1 because of the risk.
” Which response by the nurse is most
NURSING PRACTICE I SET A
_________________________________________________
INSTRUCTIONS:
1. Detach one (1) answer sheet from the bottom of your
Examinee ID/Answer Sheet
Set .
2. Write the subject title “Nursing Practice I” on the box
provided.
3. Shade Set Box “A” on your answer sheet if your test
booklet is Set A; Set Box “B” if your test
booklet is Set B.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Nurse Suzie is administering 12:00 PM medication in
Ward 4. Two patients have to receive
Lanoxin. What should Nurse Suzie do when one of the
clients does NOT have a readable
identification band?
A. Ask the client if she is Mrs. Santos
B. Ask the client his name
C. Ask the room mate if the client is Mrs. Santos
D. Compare the ID band with the bed tag
2. Lizette, a head nurse in a surgical unit, hears one of the
staff nurses say that she does not
touch any client assigned to her unless she performs
nursing procedures or conducts physical
assessment. To guide the staff nurse in the use of touch,
which of the following would be
BEST response of Lizette?
A. “Use touch when the situation calls for it”.
B. “Touch serves as a connection between the nurse and
the patient”.
C. “Use touch with discretion”.
D. “Touch is used in physical assessment”.
3. You are asked to teach the client, Mr. Lapuz, who has
right sided weakness the use of a cane.
Which observation will indicate that Mr. Lapuz is using the
cane correctly?
A. The cane and one foot or both feet are on the floor at all
times
B. He advances the cane followed by the left leg
C. Client keeps the cane on the right side along the weak leg
D. Client leans to the left side which is stronger
4. George, a 43 year old executive is scheduled for cardiac
bypass surgery. While being
prepared for the surgery, he says to the nurse “I am not
going to have the surgery. I may die
appropriate?
A. “Without the surgery you will most likely die sooner.”
B. “There are always risks involved with surgery.”
C. “There is a client in the other room who had successful
surgery and you can talk to
him.”
D. “This must be very frightening for you. Tel me how you
feel about the
surgery.”
2
5. A client is ordered to take Lasix, a diuretic, to be taken
orally daily. Which of the following is an
appropriate instruction by the nurse?
A. Report to the physician the effects of the medication on
urination.
B. Take the medicine early in the morning
C. Take a full glass of water with the medicine
D. Measure frequency of urination in 24 hours
6. Nurse Glenda gets a call from the neighbor who tells her
that his 3 years old daughter has
been vomiting and has fever and asks for advice. Which of
the following is the most
appropriate action of the nurse?
A. Observe the child for an hour. If the child does not
improve, refer to the physician in
the neighborhood.
B. Recommend to bring the child immediately to the
hospital
C. Assess the child, recommend observation and administer
acetaminophen. If
symptoms continue, bring to the hospital.
D. Tell the neighbor to observe the child and give plenty of
fluids. If the child does not
improve, bring the child to the hospital.
7. Wilfred, 30 years old male, was brought to the hospital
due to injuries sustained from a
vehicular accident. While being transported to the X-ray
department, he straps accidentally
broke and the client fell to the floor hitting to his head. In
this situation, the nurse is:
A. not responsible because of the doctrine of respondent
superior
B. free from any negligence that caused harm to the patient
C. liable along with the employer for the use of a defective
equipment that
harms the client
D. totally responsible for the negligence
8. While going on evening round, Nurse Edna saw Mrs.
Pascual meditating and afterwards
started singing prayerful hymns. What is the BEST response
of Edna?
A. Ignore the incidence
B. Report the incidence to the head nurse
C. Respect the client’s actions as this provides structure and
support to the
client
D. Call her attention so she can go to sleep
9. A client asks for advice on low cholesterol food. You
advise the client to eat the following:
A. Chicken liver, cow liver, eggs
B. Lean beef and pork, egg ewhite, fish
C. Balut, salted eggs, duck and chicken egg
D. Pork liempo, cow brain, lungs and kidney
10. The code of ethics for nurses has an interpretative
statement that provides:
A. continuity of care for the improvement of the client
B. guide for carrying out nursing responsibilities that
provide quality care and
for the ethical obligation of the profession
C. standards of care in carrying out nursing responsibilities
D. identical care to all clients in any setting
11. Which of the following situations would possibly cause a
nurse to be sued due to negligence?
A. Nurse gave a client wrong medication, and an hour later,
client complained of
dyspnea
B. While preparing a medication, the nurse notices that
instead of 1 tablet, she put two
tablets into the client’s medicine cup
C. As the nurse was about to administer medication, the
client questioned why the
medication is still given when in fact the physician
discontinued it.
D. Nurse administered 2 tablets of analgesic instead of 1
tablet as prescribed. Patient
noticed the error and complained.
3 cannot be delegated. It is important that the nurse has a
12. Your nurse supervisor asks you who among the
following clients is most susceptible to getting
infection if admitted to the hospital?
A. Diabetic client type2
B. Client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
(COPD)
C. Client with second degree burns
D. Client with psoriasis
13. Mr. Chris Martinez has been confined for three days. His
wife helped take care of him and he
has observed her to be “too involved” in his care. He
complained to the head nurse about this.
Which of the following would be the BEST response of the
nurse?
A. “Don’t worry. I will call the attention of your wife.”
B. “Your wife is just trying to help because she is worried
about you.”
C. “What are your thoughts about your wife’s involvement
in your care?”
D. “Your wife can assist you well in your care and recovery.”
14. The nurse is in the hospital canteen and hears two staff
nurses talking about the client
confined in Room 612. They mentioned his name and
discussed details of his condition.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Approach the two nurses and tell them that their actions
are inappropriate
especially in a public place
B. Wait till the nurses finish the discussion and report the
situation to the supervisor
C. Say nothing to avoid embarrassing the staff nurses
D. Remain quiet and ignore the discussion
15. The son of Mr. Rosario, a 76 year old man, reports to
the nurse in the community health
center that his father has been getting out of bed at night
and walks around the house in the
early hours of the morning causing him to fall and injure
himself. Which instruction would you
give?
A. Apply restraints during night hours only
B. Advise hospitalization to prevent future accidents
C. Keep a radio or TV for company and to orient the client
D. Have someone check on the client frequently at night
SITUATIONAL
Situation 1 – Preparation and administration of medications
is a nursing function that
deep understanding
of this responsibility that is meant to save patient’s lives.
16. You are to administer an intramuscular injection to
Dulce, 1 ½ year old girl. The most
appropriate site to administer the drug is:
A. dorso gluteal region C. vastus lateralis
B. ventral forearm D. gluteal region
17. An infant is ordered to receive 500ml of D5NSS for 24
hours. The intravenous drip is running
at 60 drops/minute. How many drops per minute should
the flow rate be?
A. 60 drops per minute C. 30 drops per minute
B. 21 drops per minute D. 15 drops per minute
18. Following surgery, Henry is to receive 20 mEq
(milliequivalent) of potassium chloride to be
added to 1000 ml of D5W to run for 8 hours. The
intravenous infusion set is calibrated at 20
drops per milliliter. How many drops per minute should the
rate be to infuse 1 liter of D5W for 8
hours?
A. 42 drops C. 60 drops
B. 20 drops D. 32 drops
4 tomorrow
19. Mr. Lagro is to receive 1 liter of D5LR to run for 12
hours. The drop factor of the IV infusion
set is 10 drops per minute. Approximately how many drop
per minutes should the IV be
regulated?
A. 13-14 drops C. 10-12 drops
B. 17-18 drops D. 15-16 drops
20. The physician ordered Nembutal Na gr XX. The bottle
contains 100mg/capsule. How many
capsule will be administered to the client?
A. 1 capsule C. 2 capsule
B. 1 ½ capsule D. ½ capsule
Situation 2 – The nurse supervisor is observing the staff
nurses in her hospital to see how
quality of care provided to clients can be improved.
21. The nurse supervisor is not satisfied with the bed bath
that is provided by Nurse Arthur. To
improve the care provided to the patients in the unit by
Nurse Arthur, the nurse supervisor
should:
A. tell the nurse how to give bed baths correctly
B. ask another staff nurse to do bed baths instead
C. provide a manual to be read on giving bed baths
D. bring the staff nurse to a client’s room and demonstrate
22. The staff nurse discusses with the novice nurse the type
of wound dressing that is best to
use for a client. Together, they observe how well the
dressings absorb the drainage. In what
step of the decision making process are they?
A. Testing options C. Defining the problem
B. Considering effects on results D. Making final decisions
23. To check if the nurses under her supervision use critical
thinking, Mrs. David observes if the
nurses act responsibly when at work. Which of the
following actions of the nurse demonstrates
the attitude of responsibility?
A. Thinking of alternative methods of nursing care
B. Sharing ideas regarding patient care
C. Following standards of practice
D. Planning other approaches for patient care
24. The nurse who makes clinical judgment can be
depended upon to improve the quality of care
of clients. Nurse Julie uses such good clinical judgment
when she gives priority care to this
client:
A. Roman, a client who is ambulatory and for surgery
B. A post operative client, Rey, who has a blood pressure of
90/50 mmHg
C. Mr. Abad, a client who needs instructions for home
medications
D. Fred, a client who received pain medications 5 minutes
ago
25. A good nursing care plan is dependent on a correctly
written nursing diagnosis. It defines a
client’s problem and its possible cause. The following is an
example of a well written nursing
diagnosis:
A. Acute pain related to altered skin integrity secondary to
hysterectomy
B. Electrolyte imbalance related to hypocalcemia
C. Altered nutrition related to high fat intake secondary to
obesity
D. Knowledge deficit related to proctosigmoidoscopy
Situation 3– You are taking care of Mrs. Leyba, 66 years old,
who is terminally ill with
ovarian cancer stage IV.
26. When caring for a dying client, you will perform which
of the following activities?
A. Encourage the client to reach optimal health
B. Assist client perform activities of daily living
5
C. Assist the client towards a peaceful death
D. Motivate client to gain independence
27. The client prepares for her eventual death and discusses
with the nurse and her family how
she would like her funeral to look like and what dress she
will use. This client is in the stage of:
A. acceptance C. denial
B. resolution D. bargaining
28. The nurse is to administer Demerol 50 mg IM to Mrs.
Leyba. Demerol is available in a
mutidose vial labelled 100 mg/ml and Vistaril comes in an
ampule labelled 50 mg/ml. You are
to give the both medications in one injection. You will:
A. withdraw the medication from the vial first then from the
ampule
B. inject air into the vial, then into the ampule
C. inject air into the ampule, aspirate the desired dose, then
into the vial
D. withdraw medication from the ampule then from the vial
29. When giving Demerol 50 mg from a multidose vial
labelled 100 mg/ml and Vistaril 50 mg/ml
from an ampule labelled 50 mg/ml, what is the total volume
that you will inject to the client?
A. 2 ml C. 1.5 ml
B. 1 ml D. 1.75 ml
30. Mrs. Leyba is emaciated and is at risk for developing
which problem in skin integrity?
A. Blisters C. Pressure sores
B. Reddening of the skin D. Pustules
Situation 4 – You are assigned to work in an orthopedic
ward where clients are expected to
have problems in mobility and immobility.
31. Ramil’s right leg is injured and Nurse Karen has to move
him from the bed to w wheel chair.
Which of the following is the appropriate nursing action of
Nurse Karen?
A. Put the client on the edge of the bed and place the
wheelchair at her back
B. Face the client and place the wheelchair on her left side
C. Put the client on the edge of the bed and place the
wheelchair on the other side of
the bed
D. Put the client on the edge of the bed and place the
wheelchair on the client’s
left side
32. Carlo has to be maintained on a dorsal recumbent
position. Which of the following should be
prevented?
A. adduction of the shoulder
B. Lateral flexion of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
C. Hyperextension of the knees
D. Anterior flexion of the lumbar curvature
33. Joseph prefers to be in high fowler’s position most of
the time. The nurse should prevent
which of the following?
A. Posterior flexion of the lumbar curvature
B. Internal rotation of the shoulder
C. External rotation of the hip
D. Adduction of the shoulder
34. Anthony asks to be assisted to move up the bed. Which
of the following should Nurse Diana
do first?
A. Move the patient to the edge of the bed near the nurse
B. Adjust the bed to flat position
C. Lock the wheels of the bed
D. Raise the bed rails opposite the nurse
6
35. Which of the following supportive devices can be used
most effectively by Nurse Arnold to
prevent external rotation of the right leg?
A. Sandbags C. Pillow
B. Firm mattress D. High foot board
Situation 5 – As you begin to work in the hospital where
you are on probation, you are
tasked to take care of a few patients. The clients have
varied needs and you
are expected to provide care for them.
36. An ambulatory client. Mr. Zosimo, is being prepared for
bed. Which of the following nursing
actions promote safety for the client?
A. Turning off the lights to promote rest and sleep
B. Instructing the client about the use of call system
C. Raising the side rails
D. Placing the bed in high position
37. Mikka, a 25 year old female client, is admitted with right
lower quadrant abdominal pain. The
physician diagnosed the client with acute appendicitis and
an emergency appendectomy was
performed. Twelve hours following surgery, the patient
complained of pain. Which of the
following is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis?
A. Impaired mobility related to pain secondary to an
abdominal incision
B. Impaired movements related to pain due to surgery
C. Impaired mobility related to surgery
D. Severe pain related to surgery
38. You are preparing a plan of care for a client who is
experiencing pain related to incisional
swelling following laminectomy. Which of the following
should be included in the nursing care
plan?
A. Encourage the client to log roll when turning
B. Encourage the client to do self-care
C. Instruct the client to do deep breathing exercises
D. Ambulate the client in ward premises every twenty
minutes
39. Mr. Lozano, 50 year old executive, is recovering from
severe myocardial infarction. For the
past 3 days, Mr. Lozano’s hygiene and grooming needs have
been met by the nursing staff.
Which of the following activities should be implemented to
achieve the goal of independence
for Mr. Lozano?
A. Involving family members in meeting client’s personal
needs
B. Meeting his needs till he is ready to perform self-care
C. Preparing a day to day activity list to be followed by client
D. Involving Mr. Lozano in his care
40. Mr. Ernest Lopez is terminally ill and he choose to be at
home with his family. What nursing
action are best initiated to prepare the family of Mr. Lopez?
A. Talk with the family members about the advantage of
staying in the hospital for
proper care
B. Provide support to the family members by teaching ways
to care for their
loved one
C. Convince the client to stay in the hospital for professional
care
D. Tell the client to be with his family
Situation 6 – Myrna, a researcher, proposes a study on the
relationship between health
values and the health promotion activities of staff nurses in
a selected college
of nursing.
7 You refer him to a:
41. In both quantitative and qualitative research, the used
of a frame of reference is required.
Which of the following items serves as the purpose of a
framework?
A. Incorporates theories into nursing’s body of knowledge
B. Organizes the development of study and links the
findings to nursing’s body
of knowledge
C. Provides logical structure of the research findings
D. Identifies concepts and relationships between concepts
42. Myrna need to review relevant literature and studies.
The following processes are undertaken
in reviewing literature EXCEPT:
A. locating and identifying resources C. clarifying a research
topic
B. reading and recording notes D. using the library
43. The primary purpose for reviewing literature is to:
A. organize materials related to the problem of interest
B. generate broad background and understanding of
information related to the
research problem of interest
C. select topics related to the problem of interest
D. gather current knowledge of the problem of interest
44. In formulating the research hypotheses, researcher
Myrna should state the research question
as:
A. What is the response of the staff nurses to the health
values?
B. How is variable “health value” perceived in a population?
C. Is there a significant relationship between health values
and health
promotion activities of the staff nurses?
D. How do health values affect health promotion activities
of the staff nurses?
45. The proposed study shows the relationship between the
variables. Which of the following is
the independent variable?
A. Staff nurses in a selected college of nursing
B. Health values
C. Health promotion activities
D. Relationship between health values and health
promotion activities
Situation 7 – While working in a tertiary hospital, you are
assigned to the medical ward.
46. Your client, Mr. Diaz, is concerned that he can not pay
his hospital bills and professional fees.
A. Nurse supervisor C. bookkeeping department
B. Social worker D. physician
47. Mr. Magno has lung cancer and is going through
chemotherapy. He is referred by the
oncology nurse to a self-help group of clients with cancer
to:
A. receive emotional support C. provide financial assistance
B. to be a part of a research study D. assist with
chemotherapy
48. A diabetic hypertensive client, Mrs. Linao, needs a
change in diet to improve her health status.
She should be referred to a:
A. nutritionist C. physician
B. dietitian D. medical pathologist
49. When collaborating with other health team members,
the best description of Nurse Rita’s role
is:
A. encourages the client’s involvement in his care
B. shares and implements orders of the health team to
ensure quality care
8 hot flashes. Which of the above symptoms would be an
C. she listens to the individual views of the team members
D. helps client set goals of care and discharge
50. Nurse Rita is successful in collaborating with health
team members about the care of Mr.
Linao. This is because she has the following competencies:
A. Communication, trust, and decision making
B. Conflict management, trust, negotiation
C. Negotiation, decision making
D. Mutual respect, negotiation and trust
Situation 8 – The practice of nursing goes with
responsibilities and accountability whether
you work in a hospital or in the community setting you
main objective is to
provide safe nursing to your clients?
51. To provide safe, quality nursing care to various clients in
any setting, the most important tool of
the nurse is:
A. critical thinking to decide appropriate nursing actions
B. understanding of various nursing diagnoses
C. observation skills for data collection
D. possession of in scientific knowledge about client needs
52. You ensure the appropriateness and safety of your
nursing interventions while caring for
various client groups by:
A. creating plans of care for particular clientele
B. identifying the correct nursing diagnoses for clients
C. making a thorough assessment of client needs and
problems
D. using standards of nursing care as your criteria for
evaluation
53. The effectiveness of your nursing care plan for your
clients is determined by
A. the number of nursing procedures performed to comfort
the client
B. the amount of medications administered to the client as
ordered
C. the number of times the client calls the nurse
D. the outcome of nursing interventions based on plan of
care
54. You are assigned to Mrs. Amado, age 49, who was
admitted for possible surgey. She
complained of recurrent pain at the right upper quadrant of
the abdomen 1-2 hours after
ingestion of fatty food. She also had frequent bouts of
dizziness, blood pressure of 170/100,
objective cue?
A. Blood pressure measurement of 170/100
B. Complaint of hot flashes
C. Report of pain after ingestion of fatty food
D. Complaint of frequent bouts of dizziness
55. While talking with Mrs. Amado, it is most important for
the nurse to:
A. schedule the laboratory exams ordered for her
B. do an assessment of the client to determine priority
needs
C. tell the client that your shift ends after eight hours
D. have the client sign an informed consent
Situation 9 – Oral care is an important part of hygienic
practices and promoting client
comfort.
