Class XII Biology (044)

Theory Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory.
b) The question paper has four sections: Section A, Section B, Section C and Section D.
There are 33 questions in the question paper.
c) Section–A has 14 questions of 1 mark each and 02 case-based questions. Section–B
has 9 questions of 2 marks each. Section–C has 5 questions of 3 marks each and
Section–D has 3 questions of 5 marks each.
d) There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some
questions. A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
e) Wherever necessary, neat and properly labelled diagrams should be drawn.

SECTION A

1 During the creation of insulin hormone artificially, why was C peptide 1

not synthesized?

2 Which immune response is responsible for graft rejection? Why does a 1

graft get rejected?

3 Given below is a figure of ICSI. 1

Explain why in IVF many sperms are used while only one is being
injected in ICSI?

4 Theoretically how many nucleotides would be present in a cell of 1

Escherichia coli?

5 Explain the structural and chemical composition of the pollen wall. 1

6 Given below is an equation depicting the species-area relationship: 1

log S = log C + Z log A

A graph is plotted taking log S on y axis and log A on x axis. Find the
value of the slope of the graph for

1) 1) Frugivorous birds and mammals in tropical forests of different

continents.
2)
3) 2) Molluscs in New York state.

7 A cross was carried out between two true breeding lines. The F2 1
generation showed a similar genotype and phenotype ratio. The plant
showing heterozygous genotype was then crossed with a homozygous
recessive trait. Find the phenotype ratio.

8 Show the passage of milk in mammary gland from alveoli lumen till 1
milk is sucked out.

9 Apart from denaturation of proteins, how is LAB useful to humans? 1

10 Identify the methodology used in HGP that focussed on identifying all 1

genes which express as RNA.

Directions for question 11-14:

In these questions (Q. No 5-8 , a statement of assertion followed by

a statement of reason is given. Choose the correct answer out of the
following choices.

a) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is

correct explanation for assertion.

b) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not
correct explanation for assertion.

c) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.

d) Assertion and reason both are wrong statements.

11 Assertion: Allergy is due to the release of chemicals like histamine and 1
serotonin.

Reason: The use of drugs like adrenalin and steroid quickly reduces the
symptom of allergy.

12 Assertion: A typical angiosperm anther is bilobed and tetrasporangiate. 1

Reason: There are two theca present in the anther of angiosperm.

OR

Assertion: Archesporium differentiates in the cell of nucellus. 1

Reason: Archesporium divides meiotically to generate megaspore

mother cell

13 Assertion: Under unfavourable conditions many zooplankton enter the 1

stage of diapause.

Reason: Zooplanktons are conformers and cannot maintain

homeostatsis.

14 Assertion: Mendel’s work attained recognition in 1900. 1

Reason: His work provided an explanation for the vast variation

observed in nature.

15 Read the following and answer any four questions from 15(1) to 15(5) 4
given below:

Cancer is one of the most dreaded diseases of human beings and is a

major cause of death all over the globe. More than a million Indians
suffer from cancer and a large number of them die from it annually. The
mechanisms that underlie development of cancer or oncogenic
transformation of cells, its treatment and control have been some of the
most intense areas of research in biology and medicine. In 2015, about
90.5 million people had cancer, As of 2019, about 18 million new cases
occur annually. Annually, it caused about 8.8 million deaths (15.7%
of deaths). The most common types of cancer in males are lung
cancer, prostate cancer, colorectal cancer, and stomach cancer. In
females, the most common types are breast cancer, colorectal cancer,
lung cancer, and cervical cancer.
1 Which of the following present in a normal cell is indicative of cancer?

i cellular oncogene
ii contact inhibition
iii proto-oncogene
iv viral oncogene

2 Which of the following is a biological response modifier which helps to

destroy tumor?

i surgery
ii immunotherapy
iii alpha interferon
iv chemotherapeutic drugs

3 Assertion: Malignant tumors are the most dangerous tumors.

Reason: Metastasis causes the tumor cells to reach new sites through
bones and start a new tumor there.

i Both assertion and reason are true, and the reason is the correct
explanation of the assertion.
ii Both assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
iii Assertion is true but reason is false.
iv Both assertion and reason are false

4 Which of the following is a non-ionising radiation responsible for

neoplastic transformation?

i X ray
ii UV ray
iii Gamma ray
iv None of the above.

