Dai Hoc Nguyen Huu Cuong Ban Chuan

MỤC LỤC
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Phầnba. ĐÁP ÁN............................................................................196
LÕI MÕI ĐẦU
Theo Phương án của Bộ Giáo dục và Đào tạo, từ năm 2017 kì thi Trung học phồ thông quốc gia
gồm 5 bài thi: Toán, Ngừ văn, Ngoại ngữ, Khoa học Tự nhiên (tổ hợp các môn Vật lí, Hoá học,
Sinh học) và Khoa học Xã hội (tổ hợp các môn Lịch sử, Địa lí, Giáo dục công dân). Các bài thi
Toán, Ngoại ngừ, Khoa học Tự nhiên và Khoa học Xã hội thi theo hình thức trắc nghiệm khách
quan; bài thi Ngừ văn theo hình thức tự luận. Đây là sự điều chỉnh lớn về hình thức thi so với kì
thi Trung học phô thông quốc gia những năm trước đây và liên quan tới việc ôn luyện của học
sinh chuấn bị cho kì thi này.
Đê các em học sinh có tài liệu ôn luyện nhằm đạt kết quả tốt trong kì thi Trung học phô thông
quôc gia, Nhà xuất bản Giáo dục Việt Nam tổ chức biên soạn, xuất bản Bộ đê trắc nghiệm luyện
thi Trung học phô thông quốc gia năm 2019 các môn Toán, Tiếng Anh, Khoa học Tự nhiên,
Khoa học Xã hội và Bộ đề luyện thi Trung học pho thông quốc gia năm 2019 môn Ngừ văn. Tác
giả bộ sách là các thầy cô giáo, các chuyên gia môn học giàu kinh nghiệm trong biên soạn ngân
hàng đề thi phục vụ kì thi Trung học phổ thông quốc gia của Bộ Giáo dục và Đào tạo.
Cuốn Bộ đề trắc nghiệm luyện thi Trung học phổ thông quốc gia năm 20ỉ 9 môn Tiếng Anh có
cấu trúc như sau:
Phần một: Phưoìig pháp làm bài thi Phần hai: Các đề ôn luyện
Phần này gồm các đề được biên soạn theo đúng đề thi cùa Bộ Giáo dục và Đào tạo. Theo đó,
mồi đề gồm 50 câu hỏi trắc nghiệm được phân hoá theo 4 mức độ: nhận biết, thông hiêu, vận
dụng và vận dụng cao; nội dung nầm trong chương trình phô thông, chú yếu là ờ lớp 12.
Phần ba: Đáp án
Phần này gồm bàng đáp án của tất cả các câu hỏi.
Đây là bộ sách tham khảo rất cần thiết và bổ ích đổi với học sinh, đáp ứng kịp thời nhu cầu của
các em trong việc ôn luyện chuẩn bị cho kì thi Trung học phổ thông quốc gia năm 2019. Quý
thầy cô giáo có thê tham khảo tài liệu này để hướng dẫn học sinh trong quá trình ôn luyện.
Tuy đã cố gắng, nhưng cuốn sách không tránh khỏi nhừng thiếu sót, chúng tôi rất mong nhận
được ý kiến đóng góp của các thầy giáo, cô giáo và các em học sinh.
Thư góp V xin gửi về :
CTCP Dịch vụ xuất bản Giáo dục Hà Nội - Nhà xuất bán Giáo dục Việt Nam,
Tầng 4, toà nhà Diamond Flower, số 1 Hoàng Đạo Thuý - Hà Nội
CÁC TÁC GIẢ
PHUONG PHAP LAM BAI THI
I. THI TRẮC NGHIỆM

Trắc nghiệm là phương pháp thi mà trong đó đề thi thường gồm nhiều câu hỏi, mỗi câu kiêm
tra một vấn đề sao cho thí sinh chỉ phải lựa chọn đáp án đúng đối với từng câu hỏi. Có nhiều
kiểu câu trác nghiệm khác nhau nhưng người ta thường dùng c â u trắc nghiệm nhiều lựa
chọn đê làm đê thi cho các kì thi đòi hỏi tính khách quan công bằng cao, có đông thí sinh dự thi,
cần chấm bàng máy với tốc độ cao.
Câu trắc nghiệm nhiều lựa chọn (multipỉe choice questions) có hai phần: phần đầu (được gọi
là phần dẫn - steni) nêu ra vấn đề, cung cấp thông tin cần thiết hoặc nêu một câu hỏi; phần sau
là các phương án đc chọn {options - được đánh dấu bằng các chừ cái A, B, c, D). Các kì thi hiện
nay sử dụng một loại câu trắc nghiệm chi có duy nhất một phương án đúng (key) trong số 4
phương án đã cho; các phương án khác được đưa vào có tác dụng “gây nhiễu” đối với thí sinh
(distracters). Neu nắm vững kiến thức về vấn đề đà nêu, thí sinh sẽ nhận biết được trong các
phương án để chọn đâu là phương án đúng.
II. ĐỀ THI VÀ BÀI THI TRẮC NGHIỆM MÔN TIẺNG ANH
1. Đe thi trắc nghiệm được Bộ Giáo dục và Đào tạo sử dụng cho môn tiếng Anh trong kì thi THPT
quốc gia năm 2019.
2. Có 50 câu hỏi trắc nghiệm trong đề thi tiếng Anh cho thời gian 60 phút. Các câu trắc nghiệm
trong đề thi đều có 4 lựa chọn A, B, c, D.
3. Thí sinh làm bài trên phiếu trả lời trắc nghiệm được in sẵn theo quy định của Bộ Giáo dục và
Đào tạo, để chấm bằng hệ thống tự động.
III. NHỮNG ĐIỀU THÍ SINH CAN LƯU Ý KHI LÀM BÀI THI TRÁC NGHIỆM
1. Đối với thi trắc nghiệm, đề thi gồm nhiều câu hỏi, rải khắp chương trình, không có trọng tâm
cho mồi phần, do đó các em học sinh cần phải học toàn bộ nội dung môn học, tránh đoán “tủ”,
học “tủ”.
2. Gần sát ngày thi, các em nên rà soát lại chương trình môn học đã ôn tập; xem kĩ hơn đối với
những nội dung khỏ; nhớ lại những chi tiết cốt lõi. Không nên làm thêm những câu trắc nghiệm
mới vì dề hoang mang nếu gặp nhừng câu trắc nghiệm quá khó.
3. Đừng bao giờ nghĩ đến việc mang “tài liệu trợ giúp” vào phòng thi hoặc trông chờ sự giúp đờ
của thí sinh khác trong phòng thi, vì các thí sinh có đề thi với hình thức hoàn toàn khác nhau.
4. Trước giờ thi, nên “ôn” lại toàn bộ quy trình thi trắc nghiệm để có thể làm bài thi chính xác và
nhanh nhất. Thời gian là một thử thách khi làm bài trắc nghiệm, vì thế thí sinh phái hết sức khẩn
trương, tiết kiệm thời gian; phải vận dụng kiến thức, kĩ năng để nhanh chóng quyết định chọn
phương án trả lời đúng.
5. Theo đúng hướng dần của giám thị, thực hiện tốt và tạo tâm trạng thoải mái trong phần khai báo
trên phiếu TLTN. Bằng cách đó, thí sinh có thể cùng cố sự tự tin khi làm bài trắc nghiệm.
6. Nên bắt đầu làm bài từ câu trác nghiệm số 1; lần lượt “lướt qua” khá nhanh, quyết định làm
những câu cám thấy dề và chắc chắn, đồng thời đánh dấu trong đề thi nhừng câu chưa làm
được; lần lượt thực hiện đến câu trắc nghiệm cuối cùng trong đề. Sau đó quay trở lại “giải
quyết” những câu đã tạm thời bỏ qua. Lưu ý, trong khi thực hiện vòng hai cũng cần hết sức
khẩn trương; nên làm những câu tương đối dễ hơn, một lần nữa bỏ lại những câu quá khó đê
giải quyết trong lượt thứ ba, nếu còn thời gian.
7. Khi làm một câu trắc nghiệm, phái đánh giá đế loại bỏ ngay những phương án sai và tập trung
cân nhắc trong các phương án còn lại phương án nào là đúng.
8. Cố gắng trả lời tất cả các câu trắc nghiệm của đề thi để có cơ hội giành điểm cao nhất; không
nên để trống mà không trả lời một câu hỏi nào.
IV. CẤU TRÚC ĐỀ THI TRẮC NGHIỆM THPT MÔN TIẾNG ANH
Bài thi trắc nghiệm môn tiếng Anh năm 2019, cũng giong như cấu trúc hài thi năm 2017 và
năm 2018, bao gồm 50 câu hỏi. Các câu hỏi nhằm kiểm tra kiến thức và kĩ năng trong
chương trình phổ thông, chủ yếu là lớp 12. Các câu hỏi sẽ nằm trong khối kiến thức và kĩ
năng sau:
1. Ngừ âm [4 Qs]
• Nguyên âm và phụ âm (2)
• Trọng âm (2)
2. Ngừ pháp và cẩu trúc [10 Qs]
• Thời và hợp thời (cách sử dụng các thời)
• Cấu trúc câu chủ động - bị động
• Câu trực tiếp - gián tiếp
• Câu điều kiện và câu giả định
• Các cấu trúc câu ghép và liên hr
• Các cấu trúc câu phức và các từ nối
• Các cấu trúc câu
• Các cụm từ cổ định, đặc ngữ
• Các cụm động từ
• Động từ khuyết thiếu
• Giới từ, quán từ
3. Yếu tố văn hóa [2 Qs]
• Chức năng giao tiếp đơn giản
4. Từ vựng [8 Qs]
• Cấu tạo từ (phương thức cấu tạo từ) ( 1 )
• Chọn từ/tổ hợp từ (khả năng kết hợp từ trong câu) (3)
• Từ, cụm từ đồng nghĩa, trái nghĩa (khả năng đoán nghĩa từ/cụm từ trong văn cảnh) (4)
5. Kỹnãng|26Qs]
* Kỹ năng đọc (chủ đề phổ thông) [ 18]
• Chọn từ điên vào chỗ trống (1 bài, 150 - 200 từ) (5)
• Đọc hiểu: 2 bài (khoảng 250 từ, và khoảng 350 từ) (13)
* Kỹ năng viết [8]
• Phát hiện lỗi (3)
• Tìm câu đồng nghĩa, gần nghĩa (3)
• Kết hợp câu, hoặc các kĩ năng viết câu khác (2)
Các em hãy tham khảo diền giải một đề thi mầu dưới đây để có hướng ôn tập chuẩn bị tốt nhất
cho kì thi tới.
