1) How much force is required to tip an incisor?

a) 20-30gns
b) 50-75gms
c) 40-50gms
d)10-20 gms
2) When the diameter of wire is doubled the force exerted on teeth is:
a) 4 times
b) 1/2 times
c) 8 times
d)1 6 times
3) In Nitinol wire, shape remembers is in:
a) Austenite form
b) Martensitic form
c) Both
d) None
4) The pitch of hyrax expansion is:
a) 0.25mm
b) 1 mm
c) 1.5mm
d)0.5mm
5) The term 'gingival zenith' is used to describe the
a Gingival height
b) Gingival shape
c) The most apical point of the gingival tissue
d) Stippled appearance
6) Serial extraction is contraindicated in all of following except:
a) Open bite
b) Spaced dentition
c) Flaring of teeth
d) Anodontia
7) Normal facial index is:
a) 65-75%
b) 75-80%
c) 80-90%
d)100%
8) Synostosis is:
a) Fusion of two adjacent bones by cartilage
b) Early closure of suture or early fusion of bone by bone
c) Fusion of adjacent bone by fibrous cartilage
d) None of above
9) Oral gratification theory was given by:
a) Sheldon
b) Sigmond Freud
c) Benjamin
d) Sears and wise
10) If value of Bjork sum is >400 it indicates:
a) Vertical growth pattern
b) Horizontal growth pattern
c) Both
d) None
11) Moment to force ratio for bodily movement is:
a) 6
b) 8
c) 10
d)> 1 0
12) Sunday bite is defined as:
a) Habitual forward posturing of mandible to Class I.
b) Posturing of mandible to Class Ill due to premature contact.
c) Posturing the mandible laterally to establish maximum cuspation in bilaterally
narrow maxilla cases.
d) Posturing the mandible back to Class II, when actually in Class
e) Under closure of jaw.
13) Anterior Bolton ratio is:
a) 91.3%.
b) 100%.
c) 61.7%.
d) 82.3%.
e) 77.2%.
 14) At what age should a child be referred for an orthodontic examination?
a) Three years
b) Six years
c) Seven years
d) Fourteen years
15) The line of occlusion is a smooth (catenary) curve passing
1-Through the central fossae of upper molars and across the cingulum of the upper
anterior teeth.
2- through the central fossae of lower molars and across the cingulum of the lower;
anterior teeth.
3- Along the buccal cusps and incisal edges of the upper teeth.
4- Along the buccal cusps and incisal edges of the lower teeth.
a) I and 2 b) 2 and 3 c) 1and 4 d) 2 and 4
16) Which is the following is defined as IOTN grade 5?
a) increase overjet greater than 9 mm.
b) increase and complete overbite with gingival or palatal trauma.
c)anterior crossbite with greater than 2mm discrepancy between CR and ICP.
d)presence of supernumerary teeth
17) The artistic positioning bends are
a) First order bends
b) Second order bend
c) Third order
d) None
18) In McNamara analysis which of following plane is used?
a) Frankfort horizontal plane
b) Basion nasion line
c) Both of above
d) None
19) Which is the correct Color code for tracing consecutive cephalograms
(pretreatment, progress, end of treatment, retention)?
a) black, blue, red, green
b) black, red, green, blue
c) blue, red, green, black
 d) Black, blue, green, red
20) Stationary anchorage refers to anchor teeth which
a) Are banded
b) Cannot move
c) Are not free to tilt
d) Are supported by extraoral forces
21) Steiner line used as a reference plane is:
a) Gonion menton
b) ANS-PNS
c) Porion orbitale
d) Gonion- gnathion
22) Facial axis connects:
a) Ptm point and gnathion
b) Nasion and pogonion
c) Line between most anterior point of soft tissue nose and soft tissue chin
d) None
23) Typically, rapid palatal expansion is done with a jack screw that is activated
at rate of:
a) 1.00 to 2.00 mm/week
b) 1.00 to 2.00mm/day
c) 0.5 to 1.00 mm/week
d) 0.5 to 1 mm/day
24) Slow progress in molar uprighting in an adult patient is due to:
a) Overextended bands
b) Lack of anchorage control
c)T h e occlusion not being relieved.
d) The stabilizing wire not being passive
25) Passivating effect is due to formation of:
a) Iron oxide on austenitic steel
b) Chromium oxide on stainless steel
c) Bulky layer on polished acrylic
d) Nickel oxide on martensitic steel
26) The centre of rotation in bodily tooth movement is located:
a) Within the apical one-third
b) At the junction of apical, and middle one-third
c) At infinity
d) Within the middle one- third
27) Which is preferred in modern cephalometric to establish true horizontal
plane?
a) Natural head position-NHP
b) Anatomic head positioning
c) Frankfort plane
d)SN plane
28) Space closure is rapid following loss of which primary molars:
a) Maxillary molars; closing within three months
b) Mandibular molars; closing within six months
c) Maxillary molars; closing within six months
d) Mandibular molars: dosing within three months
29) Root completion of lower left canine denotes:
a) Decline of pubertal growth
b) Onset of puberty
c) Peak growth
d) Cessation of pubertal growth
30) Initial ossification of the sesamoid and advanced ossification of the hook of
the hamate denotes:
a) Peak growth
b) Onset of puberty
c) Decline of growth
d) No significance
31) Emerson C Angel is credited for the development of which appliance?
a) Bandelette
b) Inter-maxillary elastics
c) Straight wire appliance
d) Band and loop
32) Points raised against Sutural dominance theory were
a) Growth does not continue after transplantation of an area of suture to another
location. 'This shows a lack of innate growth potential of sutures.
b) Growth at suture cannot be halted by mechanical forces.
c) Both A and B
d) None of the above
33) Bennett's class I1 malocclusion is
a) Abnormal position of one or more teeth due to local causes
b) Abnormal position of a part or whole of either arch due to developmental defects
of bond
e) Abnormal relationship between upper and lower arches
d) All of the above
34) The hereditary factors causing malocclusion can be those influencing the
following
a) Dentition
b) Skeletal base
c) Neuromuscular
d) All of the above
35) Features of gonadal dysfunction
a) Delayed sexual development
b) Dental age is normal
c) Premature sexual development
d) All of the above
36) According to Graber, local factors causing malocclusion include:
a) Premature loss of deciduous teeth
b) Prolonged retention of deciduous teeth
c) Delayed eruption of permanent tooth
d) All of the above
37) Malalignment Index was developed by
a) Master and Frankel
b) VanKirk and Pennel
c) Henry Draker
d) Poulton and Aaronson
38) Which is the model analysis used to assess the need of Arch expansion:
a) Pont's Analysis
b) Linder Harth Analysis
c) Korkhaus Analysis
d) All of the above
39) According to Nance Carey's Analysis if the discrepancy shows 2.5-5 mm what
does it suggest:
a) Suggestive of Extraction of Ist premolar
b) Suggestive of Extraction of 2nd Premolar
c) Suggestive of Proximal stripping
d) None of the above
40) The decreased Y-axis angle in Down's cephalometric analysis indicates
a) Vertical growth pattern
b) Horizontal growth pattern
c) Both A and B
d) None of the above
41) Curve of Wilson is termed as:
a) Cusp tips of posterior teeth follow a gradual curve from left to right side.
b) Cusp tips of posterior teeth follow a concave curve antero-posteriorly.
c) Highest point of a curve or greatest convexity or bulge.
d) None of the above.
