Aakash Motion CPP

CPP-01
FOR 9X
FDN
Physics
Chapterwise Practise Problems (CPP) for Foundations
Chapter - Motion
1. Which of the following is the set of vectors? 5. W hich of the f ollowing is the S.I. unit of
acceleration and speed respectively?
(A) Speed and velocity
(A) ms-2 and ms (B) ms-2 and ms-1
(B) Acceleration and velocity
(C) Speed and acceleration (C) ms-1 and ms-2 (D) None of these
(D) Distance and displacement 6. Which of the following is correct?
2. Which of the following is correct for the straight (A) Distance travelled by a praticle is always path
line motion dependent.
(A) The magnitude of displacement is equal to the (B) Displacement suffered by a particle is always
distance travelled, provided the velocity remains position or point dependent.
uniform.
(C) Distance travelled by a particle is the sum of
(B) The magnitude of displacement is equal to the
total length of the path covered.
distance travelled, provided the motion is
uniformly accelerated. (D) All of these
(C) The magnitude of displacement and
7. When a body is dropped from certain height, then
displacement will remain equal always.
its motion will be
(D) Both (A) and (B)
(A) Uniformly decelerated
3. In general, in the case of straight line motion
(B) Uniformly accelerated
(A) Magnitude of velocity speed
(C) Neither (A) nor (B)
(B) Magnitude of velocity > speed
(C) Magnitude of velocity = speed always (D) None of these
(D) None of these 8. A ball is projected vertically up then its motion will
be
4. A particle is moving with constant velocity then,
which of the following is correct statement (A) Uniformly accelerated
(A) Its instaneous velocity is same as the velocity (B) Uniformly non-accelerated
but average velocity is different
(C) Uniformly decelerated
(B) Its instaneous velocity is same as velocity
(C) Its average velocity is same as velocity (D) Uniformly non-decelerated
(D) Both (B) and (C)
(1)
Motion Aakash Institute
9. The slope of displacement - time graph shown in 13. A person travels 5 m along straight line as shown
the figure will give in figure and then 4m towards south as shown. The
displacement of the person is
displacement
N
5m
4m
A E
time (A) 9 m (B) 5 m
(A) Acceleration (C) 4 m (D) 3 m
(B) Decceleration 14. An object starts with a velocity of 10 m/s has an
acceleration of 5 m/s2 in the opposite direction of
(C) Velocity
initial velocity. The distance and displacements in
(D) All of these 4 seconds.
10. In the case of uniform circular motion, which of the (A) 10m, 5m (B) 20m, 10m
following is correct statement? (C) 30m, zero (D) 20m, zero
(A) Its velocity remains constant throughout the 15. The maximum acceleration the accelerator gives,
motion and the maximum retardation the brake can give to
(B) Its speed remains constant throughout the a car are of equal magnitude and is 5 m/s2. The
motion maximum distance the car can completes when
starts from rest with in 1 minute just before it
(C) It is accelerated motion comes in rest
(D) Both (B) and (C) (A) 4500 m (B) 2000 m
11. In the figure show the acceleration of the particle (C) 150 m (D) 50 m
is 16. The ratio of angular velocity of second hand to
v (in m/s) minute hand of a clock is
(A) 1 : 12 (B) 12 : 1
(C) 60 : 1 (D) 1 : 60
30°
17. The velocity – time curve for the cab is shown in
time (in second) the figure given below.
1 v(m/s)
(A) 2 m/s2
3 m/s (B)
3
b c
3 1
(C) m/s2 (D) m/s2
2 2
a d
time(s)
O 1 3 8 9 10
12. An object is moving in a circular path of radius r
with a speed v. The ratio of the distance to Then the acceleration (m/s2) – time (s) graph is
1 a(m/s2)
displacement after th of revolution is
4
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 2 : 1 a b c d
(A) O t(s)
1 3 8 9 10
(C)  : 2 2 (D)  : 2
(2)
Aakash Institute Motion
2 19. In question 18, if maximum velocity is 10 m/s, then
a(m/s )
the magnitude of acceleration and deceleration are
respectively
(B) O 1 3 c d (A) 10 m/s2, 5 m/s2 (B) 10 m/s2, 10 m/s2
t(s)
a b 8 9 10
(C) 5 m/s2, 10 m/s2 (D) 5 m/s2, 15 m/s2
2
20. With reference to question 18, if maximum velocity
a(m/s ) is 10 m/s, then during the time interval 0 – 10 s,
the displacement is
a b c d
(C) O t(s) (A) 55 m (B) 60 m
1 3 8 9 10
(C) 70 m (D) 65 m
21. The stick figures along the bottom suggest how a

a(m/s2)
passenger's body might feel during the journey
select the correct figure (for the same passenger)
1 3 c d Acceleration
(D) O a 8 t(s)
b 9
Acceleration
18. In the above question, corresponding position – time time

graph is (A)
x(position) Deceleration
d
c
(A) Acceleration
b
t(s) Acceleration
a1 3 8 9
x(position) (B) time
d Deceleration
c
(B)
b
o time(s) Acceleration
a1 3 8 9 10
x(position)
d time
(C)
(C) c
b
o t(s)
a1 3 8 9
Acceleration
x(position)
d
c
time
(D) b
(D)
o a t(s)
3 8 9 10
(3)
22. Select the incorrect match. 24. W ith reference to the Q 24, Rank the paths
Column – I Column – II according to the average speed of the objects,
greatest first.
x (position) v (velocity) (A) 2, tie of 1 and 3, then 4
(B) 3, tie of 1 and 4, then 2
(A) (C) 4, tie of 1 and 2, then 3
xo vo
o t(s) t(s) (D) 1, tie of 2 and 3, then 4
25. Refer the figure given below
a(acceleration)
x (position) a (acceleration)
(B) xo o t(s)
o t(s) o t(s)
A B C DE F G H
In which of the time periods indicated does the cab
v (velocity) a (acceleration) move at constant speed
(A) C (B) G
(C) vo (C) H (D) E
t(s) o t(s)
26. Figure below gives the velocity of a particle moving
on an x axis
v
x (position) a (acceleration)
t
(D)
t(s) o t(s)
What is the initial direction of travel?

23. Figure shows four paths along which objects move
(A) In direction of negative x axis
from a starting point to a final point, all in the same
time. The paths pass over a grid of equally spaced (B) in direction of positive x axis
straight line. Rank the paths according to the (C) May be in direction of positive x axis
average velocity of the objects (greatest first rank) (D) It cannot be determined.
1 27. Refer the figure given in Q 27, what is the final
direction of travel?
2 (A) In direction of negative x axis
(B) In direction of positive x axis
3
(C) May be indirection of nevative x axis
4
(D) It can't be determined.
28. The graph of velocity against time is shown in the
figure below.
velocity
(A) Path (B) Path (m/s)
Rank Rank
1 I 1 I 20 A B
2 II 2 II
3 III 3 IV
4 IV 4 III time(s)
O 5 13
(C) Path (D) All tie The distance travelled by car after the brakes are
Rank
III
applied
1
2 IV (A) 40 m (B) 60 m
3 I
IV (C) 80 m (D) 90 m
4
(4)
29. Figure below shows the velocity - time graph for (A) 25 m (B) 75 m
motion under gravity with conventional meaning (C) Zero (D) 50 m
velocity(m/s)
35. Acceleration – time graph of a particle moving on
40
a straight line path is shown. When t = 0, particle
8 was at rest. Then the maximum velocity of the
o time(s) particle
4
-40 a(m/s2)
The maximum height reached by the stone 2
(A) 80 m (B) 60 m
(C) 40 m (D) 50 m 5(s) 10(s)
0 t(s)
30. Figure below represents the displacement – time
sketch of motion of two cars A and B. -2
y
(A) 10 m/s (B) 5 m/s
Displacement (km)
A (C) 15 m/s (D) 2.5 m/s

160
B 36. In the graph time at which the maximum velocity
120
is reached is
80
40
0 x a(m/s2)
31 4 2
time(h)
2
Then, the distance by which the car B was initially
ahead of car A is 5(s) 10(s)
0 t(s)
(A) 80 km (B) 20 km
(C) 10 km (D) 40 km [when t = 0, particle was at rest]
31. With reference to figure in Q 31, the velocities of -2
car A and car B are respectively
(A) 40 kmh–1, 20 kmh–1
(A) 2.5 s (B) 5 s
(B) 20 kmh–1, 40 kmh–1
(C) 30 kmh–1, 40 kmh–1 (C) 7.5 s (D) 10 s
(D) 20 ms–1, 20 ms–1 37. A particle moves along the X – axis as X = u(t–2s)
32. With reference to figure in Q31, the time in which + a (t – 2s)2. Then the acceleration of the particle
then car A will catch the car B is
(A) 1 hr (B) 3 hr (A) a (B) 2 a
(C) 2 hr (D) We cannot say a
33. With reference to figure in Q31, the distance from (C) (D) 3 a
2
start of A when the car A will catch the car B 38. With reference to Q 38, at t = 2 s, the particle is
(A) 40 km (B) 80 km at
(C) 30 km (D) We cannot say
(A) Right side of origin (B) Left side origin
34. Acceleration time graph of a particle moving on a
straight line path is shown. If the particle starts from (C) Origin (D) We can't say
rest, then total distance travelled by the particle is 39. The velocity of a particle is zero at t = 0 s in a
2
a(m/s ) straight line motion. Then
2 (A) The acceleration at t = 0 must be zero

(B) The acceleration at t = 0 may be zero
5 10
0 t(s) (C) We cannot determine
(D) None of these
-2
(5)
40. Refer the following table 47. A ball is dropped from a height of 19.6 m above
the gound. It rebounds from the ground and raises
Driver X Driver y
Car Model Reaction time 0.20s Reaction time 0.30s itself up to the same height. Take the starting point
A Speed = 54 km/h Speed = 72 km/h as the origin and vertically downward as the
(deceleration) Braking distance Braking distance positive X – axis, the correct X(m) versus t(s) plot
on hard a = ......... m c = ........... m
braking Total stopping
is (approximately)
Total stopping
= 6 m/s2 distance b = ... m distance d = ...... m x(m)
20
Then value of a is
(A) 19 (B) 18 (A)
(C) 20 (D) 22 t(s)
0 2 4
41. With reference ot Q 41, the value of b is
x(m)
(A) 19 (B) 22 20
(C) 20 (D) 18
42. With reference to Q 41, the value of c is (B)
(A) 26 (B) 28 4s t(s)

0 2s
(C) 33 (D) 30 x(m)
43. With reference to Q 41, the value of d is 20
(A) 26 (B) 30
(C)
(C) 36 (D) 39
4 t(s)
2
44. Two friends A and B are standing a distance X apart
in an open field and wind is blowing from A to B. x(m)
A beats a drum and B hears the sound t1 time
20
after he sees the event. A and B interchange their
positions and the experiment is repeated. This time (D)
B hears the drum t2 time after he sees the event. t(s)
The velocity of sound in still air V and the velocity 2s 4s
of wind u. Neglect the time, light takes in travelling 48. With reference to Q 48, the velocity (m/s) versus
between the friends. Then the value of V is time(s) plot is (approximately)
v (m/s)
x 1 1  x 1 1 
(A) 2  t  t  (B)   
2  t1 t 2 
 1 2 20 m/s
(A) t(s)
(C) x t1.t 2 (D) Cannot be worked out 0 2 4
45. With reference to Q 45, the value of u is

x 1 1  x 1 1  v (m/s)
(A) 2  t  t  (B)   
2  t1 t 2  20 m/s
 1 2
(C) x t1.t 2 (D) Cannot be worked out t(s)

(B) 0 1 2 3 4
46. With reference to Q 45, the ratio of V and u is -20 m/s
V

u
v (m/s)
t 2  t1 t1 20 m/s
(A) (B) t2
t 2  t1
0 t(s)
t1  t 2 t1  t 2 (C)
(C) t  t (D) t 2  t1 -20 m/s
2 1
(6)
v a
v (m/s) v=0
20 m/s
d
(D) 2 4
0 t(s)
(A) V2 < 2ad (B) V2 = 4 ad
-20 m/s
(C) V2  2ad (D) V2  2ad
51. Is the time variation of position shown in figure

49. Velocity-time graph of a ball is given below : observed in nature?
v (m/s) y
20 m/s
Time (t)
t(s)
0 1 2 3 4
-20 m/s x
Position
The (a – t) graph of ball is represented by (A) Possible (B) Not possible
2
a (m/s ) (C) May be possible (D) We can't say
10
2s 4s
0 t(s) Constant
(A)
52. Constant Air resistance = F Air resistance = F
-10 Ball A Ball B
density:d R free fall R density:2d
Radius: R Radius: R
a (m/s2) h
10 ground
(B) t(s)
2s 4s
-10 Two balls have the same size, but one is denser
2
than the other. Assume that the air resistance is
a (m/s) same in each case. They are released
10 simultaneously from the same height, then
0 t(s) (A) Lighter ball (A) will reach first

