ANESTHESIOLOGY 8.

Upon proper administration of a local anesthetic, which

modality would be eliminated first
1. The following drug reaction/s is/are seen in repeated
A. motor C. pain and
sedative-hypnotic intake
temperature
A. Dependence C. both A and B
B. proprioception D. pressure
B. Tolerance D. neither A nor B
9. Upon proper administration of a local anesthetic, which
nerve type would be inhibited first
2. Which of the following is TRUE about benzodiazepines
A. small, myelinated C. both at the
A. they bind to GABAA to promote chloride conductance same time
B. they promote prolongation of the duration of chloride B. small, unmyelinated D. none of the above
channel opening
C. they have no amnesic effect, hence they are ideal for 10. This is the only intravenous anesthetic that possesses
long term treatment both analgesic properties and the ability to
D. compared to barbiturates, they are less likely to produce cardiac  stimulation.
produce medullary depression
A. Carbamazepine C. Propofol
B. Diazepam D. Ketamine
3. The sympathetic nervous system transmits __ in its 11. Hepatotoxicity is mostly noted on which general
post-synaptic neuron anesthetic
A. Tyrosine hydroxylase C. Norepinephrine A. Enflurane C. Propofol
B. Acetylcholine D. Glutamate B. Nitrous oxide D. Halothane

4. Pain perception is mediated by 12. Cocaine produces the following effects EXCEPT

A. Type A alpha C. Type A delta A. vasodilation C. euphoria

B. Type A beta D. Type B B. hypertension D. insomnia

13. Among the drugs used in producing
neuroleptanesthesia, which is the neuroleptic agent?
5. Thiophental is an anesthetic administered
intravenously. It is a __. A. Morphine C. Fentanyl
A. benzodiazepine C. nicotinic B. Nitrous oxide D. Droperidol
derivative
B. opioid derivative D. barbiturate.
14.   The following are all amide type anesthetics EXCEPT
Lidocaine has a pKa of 8.0. It would be present
A. Propoxycaine C. Etidocaine
predominantly in its lipophilic form when it is exposed
to B. Lidocaine D. Prilocaine

A. tissue with a pH of 3.0 C. tissue with a 15.  Inhalation route of conscious sedation gives the
pH of 9.0. following advantage

B. tissue with a ph of 5.2 D. tissue with a pH of A. Dependability C. Prolonged recovery

10.2 B. Rapid onset D. Weak action16. The
largest branch of the 5th cranial nerve
A. facial nerve C. Mandibular nerve
7. Lidocaine is known to cause myocardial depression by
blocking sodium channels. This effect makes B. Maxillary nerve D. Ophthalmic
nerve
lidocaine a
A. Class I antiarrhythmic C. Class III 17. Used to prolong the stability of the anesthetic solution
antiarrhythmic
A. Paraben content C. Both A and B
B. Class II antiarrhythmic D. Class IV
antiarrhythmic B. Vasoconstrictor content D. Neither A nor
B
18. For conventional mandibular block EXCEPT 27. Analgesia is the term for
a. Retromolar triangle c. External oblique ridge a. loss of pain without loss of consciousness
b. Coronoid notch d. none of the b. decreased pain threshold
above c. pain relief with loss of consciousness
d. pain perception
19. For infraorbital block injection EXCEPT
a. zygomatic arch c. infrorbital 28. Advantages of jet injector syringe EXCEPT
notch
a. measured dose c. no tissue
b. pupil of the eye d. upper 1st resistance
bicuspids
b. cartridge is protected d. danger of rapid
injection
20. These are methods of inducing local anesthesia
EXCEPT
29. Local anesthetics are grouped according to
a. administration of neuromuscular blockers c. cold
temperature a. bond between terminal ends c. route of
b. administration of sedative hypnotic d. warm administration
temperature b. duration of action d. mechanism of
action
21. The following are good or ideal anesthetics EXCEPT
a. potent c. rapid onset 30. General anesthetics are grouped according to
b. low toxicity d. irreversible a. bond between terminal ends c. route of
administration
b. duration of action d. mechanism of
22. The chief characteristic of Barbiturates when used in action
conscious sedation is
a. Long acting c. Moderate short 31. Sedative-hypnotics are grouped according to
b. Short acting d. Ultra short a. bond between terminal ends c. route of
administration
23.The most common method of administration of b. duration of action d. mechanism of
sedative hypnotics action

a. topical c. inhalational
32. The antihistamine Diphenhydramine may be used for
b. oral d. none of the above
a. control of allergic response c. both A and B