42) Several concepts of an ideal or optional occlusion of natural dentition have been
suggested by:
a) Friel. Ramjord, and Angle.
b) Goldberg. Andrew, and Friel.
c) Goldberg, Andrew, and Angle.
d) None of the above.
43) Which of the following statements is true?
a) Each metacarpal bone ossifies from one primary center in shaft and one
secondary center on its distal end except first metacarpal bone (thumb) where the
secondary center appears at the proximal end.
b) Each metacarpal bone ossifies from one primary center in shaft and one
secondary center on its proximal end except first metacarpal bone (thumb) where the
secondary center appears at the distal end.
c) All metacarpal bones ossify from one primary center in shaft and one secondary
center on distal end.
d) All metacarpal bones ossify from one primary center in shaft and one secondary
center on proximal end.
44) Vitamin B Complex deficiency can cause
a) Disturbed digestion.
b) Retarded growth.
c) Pernicious anaemia.
d) All of the above.
45) Talon’s casp is a.....
a) Anomalous structure projecting from cingulum of maxillary permanent incisor.
b) Anomalous structure projecting from lingual fossa of maxillary permanent
incisors.
c) Anomalous structure projecting from Incisal edge of maxillary permanent
incisors.
d) Anomalous structure projecting from labial surface of maxillary permanent
incisors.
46) All of the followings are true about interstitial cartilage growth, EXCEPT:
a) Chondrocytes within the cartilage mass undergo division
b) Increase in the size of individual cells
c) Differentiation of new chondroblasts
d) Formation of additional cartilage matrix
47) Condylar cartilage grows mainly by:
a) Appositional more than interstitial mechanism
b) Interstitial more Chan appositional mechanism
c) Both mechanisms are equally involved
d) Appositional mechanism alone
48) Which one of the following is utilized in enlargement of an individual bony unit?
a) Internal interstitial osteoblasts proliferation
b) External interstitial osteoblasts proliferation
c) Internal expansion of bone matrix
d) All of the above
49) The direction of Condylar growth is:
a) Anterior
b) Posterior
c) Anterior and inferior
d) Posterior and superior
50) Children born with cleft palate, microdontia and glossoptosis have:
a) Christian disease
b) Treacher-Collins Syndrome
c) Pierre-Robin Syndrome
d) Di Gourge syndrome
51) Fetal alcohol syndrome is commonly characterized by the presence of:
a) Cleft lip only
b) Cleft lip and palate
c) Cleft palate only
d) Cleft lip. palate and uvula
52) Which of the following is NOT characteristic of Down's syndrome?
a) Decreased neutrophil function
b) Macroglossia
c) Macrodontia
d) Congenitally missing teeth
53) What does not show in Cleidocranial dysplasia?
a) Defective formation of clavicles
b) Delayed closure of fontanelles
c)Delayed eruption of permanent teeth
d) None of the above
54) Hypodontia can be seen in
a) Cleidocranial dysplasia
b) Down's syndrome
c) Papillon le fever syndrome
d)Rickets
55) Brachycephalic head has resulted from synostosis of:
a) Sagittal suture
b) Coronal suture
c) Lambdoidal suture
d) Metopic suture
56) The most accepted theory of orthodontic tooth movement is,
a) Blood flow theory by Bien
b) Pressure-tension theory by Schwartz
c) Bone bending piezoelectric theory of
d) Periodontal traction theory of
57) Which of the following are sources of piezoelectricity during orthodontic tooth
movement?
a) Hydroxyapatite
b) Collagen
c) Mucopolysaccharide ground substance
d) All of the above
58) Optimum orthodontic force, according to Schwartz is;
a) 30-36 grams per sq.cm
b) 20-26 grams per sq. inch
c) 20-26 grams per sq.cm
d) 20-26 grams per sq.mm
59) If an anterior tooth is tipped lingually, all of the followings are true, except;
a) Osteoclasts occur at lingual crest of alveolar bone
b) Osteoblasts occur at lingual crest of alveolar bone
c) Osteoblasts occur at facial crest of alveolar bone
d) Osteoclasts occur in facial alveolar bone at apical thirds
60) Force required for intrusion is in the range of
a) 20-50 gm
b) 10-15gm
c) 25-30 gm
d) 50-60 gm
61) Simple anchorage refers to.
a) Closure by bodily movement
b) Closure by rotation
c) Closure by tipping
d) Closure by intrusion
62) Anchorage is most effective in;
a) Round roots
b) Triangular roots
c) Flat roots
d) All of them equally
63) Baker's anchorage is a type of;
a) Intermaxillary anchorage
b) Intramaxillary anchorage
c) Extraoral anchorage
d) Muscular anchorage
64) Inclined plane is a good example of;
a) Simple anchorage
b) Reinforced anchorage
c) Reciprocal anchorage
d) Extraoral anchorage
65) The sites of bone resorption are associated with increased acid phosphatase
levels and the site of bone formation is associated with increased levels of
alkaline phosphatase
a) Both the statements are false
b) Both the statements are true
c) First statement is true and second statement is false
d) First statement is false and second statement is true
66) In which orthodontic movement utmost control is required
a) Tipping
b) Intrusion
c) Extrusion
d) Rotation
67) If Incisor overjet increases during treatment of a Class I div 1case, ti is due to
a) Bite opening
b) Loss of anchorage
c) Pressure from lower lip
d) All of the above
68) In maximum anchorage, the anchoring unit should not move more than,
a) 0%
b) 25%
c) 50%
d) 75%
69) The Adams clasp is made of
a 24-mil wire
b) 22 mil wire
e) 28 mil wire
d) 23 mil wire
70) Which of the following clasps is indicated when retention si required for anterior
region?
a) Triangular clasp
b) Southend clasp
c) Ball end clasp
d) Adams clasp
71) Which of the following cannot be used for incisor retraction?
a) Robert's retractor
b) High labial bow
c) Split labial bow
d) Apron spring 17.
