Pharmacology & Toxicology RED PACOP B. Both the agonist and antagonist have 11.

agonist have 11. Which of the following drugs does not C. Hydrolysis
1. Pharmacodynamics is similar chemical structure belong to the group? D. Sulfonation
A. The science that examines the C. It is reversible A. Omeprazole E. None of the above
interrelationship of the D. The antagonist does not have the B. Lansoprazole
physicochemical properties of the drug ability to activate the receptor C. Aripiprazole 18. Monoamine oxidase is an
and the route of administration on the E. None of the above D. Ranitidine A. Enzyme
rate and extent of systemic circulation E. All of the above B. Hormone
B. The science of the kinetics of drug 6. The relative measure f the safety and C. Inhibitor
absorption, distribution and elimination effectiveness of a drug is the ratio of TD50 to 12. Which of the following anti-TB drugs can D. Drug
C. The part of pharmacology, which ED50. The pharmacological term used to cause red-green color blindness E. Cosmetic
deals with what a drug does to the indicate this ratio is known as A. Rifamcin
body A. Pharmacological efficacy B. Isoniazid 19. Gon went to his farm to spray pesticide on
D. The science, which deals with the B. Pharmacological toxicity ratio C. Pyrazinamide his crops. Hour later he started to experience
physicochemical properties of the drug C. Therapeutic index D. Ethambutol diarrhea, vomiting, bronchoconstriction and
that allow it to be designed into D. Median effective ratio E. Streptomycin tachycardia. He was immediately sent to the
dosage forms E. Competitive antagonism hospital for treatment. Which of drugs should
E. A and B 13. Which of the following drugs is the least be given to Gon?
7. A physician may prescribed carbidopa considered as prodrug? A. Serine
2. Which of the following types of drugs binds along with levodopa to increase the halflife A. Captopril B. Edrophonium
to a receptor and produce an effect similar to levodopa and the duration of its anti- B. Enalapril C. Atropine
that of endogenous ligands? parkinsonian effect. This way of enhancing of C. Ramipril D. Prazosin
A. Inverse agonist drug effect is known as D. Accupril E. Methycephaline
B. Agonist A. Potentiation E. None of the above
C. Partial agonist B. Synergism 20. Aside from the answer in #19, what other
D. Competitive antagonist C. Addition 14. (Enervon®) tablet contains the following drug can be given to Gon?
E. Noncompetitive antagonist D. Partial antagonism EXCEPT: A. DOM
E. Competitive antagonism A. Nicotinamide B. DAM
3. Drugs ‘x’ binds to drug ‘y’ as a result of B. Calcium C. DEM
which an inactive complex is formed. This 8. Which of the following is the main organ of C. Ascorbic acid D. DIM
type of antagonism is called metabolism? D. Magnesium E. DUM
A. Competitive antagonism A. Kidney E. None of the above
B. Non-competitive antagonism B. Liver 21. Cookie was diagnosed to have HPN and
C. Physiologic antagonism C. Intestines 15. The sympathetic division of the ANS was prescribed beta-blockers for her
D. Neutralizing antagonism D. Pancreas stems from_____ treatment. She has a history of asthma. Which
E. Partial antagonism E. Heart A. Craniosacral of the ff. beta-blockers should be given to
B. Thoracolumbar cookie?
4. Epinephrine and acetylcholine act on the 9. Chloramphenicol is known for which of the C. Craniolumbar A. Propanolol
sympathatetic and parasympathetic following adverse side-effects? D. Thoracosacral B. Timolol
autonomic nervous system, respsectively, and A. Blue baby syndrome E. None of the above C. Levobunolol
their effects are opposite to each other. This B. Gray baby syndrome D. Metoprolol
type of antagonism is called C. Red man syndrome 16. Which of the following prevents the E. None of the above
A. competitive antagonism D. A and B storage of the acetylcholine to terminal
B. non competitive antagonism E. B and C vesicles? 22. Andrea is going perform in the 2011 spring
C. physiologic antagonism A. Vesamicol music festival. Hours before her performance
D. neutralizing antagonism 10. Co-amoxiclav: amoxicillin/clavulanic acid : B. Reserpine she started to experience “stage fright”. Which
co-trimoxazole _____ C. Botulinun toxin of the ff. drugs can be given to manage her
5. Which of the following is not true about A. Trimethoprim/mebendazole D. Hemicholinuim condition?
competitive antagonism? B. Triamterene/mebendazole E. None of the above A. Lasartan
A. It involves selective binding of the C. Triamterene/sulfamethoxazole B. Enalapril
antagonist to a particular type of D. Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole 17. The following are phase II reactions C. Propanolol
receptor in such a way as to prevent E. None of the above EXCEPT: D. Prazosin
the binding of the antagonist A. Acetylation E. Paracetamol
B. Methylation
23. The hydraulic equation is C. Headache 42. Which of the ff. vitamin can be used to
A. CO=PVR x BP D. All of the above 36. Which of the following does not belong to lower cholesterol levels?
B. PVR=CO x CO E. None of the above the group? A. Retinol
C. BP=CO x PVR A. Lidocaine B. Thiamine
D. All of the above 30. Montelukast is a/an B. Mepivacaine C. Riboflavin
E. None of the above A. Leukotriene pathway inhibitor C. Prilocaine D. Niacin
B. Mast cell stabilizer D. Benzocaine E. Panthothenic acid
24. Which of the ff. are substrates of kininase C. Anti – IgE monoclonal antibodies E. Arecholine
II/peptidyl dipeptidase? D. All of the above 43. Which of the given is considered the
A. Angiotensin I E. None of the above 37. What is the treatment for malignant DMAD”s of 1st choice to treat rheumatoid
B. Bradikinin hyperthermia? arthritis?
C. Angiotensin II 31. DOC for typical absence seizure A. Succinylcholine A. Cyclophosphamide
D. A and B A. Lamotrigin B. Gabapentin B. Methotrexate
E. A and C B. Phenytoin C. Rocuronium C. Azathioprine
C. Ethosuximide D. Dantrolene D. Mycophenolate mofetil
25. Lanoxin acts on which of the following. D. Carbamazepine E. Arecholine E. Cyclodextrins
A. Na/K ATPase pump E. All of the above
B. Na/H ATPase pump 38. Which of the following antiviral drug can 44. Isoniazid can cause the following
C. H/K ATPase pump 32. Flumazenil is be used for Parkinsonism? laboratory data except?
D. Na/Ca ATPase pump A. Barbiturate antagonist A. Abacavir A. Lactic acidosis
E. None of the above B. Benzodiazepine antagonist B. Dinanosine B. Anemia
C. Barbiturates antagonist C. Efavirenz C. Hypoglycaemia
26. Anti-arrhythmic drugs under class 4 acts D. Benzodiazepine agonist D. Amantadine D. Leukocytes
on E. None of the above E. NOTA E. NOTA
A. Na channels
B. Ca channels 33. Arrange the correct order of the stages of 39. Jet a five year old boy is having a problem 45. DOC for chronic gout
C. K channels anesthesia with bed wetting. What drug can be prescribed A. Colchicines
D. B blockers I. Stage of excitement for his condition? B. Probenecid
E. None of the above II. Stage of medullary depression A. Citalopram C. Febuxostat
III. Stage of surgical anesthesia B. Furosemine D. Serine
27. Which of the following are loop diuretics? IV. Stage of analgesia C. Sertraline E. Allopurinol
I. Ethacrynic acid A. I,IV,II,III D. Amitriptyline
II. Furosemide B. IV,I,II,III E. Amilorine 46. A peptide hormone secreted by the
III. Bumetimide C. IV,I,III,II posterior pituitary that participates in labor and
IV. Indapamide D. I,IV,III,II 40. It is the dextrorotatory stereoisomer of delivery and elicits milk injection in lactating