56. An elderly client, 84 years old, is unconscious.
Assessment of the mouth reveals excessive
dryness and presence of sores. Which of the following is
BEST to use for oral care?
A. lemon glycerine C. Mineral oil
B. hydrogen peroxide D. Normal saline solution
9
57. When performing oral care to an unconscious client,
which of the following is a special
consideration to prevent aspiration of fluids into the lungs?
A. Put the client on a sidelying position with head of bed
lowered
B. Keep the client dry by placing towel under the chin
C. Wash hands and observe appropriate infection control
D. Clean mouth with oral swabs in a careful and an orderly
progression
58. The advantages of oral care for a client include all of the
following, EXCEPT:
A. decreases bacteria in the mouth and teeth
B. reduces need to use commercial mouthwash which
irritate the buccal
mucosa
C. improves client’s appearance and self-confidence
D. improves appetite and taste of food
59. A possible problem while providing oral care to
unconscious clients is the risk of fluid
aspiration to lungs. This can be avoided by:
A. Cleaning teeth and mouth with cotton swabs soaked with
mouthwash to avoid
rinsing the buccal cavity
B. swabbing the inside of the cheeks and lips, tongue and
gums with dry cotton swabs
C. use fingers wrapped with wet cotton washcloth to rub
inside the cheeks, tongue,
lips and ums
D. suctioning as needed while cleaning the buccal cavity
60. Your client has difficulty of breathing and is mouth
breathing most of the time. This causes
dryness of the mouth with unpleasant odor. Oral hygiene is
recommended for the client and in
addition, you will keep the mouth moistened by using:
A. salt solution C. petroleum jelly
B. water D. mentholated ointment
Situation 10 – Errors while providing nursing care to
patients must be avoided and minimized at
all time. Effective management of available resources
enables the nurse to provide
safe, quality patient care.
61. In the hospital where you work, increased incidence of
medication error was identified as the
number one problem in the unit. During the brainstorming
session of the nursing service
department, probable causes were identified. Which of the
following is process related?
A. interruptions C. lack of knowledge
B. use of unofficial abbreviations D. failure to identify client
62. Miscommunication of drug orders was identified as a
probable cause of medication errors.
Which of the following is safe medication practice related to
this?
A. Maintain medication in its unit dose package until point
of actual administration
B. Note both generic and brand name of the medication in
the Medication
Administration Method
C. Only officially approved abbreviations maybe used in
prescription orders
D. Encourage clients to ask question about their
medications.
63. The hospital has an ongoing quality assurance program.
Which of the following indicates
implementation of process standards?
A. The nurses check client’s identification band before
giving medications
B. The nurse reports adverse reaction to drugs
C. Average waiting time for medication administration is
measured
D. The unit has well ventilated medication room
10
64. Which of the following actions indicate that Nurse
Jerome is performing outcome evaluation of
quality care?
A. Interviews nurses for comments regarding staffing
B. Measures waiting time for client’s per nurse’s call
C. Checks equipment for its calibration schedule
D. Determines whether nurses perform skin assessment
every shift
65. An order for a client was given and the nurse in charge
of the client reports that she has no
experience of doing the procedure before. Which of the
following is the most appropriate
action of the nurse supervisor?
A. Assign another nurse to perform the procedure
B. Ask the nurse to find way to learn the procedure
C. Tell the nurse to read the procedure manual
D. Do the procedure with the nurse
Situation 11 – Mr. Jose’s chart is the permanent legal
recording of all information that relates to
his health care management. As such, the entries in the
chart must have accurate
data.
66. Mr. Jose’s chart contains all information about his
health care. The functions of records include
all except:
A. means of communication that health team members use
to communicate their
contributions to the client’s health care
B. the client’s record also shows a document of how much
health care agencies will
be reimbursed for their services
C. educational resource for student of nursing and medicine
D. recording of actions in advance to save time
67. An advantage of automated or computerized client care
system is:
A. The nursing diagnoses for a client’s data can be
accurately determined
B. Cost of confinement will be reduced
C. Information concerning the client can b easily updated
D. The number of people to take care of the client will be
reduced
68. Information in the patient’s chart is inadmissible in
court as evidence when:
A. The client’s family refuses to have it used
B. The client objects to its use
C. The handwriting is not legible
D. It has too many abbreviations that are “unofficial”
69. Nursing audit aims to:
A. provide research data to hospital personnel
B. study client’s illness and treatment regimen closely
C. compare actual nursing done to established standards
D. provide information to health-care providers
70. A telephone order is given for a client in your ward.
What is your most appropriate action?
A. Copy the order on to the chart and sign the physician’s
name as close to his
original signature as possible
B. Repeat the order back to the physician, copy onto the
order sheet and
indicate that it is a telephone order
C. Write the order in the client’s chart and have the head
nurse co-sign it
D. Tell the physician that you can not take the order but you
will call the nurse
supervisor
11
Situation 12 – Nurse Roque, a newly hired nurse, is asked to
take over an absent nurse in
another unit. She will take care of clients with various
conditions.
71. Which of the following client conditions should be Miss
Roque’s priority in the pediatric unit?
A. The baby whose fantanelle is bulging and firm while
asleep
B. The infant who is brought in for upper respiratory tract
infection whose
temperature is slightly elevated
C. A baby who is wailing after being awakened by the
banging door
D. A baby boy whose circumcision has yellowish exudate
72. When suctioning the endotracheal tube, the nurse
should:
A. Explain procedure to patient; insert catheter gently
applying suction. Withdrawn
using twisting motion
B. Insert catheter until resistance is met, then withdraw
slightly, applying
suction intermittently as catheter is withdrawn
C. Hyperoxygenate client insert catheter using back and
forth motion
D. Insert suction catheter four inches into the tube, suction
30 seconds using twirling
motion as catheter is withdrawn
73. Nurse Roque is giving instructions to Doris, the daughter
of a comatose patient, to give a
sponge bath. While Doris is doing spone bath, what action
of Doris needs correction?
A. Answering the phone while wearing gloves used for
sponge bath
B. Rolling the patient like a log to do back rub
C. Lining the rubber mat with bed sheet as incontinence pad
for the patient
D. Turning the patient on the left side with head slightly
elevated
74. Dina sustained a fracture of the ulna and a cast will be
applied. What nursing action before
cast application is most important for Nurse Roque to do?
A. Use baby powder to reduce irritation under the cast
B. Assess sensation of each arm
C. Evaluate skin temperature in the area
D. Check radial pulses bilaterally and compare
75. To obtain specimen for sputum culture and sensitivity,
which of the following instruction is
best?
A. Upon waking up, cough deeply and expectorate into
container
B. Cough after pursed lip breathing
C. Save sputum for two days in covered container
D. After respiratory treatment, expectorate into a container
Situation 13 – Infections are quite commonly the reasons
for a client’s hospitalization. Appropriate
interpretation of diagnostic tests and measures for
infection control are helpful in the
management of patient care.
76. Dorothy underwent diagnostic test and the result of the
blood examination are back. On
reviewing the result the nurse notices which of the
following as abnormal finding?
A. Neutrophils 60%
B. White blood cells (WBC) 9000/mm
C. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is 39 mm/hr
D. Iron 75 mg/100 ml
77. Surgical sepsis is observed when:
A. inserting an intravenous catheter
B. disposing of syringes and needles in puncture proof
containers
C. washing hands before changing wound dressing
D. placing dirty soiled linen in moisture resistant bags
12
78. A client with viral infection will most likely manifest
which of the following during the illness
stage of the infection?
A. Client was exposed to the infection 2 days ago but
without any symptoms
B. Oral temperature shows fever
C. Acute symptoms are no longer visible
D. Client “feels sick” but can do normal activities
79. Which of the following laboratory test result indicate
presence of an infectious process?
A. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 12 mm/hr
B. White blood cells (WBC) 18,000/mm3
C. Iron 90 g/100ml
D. Neutrophils 67%
80. Among the clients you are assigned to take care of, who
is the most susceptible to infection?
A. Diabetic client C. client with pulmonary emphysema
B. Client with burns D. client with myocardial infarction
Situation 14 – You are a newly hired nurse in a tertiary
hospital. You have finished your
orientation program recently and you are beginning to
assimilate the culture of the
profession.
81. Using Benner’s stages of nursing expertise, you are a
beginning nurse practitioner. You will
rank yourself as a/an:
A. competent nurse C. proficient nurse
B. novice nurse D. advanced beginner
82. Benner’s “Proficient” nurse level is different from the
other levels in nursing expertise in the
context of having:
A. the ability to organize and plan activities
B. having attained an advanced level of education
C. a holistic understanding and perception of the client
D. intuitive and analytic ability in new situations
83. As you become socialized into the nursing “culture” you
become a patient advocate.
Advocacy is explained by the following EXCEPT:
A. respecting a person’s right to be autonomous
B. demonstrating loyalty to the institution’s rights
C. shared respect, trust and collaboration in meeting health
needs
D. protecting and supporting another person’s rights
84. Modern day nursing has led to the led development of
the expanded role of the nurse as seen
in the function of a:
A. Clinical nurse specialist C. community health nurse
B. Critical care nurse D. staff nurse
85. You join a continuing education program to help you:
A. Earn credits for license renewal
B. Get in touch with colleagues in nursing
C. Enhance your basic knowledge
D. Update your knowledge and skills related to field of
interest
13
Situation 15 – When creating your lesson plan for
cerebrovascular disease or STROKE. It is
important to include the risk factors of stroke.
86. The most important risk factor is:
A. Cigarette smoking C. binge drinking
B. Hypertension D. heredity
87. Part of your lesson plan is to talk about etiology or
cause of stroke. The types of stroke based
on cause are the following EXCEPT:
A. Embolic stroke C. diabetic stroke
B. Hemorrhagic stroke D. thrombotic stroke
88. Hemmorhagic stroke occurs suddenly usually when the
person is active. All are causes of
hemorrhage, EXCEPT:
A. phlebitis C. damage to blood vessel
B. trauma D. aneurysm
89. The nurse emphasizes that intravenous drug abuse
carries a high risk of stroke. Which drug
is closely linked to this?
A. Amphetamines C. shabu
B. Cocaine D. Demerol
90. A participant in the STROKE class asks what is a risk
factor of stroke. Your best response is:
A. “More red blood cells thicken blood and make clots more
possible.”
B. “Increased RBC count is linked to high cholesterol.”
C. “More red blood cell increases hemoglobin content.”
D. “High RBC count increases blood pressure.”
Situation 16 – Accurate computation prior to drug
administration is a basic skill all nurses must
have.
91. Rudolf is diagnosed with amoebiasis and is to received
Metronidazole (Flagyl) tablets 1.5 gm
daily in 3 divided doses for 7 consecutive days. Which of the
following is the correct dose of
the drug that the client will received per oral
administration?
A. 1,000 mg tid C. 1,500 mg tid
B. 500 mg tid D. 50 mg tid
92. Rhona, a 2 year old female was prescribed to receive
62.5 mg suspension three times a day.
The available dose is 125 mg/ml. which of the following
should Nurse Paolo prepare for each
oral dose?
A. 0.5 ml C. 2.5 ml
B. 1.5 ml D. 10 ml
93. The physician ordered Potassium Chloride (KCL) in D5W
1 liter to be infused in 24 hours for
Mrs. Gomez. Since Potassium Chloride is a high risk drug,
Nurse Robert used an intravenous
pump. Which of the following should Nurse Robert do to
safely administer this drug?
A. Check the pump setting every 2 hours
B. Teach the client how the infusion pump operates
C. Have another nurse check the infusion pump setting
D. Set the alarm of the pump loud enough to be heard
94. Baby Liza, 3 months old, with a congenital heart
deformity, has an order from her physician:
“give 3.00 cc of Lanoxin today for 1 dose only”. Which of
the following is the most appropriate
action by the nurse?
A. Clarify order with the attending physician
B. Discuss the order with the pediatric heart specialist in the
unit
14
C. Administer Lanoxin intravenously as it is the usual route
of administration
D. Refer to the medication administration record for
previous administration of Lanoxin
95. When Nurse Norma was about to administer the
medications of client Lennie, the relative of
Lennie told the nurse that they buy her medicines and
showed the container of medications of
the client. Which of the following is the most appropriate
action by the nurse?
A. Hold the nurse administration of the client’s medication
and refer to the head nurse
B. Put aside the medications she prepared and instead
administer the client’s
medications
C. Tell the client that she will inform the physician about
this
D. Bring the medications of the client to the nurse’s station
and prepare accordingly
Situation 17 – You are taking care of Mrs. Santillan a 48 year
old woman who is unconscious
after a cerebrovascular accident. You are aware that there
are many physical
complications due to immobility.
96. You should be alert for the following complications she
may experience EXCEPT:
A. Impaired mobility C. hypostatic pneumonia
B. Contractures and muscle atrophy D. pressure sores
97. Proper positioning of an immobilized unconsciousness
client is important for the following
reasons EXCEPT:
A. Maintain skin integrity
B. Promotes optimal lung expansion
C. Prevent injuries and deformities of the musculo-skeletal
system
D. Facilitates rest and sleep
98. When positioning your client, you should observe good
body mechanics for yourself and the
client. This means that the nurse:
A. Uses back muscles
B. Assumes correct body alignment and efficient use of
muscles to avoid injury
C. Observes rhythmic movements when moving about
D. Uses large muscles only
99. You are going to move Mrs. Santillan, a 150 lbs
unconscious woman. Some principls to use
when moving the client include the following EXCEPT:
A. prepare to move client by taking deep breath and
tightening abdominal and gluteal
muscles
B. maintain wide base of support with feet and with knees
flexed
C. push and pull using arms and legs instead of lifting
D. move close to the object to be moved leaning or bending
at the waist
 tissue matches for the same donated organ, the basis for
100. After moving Mrs. Santillan to the desired position, the decision as to which child gets
which action will you avoid? the organ is given to the child who:
A. Avoid friction between bony prominences A. will receive the most benefit from the new organ
B. Place pillows to position client’s extremeties B. is most likely to die without the transplant
C. Apply restraints C. is selected by the lottery system for available organs
D. Raise bed rails D. is at the top of the list and has waited the longest time
SUBMIT THIS TEST BOOKLET TOGETHER WITH THE ANSWER 3. The nurse uses what equipment to check for fluid
SHEET TO YOUR between the parietal and visceral layers of
WATCHERS. BRINGING THE TEST BOOKLET OUT OF THE the tunica vaginalis, the outermost covering of the testes?
ROOM WILL BE A A. 30 cc syringe C. Fluid meter
GROUND FOR CANCELLATION OF YOUR EXAMINATION. B. transilluminator D. Manometer
***END*** 4. Which of the following examples best defines the term
15 role reversal?
NURSING PRACTICE II SET A A. a lazy person becomes very productive in the family
_________________________________________________ B. the good child takes on a bad child role
________________ C. a person who has been a good provider quits his or her
NURSING PRACTICE II – Foundation of PROFESSIONAL job
Nursing Practice D. the child assumes a caregiver role toward the caregiver
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS: 5. When a nurse breaches the duty of confidentiality, he or
6. This test booklet contains 100 test questions. she can be disciplined by both the
7. Read INSTRUCTIONS TO EXAMINEES printed on your employer and the Board of Nursing. In addition to this
answer sheet. discipline, he or she can:
8. Shade only one (1) box for each question on your answer A. be held responsible for any damages that result
sheets. Two or more boxes shaded B. be fined by the federal government
will invalidate your answer. C. be sentenced for up to 1 year in jail
9. AVOID ERASURES. D. immediately lose his or her nursing license
10. This is PRC property. Unauthorized possession, 6. A strategy for a change that focuses on teaching workers
reproduction, and/or sale of this test is new technology is:
punishable by law. Per RA 8981. 16
_________________________________________________ A. normative-reactive C. providing information
________________ B. training D. power coercive
INSTRUCTIONS: 7. The nurse knows that the occurrence of shoulder
4. Detach one (1) answer sheet from the bottom of your dystocia during labor is:
Examinee ID/Answer Sheet A. polyhydramnios C. preterm birth
Set . B. maternal age D. macrosomia
5. Write the subject title “Nursing Practice II” on the box 8. The nurse instructs the mother that when overstimulated
provided. the infant will:
6. Shade Set Box “A” on your answer sheet if your test A. show increased alertness and eye contact
booklet is Set A; Set Box “B” if your test B. respond with coordinated, synchronous body movement
booklet is Set B. C. look away to reduce the intensity of the interaction
MULTIPLE CHOICE D. drift off to deep sleep to shut out the interaction
1. Registered nurses can be identified as a: 9. Some strategies to maintain professional health are listed
A. Organization C. group below. Which is NOT necessarily
B. Culture D. subculture correct?
2. Among children candidates for organ transplant, when all A. Networking with others in the health care field
selected children have appropriate B. Join a professional organization
C. Goal setting
D. Read fiction and non-fiction materials
10. The nurse is assessing an 8 month-old infant for head
lag, pulling the infant by the hands from
a supine to a sitting position. The head does not stay in line
with the body when being pulled
forward. Which of the following statements best represents
the significance of this finding?
A. Head lag should not be tested until the child is over 1
year of age.
B. Significant head lag after the age of 6 months may
indicate brain injury and
needs further investigations.
C. The nurse has not conducted the test correctly and must
do it again using proper
technique.
D. This is a normal finding, as the infant’s head will not stay
in line until after 8 months of
age.
11. Which statement is correct regarding the use of the
cervical cap?
A. It may affect Pap smear results.
B. It does not need to be fitted by the physician.
C. It does not require the use of spermicide.
D. It must be removed within 24 hours.
12. The major components of the communication process
are:
A. verbal, written and nonverbal
B. speaker, listener and reply
C. facial expression, tone of voice and gestures
D. message, sender, channel, receiver and feedback
13. The extent of burns in children are normally assessed
and expressed in terms of:
A. the amount of body surface that is unburned
B. percentages of total body surface area (TBSA)
C. how deep the deepest burns are
D. the severity of the burns on a 1 to 5 burn scale.
14. The school nurse notices a child who is wearing old,
dirty, poor-fitting clothes; is always
hungry; has no lunch money; and is always tired. When the
nurse asks the boy his tiredness,
he talks of playing outside until midnight. The nurse will
suspect that this child is:
A. being raised by a parent of low intelligence quotient (IQ)
B. an orphan
C. a victim of child neglect
D. the victim of poverty
17
15. Which of the following indicates the type(s) of acute
renal failure?
A. Four types: hemorrhagic with and without clotting, and
nonhemorrhagic with and
without clottings
B. One type: acute
C. Three types: prerenal, intrarenal and postrenal
D. Two types: acute and subacute
16. A means of facilitating professional staff development is
by building upon skills, abilities, and of
experience of each practitioner is called:
A. the novice to expert model C. career enhancement
B. situational leadership model D. clinical ladder
17. Which of the following questions by the nurse would be
best fit the philosophy of the nursing
mutual participation model of care (NMPMC)?