SAMPLE TEST
TEST 1
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
1. A. accomplished B. exhausted C. discarded D. sophisticated
2. A. champers B. ramp C. caption D. company
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from
the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
3. A. gigantic B. devastate C. applicant D. vacancy
4. A. require B. keenness C. householdD. scary
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in each of the following questions.
5. The children orchestra achieved the highest international acclaim during the world tour
A B C D
r
6. The lecture was so inspirational: the orator definitely gave the audience w ith
A B C
more confidence and wisdom.
D
7. I like spending holidays with my friends, because I feel comfortable around them
A B C
just like when I had been with my family.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each
of the following questions.
8. I have to work hard to keep on schedule or otherwise I will behind.
A. keep B. come C. fall D. check
9. He needs to ____up to his responsibilities as a new father.
A. come B. feel C. face D. add
10. A new wave of technologies is on the verge of producing energy that is clean, , and most
importantly, affordable.
A. renew B. renewable C. renewal D. renewed
11. We hope that their visit to the retirement home will instill in the children a of responsibility
towards the elderly in the community.
A. range B. position C. sense D. charge
12. She got a very poor set of__in her recent examinations. I think she only managed a pass in
mathematics and she failed the rest.
A. results B. records C. outputs D. outcomes
13. Three months_____definitely enough time for us to complete this term project.
A. is B. are C. has beenD. have been
14. Paris is a city with fine buildings and plenty of__spaces. It is a great place for a holiday.
A. enclosed B. open C. narrow D. airtight
15. Not only______horrific damage, but they also caused problems with Japanese nuclear power
plants.
A. the earthquake and tsunami have caused
B. has the earthquake and tsunami caused
C. have caused the earthquake and tsunami
D. have the earthquake and tsunami caused
16. If you call me after nine,___at work by then.
A. I’ll arrive B. I’ll be arriving
C. I’m going to arrive D. I’ll have arrived
17. My dress cost half ___ your jeans.
A. less than B. as much as C. so much as D. much as
18. I need help with this question. It’s___more difficult than I thought it would be.
A. very B. very much C. by far the D. much
19. That was the first time I___an Indian curry.
A. was eating B. had eaten C. ate D. had been eating
20. Social networking sites are now widely by schools and other organizations.
A. use B. using C. being usedD. to have used
21. _____with passion for teaching help raise the test scores of their students.
A. Highly motivated tutor B. Highly motivated tutors
C. Tutors are highly motivated D. Being highly motivated tutors
mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response
to complete each of the following exchanges.
22. A custom officer is talking to a client at the airport.
- Officer. “Welcome. Can I see your ticket, please?” Client: “
A. Yes, here you are.
B. Can you tell me how to get to gate A22?
C. Thank you for all your help.
D. Can I have a seat near the emergency exit?
23. Two friends are talking with each other about a musical concert.
- A: “Hey, there is a musical concert in the park. Do you want to go seeing the band play?”
- B: “____”
A. How long ago did the band start playing at our park?
B. 1 am done with my homework; I can go.
C. Oh, I like all kinds of music as long as it is not Hard Rock.
D. My favourite is Rock and Roll music.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
24. - “What do you think of my pictures?”
“Hmm... I like this one the most even though it’s the simplest. Less is more sometimes.”
A. People mix up less and more B. Simpler is often better
C. Some try to do too little D. Complexity is always bad
25. The headmaster of the school is retiring and will hand over to his replacement next semester.
A. be unwilling to give up his position
B. get ready to give up his ambition
C. be eager to wait for his retirement
D. become more responsible before resignation
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
26. The office is buzzing with rumors that the management is going to get rid ot a lot of
employees. People are worried about whether they will keep their job.
A. too noisy B. too quite
C. very peaceful D. very talkative
27. - “Did I say something rude to Ian? Why does he seem angry?”
- “I didn’t hear you say anything rude, but he’s a bit touchy so who knows?”
A. too sensitive B. extremely depressed
C. far too insensitive D.highlyvulnerable
28. “Why did you apply for the job?” her mother asked.
A. Her mother wanted to know the reason she applied for the job.
B. Her mother wanted to know the reason she had applied for the job.
C. Her mother wanted to know why did she apply for the job.
D. Her mother wanted to know why had she applied for the job.
29. The movie Titanic broke all box-office records, making more money than any
other film before.
A. After making more money than any other film before, the movie Titanic has broken all box-
office records.
B. Breaking all box-office records, the movie Titanic made more money than any other film
before.
C. As it made more money than any other film before, the movie Titanic broke all box-office
records.
D. Having broken all box-office records, the movie Titanic made more money than any other film
before.
30. As a security officer, I have the responsibility for ensuring that nothing is stolen from
the office.
A. As a security officer, I’m responsible for ensuring that nothing is stolen from the office.
B. As a security officer, I’m responsible to an insurance that nothing is stolen from the office.
C. Taking responsibility of a security officer, I have to ensure nothing is stolen from the office.
D. I try to ensure nothing is stolen from the office as fm responsible for being a security office.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions.
31. “Sorry, we’re late. It took us ages to look for a parking place,” said John.
A. John apologized for being late because it took them much time to find a parking place.
B. John finally found a parking place after a long time searching even though they were late.
C. John said that he was late because he had spent a lot of time finding a parking place.
D. John said sorry for being late because he had to try his best to look for a parking place.
32. Karen didn’t want to go to the cinema with us. She had already seen the movie.
A. Karen didn’t want to go to the cinema with us, so she had already seen it.
B. Karen didn’t want to go to the cinema with us as she had already seen it.
C. As Karen had already seen the movie, Karen didn’t want to go to the cinema.
D. Karen had already seen the movie, then she didn’t want to go to the cinema.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 33 to
37.
Technology will allow homes in the future to be “smart”. Appliances will communicate with
each other, and with you. Are you tired of the color or pattern of your walls? In a smart home,
you won’t have to repaint them. The walls will actually be digital screens, like computer or TV
screens. The technology is called OLED, and it’s here already. OLED are tiny devices (33)
…………….use electricity to (34)…………things. You can find the same technology in
today’s thin TV screens. OLED walls will become clear, like windows, or display colors and
patterns, like walls. A computer network will link these walls with everything else in your
house. Called “ambient intelligence”, this computer “brain” will control your entire house. It
will also adapt to your (35)………….. Your house will learn about your likes and dislikes. It
will (36)……….use that knowledge to control the environment. For example, it will set the heat
in the house to your favorite temperature. It will turn on the shower (37)………the right
temperature. It will also darken the windows at night and lighten them when it’s time to wake
up.
(Source: Academic New Pathways)
33. A. it B. they C. that
34. A. light B. lighten C. bright
35. A. prefers B. preferring C. preferred
36. A. also B. still C.then
37. A. in B. on C. with
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 38 to 42.
The debate over vending machines in schools is not new. For a long time, regional governments
and public schools have been deliberating on whether or not it is a good idea to have vending
machines in schools. In America, for example, only one state has banned these machines in its
public schools. Around the country, however, most state schools have different rules about how
many and how often vending machines should be accessible to students. Although some people
believe that having these drink and snack machines in schools is a good idea, others contend
that there are many disadvantages, too.
Doctors and other health workers, for instance, suggest that the main disadvantage of having
vending machines in schools is based on health and nutrition. They cite statistics that show
school-aged children have poorly balanced diets, often due to eating too much fast food. If
vending machines are introduced to schools, children will have yet another option for eating
unhealthy foods. In a survey of vending machine sales across the country, it was found that
sweet drinks like colas and sugary snacks like candy bars were the biggest sellers. Sugary foods
and drinks commonly cause obesity in consumers. Opponents of vending machines in schools
worry that we are teaching children to be obese. Considering the problem of childhood obesity,
it is plausible to say that children’s health problems will only get worse if vending machines are
allowed in schools. (Source: Academic Pathways)
38. The passage mainly discusses_.
A. the impact of vending machines on American children
B. how vending machines improve children’s health
C. the issue of vending machines used at American public schools
D. what type of vending machines is allowed in schools
39. The word “others” in paragraph 1_______refers to .
A. schools B. students C. machines D. people
40. According tothe passage, which of the following is true about the use of
vending machines in America?
A. Most public schools in America allow the use of vending machines.
B. Vending machines are not allowed in all American public schools.
C. Only one state allows the use of vending machines at public schools.
D. Some vending machines are allowed to be accessible to students.
41. The word “Opponents” in paragraph 2 almost means .
A. anti-fans B. supporters C. objectorsD. partners
42. It is stated in paragraph 2 that .
A. school-aged children are having poorly balanced diets due to vending machines at schools
B. school-aged children are eating too much fast food, hence having poorly balanced diets
C. school-aged children are drinking too much cola and eating too much sugary snacks
D. school-aged children are getting obese because of eating too much unhealthy foods
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions
A mansion is a very large home. McDonald’s is the name of a fast food hamburger chain. What
do you get when you put the two together? You get McMansion, the recently-created name for
a type of large, suburban, two storied home that originated in the United States. Many people
love McMansions for their low price, abundant space and impressive styling, but the news is
not all good. In fact, McMansions may now be a threatened species. McMansion became
very popular in the United States during the 1990s, and this popularity continued for almost 20
years. During those years the economy was relatively strong, and banks were willing to lend
large sums of money to people who wanted to buy a home. The result was an increase in the
average home size. In 1988, the average new American home was 170 square meters, but by
2008 this had risen to 244 square meters, a 44% increase.
To offset the greater costs of these large homes, land developers built many homes that all used
a similar basic design and identical construction methods. Framing and interior fittings were
constructed in factories, instead of on site, and the materials used were often of a lower quality.
Finally, the sections of land used for each house were much smaller than before.
The result was suburban developments full of huge homes, often over 280 square meters in
floor area, that all looked similar to each other. Their standardization and lowest-possible-cost
construction reminded people of McDonald’s hamburgers, hence the term McMansion. For
many people a McMansion was their dream home, but that dream is now rapidly turning sour.
There are two main problems with McMansions. One problem is that their huge size means that
they cost a lot to heat or cool. Energy is becoming more expensive, so owners are faced with
huge bills if they try to heat or cool their home. The other problem is that McMansion owners
are often in a lot of debt. They borrowed a lot of money to pay for their impressive home, but
during the 2000s, with struggling economy and high unemployment, they couldn’t afford to
repay their loan.
McMansions are still popular in some areas, but no one is sure how long it will last. Will energy
become even more expensive and force owners to downsize? Will the economy grow and banks
become more willing to lend again? Will the drop-in house prices allow larger, less affluent
families to afford a McMansion? These questions are weighing heavily on the future of one of
the most popular housing styles of the late 20th century.
