Pharmacology Page 1 of 18

B 1. The driving force for passive absorption of a drug is the:

a. specific carrier proteins and shows saturation kinetics
b. concentration gradient across a membrane separating body compartment
c. both
d. none

D 2. Physical factors influencing absorption:

a. total surface area available for absorption
b. contact time at the absorption surface
c. blood flow to the absorption site
d. all
e. none

A 3. Clinical effectiveness often depends on:

a. minimum serum drug concentration
b. minimum serum concentration
c. time after concentration required to reach onset of concentration
d. all
e. none

A 4. Process by which drugs find their way into the urine, EXCEPT:
a. active glomerular filtration d. passive glomerular filtration
b. active tubular secretion e. none
c. passive tubular secretion

B 5. A drug which has no effect enhances the effect of a second drug:

a. antagonism d. summative
b. potentiation e. additive
c. synergism

E 6. Parameters used to evaluate time-response relationship, EXCEPT:

a. duration of action d. onset of action
b. latency e. none
c. peak time

B 7. Clinical effectiveness often depends on:

a. maximum serum drug concentration
b. minimum serum drug concentration
c. time after the administration to reach the onset of concentration
d. all
e. none

B 8. When the dose of the drug is gradually increased and the first noticeable effect is observed, the dose that
produces this effect is called:
a. quantal dose d. a and b
b. threshold dose e. b and c
c. lethal dose

A 9. Regulates and directs sensory impulses traveling to the cortex:

a. thalamus b. pons c. medulla
d. hypothalamus

A 10.Inhaled anesthetics are relatively insoluble in blood and brain are eliminated at faster rate than the more
soluble anesthetics:
a. True b. False

C 11. Coordinate body movement and posture to help maintain body equilibrium:
a. cerebrum of the peptide bond c. cerebellum
b. main stem of H-bond d. none

D 12. Treatment of neuroses:

a. psychotherapy d. all
b. anxiolytic e. none
c. antianxiety agent

B 13. Used prophylactically in treating manic depressive patients and in the treatment of manic episodes:
a. anti-psychotics b. lithium salts c. anxiolytic drugs d. all

C 14. Used in treating complex partial seizure:

a. Phenytoin b. Carbamazepine c. both d.
none

B 15. Generalized tonic-clonic drug:

a. Phenobarbital b. Phenytoin c. Diazepam
d. Valproic acid
Pharmacology Page 2 of 18

C 16. The most important criterion in determining whether surgical anesthesia has been achieved is:
a. papillary dilation b. respiratory lagging c. absence of eye motion d.
vomiting
B 17. The branch of pharmacology that deals with the study of the action of drug on functions of the body:
a. Toxicology b. Pharmacodynamics c. Pharmaokinetics d.
none

C 18. Drug of choice in the treatment of status epiliptecus:

a. Phenobarbital b. Diphenylhydantoin c. Diazepam
d. all

A 19. An anti-platelet drug:

a. Dipyridamole b. Urokinase c. Heparin
d. all

B 20. The branch of pharmacology that deals with disposition and fate of drug is:
a. Pharmacodynamics b. Pharmacokinetics c. both d.
none

A 21. Causes mydriasis by blocking the parasympathetic impulses to the sphincter muscle of the iris:
a. Atropine b. Cocaine c. Lidocaine
d. all

A 22. Drug of choice for Tularemia:

a. Streptomycin b. Griseofulvin c. Amphotericin d.
all

A 23. The ff. conditions are prone to thrombus formation, EXCEPT:

a. Arrhythmia b. varicose vein c. thrombocytopenia
d. none

A 24. Can improve the CO of CHF patient:

a. Dobutamine b. Reserpine c. all
d. none

C 25. Effective for the management of acute gouty arthritis:

a. Probenecid b. Aspirin c. Allopurinol
d. all

B 26. Derease the probability of second MI:

a. Heparin b. Aspirin c. Streptokinase
d. none

B 27. Inhibits warfarin metabolism and causes potentiation of anticoagulant:

a. Rifampin b. Cimetidine c. Disulfiram
d. all

C 28. Histamine H1 receptor blockers are useful in the treatment of:

a. rhinitis b. urticaria c. all
d. none

C 29. It is the treatment of choice for influenza infection:

a. Vidarabine b. Zidovudine c. Amantadine
d. all

B 30. It can lead to discoloration of teeth if given to children:

a. Aminoglycoside b. Tetracylcine c. Penicillin
d. Lincomycin

A 31. Which of the ff. agents shows cytotoxicity that is cell cycle specific?
a. Bleomycin b. Dactiomycin c. Lumustine
d. none

D 32. During times of stress, the adrenal gland releases ___ into the blood.
a. epinephrine b. adrenaline c. acetylcholine d. a and b e.
b and c

C 33. Acetylcholine transmits all parasympathetic signals to end organs by binding to:
a. receptor site d. ganglionic receptor
b. cholinergic nervous system e. none
c. muscarinic receptors

B 34. Increase calcium influx into myocardial cells during heart failure:
a. Atenolol d. all
b. Digoxin e. none
c. Streptokinase
Pharmacology Page 3 of 18

C 35. Draw water into the urine, without interfering with ion secretion or absorption in the kidney:
a. Loop diuretics d. potassium-sparing diuretics
b. Thiazide diuretics e. all
c. Osmotic diuretics

D 36. Arrhythmia occurs because one or more regions of the heart is/are:
a. beating too fast d. all
b. beating too slowly e. none
c. beating automatically without regard for impulses originating from SA node

C 37. Clinically useful agents which enhance neurotransmission include the ff, EXCEPT:
a. receptor agonist
b. drugs which prevent transmitter degradation
c. ganglionic blockers
d. agents which induce neurotransmitter release
e. none

D 38. Responsible for reducing the release of NE from sympathetic nerves:

a. Beta 1 postsynaptic adrenergic receptor
b. Beta 2 postsynaptic adrenergic receptor
c. Alpha 1 postsynaptic adrenergic receptor
d. Alpha 2 postsynaptic adrenergic receptor
e. all

B 39. Produces competitive antagonism of catecholamine by blockade of alpha 1 receptors:

a. Phenoxybenzamine d. all
b. Phentolamine e. none
c. Ephedrine

C 40. This may occur when the electrical conduction pathways malfunction:
a. chest pain b. hypertension c. arrhythmias d. MI
e. all