A. I and II E. None of the above methylated derivative of levorphanol which is women.
B. II and III used as antitussive? A. Prolactin
C. I and IV 34. Dissociative anesthetic state characterized A. Codeine B. Oxcytocin
D. I, II and III by catatonia, amnesia, and analgesia can be B. Dextromethorphan C. Insulin
E. II, III and IV produced by which drug? C. Dolophine D. Somatostatin
A. Etomidate D. Revex E. Simvastatin
28. Andrei works as a pilot in an airline B. Ketamine E. Morphine
company. Which of the following C. Propofol 47. Which of the following betablockers is
antihistamines can he take? D. Thiopental 41. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors are most widely used in the therapy of
A. Fexofenadine E. Seconal advised to be given during night time with the thyrotoxicosis?
B. Bromoheniramine EXEPTION of _______ which can be given A. Betaxolol
C. Promethazine 35. Neuroleptanesthesia is produce by which anytime of the day. B. Bisoprolol
D. Chlorpheniramine drug combination? A. Simvastatin C. Metoprolol
E. All of the above A. Fentanyl, droperidol and NO B. Lovastatin D. Propranolol
B. Propofol, fentanyl and halothane C. Atorvastatin E. Linalool
29. 5HT3 antgonist are used for: C. Fentanyl, etomidate and halothane D. Flivastatin
A. Nausea and vomiting D. All of the above E. NOTA
B. Diarrhea E. None of the above
48. Marie is pregnant and was diagnosed with E. I and III only C. Neomycin and gentamicin
thyrotoxicosis. Which of the following D. All of the above 68. Methylated morphine
thionamodes shoul be given to her? 54. Calcitonon E. None of the above A. Codeine
A. PTU A. Lower serum calcuim and phosphate B. Heroin
B. Methimazole B. Increase serum calcium and 61. Trimethoprim acts on C. Methadone
C. Carbimazide phosphate A. Dihydropteroate synthase D. Naloxone
D. Mebendazole C. Increase serum phosphate only B. Dihydrofolate reductase E. all of the above
E. All of the above D. Both A and B C. DNA gyrase
E. Neither A nor B D. A and B 69. Which of the following H2- antagonist has
49. Soluble “peakles”, ultra long acting analog E. A and C the highest bioavailability?
A. Glargine 55. What is the oral form of penicillin? A. Cimetidine
B. NPH A. Pen G 62. This anti-fungal drugs absorption is B. Ranitidine
C. Insulin lispro B. Pen V improved when taken with fatty foods: C. Famotidine
D. All of the above C. Pen C A. Ketoconazole D. Nizatidine
D. None of the above B. 5-flucytosine E. None of the above
50. Safest sulfonylurea for the elderly E. All of the above C. Nystatin
diabetics D. Griseofulvin 70. Which is the most potent H2- antagonist?
A. Tolbutamide 56. What is the 1st generation PARENTERAL E. All of the above A. Cimetidine
B. Chlorpropamide cephalosporin still in general use? B. Ranitidine
C. Tolazamide A. Cefalexin 63. This drug is the treatment of choice for C. Famotidine
D. Nateglinide B. Cephadrine giardiasis, trichomoniasis and amoebiasis. D. Nizatidine
E. None of the above C. Cefadoxole A. Iodoquinol E. All of the above
D. Cefazolin B. Diloxanide furoate
51. Synthetic analog of amylin that modulate E. All of the above C. Metronidazole 71. Plasil® is
postprandial glucose levels and is approved D. paramomycin A. Metoclopramide
for preprandial use in individuals with type I 57. Vancomycin is from E. none of the above B. Chlopropamide
and type II DM A. Streptococcus orientalis C. Enalapril
A. Sitagliptin B. Streptomyces orientalis 64. Prussian blue is used to chelate D. Furosemide
B. Pramlintide C. Streptococcus orchidaceus A. Thallium E. All of the above
C. Exenatide D. Streptomyces orchidaceus B. Cesium
D. All of the above E. None of the above C. Cyanide 72. Silymarin is for the
E. None of the above D. A and B A. Liver
58. Which of the following is derived from E. B and C B. Kidney
52. Useful for reversing the cardiac effects of erythromycin by addition of methyl group and C. Brain
an overdose of B-blocking agents because has an improved acid stability and oral 65. Treatment for iron poisoning D. All of the above
ability to increase cAMP production in the absorption A. Deferoxamine E. None of the above
heart A. Azithromycin B. Methylene blue
A. Amylin B. Clarithromycin C. Ferroin 73. Ginkgo should not be given with
B. Exenatide C. Clindamycin D. Penicillamine A. Aspirin
C. Sitagliptin D. Streptomycin E. None of the above B. Vancomycin
D. Glucagon E. None of the above C. Caffeine
E. All of the above 66. Antidote for acetaminophen overdose D. Juice
59. Concurrent use of aminoglycoside with A. NAC E. All of the above
53. Vitamin D is loop diuretics may result to: B. Atropine
I. Has vitamin D2 as a natural A. Ototoxicity C. Bicarbonate 74. Royal jelly is used as
form B. Neprhrotoxicity D. Fomepizole A. Diet aid
II. A secosteroid C. Hypertension E. All of the above B. Analgesic
III. Produced in the skin from 7- D. Both A and B C. Tonic
dehydrocholoesterol E. None of the above 67. Acetylated morphine D. Digestive aid
A. I only A. Codeine E. All of the above
B. III only 60. The most ototoxic aminoglycosides are: B. Heroin
C. II and III only A. Neomycin and kanamycin C. Methadone 75. What is the mechanism of action of a
D. A and II only B. Streptomycin and gentamicin D. Naloxone chloramphenicol?
 A. Cell wall synthesis inhibitor A. Reversible inhibition of A. An increase of the action potential D. It inhibits aromatic L-amino acid
B. Protein synthesis inhibitor acetylcholinesterase amplitude decarboxylase
C. DNA gyrase inhibitor B. Spasm of accomodation B. An increase in ATP synthesis E. It inhibits monoamine oxidase type B
D. Antimetabolite C. Constipation C. A modification of the actin molecule 91. This drug is a hydrazide derivative that
E. None of the above D. Bronchoconstriction D. An increase in systolic intracellular binds irreversibly to monoamine oxidase types
76. Mr. Jones is admitted to General Hospital E. Weakness of skeletal muscle calcium levels A and B, resulting in prolonged inhibition of
with pneumonia due to gram-negative E. A block of sodium-calcium exchange amine metabolism.