A. “Have you brushed your child’s teeth today?”
B. “How does your child look to you today?”
C. “Where have you been all morning?”
D. “Do you think your child’s color is worse”?
18. There are numerous definitions of the word “health”.
Which definition below is from Florence
Nightingale?
A. A state or a process of being and becoming an integrated
and whole person
B. The state of being free from illness or injury
C. Being well and using every power the individual
possesses to the fullest extent
D. A state of complete physical, social, and mental well-
being and not merely the absence
of disease or infirmity
19. Informal communication takes place when individuals
talk and is best described by saying the
participants:
A. are involved in a preexisting informal relationship
B. talk with slang words
C. have no particular agenda or protocol
D. are relaxed
20. Tertiary care by the home health nurse is directed
toward children with:
A. problems in mobility C. minor problems
B. short-term needs D. clinically apparent disease
21. The endometrium thickens during which phase of the
menstrual cycle?
A. Secretory phase C. Proliferative phase
B. Menstrual phase D. Ischemic phase
22. A measurement tool to articulate the nursing workload
for a specific patient or groups of
patients over a specific period of time is called:
A. staffing pattern C. benchmarking
B. skill mix D. patient classification
23. The mother of a 9 month-old infant is concerned that
the head circumference of her baby is
greater than the chest circumference. The BEST response by
the nurse is:
A. “These circumference normally are the same, but in
some babies this just differs.”
B. “Perhaps your baby was small for gestational age or
premature.”
C. “This is normal until the age of 1 year, when the chest
will be greater.”
18
D. “Let me ask you a few questions, and perhaps we can
figure out the cause of this
difference.”
24. Which of the following approaches would work best
when the nurse is communicating with an
infant?
A. Use an adult voice just as you would for anyone.
B. Communicate through the caregivers.
C. Allow the child time to warm up to the nurse.
D. Respond only after the child cries for a while.
25. Evidence-based care started in medicine as a way to:
A. promote technological advances in medicine
B. incorporate collaboration within all health care
disciplines
C. integrate individual experience with clinical research
D. teach medical students the art and science of medicine
26. The nurse assessing newborn babies and infants during
their hospital stay after birth will
notice which of the following symptoms as a primary
manifestation of Hirschsprung’s disease?
A. A fine rash over the trunk
B. Failure to pass meconium during the first 24 to 48 hours
after birth
C. The skin turns yellow and then brown over the first 48
hours of life
D. High-grade fever
27. A client is 7 months pregnant and has just been
diagnosed as having a partial placenta previa.
She is stable and has minimal spotting and is being sent
home. Which of these instructions to
the client may indicate a need for further teaching?
A. Maintain bed rest with bathroom privileges
B. Avoid intercourse for three days.
C. Call if contractions occur.
D. Stay on left side as much as possible when lying down.
28. Which of the following groups of people in the world
disproportionately represents the
homeless population?
A. Hispanics C. African Americans
B. Asians D. Caucasians
29. The nurse notes that the infant is wearing a plastic-
coated diaper. If a topical medication were
to be prescribed and it were to go on the stomachs or
buttocks, the nurse would teach the
caregivers to:
A. avoid covering the area of the topical medication with
the diaper
B. avoid the use of clothing on top of the diaper
C. put the diaper on as usual
D. apply an icepack for 5 minutes to the outside of the
diaper
30. The nurse assessing a child or adolescent with a
diagnosis of dysrhytmic disorder would find
which of the following symptoms?
A. Labile mood and hyperactive thyroid with an increase in
circulating thyroid hormones
and associated symptoms
B. Severe shaking of the hands when trying to hold a glass
of water or other object
C. A depression that is deeper, more acute, and more likely
to lead to suicide than major
depressive disorder
D. A depressed or irritable mood for most of the day, on
most days, for 2 or more
years and low energy or fatigue.
19
31. You were the nurse assigned to work with a child who
has had whole brain radiation. You
have assessed the child to be sleeping up to 20 hours a day
and is having some nausea,
malaise, fever and dysphasia. Based on this assessment,
you are to work with the patients in
which of the following areas.
A. Accepting a reoccurrence of the tumor
B. Dealing with the side effects of radiation therapy
C. Caring for the dying child
D. Accepting the imminent death of their child
32. The nurse is planning interventions for a child who has
inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) with
a nursing diagnosis of “Nutrition: Less than body
requirements.” Which of the following
interventions will be most helpful in resolving this nursing
problem?
A. Two large meals a day instead of several minimeals and
snacks
B. Special IBD diet (diet that has been proven effective for
treating IBD)
C. Salt-free diet high in potassium, vitamins and minerals
D. Diet as tolerated with lactose hydrolyzed milk instead of
milk products, and
omission of highly seasoned foods, and reduction of fiber
33. Emotional intelligence consists of a number of
competencies. Some of these are listed below.
Which is NOT a characteristic of emotional intelligence?
A. Self-esteem C. Empathy
B. Self-awareness D. Self-regulation
34. Data collection for driving and restraining forces,
including costs, desirability and feasibility, is
a:
A. people issue C. political issue
B. structural issue D. technology issue
35. One of four factors describing the experience of sexually
abused children and the effect it has
on their growth and development is stigmatization that
occurs when:
A. a child blames him or herself for the sexual abuse and
begins to withdraw and isolate
B. newspapers and the media don’t keep sexual abuse
private and accidentally or on
purpose reveal the name of the victim
C. the child has been blamed by the abuser for his or her
sexual behaviors, saying that
the child asked to be touched or did not make the abuser to
stop
D. the child’s agony is shared by other members of the
family or friends when the
sexual abuse becomes public knowledge
36. The painful phenomenon known as “back labor” occurs
in a client whose fetus in what
position?
A. Brow position C. Breech position
B. Right Occipito-Anterior Position D. Left Occipito-Posterior
Position
37. FOCUS methodology stands for:
A. Focus, Organize, Clarify, Understand and Solution
B. Focus, Opportunity, Continuous, Utilize, Substantiate
C. Focus, Organize, Clarify, Understand, Substantiate
D. Focus, Opportunity, Continuous (process), Understand,
Solution
38. While community health nurses focus on the individual
or the family, which of the following do
they also have as their final objective?
A. The well-being of the chronically ill
B. The financial well-being of the family
C. The well-being of the extended family
20
D. The well-being of the community
39. Which of the following is the best example of the ethical
principle of fidelity?
A. Doing whatever the client or the client’s physician asks of
you.
B. Keeping a promise to return to the client’s room at a
given time
C. Being a good friend to the client by sharing secrets
D. Saving the client time and money by not wasting supplies
40. Which of the following factors is most important in
determining the success of relationships
used in delivering nursing care?
A. Type of illness of the client
B. Transference and counter transference
C. Effective communication
D. Personality of the participants
41. Which of the following statements best describes the
term glove type burn?
A. The parent was wearing heavy gloves or stockings on his
or her hands while
immersing the child in hot scalding water
B. The parents have dipped the child into hot liquid while
he or she was asleep
C. The child was wearing a glove when immersed in hot
liquid
D. The burn has the look of a glove immersed in hot
scalding water.
42. The school nurse keeps a list of enrolled students who
have medical or religious objections to
immunizations and those who are likely to have decreased
immunity. The nurse likely keeps
this list to:
A. provide statistics for the Department of Health
B. reassure the family that the nurse will respect the
family’s wishes at all times
C. meet national government requirements
D. facilitate exclusion in case of an outbreak of a highly
communicable disease in
the school.
43. Preschoolers are able to see things from which of the
following perspectives?
A. Their peers
B. Their own and their caregivers’
C. Their own and their mother’s
D. Only their own
44. In conflict management, the win-win approach occurs
when:
A. there are two conflicts and the parties agree to each one
B. each party gives in on 50% of the disagreements making
up the conflict
C. both parties involved are committed to solving the
conflict
D. the conflict is settled out of court so the legal system and
the parties win
45. According to the social-interactional perspective of child
abuse and neglect, four factors place
the family members at risk for abuse. these risk factors are
the family members at risk for
abuse. These risk factors are the family itself, the caregiver,
the child, and
A. the presence of a family crisis C. the national emphasis
on sex
B. genetics D. chronic poverty
46. When a person is discussing the strong influences that
childrearing methods have on the
development of the child, this person is most probably
coming from which of the following
viewpoints or theories?
A. Naturalistic C. Neoclassic
B. Nature D. Nurture
21
47. In working with the caregivers of a client with an acute
or chronic illness, the nurse would:
A. Teach care daily and let the caregivers do a return
demonstration just before
discharge
B. Difficulty swallowing, diminished or absent gag reflex,
and respiratory distress.
C. Difficulty sleeping, hypervigilant, and an arching of the
back
D. Paradoxical irritability, diarrhea, and vomiting
48. Which of the following signs and symptoms would you
most likely find when assessing and
infant with Arnold-Chiari malformation?
A. Weakness of the leg muscles, loss of sensation in the
legs, and restlessness
B. Difficulty swallowing, diminished or absent gag reflex,
and respiratory distress
C. Difficulty sleeping, hypervigilant, and an arching of the
back
D. Paradoxical irritability, diarrhea, and vomiting.
49. A parent calls you and frantically reports that her child
has gotten into her famous ferrous
sulfate pills and ingested a number of these pills. Her child
is now vomiting, has bloody
diarrhea, and is complaining of abdominal pain. You will tell
the mother to:
A. call emergency medical services (EMS) and get the child
to the emergency room
B. relax because these symptoms will pass and the child will
be fine
C. administer syrup of ipecac
D. call the poison control center
50. A client says she heard from a friend that you stop
having periods once you are on the “pill”.
The most appropriate response would be:
A. “The pill prevents the uterus from making such
endometrial lining, that is why
periods may often be scant or skipped occasionally.”
B. “If your friend has missed her period, she should stop
taking the pills and get a
pregnancy test as soon as possible.”
C. “The pill should cause a normal menstrual period every
month. It sounds like
your friend has not been taking the pills properly.”
D. “Missed period can be very dangerous and may lead to
the formation of precancerous
cells.”
51. You are the nurse assigned to work with a child with
acute glomerulonephritis. By following the
prescribed treatment regimen, the child experiences a
remission. You are now checking to
make sure the child does not have a relapse. Which finding
would most lead you to the
conclusion that a relapse is happening?
A. Elevated temperature, cough, sore throat, changing
complete blood count (CBC) with
diiferential
B. A urine dipstick measurement of 2+ proteinuria or more
for 3 days, or the child
found to have 3-4+ proteinutria plus edema.
C. The urine dipstick showing glucose in the urine for 3
days, extreme thirst, increase in
urine output, and a moon face.
D. A temperature of 37.8 degrees (100 degrees F), flank
pain, burning frequency, urgency
on voiding, and cloudy urine.
52. The nurse is working with an adolescent who complains
of being lonely and having a lack of
fulfillment in her life. This adolescent shies away from
intimate relationships at times yet at
other times she appears promiscuous. The nurse will likely
work with this adolescent in which
of the following areas?
A. Isolation C. Lack of fulfillment
B. Loneliness D. Identity
53. The use of interpersonal decision making, psychomotor
skills, and application of knowledge
expected in the role of a licensed health care professional in
the context of public health
welfare and safety is an example of:
A. delegation C. responsibility
22
B. supervision D. competence
54. A child suffers a head injury in a tumbling accident in
gym class. The nurse’s best course of
action is to:
A. get the child up walking and make sure he or she stays
awake
B. leave the child and go get help
C. leave the child in the care of an older child and go get
help
D. stay with the child, keep assessing, and have someone
call the caregivers
55. The American Academy of Pediatrics suggests that
caregivers do which of the following things
in regard to physical activities for preschoolers?
A. Push the child to practice sports activities while they are
more flexible
B. Encourage a variety of physical activities in a
noncompetitive environment
C. Have the child engage in competitive sports to see where
they excel
D. Keep physical activities to a minimum until the child is in
grade school.
56. Which of the following arrangements is generally
considered to be best for the parents of
hospitalized infant or young child?
A. Rooming-in
B. Separate caregiver sleeping room on the unit
C. Day visits and sleeping at home
D. Staying at a nearby hotel or motel
57. When one person allows the conflict to be resolved at
his or her own expense, this is referred
to in conflict management as:
A. losing C. the win-lose approach
B. winning while losing D. the lose-win approach
58. Which of the following statements best describes
acquaintance rape?
A. Sexual intercourse when one person engaging in the
activity is unsure about wanting
to do so
B. When two people don’t love each other and engage in
sexual activities
C. When someone on a date tricks the other person into
having sexual intercourse
D. Sexual intercourse committed with force or the threat of
force without a person’s
consent.
59. The school nurse is teaching a health education and
hygiene course to a group of high school
males, which includes a number of young men who are on
competitive sports teams. Which of
the following health practices would the nurse most stress
in preventing the transmission of
human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) virus in case any team
member has HIV or acquired
immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)?
A. No sharing of underarm deodorant or shower soap
B. No sharing of razors or toothbrushes
C. Making certain towels have been washed in boiling water
D. Avoiding physical contact such as sports hugs or swats
60. At 17 weeks’ gestation, a type 1 diabetic undergoes an
ultrasound examination. What
information about the fetus at this time in pregnancy would
be the results of this examination
provide?
A. Placental maturity C. Gestational age
B. Estimated fetal weight D. Fetal lung maturity
61. Which of the following best describes a difference in
communicating with school age children
versus toddlers?
A. Toddlers require more empathy and more touching and
holding
23
B. For toddlers, preparation for procedures is just before
the procedure and much earlier
for school-aged children.
C. Caregivers need less information when care involves a
school aged child
D. The number of words is more when communicating with
a toddler than it is with
a school aged children
62. Genetic testing should be performed on a child only if
A. the parents both want it performed
B. it is in the best interests of the child
C. it i9s necessary for the child to survive
D. no one objects
63. Infant head control is judged by the:
A. ability to hold the head without support
B. presence or absence of head lag
C. rigidity of the neck and head
D. amount of neck wrinkling
64. Which of the following roles BEST exemplifies the
expanded role of the nurse?
A. Circulating nurse in surgery
B. Medication nurse
C. Obstetrical nurse
D. Pediatric nurse practitioner
65. The tone and pitch of the voice, volume, infection,
speed, grunts and other vocalizations are
referred to by which of the following terms?
A. Paraverbal clues C. Third element
B. Ancillary speech D. Enhancements
66. The plan-do-study-act cycle begins with:
A. four stages C. three questions
B. five agendas D. two concepts
67. During your shift, you noted one of your pregnant
clients considered as “waiting case” manifest
morning sickness and which later progressed. Which
assessment finding may indicate
possible developing complication?
A. Maternal pulse 90 C. FHT 155
B. Trace glucose in the urine D. 1+ ketones in the urine
68. The nurse is working with a child who is going to have a
bone marrow aspiration. The
physician orders TAC (tetracaine, adrenaline and cocaine).
Which of the following is the route
of administration?
A. application to the skin, covered with a dressing prior to
the procedure
B. subcutaneous
C. IV using a very slow drip over approximately 4 hours
prior to procedure
D. Nasal inhalation
69. According to DeRosa and Kochura’s (2006) article
entitled “Implement Culturally Competent
Health Care in your workplace,” cultures have different
patterns of verbal and nonverbal
communication. Which difference does NOT necessarily
belong?
A. Personal behavior C. Subject matter
B. Eye contact D. Conversational style
70. The nurse instructs the caregivers of a newborn to
notch the diapers or fold them in such a
way as to expose the cord. The major purpose of exposing
the cord is to:
A. remind caregivers to do cord care
B. keep the diaper from rubbing the cord
24
C. provide air circulation for the cord
D. allow visualizations at all times
71. The level of health of an individual, family, group,
population, or community is called:
A. health assets C. quality of life
B. health status D. health needs
72. The nurse is teaching a group of expectant mothers
about the prevention of diaper dermatitis.
The nurse explains that one of the preventive measures is
the use of:
A. absorbent disposable diapers C. plastic panties over
diapers
B. baby powder or cornstarch D. cloth diaper
73. The Code of Nurses
A. delineates all obligations and responsibilities of the nurse
B. is a binding oath, which tells nurses how to make ethical
decisions
C. assists the nurse in formulating a personal belief system
D. supports the concept of respect for all persons
74. The obligation to correctly perform one’s assigned
duties is:
A. Delegation C. responsibility
B. Assignment D. accountability
75. During a routine postpartum assessment following a
normal vaginal delivery, the nurse notes
the fundus to be slightly boggy. Which action should the
nurse take to decrease the risk of
uterine inversion during uterine massage?
A. Massage only when cramping begins.
B. Place one hand on the abdomen above the symphysis
pubis.
C. Ask the client to ambulate to the bathroom to empty her
bladder.
D. Position the client in a slight Trendelenburg position.
SITUATIONAL
Situation 1 – Nurse Lisa manages her own Reproductive and
Children’s Nursing Clinic
in Sorsogon and necessarily she attends to health
conditions of mothers and
children. The following conditions pertain to the GROWING
FETUS.
76. Obstetrical client Marichu asks how much longer Nurse
Lisa will refer to the baby inside her as
an embryo. What would be your best explanation?
A. Her baby will be a fetus as soon as the placenta forms
B. From the time of implantation until 5 to 8 weeks, the
baby is an embryo
C. After the 20th week of pregnancy, the baby is called a
zygote
D. This term is used during the time before fertilization
77. Marichu is worried that her baby will be born with a
congenital heart disease. What
assessment of a fetus at birth is important to help detect
congenital heart defect?
A. Determining that the color of the umbilical cord if not
green.
B. Assessing whether the umbilical cord has two arteries
and one vein.
C. Assessing whether the Wharton’s jelly of the cord has a
pH higher than 7.2.
D. Measuring the length of the cord to be certain that it is
longer than 3 feet.
78. Additionally, Nurse Lisa would gather more information
about Marichu’s worry about what may
threaten the health of her baby. What would Nurse Lisa
hope to find?
A. Has Marichu been overly anxious about something.
B. Has MArichu suffered from any
communicable/contagious disease at the time of her
early stage of pregnancy.
25
C. Has MArichu engaged in sexual activity during the fetal
development state of her child.
D. Has MArichu engaged in any detrimental activities during
the fetal development
stage e.g. smoking, drinking, taking drugs, a bad fall, or
attempts to terminate
pregnancy.
79. Marichu is scheduled to have an ultrasound
examination. What instruction would you give her
before her examination?
A. You can have medicine for pain for any contractions
caused by the test.