5 How many of the following statements are incorrect regarding cancer

detection?

1. 1. Cancer detection is based on biopsy and histopathological studies.

2.
3. 2. MRI uses strong magnetic field and ionising radiations to detect
cancer.
 4.
5. 3. Computed Tomography (CT) uses alpha rays for cancer detection.
6.
7. 4. In biopsy, a piece of suspected tissue is cut into thin slices and
observed under a microscope by a pathologist.

i one
ii two
iii three
iv four

16 Read the following and answer any four questions from 16(1) to 16(5)
given below:

Biotechnology deals with techniques of using live organisms or

enzymes from organisms to produce products and processes useful to
humans. In this sense, making curd, bread or wine, which are all
microbe-mediated processes, could also be thought as a form of
biotechnology. However, it is used in a restricted sense today, to refer
to such of those processes which use genetically modified organisms to
achieve the same on a larger scale. Further, many other
processes/techniques are also included under biotechnology. For
example, in vitro fertilisation leading to a ‘test-tube’ baby, synthesising
a gene and using it, developing a DNA vaccine or correcting a defective
gene, are all part of biotechnology.

1 Which of the following is the main technique under bioprocess

engineering?

i Technique to alter the chemistry of genetic material

ii Maintenance of sterile ambience
iii Transforming the phenotype of host cell
iv Introduction of changed DNA into host cell.

2 Which enzymes are utilized in the method for the breakdown of the
fungal cell, plant cell, and bacterial cell?

i Lysozyme. lipases, trypsin

ii Chitinase, cellulase, lysozyme
iii Chitinase, cellulase, trypsin
iv Trypsin, lipases, cellulase
3 Recombinant DNA technology involves several steps in specific
sequence. Find out the correct sequence.

a. Fragmentation of DNA
b. Culturing the host cells in a medium at large scale
c. Ligation of DNA fragment into a vector
d. Extraction of the desired product
e. Isolation of DNA
f. Isolation of desired DNA fragment
g. Transferring the recombinaut DNA into the host

i e-a-f-g-c-b-d
ii e-f-a-c-g-b-d
iii a-e-c-f-g-b-d
iv e-a-f-c-g-b-d

4 A mixture containing DNA fragments A,B,C and D, with molecular

weights of A+B=C, A>B and D>C, was subjected to agarose gel
electrophoresis. The positions of these fragments from cathode to anode
sides of the gel would be.

i D,C,A,B
ii A,B,C,D
iii C,B,A,D
iv B,A,D,C

5 Which of the following is not a feature of the diagram shown below?

i It was the first artificial cloning vector constructed in 1977 by Boliver

and Rodriguez.
 ii It is the most widely usedm versatile and easily manipulated vector.
iii It has two antibiotic resistant genes tetR and ampR.
iv It does not have restriction site for Sal l.

SECTION B

17 Replication was allowed to take place in the presence of radioactive 2

deoxynucleotides precursors in E. coli that was a mutant for DNA
ligase. Newly synthesised radioactive DNA was purified and strands
were separated by denaturation. These were centrifuged using density
gradient centrifugation. Which of the following would be a correct
result? Explain why.

18 Explain briefly any two key elements that lead to variation in the 2
physical and chemical conditions of different habitats.

19 Refer to the following figure and answer the questions which follow: 2
 i Identify the contraceptive device and its class.
ii Explain its mode of action

OR

Refer to the following figure and answer the questions which follow: 2

i Identify the contraceptive device and its class.

ii Explain how it is done.