(C) 2s 4s
-10 (B) A and B will reach simultaneously
(C) Heavier ball (B) will reach first

a (m/s2)
10 (D) We Can't say from the given data.
0 t(s) 53. Two bodies of different masses m1 and m2 are

(D) 2s 4s dropped from two different heights a and b. Then
-10 the ratio of time taken by the two to drop through
these distances is (neglect air resistance)
50. A police inspector in a jeep is chasing a pick
pocket on a straight road. The jeep is going at its b a
maximum speed V (assumed unifrom). The (A) (B)
a b
pickpocket rides on the motor cycle of a waiting
friend when the jeep is at a distance d away, and
the motorcycle starts with a constant acceleration a b ab
(C) (D)
a. Then the pick pocket will be caught if ab a b
(7)
54. Match the column (A) B lives closer to the school than A
Column I Column II (B) B starts school earlier than A
(i) Flight of a shuttle cock (a) One dimension
(C) A walks faster than B
(ii) Fall of an apple from (b) Two dimensions
(D) B reaches home before A
a tree
(iii) Walking on a straight (c) Three dimensions 57. Refer the figure given below
road velocity
(iv) Fired bullet (neglecting effect of air)

v
(v) Gear handle of a vehicle
(vi) Molecular motion time
(A) (ii) & (iii) - (a); (iv) & (v) - (b); (i) & (vi) - (c) Given: L : Total distance
(B) (ii) & (iii) - (b); (iv) & (v) - (a); (i) & (vi) - (c) a : acceleration
(C) (ii) & (iii) - (c); (iv) & (v) - (b); (i) & (vi) - (a) b : retardation
(D) (i) & (iii) - (a); (ii) & (v) - (b); (iv) & (vi) - (c)
Then total time taken by the cab is
55. Look at the graphs (a) to (d) in Figure below
caref ully and select which of these cannot L v  1 1 L v  1 1
(A)   (B)  
possibly represent one dimensional motion of a v 2  a b  v 2  a b 
particle
x v 2L  1 1
(C) (D) v   
v a b
t 58. Two trains each having a speed of 30 km/hr are

t
headed at each other on the same track. A bird
that can fly at 60 km/hr flies off from one train,
when they are 60 km apart, and heads directly for
(a) (b)
the other train. On reaching the other train it flies
directly back to the first, and so forth.
speed
distance
bird (A)
t t Train
Train
(c) (d)
60 km ( t = 0)
(A) a & b (B) c & d Bird (A)
Train Train
(C) a, c, d (D) a, b, c, d
56. The position – time (x – t) graphs for two children 1st trip
A and B returning from their school O to their
homes P and Q respectively are shown in figure. Bird (A)
Train
choose the correct statement
2nd trip Train
x(m)
Q ( time t = T)
x (km)
P
The value of x is
A
B (A) 60/5 (B) 20
t(s)
t1 t2
(C) 20/3 (D) 20/9
(8)
59. W ith reference to Q 59 the value of T(time The distance travelled by car after the brakes are
required) is applied
(A) 40 m (B) 60 m
2 2 (C) 80 m (D) 90 m
(A) hr (B) hr
3 32 65. Figure below shows the velocity-time graph for
motion under gravity with conventional meaning.
2 2  2 2 
(C)   2  hr (D)   2  hr The maximum height reached by the stone is
 3 3  3 3  velocity (m/s)
60. For a circular motion, which of the following
statement is not correct? 40
(A) Velocity is constant
4 8 time (sec)
(B) Speed is constant
(C) Acceleration is not zero
(D) Direction of motion changes continuously (A) 80 m (B) 60 m
61. Which of the following position-time graph represents (C) 40 m (D) 50 m
motion of particle with increasing speed?
66. A person travelling on a straight line moves with a
x x uniform velocity v1, for sometime and with uniform
velocity v2 in the same direction for the next equal
(a) (b) time. The average velocity v is given by
t t v1  v 2
(A) v  (B) v  v1v 2
x x 2
2 1 1 1 1 1
(C) v  v  v (D)  
v v1 v 2
(c) (d) 1 2
t t 67. A person travelling on a straight line moves with a
(A) a and b (B) b and c uniform velocity v 1, for a distance x and with a
uniform velocity v2 for the next equal distance. The
(C) c and d (D) a and c
average velocity v is given by
62. The (a–t) graph of a particle moving in a straight
line is given below. The displacement of a body for v1  v 2
(A) v  (B) v  v1v 2
4 sec is 2
a(m/sec2) 2 1 1 1 1 1
5 (C) v  v  v (D)  
v v1 v 2
1 2
2 4 t(sec)
68. A p a r t i c l e m o v e s a l o n g t h e x - a x i s a s
–5 x = u (t – 2) + a(t – 2)2. Then the acceleration of
(A) 10 m (B) 20 m the particle is
(C) 30 m (D) 0 m (A) a (B) 2a
63. A particle starts from rest. Its acceleration versus a
time (a–t) graph is shown in the figure. The (C) (D) 3a
2
maximum speed of the particle will be
Bus route
a(m/s2)
10
69. Patna
Air route Ranchi
t(s)
O 11 The air route from Patna to Ranchi is 260 km and
(A) 110 m/s (B) 55 m/s road route is 320 km as shown in the figure. An
(C) 27.5 m/s (D) None of these aeroplane takes 30 minutes to go from Patna to
64. The graph of velocity against time for a car is Ranchi where as a delux bus takes 8 hrs. The
shown in the figure below average velocity of delux bus is
v (m/s) (A) 32.5 km/hr from Patna to Ranchi
20 (B) 52.5 km/hr from Patna to Ranchi
(C) 40 km/hr from Patna to Ranchi
t(sec) (D) 65 km/hr from Patna to Ranchi
5 13
(9)
70. A body A starts from rest with an acceleration a1, (A) 20 m/s (B) 12.5 m/s
after 2 seconds, another body B starts from rest (C) 15 m/s (D) None of these
with acceleration a2. If they travel equal distance in 78. A body moving with a constant retardation on a
the 5th second, then the ratio of a1 : a2 is straight line travels 5.7 m and 3.9 m in the 6th and
(A) 5/9 (B) 5/7 the 9th second respectively. When will the body
(C) 9/5 (D) 9/7 come momentarily to rest?
71. The displacement time graph for two particles A (A) 10 s (B) 15 s
and B are straight lines inclined at angles of 30° (C) 30 s (D) 20 s
and 60° with the time axis. The ratio of velocities 79. A lion moves 12 m towards North and then it travels
of vA : vB, is 5 m towards East. The displacements of the lion is
x
B (A) 17 m (B) 7 m
(C) 13 m (D) 18 m
A
60° 80. Jagannath moves with speed v1 for some time, then
30° he moves with speed v2 in the opposite direction for
t
the same time. Calculate the average speed of
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 1 : 3
Jagannath
(C) 3 :1 (D) 1 : 3 V2  V1 V2  V1
(A) (B)
72. Two racing cars of masses m1 and m2 moving in 2 2
circles of radii r1 and r2 respectively. Their speeds 2V1 V2 2V1 V2
are such that each makes a complete circle in the (C) V  V (D) V  V
same interval of time t. The ratio of angular speed 1 2 1 2
of the first car to that of second car is 81. Krishna runs with speed 15 km/hr to cover certain
distance then he stops to have his snacks. Then
(A) m1 : m2 (B) r1 : r2
again he runs with speed 20 km/hr for the same
(C) 1 : 1 (D) m1r1 : m2r2 distance. The average speed of Krishna is
73. A boy runs for 10 min at a uniform speed of 9 km/
hr. At what speed should he run for next 20 min so (A) 17.5 km/hr (B) 120 7 km/hr
that the average speed comes to 12 km/hr?
(A) 13.5 km/hr (B) 10.2 km/hr (C) 60 7 km/hr (D) None of these
(C) 8.2 km/hr (D) 7.72 km/hr
82. A train is moving with constant acceleration. The
74. A man sitting in a train is facing the engine. He station master standing on the platform finds that
tosses a coin up, the coin falls behind him. The the engine crosses him with speed 'u' and the last
train is moving coach crosses him with speed 'v'. The speed with
(A) Forward with uniform speed which the middle coach of the train crosses him is
(B) Backward with uniform speed
uv
(C) Forward with acceleration (A) u2  v 2 (B)
2
(D) Forward with deceleration
75. A particle starts from rest and moves under u2  v 2
constant acceleration. If it travels a distance x in (C) (D) None of these
2
first t seconds, what is the distance travelled in
next t seconds? 83. A body is moving in same direction with constant
(A) x (B) 2x acceleration. If it moves 2000 m in 7th second and
2400 m in 9th second. The distance it moves in 15th
(C) 3x (D) 4x
second is
76. A car travels at a uniform velocity of 60 m/sec for
10 seconds and is brought to rest in next 5 (A) 3600 m (B) 3000 m
seconds. The retardation of the car and distance (C) 4000 m (D) 4200 m
travelled in 15 seconds is 84. A body vertically projected upwards from the top of a
(A) 12 m/s2, 1750 m (B) 12 m/s2, 350 m tower reaches the ground in time 9 s. If it is projected
vertically downward, from the same point, with same
(C) 15 m/s2, 650 m (D) 12 m/s2, 750 m
speed, it reaches in time 4 s. If the body is released
77. A ball is dropped from a roof to the ground 45 m from rest from the same point, after how much time
below. A rock is thrown down from the roof,1 will it reach the ground ?
second later, if they hit the ground at the same
time, what was the initial speed of the rock? [Take (A) 6.5 s (B) 7 s
g = 10m/s2] (C) 5 s (D) 6 s
(10)
85. A car travels 60 km at a uniform speed of 20 km/hr 91. A particle moving in a straight line covers half the
and the next 30 km at uniform speed of 30 km/hr. distance with speed of 3 m/s. The other half of the
The average speed of the car over entire journey is distance is covered in two equal time intervals with
speed of 4.5 m/s and 7.5 m/s respectively. The
9 90 average speed of the particle during the motion is
(A) km/hr (B) km/hr
5 4
(A) 4 m/s (B) 5 m/s
(C) 2 km/hr (D) 25 km/hr
(C) 5.5 m/s (D) 4.8 m/s
86. The position of a particle moving along the x-axis
at certain time is given below 92. The velocity-time graph of a particle is not a
straight line. Its acceleration is
t(s) 0 1 2 3
(A) Zero (B) Constant
x(m) –2 0 6 16 (C) Negative (D) Variable
W hich of the following describe the motion
93. A body starting from rest moves in a straight line
correctly ?
with a constant acceleration a for a time interval t
(A) Uniform, accelerated during which it travels a distance S1. If it continues
(B) Uniform, decelerated to move with the same acceleration for the next time
(C) Non-uniform, accelerated interval t during which it travels a distance S2. The
(D) Data not sufficient relation between S1 and S2 is
87. A scooter acquires velocity of 36 km/hr in 10 sec (A) S2 = S1 (B) S2 = 2S1
after start. The acceleration of scooter is (C) S2 = 3S1 (D) S2 = 4S1
(A) 3.6 m/s2 (B) 0.5 m/s2 94. A ball is dropped from a window 24 m high. How long
(C) 1 m/s2 (D) 2 m/s2 will it take to reach the ground ?
88. A car travels with a speed v1 from A to B and returns (A) 2.2 s (B) 1.2 s
back from B to A with a speed v2. The average speed
of the car during its journey is (C) 4.5 s (D) 0.2 s
95. A boy juggles ball in air. He throws one whenever
v  v2 v1 v 2
(A) (B) the previous one is at its highest point. How high
2 v1  v 2 do the balls rise if he throws 'n' balls each
second ?
2v1 v 2
(C) v  v (D) v1 v 2 (A) g/n2 (B) g/2n2
1 2
(C) g/4n2 (D) None of these
89. The displacement-time graphs of two bodies A and
96. A balloon starts rising from ground with a constant
B is shown
x acceleration 1.25 m/s2. After 8 sec, a stone is
B
released from it. Find the time taken by the stone
to reach the ground
20m A
(A) 4 s (B) 2 s
t (C) 1 s (D) 8 s
Choose the correct statement 97. A boat takes t1 time to cover a distance while moving
(A) A is moving faster than B upstream and t2 time to cover the same distance
(B) B is moving faster than A while moving downstream. Fnd the time taken by it
(C) B is always 20 m behind A to cover the same distance in still water
(D) A is always 20 m behind B t1  t 2 2t1 t 2
(A) (B) t  t
90. Two balls A and B of same masses are thrown from 2 1 2
the top of the building. A is thrown vertically upward
t1 t 2
with a velocity v and B is thrown vertically downward (C) t  t (D) t1t 2
with the same velocity v. Then 1 2
(A) Velocity of A is more than B at the ground 98. A car is moving on a straight road covers one third of
(B) Velocity of B is more than A at the ground the distance with a speed 20 km/hr and rest with a
(C) Both A and B strike the ground with same speed of 60 km/hr. The average speed of the car is
velocity (A) 40 km/hr (B) 50 km/hr
(D) Data insufficient (C) 36 km/hr (D) 55 km/hr
(11)
99. The position time graph of a moving particle is 106. A train starts from rest from a station with
shown. The instantaneous velocity of the particle is acceleration 0.2 m/s2 on a straight track and then
negative at the point comes to rest after attaining maximum speed on
B another station due to retardation 0.4 m/s2. If total
time spent is half an hour, then the distance
position C D between two station is [Neglect length of train]
A (A) 216 km (B) 512 km
(C) 726 km (D) 1296 km
time
(A) A (B) B 107. A body is projected vertically upward with speed 40
(C) C (D) D m/s. The distance travelled by body in the last
second of upward journey is
100. The position-time graphs of two cars A and B are
straight lines making angles 30° and 60° with the (A) 4.9 m (B) 9.8 m
time axis respectively. The ratio of velocities of A (C) 12.4 m (D) 19.6 m
and B is 108. A ball projected from the ground vertically upward is
(A) 1: 3 (B) 1 : 3 at same height at time t1 and t2. The speed of
projection of ball is
(C) 3 :1 (D) 3 : 1 g  t1  t 2 
101. The velocity time graph of a particle moving along a (A) g(t2 – t1) (B)
2
straight line is shown in the figure
g  t 2  t1 
v(m/s) (C) (D) g(t1 + t2)
2
2 109. Which one of the following graph is possible ?
1
speed speed
(A) (B)
1 2 3 4 5 t(s)
–1
t t
2 speed time
The displacement of the particle in 5 second is (C) (D)
(A) 0.5 m (B) 1 m t position
(C) 2 m (D) 4 m 110. If a body travels with an acceleration a1 for time t1
102. A body moving with uniform retardation covers 3 km and a2 for time t2, then the average acceleration of
before its speed is reduced to half of its initial value. the body is
It comes to rest in another distance of
a1t1  a2 t 2 a1t1  a2 t 2
(A) 1 km (B) 2 km (A) 2  t  t  (B)
(C) 3 km (D) 1/2 km 1 2  t1  t 2 
103. A ball is thrown vertically upward with a velocity 
from the top of a tower. If it strikes the ground with  a1  a2  a1t1  a2 t 2
(C) (D)  t1  t2 
velocity 3, the time taken by the ball to reach the t1  t 2
ground is
111. If a body covers 26 m and 30 m in the 6th and 7th
 2 seconds of its travel, then its initial velocity and
(A) g (B) g acceleration is
(A) 4 m/s, 4 m/s2 (B) 6 m/s, 4 m/s2
3 4 (C) 10 m/s, 8 m/s 2 (D) 0, 4 m/s2
(C) (D)
g g 112. The ratio of maximum height reached by two
104. A ball falls freely from rest. The ratio of the bodies projected vertically up is a : b, then the
distances travelled in 1st, 2nd, 3rd and 4th second ratio of their initial velocities is
is (A) a : b (B) a2 : b
(A) 4:3:2:1 (B) 7:5:3:1
(C) 1:2:3:4 (D) 1:3:5:7 (C) b: a (D) a: b
105. A particle starts moving with acceleration 2 m/s2.
Distance travelled by it in 5th half second is
(A) 1.25 m (B) 2.25 m
(C) 6.25 m (D) 30.25 m
(12)
113. A particle moves along a circular track of 6m (A) 4 m/s (B) 8 m/s
radius such that the arc of the circular track (C) 6 m/s (D) 5 m/s
covered subtends an angle of 30° at the centre.
Find the distance covered by the body 122. A car starting from rest with uniform acceleration,
(A)  m (B) 13 m 1
attains a velocity of 72 km/h in minute. Then the
(C) 4 m (D) 6 m 12
distance travelled by the car will be
114. A person travels a distance of 4.0 m towards east,
(A) 50 m (B) 25 m
then turns left and travels 3.0 m towards north then
(C) 10 m (D) 5 m
the magnitude of displacement is –
123. A car is moving with a speed 36 km/h is brought
(A) 7 m (B) 6 m
to rest in 10 second by applying brakes. Find the
(C) 5 m (D) 1 m
magnitude of average deceleration due to breakes.
115. A person travels on a semi-circular track of radius (A) 2 m/s2 (B) 1 m/s2
50 m during a morning walk. If he starts from one
(C) 1.5 m/s2 (D) 0.5 m/s2
end of the track and reaches the other end then
124. If the distance travelled by a car is directly
 22  proportional to the square of duration of time. The
the distance travelled by the person is   
 7  car will travel with
(A) 100 m (B) 157.1 m (A) Non-uniform speed
(C) 180 m (D) 200 m (B) Uniform speed
116. A person completes a round of circular track of (C) Non-uniform acceleration
radius R in 40 seconds. At the end of 2 minutes, (D) Uniform velocity
the distance will be 125. If the velocity of a body does not change, then its
(A) 2  R (B) 3  R acceleration is
(C) 6  R (D) Zero (A) Unity
117. A particle moves 300 cm in the first 6 sec., 400 cm (B) Zero
in the next 5 second and 200 cm in the last 4 sec. (C) Infinity
The average speed of particle during the interval is (D) Between zero and unity
(A) 30 cm/s (B) 45 cm/s 126. The speed of a particle varies with time (t) given by
(C) 15 cm/s (D) 60 cm/s v = 2t 2 + t – 10. The particle comes to rest
118. The position x of a particle varies with time t as momentarily at t equal to
x = 4t2 + 2t3 + 2 then the average velocity in the (A) 5 s (B) 3 s
first 2 second is (x in metre) (C) 2.5 s (D) 2 s
(A) 32 m/s (B) 64 m/s 127. If a body is moving with constant speed, then its
(C) 16 m/s (D) 8 m/s acceleration
119. A motor cyclist moving with speed 45 km/h and (A) Must be zero
accelerating at the rate 5 m/s2 then its speed after (B) May be variable
2 second will be
(C) May be uniform
(A) 81 km/h (B) 72 km/h
(D) Both (B) and (C)
(C) 54 km (D) None of these
128. A stone is dropped from a height h under the
120. Average speed of a moving object is equal to the
action of gravity, then time taken to reach the
magnitude of its agerage velocity. When it travels
ground will be
(A) Back and forth
(B) In a circle h
(A) gh (B)
(C) In a zig-zag path g
(D) In a straight line without turning back 2h
(C) (D) None of these
121. The average speed of an object over a given time g
duration is 6 m/s. If it travels first half of the duration
with a constant speed 4 m/s, its speed during the
next half duration is