B. Drink at least 3 glasses of fluid before the procedure.
C. The intravenous fluid infused to dilate your uterus does
not hurt the fetus.
D. Void immediately before the procedure to reduce your
bladder size.
80. Marichu is scheduled to have an amniocentesis to test
for fetal maturity. What instruction
would you give her before this procedure?
A. The X-ray used to reveal your fetus’ position has no long
term effects.
B. The intravenous fluid infused to dilate your uterus does
not hurt the fetus.
C. No more amniotic fluid forms afterward, which is why
only a small amount is removed.
D. Void immediately before the procedure to reduce your
bladder size.
Situation 2 – Health instructions are essentially given to
pregnant mothers.
81. A public health nurse would instruct a pregnant woman
to notify the physician immediately if
which of the following symptoms occur during pregnancy?
A. Presence of dark color in the neck
B. Increased vaginal discharge
C. Swelling of the face
D. Breast tenderness
82. A woman who is 9 weeks pregnant comes to the Health
Center with moderate bright red
vaginal bleeding. On physical examination, the physician
finds the client’s cervix 2 cm dilated.
Which term best describes the client’s condition?
A. Missed abortion C. Inevitable abortion
B. Incomplete abortion D. Threatened abortion
83. In a big government hospital, Nurse Pura is taking care
of a woman with a diagnosis of
abruption placenta. What complication of this condition is
of most concern to Nurse Pura?
A. Urinary tract infection
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Hypocalcemia
D. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
84. Which of the following findings on a newly delivered
woman’s chart would indicate she is at
risk for developing postpartum hemorrhage?
A. Post-term delivery C. Grand multiparity
B. Epidural anesthesia D. Premature rupture of membrane
85. Mrs. Hacienda Gracia, 35 year old postpartum client is
at risk of thrombophlebitis. Which of the
following nursing interventions decreases her chance of
developing postpartum
thrombophlebitis?
A. breastfeeding the newborn
B. early ambulation
C. administration of anticoagulant postpartum
D. immobilization and elevation of the lower extremities
26
Situation 3 – With the increasing documented cases of
CANCER the best alternative to
treatment still remains to be PREVENTION. The following
conditions apply.
86. Which among the following is the primary focus of
prevention of cancer?
A. Elimination of conditions causing cancer
B. Diagnosis and treatment
C. Treatment at early stage
D. Early detection
87. In the prevention and control of cancer, which of the
following activities is the most important
function of the community health nurse?
A. Conduct community assemblies.
B. Referral to cancer specialist those clients with symptoms
of cancer.
C. Use the nine warning signs of cancer as parameters in
our process of detection,
control and treatment modalities.
D. Teach woman about proper/correct nutrition.
88. Who among the following are recipients of the
secondary level of care for cancer cases?
A. Those under early case detection
B. Those under post case treatment
C. Those scheduled for surgery
D. Those undergoing treatment
89. Who among the following are recipients of the tertiary
level of care for cancer cases?
A. Those under early treatment C. Those under early
detection
B. Those under supportive care D. Those scheduled for
surgery
90. In Community Health Nursing, despite the availability
and use of many equipment and devices
to facilitate the job of the community health nurse, the best
tool any nurse should be wel be
prepared to apply is a scientific approach. This approach
ensures quality of care even at the
community setting. This is nursing parlance is nothing less
than the:
A. nursing diagnosis C. nursing research
B. nursing protocol D. nursing process
Situation 4 – Dengue hemmorhagic fever is a common
health concern in Philippine
society. It does not only pose a threat to health but more so
to the lives of both
young and old, and well as rich and marginalized sectors of
the society.
91. An important role of the community health nurse in the
prevention and control of Dengue Hfever includes:
A. advising the elimination of vectors by keeping water
containers covered
B. conducting strong health education drives/campaign
directed towards proper garbage
disposal
C. explaining to the individuals, families, groups and
community the nature of the
disease and its causation
D. practicing residual spraying with insecticides
92. Community health nurses should be alert in observing a
Dengue suspect. The following is
NOT an indicator for hospitalization of H-fever suspects?
A. Marked anorexia, abdominal pain and vomiting
B. Increasing hematocrit count
C. Fever for more than 2 days
D. Persistent headache
93. The community health nurses’ primary concern in the
immediate control of hemorrhage among
patients with dengue is:
A. advising low fiber and non-fat diet
B. providing warmth through light weight covers
27
C. observing closely the patient for vital signs leading to
shock
D. keeping the patient at rest
94. Which of these signs may NOT be REGARDED as a truly
positive signs indicative of Dengue
H-fever?
A. Prolonged bleeding time
B. Appearance of at least 5 petechiae
C. Steadily increasing hematocrit count
D. Fall in the platelet count
95. Which of the following is the most important treatment
of patients with Dengue H-Fever?
A. Give aspirin for fever
B. Replacement of body fluids
C. Avoid unnecessary movement of patient
D. Ice cap over the abdomen in case of melena
Situation 5 – Two children were brought to you. One with
chest indrawing and the
other had diarrhea. The following questions apply:
96. Using Integrated Management and Childhood Illness
(IMCI) approach, how would you classify
the 1st child?
A. Bronchopneumonia C. Severe pneumonia
B. No pneumonia : cough or cold D. Pneumonia
97. The 1st child who is 13 months has fast breathing using
IMCI parameters he has:
A. 40 breaths per minute or more
B. 50 breaths per minute
C. 30 breaths per minute or more
D. 60 breaths per minute
98. Nina, the 2nd child has diarrhea for 5 days. There is no
blood in the stool. She is irritable, and
her eyes are sunken. The nurse offered fluids and and the
child drinks eagerly. How would you
classify Nina’s illness?
A. Some dehydration C. Severe dehydration
B. Dysentery D. No dehydration
99. Nina’s treatment should include the following EXCEPT:
A. reassess the child and classify him for dehydration
B. for infants under 6 months old who are not breastfed,
give 100-200 ml clean water as
well during this period
C. Give in the health center the recommended amount of
ORS for 4 hours.
D. Do not give any other foods to the child for home
treatment
100. While on treatment, Nina 18 months old weighed 18
kgs. and her temperature
registered at 37 degrees C. Her mother says she developed
cough 3 days ago. Nina has no
general danger signs. She has 45 breaths/minute, no chest
in-drawing, no stridor. How would
you classify Nina’s manifestation.
A. No pneumonia C. Pneumonia
B. Severe pneumonia D. Bronchopneumonia
SUBMIT THIS TEST BOOKLET TOGETHER WITH THE ANSWER
SHEET TO YOUR
WATCHERS. BRINGING THE TEST BOOKLET OUT OF THE
ROOM WILL BE A
GROUND FOR CANCELLATION OF YOUR EXAMINATION.
***END***
28
NURSING PRACTICE III SET A
_________________________________________________
_______________________
NURSING PRACTICE III – Foundation of PROFESSIONAL
Nursing Practice
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
11. This test booklet contains 100 test questions.
12. Read INSTRUCTIONS TO EXAMINEES printed on your
answer sheet.
13. Shade only one (1) box for each question on your
answer sheets. Two or more boxes shaded
will invalidate your answer.
14. AVOID ERASURES.
15. This is PRC property. Unauthorized possession,
reproduction, and/or sale of this test is
punishable by law. Per RA 8981.
_________________________________________________
_______________________
INSTRUCTIONS:
7. Detach one (1) answer sheet from the bottom of your
Examinee ID/Answer Sheet
Set.
8. Write the subject title “Nursing Practice III” on the box
provided.
9. Shade Set Box “A” on your answer sheet if your test
booklet is Set A; Set Box “B” if your test
booklet is Set B.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
5. There is an order of Central Venus pressure (CVP)
reading. As a nurse that this is a measure of
observing signs of:
A. hypoxia C. hypothermia
B. hypovolemia D. hypoxemia
6. Pulmonary edema is a potential danger that we nurses
should monitor in post pneumonectomy.
This is usually due to:
A. extreme temperature
B. liberal fluid intake
C. rapid infusion of IV fluids
D. fluid retention due to prolonged bed rest
Situation 2-The PRC regulates the practice of 42 professions
in the Philippines.
6. What is the basic requirement of the state for a nurse to
practice her profession?
A. Willingness to practice the profession
B. A BSN degree
C. A nursing license
D. An NCLEX and CGFNS passer
7. The code of Good Governance for the professions in the
Philippines shall be adapted by:
A. all registered professionals C. all professionals
B. all Filipino professionals D. all registered nurses
8. The standardized guidelines and procedures for the
implementation of Continuing Professional
Education (CPE) for all professional. Resolution Number
2004-179 provides that the total CPE
credit units for registered professionals with baccalaureate
degree should be:
A. 20 credit units per year C. 60 credit units for 3 years
B. 30 credit units for 3 years D. 10 credit units required
29
9. The board of Nursing is vested with power to issue,
suspend or revoke for cause the:
A. certificate of Good Moral Character C. certificate of
Registration
B. certificate of Practice D. certificate of Employment
10. RA 7193 stipulates the removal examination of the
nurse licensure examination shall be taken:
A. Within 3 years after the last failed examination
B. Anytime the examinee wants to take the examination
C. Within 2 years after the last failed examination
D. Within the same year after the filed examination
Situation 3 - Pain is always associated to surgery
11. As a surgical nurse, which of the following nursing
intervention will allay anxiety and pain among?
surgical patients?
A. Asses the client for concerns especially those that can
potentially cause pain
B. Verify that the operated permit is signed
C. Discourage the client from discussing the details of the
surgical procedure
D. Ensure safety of client while in surgery
12. Rhizotomy is a condition surgical procedure to manage
those that can potentially cause pain.
What is the crucial in determining a good candidate for
rhizotomy?
A. Pain which is resistant to non-pharmacologic for 6
month
B. Pain which is resistant to pharmacologic protocol for 12
months
C. Local pain with no radiating pain or signs of nervous
compassion
D. Deep pain with obvious signs of peripheral nerve
damage
13. Which of the following would be the nurse’s
appropriate response to a crying female client
scheduled for emergency surgery who is verbalizing fear of
pain but afraid to go to sleep?
A. Let her cry and tell significant other to stand by.
B. Squeeze her hand and assure her that there will b no
pain at all because she
will be given anesthesia.
C. Stand by her side and quietly ask her to describe her
feelings.
D. Check her name tag and request anesthesiologist to
sedate client
14. Which of the following clients statement indicates that
he understands the nurse’s instruction
about postoperative wound pain?
A. “I shall call the nurse when my wound itches and smells”.
B. “I shall expect slight pain and discomfort from the
surgical incision”.
C. “I should call my doctor if my wound has no drainage and
intact”.
D. “I should not touch my surgical wound”
15. What do you think is an important responsibility related
to pain that is subjective in nature?
A. Divert attention of client in pain
B. Leave the patient alone while in pain
C. Believe what the patient says about the pain
D. Assume responsibility to eliminate pain as described by
the client
Situation 4-Nurse’s attitudes toward the pain influence the
way they perceive and interact with clients
in pain.
16. Nurses should be aware that older adults are at risk of
underrated pain. Nursing assessment and
management of pin should address the following beliefs
EXCEPT:
30
A. Older patients seldom tend to report pain than the
younger ones
B. Pain is a sign of weakness
C. Older patients do not believe in analgesics, they are
tolerant
D. Complaining of pain will lead to being labeled a ‘bad’
patient
17. Nurses should understand that when a client responds
favorably to a placebo, it is known as the
‘placebo effect’. Placebos do not indicate whether or not a
client has:
A. Conscience C. Disease
B. Real pain D. Drug tolerance
18. You are the nurse in the pain clinic where you have
client who has difficulty specifying the location
of pain. How can you assist such client?
A. The pain is vague
B. By charting-it hurts all over
C. Identify the absence and presence of pain
D. As the client to point to the painful are by just one finger
19. What symptom, more distressing than pain, should the
nurse monitor when giving opioids
especially among elderly clients who are in pain?
A. Forgetfulness C. Drowsiness
B. Constipation D. Allergic reactions like pruritis
20. Physical dependence occurs in anyone who takes
opioods over a period of time. What do you tell
a mother of a ‘dependent’ when asked for advice?
A. Start another drug and slowly lessen the opioid dosage
B. Indulge in recreational outdoor activities
C. Isolate opioid dependent to a restful resort
D. Instruct slow tapering of the drug dosage and alleviate
physical withdrawal
symptoms
Situation 5- As a perioperative nurse, you are aware of the
correct processing methods for preparing
instruments and other devices for patient use to prevent
infection.
21. Items that enter sterile tissue or vascular system are
categorized as critical items and should be:
A. Clean C. Sterilized
B. Decontaminated D. Disinfected
22. As an OR nurse, what are your foremost considerations
for selecting chemical agents for
disinfection?
A. Material compatibility and efficiency
B. Odor and availability
C. Cost and duration of disinfection process
D. Duration of disinfection and efficiency
23. Before you use a disinfected instrument it is essential
that you:
A. Rinse with tap water followed by alcohol
B. Wrap the instrument with sterile water
C. Dry the instrument thoroughly
D. Rinse with sterile water
24. You have a critical heat labile instrument to sterilize and
are considering touse high level
disinfectant. What should you do?
A. Cover the soaking vessel to contain the vapor
B. Double the amount of high level disinfectant
C. Test the potency of the high level disinfectant
D. Prolong the exposure time according to manufacturer’s
direction
31
25. As a nurse, you know that intact skin acts as an effective
barrier to most microorganisms.
Therefore, items that come in contact with the intact skin
should be:
A. Disinfected C. Clean
B. Sterile D. Alcoholized
Situation 6-The OR is divided into three zones to control
traffic flow and contamination
26. What OR attires are worn in the restricted area?
A. Scrub suit, OR shoes, head cap
B. Head cap, scrub suit, mask, OR shoes
C. Mask, OR shoes, scrub suit
D. Cap, mask, gloves, shoes
33. Nursing intervention for a patient on low dose IV insulin
therapy includes the following, EXCEPT:
A. Elevation of serum ketones to monitor ketosis
B. Vital signs including BP
C. Estimate serum potassium
D. Elevation of blood glucose levels
34. The doctor ordered to incorporate 1000”u” insulin to
the remaining on going IV. The strength is
500 /ml. How much should you incorporate into the IV
solution?
A. 10 ml C. 0.5 ml
B. 2 ml D. 5 ml
35. Multiple vial-dose-insulin when in use should be
A. kept at room temperature C. kept in narcotic cabinet
B. kept in the refrigerator D. store in the freezer
Situation 8-Collaborative planning is essential if nursing and
health care are to be made available to
all people.
36. Perioperative examples of collaboration are the
following EXCEPT:
A. Communicate with other members of the health
profession to improve the
integrity
B. Communicate with health officials the incidence of
Hepatitis B among OR
personnel
C. Collaboration with other OR personnel regarding the
practices of surgeons
collecting exorbitant professional fees
D. Collaborate with DOH regarding disposal or specimens
37. The nurses collaborate with other members of the
health profession to improve the integrity of the
hospital working environment the following ways EXCEPT
A. Joining barangay health club projects
B. Joining the Mayo Uno Labor Union
C. Joining labor day rally to increase wages of healthcare
workers and improve
dilapidated health centers
D. Affiliating with The Healthcare Alliance
38. An example of collaborating effort on public service
particularly during summer is:
A. Boto mo, Ipatrol mo C. Clean and Green
B. Operation Linis D. Operation Tuli
32
39. When does a nurse reject the interdependence of
providers and patients in achieving access to
health care?
A. “Our hospital does not honor visiting doctors”
B. When the nurse replies to the client’s relative “You have
the best doctor in town”
C. When the nurse communicates to the attending
physician the desire of the patient
to be seen by a urologist
D. “The doctor is not on duty today”
40. Individual patients and society as a whole benefit from
nursing participation in decisions made
about health care. This is exemplified in:
A. Supporting political candidates that advance nursing care
issues
B. Bringing the NCLEX in Philippines
C. Supporting the proliferation of colleges of nursing in the
country
D. Following the decision of CGFNS to retake Test III and IV
to validate the visa
screen for the U.S.
Situation 9-pain management is not limited to
pharmacological means:
41. Ronald one of your clients who is being worked out for
AIDS tells you that he has been using
acupuncture to help with his pain. You questioned his
treatment because:
A. Acupuncture uses needles to stimulate certain points on
the body to treat
pain
B. Acupuncture uses variety of herbs and oils from wild
plants
C. Acupuncture uses manipulation of the skeletal muscles
to relieve stress and pain
D. Acupuncture uses pressure from the fingers and hands to
stimulate body
responses
42. Your younger brother came home with right black eye.
He asked you for an eye ointment to
relieve the pain and swelling. You should offer:
A. ice pack over the right eye B. hot compress over the
right eye
C. tetracycline ophthalmic ointment D. ice cold drinks
45. Menstrual pain and discomfort account for absences in
schools and offices. A non-
pharmacological remedy for menstrual pain is:
A. regular bowel movement
B. knee-chest exercise before menstruation and hot water
bag application
over lower abdomen during onset
C. warm shower during onset of menstrual period
D. diet restriction on fatty foods and liberal fluid intake
Situation 10 – One learns by doing especially when you
practice the best methods.
46. Which action by a new nurse signifies a need for further
teaching in infection control?
A. The nurse places the side rails the time to an unconscious
patient
B. The nurse elevates the head of the bed to check the BP.
C. The nurse uses her bare hands to change the dressing
D. The nurse applies oxygen catheter to the mouth.
47. You are on PM shift and about 5 patients are of
discharge. You noted that the orderly was looking
through the items of one of the patients. Which action
should you pursue?
A. Call the attention of the orderly in private
B. Ignore the situation because you are busy
C. Report this behavior to the nurse in charge
D. Monitor the situation and note whether any other items
are reported missing.
48. What appropriate action should you do when you
overhear the nursing attendant speaking harshly
to an elderly patient?
33
A. Try to explore the interaction with the nursing attendant
concerned
B. Change the attendant’s assignment
C. Initiate a group discussion with all other nursing
attendants
D. Discuss the matter with the patient’s family
49. You have been in the surgical ward for almost a year
and have cared for a number of patients with
CVP. Which observation from a colleague would indicate a
need for further teaching?
A. The colleague turns the stop-cock to the off position from
the IV fluid to the
patient
B. The nurse colleague noted the level at the top of the
meniscus
C. The colleague instructs the clients to perform the valsalva
maneuver during
the CVP reading
D. The nurse colleague charting medication administration
that she has not
yet given
50. You saw one colleague charting medication
administration that she has not yet administered. After
talking to her, you also report the incident to the charge
nurse. The charge nurse should:
A. Require the staff to submit an incident report
B. Terminate the nurse
C. Charge the erring nurse with dishonesty
D. Repot to the Board of Nursing
Situation 11 – You are assigned at the PACU. At 9:30 AM,
post-op clients started to be ? in from the
OR
51. Which nursing diagnosis has priority among client in the
PACU?