24. Currently, the most prescribed oral sedative for b. sedative-hypnotic d. neither A nor
dentistry B

a. barbiturates c. carbamates
33. Which of the following anesthetics shows weakest
b. narcotics d. benzodiazepines action as a topical anesthetics
a. Lidocaine c. Tetracaine
25. Lidocaine is metabolized in the
b. Mepivacaine d. Benzocaine
a. plasma c. kidney
b. liver d. lungs
34. The local anesthetic with the most vasoconstrictor
6. Benzodiazepines have better dental applications effect
compared to barbiturates because a. procaine c. lidocaine
a. They produce less drug-drug interaction b. cocaine d. xylocaine
b. They have muscle relaxant properties
c. They produce anterograde amnesia and anxiolytic effect
d. all of the above
35. The purpose of aspiration before injecting the local d. innervates the lower lip
anesthetic is
a. prevent needle breakage 43. Nerves to be anesthesized for the resto of tooth no. 17
with a deep cavity
b. ensure non-hitting of nerves
a. PSAN c. MSAN
c. ensure non-hitting of blood vessels
b. incisive nerve d. Terminal
d. redirection of puncture branches

36. Consequence of intravascular administration of local 44. Innervation of the hard palate EXCEPT
anesthetic EXCEPT
a. anterior palatine nerve c.
a.  decreased incidence of adverse effect nasopalatine nerve
b. shorter duration of action b. greater palatine nerve d. great
c. increased degradation petrosal nerve

d. bradycardia if the agent reaches the myocardium

45. Maintenance of the resting state of the neuron

37. The most potent gaseous agent for general anesthesia a. Potassium channels c. electrolyte
is pump

a. ethylene c. nitrous oxide b. Saltatory conduction d. Sodium channels

46. Ascending tract for pain perception enters the spinal
b. ether d.enflurane cord through the
a. anterior horn c. dorsal root ganglia
38. The following are preanesthetic drugs EXCEPT
b. ventral root ganglia d. thalamus
a. narcotics c. antiemetics
b. barbiturates d. none of the 47. for surgical removal of torus palatinus
above
a. greater and lesser palatine injection
b. nasopalatine and lesser palatine injection
39. One of the major barriers in the diffusion of local
anesthetics into the nerve is c. nasopalatine and greater palatine injection
a. epineuron c. autoneuron d. paraperiosteal and nasopalatine injection
b. endoneuron d. perineuron
48. Extraction of tooth no.37
40. Local anesthetics of the ester group undergoes a. inferior alveolar nerve, lingual nerve, long buccal nerve
biotransformation with this process
b. inferior alveolar nerve, mental nerve, incisive nerve
a. hydrolysis c. synthesis
c. inferior alveolar nerve, long buccal nerve, mental nerve
b. enzymes d. acidosis d. inferior alveolar nerve, long buccal nerve

41. The overall action of epinephrine on the heart and 49. For nasopalatine injection are the following EXCEPT
cardiovascular system is direct stimulation
a. nasopalatine foramen c. central incisors
and the following EXCEPT
b. incisive papilla d. incisive
a. increased systolic and diastolic pressure foramen
c. decreased cardiac output
b. tachycardia d. none of the 50. Parts of a dental syringe EXCEPT
above
a. harpoon c. piston
42. Anterior division of the mandibular nerve b. barrel d. rubber
a. gives off a branch to the masseter muscle diaphragm51. The technique of injection if the tooth is not
to be retained
b. gives off a branch to the floor of the mouth
a. paraperiosteal c. mental nerve
c. innervates the anterior 2/3 of the tongue
b. submucosal d. intrapulpal
 62. Lidocaine may be administered through the following
routes EXCEPT
52. The jet injector may ne used in the following except
a. orally c. topically
a. provision of topical anesthesia c. palatal anesthesia
b. intravenously d. by infiltration
b. buccinator injection d. interseptal