bacteria. The antibiotic tobramycin is ordered. 81. Typical symptoms of cholinesterase A. Amoxapine
The CL and Vd of tobramycin in Mr. Joses are inhibitor toxicity include all of the following 86. Which of the following is (are) frequently B. Amitriptyline
80 ml/min and 40 L. respectively. What EXCEPT associated with increased gastrointestinal C. Isocarboxazid
maintenance dosage must be administered A. Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea motility and diarrhea D. Maprotiline
intravenously every 6 hours to eventually B. Salivation A. Timolol E. Fluoxetine
obtain average steady-state plasma C. Miosis B. Prostaglandins E1 and E2
concentrations of 4 mg/L? D. Paralysis of skeletal muscle C. Corticosteroids 92. This drug has analgesic efficacy
A. 0.32 mg E. Paralysis of accommodation D. Leukotriene B4 equivalent to morphine. It is an antagonist at
B. 115 mg E. None of the above mu receptors.
C. 160 mg 82. Atropine overdosage may cause all of the A. Dextromethorphan
D. 230 mg following EXCEPT 87. The major action of cromolyn B. Nalbuphine
E. None of the above A. Mental aberrations A. Smooth muscle relaxation release in C. Methadone
B. Relaxation of gastrointestinal smooth the bronchi D. Codeine
77. If you wish to give Mr. Jones (of question muscle B. Stimulation of cortisol release by the E. Naltrexone
101) a loading dose to achieve the therapeutic C. Decrease in gastric secretion adrenals
plasma concentration of 4 mg/L immediately, D. Papillary constriction C. Block of calcium channels in 93. This antagonist drug has been proposed
how much should you give? E. Increase in cardiac rate lymphocytes as a maintenance drug for addicts in
A. 0.1 mg D. Block of mediator release from mast treatment programs. A single oral dose will
B. 10 mg 83. A college friend consults you regarding the cells block the effects of injected heroin for up to 48
C. 115.2 mg suitability of the theraphy his doctor has E. Block of cAMP synthesis in basophils hours.
D. 160 mg prescribed for hypertension. He complains of A. Dextromethorphan
E. None of the above postural and exercise hypotension 88. Each of the following is recognized as a B. Nalbuphine
(“dizziness”), some diarrhea, and problems central neurotransmitter EXCEPT C. Methadone
78. Biotransformation (metabolism) usually with ejaculation during sex. Which of the A. Serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine, 5-HT) D. Codeine
results in a product that is following is most likely to produce these B. Norepinephrine E. Naltrexone
A. More likely to distribute intracellularly effects? C. Dopamine
B. Less lipid-soluble than the the original A. Propranol D. cAMP 94. This drug is free of analgesic and
drug B. Guanethedine E. Acetylcholine addictive properties and only rarely causes
C. More likely to be reabsorbed by kidney C. Prazosin constipation. It is an effective antitussive.
tubules D. Hydralizine 89. Which ONE of the following best describes A. Dextromethorphan
D. More lipid-soluble than the original E. Captopril the mechanism of action of benzodiazepines? B. Nalbuphine
drug A. Blockade of the excitatory actions of C. Methadone
E. All of the above 84. Captopril and Enalapril do all of the glutamic acid D. Codeine
following EXCEPT B. inhibition of GABA transaminase E. Naltrexone
79. Physostigimine and bethanechol in small A. Increase renin concentration in the leading to increased levels of GABA
doses have similar effects on all of the blood C. Activation of glycine receptors in the 95. This drug is a full antagonist at opioid
following EXCEPT B. Inhibit an enzyme spinal cord receptors. It has analgesic activity equivalent
A. Neuromuscular junction (skeletal C. Competitively inhibit angiotensin at its D. Facilitation of GABA-mediated to that of morphine, but its actions are more
muscle) receptor increases in chloride conductance prolonged. Withdrawal signs on abrupt
B. Salivary glands D. Decrease the angiotensin II discontinuance are milder than those with
C. Ureteral tone concentration in the blood 90. Which of the following statements about morphine.
D. Sweat glands E. Increase sodium and decrease carbidopa is accurate? A. Dextromethorphan
E. Gastric secretion potassium levels in the urine A. It crosses the blood brain barrier B. Nalbuphine
B. It inhibits monoamine oxidase type A C. Methadone
80. Pyridostigmine and neostigmine may 85. The primary mechanism of action of C. It is converted to the false transmitter, D. Codeine
cause all of the following EXCEPT digitalis involves carbidopamine E. Naltrexone
 102. Important drugs used in the treatment of C. Their antibacterial action involves A. Dactinomycin
96. Activation of plasminogen to plasmin thyrotoxicosis include all of the following binding to the 50s ribosomal subunit B. Daunorubucin
A. Is brought about by heparin EXCEPT and subsequent inhibition of C. Vincristine
B. Is brought about by warfarin A. PTU peptidyltransferase D. Cisplastin
C. Is brought about by anistreplase B. KI D. Clinical resistance occurs through E. Mechlorethamine
D. Is used preoperatively and during C. Thyroglobulin plasmid-mediated formation of group
surgery in patients at risk of deep vein D. Radioactive iodine transferase-inactivating enzymes 113. Which of the following is (are) important
thromboses E. Methimazole E. Staphylococci resistant to methicillin adjuvants in cancer chemotheraphy involving
E. Can be reversed by administration of are usually resistant to cyclophosphamide and ifosfamide to prevent
Vitamin K1 oxide 103. All of the following act by a similar aminoglycosides urotoxicity?
mechanism EXCEPT A. MESNA
97. Aspirin should be used cautiously in a A. Tolbutamide 108. The primary reason for the use of drug B. Acrolein
patient receiving heparin because aspirin B. Tolazamide combinations in the treatment of TB is to C. Sodium 2-sulfanylthanesulfate
A. Inhibits Vitamin K absorption C. Chlorpropamide A. Prolong the plasma half-life of each D. A and B
B. Has antithrombin activity D. Glipizide drug E. A and C
C. Inhibits heparin metabolism E. Metformin B. Lower the incidence of adverse effects
D. Inhibits platelet aggregation C. Enhance the activity against 114. Which of the following is true about the
E. All of the above 104. All of the following antimicrobial agents metabolically inactive mycobacteria drug Pritor®?
are inhibitors of protein synthesis EXCEPT D. Delay the emergence of resistance A. It is of the same therapeutic class and
98. Increased levels of which of the following A. Clindamycin E. All of the above indication as Hypace® and Diovan ®
may be associated with a decreased risk of B. Tetracycline B. It is used to treat essential
atherosclerosis? C. Vancomycin 109. Which ONE of the following anticancer hypertension
A. VLDL D. Stretomycin drugs is cell cycle nonspecific? C. It is associated with tachycardia,
B. LDL E. Chloramphenicol A. Vinblastine bradycardia, hypotension, and edema
C. IDL B. Etoposide D. A and B
D. HDL 105. The mechanism of antibacterial action of C. Cytarabine E. B and C
E. Cholesterol cephalosporins involves D. Daunorubucin
A. Inhibition of peptide synthesis E. All of the above 115. Which of the following is not present in
99. Which of the following causes a reduction B. Interference with the synthesis of Cluviscol® tablets?
in absorption of bile acids from the GIT ergosterol 110. Which of the following is not a proton- A. Vitamin D2 400 IU
A. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors C. Inhibition of transpeptidase enzymes pump inhibitor? B. Calcium 120mg
B. Colestipol D. Inhibition of beta-lactamases A. Omeprazole C. Ferrous fumarate 15mg
C. Niacin E. Inhibiton of DNA gyrase B. Metronidazole D. Vitamin C 150mg
D. Probucol C. Pantoprazole E. Cobalt 3mg
E. All of the above 106. The mechanism of antibacterial action of D. Lansoprazole
tetracycline involves E. None of the above 116. Which of the following is true regarding
100. Drugs used in the treatment of gout A. Inhibition of the conversion of N-acetylcysteine?
include the following EXCEPT lanosterol to ergosterol 111. Filariasis, an infection which can lead to A. Intravenously, it is indicated for the
A. Indomethacin B. Inhibition of DNA-dependent RNA lymphatic obstructive disease, is caused by treatment of paracetamol poisoning
B. Allopurinol polymerase Wuchereria bancrofti and Brugia malay. B. It is used as a mucolytic agent
C. Colchicines C. Blockade of binding of aminoacyl- Eradication of the microfilaria can be C. It is marketed as Acetadote®,
D. Probenecid tRNA to bacterial ribosomes accomplished by the use of which of the Fluimucil® and Hidonac®
E. Aspirin D. Selective inhibition of ribosomal following agents? D. A and B only
peptidyltransferases A. Praziquantel E. A, B and C
101. All of the following are hormones E. None of the above B. Diethylcarbamazine
EXCEPT C. Niclosamide 117. Which of the following is true regarding
A. Bromocriptine 107. All of the following statements about D. Albendazole Cellcept®?
B. Somatotropin aminoglycosides are accurate EXCEPT E. Metronidazole A. It contains a prodrug that is converted
C. Thyrotropin A. They exert synergistic effects with to the active drug in the liver.
D. Vasopressin beta-lactam antibiotics against 112. Which of the following antineosplastic B. It inhibits inosine monophosphate
E. Somatomedin selected organisms agents is considered as cell cycle phase- dehydrogenase
B. They are bactericidal specific agent in terms of its action on cancer C. It decreases B cell proliferation
cells? D. A and B only
 E. A, B and C
118. Xalatan® can best be described as a(n)
A. Cholinesterase inhibitor
B. Osmotic diuretic
C. Beta-adrenergic blocking agent
D. Prodrug
E. Prostaglandin agonist
119. As an antiarrythmic drug, Tonocard® is
most similar in mechanism of action to which
one of the following agents?
