of the following is the equation of the curve used in case of the Simpson's first rule?
1. y = bx + c
3. 2. y = ax2 + bx + c 2
3. y = ax2
4. y = ax3 + bx2 + cx + d
Which of the following shows the correct sequence of Simpson's multipliers used in case of the
Simpson's first rule?
1. 1 3 3 2 3 3 1
4. 2. 1 1 4 2
3. 1 4 2 4 1
4. 5 8 1
The following correctly demonstrates the formula for the Simpson's First Rule.
1. Area = (3h/8) (Sum of Products)

5. 2. Area = (h/2) (Sum of Products) 2
3. Area = (5h/8) (Sum of Products)
4. Area = (h/3) (Sum of Products)
Answer Key
1. Three
2. Five
3. y = ax2 + bx + c
4. 1 4 2 4 1
5. Area = (h/3) (Sum of Products)
Half breadths are also called _______
1. X - axis
1. 2. Y – axis 2
3. Ordinates
4. Semi abscissa
5. Semi ordinates
The transverse, underwater and equidistant cross sections of the vessel along the length are
provided. The following can be calculated (choose the best answer).
1. Underwater volume
2. 2. Displacement 2
3. Water plane areas
4. Only 1 and 2 above
5. All of the above
Simpson’s rules can be used for calculating all of the following, except _______
1. Areas
3. 2
2. Volumes
3. Circumferences
4. Center of Floatation
The TPC of the vessel at various drafts at equidistant level is provided. The following can be
calculated (choose the best answer).
1. Underwater volume
4. 2. Displacement 2
3. Water plane areas
5. All of the above
In the Simpson’s formula, Area = Kh (sum of products), “h” is called the
1. Y – axis
2. Common interval
5. 2
3. Full interval
4. Semi ordinate
5. Simpson’s multiplier
Answer Key
1. Semi abscissa
3. Circumferences
4. All of the above
5. Common interval
The actual mass of the ship without Fuel, Passengers, Cargo, stores, fresh water, ballast, crew, and
baggage of passengers and crew, etc on board is known as :
1. 1. Deadweight. 1
2. Tonnage
3. Lightweight
4. Displacement.
What is gross tonnage of the ship?
1. Measurement of total capacity expressed in volumetric tonnes

2. 2. Total tonnage the ship can carry 1
3. Total weight of the ship including cargo in tonnes
4. Total Volume of the ship from keel to the uppermost continous deck
The weight of the liquid displaced by a vessel floating in sea water is equal to:--
1. The weight required to sink the vessel.

3. 1
2. Reserve buoyancy
3. Total weight of the vessel.
4. Displaced submerged volume.
Answer Key
1. Lightweight
2. Total Volume of the ship from keel to the uppermost continous deck
3. Total weight of the vessel.
After transferring a weight forward on a vessel, the draft at the center of flotation will
1. change, depending on the location of the LCG

1. 1
2. decrease
3. increase
4. remain the constant
How ship floats in water?
1. Newton’s Law
2. 2. Bernoulli’s theorem 1
3. By Archimedes’ principle
4. Laws of flotation
Answer Key
1. remain the constant

2. Laws of flotation
Reducing the free surfaces within a vessel, reduces the:______
1. Uncorrected height of the centre of gravity.

1. 1
2. Waterplane area
3. Natural roll period
4. Metacentric height.
Which of the below statements about the free surface effect is TRUE?
1. It increases in direct proportion to the length of the tank times the breadth squared.
2. 2
2. In practice, the correction is considered to be a virtual reduction of KG.
3. It decreases at increased angles of heel due to pocketing when a tank is 90% full.
4. It decreases in direct proportion to increasing specific gravity of the liquid in the tank.
Which statement about the free surface correction is TRUE?
1. It is added to the uncorrected GM to arrive at the corrected available GM.

3. 2
2. It is obtained by dividing the free surface moments by 12 times the volume of displacement.
3. The virtual loss of GM can be calculated quite easily and is called free surface correction (FSC).
4. It is obtained by dividing the total free surface by the total vertical moments.
The free surface effects of a partially filled liquid tank decrease with increased:______
1. Density of the liquid

4. 2
2. Placement of the tank above the keel.
3. Displacement volume of the ship
4. Size of the surface area in the tank.
Adding the transverse free surface correction to the uncorrected height of the centre of gravity of a
vessel yields: ____________.
5. 1. "FSCT" 1
2. "KG"
3. "KGT"
4. "GMT"
What is free surface effect?
1. it changes the metacentric height

6. 2. it effect the centre of gravity of ship 1
3. it effects the stability of ship
4. all the above
The effects of free surface on initial stability depend upon the dimensions of the surface of the free
liquids and the __________.
7. 1. Volume of liquid in the tank. 2

2. Height of the centre of gravity of the vessel.
3. Volume of displacement of the vessel
4. Location of the tank in the vessel.
Answer Key
1. Natural roll period

2. It decreases at increased angles of heel due to pocketing when a tank is 90% full.
3. The virtual loss of GM can be calculated quite easily and is called free surface correction (FSC).
4. Displacement volume of the ship
5. "KGT"
6. all the above
7. Volume of displacement of the vessel
What is deadweight of the ship?
1. It is the weight of the ship when loaded upto her summer load line
1. 2. Total weight of the ship 1
3. Is a measure of how much cargo a ship can carry safely
4. It is the light weight of the ship
What is lightweight of the ship?
1. The weight of ship and crew and stores

2. the actual weight of the ship with water, fuel and passenger
2. 1
3. the actual weight of the ship
4. the actual weight of the ship, without, fuel, fresh water, passenger, cargo, stores, ballast and
provision
What is dynamic stability?
1. Ship’s ability to right itself

3. 2. It is the ship’s ability to resist external heeling forces 1
3. ship is stable in any dynamic condition
4. Ship remains stable at all times
Answer Key
1. It is the weight of the ship when loaded upto her summer load line
2. the actual weight of the ship, without, fuel, fresh water, passenger, cargo, stores, ballast and provision
3. It is the ship’s ability to resist external heeling forces
The reserve buoyancy of a vessel varies directly in proportion with changes in the vessel's:--
1. Free surface
1. 1
2. Rolling period
3. Freeboard.
The distance between the bottom of the hull and the waterline is called
1. freeboard
2. 1
2. reserve buoyancy
3. draft
4. tonnage
Answer Key
1. Freeboard.
2. draft
The reserve buoyancy of a ship consists of:--
1. The void portion of the ship below the waterline which is enclosed and watertight.
1. 2
2. All cofferdams, double bottoms, and wing tanks that are slack.
3. The part of the enclosed and watertight portion of a vessel above the waterline.
4. The % of the volume of a compartment which can be occupied by water if flooded.
Reserve buoyancy is more in:
1. Fresh water
2. 1
2. Remains same
3. Sea water
4. Brackish water
Position of centre of buoyancy of vessel is at:________
1. Centroid of the full cargo space.

3. 1
2. Centroid of hull where buoyancy is maximum
3. Centroid of underwater volume.
4. Centroid of all masses.
If a vessel loses its reserve buoyancy completely, it will:________
1. Float upright with the main deck awash.