D 41. Placebo may be given:

a. as a control of specific evaluation of drugs
b. to benefit/please a patient not by any pharmacological actions but by psychological means
c. to patients with mild psychological disorders who attribute their symptoms to physical disease
d. all of these
e. none of these

B 42. A branch of pharmacology that deals with the study of doses:

a. Pharmacy b. Posology c. Toxicology
d. Pharmacognosy

A 43. It refers to the fate of the drug during its sojourn through the body:
a. Pharmacokinetics b. Pharmacodynamics c. Pharmacogenetics d.
Pharmacotherapeutics

C 44. Drugs administered by inhalation are absorbed in the:

a. small intestine b. nasal mucosa c. lungs d.
stomach

C 45. Weak acids are reabsorbed into the bloodstream when:

a. the urinary pH is high c. the urinary pH is low
b. the urine is made alkaline d. all situations apply

A 46. All of the ff. are catecholamines, EXCEPT:

a. Acetylcholine b. Norepinephrine c. 5HT d.
Dopamine

C 47. Which of the following is an inhibitory amino acid?

a. Glutamate b. Aspartate c. GABA
d. none of these

D 48. The following situations give rise to excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP), EXCEPT:
a. Na+ conductance c. depolarization of the membrane
b. opening of Ca++ion channel d. opening of Cl- ion channel

A 49. The response characterized by increasing magnitude with greater concentration of unbound drug at the
receptor site:
a. “graded” b. quantal c. all-or-none
d. margin of safety
Pharmacology Page 4 of 18

C 50. It refers to the relative concentration required to produce a given magnitude of effect:
a. affinity b. efficacy c. potency
d. none of these

C 51. Interaction of two drugs whose opposing actions in the body tend to cancel each other’s effect:
a. noncompetitive b. chemical c. physiological d.
pharmacokinetic

A 52. The period from the drug administration to the first visible effect is:
a. onset of action c. ceiling effect
b. duration of action d. peak time

D 53. Parkinson’s disease is due to:

a. excessive cholinergic activity c. deficiency of dopamine level in the brain
b. damage to the basal ganglia d. all of these

D 54. When MAOi is taken with tyramine containing food it can result to serious consequences such as:
a. hypertensive crisis d. a and b only
b. cerebral stroke e. all
c. insomnia

C 55. Meclizine is used to prevent nausea and vomiting due to:

a. vertigo b. motion sickness c. either a or b
d. neither a nor b

A 56. Antipsychotic agents reduce hallucinations and agitation by:

a. blocking the reuptake of NE and SE c. ether a or b
b. blocking the dopamine receptors d. neither a nor b

D 57. Antihistamines can be used clinically as:

a. antiemetic b. sedative c. anti-allergy
d. all

D 58. A drug used to treat chronic alcoholism:

a. Diazepam b. Zolpidem c. Flumazenil
d. Disulfiram

D 59. The following are pharmacological actions of benzodiazepines, EXCEPT:

a. reduction of anxiety b. sedation c. anti-emetics d.
anticonvulsants

C 60. Alcohol can produce the following peripheral effects, EXCEPT:

a. diuresis c. loss of memory
b. dilation of the blood vessels in the skin d. stimulates secretions of gastric juices

D 61. All of the ff. statements about the extrapyramidal effects of antipsychotics are correct, EXEPT:
a. these are caused by the blockade of the dopamine receptors on the basal ganglia
b. can be counteracted by the administration of anticholinergic
c. if therapy is stopped, tardive dyskinesia occurs
d. haloperidol does not cause extrapyramidal effects

A 62. Pharmacological effects brought about by dopamine receptor blockade, EXCEPT:

a. stimulation of the vomiting center c. reduce schizophrenic symptoms
b. development of parkinsonian signs d. decrease stimulation of the CTZ

A 63. Which of the ff. statements is CORRECT about Loperamide?

a. it is used to control diarrhea d. it is an NSAID
b. it has analgesic property e. all
c. it enters the brain

D 64. Which of the ff. statements is NOT TRUE about paracetamol?

a. it lacks anti-inflammatory property
b. preferred drug to lower elevated body temperature
c. overdose can lead to hepatic injury
d. associated with Reye’s syndrome in children

C 65. A dissociative anesthetic agent:

a. Thiopental b. Innovar c. Ketamine d. Halothane e.
Propofol
C 66. A drug useful in febrile seizure:
a. Diazepam b. Trimethadione c. Phenobarbital
d. Valproic acid
D 67. A drug that reverses the effects of morphine and heroin by competitively blocking the opioid receptors:
Pharmacology Page 5 of 18

a. methadone b. nalbuphine c. butorphanol

d. naloxone

C 68. It refers to a change of one or more of the pharmacokinetic processes with increasing dose size:
a. disposition b. clinical pharmacokinetics c. dose dependency d.
depot phase

A 69. Cleaning out of stomach by repeated infusion of water using rubber tube:
a. gastric lavage b. emesis c. anaphylaxis d.
hydration

B 70. The process with the slowest rate constant in a system of simultaneous kinetic processes:
a. lag time b. rate limiting step c. bioequivalence
d. accumulation

B 71. The measured preparation devised to make possible the administration of medications in prescribed or
measured amounts:
a. dose size b. dosage form c. dosage regimen
d. drug

D 72. The sum of all body regions in which the drug concentration is an instantaneous equilibrium with that in
blood or plasma:
a. clearance b. accumulation c. depot phase
d. central compartment

C 73. Loss of drug from the central compartment due to transfer to another compartment:
a. apparent partition coefficient c. disposition
b. biliary recycling d. creatinine clearance

C 74. The extent of protein binding is determined in vitro by the ff. mechanisms, EXCEPT:
a. ultracentrifugation c. endocytosis
b. dialysis d. eletrphoresis

A 75. A phase I biotransformation reaction, EXCEPT:

a. methylation b. sulfoxidation c. deamination d.
hydrolysis

B 76. A phase II biotransformation, EXCEPT:

a. methylation b. reduction c. acetylation d.
conjugation

A 77. Non-irritating to the larynx and produces bronchiolar dilation:

a. halothane b. nitrous oxide c. desflurane
d. isoflurane

C 78. Commonly used spinal anesthetic that is 10 times more potent than procaine:
a. cocaine b. lidocaine c. tetracaine
d. procaine