72) High labial bow is mainly used;
a) To move anterior teeth lingually
b) To carry auxiliary springs
c) As extraoral anchorage
d) To keep lips away from teeth
73) Which of the following canine retractors is least effective?
a) Helical canine retractor
b) Palatal canine retractor
c) U - loop canine retractor
d) Buccal canine retractor
74) An anterior bite plane should be trimmed with an angle:
a) 30 degrees to occlusal plane
b) To keep posterior teeth 2mm apart
c) 45 degrees to occlusal plane
d) None of the above
75) Catalan's appliance is used for the correction of,
a) Deep bite
b) Thumb sucking habit
c) Anterior cross bite
d) Lip biting habit
76) The maximum bite permitted during myofunctional appliances in Class I
treatment is;
a)2mm
b)4mm
c) 8mm
d)6mm
77) Which of the following is passive tissue-borne appliance?
a) Herbst
b) Frankel
c) Activator
d) Bionator
78) Which of the following is basically not a vestibular appliance?
a) Activator
b) Oral screen
c) Lip bumper
d) Frankel
79) Patient aged 8 years with skeletal anterior open bite is treated with;
a) Posterior bite plane
b) Posterior osteotomy to reposition posterior segment
c)Frankel appliance with high-pull headgear
d) Box elastics with fixed appliance
80) Frankel appliance confined to mixed dentition period is;
a) Frankel
b) Frankel IV
c) Frankel I
d) Frankel I
81) The main aim of Frankel appliance is to influence;
a) Function of tongue
b) Outer neuromuscular envelope
c) Temporomandibular joint
d) Control of vertical dimension
82) In which of the following conditions oral screen should not be used;
a) Nail-biting habit
b) Thumb sucking
c) Tongue thrusting
d) Acute infection of tonsils and adenoids
83) Herbst appliance is commonly used to correct CII relations of
a) Young patients
b) Patients aged above 20 years
c) Patients aged above 12 years, but below 18 years
d) In all the above age groups
84) The main drawback of cervical headgear therapy is;
a) Intrusion of upper molars
b) Extrusion of lower molars
c) Extrusion of upper molars
d) Intrusion of lower molars
85) The high-pull headgear is used to;
a) Intrude the mandibular incisors and correct anterior deep bite
b) Extrude the maxillary incisors and correct anterior deep bite
c) Intrude the maxillary incisors and correct anteriordeep bite
d) None of the above
86) An anatomic cross bite, as contrasted with a functional cross bite, usually shows:
a) Marked wear facets
b) Smooth closure to centric occlusion
c) Deviated closure to centric occlusion
d) Symmetrical individual dental arches
87) The classification using 2nd deciduous molars was given by:
c)Tweed
a) Angle
d) Simon
b) Baume
88) Class Il malocclusion can be prevented by:
a) Maintaining the integrity of primary dentition
b) Preventing the thumb sucking and lip biting habits
c) Correcting mouth breathing as early as possible
d) None of the above
89) Treatment of cleft lip and palate:
a) The treatment is usually started for lip closure a t 2 months of age
b) The surgical closure of the palate is started at around 18 months-2 years of age.
c) Orthodontic started usually after permanent teeth erupt and is of long duration.
d) All of the above.
90) In controlled tipping, the center of rotation lies:
a) At the middle point of root
b) At the junction between the middle and apical thirds
c) Within the apical third
d) At the root apex
91) Root resorption is more common in one of the following medical conditions:
a) Nickel allergy
c) Diabetes
b) Bronchial asthma
d) Epilepsy
92) The tooth most commonly affected by root resorption during orthodontic
treatment is:
a) Maxillary central incisor
c) Maxillary first molar
b) Mandibular central incisor
d) Mandibular first molar
93) The functions of the Lace backs are:
a) Control canine's position during levelling and alignment.
b) Maintain class I canine relationship
c) Retract canines sufficiently to allow alignment of the incisors
d) All of the above
94) The tapered arch form is indicated for patients with:
a) Dolicocephalic face
b) Monocephalic face
d) No relation to facial type
b) Brachycephalic face
95) Black triangles in the anterior segment can be treated by al of the following,
EXCEPT:
a) Paralleling the roots
a) Intrusion of anterior segment
b) Interproximal reduction
d) Free gingival grafting
96) Key ridge is
a) Preset in relation to upper 6
b) Lower point on outline of zygoma
c) Highest point on outline of zygoma
d) Next to external auditory meatus
97) Cartilage differ from bone in that it grows by:
a) Appositional growth pattern
b) Interstitial growth pattern
c) Growth of cells in lacunae
d)None
98) Synostosis is:
a) Fusion of two adjacent bones by cartilage
b Early closure of suture or early fusion of bone by bone
c) Fusion of adjacent bone by fibrous cartilage
d) None of above
99) Primary second molar usually erupt between:
a) 8-14 months
b) 14-20 months
c) 20-30 months
d) 30-36 months
100) What is most important in understanding possible effects of applied
orthodontic force:
a) Its line of action
b) Its mechanism of action
c) The appliance it has been used to apply this force
d) None of the above.
101) In which tooth movement center of resistance is equal to center of rotation.
a) Bodily movement
b) Controlled tipping
c) Root movement
d)When couple is applied.
102) Which type of tooth movement that the applied moment should be equal to
the moment due to the force in order for this tooth movement to be achieved?
a) Uncontrolled tipping
b) Controlled tipping
c) Bodily movement
d) Torque/root movement
103) Which term describes the resulting loss in energy due to deactivation
exceeding the elastic limit.
a) Hysteresis
b) Stiffness
c) Failure point
d) Elasticity
104) An increase in coil diameter will
a) increase stiffness
b) increase strength
c) decrease stiffness
d) decrease range.
105) It is quite possible for mesial step relationship to progress to a half-cusp Class
III during the molar transition and proceed further to a full Class Ill relationship with
continued mandibular growth. If differential mandibular growth no longer occurs, the
mesial step relationship at an early age may simply become a Class III relationship
later.
a) Both statements are wrong.
b) Both statements are correct.
c) Only first statement is correct,
d) Only second statement is correct.
106) Growth of the nasomaxillary area is produced by two basic mechanisms: (1)
passive displacement, created by growth in the cranial base that pushes the
maxilla forward, and (2) active growth of the maxillary structures and nose.
Because the pushes from behind decreases greatly as the cranial base
synchondroses close at about age is, most of the growth after that time is due to
active growth at the maxillary sutures and surfaces.
a) Only first statement correct.
b) Both statements are wrong,
c) Both statements are correct.
d) Only second statement is correct.
107) In addition to relationships in transverse, anteroposterior, and vertical planes
of space used in traditional analysis, rotations around axes perpendicular to
these planes also must be evaluated for the jaws and for the esthetics line of the
 dentition. These rotations are pitch, viewed as up-down deviations around the
anteroposterior axis; roll, viewed as up-down deviations around the transverse
axis; and yaw, viewed as left-right deviations around the vertical axis.
a) Only first statement is correct.
b) Only second statement is correct.
c) Both statements are wrong,
d) Both statements are correct.
108) The Inter sphenoid synchondrosis, between the presphenoid and
basisphenoid, fuses around the time of birth in humans and thus does contribute
to postnatal growth. The sphenoethmoidal synchondrosis, which lies between
the sphenoid and the ethmoid bones, is most active with respect to growth of the
cranial base through approximately 17 to18 years of age in humans.
a) Both statements are wrong.
b) Both statements are correct.
c) Only second statement is correct.
d) Only first statement is correct.
109) By dental age 11, the roots of all incisors and permanent first molars should
be well completed. Dental age is characterized by the eruption of another group
of teeth: the mandibular canines, mandibular first premolars, and maxillary first
premolars, which erupt more or less simultaneously.
a) Both statements are wrong,
b) Both statements are correct.
c) Only first statement is correct.
d) Only second statement is correct.