63. Which of the following is an ester anesthetic

53. Hypothyroid patients should receive, if indicated,
reduced dosage of a. Lidocaine c. Procaine
a. non-narcotic analgesic c. hypnotic b. Prilocaine d. Mepivacaine
b. antisialagogues d. antibiotics
64. Which of the following is an amide anesthetic
54. Stage of similar to conscious sedation a. Cocaine c. Prilocaine
a. stage I c. stage III b. Procaine d. Tetracaine
b. stage II d. stage IV
65. For patients with asthma, this general anesthetic
should not be used
55. stage of surgical anesthesia
a. fluothane c. nitrous oxide
a. stage I c. stage III
b. ether d. cyclopropaine
b. stage II d. stage IV
66. The most dangerous adverse effect seen in general
anesthetic administration
56. The most toxic local anesthetic
a. hypersensitivity c. sedation
a. ravocaine c. procaine
b. anaphylaxis d. respiratory depression
b. lidocaine d. tetracaine

67. Malignant hyperthermia may be seen as an adverse

57. This is a life threatening reaction to a drug effect to
a. serum sickness c. urticaria a. local anesthetic c. both
b. anaphylaxis d. hyperpyrexia b. general anesthetic d. neither

58. The cause of death from acute barbiturate poisoning 68. General anesthetic agents may be administered
a. allergy c. respiratory a. orally c. both
depression
b. inhalationally d. neither
b. myocardial depression d. none of the
above
69. Local anesthetics have the capability to block
59. shortest acting barbiturate a. sensory nerve c. autonomic
nerve
a. phenobarbital c. Thiopenthal
b. motor nerve d. all of the above
b. amobarbital d. Pentobarbital

70. Mandibular block involves this space

60. long acting benzodiazepine
a. sublingual space c. pterygomandibular
a. midazolam c. triazolam space
b. oxazepam d. chlorazepate
b. lateral pharyngeal space
d.submandibular space

61. The action of local anesthetics are

a. weak acids c. stable at acidic pH
b. weak bases d. none of the above
71. These are divisions of cranial nerve no. 5 except 79. Inhaled anesthetic EXCEPT
a. auditory nerve c. mandibular a. desflurane c. ketamine
nerve
b. halothane d. nitrous oxide
b. maxillary nerve d. ophthalmic
nerve
80. agent for dissociative anesthesia
a. ketamine c.  thiopenthal
72. Epinephrine
b. benzodiazepine d.
a. alpha and beta adrenoceptor antagonist c. both a barbiturate81. Diagnostic triad of morphine overdosage
and b EXCEPT
b. vasoconstrictor d. a. coma c. respiratory depression
neither a nor b
b. miosis d. none of the above

73. Systemic toxicity of a local anesthetic is

82. For an outpatient, the optimum site for intravenous
a. directly proportional to potency c. not sedation is
related to potency
a. jugular vein c. popliteal vein
b. indirectly proportional to potency d.
irrelevant b. femoral vein d. dorsal veins of the
hands

74. Physiologic systems susceptible to the adverse effects

of local anesthetics 83. Prilocaine
a. cardiovascular and GIT c. cardiovascular a. has a short duration of action
and skeletal
b. may cause tachycardia
b. cardiovascular and renal d.
cardiovascular and nervous c. degraded by plasma esterases
d. none of the above
75. Local anesthetics with vasoconstrictors should be
given in caution to 84. Desflurane should be given in caution to patients with
a. patients with arrhythmia a. psychosis c. renal failure
c. both b. hyperthyroidism d. hypersalivation
b. patients with hyperthyroidism
d.neither

76. This agent exhibits the weakest action when used Answer Key:
topically
a. lidocaine c. mepivacaine
b. tetracaine d. benzocaine

77. EMLA is
a. lidocaine and benzocaine c. lidocaine and
procaine
b. lidocaine and epinephrine d. lidocaine and
prilocaine

78. Local anesthetics may impair

a. motor conduction c. both
b. sensory conduction d. neither