(Source: Reading planet)
43. In paragraph 1, the writer introduces the concept of McMansion by .
A. comparing hamburgers and houses
B. introducing various types of homes in the United States
c. discussing the advantages and disadvantages of McMansions
D. explaining how McMansions were named
44. The phrase “turning sour” in paragraph 4 refers to the fact that .
A. the large and lowest-possible-cost McMansion became unaffordable for many owners
B. land developers built homes using a similar basic design and identical construction methods
c. the materials used to construct framing and interior fittings were often of a low quality D.
suburban areas were full of huge homes that all looked similar to each other
45. According to the passage, which of the following is a major problem with McMansions?
A. Their impressive designs make them dream homes for many people.
B. The large size of McMansions asks their owners for huge energy bills.
c. The identical look of the McMansions everywhere makes them no longer popular. D. The
identical look of the McMansions reminds people of McDonald’s hamburgers.
46. Which of the following statements is true about McMansions according to the
passage?
A. They don’t have much interior space for furniture and other home activities.
B. They were one of the most popular housing styles of the late 20th century.
c. Their owners are all very rich and able to afford McMansions, mostly bankers. D. They all
just look very different to each other if looked from the above.
47. Which of the following statements is NOT true about McMansions?
A. They share the same large size and impressive designs.
B. The strong economy made them less popular even among the wealthy, c. The materials
used were often of a lower quality, hence lower cost.
D. The sections of land used for each house were much smaller than before.
48. What can be inferred from this sentence in paragraph 1: “McMansions may now be a
threatened species”?
A. Some threatened species are living in McMansions.
B. It’s dangerous to live in McMansions. c. McMansions may be destroyed soon.
D. People will not build McMansions anymore.
49. The word “it” in the last paragraph refers to .
A. the popularity of McMansions in some areas
B. the fact that few people can afford a McMansion c. the struggling economy and high
unemployment D. the dream of owning an impressive McMansion
50. Why does the writer ask questions in paragraph 6?
A. to discuss the rise and fall of energy prices for America houses
B. to emphasize the importance of McMansions in American culture
C. to make readers think about the future of McMansions
D. to explain why McMansions are still popular these days
DAP AN VA CHU GlAl VAN TAT
Cau Dap Chu giai
hoi an
Các câu hỏi số 1 - 2 kiểm tra khả năng nhận biết sự khác nhau về cách
thức phát âm của các hình vị _s, _ed, và các kí tự khi đại diện cho các
âm vị (phụ âm, nguyên âm) trong tiếng Anh.
Câu hỏi này kiểm tra khả năng nhận biết sự khác nhau
về cách thức phát âm của phụ tố (hình vị) /_ed/ trong
dạng thức quá khứ, hoặc phân từ hai, động tính từ của
1 A Đáp án
động từ.duy
Đápnhất của câu
án được lựasố 5 làdựa
chọn A, dotrêntừnguyên
children tắc
trongâm
phát cụmcủatừhình
children
vị /_ed/orchestra
theo sau không
các âmthểhữulàmthanh,
định tố
5 A chothanh
vô orchestra
và cácvìtrường
nó không hợpcóđặc ý nghĩa phânTrong
biệt khác. chia tiểu
loại hay
trường
Câu chức
hỏihợp
này cụ năng
thể tra
kiểm khái
này quát,
/_ed/
khả mà
được
năng nhậnởphát
đây âm
biết thể
sựlàhiện
[t] do
khác tính
nhau
2 D về cách thức phát âm của chữ cái [a] trong từ cụ thể.cụ
xác định phụ thuộc và sở hữu trong một trường hợp
Đáp án duy nhất của câu số 6 là c, do giới từ with xuất
Đáp án duy nhất của câu hỏi là D vì chữ cái [aj được
hiện không đúng chức vị. về ngữ nghĩa, cụm gave the
6 câu chỏi số 3phát
Các âm làtra
- 4 kiểm /a/,và được phát
nhậnâm biếtlà /ae/ trong cả ba từ
audience withkhảmorenăngconfidence làsựhoàn
khác nhau
toàn rõvề vị trí
ràng,
trọng âm của cáctuy từ nhiên
đa tiếtvớitrong
độngtiếng
từ to Anh.
give,Trong
giới từ trường
with hợpkhông cụ cần
thể
này là kiểm tra nguyên
xuất ánhiệntắc phát
như vớiâm của
động câucác
từsố từ cóD,
sốprovide haidovàtính
ba âm tiết.
7 D Đáp
Đáp án duy
duy nhất
nhất của
của câu 37 là
là A,(give
do tínhsmb hợp
từ smth
thời~
gigantic
củatrọng
độngâm từ (hiện tại)tiết
và ý nghĩa giaonguyên
tiếp củatắcphát
Các câu hỏi số 8có- 21 kiểm tra vào âm
kiến thức thứ hai theo
về Ngữ pháp: của từ
3 A đa tiết kết thúc bằng hình vị /ic(s)/ thì trọng âm từ rơi
• Hiểu và sử dụng được động từ theo các quy luật ngữ pháp về thời,
thể, thức,... vào âm tiết ngay trước /_ic(s)/, ba từ còn lại dù không
• Phân biệt và Đáp
cùng
áp dụngtừ loại
được nhưng
cáccủa đềutrúc
cấu là các từ đa tiết có các kết thúc
án duy nhất câu sốcâu.
4 là A, do động từ require
Từ pháp: có trọng âm ờ âm tiết thứ hai, trong khi cả ba từ còn lại
4• Vận dụng
A được các phương
có trọng âm ờ âm thứctiếtcấu
thứtạo từ (danh
nhất cơ bản.từ hai âm tiết theo
• Nhận biết được dạngtắc,
nguyên thứcdanh
kháctừnhaughépcủa hai từ
âmtrong văn cảnh
tiết theo nguyên cụ tắc,
thẻ.
• Có khả năngtính chọntừtừhaithích
âm hợp về ngữ
tiết theo nghĩa,
nguyên sắc thái biểu cảm ở
tắc).
mức câu
Các độ đơn
hỏi sốgiản.
5, 6, 7 kiểm tra khả năng hiẻu và sử dụng ngôn ngữ
Cócách
•bằng khả chỉ
năngra sử dụng
được cácdanh
lỗi vềtừ,cấu
đạitrúc,
từ, tính từ, giới
từ vựng, lốitừ, ... chính
diễn xác
đạt, phong
trong chức
cách, văn cảnh
nángcụngôn
thể. ngữ ... ở cấp độ đơn vị câu trong tiếng Anh.
Đáp án duy nhát của câu số 8 là c, do đáp án này thoả
8 c mãn về nghĩa, phù họp với tinh huống cùa câu/phát
ngôn. Yếu tố cần kiểm tra ở đây là động từ hai thành
Đáp án duy nhất cùa câu số 9 là c, do đáp án nảy thoả
9 c mãn về nghĩa, phù hợp với tình huống của câu/phát
ngôn. Yếu tố cần kiểm tra ở đây là động từ hai thành
Đáp án duy nhất của câu số 10 là B. do đáp án này
thoả mãn cả về ngữ pháp (tính từ bổ nghĩa cho danh
10 B
từ) và ngữ nghĩa có tính thuật ngữ (có khả năng tái
tạo), phù hợp với tình huống của câu/phát ngôn. Yếu
Đáp án duy nhất của câu số 11 là c, theo cách kết hợp
11 c từ của danh từ responsibility với các danh từ khác tạo
các đặc ngữ khác nhau phù hợp các mục đích giao tiếp
Đáp án duy nhất của câu số 12 là A. theo cách kết hợp
12 A từ của danh từ sef với các danh từ khác tạo các đặc
ngữ khác nhau phù hợp các mục đích giao tiếp khác
nhau. Trong trường hợp cụ thể này là liên quan tới tình
Đáp án duy nhất của câu số 13 là A, được xác định dựa
13 A trên nguyên tắc hợp số giữa chủ ngữ và động từ
(subject-verb agreement). Trong trường hợp này chủ
Đáp án duy nhất của câu số 14 là B, do đáp án này
thoả mãn cả về ngữ pháp (tính từ bổ nghĩa cho danh
14 B
từ) và ngữ nghĩa không mang tính thuật ngữ, phù hợp
với tình huống của câu/phát ngôn. Yếu tố cần kiểm tra
Đáp án duy nhất của câu số 15 là D, được xác định dựa
15 D trên cách sử dụng liên từ tương liên (not only ... but
also)
Đáp án vàduy
nguyênnhấttắccủađảocâungữsố 16 cholàcâu
25 nhẩn mạnh
A. được xác định dựa
D,
16
25 DA dựa trên
trên tính sựhợpkếtthờihợpcủanghĩa tạo ngữ
hai mệnh đềcảnh
chínhcủa và các
phụ,từcó
headmaster,
tính tới cách xây retiring,
dựngđặc mệnh biệtđềlàtrạng
replacement.
ngữ chỉ điều Trong
17 Đáp
trườngán duy
hợp nàynhất của
đápnăng câu số
án Ahiểu 17
thể hiệnlà B, được
đượctích xác
nghĩa định
vậtcâulí dựa
và
Các câuBhỏi số 26,
trên cấu trúc đúng của trạng từ tạo cấu trúc so sánh đẻ
27 kiểm tra khả và phân được
xác định nghĩa ngữ
Đápcảnhán duy củanhất
từ, từcủađócâuxácsốđịnh 18 là được các đơn
D, được xácvịđịnh ngôn dựa
18 D Đáp cấuán duy
trên trúcnhất
đúngcủa củacâu số 26
trạng ngữlàtrong
c, đượccẩuxác trúcđịnh dựa
so sánh
26 c Đáp án kết
trên sự duyhựpnhấtnghĩa
của câutạo sốngữ 19cành
là B,củađượccácxác định dựa
từ rumors,
19 B trên ngữof,cảnh
get rid để chọn
worried độngmột
tạo nên ngữtìnhphùhuống
hợp vềkhông thời. bình
Đáp án duy nhất của câu số 27
Trong trường hợp này là thời quá khử hoàn thành. là c, được xác định dựa
27 Đáp án kết
trên sự duyhợpnhấtnghĩa
của câutạo sốngữ 20cảnh
là c,của
được cácxác từ định
seemdựa
20 cc trên
angry,ngữdidn’t
cảnh hear...