110) The sequence of arch wires in extraction cases treated with 18-slot edgewise
system:
a) 14 or 16 NiTi, 18 steel, 16 x22 closing loops, 17 × 25 beta-Ti and 17 × 25steel.
b) 14or16 NiTi,18steel,17×25 closingloops,17×25beta-Tiand17×25steel.
c) 14 or16 NITI,16 steel. 16x 2 2closingloops. 17×25beta-Ti and 17 x 25steel
d) 14 or 1 6NiTi, 16 steel, 17 x 25 closing loops, 17 x 25 beta-Ti and 17 × 25 steel.
111) Dental age to is characterized by a greater amount of both root resorption of
the primary canines and molars, and root development of their permanent
successors. At dental age 10, approximately one-half of the root of each
mandibular canine and mandibular first premolar has been completed; nearly
 half the root of the upper first premolar is complete; and there is significant root
development of t h e mandibular second premolar, maxillary canine, and
maxillary second premolar.
a) Only second statement is correct.
b) Both statements are wrong,
c) Both statements are correct.
d) Only first statement is correct.
112) I n girls, the maxilla grows slowly downward and forward to age 14 to 15 on
average (more accurately, by 2 to 3 years after first menstruation), then tends to
grow slightly more almost straight forward. In both sexes, growth in vertical
height of the face continues longer than growth in length ,with the late vertical
growth occurring primarily in the mandible.
a) Both statements are correct.
b) Only first statement is correct.
c) Both statements are wrong.
d) Only second statement is correct.
112) Super elasticity refers to the very large reversible strains that certain NITI
wires can withstand due to the martensite-austenite phase transition. This
reversible deformation can be over 10 times greater than similar dimension arch
wires in other materials.
a) Only second statement is correct.
b) B o t h statements a r e correct,
c) Only first statement is correct.
d) Both statements are wrong.
113) One of the most common patterns of hypodontia (excluding the third molars)
involves the maxillary lateral incisors. This c a n be autosomal dominant trait with
incomplete penetrance and variable expressivity as evidenced by the phenotype
sometimes "skipping" generations, sometimes being a peg- shaped lateral
instead of agenesis, and sometimes involving one or t h e other or both sides.
a) Both statements are correct.
b) Only first statement is correct.
c) Only second statement is correct.
d) Both statements are wrong.
114) According to the current paradigm," Both the goals and limitations of modern
orthodontics are determined by the soft tissues of the face. The relationship of
the jaw bones and the arrangement of the teeth play a less important role in t h e
final outcomes and stability of orthodontic corrections.
a) The first statement is true.
b) The second statement is true.
c) Both statements are true.
d) Both statements are wrong.
115) According to the current paradigm, the primary goal of treatment is;
a) Angle's ideal occlusion.
b) Functional occlusion.
c) Soft tissue relationships and adaptations.
d) All of the above.
116) Temporomandibular (TM) dysfunction is best thought of as the result of injury
to the soft tissues around the TM joint caused by clenching and grinding the
teeth. Deviations from the Angle's ideal occlusion may provide greater benefit for
some patients, and should be considered when treating TMD. 7) a)
a) The first statement is true.
b) The second statement is true.
c) Both statements are true .
d) Both statements are wrong.
117) The mechanism by which psychosocial stress can affect growth so markedly
is thought to be:
a) The induction o fa reversible growth hormone deficiency.
b) The disturbance of appetite center and t h e consequent nutritional deficiency.
c) All of the above,
d) None of the above.
118) Currently, a secular trend toward earlier maturity has been observed in
populations, this may be related to:
a) Improved nutrition.
b) Exposure to environmental chemical ssuch as some pesticides,
c) Increased hormonal activity.
d) All of the above.
119) In the last century, a secular trend toward taller and narrower face has been
observed; some anthropologists feel that such changes are related to:
a) The trend toward softer diets
b) Less functional loading of the facial skeleton.
c) Airway problems.
d) All of the above,
120) The primary determinant of mandibular posture ls:
a ) Elevator muscles
b) Depressor muscle
c) Respiratory muscles
d) Mechanism of respiration,
121) Concerning the mode of breathing, the newborn infants are obligatory:
a) Nasal breathers.
b) Mouth breather.
c) Mixed breather.
d) None of the above.
122) Fetal swallowing starts during:
a) The 6th month IU.
b) The7 th month IU.
c) The 8 th month IU.
d) The9thmonthIU,
123) Maturation of oral function can be characterized in general as following:
a) Cephalocaudal gradient.
b) Caudocephalle gradient.
c) Dorsoventral gradient
d) Ventrodosal gradient.
124) The last speech sound the child develops is;
a) The letter (M).
b) The letter.(R),
c) The letter(S).
d) The letter(T).
125) The maximum disparity in the development of different tissue systems occurs
in:
a) Early childhood.
b) Late childhood,
c) Early adolescent.
d) Early adulthood.
126) A radiograph of the hand and wrist provides a clear view of some;
a) 26small bones.
b) 28 small bones.
c) 3 0small bones.
d) 32 small bones.
127) For most developmental indicators, the correlation coefficient between
developmental status and chronologic age is about;
a) 0.6.
b) 0.9.
c) 0.7.
d) 0.8.
128) All of the following are necessary processes for pre-emergence teeth
eruption; except:
a ) Resorption of bone covering the tooth.
b) Resorption of primary tooth roots.
c) A propulsive mechanism.
129) One third of the roots completely formed.
27) If the tooth bud of a dog premolar is wired to the lower border of the mandible,
the tooth can no longer erupt because f this mechanical obstruction, but resorption of
overlying bone;
a) Immediately stops.
b) Proceeds at t h e usual rate.
c) Proceeds at a slower rate.
d) Proceeds at faster rate
130) Primary failure of eruption is a rare syndrome in which the posterior teeth fail
to erupt, because of;
a) Failure of propulsive mechanism.
b) Failure of resorption of bone overlying the tooth.
c) Failure of resorption of primary tooth root.
d) Idiopathic etiology.
131) The first event of puberty starts by a stimulus arising in: .
a ) Hypothalamus,
b) Cerebral cortex.
c) Cerebellum.
d) Midbrain.
132) The Juvenile growth spurt in Jaw bones is usually occurring at early mixed
dentition, and its amount is usually described as;
a) Equal in both sexes,
b) More intense in boys than in girls.
c) More intense In girls than in boys.
d) Has no clinical significance compared to pubertal one.
133) In the late mixed dentition, either rapid or slow expansion is clinically
acceptable. Recent researches have shown that slower activation of the
expansion appliance ( mm/week) provides approximately the same ultimate
results as rapid expansion, with lesser trauma to the teeth and bones, if given an
enough time.
a) Both statements are true
b) The first statement is true, the second is wrong.
c) The first statement is wrong the second is true.
d) Both statements are wrong.
134) The ideal step between central and lateral incisors should be:
a) 1-2 mm
b) 0.5-1 mm
c) 2-31mm
d) None of the above
135) The ideal width to-length(W/L) proportions for the upper central incisors
should be:
a) Lower than 75 %
b) between 65 and 75%
c) More than 85%
d) b e t w e e n 7 5 a n d 8 0 %
136) The centred bend corresponds to geometry
a) V
b) III
c) IV
 d) VI
137) There is no vertical forces in geometry:
a) VI
b) V
c) II
d) IV
138) The largest balancing moment came with geometry
a) I
b) III
c) V
d) IV
139) Zero balancing moment came with geometry:
a) I
b) III
c) V
d) VI
140) The smallest balancing moment came with geometry:
a) V
b) III
c) IV
d) VI
141) The largest vertical forces in geometry:
a) I
b) II
c) III
d) None of the above
142) Patients with well controlled I type diabetes:
A Should not have any removable appliances.