A. Acute pain related to discomfort off wound and
immobility
B. Body image disturbance because of wound dressing and
drains.
C. Ineffective airway clearance related to general
anesthesia.
D. Knowledge deficit related to lack of information because
patients are all sedated.
52. Which of the following clients at the PACU will
demonstrate the effectiveness of ? teaching?
A. The client demonstrated deep breathing, coughing,
splintering and leg
exercises.
B. The client manifests normal temperature
C. The client sleeps well
D. The client has good balance I and O
53. Which of the following remark indicates that the client’s
relative understood the discharge
instruction for wound care?
A. “If the wound is painful, I will say it is normal”
B. “It is alright to use adhesive tape over the wound to keep
it intact”
C. “It is ok for his pet to remain at his bedside to keep him
company”
D. “I will report any redness or swelling of the wound”
54. You must transfer out a post-op client to her room.
What would your instruction to the family
include to prevent accidents?
A. Report when the IV infusion is almost finished
B. Test the call system if functioning
C. Keep the room lights on for 24 hours
D. Make sure the side rails are up
55. One of your post-op patients has a temperature of
37.9°C and was shivering. You covered him
with a blanket and later took his temperature again and it
is now 38.9°C. The nursing student
asked you to explain the absence of shivering even if the
temperature was higher.
A. The patient is no longer febrile thus he is no longer
chilling
34
B. Shivering normally disappears as temperature becomes
higher
C. The body has reached its new set point thus the absence
of shivering
D. The patients is feeling better
Situation 12 – Patients with chest tubes can be very
challenging to new nurses.
56. The chest tube drainage of Tirso has continuous
bubbling in the water seal drainage. After an
hour you noticed that the bubbling stops. Which of the
following condition is the possible cause of
the malfunctioning sealed drainage?
A. A suction being too high C. A tube being too small
B. An air leak D. A tension pneumothorax
57. While you were making your endorsement, you found
out the chest tube of a client was
disconnected. What would be your appropriate action?
A. Assist the client back to his bed and place him on the
affected side
B. Cover the end of the chest tube while sterilize gauze
C. Reconnect the tube to the chest tube system
D. Put the end of the chest tube into a cup of sterile normal
saline
58. Dr. Reyes asked you to assist him with the removal; of
Tirso’s chest tube. You would instruct the
client to:
A. Continuously breathe normally during the normal of the
chest tube
B. Take a deep breath, exhale, and bear down
C. Exhale upon actual removal of the tube
D. Hold breath until the chest tube is pulled out
59. Chest tube diameter is measured or expressed in:
A. french C. milliliters
B. gauge D. inches
60. When transporting clients with chest tube, the system
should be:
A. disconnected
B. closed
C. placed lower than the patient’s chest
D. placed between the legs of the client to prevent
breakage
Situation 13 – The preoperative nurse collaborates with the
client significant others, and healthcare
providers.
61. To control environmental hazards in the OR, the nurse
collaborates with the following departments
EXCEPT:
A. biomedical division C. infection control committee
B. chaplaincy services D. pathology department
63. Waste disposal poses a big problem for the hospital.
Biological wastes (i.e. amputated limbs)
disposal should be coordinated with following agencies
EXCEPT:
A. Crematorium C. MMDA
B. DOH D. DILG
64. Tess, the PACU nurse, discovered that Malou, who
weights 110 lbs prior to surgery, is in severe
pain 3 hrs after cholecystectomy. Upon checking the chart,
Malou found out that she has an order
of Demerol 100 mg I.M. prn for pain. Tess should verify the
order with:
A. Nurse supervisor C. Surgeon
B. Anesthesiologist D. Intern on duty
35
65. Rosie, 57, who is diabetic is for debridement if incision
wound. When the circulating nurse
checked the present IV fluid, she found out that there is no
insulin incorporated as ordered. What
should the circulating nurse do?
A. Double check the doctor’s order and call the attending
MD
B. Communicate with the ward nurse to verify if insulin was
incorporated or not
C. Communicate with the client to verify if insulin was
incorporated
D. Incorporate insulin as ordered.
Situation 14 – Technology and patient’s education has
dramatically improved the management of the
diabetic client.
66. The current insulin pumps available in the market have
the following capability, EXCEPT:
A. Prevent unexpected saving in blood glucose
measurements.
B. Detect signs and symptoms of hypoglycaemia and 72. The documentation of all nursing activities performed is
hypercalcemia. legally and professionally vital.
C. Deliver a pre-meal bolus dose of insulin before each 36
meal. Which of the following should NOT be included in the
D. Deliver a continuous basal rate of insulin at 5.0 units to patient’s chart?
2.0 units per hour A. Presence of prosthetoid devices such as dentutes,
67. Discharge plan of diabetic clients include injection-site- artificial limbs hearing aid, etc.
rotation. You should emphasize that the B. Baseline physical, emotional, and psychosocial data
space between sites should be: C. Arguments between nurses and residents regarding
A. 6 cm treatments
B. 5 cm D. Observed untoward signs and symptoms and
C. 2.5 cm interventions including contaminant
D. 4 cm intervening factors
68. It is critical also that a diabetic client should be educated 73.During your morning rounds, Mr. Tipol, 60 year old
in the possible sites if regular insulin widower tried to sit up an instead of holding to
injection. The fastest absorption rate happens at the tissue the side rail held the IV stand causing the IV bottle to fall
areas of: and break. You wrote an incident report
A. Gluteal area to show:
B. Deltoid area A. Document the incident
C. Anterior area B. Be a part of the patient’s chart
D. Abdominal area C. Present confidential report
69. Self-monitoring of blood glucose (SMBG) is D. Evidence of the quality of care
recommended for patient’s use. You will recommend 74. Erasures, alterations, and additions in medical records
this technology in the following diabetic patients, EXCEPT: and the nurse’s notes can be avoided.
A. Client with proliferative retinopathy The following are some tips on how to do corrections
B. Unstable diabetes EXCEPT:
C. Hypoglycemia without warning A. Cross out blank spaces
D. Abdominal renal glucose threshold B. Cross out wrong word or phrase with one or two lines
70. It is necessary for a diabetic client to exercise regularly. making the crossed out
What is the effect of regular exercise to a word discernible
diabetic client? C. Insert additions or corrections
A. It burns excess glucose D. State the reason for any deviation from normal
B. It improves insulin utilization and lowers blood glucose procedure/practice
C. It lowers glucose, improves insulin utilization; decrease 75. Kathy is one of your patient’s. Her uncle, who is a
total triglyceride doctor, wants to read her chart. Your
levels appropriate action would be:
D. It will make you fit and energized A. Instruct Kathy’s uncle to present a written authorization
Situation 15- RN’s should always be conscious that the signed by the
contents in charting are admissible in court patient
as evidence. B. Refer to the hospital director
71. If there is any deviation from normal practice or C. Instruct Kathy’s uncle to present a written request to the
procedure e.g. streptomycin was given by IV not Medical Records Section
IM, this should documented in the: of the hospital
A. Progress notes D. Refer to the attending physician
B. Incident report Situation 16- During the month of July, you noticed that
C. Nurse’s not there is an incidence of upper respiratory
D. Patient’s chart Disorders.
76. One of your cases is with acute pharyngitis. Your nursing
management includes the following
EXCEPT:
A. Suggest a soft or liquid diet during acute stage
B. Encourage liberal amount of cold fruit juices
C. Encourage bed rest during stage
D. Apply ice collar for sympathetic relief of severe sore
throat
77. For nurse to asses an upper respiratory tract infection,
you should palpate the following:
A. The ears, eyes, nose, and throat
B. Adenoids tonsils and nose
C. Nose and throat only
D. The tracheal and nasal mucosa including the frontal
sinuses
78. Among the patients with upper airway infection, airway
clearance can be facilitated by the
following EXCEPT:
A. Regularly administering prescribed vasoconstrictive
medication
B. Decreasing systematic hydration
C. Positional drainage
D. Humidifying inspired room air
79. A friend asked you some nursing measures of
uncomplicated common colds. You will include the
following measures EXCEPT:
37
A. Instruct client about symptoms of secondary infections
B. Administer prescribed antibiotics
C. Teach that the causative virus is contagious even before
symptoms appear
D. Suggest adequate of fluids and rest
80. The following are your nursing suggestions for a patient
with acute or chronic sinusitis EXCEPT:
A. Local heat application to promote drainage
B. Consult an ENT surgeon
C. Increase humidity
D. Advice adequate fluid intake
Situation 17- A specimen is a piece of tissue or body fluid
taken from the disease body organ or
tissue to aid the health care team in diagnosis and effective
treatment.
81. Carmen is suspected to have a left CA. She is scheduled
in your room on 5 for frozen section.
How will you prepare the specimen for laboratory?
A. Refrigerate and send it along with the day’s specimens
B. Send to pathology immediately without soaking solution
C. Soak it in NSS
D. Soak it in formalin
82. How will you label this specimen? What information
was essential in the label?
A. Name of the client, age, sex, hospital number
B. Name of the client, age, sex
C. Name, age, site, type of specimen, hospital number,
doctor
D. Name, doctor, type of specimen, hospital number
83. Foreign body the extracted from the body like pins,
needles, seeds or bullets are also considered
as a specimen. You assisted in the multiple gun-shot wound
exploration. During the surgery the
specimen to:
A. The department of pathology
B. The national bureau of investigation
C. The OR head nurse
D. Client’s family
84. A post dilation and curettage (D and C) client is for
discharge. Follow-up of lab result should be
part of the discharge plan. You will instruct the client to
follow up result at the:
A. Medical record
B. Laboratory
C. Doctor’s clinic
D. Nurse’s station
85. You are the circulating nurse in OR 2. You have 4
thyroidectomy cases for the day. How do you
prevent switching of specimens?
A. Send specimens to laboratory right away after the
operation with the proper
labels
B. Collect all specimens and send to laboratory at the end of
the day
C. Label specimen at once
D. Prepare 4 specimen vials first thing in the morning
Situation 18- Mr. Santos, 50, is to undergo cystoscopy due
to multiple problems like scantly urination,
hematuria and dysuria.
86. You are the nurse in charge in Mr. Santos. When asked
what are the organs to be examined
during cystoscopy, you will enumerate as follows:
A. Urethra, kidney, bladder, urethra
38
B. Urethra, bladder wall, trigone, ureteral opening
C. Bladder wall, uterine wall, and urethral opening
D. Urethral opening, ureteral opening bladder
87. In the OR, you will position Mr. Santos who is A. Kept to minimum
cystoscopy in: B. Eliminated when possible
A. Supine C. Restricted
B. Lithotomy D. Monitored
C. Semi-fowler 93. Sterile is the condition of almost all items, devices or
D. Trendelenburg supplies used in the OR for any surgical
88. After cystoscopy, Mr. Santos asked you to explain why procedure. Shelf-life of a packaged sterile item is event
there is no incision of any kind. What do related and depends on the following,
you tell him? EXCEPT:
A. “Cystoscopy is direct visualization and examination by A. Type of sterilizer used to sterilize items
urologist”. B. Amount of handling
B. “Cystoscopy is done by x-ray visualization of the urinary C. The quality of packaging material used
tract”. D. Storage conditions
C. “Cystoscopy is done by using lasers on the urinary tract”. 94. Precaution recommends that the use of standard
D. “Cystoscopy is an endoscopic procedure of the urinary personal protective equipment (PPE) to prevent
tract”. cross contamination. Which is NOT considered a piece of
89. Within 24-48 hours post cystoscopy, it is normal to PPE?
observe one the following: A. Cover gown
A. Pink-tinged urine 39
B. Distended bladder B. Eyewear
C. Signs of infection C. Gloves
D. Prolonged hematuria D. Face shields
90. Leg cramps are NOT uncommon post cystoscopy. 95. Traffic patterns in the OR suite should.
Nursing intervention includes: A. Prevent unauthorized personnel from entering the OR
A. Bed rest B. Prevent transmission of pathogenic microorganisms
B. Warm moist soak C. Assure that the personnel walk in the same direction
C. Early ambulation D. Allows personnel to move freely between restricted and
D. Hot sitz bath unrestricted areas
Situation 19- During the surgical procedure, contamination Situation 20- Nokia is so powerful to “connect people” from
should be confined and contained within the continent to continent, all through
the immediate vicinity of the surgical field to prevent the communication via the cellphone. Other ways of
spread of pathogenic communicating to relay information or
microorganisms. instructions exist even in the healthcare setting.
91. The following techniques illustrates the concept 96. An anesthesiologist is preparing to do a spinal
“confine and contain” EXCEPT: anesthesia to a 220 lb, 30 year old athlete she
A. Contaminated items like sponges are handled using loves request the circulating nurse to prepare a pink spinal set
B. All blood tissue, and body fluid specimens should be with another blue set as stand by. What
placed in leak-proof gauge spinal sets will make available in the OR suite?
containers A. Gauge 16 and 22
C. Surgeons conduct their patient’s rounds in scrub suit B. Gauge 18 and 16
D. Prompt cleanup of accidental spills of contaminated C. Gauge 16 and 20
debris e.g. blood, body fluids D. Gauge 5 and 22
92. The OR is a restricted area where OR attire is worn. 97. Medical gases are used a lo9t in the OR. Some gases are
Temperature and humidity are set for patient used to operate equipment and some
and personnel safety and reduce bacterial contamination. are used to administer general anesthesia through
During the surgery, movement of inhalation. What is the identifying color of the
personnel including the circulating nurse is: tank which contains ‘laughing gas’?
A. Yellow 20. This is PRC property. Unauthorized possession,
B. Green reproduction, and/or sale of this test is
C. Black punishable by law. Per RA 8981.
D. Blue _________________________________________________
98. On the traffic light, yellow means “proceed with _______________________
caution”. In the field of healthcare, where do you INSTRUCTIONS:
discard your used tissue papers? 10. Detach one (1) answer sheet from the bottom of your
A. Yellow bin Examinee ID/Answer Sheet
B. Orange bin Set .
C. Green bin 11. Write the subject title “Nursing Practice IV” on the box
D. Black bin provided.
99. An instrument tray with black striped autoclave/steam 12. Shade Set Box “A” on your answer sheet if your test
chemical indicator tape communicates that booklet is Set A; Set Box “B” if your test
the instrument tray... booklet is Set B.
A. Is clean MULTIPLE CHOICE
B. Is ready for use in surgery 101. You are the nurse in an Adult Care Unit. You over0hear
C. Is sterile one of your co-staff nurse
D. Has undergone the sterilization process assigned to Aling Josie who is 78 years old say, that if she
100. In health care when lad apron is required in any refuses to take her medications,
procedure like orthosurgery, there is danger of she will not be given her favorite dessert. You report your
exposure to: co-staff’s behavior as:
A. Water and blood splashes A. Battery C. Negligence
B. Pseudomonas B. Assault D. Malpractice
C. Radiation 102. Jake is in the Post Anesthesia Care Unit follwing a
D. Bone fragments colorectal resection. He has an IV
of Dextrose 5% Lactated Ringers Solution. Upon assessment
SUBMIT THIS TEST BOOKLET TOGETHER WITH THE ANSWER you observe that he is exhibiting
SHEET TO YOUR sudden onset of crackles in the lungs, moist respiration and
WATCHERS. BRINGING THE TEST BOOKLET OUT OF THE tachypnea. Which of the following
ROOM WILL BE A will you do FIRST?
GROUND FOR CANCELLATION OF YOUR EXAMINATION. A. Notify anesthesiologist C. Place on Fowler’s position
40 B. Increase O2 flow rate D. Reduce IV rate
***END*** 103. As a head nurse of the unit, which of the following
sources should you take into
NURSING PRACTICE IV SET A consideration when making effective assignments for the
_________________________________________________ next shift?
_______________________ A. seniority preferences
NURSING PRACTICE IV – Foundation of PROFESSIONAL B. recent performance evaluation
Nursing Practice C. personality traits
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS: D. client classification data
16. This test booklet contains 100 test questions. 104. Four clients injured in an automobile accident enter
17. Read INSTRUCTIONS TO EXAMINEES printed on your the emergency department (ED) at
answer sheet. the same time and are immediately seen by a triage nurse.
18. Shade only one (1) box for each question on your As the triage nurse, you would
answer sheets. Two or more boxes shaded assign the HIGHEST priority to the client with the:
will invalidate your answer. A. severe head injury and no blood pressure
19. AVOID ERASURES. B. maxillofacial injury and gurling respirations
C. second trimester pregnancy with premature labor A. administer Compazine before meals
D. lumbar spinal cord injury and lower extremity paralysis B. enrich diet with red meats
41 C. serve hot soup and food
105. When a nurse volunteers to work in a hospital setting D. increase the amount of spice in the diet
and she commits a mistake, who 111. Nurses working in the 35 bed Female Medical Unit
is legally responsible? were noted to implement new and
A. volunteer nurse, hospital and the nurse in charge innovative client care activities long before other units in
B. the professional organization which the volunteer nurse the hospital. Which of the following
represents leadership characteristics exhibited by the nurse manager
C. hospital best describes this strength?
D. volunteer nurse because there is no employer employee A. Communication skills C. Vision and passion
relationship B. Knowledge and skills D. Interpersonal abilities
106. Daniel with multiple myeloma complains of deep bone 112. Olga is receiving D5W 1 liter regulated at 30 drops/min
pain. As his nurse, which of the to be consumed in 8 hrs. It was
following will you do FIRST? started at 8am. At 10am, her relative informed you that the
A. Assess bone pain bottle is empty. Which of the
B. Administer prescribed analgesic following will you do first?
C. Teach pain relief strategies A. refer to nurse manager
D. Support position with pillow B. assess Olga and check level of fluid left in the bottle
107. You are reviewing the laboratory results of Clare who 42
has rheumatoid arthritis. Which C. discontinue IV and assess Olga
laboratory result should you expect to find? D. replace IV fluid with prescribed follow-up
A. Increased platelet count 113. A research study found out that 60% of patients
B. Altered blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels complains were due to delayed
C. Electrolyte imbalance responses of nurses in the emergency department. Which
D. Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) of the following measurement of
108. Mrs. Paras is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). data was used in this study?
If you will evaluate her A. Measures of variability C. Frequency distribution
nutritional status, which of the following indicators will tell B. Measures of central tendency D. Inferential statistics
you that TPN was effective? 114. During a meal, a client with hepatitis B dislodges her IV
A. laboratory work up line and bleeds on the surface
B. adequate hydration of the over-the-bed table. It would be most appropriate for
C. weight gain the nurse to instruct a housekeeper
D. diminish episode of nausea and vomiting to clean the table with:
109. While Jayvee, a burn patient is being transferred from A. Alcohol C. ammonia
the burn unit to the operating B. Acetone D. bleach
room, the IV bottle fell on Jayvee’s head. He sustained a 115. Nino is being treated with radiation therapy. What
laceration on his forehead. The nurse should be included in the plan of
was proven guilty of negligence. Which of the following did care to minimize skin damage from the radiation therapy?
the nurse fail to do? A. Cover the areas with thick clothing materials
A. Hold the IV bottle B. Apply a heating pad to the site
B. Check the IV stand C. Wash skin with water after the therapy
C. Place the IV stand on the foot part of the stretcher D. Avoid applying creams and powders to the area
D. Restrain Jayvee 116. You are assigned to the following patients. Which of
110. While Mrs. Enriquez is receiving chemotherapy which the following patients is most at
of the following will you include risk for metabolic alkalosis?
in the plan of care to address her nutritional needs?