để chọn độngwho
rude, ngữknows
phù hợp. Trong
tạo nên một tình
trường
huống hợp này là thời hiện tại cảm.tiếp diễn (nhờ trạng từ
Đáp
Các câu hỏi số 28 ánnhân
- 32 kiểm vật
duy nhất ‘he’
tra khả quá
câu nhạy
củanăng sốphân21 là
biệtB,được
đượcsự xác địnhnhau
khác dựa
21 B trên nói
giữa hai văn phong ngữvàcảnh viết;đểphân
chọnbiệt danhđược ngữcáchphù diễn
hợp.đạt Trong cùng một
trường
ý theo nhiều cách khác hợpnhau; này là danh
hiểu đượctừ tính được
nhấtbồquán,
trợ bằng
tính ngữmạchphân lạc
Các câu hỏi số 22, 23 kiểm tra khả năng hiểu, phân tích được tình
trong văn bản; biết cách ghép câu để tạo câu phức, câu ghép theo yêu
huống giao tiếp Đáp
và cóánkhả duynăngnhấtsừcủa dụng
câungôn
số 28ngữ trong
là B, đưựcgiaoxáctiếpđịnhờ dựacác
tình
28 huống B tường minh
trên (không
nguyên tắcchứa
chuyển cácdịch
yếu từ tố một
phi ngôn như thái
phát ngôn trựcđộ,tiếp
nét mặt, dáng vẻ,
Đápgiọng
sang ángián nói
duy ...)
tiếp, để
nhấttính lựa
củađến chọn
câucác phát
số yếu ngôn
22 làtốA,nghi chính
đượcvấnxác xác
hoặc
địnhnhất
phủ
22 A theo việc nêu tình huống giao tiếp trực tiếp: đáp lạidựa
Đáp án duy nhất cùa câu số 29 là c, được xác định lời
trên chức năng đặc biệt của phân
yêu cầu mang tính công vụ, nên hành vi tương ứng chỉtừ một của động từ
29 c Đáp án duy
(rút gọn mệnh nhất đềcủa
quan câu hệ,sốrút23gọn
là B,mệnh
đượcđềxác địnhngữ
trạng
23 B theo
chỉ líviệc nêusung
do, bổ tinh thông
huốngtin giao tiếp trực
ở dạng tiếp: đáp
kết quả...). lại lời
Trong
rủ rê,án
trường
Đáp mời
duychào,
hợp này
nhất nên
là thểhành
cùa hiệnsố
câu vikết
tương ứng
quảA,logic: thoả
Mộtmãn điều
bộ phim
Các câu hỏi số 24, 25 kiểm tra khả năng hiểu30vàlàphân được
tích xác
đượcđịnh câu đế
30 địnhAnghĩa ngữ
xác theocảnh
tính của
tươngtừ,đồng,
từ đó tiệm
xác định cận vêđượcnghĩa
cácgiữa
đơn các cấu
vị ngôn
trúc và
Đáp án các
duycụmnhấttừ củatương
câu số đương24 làvề B,sắc
đượctháixác biểu
địnhcảm dựa
24 B và
trên ý
Đáp sự nghĩa,
án kết
duyhọpở đây miêu
nhấtnghĩa
của câu tả
tạo ngữnhiệm
số 31cảnh vụ của
là A,của vị
cácxác
được trí đặc
từ theđịnhtrưng
mosị
31 A even though,
theo tính tươngsimplest,
đồng, tiệm sometimes. Trạng giữa
cận về nghĩa từ lesscáchàmcấu
chứa less simple tương hợp với simplest
trúc và các cụm từ tương đương về sắc thái biểu cảm ở mệnh đề
và
Đápý ánnghĩa,
duy có tính
nhất củađếncâucácsốbiện32 làpháp liên kết
B, được xáccâu,địnhxây
32 B theo tính tương đồng, tiệm cận về nghĩa giữa các cấu
trúc và các cụm từ tương đương vê săc thái biểu cảm
Các câu hỏi số 33và -ý50nghĩa,
kiểmcó tratính
khảđến năng cáctiếpbiện pháphiểu,
nhận, liên phân
kết câu, tíchxâyvăn
bản theo phương thức lựa chọn câu trả lời đúng đối với mỗi câu hỏi
Hên quan tới văn bản ờ mọi khía cạnh: hoàn thành vãn bản (câu hỏi 33
- 37); xác định ý chính, thông tin chi tiết, xác định tham chiếu, đoán từ
qua ngữ cảnh, suy luận tìm thông tin cung cấp gián tiếp, xác định cấu
Đáp án duy nhất của câu số 33 là c, được xác định dựa
33 c trên khả năng phân tích cấu trúc câu ghép có thành
phần là mệnh đề quan hệ.
34 A Đáp án duy nhất của câu số 34 là A, được xác định dựa
trên khả năng xác định từ loại và nghĩa ngữ cảnh của
35 D trên khả năng phân biệt các biến đổi phái sinh của từ
và nghĩa ngữ pháp của từ.
36 c trên khả năng phân biệt cách sử dụng các trạng từ có
tầm tác động lên toàn bộ mệnh đề, tạo liên kết về thời
37 D trên khả năng tạo các ngữ giới từ làm trạng ngữ hoặc
bổ ngữ với các danh từ có ý nghĩa cụ thể, đặc trưng.
38 c trên khả năng đọc lướt lấy thông tin khái quát của toàn
văn bản, dựa trên các câu chù đề và từ khoá vending
39 D trên lý thuyết về hồi chỉ và khứ chì, biểu thức quy
chiếu và vật được quy chiếu.
40 A trên khả năng đọc lướt (scanning dựa vào từ khoá
America) để lấy thông tin chi tiết.
41 c vào ngữ cảnh của câu, đặc biệt sự hợp ý giữa chủ ngữ
opponents với động ngữ worry.
Đáp án duy nhất của câu số 42 là B, được xác định
42 B bằng sử dụng kỹ năng đọc lướt lấy thông tin dựa vào
các từ khoá diets và fast food.
43 D trên khả năng đọc lướt lấy thông tin chi tiết trong một
vùng văn bản đã được chỉ rõ.
44 A trên kĩ năng xử lí ngôn ngữ cần kiểm tra là áp dụng
khả năng đọc nhanh lấy thông tin chính/khái quát để
xác nhận
Đáp án duy nộinhất
dung chính
của câu của văn
số 45 là bản,
B, đượctừ đó suy
xác luậndựa
định
45 B trên khả năng đọc lướt lấy thông tin chi tiết trong một
Đáp án
vùng văn duy
bảnnhất
đượccủaxác
câuđịnh
số 47
bởilàtừB,khoá
đượcproblem
xác định dựa
47 B trên khả
(đoạn vănnăng
số 5)đọc
xácchậm
địnhtoàn văn bản,
các thông tin xác địnhvàcác
chi tiết khả
thôngántinduy
Đáp chinhất
tiết của
và khả
câunăng
số 46diễn
là B,đạtđượclại các
xácthông tin
định dựa
46 B đó theo
trên khảcách
năngkhác và đốitoàn
đọc chậm chiếu
văntínhbản,xácxác
thực củacác
định thông
thông tin chi tiết và khả năng diễn đạt lại các thôngdựa
Đáp án duy nhất của câu số 48 là c, được xác định tin
48 c trên kĩ năng xử lí ngôn ngữ cần kiểm tra là áp dụng
khả năng đọc nhanh lấy thông tin chính/khái quát để
xác nhận nội dung chính của văn bản, từ đó suy luận
49 A trên khả năng đọc lướt, xác định các tham chiếu để xác
định tính tương hợp của biểu thức quy chiếu và ‘vật
50 c trên kĩ năng xử lí ngôn ngữ cần kiểm tra là khả năng
phân tích văn bản dựa trên phong cách ngôn ngữ đặc
trưng - sử dụng câu hỏi tu từ đé nêu vân đê.
DE 2
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
1. A. snooze B. flood C. typhoon D.bloomer
2. A. escaped B. crashed C. climbed D.announced
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
3. A. pessimistic B. discriminate C. apologize D.expenditure
4. A. international B. archaeologist C. economicalD.qualification
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
5. His English teacher recommends that he____________a regular degree program.
A. begin B. begins C. will beginD. is beginning
6. George made a bad mistake at work, but his boss didn’t fire him. He’s lucky________a second
chance.
A. having given B. having beengiven
C. to have given D. to have beengiven
7. I have two brothers. One of them is in high school, and___________is in college.
A. another B. other C. the other D. the another
8. Only if you get to the theater early______a chance to get a ticket for tonight’s performance.
A. you will have B. have you C. you haveD. will you have
9.__________________________ Students are usually a lot of study pressure before the important
examinations.
A. on B. under C. with D. beneath
10. My uncle said that he was going to plant three hundred_________on his farm the
following year.
A. apples tree B. tree apples C. apple treesD. trees apples
11. We always provide good services. Your money will be refunded if the goods are not to your
complete………………...
A. satisfaction B. dissatisfaction C.satisfactoryD. unsatisfactory
12. After a brilliant performance, the pianist received a standing ovation from
the________.
A. spectator B. staff C. client D. audience
13. Noah is very sad because his parents didn’t_ _him permission to go on the excursion.
A. grant B. award C. offer D. obtain
14. I don’t understand what you’ve written. In fact, I cannot read your handwriting;
it is________.
A. illiterate B. illogical C. illegible D. illegal
15. When they give you the contract, please _____ the document before you sign it.
A. go over B. sum up C. see to D. check in
16. The police surrounded the bank and caught the robbers before they could_________.
A. run down B. look about C. set up D. get away
17. In fact, _____mobile phone companies deciding to create phone billing
plans that included messaging, the service might not be so popular today.
A. been for had it not B. had it not been for
C. if it haven’t been for D. it had not been for
18. Meteorologists use special__to measure changes in the weather.
A. instrument B. instruments
C. instrumental D. instrumentation
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
19. The government decided to pull down the old building after asking the ideas from the local
residents.
A. maintain B. demolish C. renovate D. purchase
20. The Native Americans would not allow anyone to trespass on their sacred burial ground.
A. holy B. public C. private D. secret
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
21. Don’t stand here and do nothing. If the devil finds a man industrious, it will set him to work.
A. idle B. bold C. rude D. busy
22. He accepted the loan shark’s offer because he wasn’t aware of the consequences if he could not
pay off the debt on time.
A. detained B. avoided C. denied D. refused
23. - Tom: “We are going to have a picnic by the river next Sunday. Would you like to join us?”
-Nam:“_________”
A. I think it’s going to rain heavily in the afternoon.
B. I wish I could, but I’m afraid I can’t.
C. I hope it will not be too crowded.
D. I would like to invite my cousins for lunch.
24. - A: “Excuse me, could you tell me where the dairy section is?” - B : “ ”
A. It’s on aisle 4, next to the bakery section.
B. I’d like a half pound of butter, please.
C. I’m sorry; it’s very expensive these days.
D. It has milk and cheese, but no butter.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
People who wish to study at a US university usually have to take one of several standardized
tests. Students (25)…………to university for the first time may take the SAT (Scholastic
Aptitude Test) or the ACT (American College Test).
