October 2023 Biology 1001A Practice Midterm Page 1 of 16

Circle the best single letter choice for each of the following questions before transferring your
answers to your Scantron sheet. Note, for “multiple-multiple” style questions, more than one option
may be correct (e.g. 1, 2 & 3 only). Part marks may be available for choosing some of the correct
answers but choosing any incorrect answer earns a grade of “0” for that question.

1. The genome of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is approximately 9500 nucleotides long
and encodes genes for 15 proteins that are used by HIV in its life cycle. Currently, standard
treatment for an HIV infection requires a patient to take several antiviral drugs together that
interfere with proteins functioning at multiple points of the HIV life cycle. Under this drug cocktail
regime, HIV will continue to evolve.

Where will mutations most likely appear in the genomes of HIV collected from a patient taking a
drug cocktail?

A. In the reverse transcriptase gene.

B. In genes where a mutation will be beneficial.
C. In genes that are targeted by the antiviral drugs.
D. In any gene, but not in non-coding regions.
E. Anywhere in the genome.

2. Evolution is gradual but can occur quickly. For example, HIV evolves resistance to the drug AZT
in only a few months. On the other hand, phenotypic changes take hundreds of years to evolve
in a population of elephants.

Which factor would contribute to a faster rate of evolution in HIV than in elephants?

A. If elephants live in environments where individuals rarely compete for resources.

B. If HIV produces new generations of offspring more quickly than elephants.
C. If elephants have a higher mutation rate (more mutations per genome copy) than HIV.
D. If HIV evolution is variational, but elephant evolution is transformational.

3. Evolution is a scientific theory, with notions of this theory first emerging in ancient times. Which of
the following statements accurately describes a scientific theory?

1. A scientific theory is an explanation about how something in nature works that cannot be
disputed.
2. A scientific theory is intended to be rigorously tested, which may strengthen or weaken the
theory.
3. A scientific theory is a set of ideas that are accepted as truth when initially proposed.
4. A scientific theory is modifiable based on evidence from experiments and observations.

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.

Code 111
October 2023 Biology 1001A Practice Midterm Page 2 of 16
4. Cave salamanders have eyes that are considered vestigial because these salamanders are blind.
Which of the following statements best explains the existence of cave salamander eyes based on
the theory of evolution?

A. In caves, there is little light to use for sight. So, the goal of salamanders living in caves was to
reduce the use of their eyes.
B. Cave salamanders are perfectly adapted to their environment, so their blind eyes must have an
advantageous function that we have not aware of.
C. The ancestor of cave salamanders must have had eyes used for seeing, but since good eyesight
does not provide an advantage in caves, salamanders with poor eyesight became more common.
D. Salamanders living in caves did not use their eyes. So, as individuals lived in darkness, they lost
their ability to see and this loss of eyesight was inherited by their offspring.

5. The process of natural selection can be separated into several steps that result in the evolution of
a population. The major steps, in no particular order, are described below, which would repeat
over generations of individuals in a population.

w. Mutations occurring in germ cells are passed onto offspring, which can change an offspring’s
traits compared to their parents.
x. The frequency of individuals carrying the genotypes that correspond with more favourable
traits increases.
y. Mutations in the genome of an individual occur during DNA replication or through chemical
modifications.
z. Individuals produce more offspring than others if they have traits that allow them to better
survive and reproduce in their environment.

From one generation to the next, what is the most likely order of these steps for a population to
evolve by natural selection?

A. First y, then w, then z, then x.

B. First z, then w, then y, then x.
C. First w, then y, then z, then x.
D. First y, then z, then x, then z.

6. Which of the following statements is consistent with the theory of evolution?

A. From a common ancestor, all life on Earth evolved over 10, 000 years.
B. Evolution occurs when individuals develop favourable traits over their lifetime.
C. Since mutation is random, it is possible for any type of trait to evolve.
D. Evolution occurs when a population changes over time.
E. All life that exists today has stopped evolving.