A. Grace, 30 year old post surgical patient who has physician medication orders by the nurse, a tertiary hospital
continuous nasogastric utilized a computerized
suction medication order system. Which of the following
B. Rachel a 55 year old who has just experienced a stroke procedures may be done through the said
C. Helen, 70 year old with altered level of consciousness system?
who is unable to access A. Correct errors in the physician medication order
water freely B. Eliminate drug interaction
D. Mary Jane a 2 year old infant receiving isotonic sodium C. Provide a list of drugs with their generic name
chloride IV solution D. Document drug administration
117. Studies have shown that the highest incidence of SITUATIONAL
Hodgkin’s disease is common among Situation 1 – P. Cruz, 65 years old, was admitted in the
young adults. Juana, 20 years old approaches you and tells Telemetry because of signs and
you “I am worried about the mass symptoms of acute myocardial infarction. You are expected
on my neck”. What should you do as a nurse? to recognize
A. Tell her there is nothing to worry if it does not bother her electrocardiographic readings on the cardiac monitor.
B. Palpate Juana’s neck and explain the possible cause 121. Which of the following appear abnormal on an EKG
C. Tell her Hodgkin’s disease is common among young when ischemia and injury occur in
adults like her the myocardium?
D. Tell her to see a doctor A. QRS interval C. P wave
118. As a nurse, you accidentally administer 40 mg of B. ST segment D. PR interval
Propanolol (Inderal) to a client 122. From an ECG reading, a QRS complex represents:
instead of 10 mg. Although the client exhibits no adverse A. Venticular depolarization C. End of ventricular
reactions to the larger dose, you depolarization
should: B. Ventricular repolarization D. Atrial depolarization
A. complete an incident report 123. Which of the following represents ventricular
B. call the hospital attorney repolarization?
C. inform the client’s family A. T wave C. QRS complex
D. do nothing because the client’s condition is stable B. ST segment D. PR interval
119. You are the nurse manager of the Medical Unit. Which 124. It is important that the nurse measures intervals of
of the following is a priority for QRS complex. Which of the
you to consider when planning for the care of a group of following represent the normal interval of QRS complex?
clients utilizing evidence-based A. greater than .20 sec C. .10 sec
practice? B. .20 sec D. .12 sec to .20 sec
A. Client’s care is planned based on the nurse’s clinical 125. Later in the acute phase of Myocardial Infarction,
expertise and latest which of the following typically
research findings appears as the first sign of tissue death?
B. Standardized care plans are used on all of the nurse’s A. ST segment suppression C. Prolonged PR interval
clients. B. Short T wave D. Pathologic Q wave
C. Standards of care are developed by the hospital nursing Situation 2 – To be able to help our clients with their
service and should be psychological concerns, we have to
followed explore how they view themselves and their body image.
43 126. When assessing patient’s body image, which of the
D. Client’s needs are assessed and individualized care plan following would be most important
are developed for each to ask?
client. A. What are your hobbies?
120. Because of increase incidents of medication error due B. What kind of work did you do prior to this illness?
to wrong transcription of C. Are your living accommodation all on one level?
D. What kind of food do you like?
127. The most appropriate nursing intervention to facilitate
client’s acceptance of a change
in body image would be to:
A. encourage dependence
B. establish a therapeutic relationship
44
C. joke with the client
D. establish a social relationship
128. Which of the following responses would indicate that
the client is beginning to accept
change in his/her body image?
A. Feeling of the dressing over the incisional site
B. Stating he/she is too tired to have visitors
C. Discussing his.her stamp collection with the nurse
D. Showing no interest in the dressing change
129. It is important for you to remember, that a sudden
change in body image would occur
from:
A. Weight gain
B. Side effects of medication on skin
C. Radiation treatment of the breast
D. Surgical removal of an eyeball
130. Before you can help Lorna accept a change in body
image you must FIRST:
A. be in agreement with the philosophy of therapy for the
client
B. become aware of her own attitude toward mutilation and
disfigurement
C. be aware of the attitudes and feelings of the client and
her family
D. accept the fact that a person can live with a body part
missing
Situation 3 – Radiation therapy is another modality of
cancer management. With emphasis
on multidisciplinary management you have important
responsibilities as nurse.
131. Albert is receiving external radiation therapy and he
complains of fatigue and malaise.
Which of the following nursing interventions would be most
helpful for Albert?
A. Tell him that sometimes these feelings can be
psychogenic
B. Refer him to the physician
C. Reassure him that these feelings are normal
D. Help him plan his activities
132. Immediately following the radiation teletherapy,
Albert is
A. considered radioactive for 24 hrs
B. given a complete bath
C. placed on isolation for 6 hours
D. free from radiation
133. Albert is admitted with a radiation induced
thrombocytopenia. As a nurse you should
observe the following symptoms:
A. petechiae, ecchymosis, epistaxis
B. weakness, easy fatigability, pallor
C. headache, dizziness, blurred vision
D. severe sore throat, bacteremia, hepatomegaly
134. What nursing diagnosis should be of highest priority?
A. Knowledge deficit regarding thrombocytopenia
precautions
B. Activity intolerance
C. Impaired tissue integrity
D. Ineffective tissue perfusion, peripheral, cerebral,
cardiovascular, gastrointestinal,
renal
135. What intervention should you include in your care
plan?
45
A. Inspect his skin for petechiae, bruising, GI bleeding
regularly
B. Place Albert on strict isolation precaution
C. Provide rest in between activities
D. Administer antipyretics if his temperature exceeds 38C
Situation 4 – Andrea is admitted to the ER following an
assault where she was hit in the
face and head. She was brought to the ER by a police
woman. Emergency
measures were started.
136. As Andrea’s nurse, what will be your priority
interventions
A. Insert an intravenous catheter
B. Insert an oral or nasopharyngeal airway
C. Obtain arterial blood gases
D. Give 100% oxygen by mask
137. Andrea’s arterial blood gases reflect respiratory
acidosis. This is most likely related to:
A. Partially obstructed airway
B. Ineffective breathing pattern
C. Head injury
D. Pain
138. Andrea loses consciousness. You should prepare for
which of the following FIRST?
A. Placement of a nasogastric tube
B. Placement of a second IV line
C. Endotracheal intubation or surgical airway placement
D. CT scan of the head
139. Andrea’s physician gives an order of Mannitol 0.25
g/kg IV bolus for increased ICP.
This is given to:
A. promote cerebral-tissue fluid movement
B. promote renal perfusion
C. correct acid-base imbalances
D. enhance renal excretion of drugs
140. As Andrea’s nurse your goal is to prevent increased
intracranial pressure (ICP). Which
of the following independent nursing interventions nursing
interventions is NOT suited for her?
A. Do oropharyngeal suction every 15 minutes to prevent
pulmonary aspiration
B. Keep head of bed 30-45 degrees elevated
C. Maintain Andrea’s head in straight alignment and
prevent hip flexion
D. Prevent constipation and increases in intra-abdominal
pressure
Situation 5 – Specific surgical interventions may be done
when lung cancer is detected
early. You have “important peri-operative” responsibilities
in caring for
patients with lung cancer.
141. Horace underwent lobectomy. Which of the following
is the purpose of Horace’s
closed chest drainage post lobectomy?
A. Facilitation of coughing
B. Promotion of wound healing
C. Expansion of the remaining lung
D. Prevention of mediastinal shift
142. Which of the following observations indicates that the
closed chest drainage system is
functioning properly?
A. Absence of bubbling in the suction-control bottle
B. The fluctuating movement of fluid in the long tube of the
water-seal bottle
during inspiration
C. Intermittent bubbling through the long tube of the
suction control bottle
46
D. Less than 25 ml drainage in the drainage bottle
143. Following lobectomy, you can best help Horace to
reduce pain during deep breathing
and coughing exercises by:
A. placing him on his operative side during exercises
B. splinting his chest with both hands during the exercises
C. administering the prescribed analgesic immediately prior
to exercises
D. providing rest for six hours before exercises
144. Peter underwent pneumonectomy. During the
immediate postoperative period, deep
tracheal suction should be done with extreme caution
because:
A. Peter will not be able to tolerate coughing
B. The tracheobrachial trees are dry
C. The remaining normal lung needs minimal stimulation
D. The bronchial suture line may be traumatized
145. On which of the following positions should you place
Peter who just underwent
pneumonectomy?
A. Prone position
B. On his abdomen or on the side opposite the surgery
C. On his back or on the side of surgery
D. Any position is acceptable
Situation 6 – As a nurse you should be able to address
problems and discomforts
experienced by the acutely ill older persons.
146. Pain in the older persons require careful assessment
because they:
A. Are expected to experience chronic pain
B. Experienced reduce sensory perception
C. Have increased sensory perception
D. Have a decreased pain threshold
147. Administration of analgesic to the older persons
requires careful patient assessment
because older people:
A. have increased hepatic, renal and gastrointestinal
functions
B. mobilize drug more rapidly
C. have increased sensory perception
D. are more sensitive to drugs
148. The older person is at higher risk for incontinence
because of:
A. increased glomerular filtration C. diuretic use
B. decreased bladder capacity D. dilated urethra
149. The most dependable cause of infection in the older
person is
A. change in mental status
B. fever
C. decreased breath sounds with crackles
D. pain
150. Your priorities when caring for the older person who
sustained traumatic injuries
include:
A. circulation, airway, breathing
B. airway, breathing disability (neurologic)
C. airways, breathing, circulation
D. disability (neurologic), airway, breathing
47
Situation 7 – Mang Felix, a 79 year old man who is brought
to the Surgical Unit from PACU
after a transurethral resection. You are assigned to receive
him. You noted
that he has a 3-way indwelling urinary catheter for
continuous fast drip
bladder irrigation which is connected to a straight drainage.
151. Immediately after surgery, what would you expect his
urine to be?
A. Light yellow C. Bright red
B. Amber D. Pinkish to red
152. The purpose of the continuous bladder irrigation is to:
A. allow continuous monitoring of the fluid output status
B. provide continuous flushing of clots and debris from the
bladder
C. allow for proper exchange of electrolytes and fluid
D. ensure accurate monitoring of intake and output
153. Mang Felix informs you that he feels som discomfort
on the hypogastric area and he
has to void. What will be your most appropriate action?
A. Remove his catheter then allow him to void on his own
B. Irrigate his catheter
C. tell him to “Go ahead and void. You have an indwelling
catheter.”
D. assess color and rate of outflow, if there is a change refer
to urologist for
possible irrigation.
154. You decided to check on Mang Felix’s IV fluid infusion.
You noted a change in flow
rate, pallor and coldness around the insertion site. What is
your assessment finding?
A. Phlebitis
B. Infiltration to subcutaneous tissue
C. Pyrogenic reaction
D. Air embolism
155. Knowing that proper documentation of assessment
findings and interventions are
important responsibilities of the nurse during first post
operative day, which of the following is
the LEAST relevant to document in the case of Mang Felix?
A. Chest pain and vital signs
B. Intravenous infusion rate
C. Amount, color, and consistency of bladder irrigation
drainage
D. Activities of daily living started
Situation 8 – Many hospitals form bioethical review
committees to ensure better quality of
life of patients. You are invited by the nursing service
department to
participate in their bioethical review committee. You are
expected to know the
purpose and apply bioethical principles.
156. Which of the following is the purpose of the ethical
review committee?
A. Promote implementation of general standards
B. Enhance health care provider’s liability
C. Increase individuals responsibility for decision making
D. Decrease public scrutiny of health care provider’s action
157. Daria who is admitted to the hospital with
autoimmune thrombocytopenia and a platelet
count of 20,000/æL develops epistaxis and melena.
Treatment with corticosteroids and
immunoglobulin has not been successful. Her physician
recommended splenectomy. Daria
states “I don’t need surgery. This will go away on its own.”
In considering your response to
Daria, you must depend on the ethical principle of:
A. Beneficence C. Autonomy
48
B. Justice D. Advocacy
158. Zorayda is terminally ill and is experiencing severe
pain. She as bone and liver
metastasis. She has been on morphine for several months
now. Zorayda is aware that they
are having financial problems. She decides to sign a DNR
form. What ethical principle did
Zorayda and her family utilize as basis for their decision to
sign a DNR.
A. Justice C. Beneficence
B. Autonomy D. Advocacy
159. Tricia, a staff nurse working in a cancer unit, is
considered a role model not only by her
colleagues but also by her patients. She goes out of her way
to help other. She is very active
in their professional organization and she practices what
she teaches. What ethical principles
is she practicing?
A. Beneficence C. Advocacy
B. Autonomy D. Justice
160. You are commuting to work riding the LRT. An older
person collapsed and nobody
seem to notice her. The security guard tried to make her sit
down but she remained
unconscious. You saw what happened and you decided to
help. With help, you brought the
patient to the nearest hospital. You learned later that
woman was diabetic. She was on her
way to the diabetes clinic to have her fasting blood sugar
tested. She developed
hypoglycemia. You were able to save a life. You felt good.
What principle was applied?
A. Advocacy C. Justice
B. Beneficence D. Autonomy
Situation 9 – Ensuring safety before, during and after a
diagnostic procedure is an
important responsibility of the nurse.
161. To help Fernan better tolerate the bronchoscopy, you
should instruct him to practice
which of the following prior to the procedure?
A. clenching his fist every 2 minutes
B. breathing in and out through the nose with his mouth
open
C. tensing the shoulder muscles while lying on his back
D. holding his breath periodically for 30 seconds
162. Following a bronchoscopy, which of the following
complains to Fernan should be noted
as a possible complication:
A. nausea and vomiting
B. shortness of breath and laryngeal stridor
C. blood tinged sputum and coughing
D. sore throat and hoarseness
163. Immediately after bronchoscopy, you instructed
Fernan to:
A. exercise the neck muscles
B. breathe deeply
C. retrain from coughing and talking
D. clear his throat
164. Thoracentesis may be performed for cytologic study of
pleural fluid. As a nurse your
most important function during the procedure is to:
A. keep the sterile equipment from contamination
B. assist the physician
C. open and close the three-way stopcock
D. observe the patient’s vital signs
165. Right after thoracentesis, which of the following is
most appropriate intervention?
49
A. instruct the patient not to cough or deep breathe for two
hours
B. observe for symptoms of tightness of chest for bleeding
C. place an ice pack to the puncture site
D. remove the dressing to check for bleeding
Situation 10 – As a nurse you are expected to be
competent in utilizing the nursing process
in the care of your clients.
166. Getty is receiving chemotherapy for cancer. You review
Getty’s laboratory report and
note that he has anemia. To which nursing diagnosis should
you give the highest priority?
A. Activity intolerance
B. Impaired oral mucous membrane
C. Impaired tissue perfusion, cerebral, cardiovascular,
gastrointestinal
D. Impaired tissue integrity
167. An immediate objective for nursing care of an
overweight mildly hypertensive client
with ureteral colic and hematuria is to decrease:
A. Hypertension C. hematuria
B. Pain D. weight
168. A difficult problem to deal with when caring for a
patient with a partial-thickness burns
sustained 3 days ago is:
A. alteration in body image C. frequent dressing change
B. maintenance of sterility D. severe pain
169. Which outcome criterion would be most appropriate
for a client with a nursing
diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance?
A. Continued use of oxygen when necessary
B. Breath sounds clear on auscultation
C. Respiratory rate of 24/min
D. Presence of congestion
170. Which assessment would be most supportive of the
nursing diagnosis, impaired skin
integrity related to purulent wound drainage.
A. Heart rate of 88 beats/min C. Oral temperature of 38.8
deg C
B. Dry and intact wound dressing D. Wound healing by first
intention
Situation 11 – Nurses have important responsibilities when
caring for hospitalized acutely ill
patients.
171. Domingo, 80 years old diabetic and hypertensive is
admitted in the private ward for
degenerative neurological changes. His physician was
considering dementia. Side rails were
placed to ensure that he will not fall from bed. At 2:00 AM,
the call light at his room was on.
You came in and saw Domingo slumped on the floor
moaning. His daughter told you that he
got out of bed to go to the toilet. He climbed over the side
rail but his foot got caught in the
beddings. He has an open wound on his forehead. Which
among the following will you do
FIRST?
A. Transfer him to bed
B. Apply restraints
C. Ensure airway, breathing, circulation
D. Call his physician
50
172. Aimee has chest pain and decides to take
nitroglycerine en route to the hospital. Based
on the ECG obtained on admission at the ER and clinical
findings, the physician gave a
diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI) and prescribed IV
morphine to relieve continuing pain.
A primary goal of nursing care for Aimee is to recognize life-
threatening complications of MI.
As Aimee’s nurse, you have to anticipate occurrence of
complications. Take note that the
major cause of death after an MI is:
A. Cardiac arrhythmias C. Cardiogenic shock
B. Heart failure D. Pulmonary embolism
173. The cardiac monitor indicates that Cedric’s heart rate
has increased to 150 beats per
minute. Shortly after this increase, you notice Cedric is in
ventricular tachycardia. after
reporting this to the physician, you anticipate that the
physician will order.
A. intracardiac epinephrine
B. insertion of a pacemaker
C. bolus of Lidocaine
D. manual cardiopulmonary resuscitation
174. Hermie with a left-sided heart failure complains of
increasing shortness of breath and is
agitated and coughing up of pink-tinged foamy sputum. You
should recognize this as signs
and symptoms of:
A. cardiogenic shock C. acute pulmonary edema
B. right-sided heart failure D. pneumonia
175. You are caring for Lulu has acute pulmonary edema. To
immediate promote
oxygenation and relief of dyspnea, you should first:
A. perform chest physiotherapy
B. have her take deep breaths and cough
C. place Lulu on high fowler’s position
D. administer oxygen
Situation 12 – Acute respiratory distress is life threatening.
Your presence and critical
decision making as a nurse are important.