A. Amiodarone
B. Propranolol
C. Flecainide
D. Verapamil
E. Mexiletine
120. Which of the following antiarrythmic
drugs is (are) associated with an adverse
effect of cinchonism?
A. Acebutolol
B. Moricizine
C. Quinidine
D. Lidocaine
E. Disopyramide
121. Colestipol can be classified as a(n)
A. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor
B. Vasopressor
C. Potassium-sparing diuretic
D. ACE inhibitor
E. Bile acid sequestrant
122. Valium® appear to act as anxiolytic by
A. Altering the Na ion influx into the CNS
B. Potentiating the effects of GABA
C. Altering the Ca ion influx into the CNS
D. Interfering with amine pump
E. Inhibiting the action of MAO
123. Clavunalic acid in Timentin®
A. Inhibits beta-lactamases
B. Prevents the urinary excretion of
ticarcillin
C. Prevents first pass metabolism of
ticarcillin
D. Is a buffer
E. Is an antiprotozoal agent
124. Propylthiouracil is used for the same
indication as
A. Fluororacil
B. Danazol 134. Statement 1: Lescol® and Lipitor® inhibit
C. Omeprazole 130. Statement 1: Somatotropin is secreted by the formation of mevalonate by the HMG-CoA
D. Pramipexole the posterior pituitary. Statement 2: Alpha- reductase. Statement 2: Lescol® is
E. Methimazole hypophamine is secreted by the posterior contraindicated for use in patients who are
125. Which of the following is an indication of pituitary. pregnant
Ergotamine? A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2
A. Partial seizures is incorrect is incorrect
B. Arthritic pain B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1
C. Tachycardia is incorrect is incorrect
D. Psoriasis C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
E. Migraine headaches D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are
incorrect incorrect
126. At clinical doses, anti-Parkinson’s E. None of the above E. None of the above
Disease Eldepryl® is a (n):
A. MAO-A inhibitor 131. Statement 1: Inhalation of cannabis may 135. Statement 1: Scopolamine is available in
B. MAO-B inhibitor cause the decreased pulse rate, perceptual a transdermal form for the prevention of
C. COMT changes and vascular congestion of the eye. motion sickness. Statement 2: It acts by
D. Anticholinergic Statement 2: The active component in blocking muscarinic acetylcholine receptors.
E. All of the above cannabis is 9-tetrahydocannabinol. A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2
A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is incorrect
127. Which hypoglycemic agent is most is incorrect B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1
similar in pharmacological action in miglitol? B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 is incorrect
A. Glipizide is incorrect C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
B. Lispro insulin C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are
C. Proglitazone D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
D. Replaganide incorrect E. None of the above
E. Acarbose E. None of the above
136. Statement 1: Haloperidol is not an
128. Statement 1: Simeco® contains 25mg of 132. Statement 1: Warfarin therapy is antipsychotic while chlorpromazine is an
simethicone. Statement 2: It is used for the monitored by INR. Statement 2: It is important antipsychotic used clinically. Statement 2:
sympotomatic relief of hyperacidity and to maintain the INR between 2 to 3. Haloperidol does not produced extrapyramidal
flatulence. A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 effects in contrast to chlorpromazine.
A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is incorrect A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2
is incorrect B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 is incorrect
B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 is incorrect B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1
is incorrect C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct is incorrect
C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are
incorrect E. None of the above incorrect
E. All of the above E. None of the above
133. Statement 1: Ridaura® is a gold-
129. Statement 1: Ceporex®is a trade name cointaining DMARD. Statement 2: It is 137. Statement 1: The “first-dose” effect is
for cefalexin. Statement 2: cefaclor belong to indicated in the treatment of rheumatoid characterized by marked hypotension on
the same generation of cephalosporins as arthritis and multiple sclerosis. taking the first few doses of medication.
cephalexin. A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 Statement 2: This effect is seen with the use
A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is incorrect of doxazosin.
is incorrect B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2
B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 is incorrect is incorrect
is incorrect C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1
C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are is incorrect
D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
incorrect E. None of the above D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are
E. None of the above incorrect
 E. None of the above I. Bacampicillin B. It is an antiviral drug D. dispositional antagonism
II. Amoxicillin C. It is contraindicated to pregnant E. none of the above
138. Statement 1: Dilantin® blocks voltage- III. Ampicillin patient
gated Ca ion channel in the neuron. A. I only D. It requires to be taken at right 153. When a chemical A and B administered
Statement 2: Its use is associated with B. III only E. NOTA simultaneously, their combine effects are far
adverse effects such as gingival hyperplasia, C. I and II only greater than the sum of their effects when
hirsutism and ataxia. D. II and III only 148. Which of the following is (are) true about given alone. The chemical interaction between
A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 E. I, II and III only dobutamine? chemicals A and B can be described as which
is incorrect A. It is clinically use as an antidepressant of the following?
B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 143. Which of the following is (are) used as an and antihypertensive agent. A. Potentiative
is incorrect anti-fungal agent? B. It is only given parentally B. Additive
C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct I. Cycloserine C. It is stumulate beta-1 receptor C. Antagonistic
D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are II. Mafenide D. A and B D. functionally antagonistic
incorrect III. Terbinafine E. B and C E. synergistic
E. None of the above A. I only
B. III only 149. Which of the following is true about 154. A type of antagonism that occurs when
139. Statement 1: Accutane® is a vitamin A C. I and II only fentanyl? the absorption, biotransformation, distribution,
derivative that is under pregnancy category X. D. II and III only A. It is available as a transdermal system or excretion of chemical is altered so that the
Statement 2: It is used for the treatment of E. I, II and III only B. It may be use as a cough suppressant concentration and duration at the target of
patients Psoriasis and alopecia. C. It is use as local anesthetic diminished.