People (26)________want to do a higher degree may take the GRE (Graduate Record
Examination), LSAT (Law School Admission Test) or MCAT (Medical College Admission
Test), depending on (27)……… they want to study. Students from other countries must usually
show a knowledge (28) English and the most common test for this purpose is the TOEFL
(Test of English as a Foreign Language). Standardized tests often do not test how much people
know about a subject, but how strong their skills are in (29)……….like reading and solving
problems. People do not pass or fail but instead each college or university decides on the lowest
score it will accept. Test scores are never the only factor to be considered in deciding whether to
offer a place to a student. and American Cultures)
25.Ago B.goes C.going D.went
26.A.they B. those C.who D.whom
27.A.what B. how C.why D. when
28.A.with B. about C. in D. of
29.A.region B. areas C. section D. parts
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
Bitcoins are a form of virtual currency. In other words, they are a type of money that does not
exist in the actual world. However, they can be used to purchase actual products and services
from real companies.
The bitcoin system was created in 2009 by an enigmatic person named Satoshi Nakamoto. In
fact, no one is sure if Satoshi Nakamoto is an actual person or a group of people. Bitcoins are
designed to serve as an alternative to national currencies, such as dollars and euros. They can be
used to pay for things online instead of cash or credit cards. When bitcoins are transferred from
a buyer to a seller, the transaction is recorded in a public database.
Governments are concerned that bitcoins can easily be stolen by hackers. It has dawned on them
that they might be used for illegal purposes. For example, stolen goods could be purchased
without the government’s knowledge. Although more and more companies are beginning to
accept bitcoins, the percentage of purchases made using bitcoins is minuscule compared to
other online payment methods, such as credit cards. Instead, many bitcoin owners simply keep
them as an investment since they believe their bitcoins will be more valuable in the future.
This may or may not be a wise approach. Currently, the value of bitcoins is fluctuating wildly,
especially when compared to highly stable national currencies. Bitcoin investors are gambling
on the hope that as this high-tech money becomes more widely accepted, its value will soar.
30. What is the passage mainly about?
A. A new kind of currency in the virtual world
B. A way of doing business in the virtual world
C. An alternative to bitcoins created by Nakamoto
D. The future of bitcoins in the real world
31. The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to .
A. dollars B. euros C. things D. bitcoins
32. The word “minuscule” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to .
A. Considerable B. small C. minimal D. increasing
33. Why are bitcoins of great concern to governments?
A. Because the value of bitcoins is fluctuating wildly.
B. Because bitcoins will eventually replace national currencies.
C. Because bitcoins may be used in illegal transactions.
D. Because most of bitcoin owners are hackers.
34. Which of the following is defined in the passage?
A. Bitcoins B. Transactions C. Credit cardsD. Public Databases
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions
A few years ago, astronomers discovered a mile-wide rock tumbling through space. At first, the
scientists feared that the newly discovered space rock would plow into Earth on February 1,
2019.
Scientists named the space rock NT7 and clocked its speed at 7 miles per second. The scientists
thought the asteroid was heading straight for Earth!
A mile-wide asteroid could take out an entire continent, scientists say. Fearing the worst,
scientists kept their eyes on NT7. They plotted its orbit, or path, around the sun.
After watching NT7 for several weeks, scientists found out that NT7 would miss Earth on
February 1, 2019.
Most asteroids orbit the sun between Mars and Jupiter. NT7, however, is a near-Earth asteroid.
Near-Earth asteroids orbit the sun close to Earth. NT7 orbits the sun once every 837 days. Its
orbit sometimes takes NT7 as far from the sun as Mars. At other times, it is within Earth’s orbit.
Scientists know about nearly 350 near-Earth asteroids. They carefully map the orbits of those
asteroids to make sure the asteroids don’t come too close to our planet.
Scientists say anywhere from 500 to 1,000 near-Earth asteroids are yet to be discovered.
Scientists are searching the sky for them. They want to have plenty of warning if one comes too
close.
An asteroid the size of NT7 may one day come close to Earth, scientists say. “An object of this
size would be expected to hit Earth every few million years, and as we get additional data I
think this threat will go away,” said Donald Yeoman of the National Aeronautics and Space
Administration (NASA). Yeoman and most other scientists say you shouldn’t worry too much
about asteroids. Most don’t think a space rock will pose a threat in the near future. If an asteroid
does come near Earth, scientists might be able to destroy it. One scientist, for instance, said a
large laser could be used to zap NT7 if the asteroid came too close to Earth.
Many people often confuse asteroids and comets. Asteroids are chunks of rock in space. Comets
are not made of rock. They are made mostly of ice. Comets spend most of their time far from
the sun. When a comet nears the sun, heat from the sun warms it, causing the ice to melt. The
melting ice forms a comet’s long tail. After rounding the sun, the comet moves farther away
from the sun. The comet cools and the tail slowly disappears.
(Source: https://www.readworks.org)
35. What detail does the author use to describe NT7?
A. The speed of NT7 is 70 miles per hour.
B. The size of NT7 is 8 miles wide.
C. The orbit of NT7 takes 837 days.
D. The color of NT7 matches that of comets.
36. According to the passage, where do most asteroids orbit the sun?
A. between Earth and Mars B. between Mars and Jupiter
C. between Venus and Jupiter D. between the sun and Earth
37. Why do you think people often confuse asteroids and comets?
A. Like asteroids, comets look like space rocks when they are far from the sun.
B. Like asteroids, comets could cause a lot of damage if they hit Earth.
C. Like comets, asteroids melt when they get close to the sun.
D. Like comets, most asteroids have long tails when they pass Earth.
38. According to the passage, astronomers are .
A. people who study objects in space B. people who study maps of Earth
C. people who study rocks D. people who study the sun
39. The primary purpose of this passage is to .
A. persuade the reader that NT7 will hit Earth
B. list all the steps scientists take to study asteroids
C. describe near-Earth asteroids
D. compare comets and asteroids
40. Scientists watched NT7 and plotted its orbit carefully because .
A. they were worried that NT7 would hit Earth
B. they found out that NT7 would miss Earth
C. they discovered it among nearly 350 near-Earth asteroids
D. they could use a large laser to destroy it
41. The word “clocked'’ in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to .
A. expected B. reduced C. increased D. measured
42. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. If NT7 hit Earth, it could destroy a whole continent.
B. There are hundreds of asteroids orbiting near Earth.
C. Asteroids do not threat Earth in the near future.
D. Comets are made mostly of ice and rock.
43. The actress, along with her manager and some friends, are going to a party tonight.
A B C D
My uncle was a community leader whom everyone in our town admires him very much.
A B C D
44. Emma is the more capable of the three girls who have ever tried out for the part
A B C D
in the play.
Mark the letter A, B, c, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of
the following questions.
45. I am on the tenth page of the report I am writing.
A. I have completed writing ten pages of the report.
B. Tonight I’m going to write the tenth page of the report.
C. So far I have written ten pages of the report.
D. 1 have finished writing the report on the tenth page.
46. “Why don’t you have your room repainted?” said Robert to Lam.
A. Robert suggested that Lam should have his room repainted.
B. Robert suggested having Lam’s room repainted.
C. Robert asked Lam why you didn’t have your room repainted.
D. Robert wanted to know why Lam doesn’t have his room repainted.
47. I am sorry you are not doing a job where you could use your English.
A. I apologize to you for not doing a job where you could use your English.
B. I’m sad that you could use your English in the job you are doing.
C. I’d like you to use your English in the job you are doing.
D. I wish you were doing a job where you could use your English.
Mark the letter A, Bf C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
48. Emily didn’t receive a scholarship. Emily is a good student.
A. Despite being a good student, Emily didn’t receive a scholarship.
B. Emily didn’t receive a scholarship unless she is a good student.
C. Though a good student, but Emily didn’t receive a scholarship.
D. She didn’t receive a scholarship as Emily is a good student.
49. Matthew ran away from home. Matthew thought no one loved him.
A. Matthew ran away from home as when he thought no one loved him.
B. Matthew ran away from home because he thought no one loved him.
C. Thought that no one loved him, Matthew ran away from home.
D. Matthew thought no one loved him and so that he ran away from home.
TEST 3
1. A. sacrifice B. handle C. statistic D. valuable
2. A. clothes B. couches C. businesses D.advantages
3. A. receptionist B. inhabitant C. contaminate D. academic
4. A. compliment B. determine C. optimist D.marvellous
questions.
5. The earthquake _____ less damage if the houses had been of stronger construction.
A. had caused B. would have caused
C. would cause D. caused
6. _______ “Congratulations!” to Nam? He’s won a scholarship to study abroad.
A. Do you say B. Did you say
C. Have you said D. Were you saying
7. 1 was really mad! I got_____until my brother touched my arm and told me to calm down.
A. angry and more angry B. angrier and angrier
C. angrier and angriest D. more angry and most angry
8. The man talking to Professor Evers has just been elected to become…………MP
(Member of Parliament).
A. the B. a C. an D. 0
9. Humans benefit greatly_____the many medicines and other products that
biodiversity provides.
A. with B. about C. on D. from
10. A______described what he saw moments after the car bomb had exploded.
A. passer-by B. by-passer C. pass-by D. by-pass
11. I couldn’t get much work done as I was_____being interrupted by people telephoning me.
A. continuous B. continually C. continuinglyD. continued
12. The____entered the goldsmith’s shop with guns and daggers in their hands.
A. shoplifters B. hijackers C. smugglers D. robbers
13. The weather was terrible. We all were__________after four hours of hard work under the
hot sun.
A. deprived B. constrained C. exhausted D. disappointed
14. Mrs. Kennedy was filled with_________when she learnt about her pet’s death.
A. horror B. fright C. grief D. terror
15. Mr. Taylor’s work at the office had__________because he had been away on vacation.
A. piled up B. taken back C. held out D. brushed off
16. The sales assistant brought her to the booth where she could________the dress.
A. watch for B. show up C. wear out D. try on
17. Many English learners say that they are learning the language___________pleasure.
A. from B. at C. for D. by
18. _____most of the world’s tornadoes happen in North America and northern
Europe, tornadoes happen on every continent except Antarctica.
A. Because B. Although C. As D. However
19. Lucas asked his girlfriend to pardon him because he didn’t mean to hurt her feeling.
A. leave B. forgive C. remind D. forget
20. Before their relationship turned serious, they began meeting from time to time at a coffee shop
that both of them enjoyed.