176. Frank is admitted to the Intensive Care Unit with a
diagnosis of acute respiratory
distress syndrome. When assessing Frank you would expect
to find:
A. facilitate Frank’s verbal communication
B. maintain sterility of the ventilation system
C. assess his response to the equipment
D. prepare him for emergency surgery
E. Dyspnea, Flaring of the Nares
177. Frank’s respiratory status necessitates endotracheal
intubation and positive pressure
ventilation. Your most immediate nursing intervention for
Frank at this time would be to:
A. facilitate Frank’s verbal communication
B. maintain sterility of the ventilation system
C. assess his response to the equipment
D. prepare him for emergency surgery
178. Tiger with a pulmonary embolus is intubated and
placed on mechanical ventilation.
When suctioning the endotracheal tube, you should:
A. apply suction while inserting the catheter
B. use short and jabbing movements of the catheter to
loosen secretions
C. hyperoxygenate with 100% oxygen before and after
suctioning
D. suction two to three timed in quick succession to remove
all secretions
51
179. As a nurse, you should observe Bernard, who has a
restrictive airway disease, for early
indications of respiratory acidosis, which include:
A. light-headedness C. bradycardia
B. bradypnea D. restlessness
180. The physician orders low concentration oxygen to be
given continuously for Kenneth
who has a chronic obstructive pulmonary disease to
prevent:
A. an excessive drying of the respiratory mucosa
B. depression of the respiratory center
C. rupture of emphysematous bullae
D. a decrease in red blood cell formation
Situation 13 – As a nurse you have to be prepared to care
for patients receiving blood
transfusion. The physician has ordered 3 units of whole
blood to be
transfused to Diego following following a repair of a
dissecting aneurysm of
the aorta.
181. You are preparing a unit of whole blood for
transfusion. From the time you obtain it
from the blood bank how long should you infuse it?
A. 4 hours C. 2 hours
B. 1 hour D. 6 hours
182. What should you do FIRST before you administer blood
transfusion?
A. Check IV site and use appropriate BT set and needle
B. Verify physician’s order
C. Verify client identity and blood product blood product,
serial number, blood type,
cross matching results, expiration date with another nurse
D. Verify client identity and blood product, serial number,
blood type, cross matching
results, expiration date
183. As Diego’s nurse what will you do after the transfusion
has been started?
A. Discontinue the primary IV of Dextrose 5% water
B. Stay with Diego for 15 minutes to note for any possible
BT reaction
C. Check his vital signs every 15 minutes
D. Add the total amount of the blood to be transfused to
the intake and output
184. Diego is undergoing blood transfusion of the first unit.
The earliest signs of transfusion
reactions are:
A. oliguria and jaundice
B. urticaria and wheezing
C. hypertension and flushing
D. headache, chills, fever
185. In case Diego will experience an acute hemolytic
reaction, what will be your priority
intervention?
A. Immediately stop the blood transfusion, infuse dextrose
5% in water and call the
physician
B. Slow the blood transfusion and monitor the patient
closely
C. Immediately stop the blood transfusion, notify the blood
bank and administer
antihistamines
D. Immediately stop the blood transfusion, infuse normal
saline solution, call
the physician, notify the blood bank
52
Situation 14 – Based on studies of nurses working in special
units like the intensive care unit and
coronary care unit, it is important for nurses to gather as
much information to be able to
address their needs for nursing care.
186. Critically ill patients frequently complain about which
of the following when
hospitalized?
A. Hospital food C. Lack of privacy
B. Lack of blankets D. Inadequate nursing staff
187. Who of the following is at greatest risk of developing
sensory problem?
A. Female patient C. Transplant patient
B. Adoloscent D. Unresponsive patient
188. Which of the following factors may inhibit learning in
critically ill patients?
A. gender
B. medication
C. educational level
D. previous knowledge of illness
189. Which of the following statements does not apply to
critically ill patients?
A. Majority need extensive rehabilitation
B. All have been hospitalized previously
C. Are physically unstable
D. Most have chronic illness
190. Families of critically ill patients desire which of the
following needs to be met first by the
nurse?
A. Provision of comfortable space
B. Emotional support
C. Updated information on client’s status
D. Spiritual counseling
Situation 15 – Pain is the most common reasons why people
consult their physicians. It is now
regarded as the 5th vital sign. This strategy is used to give
emphasis on how pain
should be managed. You have collaboration as well as
independent nursing
interventions for pain.
191. The WHO Analgesic ladder provides the health
professional with:
A. pharmacologic and nonpharmacologic pain management
choices
B. general pain management choices based on level of pain
C. nonpharmacologic interventions based on level of pain
D. specific pain management choices based on severity of
pain
192. As a nurse caring for patients in pain, you should
evaluate for opioid side effects which
include the following EXCEPT:
A. physical dependence C. Respiratory depression
B. pruritus D. constipation
193. Which of the following statements about cancer pain is
NOT TRUE:
A. undertreatment of pain is often due to a clinician’s
failure to evaluate the severity of
the client’s problem
B. adjuvant medication such as steroids, anticonvulsants,
non-steroidal antiinflammatory drugs enhance pain
perception
C. opioids are drug of choice for severe pain
53
D. pain associated with cancer and the terminal phase of
the disease occurs in
majority of patients
194. Jack has been on morphine on a regular basis for
several weeks. He is now
complaining that the usual dose he has been receiving is no
longer relieving his pain as
effectively. Assuming that nothing has changed in his
condition, you would suspect that Jack
is:
A. becoming psychologically dependent
B. needing to have morphine discontinued
C. developing tolerance to morphine
D. exaggerating his level of pain
195. The guidelines for choosing appropriate
nonpharmacologic interventions for pain
include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. pain problem identification
B. type of opioid being used
C. skill of health professional
D. effectiveness for patient
Situation 16 – The nurse’s accurate assessment is very
crucial in preventing complication during
the severe post burn period.
196. Dino sustained circumferential thermal burns of the
left upper extremity and chest. You
noted that pulse could not be appreciated in his injured
extremity. Which of the following will
you do FIRST?
A. Elevate the injured extremity to increase blood flow to
the heart
B. Remove the dead tissues which impede circulation
C. Try to take the pulse in the uninjured extremity
D. Notify the physician immediately as this requires
emergency intervention
197. While unloading containers with chemicals from a
truck, Mark accidentally spilled the
whole can of corrosive chemicals all over his body. Which of
the following would you consider
as the priority intervention in the emergency management
of Mark?
A. Maintain a patent airway
B. Wash the chemical off with cool water
C. Assess for associated injuries
D. Remove all clothing containing the chemical
198. You are assigned in the Burn Unit and you are going to
evaluate the status of
Raymond who sustained a burn injury 12 hours ago and has
a urinary output of 200 ml since
the injury. Which of the following will you do FIRST?
A. Increase the rate of the IV fluid
B. Administer the prescribed Furosemide (Lasix)
C. Check catheter for kinks
D. Increase the oral intake to 30/hr
199. Kathy, who has partial-thickness burns on the face,
inquiries about skin care after
discharge. Which of the following should you include in
your discharge teaching?
A. Continue to eat high caloric high food for the next month
B. Wear a pressure garment daily for one year
C. Avoid sunlight for the next three months
D. Avoid facial makeup for at least a year
200. You are caring for Lenard who sustained severe burn
injury and he is in the emergent
phase of burn injury. As his nurse, you gathered the
following: Hemoglobin 13.5 g/100 ml,
Hematocrit 50%, serum Na 130 mEq/L. How will you explain
the laboratory results?
A. These are due to hemodilution from rapid IV fluid
replacement
B. All the laboratory tests are within normal rage
C. They are slightly abnormal but will normalize once IV
fluids have been started
54
D. These are due to a loss of serum and interstitial fluid
through the burn
wound.
SUBMIT THIS TEST BOOKLET TOGETHER WITH THE ANSWER
SHEET TO YOUR
WATCHERS. BRINGING THE TEST BOOKLET OUT OF THE
ROOM WILL BE A
GROUND FOR CANCELLATION OF YOUR EXAMINATION.
***END***
NURSING PRACTICE V SET A
_________________________________________________
_______________________
NURSING PRACTICE V – Foundation of PROFESSIONAL
Nursing Practice
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
21. This test booklet contains 100 test questions.
22. Read INSTRUCTIONS TO EXAMINEES printed on your
answer sheet.
23. Shade only one (1) box for each question on your
answer sheets. Two or more boxes shaded
will invalidate your answer.
24. AVOID ERASURES.
25. This is PRC property. Unauthorized possession,
reproduction, and/or sale of this test is
punishable by law. Per RA 8981.
_________________________________________________
_______________________
INSTRUCTIONS:
13. Detach one (1) answer sheet from the bottom of your
Examinee ID/Answer Sheet
Set .
14. Write the subject title “Nursing Practice V” on the box
provided.
15. Shade Set Box “A” on your answer sheet if your test
booklet is Set A; Set Box “B” if your test
booklet is Set B.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
SITUATIONAL
Situation 1 – The following questions refer to nurse’s efforts
to do collaboration and teamwork. Select
the best answer.
1. The most important role of the nurse as a member of the
team is to:
A. carry out medical orders
B. meet the needs for the physical well being of patients
C. coordinate the psychological care and management of
clients
D. keep a 24 hour watch for the patients
2. A biological/medical approach to patient care utilizes
which of the following?
A. Million therapy C. Behavioral therapy
B. Somatic therapy D. Psychotherapy
3. Which of these nursing actions belong to the secondary
level of preventive intervention?
55
A. Providing mental health consultation to health care
providers
B. Providing emergency psychiatric services
C. Being politically active in relation to mental health issues
D. Providing mental health education to members of the
community
4. When the nurse identifies a client who has attempt to
commit suicide the nurse should:
A. call a priest
B. counsel the client
C. refer the client to the psychiatrist
D. refer the matter to the police
5. The community health nurse was invited by the principal
of an elementary school and was
asked to give a talk to parents. An appropriate topic would
be:
A. the legal aspects of drug abuse
B. disciplining children at home and school
C. marital crises
D. the problems of out of school youth
Situation 2 – The nurse visited the Reyes family to check on
their two growing children, aged
7 and 4 years. Upon her visit she observed that common
areas of arguments
between Mr. and Mrs. Reyes are about conflicting ways of
bringing up their
children. Mrs. Reyes is lax and tolerant while Mr. Reyes
often insists strict ways
to a point of protectiveness from what he perceives as
unsafe i.e. community and
neighbors that cannot be trusted.
6. Mr. Reyes remarked “I am wary about people visiting-
with all the media news about child
kidnapping and robberies. “The nurse’s BEST response
would be:
A. “Would you rather wish that I don’t come and visit you
may regard me as a
stranger?”
B. “I get that.” The nurse diverts the attention to talk about
non-threatening topics.
C. “It must be distressing to think and feel the way you do.”
D. “I acknowledge what you are saying. My concern is the
health care of your family
and information are strictly confidential.”
7. Mrs. Reyes expressed that her socializing with neighbors
is limited because her husband
thinks she is getting overly friendly with a guy next door.
Which of the following would the
nurse emphasize as basic?
A. Keeping trust in the relationship
B. Avoid relating with neighbors to minimize conflict
C. Be assertive to express to express her individuality
D. Ignore the husband and just be supportive
8. For the nurse to be effective in developing rapport with
the family it is essential that she
keeps her appointment on time and stick to a care plan. She
is applying the principle of:
A. responsibility and accountability
B. consistency and predictability
C. honesty and integrity
D. empathy and compassion
9. Which of these symptoms if demonstrated by Mr. Reyes
would necessitate referral to a
doctor?
A. Hypervigilance C. hypersensitive
B. Suspicious affect D. loss of reality contact
10. The paranoid client utilizes which of the following
defense mechanisms?
A. Sublimation C. Rationalization
B. Projection D. Reaction formation
56
Situation 3 – Mr. Sison has been diagnosed as having early
chronic glaucoma. He has been
admitted to the hospital for treatment.
11. The nurse identified a nursing problem of disturbed
sensory perception: visual impairment
characterized by:
A. sudden loss of eyesight
B. loss of night vision
C. loss of peripheral vision
D. loss of central vision
12. In order to understand the rationale for drug therapy, it
is important for the nurse to know
that glaucoma is usually caused by:
A. opacity in the lens
B. gradual diminution of the retina
C. damage to the proteins in the lens
D. increase production of aqueous fluid
13. Diamox is a drug used in the treatment of glaucoma.
Which of these is the effect of this
drug?
A. Constricts the pupil
B. Acts as osmotic diuretic
C. Reduces the production of aqueous humor
D. Facilitates outflow of aqueous humor
14. Public health nurses should identify which of these
patients as a risk group for
development of glaucoma, hence the need for annual eye
examinations:
A. Patient with Parkinson’s disease
B. Cancer patients
C. Diabetic and hypertensive patients
D. Patient with COPD
15. The appropriate method of instilling eye drops is:
Instilling into an opened eye, with the
head held back and with the eye looking:
A. Upward C. aggressiveness
B. downward D. suspiciousness
Situation 4 – SEXUAL DISORDER
16. A hospitalized male adolescent flirts with and is sexually
provocative toward a female
nurse. The nurse can respond MOST therapeutically by
doing which of the following?
A. Telling him she is married and too old for him
B. Introducing him to female clients his own age
C. Encouraging him to watch TV in his room
D. Ignoring his flirtatious and provocative behaviors
17. The premorbid personality of a person with a non-
psychotic maladaptive response to
anxiety may most accurately be described as:
A. unpredictable, impulsive and aggressive
B. rigid, insecure and conforming
C. dependent, pessimistic and moody
D. anxious, insensitive and self-absorbed
18. An oral-dependent personality is characterized by which
of the following?
A. Helplessness C. Aggressiveness
B. Hopelessness D. Suspiciousness
57
19. The pedophile’s choice of a sex object is primarily based
on:
A. difficulty relating with adults
B. feelings of tenderness toward children
C. fears of incestuous impulses
D. preferred for a passive sexual role
20. A young adult male unable to stay put in one job and
has no commitment in his
relationship is having difficulty achieving a sense of:
A. Autonomy C. industry
B. Trust D. intimacy
Situation 5 – Anita is experiencing rape-trauma syndrome
in an acute phase. She had been
invited to a fraternity party. She had too much drink and
she has feelings of
anger, humiliation, helplessness, nausea, vomiting,
nightmare and muscle
tension.
21. When the nurse approached Anita, initially she was just
crying, felt she was in a nightmare
and she was at a loss. The appropriate nursing diagnosis is
A. Situational low self-esteem
B. Sexual violence
C. Ineffective coping
D. Sexual dysfunction
22. Anita expressed to the nurse that she douched,
showered for an hour and still did not feel
clean. Anita is experiencing:
A. guilt C. denial
B. anger D. frustration
23. Which of these communicate unconditional acceptance
of Anita and hr situation?
A. “You are here and I am ready to listen.”
B. Why did you date a guy you hardly knew?”
C. Tell me when you are ready and I’ll come back to you.”
D. I would be best of help if you stop crying.”
24. Anita is experiencing:
A. maturational crisis C. Social crisis
B. developmental crisis D. frustration
25. Which of these behaviors of Anita signal her readiness
to proceed to the working phase of
the nurse-patient relationship?
A. She states she trusted the nurse
B. She wants to talk to a lawyer
C. She inquires about personal information about the nurse
D. She wants to be told what her rights are
Situation 6 – The psychiatric mental health nurse adheres to
standards that ensure quality
improvement. The following situations and behaviors are
means to achieve this goal.
26. This is a process wherein the client’s chart is reviewed
to compare criteria for quality care
with actual practice:
A. Psychiatric Audit
B. Nursing Care Process
C. Interaction Process Analysis
D. Algorithms
58
27. In order to assess “Reliability” as a behavioral
characteristic, the nurse would ask herself
which of the following questions regarding her recording:
A. Did the history of the present problem correlate with the
review of growth and
development?
B. How long did it take to complete the nursing data base?
C. Is the nursing data base complete?
D. Are the nursing history and psychosocial assessment
accurate?
28. All of these are the advantages of peer review EXCEPT:
A. Demands accountability for nursing actions
B. Has the possibility of enhancing intra professional
respect
C. It requires the development of standards for quality care
D. Provide an evaluation of the nurse’s abilities
29. The nursing team leader wants to involve all the nurses
in participating in their own
personal and professional growth through a brainstorming
session. One of the most
important ground rules is:
A. Follow the problem solving approach
B. Do not pass judgment on the ideas presented
C. Ideas must be feasible
D. Suggestions must be cost effective
30. “Did the nurse perform in the best possible manner
without waste?” aims to describe the
nurse’s:
A. thoroughness C. efficiency
B. reliability D. analytic sense
Situation 7 – A nurse was interested to study the research
question: “What are the
differences and similarities between aggressive and non-
aggressive cognitively
impaired, elderly, institutionalized people?”
31. Investigation of cognitively impaired individual
presented some ethical dilemmas. Which of
the following protocol would be considered unethical?
A. Recording interaction with the elderly with their
permission
B. Verbal permission from the subject is unnecessary
C. Data coded and recorded solely by the investigation
D. A written consent from the institution and a significant
other
32. A semi-structured interview was conducted. This means
that:
A. Interview is conducted precisely in the same manner
B. Interviewer is not held to any specific question
C. Subject is allowed to express without any suggestion
from interviewer
D. Interviewer is free to probe beyond a number of specific
major questions
33. The type of study conducted is:
A. Descriptive C. experimental
B. Quasi-experimental D. case study
34. The review of literature included reference to
retrospective studies. Such studies have the
advantages EXCEPT:
A. Data are inexpensive to obtain
B. Possibility of memory bias and distortion of fact
C. There is much material available
D. It is easy to get data
59
35. The average age of the respondents was 86. this
represents:
A. the sum ages divided by total number of participants
B. the youngest participant is 86 years old
C. the oldest participant is 86 years old
D. most of the number participant is 86 years old
Situation 8 – Mr. David is brought to the hospital due to
pain radiating to the hip and leg. He is
diagnosed with a herniated lumbar disk. H is scheduled for
myelogram.
36. After the procedure, the nurse must include which of th
following nursing action in his
care?
A. Assess for movement and sensation of the lower
extremity
B. Place the client in most comfortable position
C. Lying supine with heels flexed
D. Bed rest with bed elevated at 45 degrees
37. Mr. David is scheduled for lumbar laminectomy. Post
operatively the nurse should:
A. Logroll the client with the help of another nurse
B. Inform the client that he should be in supine position
C. Assess the sensory loss in his legs
D. Instruct the patient to move from side to side
38. Trimethobenzamine Hydrochloride (Tigan) was
administered postoperatively. The action of
this drug is effective when it:
A. Controls nausea C. controls muscle spasm
B. Controls pain D. controls edema
39. Mr. David is to ambulate for the first time following
surgery. What nursing action should be
BEST when the client begins to faint?