(13)
CPP-01
FOR 9X
FDN
ANSWERS
1. (B) 27. (B) 52. (B) 79. (C) 105. (B)

2. (D) 28. (C) 53. (A) 80. (A) 106. (A)
3. (A) 29. (A) 54. (D) 81. (B) 107. (A)
4. (D) 30. (D) 55. (D) 82. (C) 108. (B)
5. (B) 31. (A) 56. (A) 83. (A) 109. (B)
6. (D) 32. (C) 57. (C) 84. (D) 110. (B)
7. (B) 33. (B) 59. (D) 85. (B) 111. (A)
8. (C) 34. (D) 60. (A) 86. (C) 112. (D)
9. (C) 35. (A) 61. (D) 87. (C) 113. (A)
10. (D) 36. (B) 62. (B) 88. (C) 114. (C)
11. (B) 37. (B) 63. (B) 89. (D) 115. (B)
12. (C) 38. (C) 64. (C) 90. (C) 116. (C)
13. (D) 39. (B) 65. (A) 91. (A) 117. (D)
14. (D) 40. (A) 66. (A) 92. (D) 118. (C)
15. (A) 41. (B) 67. (C) 93. (C) 119. (A)
16. (C) 42. (C) 68. (B) 94. (A) 120. (D)
17. (A) 43. (D) 69. (A) 95. (B) 121. (B)
18. (A) 44. (B) 70. (A) 96. (A) 122. (A)
19. (C) 45. (A) 71. (D) 97. (B) 123. (B)
20. (D) 46. (C) 72. (C) 98. (C) 124. (A)
21. (A) 47. (A) 73. (A) 99. (C) 125. (B)
22. (D) 48. (B) 74. (C) 100. (B) 126. (D)
23. (D) 49. (C) 75. (C) 101. (D) 127. (B)
24. (C) 50. (C) 76. (D) 102. (A) 128. (C)
25. (D) 51. (B) 77. (B) 103. (D)
26. (A) 52. (C) 78. (B) 104. (D)

(14)
CPP-01
FOR 9X
FDN
Chemistry
Chapter - Matter in Our Surroundings
1. Which one of the following is the correct sequence 9. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
for interparticle force of attraction ?
(A) Liquid have fluidity
(A) Brick < chalk < iron
(B) Liquid have rigidity
(B) Chalk < brick < iron
(C) Particles in the liquid state can diffuse
(C) Brick < iron < chalk
(D) Iron < chalk < brick (D) Liquid occupy definite volume
2. The cgs unit of density is 10. The lndian philosophers state that matter is made
from ______ constituents.
(A) kg/L (B) kg/dm3
(A) Three (B) Five
(C) g/cm3 (D) All of these
3. The body temperature of a normal and healthy (C) Four (D) Two
person is 98.4ºF. This temperature on the celsius 11. The rate of diffusion of a gas is
scale is
(A) Directly proportional to its density
(A) 36.89ºC (B) 36.54ºC
(B) Inversely proportional to its density
(C) 36.91ºC (D) 36.93ºC
(C) Inversely proportional to the square root of its
4. Which of the following can form vapour ?
vapour density
(A) Alcohol (B) Ammonia
(D) Directly proportional to the square root of its
(C) Hydrogen (D) Both (A) and (B) density
5. Evaporation of liquid takes place 12. The fifth state of matter is
(A) Above the boiling point
(A) Plasma
(B) Below the boiling point
(B) Bose-Einstein condensate
(C) At the boiling point
(C) Solid
(D) At all temperatures
(D) Liquid
6. Evaporation can cause
(A) Cooling 13. Pressure of air at sea level is
(B) Decrease in temperature (A) One atmosphere (B) 76 cm Hg