D 79. Which of the ff. effects is associated with benzodiazepines?

a. paradoxical excitement c. morphine
b. ataxia d. all of the above

B 80. Is a potent ultra short-acting non barbiturate hypnotic agent without analgesic properties:
a. diazepam b. etomidate c. morphine
d. cocaine

A 81. It is an important autonomic nervous system center wherein it plays a role in the regulation of body
temperature water balance, and metabolism:
a. hypothalamus b. thalamus c. diencephalons
d. broca’s area
C 82. It triggers the ovulation of an egg from the female ovary and causes the ruptured follicle to be converted to a
corpus luteum:
a. thyrotropic hormone c. luteinizing hormone
b. prolactin d. follicle-stimulating
hormone

A 83. The standard of comparison for potency of general anesthetic agent is:
a. minimum alveolar concentration c. partition coefficient
b. solubility d. maximum vapor
concentration

C 84. Benzodiazepines are used therapeutically for all of the ff. indications, EXCEPT:
a. panic disorder b. schizophrenia c. status epilepticus
d. insomnia
Pharmacology Page 6 of 18

C 85. Which of the following effects is produced by morphine, EXCEPT:

a. Relief of dyspnea accompanying pulmonary edema
b. Decreased sensitivity of the respiratory center to CO2
c. Mydriasis that can be blocked by atropine
d. Vasodilation of cerebral blood vessels

D 86. Benzodiazepines differ from barbiturates in that benzodiazepines:

a. facilitate the action of GABA on neuronal chloride channels
b. have anticonvulsant activity
c. may induce physical dependence
d. have a higher margin of safety than barbiturates

D 87. Classified as an amide-type local anesthetic, EXCEPT:

a. prilocaine b. bupivacaine c. lidocaine
d. procaine

D 88. This drug has both local anesthetic and antiarrhythmic properties:
a. halothane b. isoflurane c. desflurane
d. lidocaine

A 89. This drug produces rapid analgesia and amnesia while maintaining laryngeal reflexes:
a. dissociative anesthesia b. balanced anesthesia c. neuroleptanesia d.
local anesthesia

B 90. Contraindicated to patients with seizure disorders:

a. isoflurane b. cocaine c. enflurane
d. desflurane

D 91. Leukopenia has been reported with chronic abuse of ____.

a. diethyl ether b. bupivacaine c. droperidol d.
nitrous oxide

A 92. This drug produces tolerance, abuse, hyperyrexia and anorexia:

a. cocaine b. procaine c. tetracaine
d. lidocaine

A 93. Postulates that the local anesthetic displaces Ca++ from a site near the Na+ channel and blocks the adjacent
Na+ channel:
a. specific receptor theory c. lock and key theory
b. membrane expansion theory d. lidocaine

B 94. The most serious adverse effect of local anesthetics:

a. respiratory failure b. seizures c. hypotension d.
allergic reaction

B 95. The agent which has a parasympathetic effect that can cause bradycardia and hypotension:
a. droperidol b. fentanyl c. alfentanil
d. morphine

D 96. Which of the ff. agents may be considered the drug of choice for the treatment of absence seizures?
a. phenytoin b. phenobarbital c. carbamazepine
d. ethosuximide
C 97. Softening of the bones caused by a deficiency of Vitamin D either from a poor diet or lack of sunshine or
both:
a. osteoporosis b. osteoarthritis c. osteomalacia
d. osteomyelitits

A 98. A stage of anesthesia where there is loss of consciousness and is characterized by irregular respiration and
involuntary activity:
a. delirium b. analgesia c. surgical
d. medullary paralysis

A 99. If a drug stimulates its own metabolism, the phenomenon is called:

a. auto-induction b. cross-induction c. foreign induction d.
enzyme induction

B 100. The protein binding of a drug is defined by:

a. the absorption constant c. the distribution equilibrium
b. the affinity constant d. all of the choices

C 101. Which of the ff. agents is the primary drug for treatment of major motor seizures and partial seizures?
a. clonazepam b. ethosuximde c. carbamazepine d.
trimethadione

B 102. A tricyclic antidepressant which is effective in multiple sclerosis patients with pseudobulbar palsy:
Pharmacology Page 7 of 18

a. doxepin b. amitriptyline c. despiramine

d. nortriptyline

C 103. It potentiates the action of biogenic amines, presumably by blocking the inactivating reuptake of the amines
after release from the presynaptic neuron:
a. MAO inhibitors b. phenothiazines c. tricyclic antidepressants
d. local anesthetics

B 104. Granulocytopenia, GI irritation, gingival hyperplasia and facial hirsutism are all possible side effects of
which of the following anticonvulsant drugs?
a. Phenobarbital b. phenytoin c. valproate
d. dantrolene

A 105. Symptoms of migraine, EXCEPT:

a. diplopia b. phonohobia c. protophobia d.
nausea and vomiting

C 106. Barbiturates are being replaced by benzodiazepines for use as sedative-hypnotic agents because of the
shortcomings of the barbiturates therapy, which include all of the following, EXCEPT:
a. a narrow therapeutic index
b. suppression of rapid eye movement (REM) sleep
c. induction of seizures
d. high potential for physical dependence

D 107. Chemically it is a trimethylated monocyclic phenylaminoketone used for the treatment of major depression:
a. venlafaxine b. amphetamine c. fluoxetine d.
bupropion

A 108. The brain stem centers affected most strongly by barbiturates are:
a. the respiratory centers c. the cardioinhibitory centers
b. the vasomotor centers d. none of the choices

D 109. Ultra-short acting barbiturates are used primarily as:

a. sedative b. hypnotics c. anti-parkinsonian agents d.
preanesthetic agents

A 110. Amitriptyline is used to treat symptoms of:

a. depression b. gout c. petit mal epilepsy d.
parkinsonism

D 111. Endocrine and metabolic effects of antipsychotic drugs are the following, EXCEPT:
a. hyperprolactinemia c. weight gain
b. galactorrhea d. hypotension

C/A 112. Drugs active by the oral route in the treatment of bronchial asthma, EXCEPT:
a. epinephrine d. corticosteroids
b. terbutaline e. aminophylline
c. theophylline

