10.09.2023 EXT.

MEDICAL – (B-2) WT-10

SECTION - B 94. H2SO4 is labelled as 9.8% by weight. Specific
86. Equimolar solutions of electrolytes in the same gravity of H2SO4 is 1.8. The volume of the acid
solvent have to be taken to prepare 1000 ml of 0.18M solution
(a) Same boiling pint but different freezing point is
(b) Same freezing point but different boiling (a) 10ml (b) 100ml (c) 740ml (d) 360ml
point 95. HCl is labelled as 3.65% (w/v) 10ml of the
(c) Same boiling and same freezing points solution is diluted to 1 lit. The proton
(d) Different boiling and different freezing point concentration in the resulting solution is
87. If  is the degree of dissociation of Na2SO4, the (a) 10–3 M (b) 2.5  10–2 M
–2
Vant Hoff factor (i) used for calculating the (c) 7.5  10 M (d) 10–2 M
molecular mass is 96. 100 ml of 1M HCl, 200 ml 2M HCl and 300 ml
(a) 1 +  (b) 1 –  (c) 1 + 2 (d) 1 – 2 3M HCl are mixed. The Molarity of the resulting
88. Solution A contains 7g/L MgCl2 and solution B solution is
contains 7g/L of NaCl. At room temperature, the (a) 1M (b) 2.66M (c) 2.33M (d) 4.25M
osmotic pressure of 97. The volumes of 1M HCl and 5M HCl to be
(a) Solution A is greater than B mixed to get 2 lit of 2M HCl are
(b) Both have same osmotic pressure (a) 1 lit and 1 lit (b) 1.5 lit and 0.5 lit
(c) Solution B is greater than A (c) 1.25 lit and 0.75 lit (d) 1.33 lit and 0.66 lit
(d) Can’t determine 98. When some NaCl was dissolved in water, the
89. Which of the following aqueous solutions freezing point depression was numerically equal
containing 10g of solute in each case, has to twice the molal depression constant. The
highest melting point? relative lowering of vapour pressure of the
(a) NaCl solution (b) KCl solution solution is
(c) Sugar solution (d) Glucose solution (a) 0.117 (b) 0.036
90. Which of the following salt will have same value (c) 0.0585 (d) None of these
of Van’t Hoff’s factor [i] as that of K4[Fe(CN)6] 99. The elevation in boiling point, when 13.44 g of
(a) Al2(SO4)3 (b) NaCl freshly prepared CuCl2 are added to one
(c) Al(NO3)3 (d) Na2SO4 kilogram of water, is
91. Blood is isotonic with
(a) 0.16 M NaCl (b) Conc. NaCl
(c) 50% NaCl (d) 30% NaCl
(a) 0.05 (b) 0.1 (c) 0.16 (d) 0.21
92. 11.1 g. of CaCl2 is present in 100 ml of the
aqueous solution. The chloride ion concentration 100. The boiling point elevation constant for
is toluene is 3.32 K kg mol–1, the normal boiling
(a) 1 M (b) 2 M (c) 0.5 M (d) 0.2 M point of toluene is 110.7oC. The enthalpy of
93. 100 ml each of 1M AgNO3 and 1M NaCl are vaporization of toluene would by nearly:
mixed. The nitrate ion concentration in the (a) 17.0 kJ mol–1 (b) 34.0 kJ mol–1
resulting solution is (c) 51.0 kJ mol–1 (d) 68.0 kJ mol–1
(a) 1M (b) 0.5M (c) 0.75M (d) 0.25M