(C) Boiling (C) 760 mm Hg (D) All are correct
(D) Both (A) and (B) 14. Which one of the following is true ?
7. What kinds of clothes are preferred in summers ? (A) The volume of ice is more than that of water and
(A) Cotton (B) Nylon its density is comparatively less
(C) Terylene (D) All of these (B) The volume and density of ice is more than that
of water
8. Which state of matter contains ion ?
(A) Plasma (C) The volume and density of ice is less than that
of water
(B) Solid
(D) The volume of ice is less than that of water and
(C) Liquid density is more
(D) Bose-Einstein condensate
(1)
Matter in Our Surroundings Aakash Institute
15. The lightest gas known is [A]
25. Solid   Liquid. The process A is
(A) Hydrogen (B) Nitrogen
(A) Fusion (B) Vaporisation
(C) Oxygen (D) Chlorine
(C) Condensation (D) Sublimation
16. Which one of the following is a correct order for
26. Which amongst the following have maximum inter-
solid, liquid and gas in terms of thermal
particle space?
expansion?
(A) Oxygen (B) Water
(A) Liquid < gas < solid
(B) Solid < liquid < gas (C) Alcohol (D) Sugar
27. The intermixing of particles of two or more different
(C) Liquid < solid < gas
substance on their own is called
(D) Gas < liquid < solid
(A) Diffusion (B) Density
17. When water solidifies to ice, then heat is
(C) Thermal expansion (D) Latent heat
(A) Absorbed
28. Which amongst the following is crystalline solid ?
(B) Evolved
(A) Glass (B) Rubber
(C) No change
(C) Plastic (D) Silver iodide
(D) Heat may be evolved or absorbed
29. An example of molecular crystal is
18. Which of the following can show sublimation?
(A) NaCl (B) Diamond
(A) Dry ice (B) Sodium chloride
(C) CaF2 (D) Ice
(C) Iodine (D) Both (A) and (C)
30. Which amongst the following is good conductor of
19. When a solid starts melting its temperature _____ electricity ?
till whole of it has melted
(A) Ionic crystals (B) Covalent crystals
(A) Increases
(C) Metallic crystals (D) Molecular crystals
(B) Decreases
31. W hich one of the following is an incorrect
(C) Remains constant statement?
(D) Either increases or decreases (A) Boiling is bulk phenomenon
20. Kelvin temperature is represented by (B) Hot food can be smelled from a several meter
(A) K (B) k due to diffusion
(C) Kº (D) kº (C) Solids have negligible compressibility
21. The S.I. unit of temperature is (D) Condensation is conversion of gas to solid
(A) Kelvin (B) Celsius 32. Which one is not an example of diffusion ?
(C) Fahrenheit (D) All of these (A) Smell of hot food from a several meter
22. Evaporation increases with (B) Fragrance of incense stick
(A) Decrease in surface area (C) Spread of ink inside the water
(B) Increase in humidity (D) Reduction in the amount of open camphor
(C) Decrease in the speed of the wind 33. What is dry ice ?
(D) Increase in temperature (A) Bacteria free ice (B) Solid carbon dioxide
23. Solids cannot be compressed because (C) Hydrogen peroxide (D) Solid water molecule
(A) Constituent particles are very closely packed 34. Surface tension decreases with
(B) Interparticle attractive forces are weak (A) Rise in temperature
(C) Movement of constituent particles is restricted (B) Fall in temperature
(D) Constituent particles diffuse very slowly (C) Decrease in pressure
24. A substance which does not have the property of (D) Increase in surface area
fluidity is 35. The property of the liquids which determines their
(A) Liquid (B) Gas resistance to flow is called
(C) Solid (D) None of these (A) Surface tension (B) Viscosity
(C) Diffusion (D) Osmosis
(2)
Aakash Institute Matter in Our Surroundings
36. Which of the following statements is incorrect (A) Definite shape, compressible and fixed volume
about amorphous solid ? (B) Incompressible, fixed shape and size
(A) They are anisotropic (C) Neither fixed shape nor volume and highly
(B) They are supercooled liquids compressible
(C) They melt over a wide range of temperature (D) Fixed shape, incompressible and closely packed
(D) There is short range orderly arrangement of molecules
particles 45. Pick the odd one out
37. The boiling points of water, ethyl alcohol and diethyl (A) Solidification (B) Sublimation
ether are 100ºC, 78.5ºC and 34.6ºC respectively. (C) Fusion (D) Osmosis
The intermolecular force will be in the order of
46. Which amongst the following is matter ?
(A) Water > ethyl alcohol > diethyl ether
(A) Smell (B) Thought
(B) Ethyl alcohol > water > diethyl ether
(C) Air (D) Cold
(C) Diethyl ether > ethyl alcohol > water
47. Physical state of water at 250ºC is
(D) Diethyl ether > water > ethyl alcohol
(A) Solid (B) Gaseous state
38. In which of the following pairs the gaseous species
diffuse through a porous plug along with the same (C) BEC (D) Liquid
rate of diffusion? 48. Absolute zero is the temperature where all gases
(A) NO, CO (B) NO, CO2 are expected to have
(A) Different volumes (B) Same volume
(C) NH3, PH3 (D) NO, C2H6
(C) Zero volume (D) None of these
39. Water boils at lower temperature on high altitudes
because 49. Water cools in earthen pot easily due to
(A) Atmospheric pressure is low there (A) Heat (B) Sublimation
(B) Atmospheric pressure is high there (C) Fusion (D) Evaporation
(C) Water is weakly hydrogen bonded there 50. State of matter depends upon
(D) Water in pure form is found there (A) Kinetic energy
40. With increase in temperature, the fluidity of liquids (B) Brownian motion
(A) Increases (C) Interparticle force of attraction
(B) Decreases (D) Both (A) and (C)
(C) Remains constant 51. Least rigidity is observed in
(D) First increases and then decreases (A) Diamond (B) Rubber
41. If a gas is heated at constant pressure, its density (C) Iron (D) Coal
(A) Will decrease 52. Crystalline solids have
(B) Will increase (A) Definite melting point
(C) First increase and then decrease (B) No symmetry
(D) Will remain unchanged (C) Physical properties same in all directions
42. A gas cannot be liquefied (D) No regular repeating units
(A) Above its critical temperature 53. Liquids show compressibility because
(B) At its critical temperature (A) They have definite shape but no definite volume
(C) Below its critical temperature (B) They have lower mechanical strength
(D) At its critical pressure (C) They have some interparticle spaces
43. Normal boiling point of a liquid is that temperature (D) Both (A) and (B)
at which vapour pressure of liquid is equal to 54. The liquid drops assume a spherical shape because
(A) Zero (B) 380 mm of Hg of
(A) Surface tension (B) Viscosity
(C) 760 mm of Hg (D) 100 mm of Hg
(C) Diffusion (D) Evaporation
44. W hich of the f ollowing characteristics are
associated with gaseous state ?
(3)
55. Viscosity & diffusion are 65. Latent heat is involved during
(A) Directly proportional to each other (A) Heating of a gas
(B) Inversely proportional to each other (B) Heating of 4C water
(C) Not related to each other (C) Phase transition
(D) Both maximum in solids (D) Heating of 100C water vapour
56. Factor which will affect evaporation is 66. On cooling, gas starts to liquefy at
(A) Surface area of liquid (A) Temperature below critical temperature
(B) Nature of liquid (B) Critical temperature
(C) Temperature (C) Temperature above critical temperature
(D) All (A), (B) & (C) (D) All temperatures
57. The false statement regarding boiling is 67. Surface tension & viscosity are the properties of
(A) It occurs at a particular temperature liquid which are observed respectively at
(B) It is not a spontaneous process (A) Only surface of liquid
(C) It is pressure independent (B) Surface & bulk of liquid
(D) It is a bulk phenomenon (C) Bulk & surface of liquid
58. Pressure cookers are required at hilly regions (D) Only bulk of liquid
because 68. Density of ice is less than water because
(A) It is cold in such areas (A) Interparticle attractive force is more in ice
(B) Hard water is obtained there (B) Interparticle space is more in ice
(C) Atmospheric pressure is low in such area (C) Interparticle space is more in water
(D) Both (A) and (B) (D) Interparticle attractive force is less in ice
59. Condensation of a gas occurs due to 69 Boyle's law defines the relation between
(A) Decreasing temperature (A) Volume & temperature of gas
(B) Increasing pressure (B) Volume & density of gas
(C) Decreasing temperature & pressure both (C) Volume & pressure of gas
(D) Both (A) and (B) (D) Temperature & pressure of gas
60. 'Vapour' term can be appropriately used for 70. The correct graph representing Boyle's law is
(A) HNO3 (B) Cl2
(C) CO2 (D) H2
P P
61. The particles of matter with highest energy is (A) (B)
present in
V V
(A) Gaseous state (B) Plasma state
(C) BEC (D) Liquid state
1/ V P
62. Highest amount of matter in universe exist in the (C) (D)
form of P V
(A) BEC (B) Gas 71. Boyle's law is stated when
(C) Plasma (D) Liquid (A) Temperature is constant
63. Zero state of matter means (B) Mass of gas is constant
(A) BEC (B) Gas (C) Energy is constant
(C) Plasma (D) Liquid (D) Both (A) and (B)
64. The variable which is not a state variable is
(A) Temperature (B) Velocity
(C) Pressure (D) Volume
(4)
72. The correct relationship between T1 & T2 in the 81. Avogadro's number is equal to
(A) 6 × 1020 (B) 6.023 × 10-23
(C) 6.022 × 1023 (D) 6.06 × 106
P T2
following graph is 82. The volume of a given mass of a gas is 2000ml at
V 27C & 760mm Hg pressure. Calculate volume of the
gas at 327C & 1520mm Hg pressure
(A) T1=T2
(A) 1000ml (B) 4000ml
(B) T2<T1
(C) 3000ml (D) 2000ml
(C) T1<T2
83. The volume of 1 gram mole of oxygen gas is 22400ml
(D) No such relationship holds
at 760mm Hg. Calculate the temperature of the gas
73. A gas occupies 300 cc at 760mm Hg pressure. (R=0.082 L atm K-1 mol-1)
Calculate the volume of the gas at 750mm Hg
pressure (at const. temperature) (A) 273F (B) 0.17K
(A) 295 cc (B) 300 cc (C) 273.17C (D) 273.17K
(C) 304 cc (D) 310 cc 84. At 273K & 1atm pressure a gas occupies 2.5L.
74. A gas occupies 300cm 3 at 273K & 700mm Hg Calculate its volume at 546C & 150cm pressure of
pressure. Calculate the volume of the gas at STP Hg.
(A) 276.3 cm3 (B) 278 cm3 (A) 2L (B) 4L

(C) 268.9 cm3 (D) 271.4 cm3 (C) 3.8L (D) 3.5L
75. If V0 ml is the volume at 0C then at 1C it will 85. W hich is the most fav ourable condition f or
become liquification of a gas ?
V0  1  (A) High pressure, high temperature.

(A) ml (B) V0  1  273  ml (B) High pressure, low temperature.
273  
 1  (C) Low pressure, low temperature.
V0
(C) ml (D) V0  1  273  ml (D) Low pressure, high temperature.
2  
76. Absolute zero is at 86. Latent heat of vaporisation is used to
(A) 0C (B) 273C (A) Overcome the forces of attraction between
(C) –273C (D) –100C molecule in solid state.
(B) Increase the kinetic energy of molecule in
liquid state.
V
77. The following graph represents (C) Overcome the force of attraction between
T molecule in liquid state.
(A) Boyle's law (B) Charles' law (D) Increase the kinetic energy of molecule in
(C) Avogadro's law (D) None of these vapour state.
78. Calculate the temperature in celsius scale at which 87. Amorphous solids
the volume of a gas at 0C be double itself,
(A) Are more flexible at higher temperatures.
pressure remaining constant
(B) Include glasses.
(A) 273 (B) 546
(C) Do not have specific melting point.
(C) –273 (D) 373
79. What volume of gas will be expelled from a steel (D) All of these.
container containing 400 cm3 of gas at 7C when 88. The large volumes of gases can be put into small
it is heated to 27C at the same pressure ? volume of cylinders. This property is known as
(A) 428.6 cm3 (B) 28.6 cm3 (A) Sublimation (B) Compressibility
(C) 154.9 cm3 (D) 200 cm3 (C) Peptization (D) Polymerization
80. Under same conditions of temperature & pressure 89. Maximum interparticle attraction exists in
22.4L of NH3 & CO2 contain equal number of
(A) Bromine (B) Oxygen
(A) Atoms (B) Molecules
(C) Helium (D) Copper
(C) Electrons (D) Protons
(5)
90. The electric bulb on long use forms a black coating 100. The evaporation of a liquid can be best carried out in a
on its inner surface. The process associated with (A) Test tube (B) Glass
this is
(C) Beaker (D) Saucer
(A) Melting of tungsten .
101. Interparticle distance is maximum in
(B) Sublimation of tungsten.
(A) Solid (B) Liquid
(C) Oxidation of tungsten. (C) Gas (D) BEC
(D) Reduction of tungsten. 102. During melting of a solid
91. Which of the following has more heat content? (A) Temperature and average kinetic energy remain
(A) 10 g of ice at 0C. constant
(B) 10 g of water at 0C. (B) Temperature remains constant
(C) Both have same heat content. (C) Heat equal to latent heat of fusion is absorbed
(D) Their heat content cannot be compared (D) All of these are correct
92. The substance having the maximum tendency to flow 103. The increasing order of kinetic energy of particles of
is given states is
(A) Water (B) Common salt (A) Liquid < solid < gas
(B) Solid < liquid < gas
(C) Iron (D) Hydrogen
(C) Gas < solid < liquid
93. Which of these choices is not an example of a
plasma ? (D) Gas < liquid < solid
(A) Sun (B) Lightning 104. The factor which enhances the evaporation of a liquid
is/are
(C) Rocket exhaust (D) Oxygen
(A) Higher temperature
94. When water is converted into ice
(B) Removal of vapours from the system
(A) Heat is absorbed
(C) Larger surface area
(B) Heat is released
(D) All of these
(C) Temperature increases
105. The phenomenon of spreading of ink in water is known
(D) No change of heat takes place as
95. Which one of the following is having maximum (A) Diffusion (B) Evaporation
density ? (C) Solubility (D) Effusion
(A) Solids (B) Plasma 106. At what temperature, solid ice and liquid water
(C) Gases (D) Vapours co-exist together?
96. Which one of the following is more effective coolant? (A) 0K (B) 373 K
(A) 10 g of ice at 0°C (C) 273°C (D) 0°C
(B) 10 g of water of 0°C 107. Correct statement is
(C) Both (A) and (B) (A) Conversion of a solid directly into liquid is called
sublimation
(D) Their cooling efficiency cannot be compared
(B) Conversion of a solid directly into vapours is
97. The interparticle space is maximum in known as vapourization
(A) Iron rod (B) Kerosene oil (C) Conversion of vapours directly into solid is
(C) Water (D) Oxygen called freezing
98. The process of evaporation causes (D) Conversion of solid directly into liquid is called
(A) Heating (B) Increase in temperature melting
(C) Cooling (D) Increase in pressure 108. Decreasing order of diffusion is
99. The quantity of matter present in a substance is (A) Gas > solid > liquid (B) Liquid > solid > gas
called its (C) Gas > liquid > solid (D) Solid > gas > liquid
(A) Volume (B) Weight
(C) Mass (D) Density
(6)
109. Latent heat of vaporization of water is 113. Which one is more effective for cooling?
(A) 540 kJ/kg (A) Water at 100°C (B) Ice at 0°C
(B) 540 kcal/kg (C) Water at 0°C (D) All of these
(C) 80 kcal/g 114. Find the incorrect statement
(D) 22.5 × 103 J/kg (A) Boiling is a bulk phenomenon
110. At which temperature Fahrenheit and Celsius scale (B) Evaporation is a surface phenomenon
show the same reading?
(C) Boiling point of a liquid decreases on increasing
(A) –40° (B) 40°
the atmospheric pressure
(C) 20° (D) –20°
(D) Evaporation is a spontaneous process
111. W hich of the following conditions favour the
115. Particles at lowest energy are found in
liquefaction of LPG and CNG?
(A) Low temperature and low pressure (A) Plasma (B) Solid
(B) High temperature and high pressure (C) Gaseous state (D) BEC
(C) Low temperature and high pressure 116. Correct statement is