C. Should not do any orthodontic procedures.
B. Better to have removable appliances.
D. Not contraindicated for orthodontic treatment.
143) Which of t h e following is t r u e about canine impaction
A- Females more often than males a t a ratio of 4:1
C- Mandibular canine impaction is more than that of t h e impacted maxillary canine
B. Impacted maxillary canine tends to be positioned more palatally than labially at a
ratio of 2:1
D- All of the above.
144) Which of the following is not correct about black triangles?
A- As roots become more diverge, the contact point will be larger and move apically
toward the papilla thus reducing black triangle.
B- As roots become more parallel, the contact point will be larger and move apically
toward the larger and move apically toward the papilla, thus reducing black triangles.
C– The bracket slots must be perpendicular of the long axis of the tooth and not
parallel to the incisal edged during bracket placement
D. Reduction of interproximal enamel ( I P R ) with of the long axis of the tooth and
not parallel to the diamond strip or discs, is effective to reduce the length of black
triangles.
145) Examination o f a mixed dentition malocclusion reveals abnormal resorption
pattern in primary teeth. delayed eruption of permanent teeth, incompletely
formed roots of permanent teeth and a large tongue. Which of the following would
be suspected as an etiological factor?
a) Hypothyroidism
b) Addison's disease
c) Van Recklinghausen disease
d) History of severe febrile disease
146) In Begg stage III which of the following is observed:
a) Extraction space is closed
b) Overbite is corrected
c) Midline correction is done
d) Root paralleling is done.
147) Excessive curve of Spee
a) Restricts amount of space available for upper teeth
b) Creates excessive space in the upper jaw
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of the above.
148) If geometric V bend is to be placed between posterior and anterior teeth,
studies have shown that the bend must br placed closer to the posterior segment
owing to the curve of the archwire. Equal and opposite couples have the benefit
of on net reaction forces, but these equal couples will not generate equivalent
tooth movement if the anchorage of one section is much greater.
a) Both statements are true
b) The first statement is true, the second is wrong.
c) The first statement is wrong the second is true.
d) Both statements are wrong.
149) The philosophy of varying the bracket position according to the amount of
overbite has been advocated by
• Tweed
• Saltzman
• Holdaway
• Jarabak
150) In ovoid crowns the brackets should be placed in;
• The middle third of the crown
• The gingival third of the crown
• 1-2 mm from the incisal edge
• As close to the incisal edge as possible.
151) The bracket placement method recommended by Andrews is keyed to;
a) The occlusal plane.
b) The facial axis of the clinical crown.
c) The facial axis point.
d) All of the above.
152) In correcting anterior crossbite in mixed dentition, Reynolds method involves
the use of,
a) Vertical cross elastics
b) 2X4 advancing appliance
c) Anterior inclined plane
d) Upper anterior expanding screw
153) The choice of the best treatment alternative should be based upon:
a) Evidence of outcomes
 b) Anecdotal reports
c) The claims of advocates of particular approaches
d) All of the above
154) A poorly-defined unpleasant labio mental sulcus is associated with:
• Class ii div I
• Class il div
• Class III, Dewey's type 1
• Class III, Dewey's type 2
155) All of the followings are critical factors in controlling mandibular incisor
prcolination, except
a) Position of lower lip
b) Lower incisor inclination
c) Tongue position and function
d) Width of keratinized gingiva
156) Available data suggest that there is more opportunity to expand lower arch
anteroposterior than transversely. Numerous reports show that transverse
expansion across the mandibular canines is almost never maintained
a ) Both statements are correct
a) 1st statements is correct
b) 2nd statement is correct
d) Both statements are wrong
157) in patients who have a marginal amount of attached gingiva, fenestration of
the alveolar bone and stripping of the gingiva is more likely as the incisors are
advanced. Placing a gingival graft after orthodontic treatment may be the best
option for these patients.
• Both statements are correct
• 1° statements is correct
• 2nd statement is correct
• Both statements are wrong
158) Excessive expansion increases the risk mucogingival problems. Excessive
expansions negatively affect the masticatory functions.
• Both statements are correct
• 1 statements is correct
 • 2 statement is correct
• Both statements are wrong
159) Assessment of interpremolar width via Pont's index is now discredited. The
outcome of rapid versus slow maxillary expansion looks quite similar AT 10
weeks.
• Both statements are correct
• 1 statement is correct.
• 2 statement is correct.
• Both statements are wrong
160) For the reason of TMJ evaluation, the most important single indicator of joint
function is,
• Consistency of muscles of masticate.
• Amount of maximum opening.
• TM joints noise.
• The path of mandibular closure.
161) A child with an apparent unilateral crossbite often shifts the mandible
unilaterally and show facial asymmetry together with
a) Little bilateral narrowing of the maxillary arch.
b) Severe unilateral narrowing of the maxillary arch.
Severe bilateral narrowing of maxillary arch.
d) Anyone of the above
162) Vertical control during treatment is exceptionally difficult due to
• The difficult manipulation of mechanotherapy
• The difficult control of biting force.
• The extraordinary length of the growth period,
• The declining patient compliance
163) Different timing for treatment of different problems is important. Skeletal
maxillary anteroposterior dysplasia seems to be corrected,
a) As earlier as 8 years.
b) Between 8to 12 years.
Between 12 and 15 year
After 15 ycars.
164) Quad-helix appliance has been demonstrated to produce aims of skeletal and
dental change, the ratio of skeletal to dental changes would be approximately;
• 1:1
• 1:2
• 1:3
• 1:4
165) Rapid maxillary expansion should not be done in a young child mainly
because of:
• The force is not tolerated by the child
• The appliance is bulky for the child
• There is risk of distortion of facial structures.
• No need for rapid expansion in the young children.
166) Maxillary expansion is usually contraindicated in patients with high mandibular
plane angle. It appears that anteroposterior dental changes in terms of overjet
are consistently correlated with maxillary expansion.
• The first statement is true, the second is wrong,
• The first statement is wrong, the second is true.
• Both statements are true.
• Both statement s are wrong.
167) FR-Ill appliance should not be used for treatment of Class Ill maxillary
deficiency in young children because,
a) The little if any differential forward growth of the maxilla.
b) The apparent anteroposterior correction is usually on the expense of vertical
proportions.
c) The longer treatment and retention times.
d)A ll of the above
168) To facilitate Class Ill correction, and to achieve normal interdigitation of the
molars in Class Ill patients, the mesial and vertical movements of the maxillary
molars should be controlled so that the occlusal plane should.
a) Rotates down posteriorly.
b) Rotates down anteriorly
6) Rotates up posteriorly.
d) Rotates up anteriorly
169) Alveolar bone screws with Class Ill class would be simpler to place and
remove than miniplates, but their uses limited to children older than;
a ) 9 years. b) 10 years. (c) 12 years.