A. recently B. frequently C. regularlyD. occasionally
21. Nature can do bizarre things, and there are some seriously familiar places that feel out of this
world.
A. lonely B. deserted C. strange D. remote
22. The three richest people in the world control more wealth than the poorest 48 nations.
A. poverty B. salary C. finance D. money
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the
following exchanges.
23. - Waiter. “Can I get you anything else?”
-David: “_________”
A. I’ll pay for what I have eaten.
B. Could I have a look at the dessert menu?
C. Thank you very much for serving us well.
D. Is it cheap or expensive?
24. - Sophia: “How did you leam English?” -Hoang: “ ”
A. I picked it up from movies and songs.
B. I found it very difficult when I started learning it.
C. I’ve learned English for about 10 years.
D. I liked learning English very much.
In the US main roads such as interstates and highways are known by numbers. Most towns and
cities are laid out on a grid pattern and have long streets with avenues crossing them. (25)
…….. has a number, e.g. 7th Avenue, 42nd Street. The roads are often straight and have square
blocks of buildings between them. This makes (26)easier to find an address and also helps
people to judge distance. In Manhattan, for example, Tiffany’s is described as being at East 57 th
Street and Fifth Avenue, i.e. (27)………..the comer of those two streets. The distance between
West 90th Street and West 60th Street is 30 blocks. As well as having numbers, many streets are
named after people, places, local features, history and nature. In Manhattan there (28) …………
Washington Street, Lexington Avenue, Liberty Street, Church Street and Cedar Street. Some
streets are named after the town to (29) …………….. they lead. The most important street is
often called Main Street. A suburb or subdivision of a city may have streets with similar names.
In a subdivision of Baton Rouge, Louisiana, all the names end in ‘wood’, e.g. Balsawood Drive,
Limewood Drive and Aspenwood Drive.
(Source: Background to British and American Cultures)
25. A. Any B. One C. Every D. Each
26. A. it B. them C. these D. those
27. A. in B. on C. by D. to
28. A. is B. are C. was D. were
29. A. what B. where C. which D. that
Apples are one of the healthiest foods you can eat every day. A traditional American proverb
states: “An apple a day keeps the doctor away". But it does not specifically say anything about
the best time of day to eat apples. It is generally believed that eating an apple in the morning is
good for people, but eating an apple in the evening is like eating poison.
There is actually a scientific reason behind this belief. One benefit of apples is that they are a
favorable source of fructose, which is a natural form of sugar that gives you a big boost of
energy. The energy you get from an apple is longer lasting than that provided by a cup of
coffee. Clearly, this is something most people would rather experience in the morning than right
before bedtime.
Apples also contain high levels of pectin, a kind of dietary fiber. Fiber stimulates bowel
movements, which help maintain the health of your digestive system. But if you eat an apple
shortly before going to bed, this can cause problems. While you are asleep, your bowels can fill
up with gas, making you feel bloated and uncomfortable. You may also wake up several times
to use the bathroom, which will prevent you from getting a good night's sleep.
Other health benefits of apples come from flavonoids, beta carotene, and B vitamins.
Flavonoids are the material that gives flowers and fruits their bright colors, such as the deep red
of apples. When eaten, flavonoids can decrease your risk of heart disease, diabetes, and other
illnesses. Meanwhile, beta carotene helps prevent cancer, and B vitamins provide the body with
a wide variety of important benefits. Apparently, starting your day with an apple really can keep
the doctor away.
30. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Apples are not as good as people may think.
B. Eating an apple in the morning proves beneficial.
C. Pectin can cause digestive problems at night.
D. Flavonoids are as good as beta carotene.
31. The word “that” in paragraph 2 refers to .
A. an apple B. energy C. sugar D. a cup of coffee
32. The word “stimulates” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to .
A. prevents B. avoids C. encourages D. creates
33. Which of the following gives people a big boost of energy?
A. Fructose B. Flavonoids
C. Beta Carotene D. Pectin
34. Which of the following is true about flavonoids?
A. They make apples’ colours brighter than those of other fruits.
B. They are less important than beta carotene and B vitamins.
C. They help prevent the risks of several health problems.
D. They may lead to the feeling of being bloated and uncomfortable.
Did you know that some people don’t do their reading assignments? It’s shocking, but it’s true.
Some students don’t even read short texts that they are assigned in class. There are many
reasons for this. They may be distracted or bored. They may be unwilling to focus. They may be
unconfident readers. Whatever the reason, it has to stop today. Here’s why.
Reading stimulates your mind. It is like a workout for your brain. When people get old, their
muscles begin to deteriorate. They get weaker and their strength leaves them. Exercise can
prevent this loss. The same thing happens to people’s brains when they get older. Brain power
and speed decline with age. Reading strengthens your brain and prevents these declines.
You can benefit from reading in the near-term too. Reading provides knowledge. Knowledge is
power. Therefore, reading can make you a more powerful person. You can learn to do new
things by reading. Do you want to make video games? Do you want to design clothing?
Reading can teach you all this and more. But you have to get good at reading, and the only way
to get good at something is to practice.
Read everything that you can at school, regardless of whether you find it interesting. Reading
expands your vocabulary. Even a “boring” text can teach you new words. Having a larger
vocabulary will help you better express yourself. You will be able to speak, write, and think
more intelligently. What’s boring about that?
Do not just discount a text because it is unfamiliar to you. Each time you read, you are exposed
to new ideas and perspectives. Reading can change the way that you understand the world. It
can give you a broader perspective on things. It can make you worldlier. You can learn how
people live in faraway places. You can learn about cultures different from your own. Reading is
good for your state of mind. It has a calming effect. It can lower your stress levels and help you
relax. You can escape from your troubles for a moment when you read, and it’s a positive
escape. The benefits of reading far outweigh those of acting like a doofus. So do yourself a
favor: the next time you get a reading assignment, take as much as you can from it. Squeeze it
for every drop of knowledge that it contains. Then move on to the next one.
(Source: https://www.ereadingworksheets.com)
35. Which best expresses the main idea of the second paragraph?
A. Reading is exciting.
B. Reading strengthens your mind.
C. Age affects the body in many ways.
D. Working out keeps your body in shape.
36. Why does the author think that you should read books that are boring?
A. You will eventually grow to love them if you read them enough.
B. You will get better grades in reading class.
C. You will make your teacher very happy.
D. You will learn new words.
37. Which best expresses the main idea of the third paragraph?
A. Reading can benefit you.
B. You can learn to program video games or design clothing by reading.
C. You can learn amazing things and become a better person by reading.
D. Knowledge is power.
38. Which is NOT a reason given by the author why students fail to complete reading
assignments?
A. Students may be bored. B. Students may be distracted.
C. Students may be unwilling to focus. D. Students may be tired.
39. Which best expresses the author’s main purpose in writing this passage?
A. He is trying to persuade students to do their reading work.
B. He is teaching people how to become better readers.
C. He is explaining why people don’t do their reading work.
D. He is entertaining readers with facts about the mind and body.
40. Which of the following is NOT one of the author’s main points?
A. Reading broadens your perspective and makes you a better person.
B. Reading is a relaxing activity with positive mental side effects.
C. Reading helps you perform on tests and get into selective schools.
D. Reading keeps your mind in shape and prevents losses due to age.
41. Which is NOT one of the author’s arguments in the fifth paragraph?
A. Reading gives you a broader perspective on the world.
B. Reading helps prepare you for your job in the real world.
C. Reading changes the way that you understand the world.
D. Reading teaches you about distant lands and cultures.
42. Which title best expresses the main idea of this passage?
A. Reading: Good for the Mind in Many Ways
B. Reading: The Key to a Successful Academic Future
C. Reading: Improve Your Vocabulary While Being Entertained
D. Reading: The Best Way to Improve Your Writing Skills
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each
43. Passengers shouldn’t be thrown away their tickets as they may be checked during the
A B C D
journey
44. Growling in the comer were two big dogs, both of them looked extremely dangerous.
A B C D
45. A student (A)at the university should attend class(B) regularly and hand (C)in their
assignments (D)on time
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of
46. Let’s leave at the end of the next program.
A. We must leave before the next program has ended.
B. As soon as the next program has finished, we should leave.
C. I would like you to leave when the next program ends.
D. If the next program finishes, I will leave immediately.
47. “Would you mind turning down the TV, Tom? I have a headache,” said Jane.
A. Jane asked Tom to turn down the TV because she had a headache.
B. Jane has a headache and she would mind Tom turning down the TV.
C. Jane refused Tom to turn down the TV if she had a headache.
D. Jane would mind Tom turning down the TV as she has a headache.
48. If someone understands this theory, they are cleverer than I am.
A. There is someone who is cleverer than I am as he understands this theory.
B. Some people who understand this theory are cleverer than I am.
C. No one who is cleverer than I am understands this theory.
D. Anyone who understands this theory is cleverer than I am.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
49. It was cold. Minh and his friends still went swimming.
A. Because Minh and his friends still went swimming, it was cold.
B. It was cold while Minh and his friends still went swimming.
C. Minh and his friends still went swimming though it was cold.
D. Until it was cold, but Minh and his friends still went swimming.
50. Mason would sit in his room during summer. He would listen to music for hours.
A. During summer, Mason would sit in his room and listen to music for hours.
B. Mason would sit in his room during summer as he listened to music for hours.
C. During summer Mason would listen to music when he sat in his room for hours.
D. Mason would listen to music for hours as he would sit in his room during summer.
TEST 4
1. A. wisdom C. lively D. wildness
B. minor
2. A. donate
B. imitate C. operate D. private
3. A. atmosphere B. accomplish C. handicap D. devastate

4. A. campaign B. embrace C. bandage D. release
questions.
5. Let’s leave early, so we’ll be ahead of the rush of commuters. We can’t risk ______in heavy
traffic during rush hour.
A. holding up B. being held up C. to be held up D. to hold up
6. The new shopping mall is gigantic. It’s advertised as a place ________you can find just
about anything you might want to buy.
A. where B. which C. when D. that
7. It would have been a much more serious accident_____fast at the time.
A. had she been driving B. was she driving
C. she had driven D. she drove
8. Hayden spent_____money buying food that he didn’t have enough left to buy a soft drink.
A. such a B. a lot C. too many D. so much
9._______________________________________________________________________ Kangaroos are
Australian animals. They are not found on any of the______________,
except in zoos.
A. other continent B. other continents
C. others continent D. others continents
10. When I got to the dentist last week, I had to sit in the for over one hour.
A. wait room B. waited room C. waiting roomD. room wait
11. My sister and her friends spent their holidays helping poor or……….children in the
countryside.