4. 2
2. Capsize and float on its side.
3. Most likely sink.
4. Remain unaffected if the hull remains intact
What is The Effect on RESERVE BUOYANCY when the ship is in Fresh Water (for same Displacement)?
1. Added to draft.
5. 1
2. Decreases
3. Increases.
4. Remains same
The position of centre of buoyancy for box shaped barge is at _________.
1. At waterline.
6. 2
2. Load water line at midship.
3. Half of ship's draught.
4. Summer load line draft.
Answer Key
1. The part of the enclosed and watertight portion of a vessel above the waterline.
2. Sea water
3. Centroid of underwater volume.
4. Most likely sink.
5. Increases.
6. Half of ship's draught.
Buoyancy associated with empty or partly empty ballast tanks in the mat of a mat supported jack-up
MODU during jacking operations can cause
1. capsizing
1. 1
2. delays
4. negative buoyancy
The center of volume of the immersed portion of the vessel is the
2. 1
3. center of buoyancy
4. center of flotation
When a vessel is inclined, the tendency for it to return to its original position is caused by the
1. upward movement of the center of flotation

3. 1
2. movement of the center of gravity
3. increased free surface in the buoyant wedge
4. movement of the center of buoyancy toward the low side of the vessel
During jacking operations and transit, empty void spaces in the hull of a jack up MODU provide
1. buoyancy
4. 2. extra storage space 1
3. additional tank capacity
4. reduced stability
The weight of the liquid displaced by a vessel floating in sea water is equal to the_________.
1. weight required to sink the vessel

5. 2. total weight of the vessel 1
3. displaced volume
4. reserve buoyancy
The water in which a vessel floats provides vertical upward support. The point through which this
support is assumed to act is known as the center of
6. 1. effort 1
2. buoyancy
3. gravity
4. flotation
Buoyancy is a measure of the ship's __________.
1. ability to float
7. 2. deadweight 1
3. freeboard
4. midships strength
Answer Key
1. capsizing
4. buoyancy
5. total weight of the vessel
6. buoyancy
7. ability to float
When a vessel is inclined, the tendency for it to return to its original position is caused by the
1. upward movement of the center of flotation

1. 1
2. movement of the center of gravity
3. increased free surface in the buoyant wedge
The weight of the liquid displaced by a vessel floating in sea water is equal to the_________.
1. weight required to sink the vessel

2. 2. total weight of the vessel 1
3. displaced volume
4. reserve buoyancy
Buoyancy associated with empty or partly empty ballast tanks in the mat of a mat supported jack-up
MODU during jacking operations can cause
1. capsizing
3. 1
2. delays
4. negative buoyancy
The center of volume of the immersed portion of the vessel is the
4. 1
The water in which a vessel floats provides vertical upward support. The point through which this
support is assumed to act is known as the center of
5. 1. effort 1
2. buoyancy
3. gravity
4. flotation
During jacking operations and transit, empty void spaces in the hull of a jack up MODU provide
1. buoyancy
6. 2. extra storage space 1
3. additional tank capacity
4. reduced stability
Buoyancy is a measure of the ship's __________.
1. ability to float
7. 2. deadweight 1
3. freeboard
4. midships strength
Answer Key
2. total weight of the vessel
3. capsizing
5. buoyancy
6. buoyancy
7. ability to float
Which would NOT provide extra buoyancy for a vessel with no sheer?
1. Lighter draft
1. 2. Raised forecastle head 1
3. Raised poop
4. Higher bulwark
The intact volume above the waterline of a floating MODU is ______.
1. displacement volume
2. 2. reserve buoyancy 1
3. gross tonnage
4. net tonnage
The volume of a vessel's intact watertight space above the waterline is its _________.
1. free surface
3. 2. marginal stability 1
3. reserve buoyancy
4. freeboard
Reserve buoyancy is the__________.
1. unoccupied space below the waterline

4. 2. volume of intact space above the waterline 1
3. excess of the buoyant force over the gravity force
4. difference in the buoyant force in salt and fresh waters
Reserve buoyancy is the _____________.
1. Unoccupied space below the waterline.

5. 2
2. Difference between buoyancy in salt and fresh waters
3. volume of intact space above the waterline
4. Excess of the buoyant force over gravitational force.
With damaged floating vessels, the most important consideration is the preservation of _________.
1. bilge pumping capacity

3. level attitude
4. instability
On a semisubmersible MODU, reserve buoyancy is increased by the presence of void spaces above
the waterline in the __________.
1. submerged hulls
7. 1
2. quarters
3. columns and upper structure
4. submerged connecting structures
8. A continual worsening of the list or trim of any floating Barge indicates __________. 1
1. negative GM
3. structural failure
4. an immediate need to counterflood
Keeping the draft of a MODU at or below the load line mark will insure that the unit has adequate
1. reserve ballast
3. lightweight displacement
4. critical motions
The most important consideration in the event the Deep Driller suffers damage is_________.
1. preserve reserve buoyancy

10. 2. advise authorities 1
3. pump from adjacent undamaged compartments
4. counterflood on the opposite corner
When flooding occurs in a damaged vessel, reserve buoyancy _________.
1. decreases
11. 2. remains the same 1
3. increases
4. shifts to the low side
The percentage of the total surface area or volume of a flooded compartment that can be occupied by
water caused by damage is known as_________.
1. one compartment standard

12. 1
3. permeability
4. form gain
Aboard damaged vessels, the MOST important consideration is preserving __________.
1. bilge pumping capacity

3. level attitude
4. instability
To increase the extent of flooding your vessel can suffer without sinking, you could_________.
1. ballast the vessel

14. 2. increase reserve buoyancy 1
3. lower the center of gravity
4. raise the center of gravity
Which is an indication of reserve buoyancy?
15. 2. Righting moment 1
3. Rolling period
4. Freeboard
16. If the ship has large freeboard, it is said to have large:____ 2
1. Free surface.
2. Rolling period
3. Reserve buoyancy.
Reserve buoyancy is__________.
1. also called GM
17. 2. the void portion of the ship below the waterline which is enclosed and watertight 1
3. affected by the number of transverse watertight bulkheads
4. the watertight portion of a vessel above the waterline
In a semisubmersible MODU, the columns contain void spaces above the waterline that used
principally for __________.
1. equipment storage
18. 1
2. machinery
3. elevators
4. reserve buoyancy
Addition of weight to a vessel will ALWAYS
1. reduce reserve buoyancy

19. 2. increase righting moments 1
3. increase GM
4. All of the above
Answer Key
1. Higher bulwark
2. reserve buoyancy
3. reserve buoyancy
6. reserve buoyancy
7. columns and upper structure
9. reserve buoyancy
10. preserve reserve buoyancy
11. decreases
12. permeability
13. reserve buoyancy
14. increase reserve buoyancy
15. Freeboard
16. Reserve buoyancy.
17. the watertight portion of a vessel above the waterline
18. reserve buoyancy
19. reduce reserve buoyancy
For a triangle with apex downwards, D is the depth in meters of the bottom of the vertically
immersed portion from the water surface. B is the length of base of the figure at the liquid level. The
moment of inertia at the neutral axis is given by
1. 1. BD3/36 2
2. BD3/12
3. pD4/64
4. BD3/6
For a rectangular figure, D is the depth in meters of the bottom of the vertically immersed part from
the water surface. B is the length of base of the figure at the liquid level. The moment of inertia at
the neutral axis is given by
2. 1. BD3/36 2
2. BD3/12
3. pD4/64
4. BD3/6
For a rectangular figure, D is the depth in meters of the bottom of the vertically immersed portion
below the water surface. The distance of Center of Pressure from the 0-0 axis (liquid surface) is given
by ________________
3. 2
1. D/3
2. 2D/3
3. D/2
4. D/6
For a circular figure vertically immersed in liquid level which is tangential to the edge of the circular
plane, D is the diameter in meters. The distance of Center of Pressure from the 0-0 axis (liquid
surface) is given by ________________
4. 1. D/3 2
2. 2D/3
3. 5D/8
4. D/6
You must shore up the collision bulkhead due to solid flooding forward. The bulkhead approximates a
triangle. The center of pressure of the shores on the bulkhead should be located _____.
1. Evenly over the surface of the bulkhead