170) During the early adult life, the clinical crown height is gradually increased, and
more and more of the crown are exposed This condition is being results from.
a) Gingival recession solely
b) Vertical growth of the jaws and the accompanying eruption of the teeth.
c) Slight gingival recession and much vertical jaws growth
d) Mucogingival recession and slight vertical jaws growth
171) Aspirin as teratogens is most likely to cause an congenital malformation of the
fetus in the form of,
a ) Hydrocephalus.
c) Microcephalus
d) Cleft lip and palate.
e) Treacher Collins syndrome.
172) Aggressive juvenile periodontitis in children and adolescents usually starts
with an intensive attack on the supporting tissues around,
a) All teeth.
b) Central incisors only.
c) First molars only
d) Central incisors and / or first molars.
173) Speech distortion during pronunciation of linguodental fricatives (th. sh. ch) is
most likely associated with.
a) Class lIl malocclusion
b) Linguoversion of maxillary incisors
c) Anterior open bite
d) Irregular anterior teeth
174) In class III maxillary deficiency, the force vector of facemask is usually
directed:
a) Forward and 30degrees upward
b) Forward and 30 degrees downward
c) Forward and parallel to occlusal line
d) In accordance to vertical parameter
175) Clockwise rotation of the mandible during reverse headgear traction occurs
most likely due to:
a) Counterclockwise rotation of the maxilla
b) Extrusion o of the maxillary molars
c) Chin cup placed against chin
d) All of the above
176) Clear Aligner Therapy (CAT) can perform well in all of the following, except:
a) Mild-moderate crowding with Interproximal reduction or expansion
b) Posterior dental expansion
c) Extrusion of incisors
d)Close mild-moderate spacing
177) The water fluoridation is 0.5ppm; what is the recommended supplemental
fluoride concentration for 3year old child?
a) 0.25mg b) 0.50mg c) 1.00mg d) 0 mg .
178) The Simplified Oral Hygiene Index (OHS) was developed by:
a) Greene and Vermilion (1964)
b) O'Leary et al (1972)
c) Gorelick et al (1982)
d) Andersson et al (2004)
179) The use of implants for studying facial growth is an example of
a) Longitudinal approach
b) Metric approach
c) Structural approach
d) Computerized predication
180) Mandible grow rapidly than maxilla as an example of
• Cephalocaudal gradient of growth
• Growth spurt
• Differential growth
• None of the above
181) Servo system theory growth was given by ;
a) Scott
b) Petrovic
c) Limborgh
 d) Van der Klanuw
182) According to Moss growth of periosteal matrices brings about,
• Translation of micro skeleton
• Transformation of microdeletion
• Translation of macro skeleton
• Transformation of macro skeleton.
183) Enlow's V' ° principle of growth is best demonstrated by
a) Ramus of mandible
b) Condyle of mandible
c) Desmo cranium
d) Basi cranium
184) An implant has been placed in the anterior border of the ramus at 6 years,
what will happened this implant as the child teaches 9 years
a) Moves 5 mm distally.
b) Becomes free in soft tissue
c) Remain at the same level.
d) Result information of exostosis
185) Askeletal changes take place gonion moves
• Downwards and forwards
• Downwards and backwards
• Upwards and forwards
• upwards and backwards
186) A symmetric V bend create equal and opposite couples at the bracket. The
associated equilibrium forces at the each bracket also are equal and opposite
and therefore cancel each other out.
• The first statement is true, the second is wrong,
• The first statement is wrong, the second is true.
• Both statements are true.
• Both statement s are wrong.
187) Step bend create couples in the same direction regardless of its location
between the brackets. The location of a V-bend is a critical variable in
determining Its effect, but the location of a step bend has little or no o effect on
either the magnitude of the moments or the equilibrium forces,
 • The first statement is true, the second is wrong,
• The first statement is wrong, the second is true.
• Both statements are true.
• Both statement s are wrong.
188) A step bend between two teeth produces intrusive force on one tooth and
extrusive force on the other and creates couples In h same direction. I n contrast
to V-bends, there is little effect on either the force or the couples when the step
bend is moved off-centre.
• The first statement is true, the second is wrong,
• The first statement is wrong, the second is true.
• Both statements are true.
• Both statement s are wrong.
189) Under laboratory conditions ,the forces and couples created In a two-couple
system by inter-bracket bends can be evaluated experimentally where a16-mil
steel wire and an inter-bracket distance o f 7mm, A step bend of only o.35 mm
would produce intrusive and extrusive forces of 347 gm and 1210 gm-mm
couples in the same direction. The heavy vertical forces produced by what
orthodontists would consider modest bends in a light archwire SUCH as 16-mil
steeL explain why extrusion is t h e response to step bends in continuous
archwire.
• Only frat statement is correct.
• b) Only second statement is correct.
• Both statements a r e wrong
• Both statements are correct.
190) A utility arch often ls an intrusion arch in a two-couple configuration, created
by tying the rectangular Intrusion arch into the brackets on the incisors. When
this is done, the precise magnitude of forces and couples cannot be known, but
the initial activation of the arch should be to provide about 40 gm to the incisor
segment for intrusion.
• Only frat statement is correct.
• b) Only second statement is correct.
• Both statements a r e wrong
• Both statements are correct.
191) When a symmetric V -bend is placed halfway between two units with equal
resistance to movement it creates equal and opposite moments, and the
intrusive-extrusive forces cancel each other. To create equal and opposite
couple between two units with unequal resistance to movement, a V-bend most
be displaced toward the unit with greater resistance, so a symmetric V-bend
between an incisor and molar would be offset toward the molar
• Only frat statement is correct.
• b) Only second statement is correct.
• Both statements a r e wrong
• Both statements are correct.
An asymmetric V-bend creates a greater moment on one tooth or unit than the
other and as the bend moves toward one tooth, the moment on it increases and
moment on distant tooth decreases. When the bend is one-third of the way along
inter-bracket span, the distant tooth receives only a vertical force, with no
moment whereas if V-bend moves closer than one third point to one of teeth, a
moment in the same direction is created on both teeth, instead of opposite
moments.
a) Only second statement is correct.
b) Only first statement is correct.
c) Both statements are wrong
• Both statements are correct.
192) An asymmetric V-bend in a rectangular wire spanning from the first molars to
the incisor segment produces moment to rotate the incisors faciolingually, with
an intrusive force but no moment on the molars and an extrusive force on the
incisors. If the arch wire is free to slide forward through molar tube, the result is
anterior tipping and extrusion of the incisors whereas if the arch wire is cinched
behind the molar so that it cannot slide, the effect is lingual root torque and
extrusion for incisors.
a) Both statements are wrong,
b)Both statements a r e correct.
c) Only second statement is correct.
d) Only first statement is correct.
193) A two-couple system to change the inclination of incisors can be arranged to
produce either lipping or torque and the change in inclination is the same for
tipping or torque; the difference is crown movement or root movement .If the wire
is cinched back, the effect will be to torque the incisor roots lingually, a n d a
reaction force to bring the molar mesially is created.
a) Only second statement is correct.
b) Only first statement is correct,
c) Both statements are wrong.