SECTION - A 102. Which of these steps in Kreb’s cycle

101. Initial step of TCA cycle to yield citric acid indicates substrate level phosphorylation?
starts with the condensation of (a)Conversion of succinyl acid to α-
(a) acetyl group with OAA & H2O & catalyzed ketoglutaric acid
by the enzyme citrate synthase. (b)Conversion of succinic acid to malic acid
(b) acetyl group with pyruvate & H2O & (c)Conversion of succinyl Co-A to succinic
catalysed by the enzyme citrates synthase. acid
(c) acetyl group with OAA & H2O & is (d)Conversion of malic acid to oxaloacetic acid
independent of the enzyme. 103. In electron transport system, which of the
(d) none of the above. following acts as a final hydrogen acceptor.
(a) Oxygen (b) Hydrogen
(c) Calcium (d) Ubiquinone
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104. The reasons for the involvement of different
enzyme in each step of glycolysis is that
(a) each step occurs in a different compartment
of a cell.
(b) each step occurs in a different cells.
(c) each step involves a different chemical
reaction.
(d) each step involves a different change in
potential energy.
105. In which one of the following do the two
names refer to tricarboxylic acid cycle?
(a) a-ketoglutaric acid and Krebs cycle
(b) Malic acid cycle and Kornberg cycle
(c) Citric acid cycle and Krebs cycle
(d) Oxaloacetic acid and Kornberg cycle
106. Which of the following is incorrectly
matched?
(a) Protein  Degarded by proteases
(b) Fats  Fatty acid + PGAL
(c) Kreb’s cycle  Carboxylation
(c) Respiratory pathway  Amphibolic
107. Which type of phosphorylation occurs in
mitochondria?
(a) Oxidative phosphorylation
(b) Substrate level phosphorylation
(c) Photophosphorylation
(d) Both (a) and (b)
108. RQ for protein is
(a) 0.8 (b) 0.7 (c) 0.9 (d) 0.5
109. RQ of sprouting potato tubers will be
(a) 1 (b) < 1 (c) > 1 (d) 0
Assertion and Reason Questions
Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark
the correct option out of the options given
below:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true
and the reason is a correct explanation of the
assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are true but
the reason is not a correct explanation of the
assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are false.
110. Assertion: Power house of cell is
mitochondria.
Reason: ATP is produced in mitochondria.
111. Assertion: Substrate level phosphorylation
is present in glycolysis.
Reason: Substrate level phosphorylation causes
synthesis of ATP.
112. Assertion: In ETS the ultimate acceptor of
electrons is O2.
Reason: Substrate level phosphorylation also
occurs in Kreb’s cycle.
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EXT. MEDICAL – (B-2) WT-10
113. Assertion: In cellular respiration, energy
from respiratory substrate released in single
step.
Reason: Only one enzyme is used for
respiration.
114. Assertion: Respiratory pathway now a day
called as amphibolic pathway.
Reason: Respiratory pathway is involved in both
catabolism and anabolism.
115. _______ reproduction is shown by the
members of rhodophyceae.
(a) Oogamous (b) Isogamous
(c) Anisogamous (d) All of these
116. The complex post-fertilization events are
seen in
(a) Chlorella and spirullina
(b) Gracilaria and porphyra
(c) Volvox and ulothrix
(d) All of these
117. Which of the following statement is
incorrect with respect to bryophytes?
(a) The plant body is thallus like, more
differentiated than algae and attached to
substratum by the help of rhizoids.
(b) The antherozoids are released in water for
fertilization.
(c) Zygote formed undergoes meiotic cell
division immediately.
(d) They have leaf like, stem like and root like
structures.
118. The male sex organ of bryophyte is called
(a) Antherozoids (b) Testes
(c) Globule (d) None of these
119. The thallus of liverworts are
(a) Sexual multiplication of the formation of sex
organs called gemmae.
(b) Dorsiventral and appressed to substrate.
(c) Found in xeric habitats.
(d) Diploid
120. Sexual reproduction in liverworts takes
place by
(a) Formation of sex organs always on the same
thallus.
(b) Formation of male and female sex organs on
different thallus.
(c) Sexual reproduction is absent.
(d) Male and female sex organs may be present
on same or different thalli.
121. Leafy stage in bryophytes
(a) Develops from secondary protonema.
(b) Consist of upright, slender axis and bears
consist of alternately arranged leaves.
(c) Attached to the soil through unicellular and
branched rhizoids.
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(d) All of these
122. Elaborate mechanism of spore dispersal is
found in
(a) Ferns (b) Mosses
(c) Liverworts (d) None of these
123. Match the entities in column I with their
character in column II:
124. Choose wrong statement for diplontic life 128. Megaspore mother cell divides …A… to give
cycle.
(i) Diploid sporophyte is the dominant,
photosynthetic, independent phase of the
plant.
(ii) The gametophytic phase is represented by the
single to few-celled haploid gametophyte.
(iii)All seed bearing plants, i.e., gymnosperms 129. Double fertilisation involves
and angiosperms, follow this pattern.
(iv) Brophytes and pteridophytes, interestingly,
follow this pattern.
(v) A dominant, independent, photosynthetic,
thalloid or erect phase is represented by a
haploid gametophyte.
(vi) Gametophyte is alternates with the short
lived multicellular sporophyte.
(a) (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)
(b) (ii), (iv), (v) and (vi)
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(d) (iv), (v) and (vi)
125. Identify the wrong statements for
gymnosperms from below.
(i) Gymnosperms include medium-sized trees or
tall trees and shrubs.