B 113. This diuretic competitively antagonizes aldosterone:

a. ethacrynic acid d. acetazolamide
b. spronolactone e. triamterene
c. chlorothiazide
B 114. This antacid is likely to produce mental depression in patient with poor renal function:
a. sodium bicarbonate c. calcium carbonate
b. magnesium trisilicate d. aluminum hydroxide

B 115. This antacid produces cathartic action:

a. sodium bicarbonate c. aluminum hydroxide
b. magnesium trisilicate d. none of the above
A 116. A laxative considered as a surface active agent and has an action of easing defecation by softening stool:
a. dioctyl sodium sulfosuccinate c. magnesium hydroxide
b. phenolphthalein d. senna
A 117. The most common adverse effect associated with the use of antihistamines is:
a. sedation b. urticaria c. hypotension
d. tinnitus

E 118. Which of the following is NOT a stimulant laxative?

a. cascara sagrada d. bisacodyl
b. senna e. docusate
c. castor oil

E 119. All of the following statements concerning antacids are true, EXEPT:
Pharmacology Page 8 of 18

a. sodium bicarbonate is very effective in neutralizing stomach acid but its use is not recommended because of
the potential for systemic alkalosis and fluid retention
b. antacids only neutralize stomach acids and have no effect on the secretion of pepsin
c. a common side effect of magnesium-based antacids is diarrhea, while aluminum-based antacids tend to
cause constipation
d. milk alkali syndrome is associated with the administration of sodium bicarbonate and calcium
bicarbonate-containing antacids, along with milk or cream
e. magnesium-based antacids, rather than aluminum-based antacids, are preferred for the treatment of patients
with renal dysfunction

D 120. The mechanism of action of the anticoagulant effect of coumarin derivatives involves:
a. a reduction in levels of factors VII, IX and X
b. an action taking place in the bloodstream
c. no effect on vitamin K
d. an action that blocks the release of preformed prothrombin by the liver
e. fibrinolysis

A 121. Regarding the therapeutic uses of iron:

a. oral ferrous sulfate is the treatment of choice for iron deficiency
b. ferrous and ferric salts differ very little in their bioavailability
c. enteric-coated tablets are better absorbed than immediate release tablets
d. medicinal iron preparations are relatively nontoxic for children
e. side effects associated with oral iron therapy include increased sensitivity of the skin to ultraviolet light

A 122. Antihistamines (H1 antagonists) are useful in treating certain allergic disorders and the mechanism is most
likely the result of:
a. inhibition of histamine release
b. depletion of histamine stores
c. metabolic inactivation of histamines
d. chelation of histamine

E 123. Histamine shock is associated with all of the following, EXCEPT:

a. a reduced venous return to the heart d. engorged large blood vessels
b. a decreased effective blood volume e. hemoconcentration
c. increased capillary permeability and edema

A 124. Which of the following agents can produce hearing loss and renal impairment?
a. cisplatin b. melphalan c. mercaptopurine
d. vinblastine

B 125. Which of the following is not a selective beta 1 blocker?

a. betaxolol b. timolol c. atenolol
d. metoprolol

D 126. Beta blocker given thru IV used for emergency hypertension:

a. practolol b. betaxolol c. propranolol
d. betaxolol

A 127. Which of the following drugs is used to prevent postpartum hemorrhage in patient with blood pressure of
180/100 mmHg?
a. oxytocin b. methylergonovine c. ritodine
d. methysergine

D 128. Drug of choice for myasthenia gravis:

a. tropicamide b. cycloentholate c. atropine d.
neostigmine

C 129. It is a CNS neurotransmitter with greater inotropic effect, less chronotropic effect and is used primarily for
congestive heart failure:
a. amphetamine b. atropine c. dopamine d.
norepinephrine

D 130. Neurotransmitter at adrenergic receptors:

a. propranolol b. acetylcholine c. phentolamine d.
norepinephrine

B 131. Neurotransmitter at cholinergic receptors:

a. propranolol b. acetylcholine c. phentolamine d.
norepinephrine

C 132. Antagonist at alpha adrenergic receptors:

a. propranolol b. acetylcholine c. phentolamine d.
norepinephrine

A 133. Antagonist at muscarinic receptors:

Pharmacology Page 9 of 18

a. atropine b. acetylcholine c. phentolamine d.

norepinephrine

C 134. Antagonist at nicotinic receptor:

a. propranolol b. acetylcholine c. curare d.
norepinephrine
A 135. Preanesthetic agent to prevent delayed hypersensitivity reaction:
a. promethazine b. atropine c. diazepam d.
morphine

D 136. Enzyme/s which break/s down the neurotransmitter of the sympathetic nerve:
a. catechol-o-methyl transferase c. monoamine oxidase
b. acetylcholine esterase d. a and c

B 137. Enzyme/s which break/s down the neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic nerve:
a. catechol-o-methyl transferase c. acetylcholine esterase
b. monoamine oxidase d. a and c

B 138. Drug of choice for Parkinson’s disease:

a. diazepam b. levodopa c. ethosuximide
d. naltrexone

A 139. Long-acting barbiturate:

a. Phenobarbital b. pentobarbital c. amobarbital
d. thiopental

A 140. Opioid used for intractable, dry itchy cough:

a. codeine b. morphine c. dextrometorphan
d. cocaine

B 141. Antidote for physostigmine poisoning:

a. epinephrine b. NH4Cl c. atropine
d. codeine

B 142. Dopamine:
a. cholinergic agonist c. antiacetylcholinesterase
agent
b. adrenergic agonist d. anticholinergic agent

C 143. Edrophonium:
a. cholinergic agonist c. antiacetylcholinesterase
agent
b. adrenergic agonist d. anticholinergic agent

B 144. Antidote for warfarin toxicity:

a. protamine sulfate b. vitamin K c. heparin
d. aminocaproic acid

C 145. Antihypertensive agent used as hair grower in alopecia:

a. Hydralazine b. verapamil c. minoxidil
d. captopril

B 146. Nifedipine:
a. ACE inhibitor b. calcium channel blocker c. cardiac glycosides
d. alpha blocker

B 147. Nitroglycerine:
a. Anti-arrhythmic agent c. antihypertensive agent
b. Anti-anginal agent d. all of the above