(D) High temperature and low pressure (A) Water at 373 K is more effective for heating than
steam at 373 K
112. Naphthalene balls disappear with time without leaving
any solid residue. It is due to (B) Water and steam at 373 K have equal energy
(A) Vapourisation (B) Diffusion (C) Water and steam have same average kinetic
energy at 373 K
(C) Sublimation (D) Evaporation
(D) Water and Ice at 273 K have equal energy

(7)
CPP-01
FOR 9X
FDN
ANSWERS
1. (B) 24. (C) 47. (B) 70. (D) 93. (D)

2. (C) 25. (A) 48. (C) 71. (D) 94. (B)
3. (A) 26. (A) 49. (D) 72. (C) 95. (A)
4. (A) 27. (A) 50. (D) 73. (C) 96. (A)
5. (B) 28. (D) 51. (B) 74. (A) 97. (D)
6. (D) 29. (D) 52. (A) 75. (D) 98. (C)
7. (A) 30. (C) 53. (C) 76. (C) 99. (C)
8. (A) 31. (D) 54. (A) 77. (B) 100. (D)
9. (B) 32. (D) 55. (B) 78. (A) 101. (C)
10. (B) 33. (B) 56. (D) 79. (B) 102. (D)
11. (C) 34. (A) 57. (C) 80. (B) 103. (B)
12. (B) 35. (B) 58. (C) 81. (C) 104. (D)
13. (D) 36. (A) 59. (D) 82. (D) 105. (A)
14. (A) 37. (A) 60. (A) 83. (D) 106. (D)
15. (A) 38. (D) 61. (B) 84. (C) 107. (D)
16. (B) 39. (A) 62. (C) 85. (B) 108. (C)
17. (B) 40. (A) 63. (A) 86. (C) 109. (B)
18. (D) 41. (A) 64. (B) 87. (D) 110. (A)
19. (C) 42. (A) 65. (C) 88. (B) 111. (C)
20. (A) 43. (C) 66. (B) 89. (D) 112. (C)
21. (A) 44. (C) 67. (B) 90. (B) 113. (B)
22. (D) 45. (D) 68. (B) 91. (B) 114. (C)
23. (A) 46. (C) 69. (C) 92. (D) 115. (D)
116. (C)

(8)
CPP-01
FOR 9X
FDN
Mathematics
Chapter - Number Systems
1. If HCF of x2 – x – 6 and x2 + 9x + 14 is x + m, 8. The number 111, 111, 111, 111 is divisible by

then the value of m is
(A) 9 and 11 (B) 5 and 11
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 and 9 (D) 3 and 11
(C) – 2 (D) – 1 9. If x + y + z = 0, then x3 + y3 + z3 is equal to
2. The sum of LCM and HCF of two number is 1260. (A) 0 (B) 3xyz
If their LCM is 900 more than their HCF, the
product of the two numbers is xy  yz  zx
(C) (D) xyz (x + y +z)
(A) 203400 (B) 194400 xyz
(C) 198400 (D) 205400 10. The LCM of xy + yz + zx + y2 and x2 + xy + yz
3. If the HCF of x3 + 2x2 – ax and 2x3 + 5x2 – 3x is + zx is
x(x + 3), then a is (A) x + y
(A) 3 (B) – 3 (B) y + z
(C) 6 (D) – 4 (C) (x+y) (y+z) (z+x)
(D) x2 + y2
ma  nc
4. If a : b = c : d, then is not equal to
mb  nd 3
11. The value of where a = 4 and b = – 4 is
ab
a c
(A) (B)
b d 3
(A) 3 (B)
8
ac ca
(C) (D) (C) 0 (D) Any finite number
bd bd
(E) Not defined
5. Given a2 + b2 = 1, c2 + d2 = 1, p2 + q2 = 1 where
the numbers considered are all real, then 12. The expression 25  t2  5 equal to 0, 0 for
(A) ab + cd + pq  1 (B) ab + cd + pq  3
(A) no real or imaginary values of t
3 (B) no real values of t, but for some imaginary
(C) ab + cd + pq  3 (D) ab + cd + pq  value
2
6. The sum of first n odd natural numbers is given by (C) no imaginary values of t, but for some real
values
(A) n2 – 1 (B) (n + 1)2
(D) t = 0
(C) (n – 1)2 (D) n2
(E) t = ± 5
7. The sum of three prime numbers is 100. If one of 13. If the least prime factor of 'a' is 3, the least prime
them exceeds another by 36, then one of the
factor of 'b' is 7, then the least prime factor of
numbers is
(a + b) is
(A) 7 (B) 29 (A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 41 (D) 67 (C) 5 (D) 11
(1)
Number Systems Aakash Institute
24. n4 – 4n3 – 39n2 + 86n + 140 (where n is a natural
64
14. The decimal representation of will be number) is always divisible by
455
(A) 140 (B) 35
(A) Terminating
(C) 20 (D) None of these
(B) Non-terminating
(C) Non-terminating repeating xy xz yz
25. If  a,  b and  c , where a, b
xy xz yz
(D) Non-terminating non-repeating
and c are other then zero, then x equals
15. If x, y, z are positive real numbers then minimum
xy yz zx abc 2abc
(A) (B)
value of z  x  y is ab  ac  bc ab  bc  ac
(A) 2 (B) –3 2abc 2abc

(C) (D)
ab  ac  bc ab  bc  ac
(C) 6 (D) 5
16. 224 – 61 is divisible by 2abc
(E)
ac  bc  ab
(A) 15 (B) 9
(C) 11 (D) 8 26. If a = 11  3 , b = 12  2 and c = 6  4 ,
17. The number of integral v alues satisf ying then which of the following holds true?
|x + 2| + |x – 2| = 4 is (A) c > a > b (B) a > b > c
(A) 5 (B) 4 (C) a > c > b (D) b > a > c
(C) 6 (D) 1
1 1 1
18. If x + y + z = 0 ; x 2 + y 2 + z 2 = 14, then 27.   + ..... upto 91
9  10 10  11 11  12
x4 + y4 + z4 is
terms is equal to
(A) 9 (B) 10
(A) 7 (B) 8
(C) 9 (D) 10
19. If x + y = 4 and x, y are positive real numbers
28. Four persons P, Q, R, S start running around a
then maximum value of x5y10 is
circular track simultaneously. If they complete one
(A) 16 (B) 8 round in 10, 8, 12 and 18 minutes respectively,
(C) 36 (D) None of these after how much time will they next meet at the
starting?
20. If 20! = 20 × 19 × 8 ....... × 3 × 2 × 1 be a real
(A) 180 minutes (B) 270 minutes
number, then the number of zero at right of 20! is
(C) 360 minutes (D) 450 minutes
(A) 4 (B) 5
29. The sum of LCM and HCF of two number is 1260.
(C) 6 (D) 7
If their LCM is 900 more than their HCF, the
product of the two numbers is
3
21. If x  then the value of 4x2 is (A) 203400 (B) 194400
3
3
3  .......  (C) 198400 (D) 205400
30. If the HCF of +x3 2x2 – ax and 2x3 + 5x2 – 3x is
(A) 30  6 21 (B) 30  6 21
x(x + 3), then a is
(C) 30  3 21 (D) None of these (A) 3 (B) – 3
22. A six-digit number 15x 67y is divisible of 56, then (C) 6 (D) – 4
the value of x + y is 31. The LCM of xy + yz + zx + y2 and x2 + xy + yz
(A) 5 (B) 6 + zx is
(A) x + y
(C) 2 (D) 4
(B) y + z
23. The sum of roots of x3 – 6x + 11x – 6 = 0 is
(C) (x + y) (y + z) (z + x)
(A) 6 (B) 11
(D) x2 + y2
(2)
Aakash Institute Number Systems
32. If x + y = 4 and x, y are positive real numbers
1 1
then maximum value of x2y2 is (A) (B)
2 3
(A) 16 (B) 8
(C) 36 (D) None of these 1 1
(C) (D)
4 5
33. A number n said to be perfect if the sum of all
divisors of n is equal to 2n. Then which one of the
following is a perfect number 41. If (5)3 + x (25)–3y = 1 and 9 y  2  ( 3 )x  1 then x + 2y
equals
(A) 10 (B) 24
(A) 35 (B) 36
(C) 28 (D) 32
(C) 37 (D) 41
34. If p2x(p2 + 1) = p(p3x + px), then the value of x is
42. x4 – 19x2 + 25 = (x2 + ax + b) (x2 – ax + c)
(A) ± 1 (B) ± p
then a2 + b2 + c2 equals
1 (A) 69 (B) 59
(C) 0 (D)
p
(C) 70 (D) 89
x2  9 43. If n is a natural number, then n(n + 1)(2n + 1) is
35. The product of additive inverses of and divisible by
x2
(A) 6 (B) 7
x2  4
is (C) 9 (D) All of these
x 3
44. If 2a + 3b + 4c = 35 and 3a + 5b + 7c = 30, then
(A) x2 + x – 6 (B) x2 – x – 6
a + b + c equals
(C) x2 – 5x + 6 (D) x2 + 5x + 6
(A) 20 (B) 30
1 2 x (C) 40 (D) 50
3 17
36. If   4 then x equals
5 27 10 
10
45. The 100th root of 10 is

1
(A) 1 (B) 10 8
2 (A) 108 (B) 1010
3 7  10
10
 10
(C) (D)   10  
10
2 2 (C) 10 (D)
37. The sum of three prime number is 100. If one of 46. If 511a + 511a + 511a + 511a + 511a = 556, then a
them exceeds another by 36, then one of the is
number is
(A) 11 (B) 55
(A) 29 (B) 41
(C) 67 (D) 37
38. The LCM of two numbers is 12 times their HCF. 3 1 3 1
47. If x = , then x  3 = ?
The sum of the HCF and LCM is 403; find the LCM 2 x
(A) 134 (B) 372
28 3  15 27 3  35
(C) 128 (D) 310 (A) (B)
8 4
3d8
 1
39. cd =   ,d= c then dc is equal to 28 3  15 27 3  35
c (C) (D)
8 4
(A) 2 (B) 4 48. If 25x–1 = 52x–1 – 100, then the value of x is
(C) 8 (D) 16 (A) 3
201320132 (B) 2
40. is
201320122  201320132  201320142  2 (C) 4
equal to (D) 1
(3)
49. For an integer n, a student states the following : 56. x4 + 1 = 1297 and y4 – 1 = 2400, then y2 – x2 =
I. If n is odd, (n + 1)2 is even (A) 10 (B) 25
II. If n is even, (n – 1)2 is odd (C) 13 (D) 43
III. If n is even,  n  1 is irrational 57. If m and n are positive integers, then for a positive
mn
Which of the above statements would be true?
(A) I and III (B) I and II
number a,   a 
m n equals
(C) I, II and III (D) II and III (A) amn (B) a

m
a  a2  b2 a  a2  b2 (C) a n
(D) 1
50. The value of  is
2 2 2 2
a a b a a b
58. The surds 2, 3 3 and 5
5 , in their descending
(A) a2 (B) b2 order are
a2  b 2 4a2  2b2 (A) 3

3, 5 5, 2 (B) 2, 3 3, 5 5
(C) 2 (D) 2
b b
(C) 2, 5 5, 3 3 (D) 3
3, 2 , 5 5
51. The smallest among; 10  5 , 19  14 ,
x y y x
22  17 and 8  3 is : x y
59. If x = 2 and y = 4, then     equals
(A) (B) y x
10  5 19  14
(A) 4 (B) 8
(C) 22  17 (D) 8 3
(C) 12 (D) 2
1 60. If p = 3 and q = 2, then
52. If x  , then x3 – 2x2 – 7x + 10 is equal to
2 3
 3p  4qqp   4p  3q2qp equals
(A) 2  3 (B) 10
(A) 1 (B) 6
(C) 7  2 3 (D) 8
1 2
53. (C) (D)
63  56 equals 6 3
(A)
4
7  3 5  (B)
4
7  3 1    32 0.2   810.25 
61.  
  256 0.5  1210.5  equals
(C)
4
7  3 2  (D)
4
7  2 1   
(A) 2 (B) 5
81 81 81 81 (C) 1 (D) 11
54. ....... equals
64 64 64 64
62. 11 11 11 11 equals
81 9
(A) (B)
64 8 (A) 16 (B) 16
115 11
3 3 16 16
(C) (D) (C) 1114 (D) 1115
2 2 2
n
64 2 2
55. If 5n  125 , then 5 equals 63. x ,y then, (x – y)2
10  8 10  2 2
1 equals
(A) 25 (B)
125
(A) 4 2 (B) 32
1
(C) 625 (D) (C) 8 2 (D) 64
5
(4)
64. a  6  3, b  3  2 and c  2  6 , then 1 1 2