Code 111
October 2023 Biology 1001A Practice Midterm Page 3 of 16

7. How are bacteria and viruses different?

A. Bacteria have cytoplasm surrounded by a lipid membrane, whereas viruses are surrounded by a
protein shell.
B. All bacteria have DNA genomes, but all viruses have RNA genomes.
C. Only bacteria have organelles.
D. Only viruses evolve.

8. The image shows the karyotype of a Saffron Finch, Sicalis flaveol (ZW are the sex chromosomes).
One copy of the Sicalis flaveol genome weighs 400 pg.

Which of the following statements is correct?

1. During metaphase II, the Sicalis flaveol has 2 copies of the genome.
2. The C-value of Sicalis flaveol is 100 pg.
3. During G2, the Sicalis flaveol has 160 sister chromatids.
4. During G2, one copy of Sicalis flaveol’s genome weighs 800 pg.

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.

9. Imagine that you have 4 drugs that are capable of blocking the cell cycle at specific points as
indicated on the image. Using such drugs, you could therefore arrest a whole population of cells
at your choice at any of the drug treatment points shown.

After which of the following drug treatments

would you see the maximum amount of DNA in
the cell?

1. Drug A
2. Drug B
3. Drug C
4. Drug D

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.

Code 111
October 2023 Biology 1001A Practice Midterm Page 4 of 16

10. The mating ritual of honeybees is an unusual affair. The queen bee is
a diploid (2n = 32) and the male drone is a haploid.

How many sister chromatids would be present during the G2 phase of

the drone?

A. 16
B. 32
C. 64
D. 128

11. Single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) are the most common type of genetic variation among
people.

Which of the following mechanisms can result in the formation of SNPs?

1. Mismatch during DNA replication.

2. Slippage during DNA replication.
3. Formation of tautomers.
4. 3’ to 5’ exonuclease activity of Polymerase.

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.

12. Which of the following statements about Reactive Oxygen Species (ROS) is correct?

1. ROS can accumulate in aging cells.

2. ROS is predominantly formed in the mitochondria.
3. ROS contributes to the oxygen paradox.
4. ROS can react with electrons in DNA, RNA, and protein.

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.

Code 111
October 2023 Biology 1001A Practice Midterm Page 5 of 16

13. The image shows the chromosomes involved in a fertilization event that gives rise to a zygote
(the 2 gametes coming together make the zygote). Which of the following statements is correct?
[Hint: Carefully watch for the words “gamete” and “zygote” in each option].

1. The resulting zygote will have a ploidy of 4n.

2. The ploidy of the gamete is 2n.
3. The gamete has 4 copies of the genome.
4. The resulting zygote will have 4 copies of the
genome during G2 phase of the cell cycle.

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.

14. Imagine a cell entering the cell cycle to undergo mitosis.

Which of the following graphs illustrates the correct amount of DNA during each phase of the cell
cycle?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

Code 111
October 2023 Biology 1001A Practice Midterm Page 6 of 16
15. Mala’s older sister, Riya, is helping her understand the function of telomerase. In efforts to
explain the concept to Mala, Riya draws the diagram below. Mala is still struggling with the
concept because Riya drew the diagram incorrectly.

Which of the following parts of the diagram are incorrect?

1. Telomerase should be bound to the newly synthesized strand so it can be extended.

2. Telomerase is carrying a DNA template instead of an RNA template
3. The template strand should not be longer than the newly synthesized strand.
4. The 5’ and 3’ ends of the DNA strands are labelled incorrectly.

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.

16. In humans, colour blindness is a recessive trait carried on the X chromosome. Imagine that a
couple, John and Rebecca, have a colour-blind daughter named Cynthia, with the unusual
karyotype of 45 X. That is, she has only one X chromosome instead of the usual two. Although
John and Rebecca both have normal colour vision and are karyotypically normal, Rebecca’s
mother was colour-blind.

Where could an error in meiosis have occurred that would have given rise to a colour-blind
daughter with only one X chromosome? [Note: you can do this without drawing out all the non-
disjunction events – think slow and you can narrow it down].

1. Non-disjunction in John during Meiosis I

2. Non-disjunction in Rebecca during Meiosis I
3. Non-disjunction in John during Meiosis II
4. Non-disjunction in Rebecca during Meiosis II.