A. advantaged B. advantageous C. disadvantaged D. disadvantageous
12. Dylan’s father was very angry when he knew that he had_________ in the exam.
A. lied B. tricked C. deceived D. cheated
13. In spite of the fact that she tried to appear calm, her
excitement was quite .
A. genuine B. obvious C. public D. generous
14. Most kids in elementary schools develop an extreme _______ in a certain
subject like horses or dinosaurs.
A. insane B. illness C. interest D. obsession
15. I took a course at the employment bureau to learn how to organize my resume
to best________my experience and qualifications.
A. show off B. call upon C. bring forwardD. set up
16. The thief who was driving a stolen car became nervous when a patrol car………..beside him at
the junction.
A. joined in B. pulled up C. ended off D. came across
17. If the polar ice caps and glaciers melted, more water_______the world’s oceans and sea
levels would rise.
A. will enter B. would enter
C. would have entered D. will be entering
18. Insects are small but very__________; they are full of things that your body needs.
A. nutrition B. nutritional C. nutritious D. nutrient
19. Before you assign a task to someone, make sure that you ask the person if he or she can do the
task.
A. appoint B. attach C.award D. approve
20. What do you think his motives are for helping us fix the broken windows?
A. benefits B. actions C.causes D. reasons
21. Here you’ll learn tips for diving in bad weather and smooth seas, and know when to stay on
land.
A. polluted B. rough C.clean D. busy
22. The captain ordered his troops to advance when they were attacked by the enemy.
A. retreat B. conquer C.gather D. remain
23. -Link: “What does your new teacher look like?” -Nga: “ ”
A. She likes beef noodle soup and tofu.
B. She looks much younger than her age.
C. She’s tall and slim with blonde hair.
D. She’s usually friendly and cheerful.
24. - Mike: “Why don’t you take some time out and rest?” - Nam: “ ”
A. Because I have nothing to do. B. Great. I’ll see you then.
C. It’s very interesting. D. That’s a good idea.
Many British families buy a national or local newspaper every day. Some have it delivered to
their home by a paper boy or paper girl; (25)___________________buy it from a newsagent (= a
shop that sells newspapers, magazines, sweets, etc.) or a bookstall. Some people read a
newspaper online. National dailies are published each morning (26) Sunday. Competition
between them is fierce. Local daily papers, (27)________________are written for people in a
particular city or region, are sometimes published in the morning but more often in the early
evening. The US has only one national newspaper, USA Today. The (28) are local. A few
newspapers from large cities, such as the New York Times and the Washington Post, are read all
over the country. The International Herald Tribune is published outside the US and is read by
Americans (29)__________________________________________. Many Americans subscribe
to a newspaper which is delivered to their house. This costs less than buying it in a shop. Papers
can also be bought in bookshops and supermarkets and most newspapers have online versions.
25. A. the other B. others C. another D. the others
26. A. except B. except for C. apart D. apart from
27. A. that B. what C. which D. they
28. A. remainders B. left C. leftovers D. rest
29. A. along B. away C. abroad D. afar
Almost everybody has had acne. Acne, also known as pimples or zits, is a normal part of
growing up. When kids reach puberty, their bodies experience many changes. As the levels of
hormones in teenagers’ bodies change, teenagers frequently develop pimples. Additionally,
many people continue to have pimples after puberty. What can a teenager or an adult do to cure
pimples? Unfortunately, many cures people think will work on pimples are really just myths.
Many people believe that popping pimples is the best way to get rid of them. Popping a pimple
will actually push the germs further under the skin, which can cause more redness and pain, or
even turn into an infection. For that reason, dermatologists normally encourage people not to
pop their pimples.
Another widely believed myth is that not wearing makeup can help reduce a person’s chance of
developing pimples. In fact, some kinds of makeup or face creams actually have special
medicine in them to fight pimples. As a result, not all of them are bad for you.
Another myth is that stress can cause acne. Stress comes in many forms, like a big exam at
school or problems with friends. Whilst it is true that stress can cause a person’s skin to create
extra oil, this extra oil does not necessarily cause more pimples.
30. What is the main idea of this reading?
A. In the past, people thought pimples showed a serious disease.
B. People do many things to cure pimples which don’t actually work.
C. Pimples are not a problem for most people.
D. Teenagers are not the only people with pimples.
31. According to the passage, why is it not a good idea to pop pimples to get rid of them?
A. It is not as good as washing one’s face.
B. It may lead to skin irritation or even infection.
C. It is of no use when people reach puberty.
D. It will increase the level of hormones.
32. According to the passage, which is true about wearing makeup?
A. Some right kinds of products may help fight pimples.
B. Makeup cream will increase the amount of oil on skin.
C. Not wearing makeup helps prevent pimples.
D. Wearing cream is not as good as taking medicine.
33. The word “myths” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _.
A. untruths B. legends C. rumours D. tales
34. According to the passage, what is NOT true about stress?
A. It can come in many forms.
B. It increases the level of oil on skin.
C. It does not directly cause pimples.
D. It makes school exams more difficult.
The faster a given object is moving, the more energy it possesses. This kind of energy is called
“kinetic energy”, from the Greek word kinesis, meaning motion. The faster a given object is
moving, the greater its kinetic energy.
Imagine you’re trying to hit a target with a bow and arrow. If you just throw the arrow with
your hand, it won’t go very fast, and even if your aim is good, the arrow won’t penetrate the
target - it’ll just bounce off!
But if you use the bow, you can shoot the arrow much faster. The faster the arrow is going, the
more kinetic energy it has. Kinetic energy is what allows the arrow to puncture the target.
Energy can never be created or destroyed, only transferred - moved from place to place. One
way energy is moved from place to place is by moving objects.
Imagine hitting a tee ball with a bat. When you hit the ball with the bat, energy is transferred
from the bat to the ball. If you swing the bat slowly, the ball won’t go very far when you hit it.
But if you swing the bat faster, it will have more kinetic energy. That energy will be transferred
to the ball, and the ball will go much farther.
Energy can also be transferred through sound. Try high-fiving your friend very slowly. You
probably won’t make very much sound. If you high-five at the normal speed, your hands have
more kinetic energy, and you’ll make a nice smack. What you’re hearing is energy turned into
sound. The same thing happens when you hit a drum, or pluck the strings of a guitar.
Energy can also be transferred through light. Light from the sun makes your body feel warmer.
Plants use energy from light and grow bigger and make oxygen. Energy can also be transferred
through electricity. This kind of energy can be used for almost anything. But remember: Energy
cannot be created. Energy in the form of electricity has to be transferred from another kind of
energy. Wind power uses a machine called a turbine that turns the energy of the wind into
electricity. Coal, oil, and gas power bum different kinds of material, creating heat that gets
turned into electricity. Solar power generates electricity from the sun’s light - although not as
easily as a plant.
(Source: ReadWork 2013)
35. According to the passage, energy_.
A. can be destroyed B. can be created
C. can be moved from place to place D. can be used to make the arrows
36. What does the author list in the passage?
A. the different ways energy can be transferred
B. the different theories about energy transfer
C. the different types of energy
D. the problems with transferring energy through electricity
37. Energy can be transferred through light. What evidence from the passage supports this
statement?
A. Energy is transferred when coal is burned.
B. A turbine changes wind energy into electricity.
C. Burning gas creates heat.
D. Light from the sun makes your body feel warmer.
38. If drummers are playing their drums loudly, what can be concluded about how their hands are
moving?
A. They must be moving slowly when they hit the drum.
B. They must be moving quickly when they hit the drum.
C. They must be tapping the drum softly.
D. They must be resting on the drum.
39. What is this passage mainly about?
A. What happens when you swing a baseball bat quickly
B. How energy makes sound
C. Different ways energy is transferred
D. Different ways electricity is produced
40. What does the word “penetrate” in paragraph 2 mean?
A. pierce into
B. bounce away from
C. miss
D. go around
41. Which of the following CANNOT be transferred into electricity?
A. wind B. soil C. coal D. the sun
42. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. Energy cannot be transferred but it can be created.
B. Solar power generates electricity from the sun’s light.
C. The faster you swing the bat, the farther the ball will go.
D. Plants can grow because they use energy from light.
43. Scarlett was very embarrassing when she learned that she forgot her wallet at home.
A B C D
44. By the end of the 21 st century, scientists are discovering the cure for the
A B C D
common cold.
45. The New York City subway system is the most longer underground railroad
A B C
operating in the world.
D
46. Eating with chopsticks feels strange to Jonathan.
A. Jonathan is not used to eating with chopsticks.
B. Eating with chopsticks isn’t what Jonathan used to.
C. Not feeling strange, Jonathan tries eating with chopsticks.
D. Jonathan didn’t use to eat with chopsticks.
47. Some people believe that there must be life on other planets.
A. The belief of life on other planets is denied by some people.
B. There must be some people living on other planets.
C. There is a belief that life exists on other planets.
D. Some people wish they were living on other planets.
48. Grayson always has a shower before going to work.
A. Grayson always goes to work without having a shower.
B. Grayson has a shower whenever he goes to work.
C. Grayson rarely has a shower before he goes to work.
D. Grayson never goes to work until he has had a shower.
49. Small pox is a dangerous disease. Malaria is a dangerous disease.
A. Small pox is a dangerous disease and malaria is too.
B. Malaria is a dangerous disease, but small pox is not.
C. Neither small box nor malaria is a dangerous disease.
D. Either malaria or small pox is a dangerous disease.
50. They traded the baseball cards at the flea market. They took the cards from the attic.
A. The attic had the baseball cards that they took and traded the cards at the flea market.
B. They took the baseball cards from the attic and traded them at the flea market.
C. They traded the baseball cards at the flea market that they took from the attic.
D. The baseball cards which they traded at the flea market they took them from
TEST 5
1. A. spear B. overhear C. appear D. footwear
2. A. disaster B. measure C. reside D. reservoir
position of primaiy stress in each of the following questions.
3. A. counterpart B. obedience C. aggressive D. interpret
4.A. professional B. certificate C.supermarket D.accelerate
questions.
5.By the time Ryan finally graduated from high school, he _______ five
different schools because his parents moved frequently.
A. attended B. was attending
C. had attended D. has been attending
6.The rescuers _______ for their bravery and fortitude in locating the lost mountain climbers
A. were praised B. praised C. were praising D. praising
7.People who exercise frequently have greater physical endurance than those________
A. who doesn’t B. that doesn’t C. which don’t D. who don’t
8.I couldn’t decide what to eat. There was nothing________the menu that I liked.
A. in B. on C. at D. within
9.it seems that_____my uncle travels abroad he forgets to take something he needs.