73.   equals
a3 + b3 + c3 – 2abc equals 19  360 21  440 20  396
(A) 3 2  5 3  6 (B) 3 2  5 3  6 (A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 0 (D) 3
(C) 3 2  4 3  6 (D) 3 2  4 3  6
74. If a = 17  16 , b = 16  15 then,
65. ap = bq = cr = abc, then pqr equals
(A) a < b (B) a > b
(A) p2q + q2r
(C) a = b (D) a = b2
(B) pq + qr + pr
(C) (pq + qr + rp)2 75.  15  2 56 .
6 3
7 2 2  equals
(D) pq(qr + rp) (A) 0 (B) 1
(C) –1 (D) 2
66. 6  6  6  ....... is equal to
72 3 c p q r
(A) –3 (B) 3 76. If  (p < q < r) where,
2 7 5 23
(C) 6 (D) 2 p, q, r are rational numbers, then q + r – p equals
2 (A) 361 (B) 302
 1
67. If y  3  8 then,  y   equals (C) 418 (D) 426
 y
2
1 1
(A) 9 (B) 81 77. If x  then  x   equals
3 2  x
(C) 4 (D) 32
(A) 16 (B) 14
68. If  x  1 x  2 x  3  x  k   1 is a perf ect (C) 12 (D) 10
square, then the value of k is y
78. x
3  5 = 10125, then 12xy equals
(A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 6 (D) 7 1
(A) 1 (B)
3
69. 32 92  812 1616 equals

(C) 2 (D)
1
2
(A) 6 × 24 (B) 33 × 2
1
(C) 63 × 23 (D) 63 × 2 79. If x = , x2 – 10x + 1 equals
52 6
70. 7  2 6  7  2 6 equals (A) 1 (B) –1
(C) 0 (D) 10
(A) 14 (B) 6
2 2
(C) 2 6 (D) 7 80. If x = ,y= , then, x + y =
3 5 3 5
1
71. If x  2 3  2 , then x3 + 6x2 + 12x equals (A) 3 (B) 4 3
(A) 6 (B) –6 (C) 2 3 (D) 6
(C) 8 (D) –8
3
81. lies between which of the following fractions?
3 8 7
72.  equals
19  2 88 14  2 33 4 5 43 4
(A) , (B) ,
9 9 99 9
(A) 19  2 33 (B) 14  2 88
42 4 41 42
(C) , (D) ,
(C) 11  2 24 (D) 11  2 55 99 9 99 99
(5)
1
82. If y  3 3  3 , then y3 – 9y2 + 27y equals (A) 5  2  10  1 (B) 5  10  2  1
(A) 27 (B) –27 (C) 10  2  5  1 (D) 5  10  2  1

(C) –30 (D) 30 86. Find the remainder when 1210 is divided by 11
4 (A) 1 (B) 0
83. equals
10  2 21 (C) 10 (D) 7
87. P is LCM of 2, 4, 6, 8, 10. Q is the LCM of 1, 3,
1 1 5, 7, 9. L is the LCM of P and Q. Which of the
(A)
4
 7 3  (B)
4
 7 3  following is true?
(A) L = 21P (B) L = 4Q
(C) 7 3 (D) 7 3
(C) L = 63P (D) L = 16Q
1 1 1
84. It A A
B B
C ,
C
ABC + BAC + CAB = 729. 88. The LCM and the HCF of two numbers are
1 144 and 12 respectively. How many such pairs of
Which of the following is equal to A ? A
numbers are possible?
(A) ABC
81 (B) 2 (A) 0 (B) 1
(C) ABC (D) ABC (C) 2 (D) 3

27 243
12
85. The surd , after rationalizing the
3 5 2 2
denominator becomes

(6)
CPP-01
FOR 9X
FDN
ANSWERS
1. (B) 2. (B) 3. (A) 4. (D) 5. (D) 6. (D) 7. (D)
8. (D) 9. (B) 10. (C) 11. (E) 12. (A) 13. (A) 14. (C)
15. (C) 16. (A) 17. (A) 18. (D) 19. (D) 20. (A) 21. (A)
22. (B) 23. (A) 24. (D) 25. (E) 26. (B) 27. (A) 28. (C)
29. (B) 30. (A) 31. (C) 32. (A) 33. (C) 34. (A) 35. (A)
36. (D) 37. (C) 38. (B) 39. (D) 40. (B) 41. (C) 42. (B)
43. (A) 44. (C) 45. (B) 46. (C) 47. (B) 48. (B) 49. (B)
50. (D) 51. (C) 52. (D) 53. (D) 54. (A) 55. (A) 56. (C)
57. (B) 58. (D) 59. (B) 60. (C) 61. (C) 62. (D) 63. (B)
64. (C) 65. (B) 66. (B) 67. (D) 68. (A) 69. (D) 70. (C)
71. (B) 72. (C) 73. (C) 74. (A) 75. (B) 76. (A) 77. (A)
78. (A) 79. (C) 80. (C) 81. (C) 82. (D) 83. (C) 84. (D)
85. (B) 86. (A) 87. (A) 88. (C)

(7)
CPP-01
FOR 9X
FDN
Biology
Chapter - Cell-the Fundamental Unit of Life
1. Select the following option which is genetically 8. Match the following :

active and takes part in transcription
Column-I Column-II
(A) Heterochromatin
(a) Lysosome (i) ATP
(B) Euchromatin
(b) Food vacuole (ii) Nucleus
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(c) Chromosome (iii) Bacteria
(D) None of these
(d) Mitochondria (iv) Suicidal bag
2. Streaming of cytoplasm within the eukaryotic cell is
(A) a – (iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (ii), d – (i)
known as
(B) a – (ii), (b) – (i), (c) – (iv), d – (iii)
(A) Diffusion (B) Cyclosis
(C) a – (iv), (b) – (ii), (c) – (i), d – (iii)
(C) Plasmolysis (D) Active Transport
(D) a – (i), (b) – (iii), (c) – (ii), d – (iv)
3. Oxysomes are present in
(A) Inner mitochondrial membrane 9. Which of the following can be made into a crystal ?
(B) Outer mitochondrial membrane (A) An Amoeba (B) A bacterium
(C) Cytoplasm (C) A virus (D) A sperm
(D) Nucleoplasm 10. Match the cell organelles listed in column I with
their major role listed in column II and select the
4. Red colour of ripe tomatoes is due to presence of correct option from the codes given below :
(A) Chlorophyll – a (B) Phycocyanin Column - I Column - II
(C) Lycopene (D) Chlorophyll – b (a) SER (i) Secretion, Packaging
5. Golgi bodies is stained by and exocytosis of
(A) Calcium hydroxide solution zymogen, mucus etc.
(B) Gold particles (b) Golgi body (ii) Photorespiration
(C) Osmium Tetroxide + Silver salts (c) Lysosome (iii) Synthesis of lipids,
(D) All of the these glycogen, cholesterol
6. Protein that spans cell membrane is (d) Peroxisome (iv) Autolysis and
(A) Intrinsic (B) Extrinsic digestion
(C) Transmembrane (D) All of these (A) (a) – (iii), (b) – (i), c – (iv), (d) – (ii)
7. ‘Karyotheca’ is (B) (a) – (iv), (b) – (iii), c – (ii), (d) – (i)
(A) Nuclear membrane (C) (a) – (iii), (b) – (ii), c – (i), (d) – (iv)
(B) Golgi membrane (D) (a) – (i), (b) – (iv), c – (iii), (d) – (ii)
(C) Mitochondrial membrane

(D) None of these
(1)
Cell-the Fundamental Unit of Life Aakash Institute
11. If centromere is absent, the chromosome is known 18. Choose the correct def inition for the term
as ‘Karyotype’ from below.
(A) Dicentric (A) Staining of chromosome
(B) Polycentric (B) Group of characteristics that identifies a
(C) Acentric particular set of chromosomes
(D) Telocentric (C) Cell division in plant cells
12. The rRNAs of 80S ribosomes are (D) Disc-shaped protein structure attatched to
(A) 28S + 5.8S + 5S + 18S centromere
(B) 38S + 4.8S + 5S + 18S 19. Observ e the two columns and f ind out the
mismatch pair.
(C) 28S + 4.7S + 6S + 28S
Column - I Column - II
(D) 18S + 5.8S + 2S + 28S
13. Cytoplasmic junction between adjacent cells are (A) Electron microscope - Knoll and Ruska
known as (B) Cell theory - Schleiden and
(A) Plasmalemma Schwann
(B) Plasma membrane (C) Protoplasm - Robert Brown
(C) Plasmolysis (D) Omnis cellulae cellula - Rudolf Virchow
(D) Plasmodesmata 20. Observe the equations below and find out which of
14. Find the odd one out. the options below is correct.
(A) Flagella : Locomotory organelle (a) Anabolism + Catabolism = Metabolism

(B) Centrioles : Formation of mitotic spindles (b) Anabolism +Growth = Catabolism
(C) Glyoxysomes : Protein synthesis (c) Anabolism < Catabolism = Death
(D) Mitochondria : Cell respiration (d) Anabolism > Catabolism = Growth
15. Observe the relationship between first two words
(A) Only (a)
carefully and then complete the other pair from the
options below : (B) (a) and (b) only
Nucleus : Robert Brown : : Mitochondria : ? (C) (a), (c) and (d)
(A) Kolliker (D) None of the above
(B) Keith Porter 21. If Carrot : Carotene
(C) George Pallade
Then Beetroot : ?
(D) Robert Hooke
Find the correct match from below.
16. All the following statements are true, except
(A) Lycopene
(A) Cellulose present in cell wall is protein in nature
(B) Carotene
(B) Cell membrane is composed of lipoprotein
(C) RNA plays an important role in protein synthesis (C) Xanthophyll
(D) Mitochondria is made up of double membrane (D) Anthocyanin
17. All the following points describe similarity between 22. Mammals (Human) : RBC : : Plants : Sieve Tubes
mitochondria and chloroplast, except
Identify the missing cell organelle common to both
(A) Both have double membrane
(A) Mitochondria (B) Nucleus
(B) Both are semi autonomous organelles
(C) Lysosome (D) Golgi body
(C) Both consume O2
(D) Both form ATP by a similar mechanism
(2)
Aakash Institute Cell-the Fundamental Unit of Life
23. Refer the figure and identify the part labelled ‘X’ on 27. Can you identify the cell structure from the
a chromosome structure, from the descriptions following description given ?
given below :
(i) Present in bacterial cell
Satellite (ii) Plasma membrane forms complex convoluted
Secondary
Long Arm Constriction infolding
(iii) Principal location of respiratory enzymes
(A) Mesosomes
Short Arm (B) Mitochondria
‘X’ (C) Golgi bodies
(i) Also known as primary constriction
(D) Both (A), (B) and (C)
(ii) Attatches the two arms of chromosome
28. All the following are correct, except
(iii) Contains a protein disc called kinetochore
(A) Amyloplast – Starch
attatched to it
(B) Elaioplast – Oil
(A) Centrosome (B) Centromere
(C) Aleuroplast – Vitamins
(C) Centrioles (D) Kinetosome
(D) Chloroplast – Chlorophyll
24. Observe the statements carefully and then select
the correct option : 29. Haploid set of chromosome inherited is called :
(i) Anthocyanins are water soluble pigments (A) Genome
(ii) Grana is the site f or dark reaction of (B) Karyotype

photosynthesis (C) Gene
(iii) Viruses, blue green algae and bread mould (D) Genotype
are all exceptions to the cell theory
30. The diagram below shows the detailed structure of
(A) Only (i) is true a plant cell organelle. If you are to label parts 1,
2, 3, 4 you would choose
(B) Both (i) and (iii) are true
(C) All are true
(D) Only (ii) is true .. . .. .. .. . .
. ... . . . . .. . .. . .. .. .
.. ... . . .. .. . . . . . . . . . . . .. . ..
.. .......... .. .. .. .. .. .. .. .. .. .. ............... .. .. .. .. .. ..
.. .. ....... .. .. .. .. .. .. . . ....... .. ... .. .. .. ... .. .. ..
25. Which of the following statement is wrong? ....... . . . .. . . .. . . ... .. . ... . .. . . . . .
... . .. . . . . . . . . . . .. . . . . . . .
.. . . . . . . . . . .. .. . .. .
. . ... . . . . . .. . . .
(4)
(A) ‘Huxley’ referred protoplasm as ‘Physical basis
of Life’ (1) (3)
(2)
(B) Blue green algae contains chromatophores
(A) 1 – Fret, 2 – Stroma, 3 – Membrane, 4 – Grana
(C) Major constituents of ribosomes are protein +
(B) 1 – Stroma, 2 – Fret, 3 – Grana, 4 – Membrane
RNA
(C) 1 – Membrane, 2 – Grana, 3 – Fret, 4 – Stroma
(D) Lysosomes initiates cell division
(D) 1 – Stroma, 2 – Membrane, 3 – Grana, 4 – Fret
26. Study the 3 columns carefully and f ind the
mismatch : 31. ‘Sandwich Model’ of cell membrane has the
following arrangement
Structure and (A) Protein – Lipid – Lipid – Protein
Area of Study Instrument used
Dimension
(B) Lipid – Protein – Protein – Lipid
A) Organs Anatomy Eye and lenses
Light microscope (C) Glycogen – Lipid – Lipid – Glycogen
B) Tissues Histology
(ordinary)
Cell (D) Both (B) and (C)
C) Ultrastructure Electron
components
32. Proteins are associated with DNA are called
D) Cells Biochemistry Telescope
(A) Nuclein (B) Flagellin
(C) Histone (D) Cyclin
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33. Refer the fig. shown and label parts a, b, c (A) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
correctly from the options below :
(B) Only 3 is correct
(a) (C) 2 and 3 are correct; 1 is wrong
(D) Only 2 is correct
(b)
36. A tall beaker filled with water is taken; some dry
pea seeds are placed in it; it is then kept
undisturbed over night. Next morning it was
observed that the beaker is full with swollen pea
seeds. The biological explanation for this is
Cristae (A) Diffusion (B) Imbibition