D 148. Used to induce ovulation:

a. ketoconazole b. metyrapone c. metronidazole d.
clomiphene

B 149. Aldosterone:
a. glucocorticoid c. anti-estrogen
b. mineralocorticoid d. anti-androgen

C 150. Two drugs have the same pharmacological effects but when given together produced a greater effect than if
each drug was given individually:
a. additive b. potentiation c. synergism
d. antagonism
Pharmacology Page 10 of 18

C 151. Measures the safety and usefulness of the drugs:

a. half life b. volume of distribution c. therapeutic index d. total
body clearance

D 152. Most common side effect of chloramphenicol:

a. ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity c. pseudomembranous colitis
b. yellowish teeth discoloration d. aplastic anemia

A 153. Most common side effect of aminoglycosides:

a. ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity c. pseudomembranous colitis
b. yellowish teeth discoloration d. aplastic anemia

C 154. Most common side effect of clindamycin:

a. ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity c. pseudomembranous colitis
b. yellowish teeth discoloration d. aplastic anemia

B 155. Most common side effect of rifampicin:

a. hypersensitivity reaction c. hepatotoxicity
b. orange discoloration of urine d. blood dyscrasia

C 156. Where can you find kernicterus as its side effect?

a. tetracycline b. clindamycin c. sulfonamide d. chloramphenicol

D 157. Drug of choice for typhoid fever:

a. clindamycin b. cephalosporin c. erythromycin d. chloramphenicol

C 158. Drug of choice for pseudomembranous colitis:

a. tetracycline b. sulfonamide c. vancomycin d.
penicillin

D 159. drug of choice for herpes zoster (shingles) infection:

a. amantidine b. methisazole c. methisoprinol d.
acyclovir

A 160. Drug of choice for trichomoniasis:

a. metronidazole b. quinine c. chloroquine d.
nystatin

A 161. This anti-infective agent has disulfiram-like effect when taken with alcoholic beverages:
a. metronidazole b. griseofulvin c. nystatin d.
amphotericin B

D 162. This drug can be used for both PTB and leprosy:
a. pyrazinamide b. ethambutol c. isoniazid (INH)
d. rifampicin

A 163. Vitamin given to prevent pernicious anemia:

a. cobalamine b. ferrous sulfate c. folic acid d.
thiamine

B 164. Antiviral agent also used for leukemia:

a. amantidine b. vidarabine c. acyclovir d.
ribavirin

B 165. Vitamin which has an antisterility effect:

a. vitamin A b. vitamin E c. vitamin K d.
vitamin C

C 166. Mechanism of action of aminoglycosides:

a. inhibit the synthesis of bacterial cell wall
b. prevent PABA to form folic acid
c. inhibit protein synthesis
d. alter cell membrane permeability

B 167. Mechanism of action of sulfonamides:

a. inhibit the synthesis of bacterial cell wall
b. prevent PABA to form folic acid
c. inhibit protein synthesis
d. alter cell membrane permeability

A 168. Mechanism of action of penicillin:

a. inhibit the synthesis of bacterial cell wall
b. prevent PABA to form folic acid
c. inhibit protein synthesis
Pharmacology Page 11 of 18

d. alter cell membrane permeability

C 169. Mechanism of action of erythromycin:

a. inhibit the synthesis of bacterial cell wall
b. prevent PABA to form folic acid
c. inhibit protein synthesis
d. alter cell membrane permeability

C 170. Mechanism of action of nystatin:

a. paralyze adult worms c. inhibit ergosterol
b. inhibit mycolic acid d. inhibit viral polymerase

B 171. Mechanism of action of isoniazid:

a. paralyze adult worms c. inhibit ergosterol
b. inhibit mycolic acid d. inhibit viral polymerase

B 172. Niclosamide:
a. antibiotic b. anthelimintic agent c. antimycotic agent
d. antiviral agent

B 173. Quinine:
a. antituberculotic agent b. antimalarial agent c. antileprotic agent d.
antiprotozoal agent

A 174. A patient is being treated for nighttime sedation. Which alteration in warfarin dosage is indicated?
a. a decrease because its metabolism has been inhibited
b. a decrease because its excretion has been reduced
c. an increase because its GIT absorption has been impaired
d. an increase because its metabolism has been stimulated
B 175. Displacement of a drug from plasma binding sites would usually be expected to:
a. decrease tissue levels of the drug
b. increase tissue levels of the drug
c. decrease the volume of distribution of the drug
d. decrease the metabolism of the drug

C 176. Widely used in cancer management that are classified as steroid hormone:
a. prednisolone b. prednisone c. both d. none of
the above

D 177. the ff. are the effects of morphine:

a. respiratory depression b. analgesia c. pin-point pupils
d. all of the above

C 178. Long-acting anti-diabetic agents:

a. protamine zinc insulin suspension c. both
b. extended zinc insulin suspension d. none

C 179. The ff. are antidotes for morphine poisoning:

a. naloxone b. naltrexone c. both a and b d.
none of the above

D 180. The ff. are non-narcotic analgesics:

a. acetylsalicylic acid b. paracetamol c. dipyrone
d. all of the above

A 181. Type of epilepsy which involves the spread of electrical firing in a single hemisphere of the brain:
a. partial b. general c. none of the above
d. both a and b

B 182. Richest source of vitamin A:

a. grapes b. fish liver oil c. meats d. none of
the above

D 183. Which of the following effect/s of histamines are mediated through H2 receptors, EXCEPT:
a. uterine relaxation c. increased gastric secretion
b. cardiac stimulation (in guinea pigs) d. release of catecholamines from adrenal medulla

B 184. Drug used to treat amoebiasis can be categorized as the following, EXCEPT:
a. luminal b. peripheral c. systemic d.
mixed

C 185. An antiviral drug used for parkinsonism which releases dopamine from storage vesicles:
a. chlorpromazine b. phenelzine c. amantidine d. none of the above

A 186. Drug of choice for mania:

a. lithium carbonate b. amitriptyline c. deprenyl d. none of the above
Pharmacology Page 12 of 18

B 187. Vitamin K deficiency state:

a. alopecia b. hemorrhage c. scurvy d.
none of the above

C 188. Type of general seizure which involves the abnormal movement of muscles:
a. grand mal b. petit mal c. myoclonic seizures d. status epilepticus
d. none of the above