A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 144. Which of the following is (are) blockers of D. Both A and C A. receptor antagonism
is incorrect H1 receptors? E. Both A and B B. functional antagonism
B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 I. Diphenhydramine C. chemical antagonism
is incorrect II. Hydroxyzine 150. reserpine, an alkaloid from rauwolfia can D. dispositional antagonism
C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct III. Ranitidine lower the blood pressure and depress the E. none of the above
D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are A. I only CNS. What enzyme or part of the biosynthetic
incorrect B. III only pathway is inhibited by reserpine to bring 155. A type of dose response relationship
E. None of the above C. I and II only about these effect? which describe the response of an individual
D. II and III only A. DOPA decarboxylase or organism to varying doses of chemical.
140. Which of the following is(are) E. I, II and III only B. Storage of catecholamines in the A. individual dose-response relationship
dopaminergic anti-parkinson’s agents presynaptic vesicle B. quantal dose-response relationship
I. Ropinerole 145. Which of the following is (are) false about C. Release of norepinephrine from C. graded dose-response relationship
II. Pergolide milrinone lactate? presynaptic terminals D. both A and B
III. Procyclidine A. It may be administered Orally or D. MAO enzyme E. both A and C
A. I only parenterally E. Uptake- 1 mechanism
B. III only B. It produces positive inotropic action 156. A type of dose response relationship
C. I and II only C. Altering the Ca ion influx into the CNS 151. Which of the following areas of which characterized the distribution of
D. I,II and III D. It inhibits phosphodiesterase 3, toxicology focuses on the primarily on the response to different doses in a population of
E. NOTA thereby increasing cAMP levels medico legal aspects of the harmful effects of individual organism.
E. Both A and D chemical in the human and animals A. individual dose-response relationship
141. Which of the following is protease A. Environmental toxicology B. quantal dose-response relationship
inhibitors 146. The following statements about alteplase B. Clinical toxicology C. graded dose-response relationship
I. Cidofovir are true except: C. Forensic toxicology D. both A and B
II. Acyclovir A. It is produce by recombinant DNA D. Developmental toxicology E. both A and C
III. Nelfinavir technology E. Reproductive toxicology
A. I only B. It is a tissue plasminogen activator 157. A dose U- shaped dose response
B. III only C. It is administered parenterally 152. A type of antagonism that occurs when curved which result with some xenobiotics that
C. I and II only D. It stimulate RBC production two chemicals counterbalance each other by imparts beneficial or stimulatory effects at low
D. II and III only E. NOTA producing opposite effect on the same doses but adverse effects at higher doses.
E. I, II and III only physiological function. A. hormesis
147. The following statements about Zocor® A. receptor antagonism B. threshold
142. Which of the following are are true except: B. functional antagonism C. individual dose response curve
aminopenicillins A. Inhibit the HMG-CoA reductase. C. chemical antagonism D. graded response curve
 E. none of the above D. chloroform B. Gasoline vapour emissions and auto- A. Iron
158. It is defined as the ratio of the dose E. carbon tetrachloride exhauted are the two main B. Copper
required to produce a toxic effect and the contributors to benzene inhalation. C. Zinc
dose need to illicit desire therapeutic 164. It is use primarily in the production of the C. Benzene is used as an ingredient in D. Both A & B only
response. refrigerant chlorodifluoromethane. unleaded poisoning. E. All of the above
A. ED50 A. toluene D. Benzene metabolites covalently bind
B. threshold B. carbon tetrachloride DNA, RNA and protein and interfere 176. Metals related to medicinal therapy
C. therapeutic index C. ethanol with their normal functioning A. Aluminium
D. LD50 D. benzene E. Reactive oxygen species can be B. Lithium
E. none of the above E. chloroform delivered from benzene C. Platinum
D. Both A & B only
159. Areas of toxicology that focuses on the 165. Metabolite of phosgene which damage 170. Which of the following is NOT associated E. All of the above
impact of chemical pollutants in the membranes and other intracellular structures with glycol ether toxicity?
environment on biological organism, specilly leading to necrosis and tumor formation. A. Hematotoxicity 177. The following pesticides are correctly
studying the impacts of chemicals on A. tetrachloroethylene B. Craniofacial malformation matched EXCEPT:
nonhuman organism B. phosgene C. Seminiferous tubule atrophy A. Rodenticides –rats
A. forensic toxicology C. methylene chloride D. Irreversible spermatotoxicity B. Molluscides –snails
B. clinical toxicology D. ethylbenzene E. Cleft lip C. Pediculocides – lice
C. developmental toxicology E. none of the above D. Fungicides –molds
D. reproductive toxicology 171. A major constituent of antifreeze, E. Ascaricies –insects
E. environmental toxicology 166. Enzyme catalyses oxidation of ethanol to hydraulic fluids and drying agents.
acetaldehyde A. Methanol 178. Insecticidesm first developed from the
160. The dose required to result in a response A. aldehyde dehydrogenase B. Glycol ethers extracts from the flower heads of
in 50 percent of population. B. catalase C. Propylene glycol chrysanthemum cinerariaefolium
A. median dose C. alcohol dehydrogenase D. Ethylene glycol A. DDT
B. ceiling dose D. both A and C E. Ethanol B. Rotenoids
C. potency E. none of the above C. Pyrethrins
D. LD50 172. It is also known as quick silver. D. Aldrin
E. ED50 167. Ingestion of these substance may cause A. Ag E. Endrin
visual disturbance ranging from mild B. Hg
161. Place the following mechanism of toxin photophobia and blurred vision to markedly C. Mg 179. Which of the following drugs may induce
delivery in order from most effective to least reduced acuity and complete blindness D. Sb visual system abnormalities such as
effective. 1: intravenous 2:subcutaneous 3: A. Ethanol E. As decreased vision, flickering scotomas and
oral 4: inhalation 5: dermal B. Chloroform altered color vision.
A. 1,5,2,4,3 C. Ethylene glycol 173. Contact dermatitis is the most common A. Digoxin
B. 4,1,2,3,5 D. Methanol adverse effect of which of the following B. Metoprolol
C. 1,4,2,3,5 E. Carbon tetrachloride metals? C. Colchicine
D. 4,2,1,5,3 A. Nickel D. Rifampicin
E. 1,4,3,2,5 168. Which of the following is NOT an B. Copper E. Lidocaine
important enzyme in ethanol metabolism? C. Arsenic
162. It is the primary rout of exposure of A. Alcohol dehydrogenase D. Lead 180. A drug that is used to ameliorate nausea
benzene in industrial setting. B. Formaldehyde decarboxylase E. Cadmium and vomiting in pregnancy but results to
A. inhalation C. CYP2E1 malformations of Amelia and various degree
B. subcutaneous D. Catalase 174. Wilson’s disease is an autosomal genetic of phocomelia.
C. oral E. Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase disorder caused by which of the following A. Diethylstilbestrol
D. dermal metals? B. Thalidomine
E. intravenous 169. Which of the following statements A. Aluminium C. Ethanol
regarding benzene is false? B. Copper D. Nicotine
163. Toxic substance present in paints, A. High level exposure to benzene could C. Arsenic E. Retinoids
lacquer, thinners, cleaning agent and glues. result in acute myelogenous leukemia D. Cadmium
A. benzene (AML) E. Lead 181. The main target for lead toxicity
B. ethanol especially in developing fetus and young
C. toluene 175. Essential chemicals EXCEPT? children.
 A. Bone marrow D. Vitamin K E. Accumulation of iron within
B. Kidneys 188. It is the antidote for warfarin toxicity. E. Vitamin B complex erythroblast
C. Gastrointestinal tract A. Vitamin K 195. The following drugs and chemicals are 201. the normal erythrocyte has metabolic
D. Reproductive organs B. Vitamin C associated with the development of aplastic mechanism for reducing heme iron to ferrous
E. Central nervous system C. Vitamin E anemia EXCEPT state. Failure of these control mechanism may
D. Pyridoxime A. Tetracycline lead to which of the following?
182. Minamata Disease is caused by E. Thiamine B. Chloramphenicol A. Aplastic anemia
A. Lead C. Carbamazepine B. Megaloblastic anemia
B. Cadmium 189. Toxins found in peanuts D. Indomethacin C. Methemoglobinemia
C. Mercury A. Saxitoxin E. Nitric oxide D. Iron deficiency anemia
D. Silver B. Cigutoxin E. Sideroblastic anemia
E. arsenic C. Scrombroid 196. Laboratory test used to monitor therapy
D. Aflatoxin with unfractionated heparin. 202. This type of anemia is characterized by
183. In japan, Itai-itai disease is caused by E. Tetrodotoxin A. aPTT peripheral blood pancytopenia,
consumption of rice contaminated by B. Creatine kinase reticulocytopenia, and bone marrow