(c)
(C) Active transport (D) Facilitated diffusion
(A) a – F 0 F 1 particles, b – Outer membrane, 37. Multinucleate condition that is a result of repeated
c – Plasmodesmata nuclear divisions without cytokinesis is known as
(B) a – Oxysomes, b – Outer membrane, c – Inner (A) Coenocyte (B) Syngamy
membrane
(C) Karyokinesis (D) Karyotheca
(C) a – Mitochondrial DNA, b – Cell wall, c – Inner
membrane 38. Match the following :
(D) None of these Column - I Column - II
34. Observe the two diagrams below and identify the (a) Permeable (i) Cork cell
biological phenomenon taking place in each from membrane
the below options.
(b) Impermeable (ii) Plant cell wall
Grape membrane
. .. ..
. ...... .. ........... ..
. . .. ... . ..... .... .......... (c) Semipermeable (iii) Cu-Ferrocyanide
...... ............ ............................
.. .... . .. . ..
(a)
Concentrated membrane membrane
Salt Solution
(d) Selectively (iv) Parchment paper
Dry Raisin
permeable membrane
. . ....
... . . ... . .. .. .. (A) a – (ii), b – (i), c – (iv), d – (iii)
.. .. ......... . ......... .........
................................ (b) ....... ............
.. ...... .. .
.. .
Water (B) a – (ii), b – (iii), c – (i), d – (iv)
(A) a – Active transport; b – Diffusion (C) a – (iii), b – (ii), c – (iv), d – (i)
(B) a – Osmosis; b – Facilitated diffusion (D) a – (iv), b – (iii), c – (ii), d – (i)
(C) a – Exosmosis; b – Endosmosis 39. Fastest acting enzyme is known as

(A) Nuclease (B) Oxidase
(D) a – Diffusion; b – Exosmosis
(C) Hydrolase (D) Catalase
35. Match List-I and List-II and select the correct
answer using the code : 40. If Lysosome : Christian de Duve : : Plastid : ?
List - I List - II (A) E. Haeckel (B) Kolliker
Phenomenon Event that occurs (C) G. Palade (D) Purkinje
1. Imbibition Adsorption of water by dry 41. If an animal cell like RBC is placed in a
hydrophilic colloids concentrated salt solution, then after some time the
2. Osmosis Special type of diffusion in shape of the RBC will become
presence of a semi- (A) Remains same
permeable membrane
(B) Crenated
3. Plasmolysis Contraction of protoplasm
of a living plant cell due to (C) Swollen and bursts
exosmosis (D) Becomes colourless
(4)
42. If a cell does not contain ribosomes, then what will (B) Heterochromatin is genetically inactive
be the consequence ? (C) Nucleus was discovered by Robert Brown
(A) No cellular respiration will occur (D) Both (A) & (B) are false
(B) No protein will be formed 53. Nucleolus is bound by X membranes and is rich in
(C) No photosynthesis Y .
(D) No storage of fats (A) X = 3, Y = RNA & proteins
43. The term ‘Chromosome’ was coined by (B) X = 0, Y = DNA & Lipids
(A) Hofmeister (B) Waldeyer (C) X = 2, Y = DNA & RNA
(C) Crick (D) Robert Brown (D) X = 0, Y = RNA & proteins
44. All of the following are cell excretory substances; 54. Which one is an eukaryotic cell ?
Find the mismatch pair. (A) Virus (B) Fruit fly
(A) Latex – Rubber (C) Bacteria (D) Blue green algae
(B) Caffeine – Coffee beans 55. The cell organelle that exhibits distinct polarity is
(C) Nicotine – Anti malarial drugs (A) Ribosome
(D) Morphine – Poppy plant (B) Golgi body
45. Process by which root hairs absorbs water from (C) Lysosome
soil (D) Endoplasmic reticulum
(A) Imbibition (B) Osmosis 56. Membraneless cell organelles are
(C) Diffusion (D) All of these (A) Vacuoles and lysosomes
46. Enzymes for Kreb's cycle is present in (B) Ribosome and centrosome
(A) Mitochondrial matrix (C) Golgi and plastid
(B) Cytoplasm (D) Vacuoles and ribosomes
(C) Chloroplast 57. Which are true statements w.r.t ribosomes ?
(D) Ribosome (A) Absent in human RBC
47. Main composition of middle lamella is (B) Protein factories of cell
(A) Calcium / Magnesium pectate (C) Made up of rRNA & proteins
(B) Peptidoglycan (D) All are true
(C) Cellulose 58. Acrosome of sperm is formed by
(D) Phospholipid (A) Lysosome (B) Golgi body
48. Biological process in which fat is being converted (C) Ribosome (D) Nucleus
into carbohydrates is
59. Polar caps are
(A) Photorespiration (B) Photolysis
(A) Gas vacuoles (B) Golgi body
(C) Glyoxylate cycle (D) None of these (C) Centrosomes (D) Lysosome
49. If Plant cell wall : Cellulose :: Bacterial cell wall : 60. Which organelle is called protein factory of cell?
(A) Peptidoglycan (B) Glycogen (A) Mitochondria
(C) Starch (D) All of these (B) Centriole
50. Smelling the aroma of flowers is due to (C) Ribosome
(A) Active transport (B) Diffusion (D) Endoplasmic reticulum
(C) Imbibition (D) Osmosis 61. Cell having characteristics of both plant and animal
51. Head of phospholipid molecules are cell.
(A) Hydrophilic (B) Hydrophobic (A) Paramecium (B) Euglena
(C) Lipophilic (D) None of these (C) Volvox (D) Amoeba
52. Which is a false statement ? 62. Organelles involved in membrane biogenesis are
(A) Fungi are only uninucleate (A) Mitochondria (B) Smooth ER
(C) Rough ER (D) (B) and (C) both
(5)
63. Golgi apparatus is present as single unit in plants (D) It also contains respiratory enzymes
as 73. Which of the following statement is incorrect w.r.t.
(A) Peroxisome (B) Oxysome viruses ?
(C) Dictyosome (D) None of these (A) They do not show characteristics of life until
64. The process that involves the fusion of membrane they enter a living body
vesicle with the plasma membrane to extrude (B) They are non-cellular structures
vesicle contents to the surrounding medium is (C) They cannot be crystallised
called
(D) They contain DNA/RNA
(A) Endocytosis (B) Exocytosis
74. Identify the organelle which plays a role in
(C) Pinocytosis (D) Phagocytosis digesting worn out organelles and cell debris and
65. Which of the following character separates the also plays a role in cell death.
Gram negative bacteria from Gram positive (A) Mitochondria (B) Ribosomes
bacteria?
(C) Lysosomes (D) Microbodies
(A) Cell wall (B) Cell membrane
75. Protein synthesis in a prokaryotic cell is carried
(C) Cytoplasm (D) Flagella out by
66. Name the biochemicals present in cell membrane (A) Mesosomes
responsible for cell recognition and adhesion.
(B) Chloroplast
(A) Glycoproteins (B) Glycolipids
(C) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Proteins and lipids
(D) Polysomes
67. Genetic material in bacterial cell is known as
76. W hich of the following is correct about the
(A) Central vacuole (B) Endoplasmic reticulum function of peroxisomes ?
(C) Nucleus (D) Nucleoid (A) It synthesizes membrane components such as
68. Hydrolytic enzymes are found in fatty acids and phospholipids
(A) Ribosomes (B) Centrosomes (B) It controls the flow of ions into and out of the
(C) Lysosomes (D) Nucleus cell
69. Which of the following is not a character of the (C) Oxidative enzymes present in it decomposes
endoplasmic reticulum ? toxic byproducts into water and oxygen
(A) It transports materials between various region (D) It contains hydrolytic enzymes which help in
in the cytoplasm digesting macromolecules
(B) It behaves as a transport channel for proteins 77. DNA is ______ charged and histones is _____
between nucleus and cytoplasm charged molecules.
(C) It is the site of energy generation of the cell (A) Negatively and positively
(D) It is the site for various biochemical activities of (B) Positively and negatively
the cell (C) Negatively and negatively
70. Which of the following best describes a telocentric (D) Positively and positively
chromosome? 78. Bright colours of ripened fruits are due to the
(A) Chromosome that has a terminal centromere presence of
(B) Chromosome with a sub-terminal centromere (A) Idioblasts (B) Leucoplasts
(C) Chromosome with kinetochore (C) Chloroplast (D) Chromoplast
(D) Chromosome with centromere at the centre 79. Consider the following statements.
71. W hich of the f ollowing giv es the true (P) Lipid synthesis
representation of microtubules arrangement in (Q) Protein synthesis
eukaryotic flagella?
(R) Glycogenolysis and blood glucose
(A) 9 + 9 (B) 9 + 2 maintainance
(C) 9 + 8 (D) 9 + 1 (S) Sterol metabolism
72. Select the incorrect statement regarding
W hich of the abov e are the f unctions of
mitochondria.
endoplasmic reticulum ?
(A) It is the site of aerobic respiration
(A) P and Q only (B) P, Q and S
(B) It is also known as the "Power house" of the cell
(C) R only (D) R and S only
(C) It possess linear DNA and 80s ribosomes
(6)
80. Dye used for staining mitochondria is (A) 50S and 20S (B) 40S and 30S
(A) Haematoxylin (B) Janus green (C) 60S and 10S (D) 50S and 30S
(C) Eosin (D) Methylene blue 90. Kreb's cycle occurs in _____
81. Centrioles are best described as (A) Matrix of chloroplast
(A) Sub-microscopic, filamentous helical structures (B) Matrix of mitochondria
(B) Sub-microscopic, microtubular, spherical (C) Matrix of sap vacuole
structures
(D) Cytosol
(C) Submicroscopic filamentous linear structure
91. Mitotic apparatus represents
(D) Submicroscopic, microtubular sub-cylindrical
structure (A) Centriole with radiating tubules
82. Which of the following organelles have major role (B) Aster together with cytoplasmic spindle
in membrane biogenesis? (C) Centriole forming a flagella or cilia
(A) Ribosome (D) Other name of centriole
(B) Nucleus 92. The term homologous chromosome
(C) Endoplasmic reticulum (A) Refers to replication of same chromosome
(D) Peroxisomes (B) Is another name for sister chromatids
83. Which of following describes the nucleolus ? (C) Must be haploid
(A) It is a region of cytoplasm containing the nucleus (D) Means a pair of chromosome of same kind such
(B) It is the site of rRNA synthesis as sex chromosome
(C) It is a conspicuous rounded structure in the 93. Experiments demonstrating the importance of
nucleoplasm which is associated with NOR of nucleus in controlling the growth of the cell was
certain chromosomes performed in
(D) Both (B) and (C) (A) Starfish (B) Acetabularia
84. Stage when cytokinesis begin. (C) Neurospora (D) Leucocytes
(A) Anaphase (B) Prophase 94. Cytokinesis in plant cells involve
(C) Metaphase (D) Interphase (A) Separation of sister chromatids
85. Segmental exchange during cell division between (B) Contraction of microfilamental rings
paternal and maternal chromosomes is called as (C) Depolymerisation of kinetochore microtubules
(A) Tetrad analysis (B) Bivalent formation (D) Cell plate formation
(C) Synapsis (D) Crossing over 95. The ribosome present in mitochondria is
86. Which of the following distinguishes the prophase1 (A) 80S (B) 70S
of meiosis from the prophase of mitosis ? (C) 60S (D) 40S
(A) Pairing of homologous chromosomes 96. The functional chromatin present in the nucleus is/
(B) Spindle formation are
(C) Distinguished visibility of chromosomes (A) Euchromatin
(D) Condensation of chromatin material (B) Heterochromatin
87. The human cell which remains in the interphase (C) False nucleolus
period throughout the life of an individual is (D) Both euchromatin and heterochromatin
(A) Chromocytes (B) Epidermal cells 97. W hich of the f ollowing best describes the
(C) Neurons (D) Blood corpuscles acrocentric chromosome ?
88. Structurally spindle fibres are made up of (A) Chromosome that has a terminal centromere
(A) Actin (B) Tubulin (B) Chromosome with centromere at the centre
(C) Myosin (D) Flagellin (C) Chromosome with centromere situated a little
away from the centre
89. Sedimentation constant of prokaryotic ribosome is
generally 70S. It breaks up into two subunits (D) Chromosome with sub-terminal chromosome
whose sedimentation constants are
(7)
98. Find the odd one out. 107. The cell junctions which allow transfer of ions and
(A) Endoplasmic reticulum solutes between adjacent cells are called
(B) Mitochondria (A) Zonula occludens (B) Macula adherens
(C) Golgi bodies (C) Interdigitations (D) Gap junctions
(D) Lysosome 108. Protein synthesis in bacterium occurs in the
99. The chromosomes are best visible in the (A) Cytoplasm (B) Mesosomes
(A) Prophase stage (B) Metaphase stage (C) Polysomes (D) Plasmids
(C) Interphase (D) Anaphase 109. The organelle that is concerned with metabolism,
storage and synthesis of fats is
100. Enzymes for terminal oxidation are present in the
(A) Sphaerosomes (B) Glyoxysomes
(A) Cytoplasm of the cell
(C) Peroxysomes (D) Lysosomes
(B) Matrix of the mitochondria
110. Cell wall in onion peel cell is made up of
(C) Inner membrane of the mitochondria
(A) Starch (B) Gelatin
(D) Perimitochondrial space
(C) Cellulose (D) Chitin
101. An exception to the cell theory is/are
111. A long and branched animal cell is
(A) RBC (B) Virus
(A) Muscle cell (B) Epithelial cell
(C) Bacteria (D) All of these
(C) Nerve cell (D) Cartilage cell
102. Glycosylation of protein molecules occurs in
112. Which of the following organelle is not found in the
(A) Vacoules root cells of a plant ?
(B) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum (A) Vacuole (B) Nucleus
(C) Cytoplasm (C) Ribosome (D) Chloroplast
(D) Golgi bodies 113. Which of the following cell organelle is incorrectly
103. If a RBC is placed in 0.9% NaCl solution, matched ?
(A) The cell will swell up (A) Ribosomes – Synthesis of proteins
(B) The cell will be under crenation (B) Centrosome – Carries genes
(C) The cell will remain unchanged (C) Mitochondrion – Presence of
respiratory enzymes
(D) The cell will die
(D) Cell wall – Provides protection
104. A = Cholesterol, B = Phospholipid, C = Proteins
and D = Glycoproteins that constitutes the cell 114. The part of the cell which plays a role in
membrane. The part of the cell membrane that inheritance is
acts as cell recognition site (A) Nucleus (B) Chloroplast
(A) A and B (B) A, B and C (C) Centriole (D) Golgi apparatus
(C) B and D (D) Only D 115. W hich of the following cell does not have a
105. The dye used to stain chromatin is nucleus ?
(A) Malachite green (B) Eosin (A) White blood cell (B) Red blood cell
(C) Fuelgen stain (D) Gentian violet (C) Nerve cell (D) Muscle cell
106. Match the following column 116. Which of the following are prokaryotes ?
Column I Column II 1. Protozoa 2. Blue green algae
(I) SER (i) Catalase 3. Fungi 4. Bacteria
(II) Lysosome (ii) Muscular contraction (A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3
(III) Peroxisomes (iii) Microtubules (C) 1 and 4 (D) 2 and 4
(IV) Spindle apparatus (iv) Autophagy 117. An eukaryotic chromosome consists of
(A) I-ii, II-iii, III-iv, IV-i (B) I-ii, II-iv, III-i, IV-iii (A) DNA only
(B) DNA plus proteins
(C) I-ii, II-iv, III-iii, IV-i (D) I-iv, II-iii, III-ii, IV-i
(C) DNA plus membrane
(D) DNA plus lipids
(8)
118. Which of the following statement is incorrect ? 121. The rough ER is specially well developed in cells
(A) Ribosomes are made of RNA and proteins actively engaged in
(B) Cells arise from pre existing cells (A) Protein synthesis (B) Nucleotide synthesis
(C) In animal cells, the mitochondria are the only (C) Secretory function (D) Lipid synthesis
cell organelles outside the nucleus that contains 122. Find out the incorrect statement
DNA (A) Osmosis is a slow process, occurs against the
(D) The chemical nature of protoplasm can easily concentration gradient and does not expend
be determined energy
119. Match the items in column A with those in column B (B) Active transport of materials is rapid and usually
occurs against the concentration gradient
Column A Column B
involving carrier proteins and energy in the form
(a) Vacuoles (i) Intra cellular digestion of ATP
(b) Nucleolus (ii) Respiratory enzymes (C) A semipermeable membrane allows both solvent
(c) Lysosomes (iii) Covered by tonoplast and solute molecules to pass through it
(d) Cristae (iv) Dissolved in the (D) The electron microscope uses electromagnets
cytoplasm instead of glass lenses and beams of electrons
instead of light
(e) Anthocyanin (v) Forms RNA
123. Middle lamella is chemically formed of
(A) a-ii, b-v, c-iii, d-iv, e-i
(A) Cellulose (B) Hemicellulose
(B) a-iii, b-v, c-i, d-ii, e-iv
(C) Pectin (D) Lignin
(C) a-iii, b-v, c-ii, d-iv, e-i
124. Animal cells do not show plasmolysis because
(D) a-v, b-iii, c-i, d-ii, e-iv (A) They do not exhibit osmosis
120. Match the items of column A with those in column B. (B) They do not possess cell wall
Column A Column B (C) They are living cells
(a) Holds nucleus (i) Golgi bodies (D) They have intercellular spaces
together 125. Silver nitrate solution is used to study
(b) Stores and (ii) Centrioles (A) Endoplasmic reticulum
releases chemicals (B) Golgi apparatus
(c) Controls entry (iii) Nuclear membrane (C) Mitochondria
of substances into (D) Nucleus
and out of the cell 126. Which of the following is not a function of the
(d) Surface for (iv) Cell membrane vacuole ?
chemical activity (A) Storage
(e) Structures involved (v) Endoplasmic reticulum (B) Providing turgidity to a cell
in mitosis in animal (C) Waste removal
cells only (D) Locomotion
(A) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-v, e-ii
(B) a-iii, b-v, c-iv, d-i, e-ii
(C) a-iv, b-v, c-iii, d-i, e-ii
(D) a-i, b-ii, c-v, d-iv, e-iii