C 189. ________ is effective in the management of gastric acid hypersecretion and symptoms relief with
Zollinger-Ellison syndrome:
a. misoprostol b. niclosamide c. omeprazole d.
thiabendazole

B 190. Oral hypoglycemic drugs, EXCEPT:

a. tolbutamide b. ultralente insulin c. tolazamide d. glipizide

C 191. Isoniazid may produce peripheral neuropathy and can be prevented by co-administration of:
a. vitamin B6 b. pyridoxine c. both d. none

A 192. Most potent member of the general anesthetics:

a. methoxyflurane b. halothane c. isoflurane
d. enflurane

B 193. A Phenobarbital derivative which is used in combination therapy for types of epilepsy:
a. valproic acid b. primidone c. benzodiazepine
d. ethosuximide

A 194. Precursor of Vitamin D3:

a. cholesterol b. ergosterol c. ergotamine d. none of
the above

B 195. Responsible for calcification of bone and renal phosphate clearance:

a. alpha-tocopherol b. cholecalciferol c. folic acid
d. niacin

B 196. Not to be administered to neonates:

a. amoxicillin b. sulfonamide c. cephalosporin d.
erythromycin

C 197. The H2 histamine receptor lockers are of great value in treating patients with:
a. ulcer b. CHF c. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome d.
duodenal ulcer

B 198. Thyroid function is controlled by the tropic hormone _______:

a. T3 b. thyrotropin-stimulating hormone c. T3 d.
both a and c
A 199. A painful sensation associated with complex biochemical mechanisms:
a. inflammation b. cancer c. infection d.
none of the above

D 200. Which of the following penicillin/s is/are penicillinase-resistant?

a. methicillin b. cloxacillin c. oxacillin d.
b and c only

C 201. Agent that facilitates the expulsion of gases from the GIT:
a. laxatives b. adsorbents c. anti-flatulents d.
stomachics

A 202. First line drug against all common intestinal nematodes:

a. mebendazole b. niclosamide c. piperazine d.
pyrantel palmoate

D 203. The ff. are effects of morphine:

a. coma b. urinary retention c. emesis d.
all of the above

B 204. It inhibits the DNA-dependent RNA polymerase of Mycobacteria:

a. isoniazid b. rifampicin c. ethambutol d.
pyrazinamide

A 205. Therapy choice for diarrhea:

a. oral rehydration salts b. adsorbents c. astringents
d. tannins

C 206. Xanthine alkaloid used as bronchodilator:

Pharmacology Page 13 of 18

a. ephedrine b. atropine c. theophylline d.

epinephrine

D 207. Slow-acting antimalarial agents:

a. quinine b. mefloquine c. fluoroquine d.
pyrimethamine

D 208. The ff. are general anesthetics:

a. cnitrous oxide b. isoflurane c. halothane d.
all of the above

C 209. For the treatment of postoperative retention of urine that the patient is likely to e benefited with drug/s
possessing which of the ff. property(ies):
a. diuretic property c. smooth muscle stimulant property
b. antidiuretic property d. smooth muscle relaxant property

D 210. The ff. are antipsychotic drugs:

a. chlorpromazine b. promethazine c. thiothixine
d. all of the above

D 211. Inhibition of carbonic anhydrase enzyme may be therapeutically useful for which of the ff. purposes,
EXCEPT:
a. to produce diuresis c. to prevent acute mountain sickness
b. to reduce intraocular pressure d. to counter the effects of vasopressin on the kidney

A 212. Androgens can cause fluid retention, leading to:

a. edema b. hirsutism c. migraine d.
unconsciousness

A 213. Drug of choice for status epilepticus in children:

a. Phenobarbital c. both a and b
b. diazepam d. none of the above

A 214. The ff. drugs are systemic anti-fungals, EXCEPT:

a. clotrimazole b. amphotericin c. ketoconazole d.
fluconazole

D 215. Which of the following are the main advantages of ranitidine over cimetidine?
a. higher potency c. fewer side effects
b. lack of an antiandrogenic activity d. all of the above

C 216. Among the following, which is the primary action of heparin responsible for its anticoagulant effect?
a. decreased prothrombin formation in the liver
b. decreased formation of fibrinogen
c. activation of plasma antithrombin III
d. decreased aggregation of platelets

C 217. The following are uricosuric agents:

a. probenecid b. sulfinpyrazole c. both a and b d.
none of the above

D 218. The ff. effect/s of histamine is/are mediated through H1 receptors, EXCEPT:
a. bronchoconstriction c. uterine contraction
b. stimulation of intestinal smooth muscles d. increased gastric secretion

D 219. The following are non-narcotic analgesics:

a. naproxen b. ibuprofen c. piroxicam d.
all of the above

C 220. Which of the following drug/s primarily act on the proximal tubule (site 1) to produce its/ their diuretic
effect, EXCEPT:
a. mannitol b. acetazolamide c. furosemide d.
glycerol
B 221. Also known as absence seizures:
a. grand mal c. status epilepticus
b. petit mal e. none of the above
c. myoclonic seizures

D 222. Agents that facilitate the easy removal of compacted fecal matter:
a. astringent b. styptics c. adsorbents d.
cathartics

B 223. Vitamin B12 deficiency state:

a. sterility b. pernicious anemia c. hepatitis
d. none of the above
Pharmacology Page 14 of 18

B 224. The non-systemic antacids are preferred because of the safety as well as:
a. shorter duration of action c. no action
b. longer duration of action d. none of the above

B 225. Bactericidal drugs that are applied to non-living material:

a. antiseptics b. disinfectants c. germicide d.
all

C 226. An anti-inflammatory drug also used for malaria:

a. gold salts b. methotrexate c. chloroquine d.
penicillamine

D 227. drugs affecting thyroid:

a. thyroxine b. iodine c. methimazole d.
all of the above
B 228. This heart condition develops when the blood volume is great compared to the space available inside blood
vessels; this can be caused by edema:
a. heart failure d. arrhythmias
b. hypertension e. myocardial infarction
c. angina
A 229. An anti-psychotic drug possessing antihistaminic and anti-emetic properties:
a. promethazine d. morphine
b. amitriptylline e. none of the above
c. scopolamine
D 230. Which of the ff. tends to cause black, tarry stools?
a. magnesium sulfate d. ferrous sulfate
b. magnesium hydroxide e. castor oil
c. calcium bicarbonate
B 231. Fecal softener:
a. anthraquinone glycosides b. docusate c. fleet enema
d. mineral oil