A. Lead 190. Toxins found in several species of C. AST hypoplasia.
B. Cadmium Alexandrium dinoflagellates D. PT A. Aplastic anemia
C. Mercury A. Saxitoxin E. ALT B. Megaloblastic anemia
D. Silver B. Cigutoxin C. Iron deficiency anemia
E. Arsenic C. Scrombroid 197. Laboratory test used to monitor therapy D. Sideroblastic anemia
D. Aflatoxin with warfarin. E. Methemoglobinemia
184. Chronic exposure to this metal result to E. Tetrodotoxin A. Aptt
hyperpigmentation and hyperkeratosis of the B. Creatine kinase 203. It is used to treat APAP toxicity; its
palm and soles. 191. Toxin produced by puffer fish. C. AST primary action is to enhance hepatocyte
A. Lead A. Saxitoxin D. PT synthesis of glutathione.
B. Cadmium B. Tetrodotoxin E. ALT A. Vitamin K
C. Mercury C. Scromboid B. Fomepizole
D. Silver D. Aflatoxin 198. The following are clotting factors inhibited C. Disulfiram
E. Arsenic E. ciguatoxin by warfarin and its analogs EXCEPT D. N-acetylcysteine
A. III E. None of the above
185. It is also known as dimercaprol 192. The most prevalent polycyclic aromatic B. X
A. Succimer hydrocarbon found in cigarette smoke. C. IX 204. Which of the following metals is NOT
B. Unithol A. scromboid D. VII nephrotoxic?
C. Deferoxamine B. Benzopyrene E. II A. Cadmium
D. BAL C. Ciguatoxin B. Lead
E. Penicillamine D. Anthracene 199. Which of the following type of anemia is C. Mercury
E. Nicotine properly paired with its cause? D. Platinum
186. It is mixture of copper and arsenic salt A. Megaloblastic anemia- lead poisoning E. None of the above
that is used to control insects in 1800’s 193. This naturally occurring furan is produced B. Aplastic anemia-ethanol
A. Bordeaux by the mold Fusarium solani that infects sweet C. Sideroblastic anemia-vitamin B12 205. Shaver’s disease is caused by
B. Rotenone potatoes. deficiency A. Ammonia
C. DDT A. Ciguatoxin D. Megaloblastic anemia-folate B. Cadmium oxide
D. Paris green B. Monocratolin supplementation C. Hydrogen fluoride
E. Pyrethrin C. Ipomeanol E. Iron deficiency anemia-blood loss D. Bauxite fumes
D. Anthracene E. Kaolin
187. A natural compound derived from E. Benzopyrene 200. The inability to synthesize the porphyrin
Urginea maritime and is effective in controlling ring of haemoglobin will most likely to result in 206. Chemotherapeutic agent that causes
rodents. 194. Exposure to this vitamin can cause which of the following? pulmonary fibrosis.
A. Pyretrin malformation of the face, limbs, heart, CNS A. Iron deficiency anemia A. Vincristine
B. Red squill and skeleton of the developing fetus. B. Inability to synthesize thymidine, B. Doxorubicin
C. Paris Green A. Vitamin A C. Improper RBC mitosis C. Bleomycin
D. Bordeaux mixture B. Vitamin D D. Bone marroe hyperplasia D. Vinblastine
E. Rotenone C. Vitamin C E. Azathioprine
 213. Metabolite of bromobenzene that is 219. Which of the following drugs/chemical B. Ehrlichiosis
207. Mycotoxin found in claviceps purpurea. approximately thousand fold more potent than may cause hypopigmentation of the skin? C. Lyme disease
A. Aflatoxin bromobenzene in producing nephrotoxicity. A. Chloroquine D. Rocky mountain spotted fever
B. Saxitoxin A. Cystein B. Amiodarone E. Q-fever
C. Ciquatoxin B. Phosgene C. Bleomycin
D. Ergot C. Cysteine-S-conjufate D. Hydroquinone 226. Neurotoxin found in black widow spiders.
E. Tetrodotoxin D. Glutathione E. Minocycline A. Serotoxin
E. Diglutathione conjugate of B. Loxosceles
208. The most toxic type of aflatoxin. hydroquinone 220. An organic compounds that is C. Latrotoxin
A. B1 approximately 49% elemental mercury by D. Rotenone
B. B2 214. It is the toxic metabolite of methanol that weight and has been widely used as E. Saxitoxine
C. G1 mediates the metabolic acidosis as well as preservative since 1930’s in contact lens
D. G2 retinal toxicity. solution, biologics, and vaccine particularly 227. A species of which of the following
E. None of the above A. Formic acid those in multi-dose container. animals produces a venom that contains 60%
B. Acetaldehyde A. Thimerosal formic acid?
209. Neurotoxin found in improperly canned C. Acetic acid B. Merthiolate A. Snakes
foods. D. Phosgene C. Mercurothiolate B. Lizards
A. Aflatoxin E. Chloroquine D. Sodium ethylmercuriethiosalisylate C. Ants
B. Ciguatoxin E. all of the above D. Scorpions
C. Saxitoxin 215. Anti-tubercular agent that may cause E. spiders
D. Tetrodotoxin optic neuropathy 221. Which of the following drugs is/are often
E. Botulinum toxin A. Rifampicin associated with phototoxic reaction? 228. Which of the following is NOT
B. Isoniazid A. Tetracycline characteristic of Lepidoptera envenomation?
210. A growth promoter in animals that is no C. Pyrazinamide B. Sulphonamides A. Decreased plasminogen levels
longer use because of the discovery that D. Ethambutol C. Sulfonylureas B. Increased risk of haemorrhaging
tumor of genital organ have developed in the E. Streptomycin D. Phenothiazine C. Decreased partial thromboplastin time
offspring of mothers who had taken this during E. All of the above D. Increased in prothrombin time
pregnancy in large dose for medical purposes. 216. A deficiency of which of the following E. Decreased fibrinogen levels
A. Diethylstilbestrol vitamins can result in degeneration of optic 222. Dicumarol is fungal metabolite that
B. Testosterone nerve fibers? causes which of the following? 229. Food Poisoning with which of the
C. Progesterone A. Vitamin A A. Prothrombin deficiency following bacteria occurs when meat has been
D. Estradiol. B. Vitamin B3 B. Epileptiform seizure contaminated with intestinal contents of
E. Somatotropin C. Vitamin C C. Acute renal failure slaughters and then roasted and inadequately
D. Vitamin B 12 D. Photosensitivity stored.
211. The following side effects may be E. Vitamin E E. Parasympathetic overactivation A. C. perfringerns
experience upon exposure to an B. R. Ricketsii
organophosphate and carbamate insecticides 217. High exposure to this metal cause “black 223. The compound found in red pepper is C. S. Aureus
EXCEPT foot disease” which is circulatory disorder A. Anthracenones D. C. botulinum
A. Diarrhea reflecting endothelial cell damage. B. Capsaicin E. E. coli
B. Bronchoconstriction A. Lead C. Hyoscyamine
C. Involuntary urination B. Cadmium D. Atropine 230. This includes the chemical, biochemical,
D. Mydriasis C. Arsenic E. Scopolamine and molecular events that lead to deleterious
E. Salivation D. Mercury effects on development.
E. Silver 224. Alkaloid found in Datura stramonium A. Mutagenesis
212. Metabolite of tetrafluoroethylene that is A. Capsaisin B. Teratogenesis
the penultimate nephrotoxicant. 218. Which of the following drugs/chemical B. Antracenones C. Carcinogenesis
A. Cysteine may cause hyperpigmentation of the skin? C. Red squill D. Behavioral toxicology
B. Phosgene A. Phenolic germicides D. Scopolamine E. None of the above
C. Cysteine-S-conjugate B. BHT E. All of the above
D. Glutathione C. Hydroquinone 231. it is highly irritating and oxidizing gas that
E. Diglutathione conjugate of D. Mercaptoamines 225. Which of the following is NOT commonly is formed by photochemical action of UV light
hydroquinone E. Amiodarone caused by tick envenomation? on nitrogen dioxide smog.