5. 2
2. Approximately one-half the height of the bulkhead
3. Approximately one-third the height of the bulkhead
4. At the bottom of the bulkhead
Answer Key
1. BD3/36
2. BD3/12
3. 2D/3
4. 5D/8
5. Approximately one-half the height of the bulkhead
You are loading in a port subject to the winter load line mark and bound for a port subject to the
tropical load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming four days, and you will enter
the tropical zone after a total of twelve days. You wil
1. 1. 2.286metres 1
2. 2.209metres
3. 2.032metres
4. 1.955metres
You are loading in a port governed by the tropical load line mark for a voyage to a port governed by
the winter mark. The fresh water allowance is 5 inches, and the hydrometer reads 1.005. Which
statement is TRUE?
1. You may load to the tropical mark plus 1 inch brackish water allowance.
2. 1
2. You must load so that each zone mark will not be submerged upon entering the zone.
3. Your draft must not exceed the winter mark plus the fresh water allowance upon arrival off the
discharge port.
4. You may only load to the winter mark plus a brackish water allowance of 4 inches.
the tropical zone after a total of twelve days. You wil
3. 1. 1.98metres 1
2. 1.88metres
3. 1.778metres
4. 1.727metres
You are loading in the winter in Albany, N.Y., for a voyage to a port governed by the tropical load line
mark. Which of the following statements is TRUE? (Hydrometer reading in Albany is 1.000)
1. You may not exceed the winter load line mark when you finish loading except for the burnout to
sea.
2. The freshwater allowance and burnout to sea may be subtracted from the required freeboard in
4. 1
Albany.
3. You may calculate the burnout necessary to reach the tropical zone and load extra cargo to
compensate.
4. You may load to the winter mark less the fresh water allowance if you will be at the tropical
mark upon arrival in the tropical zone.
You are loading in a port subject to the summer load line mark and bound for a port subject to the
tropical load line mark. You will enter the tropical zone after steaming four days. You will consume 33
tonness of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydr
5. 1. 1.98 metres 1
2. 2.10 metres
3. 2.185metres
4. 2.235metres
6. A vessel's tropical load line is 15.24cms. above her summer load line. Her TPC is 50 tonnes. She will 1
arrive in the summer zone 8 days after departure. She will burn off about 47 tonnes/day fuel and water
consumption is 12 tonnes/day. How many tonnes may
1. 376
2. 472
3. 762
4. 1016
You are loading in a port subject to the tropical load line mark and bound for a port subject to the
winter load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming one and one-half days, and you
will enter the winter zone after a total of six days.
7. 1. 2.02Metres 1
2. 1.943metres
3. 1.90metres
4. 1.84metres
A barge of length 6.5 m beam 10.2 m and draft 4m in even keel condition the ship is in water of
density 1.006 t/m3 find the bodily sinkage of the mean draft if the displacement is constant:
8. 1. 0.086. 2
2. 0.075
3. 0.076
4. 0.095
A tanker loads at a terminal within the tropical zone. She will enter the summer zone five days after
departing the loading port. She will burn off about 45 tons/day and daily water consumption is 8 tons.
How many tons may she load over that allowed by he
9. 1. 225 1
2. 235
3. 245
4. 265
winter load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming four days, and you will enter the
winter zone after a total of nine days. You will co
10. 1. 1.84metres 1
2. 1.90 metres
3. 1.955metres
4. 2.03metres
A vessel loaded to summer load line. Summer load line Displacement= 15,000 t, TPC=26.2, ship’s
mean draft= 6.2 m. Ship is going in Winter Region…what is the New Displacement?
11. 1. 14112.3 2
2. 14878.8
3. 14661.6
4. 14870.1
winter load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming one day, and you will enter the
winter zone after a total of eleven days. You will co
12. 1. 2.159metres 1
2. 2.082metres
3. 2.032metres
4. 1.98metres
13. Your vessel is floating in water of density 1010. The fresh water allowance is 8 inches. How far below 1
her marks may she be loaded so as to float at her mark in saltwater of density 1025?
1. 3.2 inches
2. 4.8 inches
3. 6.4 inches
4. 8.0 inches
summer load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming six days. You will consume 32
tons of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrometer r
14. 1. 2.362metres 1
2. 2.286metres
3. 2.057metres
4. 1.778metres
You are loading at port A, governed by the summer load line mark, for a voyage to port B, governed
by the winter mark. The fresh water allowance is 10", and the hydrometer reads 1.020. Which
statement is TRUE?
1. You may not load beyond the winter mark except for 2 inches brackish water allowance.
15. 2. You may not load beyond the summer mark and must be at the winter mark upon arrival at port 1
B.
3. You may not load beyond the summer mark plus 8 inches brackish water allowance.
4. You may load to the summer mark plus 2 inches if you will be at the winter mark when entering
the winter zone.
What is the Fresh Water Allowance?
1. 5TPC cm
16. 1
2. 10TPC cm
3.
4. 20TPC cm
A tanker loads at a terminal within the tropical zone. She will enter the summer zone six days after
departing the loading port. She will burn off 45 tons/day and daily water consumption is 8 tons. How
many tons may she load over that allowed by her summe
17. 1. 270 1
2. 278
3. 291
4. 318
summer load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming two days. You will consume
28 tonnes of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydromet
18. 1. 1.575metres 1
2. 1.67metres
3. 1.70 metres
4. 1.90metres
19. You are loading in a port subject to the summer load line mark and bound for a port subject to the 1
winter load line mark. You will enter the winter zone after steaming four days. You will consume 35
tonnes of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydromete
1. 1.88metres
2. 1.98 metres
3. 2.03metres
4. 2.18metres
The RD solid block of wood is 0.75. All sides are equal to 1.0 m. The block is floating in mercury.
The RD of mercury is 13.4. What will be weight of a steel block just to submerge the block?
20. 1. 15,5 tonnes. 2

2. 14.2 tonnes.
3. 12.65 tonnes
4. 13.5 tonnes
A vessel has a maximum allowable draft of 28 feet in salt water and a fresh water allowance of 8
inches. At the loading berth, the water density is 1.011. To what draft can she load in order to be at her
marks when she reaches the sea? (The salt water den
21. 1. 27' 07.5" 1