A. Get another nurse for help
B. Maneuver the client to a sitting position
C. Get back to his bed and place in side lying position
D. Assist the client to form a wide base of support and lean
against the nurse
40. Mr. David has to wear back brace. Which position is
recommended when the brace is
applied?
A. Sitting position C. lying on his side in bed
B. Standing position D. supine position in bed
Situation 9 – Through the nurse-patient relationship, the
nurse intervenes utilizing effective
communication techniques. The following are varied
situations in a psychiatry
ward.
41. The patient verbalizes, “Masama and pakiramdam ko.
Hindi ako nakatulog kagabi.“A
therapeutic response of the nurse would be:
A. “Baka ini-istorbo ka na naman ng mga boses.”
B. „Sinabi mo sana sa nars nabigyan ka ng sedative mo.“
C. Relax lang! Huwag ka masyadong mag-iisip ng mga
problema mo.“
D. “Maari mo bang sabihin sa akin and mga naiisip at
nararamdaman mo?“
42. Soledad is terminally ill of cancer. Looking sad, she
expresses, “Wala na yata akong pagasang mabuhay pa,” A
response which fosters hope is:
A. “Mukhang napakabigat ang dinaramdam ninyo. Andito
po ako at puwede
tayong mag-usap.“
60
B. “Huwag po ninyong isipin ang sakit ninyo. Bale wala yon.
Andito naman ako para
makausap ninyo.”
C. “Lakasan ang loob ninyo. Lahat naman po tayo ay doon
ang patutunguhan.”
D. “Gagaling din po kayo. Huwag po kayong mag-aalala.”
43. Camilia verbalizes, “Pinag-uusapan nila ako. Ayaw nila
ako.“ A therapeutic response is:
A. “Nalulungkot ba ang pakiramdam mo?”
B. “Hayaan mo sila. Ang mahalaga ay ang palagay mo sa
sarili mo.”
C. “Sino ang ‘nila’ na tinutukoy mo?”
D. “Huwag mong isipin yan. Hindi tama yan.”
44. During socialization, Nicanor was provoked, became
furious and started shouting “Walang
hiya kayo! Ako ang bida dito!” The nurse’s action is:
A. Take him away form the group until he manages to have
control of himself.
B. Immediately restrain him and put him on isolation to
protect other patients.
C. Prevent him from becoming more furious by giving an
extra PRN dose of sedative.
D. Respond with, “Nicanor, pare-pareho lang kayo ng mga
ibang pasyente dito.”
45. Nicanor becomes verbally assaultive to the nurse. He
says, “Ikaw, nurse, wala kanga lam!
Marunong pa ako sa iyo e. Ano ba ang ipinagmamalaki mo!”
The nurse responds
therapeutically by:
A. admonishing him with, “Ako ang nurse dito. Dapat
sumunod ka sa akin.”
B. Acknowledging his behavior, however, put him in his
right senses ; respond with,
“Oo nga, galit ka sa nurse pero hindi tama na naninigaw ka.”
C. Acknowledging his behavior and respond, “Nagagalit ka
sa nurse at
nawawala ka ng control sa sarili mo.”
D. Ignoring the behavior of the patient
Situation 10 – Nicanor was discharged form the hospital
and recovered from a manic episode
of Bipolar Disorder. NIcanor was readmitted with an
entirely different behavior.
he was very depressed.
46. The defense mechanism utilized by manic patients to
cover up depression is:
A. reaction formation C. displacement
B. compensation D. denial
47. The psychodymanics of depression is:
A. lax super-ego
B. weak super-ego
C. internalized hostility feelings
D. narcissistic personality
48. Which of these drugs is likely to indicated to Nicanor?
A. Serenace (Haloperidol)
B. Valium (Diazepam)
C. Tofranil (Imipramine HCl)
D. Trilaton (Pherpenazine)
49. Therapeutic use of self is essential in relating with
psychiatric patients. This is BEST
demonstrated in:
A. sympathizing with the miserable feelings of Nicanor
B. engaging Nicanor in productive activity
C. engaging NIcanor in introspective thinking
D. suppressing her own feelings toward NIcanor
50. After three days of antidepressant medication, Nicanor
still manifests depression. The
nurse evaluates this as:
61
A. unusual because action of antidepressant drug is
immediate
B. expected because it takes about two weeks for the
medication to be effective
C. unexpected because it takes within one week for the
medication to be effective
D. ineffective because perhaps the drug’s dose is
inadequate
Situation 11 - Ninety year old Purita is confined at the
medical unit for respiratory ailment for
which a breathing apparatus is prescribed for her to use
while she sleeps. She
refuses to wear it continuously though she fully
understands the medical
indication for it.
51. Which of these etical principles can guide the nurse in
her action?
A. Beneficence C. Autonomy
B. Fidelity D. Nonmaleficence
52. Purita has six children who are already adults. They
differ in their opinion whether or not to
allow their mother to decide for herself. The nurse would
encourage family conference for:
A. the eldest child’s opinion to be given priority
B. majority of the children to decide
C. allowing the medical staff to decide in their behalf
D. consensus building
53. Breathing treatments are to be given to Purita. In
anticipation that Purita might refuse,
Dinio, one of the children requests that he be the one to
sign the consent in behalf of their
mother. The nurse explains that Purita is rational in her
thinking and which of these client’s
right must be regarded?
A. Right to refuse treatment
B. Right to privacy
C. Right to informed consent
D. Right of habeas consent
54. Which of these would be the nurse’s priority following
the treatment principle of least
restrictive alternative?
A. One of one staffing C. Physical restraint
B. Use of on site guard/watcher D. Seclusion
55. Purita talks about her joy in having responsible and
accomplished children and recalls
challenging career as a lawyer. She is demonstrating a sense
of:
A. ego integrity C. generativity
B. industry D. autonomy
Situation 12 – Marina, 26 years old, is aloof in relating with
other patients and members of the
staff. She claims that the medications being given her are
meant to poison her.
She is also suspicious about the food being served for her.
56. Basically, Marina is suspicious because of her inability to
develop a sense of:
A. Intimacy C. Trust
B. Generativity D. Intiative
57. Marina utilizes projection by being suspicious. This
means that she:
A. unconsciously refuses to accept a feeling, thought or
impulse and attributes
it to someone else
B. justifies behavior, attitudes and feelings with excuses
C. involuntarily refuses to acknowledge reality
D. involuntarily excludes wishes, impulses, memories and
feelings from awareness
62
58. Which of these nursing approaches is MOST appropriate
for the nurse to begin with?
A. Engage Marina for at least one hour in a one-to-one
interaction daily
B. Invite her to socialize with other patients
C. Make self available while maintaining distance until
patient shows readiness
to interact
D. Refer her for activity therapy
59. When she resists to take her medication, it is best to:
A. let her read the drug literature to convince her that it is
therapeutic
B. force her to take the drug to maintain therapeutic
effectiveness of the drug
C. have the same nurse, who she interacts with regularly,
administer the drug
D. request the doctor to give her medication
60. Another reason why she refuses to take Thorazine is
because she complains of robot like
movement and slurred speech. The nurse’s action is:
A. decrease the dosage of thorazine
B. explain the extrapyramidal side effects and administer
Benadryl
C. avoid giving foods that are rich in tyramine
D. withhold medication until referral is made to the doctor
Situation 13 – The supervising nurse received report that a
staff nurse is displaying frequent
irritation, anger, and even indifference toward clients and
co-workers.
61. The initial action of the supervisor would be to:
A. post guidelines on proper decorum of nurses in the
bulletin board
B. write a memo of warning to the nurse
C. request anecdotal report form nurse’s co-workers
D. call the nurse for a one on one conference
62. The nurse expressed increasing feelings of
dissatisfaction. The supervising nurse
intervenes therapeutically by taking the role of:
A. administrator by relieving her of responsibilities
B. therapist by delving into the nurse’s internal conflicts
C. counselor by actively listening
D. educator by reorienting her of her role as a nurse
63. Coupled with poor work performance, mental and
physical fatigue and actual withdrawal
from client contact and nursing duties, the nurse can be
said to be suffering from:
A. psychotic anxiety
B. staff burnout
C. personality maladjustment
D. neurotic depression
64. A priority in the nurse’s personal development would be
to:
A. address her physical well-being
B. boost her self-confidence
C. provide social support
D. help her find value and meaning in her work
65. The most relevant professional program for her would
be:
A. assertiveness training
B. stress management
C. group dynamics and team building
D. behavior modification
63
Situation 14 – The purpose of the nursing care plan is to
identify the care for an individual
patient based on his problems. The nurse writes a nursing
care plan for a
patient based on nursing care standards.
66. Given this example of a problem, “Anxiety due to a job
interview”. The “due to” or the
reason for the problem should be included if it is known.
The initial step in identifying
problems is:
A. gather data about the patient
B. determine if the problems are usual or unusual
C. analyze the data
D. analyze the problems as concisely as possible
67. Given this example of an expected outcome: “Openly
verbalize anxiety about job
interview. Identify how he can prepare for the job
interview.” Which of these is not a
criterion of expected outcomes?
A. An expected outcome is stated in terms of what the
patient will do
B. An expected outcome is stated in terms of what the
nurse will do
C. Every outcome must be measurable
D. Every outcome answers the question “How will you know
when the problem is
resolved?”
68. The following are reasons for setting deadlines within
which to achieve outcomes of care
EXCEPT:
A. Indicate specific times to review progress or lack of
progress
B. Does not allow plans to be changed
C. Allow plans the need to be changed
D. Set the time by which the expected outcome should be
reached
69. Which of these is not a relevant nursing order?
A. Ask the patient any untoward side effects of medications
he is taking
B. Have patient role play interview situation
C. Discuss with a patient with specific means he might
prepare for the job interview
D. Ask the patient what he is feeling about the job interview
70. Which of these practices on evaluation support nursing
care? Review of care plan is:
A. a nursing team responsibility
B. the sole responsibility of the primary nurse
C. the responsibility of peers
D. the sole responsibility of the supervisor
Situation 15 – A nurse assigned in the neurologic unit is
taking care of clients with varying
degrees of degenerative disorders.
71. Ma. A with myasthenia gravis is having difficulty
speaking. What communication strategies
should the nurse avoid when interacting with Mr. A?
A. Repeating what the client says for better understanding
B. Using paper and pencil in communicating with the client
C. Encouraging the client to speak slowly
D. Encouraging the client to speak quickly
72. When planning for nursing care for Mr. B who has
Parkinson’s disease, which of the
following goals would be MOST appropriate?
A. to improve muscle tone
B. to start rehabilitation as much as possible
C. to treat the disease
64
D. to maintain optimal body function
73. For the past 10 years, Alma, 42 years old, has had
multiple sclerosis. Clients with multiple
sclerosis experience many different symptoms. As part of
the rehabilitation planned for
Alma, the nurse suggested therapy and hobbies to help her:
A. strengthen muscle coordination
B. establish routine B. use deep breathing or another relaxation technique
C. develop perseverance and motivation C. assess one’s self for the need of an anxiolytic drug
D. establish good health habits D. work through unresolved unconscious conflicts
74. On his second day of hospitalization, Mr. Santos was 78. In this level of anxiety, cognitive capacity diminishes.
unable to stand and is having Focus becomes limited and client
difficulty swallowing and talking. Which of the following is experiences tunnel vision. Physical signs of anxiety become
the priority of the nurse in more pronounced.
assisting Mr. Santos? A. severe anxiety C. mild anxiety
A. To prevent bladder distention B. panic D. moderate anxiety
B. To prevent decubitus ulcer 79. Antianxiety medications should be used with extreme
C. To prevent contracture caution be cause long term use can
D. To prevent aspiration pneumonia lead to:
75. The wife of a seventy two (72) year old male with a A. Parkinsonian like syndrome
diagnosis of Alzheimer’s disease 65
begins to cry and tells the nurse, “I could not understand B. Hypertensive crisis
my husband anymore. He has C. Hepatic failure
changed drastically.” Which of the following responses of D. Risk of addiction
the nurse is MOST appropriate? 80. The nursing management of anxiety related with post
A. “The physician and the staff will make sure that your traumatic stress disorder includes all
husband will be comfortable of the following EXCEPT:
and safe here.” A. encourage participation in recreation or sports activities
B. “This has been a difficult time for you. Let us walk and B. reassure client’s safety while touching client
find a quiet place C. speak in a calm soothing voice
where we can talk.” D. remain with the client while fear level is high
C. “He will soon recover in his condition.” Situation 17 – For personal and professional development,
D. “You need not worry, we are doing the best we could.” the nursing staff decided to hold a
Situation 16 – Annie has a morbid fear of heights. She asks staff development program, “Self-enhancement through
the nurse what desensitization Assertiveness”.
therapy is: 81. An appropriate assessment tool to maximize gathering
76. The accurate information of the nurse of the goal of of needs of nurses is through:
desensitization is: A. interview of nurses C. observation
A. to help the clients relax and progressively work up a list B. survey D. brainstorming session
of anxiety provoking 82. A priority objective of the program is:
situations through imagery. A. develop the art of public speaking
B. To provide corrective emotional experiences through a B. project a positive image of the nursing profession
one-to-one intensive C. develop art and skills of therapeutic use of self
relationship. D. earn continuing education units
C. To help clients in a group therapy setting to take on 83. The most effective way to practice assertiveness skills is
specific roles and reenact in through:
front of an audience, situations in which interpersonal A. written evaluation form C. descriptive report
conflict is involved. B. process recording D. role play
D. To help clients cope with their problems by learning 84. The least satisfactory method to evaluate the
behaviors that are more effectiveness of the program is through:
functional and be better equipped to face reality and make A. group discussion and report
decisions. B. return demonstration
77. It is essential in desensitization for the patient to: C. attendance
A. have rapport with the therapist D. individual interviews
85. Which of these feedback from individual participants
indicate maximum gain from the staff
development program?
A. “I will write a plan for personal development program.”
B. “I feel very good. The program inspired me a lot.”
C. “I learned a lot. I hope to have more seminars of its
kind.”
D. “I have a “Do it Now” project for myself i.e. to approach
my clinical
supervisor regularly to discuss nursing care of our clients.”
Situation 18 – A vehicle hit some pedestrians while waiting
for a bus ride. Some of the victims
suffered injuries in the different part of their bodies. The
victims were brought to
the nearby hospital. One of the victims, Josephine was
confirmed to have a
fractured left arm. While waiting for the plaster cast to be
applied, Josephine
appears to be anxious.
86. To reduce anxiety, the nurse teaches the procedure to
the client. which of the following
topics should NOT be included in the teaching plan?
A. Leave the cast uncovered to promote drying.
B. Bear weight on the plaster cast for one hour. A stockinet
will be placed over
the left arm to be placed in cast.
C. Handle hardening cast with palm of hands
D. Trim and reshape finish cast with knife or cutter.
66
87. Cast was applied on Josephine’s left arm. In assessing
the neurovascular status of the
client, which of the following assessment findings should be
reported to the physician?
A. Pain on the left arm
B. Swelling of the fingers
C. Skin abrasions on the edges of the plaster cast
D. Nail bed capillary refill time of 10 seconds
88. One of the victims, a sixty year old woman sustained hip
fracture. Prior to surgery, a
Buck’s extension traction is to be applied. The rationale of
traction is primarily based on the
understanding that Buck’s extension traction:
A. reduces muscle spasms and helps to immobilize the
fracture
B. allows reduction of the fracture site for bone healing.
C. Secures the fracture site to prevent damage to the
muscle tissues
D. Secures the fracture site for rigid immobilization
89. Phillip was placed in skeletal leg traction with an
overbed frame. He is not allowed move
from side to side. Which of the following nursing
interventions is useful in maintaining
effective traction?
A. Assist the client by holding the trapeze and raising the
hips off the bed.
B. Check the apparatus, that weights hang free and knots in
the rope are tied
securely
C. Suspend the trapeze within easy reach of the client
D. Support the affected extremity while the weights are
removed.
90. To prevent complications when a child is in Buck’s
traction, the nurse should”
A. clean the extremity and keep the skin dry
B. assess any skin and circulatory disturbances
C. clean the pin sites as necessary
D. provide high fiber small meals
91. All of the following concepts are true EXCEPT:
A. Hostility is destructive
B. Frustration develops in response to unmet needs, wants
and desire
C. Anger is incompatible with love
D. Aggression can be expressed in a constructive as well as
a destructive manner.
92. Carlo is acting out hostile and aggressive feeling by
kicking the chairs in the room. the
MOST effective way to deal with Carlo’s behavior is initially
to:
A. set limits on the behavior by verbal command
B. administer PRN tranquilizer
C. remove the chairs from the room
D. restrain the patient and place him in the “Isolation
Room”
93. Mrs. Dizon was visiting her son at the Psychiatry Ward.
Which of the following items will
the nurse not allow to be brought inside the ward?
A. string rosary bracelet C. bottle of coke
B. box of cake D. rubber shoes
94. Which of the following will probably be most
therapeutic for a patient on a behavioral
modification ward?
A. if the client is agitated, discuss the feelings especially
anger
B. insist to stop obscene language by verbal reprimand
C. give client support and positive feedback for controlling WATCHERS. BRINGING THE TEST BOOKLET OUT OF THE
use of obscene ROOM WILL BE A
language GROUND FOR CANCELLATION OF YOUR EXAMINATION.
D. Provide a punching bag as an alternative to express upset ***END***
emotions
67
95. Which of the following must be considered while
planning activities for the depressed
patient?
A. activities which require exertion of energy
B. challenging activities to get him out of his depression
C. variety of structured activities
D. variety of unstructured activities
Situation 20 - Jim, age 25, recalled that his problem began
around age 15-16. He would
count pencils in a mug over and over with the thought that
stopping could result
in something bad happening.
96. There are many things Jim seems he has to do to keep
himself from feeling:
A. confused C. excited
B. suspicious D. anxious
97. He has change clothes 20 times before work, chew each
bite he east 24 times and go up
and down the stairs four to five times before it feels right.
He is demonstrating:
A. ideas of reference
B. denial and projection
C. obsession and compulsion
D. rationalization and over reaction
98. The objective of nursing care for Jim is to develop or
increase feelings of:
A. self-mastery C. self-actualization
B. self worth D. self-determination
99. All of these are therapeutic interventions EXCEPT:
A. impose limits every time the behavior becomes repetitive
B. establish a routine for him
C. assign task that can be done repetitively
D. facilitate self-expression
100. Jim is aware of his behavior yet realizes that it is very
disturbing to him. This is a
pattern of:
A. personality disorder C. neurosis
B. psychosis D. habitual disorder
SUBMIT THIS TEST BOOKLET TOGETHER WITH THE ANSWER
SHEET TO YOUR