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.

Code 111
October 2023 Biology 1001A Practice Midterm Page 7 of 16
17. Cytosine (C is able to convert from its normal amino form to its tautomeric imino form (C*) which
preferentially pairs with thymine (T) instead of guanine (G). Imagine a cell where one C
nucleotide has been converted to C*. Now imagine a cell with C*=T in its DNA which is ready to
undergo its first round of replication. [Note: Cytosine doesn’t revert back to its amino form during
the 1st and 2nd replication rounds].

Which of the following statements about the replication process is correct?

A. During the second round of replication, a parent cell with transition mutation will give rise to 2
daughter cells with transition mutation.
B. The first round of replication will give rise to 2 daughter cells with a transversion mutation.
C. The first round of replication will give rise to one daughter cell with a transition mutation.
D. During the second round of replication, the cell with DNA damage will give rise to a daughter cell
with a transversion mutation.

18. The image shows common crops

along with their ploidy and C-value.
Based on the image and your
knowledge from lecture, which of the
following conclusions can you make?

A. Compared to maize, rice has far more

transposable elements in its genome.
B. The Maize genome may contain
transposable elements in regions of
DNA responsible for pigmentation.
C. Since the C-value of rice is less than
barley, it has less genes than barely.
D. Barley has the highest coefficient of C.

19. One of Mendel’s most powerful tools was the

dihybrid cross involving independently assorting
genes. The image shows the cell during
metaphase I with the genotype RrYy from the
garden pea plant. The location of the R allele is
shown. Which of the following statements about
the labels on this diagram is correct?

1. B shows a likely location of the Y allele.

2. A shows a likely location of the Y allele.
3. D shows a likely location of the y allele.
4. C shows a likely location of the r allele.

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.

Code 111
October 2023 Biology 1001A Practice Midterm Page 8 of 16
20. During replication, an error uncorrected by proofreading or mismatch repair produced a DNA
molecule with the wrong base paired with G at the indicated position. Now imagine a cell
containing this error undergoing mitosis to produce two daughter cells. Assuming that there
are no tautomerization or mismatch events during mitosis, which of the following statements
about the genotypes of the resulting daughter cells is correct?

A. Each daughter cell will have DNA damage.

B. Each daughter cell will have a mutation.
C. One daughter cell will have DNA damage and the other will have a mutation.
D. One daughter cell will have a mutation and the other will be wild-type (normal).

21. Aneuploidy can occur as a result of nondisjunction during

Meiosis I or II. The image shows a 2n cell undergoing Meiosis
I, where a nondisjunction event is occurring during Anaphase I.

Provided that Meiosis II is normal, which of the following

images correctly illustrate the ploidy of the gametes that will be
formed at the end of Meiosis II?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

Code 111
October 2023 Biology 1001A Practice Midterm Page 9 of 16
Use this image to answer the next 2 questions (Q22 & Q23).

22. The image shows a partially completed sketch of a replication bubble at the Ori. Dark solid lines
indicate primers and dashed line indicates newly synthesized DNA.

Which of the following numbers represent a 3’end of DNA or RNA?

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.

23. Which of the following statements about the image above is correct?

1. If point 4 was the end of the chromosome, telomerase would act at this point.
2. Ligase will seal a gap at point 1.
3. DNA Polymerase III will start synthesis at point 3.
4. DNA Polymerase I will end synthesis at point 2.

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.

24. Studies of frog oocytes led to the important discovery of a regulatory protein involved in cell
cycling. Using the frog, Rana pipiens, scientists learned that if oocytes are arrested in prophase
of meiosis I and then injected with cytoplasm containing a specific protein, meiosis progression
can be induced (activated).

Which of the following proteins were the

oocytes most likely injected with?

A. A protein that activates p53.

B. A protein that triggers cells to enter G0.
C. A protein that activates p21.
D. A cyclin-dependent kinase (CDK).

Code 111
October 2023 Biology 1001A Practice Midterm Page 10 of 16

25. The cell cycle plays an important role in controlling cell division. Which of the following can lead
to increased cell division?