2. 27' 08.5"
3. 28' 03.5"
4. 28' 04.5"
You are bound from port A governed by the summer load line mark to port B also governed by the
summer mark. The great circle track will take you into a zone governed by the winter mark. Which
statement is TRUE?
1. You cannot load beyond the summer mark at port A and must be at the winter mark upon arrival
at port B.
22. 2. You can only load to the winter mark plus any fresh water allowance and burnout to sea at port 1
A.
3. You must be at the winter mark when you enter the winter zone and cannot exceed the summer
mark upon departing port A.
4. You can load so that upon arrival at the pier at port B your freeboard is equal to the summer
mark less any fresh water allowance.
A box barge length =35, B=7m, d=3m, in brackish water of density=1.012t/m3 , the length of mid
ship compartment is 10m and full depth. the compartment is bilged, find new draft?
23. 1. 4.1 2
2. 4.3
3. 4.2
4. 4.4
summer load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming ten days. You will consume 33
tonnes of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydromet
24. 1. 1.93metres 1
2. 1.88metres
3. 1.854metres
4. 1.828metres
25. A tanker's mean draft is 9.88 metres. At this draft, the TPc is 79.11. The mean draft after loading 1200 1
tons will be
1. 10.03 metres
2. 10.01 metres
3. 10.02metres
4. 10.28 metres
winter load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming eleven days, and you will enter
the winter zone after a total of fourteen days. You w
26. 1. 1.90metres 1
2. 1.93 metres
3. 2.01metres
4. 2.05metres
winter load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming six days. You will enter the
winter zone after an additional three days. You will con
27. 1. 1.559metres 1
2. 1.638metres
3. 1.793metres
4. 1.971metres
summer load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming four days. You will consume
41 tonnes of fuel, water, and stores per day. The hydrome
28. 1. 1.34 metres 1

2. 1.244metres
3. 1.12metres
4. 1.04metres
winter load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming one day, and you will enter the
winter zone after a total of eight days. You will con
29. 1. 1.80metres 1
2. 1.846metres
3. 2.01metres
4. 2.057metres
winter load line mark. You will enter the summer zone after steaming eight days, and you will enter
the winter zone after a total of ten days. You will co
30. 1. 1.828metres 1
2. 1.778metres
3. 1.727metres
4. 1.625metres
A vessel's mean draft is 9.052.metres At this draft, the TPc is 67.55. The mean draft after loading 1360
tons will be
1. 9.068metres
31. 1
2. 8.280 metres
3. 9.266metres
4. 9.357 metres
32. You are loading in a port subject to the winter load line mark and bound for a port subject to the 1
the tropical zone after a total of seven days. You will
1. 2.16metres
2. 2.286metres
3. 2.336metres
4. 2.386metres
Answer Key
1. 2.286metres
2. You must load so that each zone mark will not be submerged upon entering the zone.
3. 1.98metres
4. The freshwater allowance and burnout to sea may be subtracted from the required freeboard in Albany.
5. 1.98 metres
6. 472
7. 1.943metres
8. 0.076
9. 265
10. 2.03metres
11. 14661.6
12. 2.082metres
13. 4.8 inches
14. 2.057metres
You may load to the summer mark plus 2 inches if you will be at the winter mark when entering the
15.
winter zone.
16.
17. 318
18. 1.90metres
19. 1.88metres
20. 12.65 tonnes
21. 28' 04.5"
You must be at the winter mark when you enter the winter zone and cannot exceed the summer mark
22.
upon departing port A.
23. 4.2
24. 1.828metres
25. 10.03 metres
26. 2.05metres
27. 1.638metres
28. 1.04metres
29. 1.846metres
30. 1.727metres
31. 9.266metres
32. 2.286metres
A barge of length 6.5 m beam 10.2 m and draft 4m in even keel condition the ship is in water of
density 1.006t/m^3 find the bodily sinkage of the mean draft if the displacement is constant
1. 1. 0.086 2
2. 0.095
3. 0.076
4. 0.075
Answer Key
1. 0.076
A box barge length =35, B=7m, d=3m, in brackish water of density=1.012t/m3 , the length of mid
ship compartment is 10m and full depth. the compartment is bilged, find new draft ?
1. 1. 4.3 2
2. 4.4
3. 4.2
4. 4.1
Answer Key
1. 4.2
When flooding occurs in a damaged vessel, reserve buoyancy __________.
1. Shifts to the low side.

1. 1
2. Increases
3. Decreases
4. Remains the same.
Answer Key
1. Decreases
What is Gross Tonnage of the ship?
1. it is the total weight of the ship

1. 2. it is a total tonnage the ship can carry 1
3. it is a nonlinear measure of a ship’s overall internal volume
4. it is the weight of the ship and the weight of the displaced water
The average of the readings of draught taken at all the six positions. Forward (P & S), Midships (P &
S) and Aft (P & S). is known as ___________.
2. 1. Draft at the centre of flotation. 1

2. Mean of the calculated draft
3. Mean draught.
4. True mean draft.
Answer Key
1. it is a nonlinear measure of a ship’s overall internal volume

2. Mean draught.
Aboard ship, vertical flat plates running transversely and connecting the vertical keel to the margin plates are
called _______________.
1. 1. floors 2
2. intercostals
3. girders
4. stringers
Hull plating strakes are generally lettered and numbered as;---
1. Numbered from keel and lettered from aft forward.

2. 2. Lettered from keel and numbered from forward to aft 1
3. lettered from keel upwards and numbered from aft to forward.
4. Numbered from keel and lettered from forward to aft (if deck plating) Letters- centre line to outward
Number - from aft to forward.
Items no. 1 shown in figure below is: --------------
3. 1
1. Deck stringers
2. Deck Transverses
3. Deck Longitudinal
4. Deck Girders
Keel scantlings of any vessel are greatest amidships because __________.
1. Connections between forebody and afterbody are most crucial.

4. 2
2. Resistance to grounding is at a maximum amidships.
3. Of maximum longitudinal bending moments.
4. Of severe racking stresses.
5. When the longitudinal strength members of a Vessel are continuous and closely spaced, the Vessel is 1
____________.
1. Transversely framed.
2. Web framed
3. Longitudinally framed.
4. Intermittently framed.
What is the purpose of cant frames in steel vessels?
1. To support the overhang of the stern

6. 2
2. To provide strength to shell plating at the stern
3. To add strength to the deck beams which support the weather decks
4. To support the plating of a cylindrical tank
Identify the part no. 3 of the given figure:
7. 1
1. Upper deck.
2. Tween deck
3. Deck transverse
4. Deck girder
In a transversely framed ship, the transverse frames are supported by all of the following EXCEPT
__________________.
8. 1. girders 2
2. longitudinals
3. side stringers
4. web plates
9. Transverse frames are more widely spaced on a ship that is designed with : __________. 1
1. Centreline system of framing

2. Isometric system of framing
3. Longitudinal system of framing

4. Transverse system of framing.
Floors aboard ship are _________________.
1. frames to which the tank top and bottom shell are fastened on a double bottomed ship
10. 2
2. transverse members of the ships frame which support the decks
3. longitudinal beams in the extreme bottom of a ship from which the ships ribs start
4. longitudinal angle bars fastened to a surface for strength
The beam of a vessel also refers to the _____.
1. depth between decks

11. 2
2. internal cubic capacity
3. molded depth of the vessel
4. width of the vessel
Floors aboard ship are __________.
1. also called decks

12. 2
2. vertical transverse plates connecting the vertical keel with the margin plates
3. large beams fitted in various parts of the vessel for additional strength
4. found in passenger and berthing spaces only
In ship construction, structural hull members installed athwartship are _____________.
1. deck beams
13. 2
2. stringers
3. girders
4. breasthooks
Compared to internal structural plating, the exterior hull plating on Vessel is usually _____________.
1. A lower grade steel.