20 In a family, the mother has A blood group and the father has B blood 2
group. Their two children have B and AB blood group respectively. The
paternal grandfather has O blood group while the maternal grandfather
has B blood group. If both the maternal and paternal grandmothers are
homozygous, find the genotype of all the eight members.

21 Represent the recombinant DNA technology diagrammatically. 2

22 Explain the variation in the BOD during the secondary treatment of 2

sewage. Account for the variation.
23 Male honeybees cannot have sons, neither do they have fathers. But 2
they can have a grandson and have grandfather. Explain this unusual
phenomenon mentioning the divisions involved.

24 Based on the figure, answer the questions which follow in one word. 2

i Identify the chemical molecule.

ii From which plant is it obtained?
iii What chemical process results in the formation of smack for it?
iv Is smack a depressant or a stimulant?

OR

Based on the figure, answer the questions which follow in one word. 2

i Identify the disease.

ii Identify its causative organism.
iii Which vessels are affected in this disease?
iv Is it an acute or chronic disease?

25 Design an experiment to show how one antibiotic resistant gene helps 2

to select a transformant while the other antibiotic resistant gene gets
inactivated due to insertion of alien DNA.
 SECTION C

26 Which organism commonly infests tobacco plants? Explain how ½+2½=3

biotechnology helped to prevent this.

27 a Self-pollination continued for several generations can result in 1+2=3

inbreeding depression. Explain any one outbreeding device which can
assure that fertilization occurs between male gamete and egg cell of
different genotype.

b Draw a diagram of LS of an embryo of grass and label the following

parts:
1. The part which stores food for germinating seed
2. Sheath which encloses the radicle
3. The reduced cotyledon

28 State the usefulness of the following microbes: ½ x 6=3

a) Nucleopolyhedro virus
b) Saccharomyces cerevisilae
c) Monascus purpureus
d) Trichoderma polysporum
e) Penicillin
f) Propionibacterium sharmanil

29 a Analyse the pedigree chart given below and give an example of the 2+1=3
disease which follows this pattern of inheritance. Also give any two
effects of that disease.
 b Give any two conclusions derived from Morgan’s experiment on
fruitflies.

OR

a Analyse the chromosome pattern given below and identify the 2+1=3
chromosomal disorder. Also give its two symptoms:

b Give one example to explain that dominance is not an autonomous

feature of a gene.

30 Explain the broadly utilitarian argument to conserve biodiversity. 3

Compare the two major approaches of biodiversity conservation briefly.

SECTION D

31 a Refer to the following figure and answer the questions that follow: 4+1=5

a b
 i Identify (a) and (b)
ii Which type of population interaction does the above figure represent?
Define it.
iii How did (a) and (b) evolve?
iv Explain another example of the above interaction.

b What is common to the following plants: Nepenthes, Psilotum,

Rauwolfia and Aconitum.

OR

a The following diagrams are the age pyramids of different populations. 3+2=5
Comment on the status of these populations.

b What is common to the two species in each case?

i Parthenium and Eicchornia

ii Steller’s sea cow and passenger pigeon

32 a Explain post-fertilisation events upto the stage of placenta formation in 4+1=5

a human female.

b How many reduction divisions are undergone by a spermatogonia cell

to form a spermatid?

OR

a Distinguish between reproductive parts in human and human female 3+2=5

with respect to:
1. External Genitalia
2. Accessory Ducts
3. Primary sex organ and its function
 b Describe two functions each of the two pituitary hormones in regulating
the menstrual cycle in females.

33 a Explain any two complexities in the transcription of DNA in eukaryotes 2+3=5

as compared to prokaryotes.

b Given below is the nucleotide sequence of a template strand:

3’-ATATGTGCAGTGCATGAAGTCGCGTAG-5’

1. Predict the coding strand and the corresponding mRNA.

2. How many amino acids will be there in the protein formed by the
corresponding mRNA?

OR

a Comment on the utility of variability in number of tandem repeats 1+1+3=5

during DNA fingerprinting.

b Why do retroviruses not follow the central dogma?

c Using a diagram only, explain the lac operon system in E coli.