(ii) Giant red wood tree sequoia is one of the
tallest tree species.
(iii) the roots are generally adventitious roots.
(iv) Roots in some genera have fungal association
in the form of mycorrhiza (pinus).
(v) The leaves may be simple or compound.
(a)(i) and (iii) (b) (ii), (iv) and (v)
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) Only (iii)
Assertion and Reason Questions
Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark
the correct option out of the options given
below:
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EXT. MEDICAL – (B-2) WT-10
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true
and the reason is a correct explanation of the
assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are true but
the reason is not a correct explanation of the
assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are false.
126. Assertion : The members of phaeophyceae
vary in colour from olive green to various shades
of brown.
Reason : Colour depending upon the amount of
laminarin or mannitol present in it.
127. Assertion: The leaves in gymnosperms are
well-adapted to withstand extremes of
temperature, humidity and wind.
Reason: In conifers, the needle-like leaves
reduce the surface area. Their thick cuticle and
sunken stomata also help to reduce water loss.
rise …B… megaspores.
Identify the A and B and choose correct option.
(a) A-mitotically; B-two
(b) A-meiosis; B-four
(c) A-amitotically; B-four
(d) A-dinomitotically; B-two
(a) fertilisation of egg by two male gametes
(b) fertilisation of two egg in same embryo sac
by two sperms brought by one pollen tube
(c) fertilisation of the egg and the central cell by
two sperms brought by different pollen
tubes
(d) fertilisation of the egg and central cell by
two sperms brought by same pollen
130. Parthenocarpic fruit
(a) develops from fertilisation
(b) developed from fertilised ovary
(c) develops from unfertilized ovary
(d) develops from ovules
131. Which one of the following statement is
correct?
(a) Geitonogamy involves the pollen and stigma
of flowers of different plants.
(b) Cleistogamous flowers are always
autogamous.
(c) Xenogamy occurs only by wind pollination.
(d) Chasmogamous flowers do not open at all.
132. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
correct about self-incompatibility ?
(i) It is a device to prevent inbreeding.
(ii) It provides a biochemical block to self-
fertilization.
(iii) It ensures cross-fertilization.
(iv) It is governed by pollen-pistil interaction.
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10.09.2023 EXT. MEDICAL – (B-2) WT-10
(v) It is governed by series of multiple alleles. (a) Pea, castor and coconut
(vi) It prevents self-pollen (from the same flower (b) Castor and coconut
of other flowers of the same plant) from (c) Pea and beans
fertilizing the ovules by inhibiting pollen (d) Groundnut and castor
germination of pollen tube growth in the 138. Endosperm persist in mature seed of
pistil. (a) Pea, castor and coconut
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) Castor and coconut
(b) (i), (iv) and (v) (c) Pea and beans
(c) All of the above (d) Groundnut and castor
(d) None of the above 139. Development of embryo takes place at
133. Which of the following statement(s) is/are (a) Chalazal end of embryo sac
incorrect ? (b) Micropyle end of embryo sac
(i) Endosperm formation starts prior to first (c) Near the integument of embryo sac
division of zygote. (d) All of these
(ii) Angiospermic endosperm is mostly 3N 140. Zygote divides after the formation of
while gymnospermic one is N. endosperm
(iii)The most common type of endosperm is (a) To provide assured nutrition to develop the
nuclear. endosperm.
(iv) Coconut has both liquid nuclear (b) To provide assured nutrition to develop
(multinucleate) and cellular endosperm. embryo.
(v) Milky water of green tender coconut is (c) None of these
liquid female gametophyte. (d) Both (a) and (b)
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) Only (iii) 141. The development of embryo in both
(c) Only (v) (d) Only (ii) monocotyledons and dicotyledons
134. Match the items given in column-I with their (a) Same
examples given in column-II and identify the (b) Differ greatly
correct option. (c) Biennials in early staples of development
(d) Both (b) and (c)
142. Which of the following is correct?
(a) Proembryo → Mature embryo → Globular
embryo
(b) Proembryo → Globular embryo → Mature
embryo
(c) Globular embryo → Proembryo → Mature
embryo
(d) Mature embryo → Globular embryo →
(a) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II; E – V Proembryo
(b) A – IV; B – II; C – V; D – I; E – III 143. The portion of embryo above the cotyledon
(c) A – V; B – I; C – III; D – IV; E – II is called ________ and below the cotyledon is
(d) A – IV; B – V; C – I; D – II; E – III called as ________
135. Coconut water is ________ part of (a) Epicotyl, hypocotyl (b) Hypocotyl, epicotyl
endosperm (c) Plumule, radical (d) Radical and plumule
(a) Cellular 144. Epicotyl terminates into
(b) Free nuclear (a) Stem tip (b) Root tip
(c) Cellular as well as nuclear (c) Plumule (d) Both (a) and (c)
(d) Neither cellular nor free nuclear 145. Hypocotyl terminates into
SECTION - B (a) Root tip (b) Stem tip
136. White kernel of coconut is which part of (c) Plumule (d) Both (a) and (c)
endosperm? 146. Embryo of monocotyledon possess only
(a) Cellular (b) Free nuclear (a) Two cotyledon (b) One cotyledon
(c) Cellular as well as nuclear (c) Scutellum (d) Both (b) and (c)
(d) Neither cellular nor free nuclear 147. The root cap of monocot is covered in
137. Endosperm is completely consumed during (a) Coleoptile (b) Coleorhiza
seed formation in (c) Root tip (d) None of these

