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DAV INSTITUTIONS, ODISHA

ZONE – I

CASE BASED
&
ASSERTION
REASON BASED
QUESTIONS

CLASS XII
SUBJECT - CHEMISTRY
2020-21
WORK IS WORSHIP

[1]
CLASS-XII
CONTENT
Sl no. Chapter Names Unit Page
No. no.
1. SOLID STATE 1 3–4
2. SOLUTION 2 5–7
3. ELECTROCHEMISTRY 3 7–9
4. CHEMICAL KINETICS 4 9 – 11
5. SURFACE CHEMISTRY 5 11 – 14
6. p-BLOCK ELEMENTS 7 14 – 17
7. d & f-BLOCK ELEMENTS 8 17 – 19
8. COORDINATION COMPOUND 9 19 – 21
9. HALOALKANES&HALOARENES 10 21 – 23
10. ALCOHOLS, PHENOLS & ETHERS 11 23 – 25
11. ALDEHYDES, KETONES & CARBOXYLIC 12 25 – 28
ACIDS
12. AMINES 13 28 – 31
13. BIOMOLECULES 14 31 – 33
14 ANSWER KEY 34 – 35

INSTRUCTIONS FOR ASSERTION-REASON QUESTIONS

In these questions, a statement of assertion followed by a statement of


reason is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following
choices.
[2]
a) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation
for assertion.

b) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct
explanation for assertion.

c) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.

d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement

UNIT-1
SOLID STATE
1. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions: (1×4)
A cubic system has 9 planes of symmetry, 13 axis of symmetry and 1 centre of
symmetry. The number of nearest neighbors with which a given sphere is in contact
is called co-ordination number. Co-ordination number in HCP and CCP
arrangements is 12, while in BCC arrangement coordination number is 8.
r
 0.155, 0.225
Coordination number can be predicted by radius ratio rules. When r
and 0.414, the coordination number is 3, 4 and 6, respectively. In simple cubic cell
or primitive cubic, BCC and FCC the values of packing fraction are 0.52, 0.68 and
0.74, respectively. Point defects are due to missing or misplaced cations and anions.
In schottky defect equal number of cations and anions are missed while in Frankel
defect cations displace from their position and enter void space.
The following questions are multiple choice questions. Choose the most appropriate
answer.
(i)How many nearest neighbors are there in an atom or ion for an octahedral hole of
a closed packed structures?
(a) 12 (b) 8 (c) 6 (d) 4
 
(ii) If the radius of Na is 95pm and that of Cl is 181pm then which of the
following is correct ?
(a) coordination number of Na+ is 8 (b) coordination number of Na+ is 6
(c) Length of unit cell is 480 pm (d) Length of unit cell is 380 pm
r
(iii) If r lies between 0.225 and 0.414, cations occupies:
(a) Tetrahedral void (b) Octahedral void
(c) Trigonal void (d) Cubic void
(iv) What is the coordination number of each ion in NaCl crystal:
a) 4 , 6 (b) 6 , 6 (c) 8 , 4 (d) 4 , 4
[3]
2. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions: (1×4)
In hexagonal system of crystals, a frequently encountered arrangement of atoms is
described as a hexagonal prism. Here the top and bottom of the cell are regular
hexagon and three atoms are present in between them. A space filling model of this
structure called hexagonal closed packed (HCP) is constituted of a sphere on a flat
surface surrounded in the same plane by six identical spheres as closely as possible.
Three spheres are then packed over the first layer so that they touch each other and
represent the second layer. Finally, the second layer is covered by a third layer that
is identical to the bottom layer in relative position. Assume radius of every sphere to
be ‘r’. The following questions are multiple choice questions. Choose the most
appropriate answer
(i)The number of atoms in HCP unit cell is:
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 12 (d) 17
(ii) The volume of this HCP unit cell is:
(a) 24√2r3 (b) 16√2r3 (c) 12√2r3 (d) 64/3√3r3
(iii)The empty space in this HCP unit cell is:
(a) 74% (b) 47.6% (c) 32% (d) 26%