14. 1
2. More corrosion resistant.
3. Stronger
4. Thinner.
A deck beam does NOT ____________.
1. act as a beam to support vertical deck loads

15. 2
2. lessen the longitudinal stiffness of the vessel
3. act as a tie to keep the sides of the ship in place
4. act as a web to prevent plate wrinkling due to twisting action on the vessel
A Vessel having continuous closely spaced transverse strength members is _____________.
16. 1
2. Web framed
3. Transversely framed
4. Cellular framed.
17. The floors in a vessels hull structure are kept from tripping, or folding over, by ________________. 2
1. face plates
2. bottom longitudinals
3. longitudinal deck beams
4. transverse deck beams
In ship construction, which of the listed strengthening members act to support the decks?
1. Pillars
18. 2
2. Girders
3. Bulkheads
4. All of the above
When the ships bulkheads are reinforced against bending and bulging, the bulkheads are provided with
____________.
19. 1. stanchions 2
2. girders
3. stiffeners
4. rabbits
The strength of a deck will be increased by adding ________.
1. camber
20. 2
2. deck beam brackets
3. hatch beams
4. sheer
On a Vessel, the deck stringer is the outboard most deck--- ________________.
1. Stanchion.
21. 1
2. Stiffener
3. Plating
4. Beam.
In ship beam bracket are triangular plates joining the deck beam to ---
1. bulkhead
22. 1
2. Stanchion
3. Frame
4. Deck longitudinal.
In merchant ship construction, the term "scantlings" refers to the ____________.
1. factor of safety involved with the hog and sag characteristics of the hull
23. 2
2. hull girder strength in terms of the standard model
3. designed size of the beams, stiffeners, and shell plating
4. ICE strength classification of the hull
Answer Key
1. floors
2. lettered from keel upwards and numbered from aft to forward.
3. Deck Longitudinal
4. Of maximum longitudinal bending moments.
6. To provide strength to shell plating at the stern
7. Deck transverse
8. web plates
9. Longitudinal system of framing
10. frames to which the tank top and bottom shell are fastened on a double bottomed ship
11. width of the vessel
12. vertical transverse plates connecting the vertical keel with the margin plates
13. deck beams
14. Stronger
15. lessen the longitudinal stiffness of the vessel
16. Transversely framed
17. bottom longitudinals
19. stiffeners
20. deck beam brackets
21. Plating
22. Frame
23. designed size of the beams, stiffeners, and shell plating
What is camber of the ship?
1. it is the curvature on both side of the ship

1. 2. it is the slope on both port and starboard side of the ship deck 1
3. It is the measure of lateral main deck curvature
4. It is the curvature of the deck fore and aft
What is limber hole?
1. It is a drain hole in the bulkhead

2. 2. It is drain hole in the transverse 1
3. Is a drain hole through a frame to prevent water from accumulation
4. It is meant to clear water accumulation
What is keel plating?
1. It is the continuous bottom plate of the ship

3. 2. It is a bottom plating extending from the centre plane outboard 1
3. it is the plate connecting with bottom to the hull
4. it is the plate connecting with deck and the hull
The purpose of providing camber is to:
1. Improve the appearance of the ship

4. 2
2. Reduce the volume of water coming on deck
3. Help drain off water from deck easily
4. Help drain tanks to bilges
The purpose providing tumble home is :-----
1. Improve the appearance of ship

5. 2
2. Help drain of water from deck easily
3. Reduces the width of the upper deck.
4. Helps drain tanks to bilges.
Answer Key
1. It is the measure of lateral main deck curvature

2. Is a drain hole through a frame to prevent water from accumulation
3. It is a bottom plating extending from the centre plane outboard
4. Help drain off water from deck easily
5. Reduces the width of the upper deck.
What is “POSITION 1” according to the LOAD LINE RULE?
1. A trunk deck that is less than standard height above the freeboard deck.
1. 2. A superstructure deck or a trunk deck forward of a point one-quarter of the vessel's length 1
from the forward perpendicular.
3. The freeboard deck or a raised quarter-deck.
4. Poop deck.
A load line for a Dredger is assigned by the ______________.
1. Minerals Management Department (MMD)

2. 2
2. Department of Energy (DOE)
3. A recognized classification society approved by the Coast Guard
4. Ministry of Defence
What are draft marks of the ship?
1. These marks are to verify the draft of the ship in any loading condition
3. 2. these marks are the identity of a ship 1
3. these marks are provided to check the height of the ship
4. These marks are in midships part of the ship
Tabular freeboard is based on the vessel's parameter as below:--
1. Draught
4. 1
2. Depth
3. Length
What is summer and winter load line?
1. white mark on the ship’s hull to indicate the depth of the ship
5. 2. Line on surface of water on a ship when loaded to designed draft in different water density 1
3. marking on the ship’s hull to indicate the ship is floating
4. marking which demonstrate the ship is registered
Answer Key
1. The freeboard deck or a raised quarter-deck.

2. A recognized classification society approved by the Coast Guard
3. These marks are to verify the draft of the ship in any loading condition
4. Length
5. Line on surface of water on a ship when loaded to designed draft in different water density
The angular movement of a vessel about a horizontal line drawn from its bow to its stern is
1. heaving
1. 1
2. pitching
3. swaying
4. rolling
A vessel which is subjected to 'hogging'
1. has its main deck plating under tensile stress

2. 1
2. has its main deck under compressive stress
3. has its bottom plating under ductile stress
4. has its bottom plate under tensile stress
Pitching is the rising and falling motion of the bow of a ship oscillating about which axis?
1. Transverse
3. 1
2. Centerline
3. Longitudinal
4. Vertical
Horizontal web plates which support the part of stern formed by radiused plates, between deck, is
known as:
4. 1. Panting stringer 1
2. Breast stringer
3. Breast hook
4. Breast stiffener
What is panting of the ship?
1. when ship’s hull plate undergoes severe stress in rough seas

5. 2. when ship’s hull plate undergoes severe strain under cold climate 1
3. Movement of the deck plating in heavy weather
4. It refers to the tendency of the steel hull plating to flex in and out when ship is pitching
The vertical motion of a floating vessel is known as
1. surge
6. 1
2. pitch
3. heave
4. sway
The horizontal fore and aft movement of a vessel is called
1. surge
7. 1
2. sway
3. heave
4. yaw
Answer Key
1. rolling
2. has its main deck plating under tensile stress
3. Transverse
4. Breast hook
5. It refers to the tendency of the steel hull plating to flex in and out when ship is pitching
6. heave
7. surge
What is transvers Frames?
1. to increases the hogging moment of the ship’s structure

1. 2. frames are used to increase the sagging moment of the ship’s structure 1
3. the frames are closely spaced to furnish most of the strength to the ship’s structure
4. frames are used to increase the stability of the ship
The deck loads on a ship are distributed through the deck beams to the:-
1. Plates.
2. 1
2. stringers.
3. Frames
4. Hull.
In a longitudinally framed ship, the longitudinal frames are held in place and supported by
athwartship members called:--
3. 1. Stringers. 1
2. Brackets
3. Web frames
4. Pillars.
What is hatch coaming?
1. side plates of the hatch

4. 2. the vertical plating bounding a hatch for the purpose of stiffening the edges 1
3. Plate covering the hatch
4. Protection around the hatch
The garboard strake is located:--
1. At the very bottom centre

5. 2
2. Just under the sheer line
3. At each side of the keel
4. At the turn of the bilge
In ship construction, the shell plating is arranged in strakes. The first plate adjacent to the keel is
identified as the:--
6. 1. Keel strake. 1
2. Sheer strake
3. Garboard strake
4. Bilge strake.
The structural members of the hull extending in a fore and aft direction are called:--
1. Frames
7. 1
2. Joiners
3. Longitudinal.
4. Knees
8. In ship construction, the hull frame members extending athwartship are called:-- 1
1. Deck frames
2. Stringer frames.
3. Transverse frames
4. Longitudinal frames.
Support of a ship side plating is provided primarily by transverse:---
1. Beams
9. 1
2. Girders
3. Frames
4. Bulkheads.
What is a longitudinal?
1. Stiffener running fore and aft