A. Cat scratch disease A. Nitrogen oxide
 B. Carbon monoxide C. Aconite 243. Metabolic acidosis with an anion gap is a 249.This drug is used together with atropine in
C. Ozone D. A and B hallmark of toxic alcohol poisoning. Which of the management of patient poisoned by
D. Volatile organic compounds E. B and C only the following is the primary cause of metabolic organic phosphorous and carbamate
E. None of the above acidosis in methanol poisoning? pesticides. Its primary mechanism is to
238. Notorious plant that can be found A. Formic acid reactivate the enzyme cholinesterase
232. It is known as the “bad ozone” that Conium maculatum B. Glycolic acid A. 2-PAM
occurs from 0 to 10 miles above the earth’s A. Poison hemlock C. Acetone B. Disulfiram
surface. B. Henbane D. Acetic acid C. Pralidoxime
A. Tropospheric ozone C. mandrake E. all of the above D. Both A and B
B. stratospheric ozone D. Aconite E. Both A and C
C. Volatile organic hydrocarbons E. opium 244. The most prominent end organ effect of
D. Either A and B ethylene glycol is 250.Glycine acts as a post synaptic inhibitory
E. None of the above 239.Notorious plant poison that can be found A. Nephrotoxicity neurotransmitter in the spinal cord and lower
in Veratrum Album B. Hepatotoxicity brainstem. Which of the following substance is
233. Follic acid supplementation should be A. Poison hemlock C. Hemorrhagic gastritis classified as glycine antagonist?
provided to patient chronically using B. Henbane D. Visual impairment to total blindness A. Ethanol
A. Phenytoin C. mandrake E. None of the above B. Picrotoxin
B. Propranolol D. Aconite C. Clozapine
C. Levodopa + carbidopa E. Hellebore 245. In the pathway of ethylene glycol D. Propofol
D. Sulindac metabolism which of the following substance/s E. D-serine
E. Tetracycline 240. Commercial preparations of universal enhances the formation non-toxic metabolites.
antidote is composed of A. Fomepizole 251. Which of the following is classified as
234. Dermopathy, an erythematous A. 1 part tannic acid, 2 parts magnesium B. Thiamine glycine re-uptake inhibitor?
desquamation of the palms and soles also oxide. 1 part activated charcoal C. Pyridoxine A. Ethanol
called as hand-foot syndrome is seen after B. 2 parts tannic acid, 1 part magnesium D. A and B B. Picrotoxin
extended infusion of which of the oxide, 2 parts activated charcoal E. B and C only C. Clozapine
chemotherapeutic agents? C. 1 part tannic acid, 1 part magnesium D. Propofol
A. Doxorubicin oxide, 1 part activated charcoal 246. Disulfiram therapy is indicated in the E. D-serine
B. Cytarabin D. 1 part tannic acid, 1 part magnesium following alcohol toxicity EXCEPT
C. 5-FU oxide, 2 parts activated charcoal A. Methanol 252. Which of the following causes metabolic
D. Methotrexate E. None of the above B. Ethylalcohol alkalosis?
E. None of the above C. Isopropanol A. Administration of diuretics
241. Tartar emetic had a long history of use of D. Both A and B B. Administration of sodium bicarbonate
235. The drug used to antagonize the effects an emetic, as well as sedative, expectorant, E. Both B and C C. Vomiting
of opioid toxicity. cathartic and diaphoretic. The chemical name D. Magnesium deficiency
A. Nubain for tartar emetic is 247. The following are advantages of using E. All of the above
B. Narcan A. Potassium bipthalate fomepizole over ethanol in the treatment of
C. Revex B. Potassium antimony tartrate ethylene glycol toxicity EXCEPT 253. Which of the following substance causes
D. Depade C. Potassium antimony bitartrate A. Fomepizole does not cause CNS hypercalcemia?
E. Either A and B D. Potassium antimony bipthalate depression A. Aminoglycosides
E. None of the above B. Fomepizole does not require serum B. Furosemide
236. which of the following is the effects of concentration monitoring C. Ethanol
digoxin to atrial muscles at toxic dose? 242. Metabolic acidosis with an anion gap is a C. Fomepizole is readily available D. Bisphosphonates
A. Extrasystoles hallmark of toxic alcohol poisoning. Which of D. Fomepizole is low-cost E. Lithuim
B. Fibrillation the following is the primary cause of metabolic E. Both C and D
C. Arrhythmia acidosis in ethylene glycol poisoning? 254. Which of the following substance causes
D. Tachycardia A. Formic acid 248. An alkaloid found in Strychnos nux hypocalcemia?
E. All of the above B. Glycolic acid vomica A. Vitamin A
C. Acetone A. Strychnine B. Tamoxifen
237. Notorious plant poison found in Aconitum D. Acetic acid B. Aconite C. Androgens
species E. all of the above C. Nicotine D. Calcitonin
A. Mandrake D. Muscarine E. Glucocorticoids
B. Monkshood E. Carnitine
255. Toxic epidermal necrolysis is a rare life- 261. The following management/s is done to E. none of the above unfractionated heparin and for some of the
threatening dermatologic emergency and patient suspected of overdose of proguanil or effects of LMWH.
medications are causally implicated in 80%- pyrimethamine EXCEPT: 266. Antidote for APAP toxicity A. Vitamin K
90% of cases. Which of the following drugs A. Folate supplementation A. Activated charcoal B. Protamine
causes toxic epidermal necrolysis? B. administration of methylene blue for B. NAC C. Hirudin
A. Allopurinol methemoglobinemia C. PAM D. Tissue plasminogen activator
B. Acetaminophen C. administration of cimetidine to prevent D. Oxime E. None of the above
C. Picrotoxin the conversion to a toxic metabolite E. Ipecac
D. Nickel D. administration of multiple dose of 273. It is polypeptide produced by the salivary
E. None of the above charcoal to enhance it elimination 267.Which of the following causes a brown- glands of the medicinal leech, hirudo
E. All of the above black urine? medicinalis that reversibly blocks thrombin
256. CNS toxin found in Artemisia absinthuim A. Cascara without the need for antithrombin III.
A. Ephedra 262. Whole bowel irrigation is the most B. Iron A. Hirudin
B. Nicotine effective process for evacuating the intestinal C. Metyldopa B. Heparin
C. atropine tract in poisoned patients. Which of the D. Senna C. Protamine
D. absinthe following conditions wherein whole bowel E. All of the above D. Warfarin
E. Scopolamine irrigation is contraindicated? E. None of the above
A. GI perforation 268. Which of the following drugs causes
257. CNS toxin found in Areca catechu B. Volume depletion cataracts? 274. Thimerosal is an organic compound that
A. Ephedra C. GI haemorrhage A. Acetazolamide approximately contains 49% by weight of:
B. atropine D. Compromised airway B. Amiodarone A. Hg
C. absinthe E. All of the above C. Chlorpromazine B. Ag
D. Scopolamine D. Corticosteroids C. S
E. Arecholine 263. Which of the following is true with dosage E. Cisplatin D. Al
of syrup of ipecac? E. None of the above
258. It is extracted from the fruit of the A. For children 1-12 years old the dose is 269. Which of the following antibiotics causes
evergreen Myristica fragrans and it is the main 15ml disulfiram like effects? 275. This drug is known as “soda loading”. It
active ingredient in myristicin. B. For older children and adult the dose A. Cefotetan buffers the lactic acidosis caused by exercise,