D 232. Both oxytocin and vasopressin increase:

a. constriction of uterine blood vessels
b. constriction of coronary blood vessels, thereby reducing cardiac output
c. water reabsorption with equal effectiveness in diabetes insipidus
d. uterine contractility

B 233. carbonic anhydrase inhibitor:

a. spironolactone b. acetazolamide c. aldosterone d.
all of the above

B 234. Anti-TB drug which causes optic neuritis:

a. PZA b. ethambutol c. rifampicin c. streptomycin e. none of
the above

C 235. An antidote for heparin overdosage:

a. dicumarol b. calcium salt c. protamine sulfate
d. atropine

B 236. Potassium ion- hydrogen ion ATPase dependent pump inhibitor:

a. Misoprostol b. omeprazole c. cimetidine c. all of the above
d. none

B 237. A non-selective beta antagonist, it blocks both beta 1 and beta 2 receptors:
a. atenolol b. propranolol c. tinolol d.
atropine

A 238. Each of the following drugs produces a reflex increase in sympathetic activity and tachycardia as side
effects, EXCEPT:
a. clonidine d. hydralazine
b. nitroglycerine e. minoxidil
c. diazoxide
D 239. Which of the following drugs could be used effectively to alleviate postpartum breast engorgement in
patients who are breastfeeding their infants?
a. vasopressin d. oxytocin
b. estrogen e. ergonovine
c. progesterone

C 240. Angina is treated with:

a. Drugs that increase perfusion of the myocardia by relaxing coronary arteries
Pharmacology Page 15 of 18

b. Beta blockers that decrease the oxygen demand of the heart

c. Both
d. neither

C 241. Agents that facilitate the easy removal of compacted fecal matter from the large intestines:
a. anti-diarrheals d. anti-flatulents
b. anti-motility agents e. none of the above
c. laxatives

D 242. Megaloblastic anemia can develop as consequence of prolonged therapy with each of the following,
EXCEPT:
a. phenytoin d. ethosuximide
b. primidone e. amethopterin
c. phenobarbital
D 243. Type of anemia which produces immature RBC decreasing their oxygen carrying capacity (this results due
to the decreased biosynthesis of thymidylate which in turn is utilized in the synthesis of DNA):
a. pernicious b. microcytic c. aplastic d. megaloblastic
e. none of the above
C 244. The side effects of steroids diminish when the drug is given via:
a. IV b. oral c. inhalation d. subcutaneous
e. rectal
A 245. Vitamin used in cancer chemotherapy:
a. cyanocobalamine d. thiamine
b. folic acid e. riboflavin
c. pyridoxine

A 246. In a person with ulcerative colitis and diarrhea, which agent would have the greatest potential for producing
perforation of the intestine?
a. morphine d. methylcellulose
b. kaolin with pectin e. propantheline
c. atropine

D 247. Anti-diarrheal agents include all of the ff., EXCEPT:

a. kaolin d. magnesium hydroxide
b. paregoric e. diphenoxylate
c. activated charcoal

E 248. Administration of each of the following drugs during chronic dicumarol therapy may cause an increase in
the anticoagulant effect of dicumarol:
a. clofibrate d. salicylates
b. broad spectrum antibiotics e. Phenobarbital
c. phenylbutazone

A 249. The richest source of vitamin K:

a. green leafy vegetables c. citrus fruits
b. organ meats d. rice polishings

B 250. A stimulant laxative also used as an indicator in acid-base titrations:

a. methyl red d. senna
b. phenolphthalein e. none of these
c. dulcolax

C 251. The most specific drug therapy for neostigmine-induced diarrhea would be:
a. methysergide d. calcium carbonate
b. cholestyramine e. kaolin with pectin
c. tincture of belladonna

B 252. Antidote for INH toxicity:

a. acetylcysteine b. pyridoxine c. niacinamide d. none of the above

D 253. Anti-ulcer drug which possesses both anti-secretory and cytoprotective properties:
a. sucralfate d. misoprostol
b. carbenoxolone e. none of the above
c. milk of bismuth

D 254. Antidote for carbon monoxide poisoning:

a. 100% oxygen d. all of the above
b. hyperbaric oxygen e. none of the above
c. helium + oxygen mixture
Pharmacology Page 16 of 18

D 255. The development of metabolic acidosis limits the diuretic efficacy of:
a. hydrochlorothiazide d. acetazolamide
b. mannitol e. ethacrynic acid
c. furosemide

D 256. Side effects of organic nitrates include the ff., EXCEPT:

a. postural hypotension b. migraine c. dizziness
d. vomiting

C 257. An antihypertensive agent that rarely produces postural hypotension as a troublesome side effect is:
a. guanethidine d. hydralazine
b. methyldopa e. mecamylamine
c. hydrochlorothiazide

E 258. Metabolic alkalosis is likely to enhance digitalis toxicity because it is often associated with:
a. decreased ionized plasma calcium d. increased plasma magnesium
b. decreased plasma volume e. decreased tissue potassium
c. increased ionized plasma magnesium

C 259. For the emergency treatment of anaphylactic shock, one should administer:
a. aminophylline d. disodium chromoglycate
b. diphenhydramine e. isoproterenol
c. epinephrine

D 260. Diuretics that act on the ascending Loop of Henle:

a. furosemide b. ethacrynic acid c. acetazolamide
d. both a and b

B 261. Agents that control excessive sweating:

a. deodorants d. all of the above
b. anti-perspirants e. none of the above
c. styptics

D 262. Hemolytic anemia is a recognized danger in the administration of all of the ff., EXCEPT:
a. sulfadiazine d. digitoxin
b. primaquine e. para-aminosalicylic acid
c. menadione

B 263. Chemical compounds that alleviate irritation of mucous membrane or abraded tissue by forming a protective
coating:
a. emollients b. demulcents c. protectives d. astringents
e. none of the above