10. 2. it is a beam fitted transversely 1
3. it is the beam fitted longitudinally
4. It is a beam fitted on deck
What is duct-keel of the ship and where it is located?
1. the space which runs from forward of the ship under the cargo holds to the forward side of the
engine room
11. 1
2. the space above the keel plate of the ship
3. space between the double bottom tank
4. Space for pipes and cables
What is a floor on a ship?
1. inside of the keel plate

12. 2. inside of the hull plating 1
3. bottom of a tank
4. The lower portion of the transverse frame
Deck beams on a ship are generally spaced at equal intervals and run:-
1. Longitudinally.
13. 1
2. Intermittently.
3. Transversely.
4. vertically.
Compared to internal structural plating, the exterior hull plating on a Vessel is usually
_____________.
14. 1. More corrosion resistant 1

2. Thinner
3. Stronger
4. A lower grade steel.
15. Thickness of strakes of bottom plating is increased in the following regions of the ship---------------- 2
---
1. Pounding region
2. Over 40% of ships length amidships,
3. Both a) and b)
4. Over 40% of ships length forward
Structural members used to support and transmit the downward force of the load and distribute
that force over a large area, are called _________.
16. 1. Pillars 1
2. Stanchions
3. Columns
In ships construction, structural hull members installed athwart ship are:--
1. Breast hooks/
17. 1
2. Girders
3. Deck beams
4. Stringers
The deck plating on a Vessel is supported primarily by deck longitudinal and deck
________________.
18. 1. Girders 1
2. Stanchions
3. Beams
4. Frames.
What is bracket?
1. a plate which connect the floor

19. 2. a plate which join with longitudinal 1
3. a plate which joins the transverse
4. triangular plate to connect deck beam to a frame
Answer Key
1. the frames are closely spaced to furnish most of the strength to the ship’s structure
2. Frames
3. Web frames
4. the vertical plating bounding a hatch for the purpose of stiffening the edges
5. At each side of the keel
6. Garboard strake
7. Longitudinal.
8. Transverse frames
9. Frames
10. Stiffener running fore and aft
the space which runs from forward of the ship under the cargo holds to the forward side of the engine
11.
room
12. The lower portion of the transverse frame
13. Transversely.
14. Stronger
15. Both a) and b)
17. Deck beams
18. Beams
19. triangular plate to connect deck beam to a frame
The most common option for propulsion for a medium to large size merchant ship is a: ----
1. High speed diesel engine with reduction gear.

1. 2
2. 4-stroke, Medium Speed diesel engine with reduction gear.
3. 2-stroke, Slow speed diesel engine directly coupled without reduction gear.
A Suezmax vessel will have the following maximum limitations:
1. B=34 m, d=10 m.
2. 1
2. B=54 m, d=14 m
3. B=50.0 m, d=20.1 m.
4. B=64 m, d=16 m.
The hulls of most modern towing vessels constructed today are fabricated from _______________.
1. Wrought iron
3. 1
2. High alloy steel
3. Mild steel
4. Corrosion resisting steel.
Answer Key
2. B=50.0 m, d=20.1 m.
3. Mild steel
The part “30” indicates _________.
1. 1
1. Bollard
2. Mooring winch
3. Windlass
What is “17” showing in the figure given below?
2. 1
1. On deck girder
2. Lifting gear
3. Foremast
4. Bollard
3. In the diagram given below, “B” represents __________. 1
1. Head under beams

2. Hatch coaming
3. Deckhead
4. Shoring
4. 1
1. Floor ceiling
2. Side ceiling
3. Shoring
4. Lumber boards
5. What is “20” showing in the figure given below? 1
1. Fixed vertical sparring

2. Removable sparring
3. Ceiling sleeper
4. Sparing sleeper
6. What is “G” showing in the figure given below? 1
1. Lumber boards
2. Lashing to hold the boards together

3. Upright position of board
Identify the part “15”.
7. 1
1. Bower anchor
2. Stream anchor
8. What does item “10” refer to the illustration given below? 1
1. Cowl head ventilator

2. Mushroom shaped ventilator
3. Windlass
4. Foremast
9. 1
1. Vertical sparring
2. Ceiling sleeper
3. Horizontal sparring
4. Sparring sleeper
10. What does “19” indicate in the illustration given below? 1
1. Rubbing piece
2. Socket
3. Shell plate
4. Manhole
11. What does figure “16” represent? 1
1. Manhole coaming
2. Manhole steel cover
3. Socket
4. Rubbing piece
1. Ensign staff
2. Jack staff
What does “26” indicate in the diagram given below?
13. 1
1. Rudder
2. Radar mast
3. On deck girder
4. Bollard
1. Rubbing piece
2. Filling board
3. Quarter piller
4. Limber board
15. The part “18” indicates _________. 1
1. Filling board
2. Side frame
3. Quarter piller
4. Limber board
16. In the diagram given below, “2” represents __________. 1
3. Fixed vertical sparring
17. What does “L” indicate in this figure? 1
1. Lower hold
2. Lower tweendeck
3. Head under beams
4. Hatch coaming
18. 1
1. Side frame
2. Rubbing piece
3. Socket
4. Shell plate
19. What is the function of the item marked “9” in the diagram given below? 1
1. Filling board
3. Limber board
20. Identify “23” in the figure given below. 1
1. Bollard
2. Hatch
3. Bilge keel
What does figure “3” represent?
21. 1
1. Ceiling sleeper
2. Bilge ceiling
3. Sparring sleeper
4. Rubbing piece
1. Cover plate
2. Shell plate
3. Top cover
4. Hatch cover
1. Steel wall
2. Steel door
3. Steel cover
24. What does “4” stand for in the image given below? 1
1. Horizontal sparring cleat

2. Sparring sleeper
3. Vertical sparring cleat
4. Ceiling sleeper
25. From the illustration given below, identify the name of the marking “33”. 1
1. Derrick boom
2. Foremast
3. Derrick post
4. King post
Identify “M” in the figure given below.
26. 1
1. Lower hold
2. Lower tweendeck
3. Deckhead
4. Head under beams

2. Bilge ceiling
4. Manhole
28. Identify the part “25”. 1
1. Winch
2. Hatch
3. Funnel
4. Rudder
Which number represents the "Derrick boom" in the illustration given below?
29. 1
1. 25
2. 27
3. 24
4. 26
1. Bottom ceiling
2. Ceiling sleeper
3. Bilge ceiling
4. Sparring sleeper
1. Rudder
2. Bollard
3. Mooring winch
4. Stream anchor
32. 1
1. Sounding pipe
2. Strengthening pipe
3. Mooring pipe
The wooden planking that protects the tank top from cargo loading is called__________.
1. Toms.
33. 1
2. Frames
3. Ceiling
4. Shores
34. The area indicated by the number “14” is known as the _______________. 1
1. Jack staff
2. Ensign staff
3. Bollard
4. Hatch
What does “16” indicate in the illustration given below?
35. 1
1. Rudder
2. Lifting gear
3. Mooring winch
4. Funnel
36. Identify “13” in the figure given below. 1
1. Shell plate
2. Inner bottom plate
3. Cover plate
4. Hatch cover