A. Nutmeg is 30ml B. Metronidazole thereby delaying fatigue and enhancing
B. Pine oil C. For children 6-12 mos of age dose C. Co-trimoxazole performance.
C. Wintergreen should be limited to a maximum single D. Moxalactam A. Caffeine
D. Clove dose of 10ml E. all of the above B. Calcuim hydroxide
E. Camphor D. If vomiting does not ensure after the C. Diuretics
first dose, the same dose may be 270. Methamphetamine is also known as D. Amphetamines
259. Toxic ingredient found in Bufo repeated once in 20-30min. A. Crack E. Sodium bicarbonate
gangarizan E. All of the above B. Speed
A. Anthraquinones C. Yaba 276. This is used in sports in which the athlete
B. Coumarin 264. Antibotic that causes aplastic anemia D. Go must achieve a certain weight to complete in
C. Bufadienolides A. Tetracycline E. All of the above discrete weight classes. It is used by body
D. Arecholine B. Erythromycin builders to give their skin a greater definition
E. Amygdalin C. Vancomycin 271. Food interaction occur when as this causes the skin to draw tightly around
D. Chloramphenicol pharmacologically active dietary monoamines the muscles.
260. Classic description of chronic intake of E. Amikacin such as tyramine is ingested by patients A. Amphetamine
this antibiotic is the “gray baby syndrome” taking MAOIs. Which of the following foods B. Sodium carbonate
which is characterized by vomiting, anorexia, 265. It is hygroscopic polysaccharide derived has the highest tyramine effect? C. Diuretics
respiratory distress, abdominal distention, from the bean of the cyamopsis psorabides. It A. Yogurt D. Caffeine
green stools and cyanosis. This is syndrome expands 10-20 fold in the stomach, forming a B. Avocados E. None of the above
is caused by gelatinous mass that produces the senasation C. Redwines
A. Tetracycline of satiety. D. Aged, mature cheese 277. This vitamin reduces iron from ferric to
B. Chloramphenicol A. Guar gum E. Smoked meats or fish the ferrous state, thereby increasing intestinal
C. Erythromycin B. Chitosan absorption of iron.
D. Sulfonamides C. Dinitrophenol 272. It is rapidly acting antidote used for A. Vitamin A
E. Vancomycin D. Xenical reversing the anticoagulant effects of B. Vitamin B
 C. Vitamin C A. Methemoglobinemia occurs when the B. QNB 294. It is one of the extrapyrimadal syndromes
D. Vitamin D iron atom in haemomoglobin loses 2 C. 3-quinuclidinyl benzilate characterized by restlessness and inability to
E. Vitamin E electron to an oxidant D. A and B only sit still
B. Methemoglobinemia when ferrous E. All of the above A. Acute dystonia
278. it is cololess, oily liquid with a faint state of iron is transformed into the B. Akathisia
aromatic odor that Is commonly added to ferric state. 289. Vesicants are agents that cause C. Parkinsonism
pharmaceutical products as a bacteriostatic C. Methemoglobinemia is normally blistering of skin and mucous membrane. D. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
agent. It causes “gasping syndrome” in infants present in the body at high Which of the following is classified as E. Tardive dyskinesia
which is the characteristized by hypotension concentration vesicants but does not cause vesiculation of
bradycardia, gasping respiration seizures, D. Both A and B the skin? 295. It is one of the extrapyramidal syndromes
cardiovascular collapsed and death. E. Both B and C A. Sulphur mustard characterized by sustained, involuntary
A. Chlorobutanol B. Lewisite muscle contraction, torticollis, including
B. PEG 284. It is used in the treatment of aniline C. Phosgene oxime blephaospasm and oculogyric crisis.
C. Propylene glycol induced Methemoglobinemia D. Cyanide A. Acute dystonia
D. Ethylene glycol A. Methylene blue E. None of the above B. Akathisia
E. Benzyl alcohol B. Glucagon C. Parkinsonism
C. Oximes 290. BAL should be administered through D. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
279. Patient taking rifampicin in combination D. PAM A. IV E. Tardive dyskinesia
with isoniazid develops what type of toxicity? E. EDTA B. IM
A. Nephrotoxicity C. SQ 296. It is hydantoin derivative and structurally
B. Ototoxicity 285. The following are example of chemical D. Oral similar to local anesthetics that is used for the
C. Neurotoxicity asphyxiants EXCEPT E. A and B only treatment of malignant hyperthermia.
D. Hepatotoxicity A. Carbon monoxide A. Phenytoin
E. None of the above B. Carbon dioxide 291. What specific element is present in B. Diazepam
C. Hydrogen sulphide dimercaprol? C. Dantrolene
280. Which of the following drugs causes “red D. Oxides of nitrogen A. Magnesium D. Phenobarbital
man red neck syndrome”? E. Hydrogen cyanide B. Sulfur E. Tensilon
A. Sulfonamides C. Iron
B. amphotericin B 286. Toxic combustion product that exert a D. manganese 297. It is the drug of choice for beta
C. Vancomycin space-occupying effect simply displacing E. None of the above adrenergic antagonist poisoning
D. Erythromycin oxygen. A. Propranolol
E. None of the above A. Chemical asphyxiants 292. It is active substance in the Chinese B. Atropine
B. Simple asphyxiants plant Ma-huang has been used for the C. Glucagon
281. An antimycobacterial agent that is C. irritant treatment of asthma. D. Ethanol
classified as congener of INH and have the D. A and B A. Khat E. Valium
same mechanism of action with INH. E. All of the above B. Cathionone
A. Capreomycin C. Methcathinone 298. Ipecac is derived from rhizome and roots
B. Ethionamide 287. Q fever occurs naturally as a self limited D. Ephedrine of plants found in Brazil belonging to the
C. Para-aminosalicylic acid febrile, zoonotic disease contracted from E. None of the above family Rubiaceae. Which of the following
D. Isoniazid domestic livestock. Q fever I classified as substance is/are responsible for the
E. Pyrazinamide biological warfare agent and is now known to 293. An extrapyrimidal syndrome that occurs production of nausea and vomiting of ipecac
caused by 3 months to years after taking an anti- syrup?
282. Pyridoxine is a water soluble vitamin that A. Coxiella burnetti psychotic drug it is characterized by A. Cephaelin
is used as antidote for which of the following B. Brucalla melitensis involuntary choreiform movements like B. Emetine
poisoning? C. Baciilus anthracis buccolinguomasticatory movements C. Scopolamine
A. INH D. Yersinia pestis A. Acute dystonia D. A and B only
B. Ethylene glycol E. None of the above B. Akathisia E. B and C only
C. PZA C. Parkinsonism
D. A and B 288. It is anti-muscarinic compound that was D. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome 299. Contraindicated of syrup of ipecac
E. A and C developed as an incapacitating chemical E. Tardive dyskinesia A. The patient is younger than 6 month of
warfare agent. It is 25-fold more potent age
283. Which of the following statements is centrally than atropine. B. Ingestion of caustic poison
CORRECT about methemoglobinemia? A. BZ
 C. Ingestion of a foreign body such as a
drug packet or sharp item
D. The patient does not meet the criteria
for gastric emptying
E. All of the above

300. Gastric emptying may be indicated if

A. Significant spontaneous emesis has
occured
B. The ingested poison has a high
efficient antidote
C. the patient presents many hours post
ingestion
D. The ingested poison is well adsorbed
activated charcoal
E. None of the above