(iv) Which of the following statement is not true about the hexagonal close packing?
(a) The coordination number is 12.
(b) It has packing efficiency 74%.
(c) Tetrahedral voids of the second layer are covered by the spheres of the
third layer.
(d) In this arrangement spheres of the fourth layers are exactly aligned with
those of the first layer.
3. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions: (1×4)
Stoichiometric compounds are those where the number of the different types of atoms
or ions present is exactly the ratios indicated by their chemical formulae, otherwise non
stochiometric compounds are formed. The Schottky defect involves absence of one
positive and one negative ion. Frenkel defect consists of a vacant site and the ion is now
occupied an interstitial site. A F-center is formed when an electron is occupied by an
electron. Metal deficiency is caused by missing positive ion from its lattice site or the
presence of the cation having higher charge in adjacent lattice site. For example, the
ideal formula of ferrous oxide should be FeO but actually in one sample it is found to
be Fe0. 93O.This is because the crystal may have some ferric ion in place of ferrous ion.
The following questions are Reason Assertion type questions carrying 1 mark each.
Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(i) Assertion: The presence of Frenkel defect in a crystal lowers its density.
Reason: Frenkel defect involves the creation of a hole in the lattice of a
crystal due to migration of a cation from its lattice site to an
interstitial site.
(ii) Assertion: F-centered solids possess holes occupied by electrons.
Reason: Solids containing F-centers are paramagnetic.
(iii) Assertion: In any ionic solid (MX) with Schottky defects, the number of
positive and negative ions are same.
Reason: Equal number of cation and anion vacancies are present.
(iv) Assertion: Metal deficiency defect occurs when the metal shows variable
oxidation states.
[4]
Reason: Due to metal deficiency the compounds are non-stoichiometric.
4. The following questions are Reason Assertion type questions carrying 1 mark
each. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(i) Assertion: Crystalline solids are anisotropic.
Reason: The constituents particles are very closely packed.
(ii) Assertion: Graphite is a good conductor of electricity however diamond
belongs to the category of insulators.
Reason: Graphite is soft in nature on the other hand diamond is very hard
and brittle.
(iii) Assertion: On heating ferromagnetic or ferrimagnetic substances they
become paramagnetic.
Reason: The electrons change their spin on heating.
(iv) Assertion: Due to Frenkel defect there is no effect on the density of the
crystal.
Reason: In Frenkel defect no cation or anion leaves the crystal.
(v) Assertion: Each SrCl2 unit produces one cation vacancies when doped with
NaCl.
Reason: When 1.0 mol of NaCl is dopped with 10 -3mol SrCl2, the number of
cationic site remaining vacant is 10-3mole.
UNIT-2
SOLUTION
1. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions: (1×4=4)
A solution is a solute dissolved in a solvent. By adding a solute to the solvent, we
create these solutions that have different properties from pure solvents. Atmospheric
pressure comes from the mass of air in atmosphere being pulled towards the center
of gravity (weight of air). Vapour pressure is the pressure exerted by the vapour of
the liquid.
The temperature at which the atmospheric pressure is equal to the vapour pressure,
known as boiling point. Club soda is an example of a solution, where the solvent is
water and the solute is CO2. Since CO2 also acts as a solute, the club soda does not
freeze at 0oC.In salt-water we cannot remove the salt particles from the water, but in
club soda, we can remove the CO 2 from the water by shaking the bottle, so that the
CO2 moves to the top and opening the bottle, releasing the CO 2 leaving us with
water at a temperature below 0oC.
The following questions are multiple choice questions. Choose the most
appropriate answer.
(i)What happens when you add more solute to a solution but keep the amount of
solvent the same?
(a)The solution does not deviate from boiling point of the pure solvent
(b)Lesser the concentration of solution more is the deviation from the boiling
point of the pure solvent.
(c)Vapour pressure of the solution becomes equal to the atmospheric pressure
(d)Greater the concentration of solution more is the deviation from the boiling
point of the pure solvent.
(ii) Ethylene glycol is added in high concentration to water to produce antifreeze in
a car. Why?
(a)Ethylene glycol decreases the boiling point of water.
(b)To prevent the engine from freezing the coolant in extremely cold places.
(c)Antifreeze is necessary for the engine.
[5]
(d)Ethylene glycol is suitable for good maintenance of car engine.
(iii)Freezing point of a salt solution is lower than the pure solvent because
(a)Vapour pressure is independent upon temperature.
(b)Salts are not ionizable.
(c)Vapour pressure of the solution is now higher than the atmospheric
pressure
(d)Interference of polarized water molecules with the salt.
(iv)Vapour pressure of a solution depends upon
(a)Atmospheric pressure.
(b)Gravitational force.
(c)Nature of the solute and the solvent.
(d)Nature of the solute.
2. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions: (1×4 =4)
The partial pressure of gas is directly proportional to mole fraction of gas in