A. whenever B. by the time C. not until D. however
10.Luke told Owen to put the hammer back into the_______when he finished using it.
A. boxtool B. toolsbox C. boxestool D. toolbox
11.We thought the vases were antiques worth a lot of money, but they turned out to
be_______replicas
A. valuable B. invaluable C. valueless D. valued
12.Some shops advertise their products and services in the newspaper to_________customers
A. encourage B. attract C. interest D. promote
13.One of the tourists asked the driver whether there was __________room in the car
for two more passengers.
A. suitable B. fitting C. capable D. enough
14.My brother usually consults the wise old man in the village when he needs________.
A. finance B. advice C. support D. comfort
15.If you’re travelling through a tunnel and your vehicle___________, a team will be sent out to
you immediately
A. breaks down B. passes awayC. gives up D. dozes off
16.There was a bank robbery in our neighborhood this morning. When the police ……., the
robbers had already disappeared.
A. broke up B. pulled over C. showed up D. gave up
17.Never in their life____how lucky they are to have such a resource in their neighborhood
A. do the local people feel B. have the local people felt
C. that the local people feel D. that the local people have felt
18.The victims of the disaster finally decided not to choose____________of the two
plans of receiving relief supplies from the government.
A. both B. either C. not D. neither
19.I think hockey is a hazardous sport. You are constantly getting hit into the boards which can
lead to broken bones, concussions and more.
A. marvelous B. luxurious C. dangerous D. courageous
20.After a two-hour meeting, the company has notified me to go ahead with the project.
A. improve B. proceed C. conclude D. revise
2 1 . 1 feel better when you are following the way because you can get lost easily.
A. finding B. showing C. clearing D. leading
22. You should apologize to Mrs. Lawrence for your rude behaviour the other night.
A. courteous B. charming C. impolite D. brave
23. - Customer. “Can I try this jumper on?”
-_____________________ Salesgirl: “ ”
A. Sure, the changing rooms are over there.
B. Sorry, only cash is accepted here.
C. Yes, it costs one hundred and fifty dollars.
D. No, the shop is closed in half an hour.
- - A: “_____” B: “Thank you. Could I have a cup of coffee?”
A. Do you want something to eat right now?
B. Are you tired after a long journey?
C. Will you buy tea or coffee on the way home?
D. Would you like something to drink?
answer to each of the blank.
Parents usually decide on given names for their children before they are bom. In some families
the oldest boy is given the same name as his father. In the US the word junior or senior, or a
number, is added after the name and surname to make (25)…………. clear which person is
being referred to. For example, the son of William Jones Sr (Senior) (26)………….be called
William Jones Jr (Junior), and his son would be called William Jones ///(‘William Jones the
third’).
Many popular names come from the Bible, e.g. Jacob, Joshua, Matthew, Mary, Rebecca and
Sarah, (27)…………… this does not imply that the people who choose them are (28)
…………. Other people give their children the name of somebody they admire, such as a
famous sports personality, or a film or pop star. In Britain the name William and Harry became
common again after the sons of Prince Charles were given these names. In the US Chelsea was
not a common name for a girl (29)………… President Bill Clinton’s daughter Chelsea came to
public attention
.
25. A. it B. that C. this D. them
26. A. will B. would C. must D. can
27. A. in spite B. however C. though D. despite
28. A. spiritual B. religious C. magic D. holy
29. A. when B. because C. since D. until
The modem age is an age of electricity. People are so used to electric lights, radio, televisions,
and telephones that it is hard to imagine what life would be like without them. When there is a
power failure, people grope about in flickering candlelight. Cars hesitate in the streets because
there are no traffic lights to guide them, and food spoils in silent refrigerators.
Yet, people began to understand how electricity works only a little more than two centuries ago.
Nature has apparently been experimenting in this field for millions of years. Scientists are
discovering more and more that the living world may hold many interesting secrets of
electricity that could benefit humanity.
All living cells sent out tiny pulses of electricity. As the heart beats, it sends out pulses of
recorded electricity; they form an electrocardiogram, which a doctor can study to determine
how well the heart is working. The brain, too, sends out brain waves of electricity, which can be
recorded in an electroencephalogram.
The electric currents generated by most living cells are extremely small - often so small that
sensitive instruments are needed to record them. But in some animals, certain muscle cells have
become so specialized as electrical generators that they do not work as muscle cells at all. When
large numbers of these cells are linked together, the effects can be astonishing.
The electric eel is an amazing storage battery. It can send a jolt of as much as eight hundred
volts of electricity through the water in which it lives. (An electric house current is only one
hundred twenty volts.) As many as four fifths of all the cells in the electric eel’s body are
specialized for generating electricity, and the strength of the shock it can deliver corresponds
roughly to the length of its body.
30. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Electric eels are potentially dangerous
B. Biology and electricity appear to be closely related
C. People would be at a loss without electricity
D. Scientists still have much to discover about electricity
31. The author mentions all of the following as results of a blackout EXCEPT that……. .
A. refrigerated food items may go bad
B. traffic lights do not work
C. people must rely on candlelight
D. elevators and escalators do not function
32. Why does the author mention electric eels?
A. To warn the reader to stay away from them
B. To compare their voltage to that used in houses
C. To give an example of a living electrical generator
D. To describe a new source of electrical power
33. According to the passage, how many volts of electricity can an electric eel emit?
A. 1,000 B. 800 C. 200 D. 120
34. It can be inferred from the passage that the longer an eel is the .
A. more beneficial it will be to science
B. more powerful will be its electrical charge
C. easier it will be to find
D. tougher it will be to eat
Have you ever heard the sound of a hummingbird? They make a buzzing noise when they fly.
They make this noise because they beat their wings so fast. They beat their wings up to 80 times
a second. All that flapping makes a lot of noise. That’s why we call them hummingbirds.
Hummingbirds fly in a unique way. They move their wings so fast that they can hover. This
means that they can stay in one spot in the middle of the air, like a helicopter. Sometimes they
fly or hover upside down. They are the only bird that flies backward.
Hummingbirds are small. One type called the bee hummingbird is the smallest bird in the
world. Bee hummingbirds weigh less than a penny. They are just a little bit bigger than bees. I
guess that’s where they get their name.
Bee hummingbirds build tiny nests. They use cobwebs and bits of bark to make their homes.
Their homes are only an inch around. This is big enough for their eggs though. Their eggs are
smaller than peas. People have found these tiny nests on a clothespin.
Hummingbirds move fast. It takes lots of energy to move as fast as they do. This means that
they need to eat a lot of food. Their favorite food is nectar, a sweet liquid inside of some
flowers. They drink more than their own weight in nectar daily. They have to visit hundreds of
flowers to get enough nectar to live. They can only store enough energy to survive through the
night. They live on the edge. Hummingbirds don’t use their long beaks like straws. They have a
tongue just like you. They use their tongues for eating. They flick their tongues in and out of
their mouths while inside of flowers. They lap up nectar. Flowers give them the energy that they
need.
Hummingbirds help flowers too. They get pollen on their heads and bills when they feed.
Flowers use pollen to make seeds. Hummingbirds help pollen get from one flower to the next.
This helps flowers make more seeds. More seeds means more flowers. More flowers means
more food for hummingbirds. Isn’t it nice how that works out?
(Source: https://www.ereadingworksheets.com)
35. Why are they called hummingbirds?
A. They are very light. B. They sing when they fly.
C. Their wings make a humming sound. D. Their song sounds like humming.
36. How do hummingbirds eat?
A. They drink nectar through their beaks like a straw.
B. They chew up flower petals with their beaks.
C. They use their heads and bills to eat pollen.
D. They lap up nectar with their tongues.
37. According to the passage, which does the bee hummingbird use to make nests?
A. straw B. bark C. concrete D. sticks
38. Which best describes the main idea of the fifth paragraph?
A. Hummingbirds move fast.
B. Hummingbirds like to eat nectar.
C. Hummingbirds use lots of energy and eat often.
D. Hummingbirds drink their own weight in nectar every day.
39. Which best defines the word “hover” as used in paragraph 2?
A. stay in one spot in the air B. clean an area thoroughly
C. fly slowly and steadily D. move the wings very fast
40. Why do flowers need pollen?
A. Flowers eat pollen. B. Pollen attracts hummingbirds.
C. Hummingbirds eat pollen. D. Flowers use pollen to make seeds.
41. Which statement about bee hummingbirds is NOT true?
A. Bee hummingbirds’ eggs are smaller than peas.
B. Bee hummingbirds weigh less than a penny.
C. Bee hummingbirds have built nests on clothespins.
D. Bee hummingbirds do not grow larger than bees.
42. What is unique about the way that hummingbirds fly?
A. They can fly faster than any other bird. B.They can fly forward and backward.
C.They can fly longer than any other bird. D.They can only fly for a few seconds at a time.
43. The shopkeeper warned the boys don’t lean their bicycles against his windows.
A B C D
44. Despite John had a lot of things to do. he went fishing with his friends.
A B C D
45. Please remember when you are on duty, your uniform must have been worn
A B C
at all times.
D
46. But for the dog we would have got completely lost.
A. We got lost but we got the dog with us.
B. We didn’t lose our way as we brought the dog.
C. If we had brought the dog, we wouldn’t have got lost.
D. It was easy to lose our way even if we had the dog with us.
47. A big cupboard would take up a lot of space in this room.
A. We have a lot of space in this room for a big cupboard.
B. The space in this room isn’t too small for a big cupboard.
C. This room never has too much space for a big cupboard.
D. There isn’t enough space in this room for a big cupboard.
48. “My father doesn’t work in the factory any more,” Bella told us.
A. Bella said that her father no longer worked in the factory.
B. Bella wished that her father didn’t work in the factory any more.
C. Bella hoped that her father was used to working in the factory.
D. Bella denied that her father used to work in the factory.
49. The other passengers will get on the bus soon. Then we’ll leave.
A. We’ll leave before the other passengers get on the bus.
B. Unless we leave, the other passengers will get on the bus.
C. As soon as the other passengers get on the bus, we will leave.
D. The other passengers will get on the bus after the moment we leave.
50. The dogs watch the chicken coop. The dogs protect the chickens from wolves.
A. Protecting the chickens from wolves, the dogs watch the chicken coop from them.
B. They protect the chickens from wolves as the dogs watch the chicken coop.
C. Watching the chicken coop because the dogs protect chickens from wolves.
D. The dogs watch the chicken coop to protect the chickens from wolves.

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MỤC LỤC

Lời nối đầu............................................................................................3

I. THI TRẮC NGHIỆM

3. A. atmosphere B. accomplish C. handicap D. devastate

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