(9)
CPP-01
FOR 9X
FDN
ANSWERS
1. (B) 27. (A) 53. (D) 79. (B) 105. (C)
2. (B) 28. (C) 54. (B) 80. (B) 106. (B)

3. (A) 29. (A) 55. (B) 81. (D) 107. (D)
4. (C) 30. (A) 56. (B) 82. (C) 108. (C)
5. (C) 31. (A) 57. (D) 83. (D) 109. (A)
6. (C) 32. (C) 58. (B) 84. (A) 110. (C)
7. (A) 33. (B) 59. (C) 85. (D)
111. (C)
8. (A) 34. (C) 60. (C) 86. (A)
112. (D)
9. (C) 35. (A) 61. (B) 87. (C)
113. (B)
10. (A) 36. (B) 62. (D) 88. (B)
114. (A)
11. (C) 37. (A) 63. (C) 89. (D)
115. (B)
12. (A) 38. (A) 64. (B) 90. (B)
116. (D)
13. (D) 39. (D) 65. (A) 91. (B)
117. (B)
14. (C) 40. (A) 66. (C) 92. (D)
118. (D)
15. (A) 41. (B) 67. (D) 93. (B)
119. (B)
16. (A) 42. (B) 68. (C) 94. (D)
120. (A)
17. (C) 43. (B) 69. (C) 95. (B)
121. (A)
18. (B) 44. (C) 70. (A) 96. (A)
19. (C) 45. (B) 97. (D) 122. (C)

71. (B)
20. (C) 46. (A) 98. (B) 123. (C)
72. (C)
21. (D) 47. (A) 73. (C) 99. (B) 124. (B)
22. (B) 48. (C) 74. (C) 100. (C) 125. (B)
23. (B) 49. (A) 75. (D) 101. (D) 126. (D)
24. (B) 50. (B) 76. (C) 102. (D)
25. (D) 51. (A) 77. (A) 103. (C)
26. (D) 52. (A) 78. (D) 104. (D)

(10)

Aakash Motion CPP

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CPP-01

(D) Distance and displacement 6. Which of the following is correct?

(C) Magnitude of velocity = speed always (D) None of these

(C) Its average velocity is same as velocity (D) Uniformly non-decelerated

(D) Both (B) and (C)

21. The stick figures along the bottom suggest how a

18. In the above question, corresponding position – time time

x(position) (B) time

What is the initial direction of travel?

A (C) 15 m/s (D) 2.5 m/s

2 (A) The acceleration at t = 0 must be zero

(A) 26 (B) 28 4s t(s)

45. With reference to Q 45, the value of u is

(C) x t1.t 2 (D) Cannot be worked out t(s)

51. Is the time variation of position shown in figure

0 t(s) (A) Lighter ball (A) will reach first

(C) Heavier ball (B) will reach first

0 t(s) 53. Two bodies of different masses m1 and m2 are

(iv) Fired bullet (neglecting effect of air)

t 58. Two trains each having a speed of 30 km/hr are

1. (B) 27. (B) 52. (B) 79. (C) 105. (B)

(B) Decrease in temperature (A) One atmosphere (B) 76 cm Hg

(A) 276.3 cm3 (B) 278 cm3 (A) 2L (B) 4L

V0  1  (A) High pressure, high temperature.

(C) Cooling (D) Increase in pressure 108. Decreasing order of diffusion is

(C) Low temperature and high pressure 116. Correct statement is

1. (B) 24. (C) 47. (B) 70. (D) 93. (D)

1. If HCF of x2 – x – 6 and x2 + 9x + 14 is x + m, 8. The number 111, 111, 111, 111 is divisible by

(A) 2 (B) –3 2abc 2abc

45. The 100th root of 10 is

(C) I, II and III (D) II and III (A) amn (B) a

a2  b 2 4a2  2b2 (A) 3

64. a  6  3, b  3  2 and c  2  6 , then 1 1 2

69. 32 92  812 1616 equals

(A) 27 (B) –27 (C) 10  2  5  1 (D) 5  10  2  1

(C) ABC (D) ABC (C) 2 (D) 3

1. (B) 2. (B) 3. (A) 4. (D) 5. (D) 6. (D) 7. (D)

85. (B) 86. (A) 87. (A) 88. (C)

1. Select the following option which is genetically 8. Match the following :

(B) Outer mitochondrial membrane (A) An Amoeba (B) A bacterium

(C) Cytoplasm (C) A virus (D) A sperm

7. ‘Karyotheca’ is (B) (a) – (iv), (b) – (iii), c – (ii), (d) – (i)

(C) Mitochondrial membrane

(A) Flagella : Locomotory organelle (a) Anabolism + Catabolism = Metabolism

(D) Mitochondria is made up of double membrane (D) Anthocyanin

(i) Anthocyanins are water soluble pigments (A) Genome

(ii) Grana is the site f or dark reaction of (B) Karyotype

Cristae (A) Diffusion (B) Imbibition

(D) None of these Column - I Column - II

(A) a – Active transport; b – Diffusion (C) a – (iii), b – (ii), c – (iv), d – (i)

(B) a – Osmosis; b – Facilitated diffusion (D) a – (iv), b – (iii), c – (ii), d – (i)

(C) a – Exosmosis; b – Endosmosis 39. Fastest acting enzyme is known as

(III) Peroxisomes (iii) Microtubules (C) 1 and 4 (D) 2 and 4

(IV) Spindle apparatus (iv) Autophagy 117. An eukaryotic chromosome consists of

1. (B) 27. (A) 53. (D) 79. (B) 105. (C)

2. (B) 28. (C) 54. (B) 80. (B) 106. (B)

19. (C) 45. (B) 97. (D) 122. (C)

24. (B) 50. (B) 76. (C) 102. (D)

25. (D) 51. (A) 77. (A) 103. (C)

26. (D) 52. (A) 78. (D) 104. (D)

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