2. Lumber boards
3. Lashing to hold the boards together
4. Lower hold
What does “A” indicate in the diagram given below?
38. 1
1. Deckhead
2. Head under beams
3. Hatch coaming
4. Hatchway
39. Which number represents the "Vegetable chamber" in the illustration given below? 1
1. 13
2. 15
3. 12
4. 14
What is the function of the item marked “9” in the diagram given below?
40. 1

2. Windlass
1. Derrick post
2. King post
3. Range light
4. Sky light
In the below diagram the part “21” indicates ____________.
42. 1
1. Bollard
2. Rudder
3. Lifeboat
4. Hatch

2. Steel wall
3. Manhole coaming
4. Rubbing piece
44. Which number represents the "Freeing port" in the illustration given below? 1
1. 25
2. 27
3. 26
4. 28
45. 1
1. King post
2. Sky light
3. Derrick post
4. Range light
1. Range light
2. Sky light
3. Side light
4. Mast head light
Which number represents the "Propeller" in the illustration given below?
47. 1
1. 17
2. 19
3. 18
4. 20
48. What does “12” indicate in this figure? 1
1. Sparring sleeper
2. Bilge ceiling
3. Ceiling sleeper
4. Bottom ceiling
1. Sparring sleeper
2. Manhole
3. Steel wall
4. Socket
1. Floor ceiling
2. Side ceiling
3. Shoring
4. Lower hold
Answer Key
1. Windlass
2. Lifting gear
3. Deckhead
4. Side ceiling
7. Stream anchor
10. Socket
12. Jack staff
13. On deck girder
14. Quarter piller
15. Side frame
17. Lower tweendeck
18. Rubbing piece
19. Limber board
20. Bilge keel
21. Sparring sleeper
22. Shell plate
23. Steel door
25. Foremast
26. Lower hold
28. Hatch
29. 24
30. Bilge ceiling
31. Bollard
32. Mooring pipe
33. Ceiling
34. Ensign staff
35. Mooring winch
36. Inner bottom plate
37. Lumber boards
38. Head under beams
39. 12
41. King post
42. Lifeboat
43. Manhole coaming
44. 27
45. Derrick post
46. Side light
47. 19
48. Ceiling sleeper
49. Manhole
50. Shoring
On tankers using manually operated tank valves, the deck hand wheel indicator registers the
____________.
1. 1. Exact lift position of the tank valve disk, through 100% of its operation 2
2. Oxygen content of the tank
3. Approximate number of turns the tank valve has been opened.
4. level of oil in the tank.
Which of the following types of ships are assigned minimum freeboard?
1. Container ships
2. 1
2. Bulk Carriers
3. Oil Tankers.
4. Ore carriers.
Answer Key
1. Approximate number of turns the tank valve has been opened.

2. Oil Tankers.
Where is thicker plating usually found in the construction of integral tanks on a chemical tanker?
1. On the outside of the tank.

1. 2
2. At the centre of the tank.
3. At the bottom of the tank
4. At the top of the tank.
Answer Key
1. At the bottom of the tank
1. 1
1. 20 Feet wide container

What does “12” indicate in this figure?
2. 1
1. Container guide rail

2. Cells for holding dangerous goods
3. Stem
4. Support for container
3. In the below diagram the part “11” indicates ____________. 1
1. Fixed stack
2. Movable stack
The part “E” indicates _________.
4. 1
1. Refrigeration ducts in container

2. Insulated containers in holds
3. Double hull
4. Mast top and foremast
5. From the illustration given below, identify the name of the marking “H”. 1
1. Service gallery
2. passageway
3. Forecastle
4. Double hull
What does figure “C” represent?
6. 1
1. Forecastle
3. Double hull
4. Bridge desk
1. Quarter desk
2. Bridge desk
3. Service gallery
4. Forecastle
What does item “10” refer to the illustration given below?
8. 1
1. Movable stack
3. Fixed stack
4. Service gallery

3. Service gallery
The part “5” indicates _________.
10. 1
1. Stem
2. Propeller
3. Rudder
1. Bridge desk
2. Double hull
3. Forecastle
4. Service gallery
Identify “13” in the figure given below.
12. 1
1. Rudder
2. Stem
3. Bulbous bow

14. 1

2. Accommodation ladder
1. Stem
2. Bulbous bow
3. Container
4. Rudder
What does “F” indicate in the illustration given below?
16. 1

2. Forecastle
4. Passageway
1. Propeller
2. Rudder
3. Stem
4. Bulbous bow
What does “4” stand for in the image given below?
18. 1
1. Rudder
2. Stem
3. Wing tank
19. What does “1” indicate in the diagram given below? 1
1. Service gallery
3. Bulbous bow
4. Wing tank
From the illustration given below, identify the name of the marking “8”.
20. 1
1. Break water
2. Water tank
3. Wing tank
1. Rudder
2. Wing tank
3. Break water
4. Stem
What is “G” showing in the figure given below?
22. 1
1. Passageway
2. Double hull
3. Service gallery
4. Forecastle

2. Service gallery
3. Stem
Answer Key

3. Movable stack
5. passageway
7. Bridge desk
8. Fixed stack
10. Rudder
11. Forecastle
12. Bulbous bow
14. Accommodation ladder
15. Container
17. Propeller
18. Stem
20. Wing tank
21. Break water
22. Double hull
23. Service gallery
1. 1
1. Stern ramp
2. Side ramp
3. Hoistable ramp
1. Stern door
2. Bulkhead door
3. Shell door
1. Stern door
2. Bulkhead door
3. Shell door
4. What does “F” indicate in the illustration given below? 1
1. Deckhead
2. Car deck
3. Promenade deck
4. Sundeck
5. What does item “J” refer to the illustration given below? 1
1. Hoistable ramp
2. Stern ramp
3. Side ramp
6. Which letter represents the "Crane" in the illustration given below? 1
1. A
2. D
3. B
4. C
1. Stern ramp
2. Side ramp
3. Hoistable ramp
1. Hatch cover
2. Cover plate
3. Ramp cover
1. Shell door
2. Stern door
3. Bulkhead door
1. Top cover
2. Hatch cover
3. Ramp cover
Answer Key
1. Side ramp
2. Shell door
3. Bulkhead door
4. Car deck
5. Stern ramp
6. D
7. Hoistable ramp
8. Ramp cover
9. Stern door
10. Hatch cover
What does “12” indicate in this figure?
1. 1
1. Compass bridge
2. Stern
3. Forecastle
4. Open terrace
2. Which number represents the "Lifeboat" in the illustration given below? 1
1. 24
2. 25
3. 23
4. 26
3. 1
1. Deckhead
2. Promenade deck
3. Sundeck
4. Car deck
4. What does “25” indicate in this figure? 1
1. Portholes
2. Propeller
3. Rudder
4. Stabilizing fin
Which number represents the "Bow" in the illustration given below?
5. 1
1. 14
2. 13
3. 12
4. 15
1. Captain’s quarters
2. Portholes
3. Anchor-windlass room
What does “6” indicate in the illustration given below?
7. 1
1. Gym
2. Swimming pool
3. Playground
4. Lounge
1. Hall
2. Funnel
3. Lounge
4. Sundeck
1. Telecommunication antenna
2. Antenna for finding direction
3. Radio antenna
The area indicated by the number “27” is known as the _______________.
10. 1
1. Rudder
2. Stern
3. Portholes
4. Bow
1. Lumber boards
2. Starboard hand
3. Filling board
The process of grinding, shredding, or reducing the size of sewage particles is known as ________.
1. Detention
12. 1
2. Bulking
3. Maceration.
4. Chlorinating.
What does item “10” refer to the illustration given below?
13. 1
1. Radio antenna
2. Radar
3. Stern
4. Stabilizing fin
1. Radar
2. Funnel
3. Stern
4. Sundeck
Identify “26” in the figure given below.
15. 1
1. Bridge desk
2. Quarter-desk
16. What is “20” showing in the figure given below? 1
1. Gym
2. Playground
3. Swimming pool
4. Lounge
3. Forecastle
4. Rudder
The area indicated by the number “14” is known as the _______________.
18. 1
1. Side light
2. Range light
3. Stem bulb
4. Sky light
3. Passageway
In the diagram given below, “2” represents __________.
20. 1
1. Lounge
2. Funnel
3. Hall
4. Rader
21. From the illustration given below, identify the name of the marking “8”. 1
1. Deckhead
2. Sundeck
3. Car deck
4. Promenade deck
22. 1
1. Radio antenna
3. Antenna for finding direction
1. Lounge
2. Gym
3. Playground
4. Swimming pool
1. Bridge desk
2. Compass bridge
3. Quarter-desk
25. 1
1. Stabilizing fin
2. Propeller
3. Lifeboat
4. Rudder
1. Bulbous bow
2. Bower anchor
3. Bow thrusters
27. 1
1. Service gallery
2. Forecastle
3. Open terrace
4. Compass bridge
28. Which number represents the "Stabilizing fin" in the illustration given below? 1
1. 23
2. 21
3. 20
4. 22
Answer Key
1. Forecastle
2. 23
3. Promenade deck
4. Rudder
5. 13
6. Portholes
7. Playground
8. Lounge
9. Radio antenna
10. Stern
11. Starboard hand
12. Maceration.
13. Radar
14. Funnel
15. Quarter-desk
16. Swimming pool
18. Stem bulb
20. Hall
21. Sundeck
23. Gym
24. Compass bridge
25. Propeller
26. Bow thrusters
27. Open terrace
28. 21
Flooding of any compartment in a ship, results in a serious loss of reserve buoyancy, and will
always:______
1. 1. Increase ship stability. 2