© Both statements are correct.
194) For torque of very upright maxillary central incisors (as in Class I division a
malocclusion), a one- couple torquing arch designed by Burstone can be very
effective. A heavy stabilizing arch is placed in all the teeth but the central
incisors, contoured so that it steps below the brackets on the central Incisors and
contacts the facial surface of these teeth, and tied back against the molars.
A) Both statements are correct.
B) Only second statement is correct.
c) Only first statement is correct.
d) Both statements are wrong.
195) Bilateral toe-in bends at the first molars create equal and opposite couples, so
the mesiodistal forces cancel and the teeth are rotated to bring the mesiobuccal
cusp facially. A unilateral toe-in bend rotates the molar on t h e side of the bend
and creates a force to move the other molar distally.
• Both statements are correct.
• only first statement is correct.
• Both statements are wrong.
• Only second statement is correct.
196) As a more general guideline, if maxillary and mandibular arch forms are
incompatible at beginning of treatment the mandibular arch form should be used
as a basic guide. In many patients with Class II malocclusion, the maxillary arch
is narrow across canines and premolars and should be expanded to match the
lower arch as overjet is reduced but, this guideline would not apply when
mandibular arch form is distorted.
• Both statements are wrong.
 • Both statements are correct.
• Only first statement is correct.
• Only second statement is correct.
197) Asymmetric V-bend creates unequal and opposite couples, and net
equilibrium forces that would intrude one unit and extrude the other. As the bend
moves closer to one of two equal units, the moment increases on the closer unit
and decreases on the distant one, while equilibrium forces Increase
• both statements are correct.
• only first statement is correct.
• Both statements are wrong.
• Only second statement is correct.
198) Cetlin and TenHocve have described a lip bumper that is easy to use and
very effective. If used for an appropriate length of time, this lip bumper can help
gain a n incredible amount of space in the lower arch while maintaining good
control of the molars and incisors
• B o t h statements a r e correct.
• Only first statements correct.
• B o t h statements a r e wrong.
• Only second statement is correct.
199) Class I I elastics in short, may produce occlusal relationships that look good
on dental casts but are less satisfactory when skeletal relationships and facial
esthetics are considered. Because of this applying heavy Class II force for 9
to12months as the major method f o r correcting a ClassII malocclusion rarely
produces a n acceptable result.
• Only second statement is correct.
• Both statements are correct.
• only first statement is correct.
• both statements are wrong.
200) During adolescence, the mandible tends to grow forward more than the
maxilla, providing an opportunity to improve a skeletal Class I I jaw relationship,
Girls mature considerably earlier than boys and are often beyond the peak o f t h
e adolescent growth spurt before the full permanent dentition is available a n d
comprehensive orthodontic treatment can begin.
 a) Only first statement is correct.
b) Both statements a r e wrong.
c) Both statements are correct.
d ) Only second statement is correct.
201) Functional appliances and headgear differ in their effects on t h e dentition
where removable functional appliances, especially those that rest against the
teeth (i.e., tooth-borne ones with labial bow), often tip the upper incisors lingually
and the lower incisors facially. Headgear force against the maxillary molar teeth
often tips them distally and this often is accompanied by some distal movement
of the maxillary premolars a s force is transmitted to them by the super crestal
gingival fibres.
• Both statements are correct.
• Only first statement is correct.
• Both statements are wrong.
• Only second statement is correct.
202) In most Class I patients seen in the mixed dentition, we often start early
treatment by managing the transverse dimension, with definitive Class I
treatment rendered (if necessary) at the time of the circumpubertal growth period
(the "spontaneous improvement" in Class II malocclusion i s a frequently
occurring phenomenon). Only In instances of socially disabling malocclusion will
definitive Class II intervention be undertaken by us in the early mixed dentition.
• both statements are wrong.
• both statements are correct.
• Only first statement is correct.
• Only second statement is correct.
203) In segmented arch treatment, lingual arches are used for stabilization in a
majority of patients, and stabilizing wire segments in the brackets of teeth in
anchor units also are used routinely. The requirements for stabilization are Just
the opposite of those for tooth movements the heaviest and most rigid available
wires are desired and for this reason, the 22-slot edgewise appliance is favored
for segmented arch treatment.
a) Only first statement is correct.
b) Only second statement is correct.
 C)Both statements are correct.
d) Both statements are wrong.
204) Passive holding arches (i.e., TPA, lingual arch) should be placed before the
loss of the second deciduous molars in most early treatment patients. Not only
will the leeway space be maintained (i.e., on average 5 mm in t h e mandible, 4
mm in the maxilla), but also maxillary molar rotation and uprighting can be
achieved at the same time.
a) Both statements are correct.
b) Both statements are wrong.
c) Only first statement is correct.
d) Only second statement is correct.
205) Most patients with bimaxillary protrusion fall in to moderate anchorage
category, meaning that after alignment of incisors to correct crowding has been
completed, it is desired to close the remainder of premolar extraction space with
a 50: 50 or 60: 40 ratio of anterior retraction to posterior protraction. in general
,space closure in moderate anchorage situations is done in twosteps to better
control posterior anchorage: first retracting the canines, sliding them along an
18x 25 or 19× 25 steel archwire with a NiTi spring or elastic that delivers about
200 gm of force, a n d second, retracting the four Incisors.
a ) Only f i r s t statement i s correct.
b) Only second statement is correct.
c)Both statements are correct.
d) Both statements are wrong.
206) Regarding straight-wire concept in bracket and tube design, compensations
for first-order bends for anterior teeth and premolars, varying bracket thickness
eliminates in-out bends in anterior portions of each archwire, but an offset
position of molar tubes is necessary to provide correct molar rotation. For this
reason, the tube or bracket specified for upper molar should have at least a 10-
degree offset, as should the tube for the upper second molar. The offset for the
lower first molar should be 5 to7 degrees ,about half a s much as for the upper
molar.
• Both statements are correct.
b) Both statements are wrong,
c) Only first statement is correct.
 d) Only second statement is correct.
207) Self-ligating brackets have either rigid clip (Damon) ,spring clip (Innovation
,Speed), or retaining springs (SmartClip) to hold an archwire in bracket slot and a
variety of claims have been made as advantages of self-ligating brackets, but it
is clear now that almost all have been proved incorrect when clinical outcomes
are reviewed. A definitive review of claims versus evidence concluded that self.
ligating beckets save a little time in ligation but do not produce a saving of
treatment time o r better results.
a) Only first statement is correct.
b) Only second statement is correct.
Both statements are correct.
d) Both statements are wrong.
208) Effects of thumb sucking on maxilla include:
a) Increase SNA angle and maxillary arch length.
b) Increased clinical crown length of maxillary incisors.
c) Counter clockwise rotation of occlusal plane
d)All of the above.
209) Greater resistance to displacement is offered when force exerted to move
teeth is
a) Perpendicular to that of their axial inclination.
b) Parallel to that of their axial Inclination.
c) Opposite to that of their axial inclination.
d) Only second statement is correct.