B 264. The excretion of large volumes of urine isotonic with plasma is most likely to occur after the administration
of:
a. hydrochlorothiazide b. acetazolamide c. amiloride d.
aminophylline

E 265. The ff. drugs are used as bronchodilators:

a. calcium channel blockers d. xanthine alkaloids
b. anti-cholinergic agents e. all of the above
c. adrenergic drugs

A 266. This drug is a mainstay for the acute treatment of migraine:

a. ergotamine b. ketanserin c. cyprophentadine
d. none of these

D 267. Common toxic effects of digitoxin include all of the following, EXCEPT:
a. anorexia d. visual disturbance
b. diuresis e. heart rate below 60
beats/minute
c. pulsus bigeminus

B 268. Types of anemia which causes neurological symptoms, achlorhydria, plus the symptoms of megaloblastic
anemia:
a. microcytic b. pernicious c. aplastic d. aggranulocytosis
e. none

D 269. Which of the ff. agents is least likely to produce kidney damage when used to treat a systemic infection?
a. sulfadiazine b. streptomycin c. bacitracin d. erythromycin
e. viomycin

D 270. Agents that lower serum cholesterol by interfering with cholesterol synthesis include:
a. heparin b. cholestyramine c. d-thyroxine
d. clofibrate
Pharmacology Page 17 of 18

C 271. An ergot alkaloid used to induce uterine smooth muscle contraction:

a. carboprost d. all of the above
b. oxytocin e. none of the above
c. ergonovine

B 272. Drugs used for microcytic anemia:

a. cyanocobalamine d. all of the above
b. ferrous sulfate e. none of the above
c. folic acid
A 273. The condition wherein the heart can no longer pump enough blood to meet the metabolic demands of the
body:
a. congestive heart failure d. myocardial infarction
b. arrhythmias e. hypertension
c. angina

C 274. Drug of choice for persistent hiccups:

a. oxygen b. helium c. carbon monoxide d. ammonia
e. nitrogen

A 275. Agents that reduce the number of resident bacteria of the skin and thus inhibit bacterial decomposition of
perspiration:
a. deodorants d. all of the above
b. anti-perspirants e. none of the choices
c. styptics
B 276. Inherent pharmacologic property of iodine ion:
a. mucolytic d. bronchodilator
b. expectorant e. none of the choices
c. anti-tussive
D 277. Pharmacologic actions of calcium channel blockers include:
a. vasodilation due to the blockade of calcium and reduction of intracellular calcium
b. decrease coronary vascular resistance
c. increase coronary blood flow
d. all of the above
A 278. This dusting powder is not used as a lubricant for surgical gloves since it may produce granulomas:
a. talc b. zinc oxide c. starch d. all of the above
e. none of the choices
A 279. Deficiency state of folic acid:
a. megaloblastic anemia c. microcytic anemia
b. pernicious anemia d. sterility
C 280. Anti-nauseant used by patients undergoing cancer chemotherapy:
a. haloperidol b. phenothiazines c. cannabinol d. meclizine
B 281. Oxygen-starved areas of the heart begin to die:
a. arrhythmias d. hypertension
b. myocardial infarction e. angina
c. heart failure
C 282. These are toxic manifestations of atropine poisoning, EXCEPT:
a. increase heart rate b. thirst c. slowing of the heart d. decreased
secretions
B 283. The side effect of magnesium containing antacids:
a. constipation d. systemic alkalosis
b. laxative e. all of the above
c. acid-rebound
A 284. Each of the ff. drugs produces a reflex increase in sympathetic activity and tachycardia as side effects,
EXCEPT:
a. clonidine b. nitroglycerine c. diazoxide
d. hydralazine
E 285. The ff. are the uses of ethyl alcohol:
a. antiseptic d. external antipyretic
b. rubefacient e. all of the above
c. disinfectant
B 286. Which of the ff. anti-emetic compounds is most likely to produce jaundice and parkinsonism when used for
prolonged periods?
a. dimenhydrinate b. chlorpromazine c. meclizine d.
diphenidol
Pharmacology Page 18 of 18

B 287. The organic nitrate given by inhalation is:

a. nitroglycerin b. amyl nitrate c. isosorbide dinitrate d. all of the
above
B 288. Hydrochlorothiazide is known to produce all of the following, EXCEPT:
a. hyperuricemia d. decreased blood pressure
b. hyperkalemia e. hyperglycemia
c. hyponatremia
A 289. Also known as hyperosmotic laxatives:
a. saline laxatives d. stimulant laxatives
b. emollient laxatives e. lubricant laxatives
c. bulk forming laxatives

B 290. Constipating antacid:

a. magnesium sulfate d. potassium bicarbonate
b. aluminum hydroxide e. none of the above
c. calcium sulfate
B 291. Osmotic diuretic:
a. ethacrynic acid d. spironolactone
b. mannitol e. none of the above
c. acetazolamide
D 292. These drugs increase the metabolism of quinidine:
a. phenytoin b. rifampin c. barbiturates d.
all of the above
C 293. Parkinson-like symptoms are side effects of phenothizines; this is because phenothiazine causes:
a. blockade of the muscarinic receptors
b. blockade of the alpha adrenergic receptors
c. blockade of the dopamine recptors
d. stimulation of the nicotinic receptors
.
D 294. Acts by centrally producing sedation and a state of indifference to environmental stimuli:
a. methyl dopa b. atenolol c. guanethidine d.
reserpine
D 295. Which of the ff. types of pulmonary dysfunction may follow heroin abuse?
a. pulmonary fibrosis c. bronchospasm
b. pulmonary edema d. pulmonary hypertension
D 296. Xanthine derivatives may produce the following effects, EXCEPT:
a. stimulation of the heart rate c. bronchodilation
b. diuresis d. depression of the
respiratory center
C 297. The ratio of the LD50 to the ED50 is an indication of the:
a. efficacy b. potency c. therapeutic index
d. none of the given choices
C 298. The applied form of pharmacology:
a. pharmacokinetics c. pharmacotherapeutics
b. pharmacodynamics d. pharmacy
D 299. Drug interaction may be due to the following, EXCEPT:
a. drug-drug interaction c. drug-lab test
b. drug-food interaction d. placebo drug

D 300. drug information is a responsibility of:

a. physician b. nurse c. drug salesman d.
pharmacist