2. Decrease the heeling moment.
4. cause a serious permanent list.
Stability after the unintentional flooding of a compartment on a cargo vessel is called. ( if intentional
flooding, that’s called intact stability)
2. 1. Intact stability 2
2. Initial stability.
3. Damage stability
4. Immersion stability.
With reference to a vessel's structural integrity, the most significant characteristic of a cryogenic
liquid is its ______________.
3. 1. Toxicity at atmospheric pressure. 2

2. Vapour cloud which reacts violently with saltwater
4. highly corrosive action on mild steel.
Answer Key

2. Damage stability
In the event of a collision, watertight integrity may be lost if: _________.
1. You operate the dewatering system from a flooded compartment.

1. 2
2. You have recently replaced a gasket in a watertight door
3. The sounding tube cap from a damaged tank is missing
4. The dogs on a manhole cover are secure.
Hatch Coaming Minimum height is :_______
1. 600 mm
2. 2
2. 800 mm
3. 1000 mm
4. 1100 mm
Answer Key
1. The sounding tube cap from a damaged tank is missing

2. 1000 mm
What does “A” indicate in the diagram given below?
1. 1
1. Link plate
2. Longitudinal stopper
3. Intermediate hinge
4. Bell crank
1. External hydraulic cylinder

2. Leading pair
3. Hydraulic cylinder
4. Trailing pair
1. Link plate
2. Leading pair
3. Bell crank
1. Link plate
2. Lifting wheel
3. Bell crank
1. Leading pair
3. Trailing pair
6. What is the function of the item marked “I” in the diagram given below? 1
1. Cover plate
2. Lifting wheel
3. Link plate
1. Trailing pair
2. Leading pair
9. What does “F” indicate in the illustration given below? 1
1. Leading pair
2. Trailing pair
Answer Key
3. Bell crank
4. Lifting wheel
7. Link plate
8. Leading pair
9. Trailing pair
Which of the following must be provided in a shaft tunnel?
1. A watertight door at the engine room bulkhead.

1. 2
2. An escape trunk at the aft end.
3. A tunnel well for drainage.
As per conditions of assignment no port holes are allowed to be fitted below _____ % of the ship's
_______ or _______ mm.
2. 1. 1, length, 300mm 2
2. 3.5, depth, 6oomm
3. 2.5, breadth, 500mm
4. 4, summer draft, 760mm.
Answer Key
1. A tunnel well for drainage.

2. 2.5, breadth, 500mm

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5/29/22, 1:08 AM Directorate General of Shipping

What is a scupper and where is it fitted?

1. it is a discharge pipe for the sewage system

2. 1. Provided for adding additional links. 2

4. 1. Varying the hydraulic oil pressure with control valve. 2

5. 1. Rests on the bulbous bow of vessel. 2

How is the anchor chain joined at intermediate lengths?

1. Wide body shackle.

1. Resting stand for anchor.

What is a chain locker?

1. it is a locker where all the chain blocks are stored

9. 1. Helps in maintenance of anchor chain links. 2

Which machinery is used in heaving up the anchor of a vessel?

1. Hydraulic system for deck machinery.

What is “IV” showing in the figure given below?

2. 1. Two sets of suction and,discharge valves in the,liquid cylinder. 1

The oil from oily bilge separator transferred to ___________.

1. Direct over board

The oil from sludge tank transferred to ___________

1. Direct over board

6. What does “V” indicate in the illustration given below? 2

1. lower than normal,supply steam,temperature

Regulations require the emergency bilge system to

1. Be independent of the main bilge system

An inadequate reciprocating bilge pump discharge is most,often caused by__________ .

1. defective intake valves

Regulations require the emergency bilge system to

1. Be independent of the main bilge system

1. Discharge check valve

1. A. Capable of handling high suction lifts

4. D. Output is not directly proportional to speed

What is the purpose of relief valve in a positive displacement pump?

1. It relieves excess pressure

What does “I” indicate in the diagram given below?

Why do you need Accumulators in the reciprocating bilge pump system?

1. A. reduce the pulsations in the discharge

The oil from sludge tank transferred to ___________

1. Direct over board

1. Excessive suction lift

Bilge system pump must be,

Important features of a Reciprocating pumps include, that they are,

The oil from oily bilge separator transferred to ___________.

1. Direct over board

23. Which of the following must be provided in a shaft tunnel? 2

1. A watertight door at the engine room bulkhead.

Important features of a Bilge pump is,

1. A. Handles large amounts of vapor or entrained gases

26. What is the purpose of relief valve in a positive displacement pump? 2

28. Bilge Pumps have the following properties: 2

Identify One property that is listed above being incorrect,

which letter represents the suction valve of the illustration below?

30. Why do you need accumulators in a reciprocating pump? 2

32. which letter represents the closed discharge outlet valve ? 1

What does “I” indicate in the diagram given below?

Loading sequence following ballasting procedures, identify the correct column

3. Ballasting system: Automatic remote-control operation of the ship's ballast system: 1

Select the correct Column:

A Control Valve Pump Motor Pump Motor Pump Motor

B Pump Motor Level Sensor Control Valve Control Valve

C Level Sensor Control Valve Level Sensor Level Sensor

D Sea Chest Sea Chest Overboard Sea Chest

E Overboard Overboard Sea Chest Overboard

Ballasting system: find an error statement