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10.09.2023 EXT. MEDICAL – (B-2) WT-10
148. The leaf primordia is enclosed in hollow (d) If both the assertion and reason are false.
foliar structure called as 150. Assertion: Coconut water is a cellular
(a) Coleoptile (b) Coleorhiza endosperm.
(c) Root tip (d) None of these Reason: White kernel of coconut is a free
149. Assertion: Pollen tables is used as a food nuclear endosperm.
supplement. (a) If both the assertion and the reason are true
Reason: Pollen grains are rich in nutrient. and the reason is a correct explanation of the
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true assertion.
and the reason is a correct explanation of the (b) If both the assertion and reason are true but
assertion. the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(b) If both the assertion and reason are true but assertion.
the reason is not a correct explanation of the (c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
assertion. (d) If both the assertion and reason are false.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.

SECTION - A 157. Identify the correct sequence of events in a

151. During cardiac cycle, about _________ % of cardiac cycle:
ventricular filling occurs prior to atrial contraction. (a) Diastole, atrial systole, ventricular diastole
_________ % ventricular filling occurs due to (b) Atrial systole, ventricular diastole, ventricular
atrial contraction systole
(a) 50, 50 (b) 70, 30 (c) 30, 70 (d) 10, 90 (c) Atrial systole, ventricular systole, joint
152. Which of the following events do not occur diastole
during joint diastole? (d) Ventricular diastole, diastole, ventricular
A. All four chambers of heart are in relaxed state. systole, atrial systole
B. Tricuspid and bicuspid valves open. 158. P-wave represents
C. Action potential is conducted from SAN to (a) Depolarization of ventricles
AVN. (b) Repolarization of ventricle
D. Blood from the pulmonary veins and vena (c) Repolarization of atria
cava flows into the left and right ventricles (d) Depolarization of atria
respectively through the left and right atria. 159. QRS complex represents the
E. The semilunar valves are closed. (a) Depolarization of ventricles
(a) Only E (b) Only C (b) Repolarization of ventricles
(c) Only D (d) Only A and B (c) Repolarization of atria
153. The amount of blood to be pumped out by (d) Depolarization of atria
each ventricle/minute is 160. T-wave on an ECG represents
(a) Stroke volume (b) Cardiac output (a) Depolarization of ventricles
(c) ERV (d) ZRV (b) Repolarization of ventricles
154. During cardiac cycle each ventricle pumps out (c) Repolarization of atria
about 70 mL of blood which is called (d) Depolrization of atria
(a) Stroke volume (b) Cardiac output 161. In an adult, normal blood pressure is
(c) Tidal volume (d) Residual volume (a) 80/120 mmHg (b) 100/80 mmHg
155. Cardiac output is (c) 120/80 mmHg (d) 100/120 mmHg
(a) Stroke volume (SV) × Heart rate (HR) = 5 L/m 162. Arteries are best defined as the vessels which:
(b) SV × HR = 500 ml (a) Carry blood away from the heart to different
(c) SV × HR = 72 ml/m organs.
(d) SV × HR = 70 ml/m (b) Break up into capillaries which reunite to form
156. Which of the following statement is incorrect? a vein.
(a) Cardiac output of an athlete is much higher (c) Carry blood from one visceral organ to another
than that of an ordinary man. visceral organ.
(b) In each minute a single cardiac cycle is (d) Supply oxygenated blood to different organs.
performed. 163. Which one of the following statements is
(c) During each cardic cycle two prominent correct regarding blood pressure?
sounds are produced. (a) 100/55 mmHg is considered as an ideal blood
(d) Cardiac cycle includes atrial systole, pressure.
ventricular systole and joint diastole. (b) 105/50 mmHg makes one very active.
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