1. Loss of p53.
2. Loss of CDK.
3. Loss of p21.
4. Loss of cyclins.

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.

26. Which of the following conclusions can be made by Mendel's experiments?

1. Variation in traits is due to different alleles.

2. Alleles segregate randomly into gametes.
3. Organisms inherit two alleles for each trait.
4. Physical appearance or phenotype of heterozygotes is determined by dominant alleles.

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.

27. Cell growth and cell

replication are essential for
the development of
multicellular organisms. The
surface area to volume ratio
(SA:V) is related to cell growth
and replication. The image
shows one cell giving rise to a
group of cells.

Based on the image and your

knowledge from lecture, which
of the following statements is
correct?

A. Compared to cell 1, cell 2 has a higher SA:V ratio.

B. Cell 2 undergoes cell replication to maintain a high SA:V ratio.
C. The cells in the multicellular stage 4 have vastly different SA:V ratios.
D. During cell growth, the surface area increases faster than the volume.

Code 111
October 2023 Biology 1001A Practice Midterm Page 11 of 16

28. If the C-value for a diploid (2n) organism is 60 pg, how much DNA would be in the nucleus of its
haploid cell (n) during G1 phase of the cell cycle?

A. 60 pg
B. 15 pg
C. 30 pg
D. 240 pg

29. The image shown illustrates the life cycle of plants

and most fungi. The letters represent different
phases of the plant/fungi. Based on the image and
your knowledge from lecture, which of the following
statements is correct?

1. Phases B and D are diploid.

2. Phases C and E are haploid.
3. Conversion of phase C to E involves meiosis.
4. Conversion of phase B to C involves
homologous recombination.

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.

30. The cell shown in the image is undergoing anaphase. Which of the
following statements regarding the cell is correct.

1. This could be mitosis in a diploid cell with 4 chromosomes.

2. This could be anaphase I in a diploid cell with 4 chromosomes.
3. This could be anaphase II in a diploid cell with 8 chromosomes.
4. This could be anaphase II in a diploid cell with 4 chromosomes.

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.

Code 111
October 2023 Biology 1001A Practice Midterm Page 12 of 16
31. Which of the following statements about Meiosis is correct?

1. Meiosis I is identical to mitosis.

2. Meiosis I produces diploid cells whereas meiosis II produces haploid cells.
3. Homologous recombination occurs between 2 identical sister chromatids.
4. The products of meiosis are non-identical gametes.

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.

32. Maranda and her partner, David, both submitted their DNA to Veritas and discovered that they
are both karyotypically normal but homozygous for a SNP (A542T) on Chromosome 15 that is
associated with a higher risk of developing developmental disorders.

Maranda and David’s first child, Oliver, was born with trisomy 15 (Patau Syndrome). All three
copies of Oliver’s chromosome 15 carries the A542T SNP.

Assuming Oliver’s trisomy 15 karyotype resulted from a single error in chromosome partitioning,
in which of the following stages of meiosis might the error have occurred?

1. Meiosis I in the father.

2. Meiosis II in the mother.
3. Meiosis I in the mother.
4. Meiosis II in the father.
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.

33. Which of the following factors, on their own, cause allele frequencies to change in a
population?

1. Mutations in cells that will produce gametes.

2. Differences in fitness among individuals.
3. Reduction of population size to a small number of individuals.
4. Mating between close relatives.

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.

Code 111
October 2023 Biology 1001A Practice Midterm Page 13 of 16
34. Non-homologous end
joining (NHEJ) is a
mechanism cells use to
repair double strand
breaks. The image
illustrates a number of
scenarios of how NHEJ
might piece together a
double-stranded break.

Which of the following

might be a result of
NHEJ?

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.

35. Anthocyanins are a group of deep red, purple and blue pigments found in
plants. Flower petal color depends on the activity of enzymes involved in a
pigment-specific biosynthetic pathway. Pigment synthesis in flowers of pea
plants is regulated by the dominant Genes C and P. C and P are both
required for the production of anthocyanin which means that even one
homozygous recessive allelic pair will result in a mutant phenotype (white
colour). This is depicted in the diagram below.