210) According to Bolton's analysis, proximal stripping is indicated when
• Excess tooth material compatible to arch length in either of the arches.
• Excess tooth material compatible to arch length in only maxillary arch.
• Excess tooth material compatible to arch length in only mandibular arch
• All of the above.
211) if the tooth number 14 (FDI notation) is missed, according to balanced
extraction the tooth extracted will be . White according to compensatory
extraction tooth extracted will
• 44,24
• 24,44
 • 24,34
• 44.34
212) Beta-titanium was introduced by
a) John Golberg.
b) CJ Burstone.
c) Anderson.
d) Both A and C.
213) In Von-der-Lindon's classification, class Il division 2 type A
a) Upper central and lateral incisors are retroclined.
b) Upper central incisors are retroclined and overlapped by laterals
c) Upper central and lateral incisors are retroclined and overlapped by canines.
d) None of the above.
214) Velopharyngeal mechanism is responsible for
a) Gag reflex.
b) Controlling distribution of escaping air between oropharynx and nasopharynx c) c)
Action of soft palate a s a valve.
d) Both B and C.
215) What is t h e purpose of extra oral strapping?
a) To hide the defect caused by cleft.
b)To aid nasal breathing,
c)To reposition the premaxillary portion of jaw.
d) All of the above.
216) According to Kinsey, which of the below factor is key factor in determining
stability of newly moved teeth
a) Proper occlusion
b) Elastic recoil of gingival fibres.
c) Check/lip/tongue pressures.
d) All of the above.
217) Lefort Il osteotomy can be used to treat skeletal discrepancies of maxilla in
a) Sagittal plane
b) transverse plane
c)Vertical plane.
d) All 3 planes of space.
218) Muscular school of retention was proposed by
a) Me Couley.
b) Rojers.
c) Alex Lundstrom
d) Kingsley.
219) The inclined plane to treat cross bite should be at angle of
a) 30 degree
b)45 degrees
c) 60 degree
d) 75degree
220) Almost all patients undergoing early treatment will require final phase of fixed
appliances. Usually, the treatment time is reduced to 12 to 18 months because
the majority of patients undergoing comprehensive therapy will be treated as
nonextraction patients with Class 1or near Class I molar relationships.
1) Roth statements are wrong.
b) Only first statement is correct.
c)Only second statement is correct.
d)Both statements are correct.
221) A 2*6 appliance can be used to produce transverse movement of first
permanent molars and the lone span between the canine and molar i s needed
to produce the desired forces and moments In this one couple system .An
outward bend a few millimeters behind canine bracket results primarily in
expansion o f the molar,with little o r n o rotation (with t h e unequal segments
,this approximates the one-third position between units o f t h e two couple
system)whereas a n outward bend behind canine combined with a toe-in bend a
t molar results i n expansion and mesial-out rotation o f molar.
A) B o t h statements a r e correct.
b) Only first statement is correct.
c) Both statements a r e wrong.
d) Only second statement is correct.
222) Distal jet appliances consist of :
a) Unilateral piston and tube arrangement
b) Bilateral piston and tube arrangement
c) Neither A nor B.
d) Combination o f A and B.
223) What are the effects of RME on the mandible?
a) Downward and backward rotation of mandible due to extension of posterior teeth
b) Upward and forward rotation of mandible due to extension of maxillary posterior
teeth.
c) Both A& B.
d) None of the above.
224) ln the correction of angle's class Il divisions I malocclusion where there is
lowers arch crowding then molars are not in fall class lI occlusion, it maybe:
• necessary to extract teeth in both the arches.
• Necessary to extract teeth only in maxillary arch.
• Necessary to extract teeth only in mandibular arch
• all of the above
225) Growth of the face is completed in the following sequence
• Depth width, height
• Width, depth height
• Depth, height width
• Width height, depth
226) tooth begins eruptive movement in which Nolla’s stage:
• Stage I
• Stage II
• Stage VlII
• Stage VI
227) If a premolar tooth fails to erupt, corresponding primary molar will:
• Resorb quickly
• Renmin until 3 0 y e a r s
• Resorb and exfoliate as usual
• submerge in later life
228) which of the following is not a characteristic feature of infantile swallowing?
• Seen only prior to the eruption of primary teeth
• Helps in suckling mechanism
• During swallowing the jaws era apart and the tongues placed between the
upper and lower gum pads
 • Mandible is stabilized by muscles of mastication
229) The three main vertical pillars of trajectories of of force arising from the
alveolar process and ending in the base of the skull are all expect
a) Canine pillar
b) Zygomatic pilar
c) Pterygoid pilar
d) Condylar pillar
230) Th most reproducible relation of the jaws is
• Centric occlusion
• Centric relation
• protrusive contact position
• Lateral contact positions
231) Gorup function of the occlusion is characterized by
a) Disocclusion of posterior teeth when mandible is protruded
b) Working side contacts from canine to all posterior teeth without balancing side
contacts
c) Absence of bilateral balanced occlusion
d) Cuspid rise in protrusion
232) bennett shift is,
a) Lateral shift of the body of mandible
b) Lateral shift of the working side condyle
c) Lateral shift of balancing side condyle
d) Forword shift of both the condyles
233) F o r a humongous occlusion, contact between opposite teeth should be
a) Positive and active
b) Positive and passive
c) Negative and active
d) Negative and passive
234) the 7 th the normal occlusion is;
a) maxillary intermolar dimension
b) Functional occlusal plane
c) Labiolingual thickness lower incisors
d) Bolton ratio
235) According to Wolff’s law
a) Human teeth drift mesial as interproximal wear occurs
b) Pressure causes bone resorption.
c)Bone resorption i s mediated through electromagnetic fields
d) Bone trabeculae line up response to mechanical stresses
236) According to law of canine, the orbital plane passes:
a) Anterior to upper canine
b) Touching the mesial surface of upper canine
c) touching the distal surface of upper canine
d) Distal to the upper canine
237) Which one of the following malocclusions has maximum familial tendency?
a) Protruded maxillary incisors
b) op e n b i t e
c) deep bite
d )Upper and lower crossbite ,
238) Class II malocclusion is a characteristic future of
a) Mandibulofacial dysostosis
b) Craniofacial dysostosis
c) achondroplasia
d) Down’s syndrome
239) An 8-years-ald patient has good occlusion with full teeth present for that age.
One of the central incisors is severely rotated with a large mid-line diastema. The
cause maybe.
a) Thick labial frenum
b) Presence of supernumerary teeth
c) Juvenile periodontitis
d) All of the above
240) Clinical examination of15-years-old girl reveals permanent central incisors,
permanent canines and primary canine anterior to the first premolar. the most
probable cause i s ;
a) transposition of permanent canine
b) Ankylosed primary canine
c) Arch length deficiency premature exfoliation permanent laterals
d) Congenitally missing permanent lateral incisor .
241) Which of the following measure the outcome of treatment results?
• PAR index
• IOTN
• TPI
• HLD
242) according to MAHE-94, the prevalence of thumb sucking in preschool children
• less than 10%
• 10-50 %
• more than 50%
• more than 77 %
243) Which of following has an esthetics component
• PAR Index
• IOTN
• TPI
• HLD