If two plants with genotype CcPp are crossed with each other, what is the ratio of colour offspring
to white offspring?

A. 9 colour : 7 white
B. 7 colour : 9 white
C. 15 colour : 1 white
D. 12 colour : 4 white

36. The Xolo is the national dog of Mexico. A striking feature of some Xolos is
that they have no hair due to a mutation on Chromosome 17 that, when
homozygous, is lethal. If a hairless Xolo mates with a Xolo with hair, what
percent of their surviving offspring would have hair?

A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%

Code 111
October 2023 Biology 1001A Practice Midterm Page 14 of 16

37. A biologist is investigating immunity to influenza viruses in wild duck populations. In ducks, the
RIG-I locus, consisting of 2 alleles, is suspected to be involved in the immunity of ducks to
influenza infections. During an outbreak of influenza, the biologist determines the RIG-I genotype
frequencies in a very large duck population to assess whether the RIG-I locus contributes to
immunity and fitness of ducks. There are two alleles at the RIG-I locus, alleles R and G

At the end of the influenza outbreak, 10 % of the ducks were homozygous RR at the RIG-I locus,
20 % were heterozygous RG, and 70 % were homozygous GG. What would be the expected
genotype frequency for RR homozygotes if the RIG-I locus did not affect immunity to influenza?

A. 30 %
B. 20 %
C. 10 %
D. 4%

38. Consider the same population of ducks in the previous question. It turns out that the RIG-I locus
is associated with immunity to influenza. Based on the observed genotype frequencies and your
knowledge of the Hardy-Weinberg principle, deduce which genotypes had lower fitness due to
influenza infections. The predicted changes in genotype frequencies will depend on which
genotypes had relatively higher or lower fitness.

How will genotype frequencies likely change in this population if influenza infections become
endemic (consistently present over many, many generations)?

A. Eventually, all of the ducks in the population will be homozygous GG at the RIG-I locus.
B. Ducks that are homozygous RR at the RIG-I locus will increase in frequency, but a small number
of heterozygotes will continue to exist.
C. Eventually, all of the ducks in the population will be homozygous RR at the RIG-I locus.
D. Eventually, there will be an equal frequency of ducks that are homozygous RR and homozygous
GG at the RIG-I locus.

39. Which type of selection tends to decrease genetic diversity in a population?

1. Directional selection.
2. Disruptive selection.
3. Selection favouring the recessive phenotype.
4. Heterozygote disadvantage.

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 4 only
E. All of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.

Code 111
October 2023 Biology 1001A Practice Midterm Page 15 of 16

40. The table below indicates the average number of caterpillars that hatch per parent for 4 different
populations of monarch butterflies based on their phenotype of black spots, brown spots, or no
spots.

BLACK BROWN NO SPOTS

SPOTS SPOTS
POPULATION A 24 6 12
POPULATION B 20 4 5
POPULATION C 15 5 3
POPULATION D 10 2 8

Which population has the highest relative fitness for monarch butterflies with brown spots?
(Hint: calculate relative fitnesses for each population separately).

A. Population A
B. Population B
C. Population C
D. Population D

41. You are studying two populations of cave salamanders, and you determine the genotypes of all
individuals within both populations for the M locus. Population 1 only has genotype MM, whereas
most individuals within population 2 have genotype mm, but a few individuals have genotype Mm.
Based on this information, what would you hypothesize?

A. There has been some gene flow between the two populations, most likely from population 1 to
population 2.
B. There has been some gene flow between the two populations, most likely from population 2 to
population 1.
C. There is some gene flow between the two populations with approximately equal immigration to
and emigration from each population.
D. There is no gene flow between the two populations because they each have different genotypes.

42. An unprecedented heat wave has caused severe drought of an isolated lake resulting in a drastic
reduction of the population of trout fish. What change is most likely to occur in the trout
population as a result of this random loss of trout?

A. Heterozygotes will increase in frequency.

B. Dominant phenotypes will increase in frequency.
C. Alleles that are more common will increase in frequency.
D. Recessive alleles will increase in frequency.
E. Genotype and allele frequencies will not change.

Code 111