dissolved state. i. e. P = KH. X This is according to Henry’s law. This law does not
work if there is a chemical reaction between the solute and solvent. And also, does
not work at high pressure.
Greater the value of KH, lower is the solubility of the gas at the same partial
pressure. KH also depends on temperature and it is proved by aquatic animals who
are comfortable in cold water. An everyday example is carbonated soft drinks,
which contain dissolved CO2.
The following questions are multiple choice questions. Choose the most
appropriate answer.
(i)The molarity of 900g of water is
(a)50M (b)5M (c)55.5M (d)55M
(ii) Value of Henry’s constant (KH)
(a)Lower with increase in temperature
(b)Greater with decrease in temperature
(c)Greater with increase in temperature
(d)Constant for all gas
(iii)Scuba divers used the cylinders filled with air diluted with ‘He’ because
(a) To avoid toxic effects of high concentration of N2 in the blood.
(b) Unavailability of pure oxygen
(c) It is easily available in the market
(d) Diluted Oxygen is necessary for breathing
(iv)When blood cells are placed in pure water, blood cells,
(a) Become white in colour (b) Diffuses in water
(c) Shrinks (d) Swells up
3. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions: (1×4)
The vapour pressure of solvent is dependent on nature of solvent, temperature, addition
of non-volatile solute as well as nature of solute to dissociate or associate. The vapour
pressure can be determined by Raoult’s law. Also, it is known that all ideal solution
obeys Raoult’s law. However, some solution gets deviate from ideal behavior.
Liquid mixtures that has a constant boiling point that is whose proportion cannot be
altered by simple distillation forms azeotropes. There are two types of azeotropes. Such
are: minimum boiling azeotropes and maximum boiling azeotropes.
The following questions are Reason Assertion type questions carrying 1 mark
each. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
[6]
(i) Assertion: Molarity of a solution in liquid state changes with temperature.
Reason: The volume of a solution changes with change in temperature
(ii) Assertion: Benzene-toluene mixture forms ideal solution.
Reason: Components with structural similarity forms ideal solution in general.
(iii)Assertion: Azeotropic mixtures are formed only by non-ideal solution and they
may have boiling points either greater than both the components or
lesser than both the components.
Reason: The components of the vapour phase is same as that of the liquid
phase of an azeotropic mixture.
(iv)Assertion: Mixtures of acetone and benzene having negative deviation from
Raoult’s law.
Reason: The weak intermolecular force of attraction between the two liquids
as compared to the pure components.
4. The following questions are Reason Assertion type questions carrying 1 mark
each. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(i)Assertion: If you are dipped your finger in water for long time, it gets pruned.
Reason: Water flows into the upper skin cells, then shrinking effects takes
place in the skin cells.
(ii) Assertion: If molality of dilute solution is doubled, then the value of molal
depression constant will be unchanged.
Reason: Freezing point depression is a colligative property.
(iii)Assertion: Addition of a non-volatile solute to a volatile solvent increases
the boiling point.
Reason: Addition of non-volatile solute results in lowering of vapour
pressure.
(iv)Assertion: Water and hydrochloric acid form an ideal solution.
Reason: The enthalpy of mixing of an ideal solution is zero.
(v) Assertion: The saturated solution contains maximum amount of solute that
is capable of being dissolved.
Reason: When the solution equilibrium point is reached then no more
solute is dissolved.
UNIT-3
ELECTROCHEMISTRY
1. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions: (1×4)
An electrochemical cell is made up of two electrodes, i.e two half cells. One of these
electrodes must have a higher electrode potential than the other. The standard
electrode potentials of a large number of electrodes have been determining using
standard hydrogen electrode as the reference electrode. Since the reduction half
reaction is just the reverse of oxidation half reaction, the reduction potential of any
electrode is obtained from its oxidation potential by simply changing the sign. The
various electrodes have been arranged in order of their increasing values of standard
reduction potentials. This arrangement is called electrochemical series. This also
includes in itself the activity series of metals because the relative activity of metals
can be obtained by comparing their oxidation potentials.
The following questions are multiple choice questions. Choose the most
appropriate answer
(i) Which has maximum potential for the half cell reaction: 2H+ + 2e →H2?
(a)1MHCl (b)1M NaOH
[7]
(c)Pure water (d)A solution with pH= 4
(ii) ECr ¿
¿
= -0.74V , E MnO ¿¿
−¿/ Mn ¿
= 1.51V
4

ECrO ¿
¿
= 1.33V ,
2−¿/Cr ¿ ECl/ Cl ¿
¿ = 1.36V
7

Based on the data given above, strongest oxidizing agent will be


(a)MnO4- (b)Cl- (c)Cr3+ (d)Mn2+
(iii) Zn gives H2 gas with HCl but not with HNO3 because
(a)Zn acts as oxidizing agent when reacts with HNO3
(b)HNO3 is weaker acid than HCl.
(c) HNO3oxidises liberated H2 to water.
(d)NO3-is reduced in preference to hydronium ion.
(iv) The electrode potential data are given below:
Fe3+ + e → Fe2+, E0= 0.77V , Al3+ + 3e → Al , E0= -1.66V
Br2 + 2e → 2Br-, E0= 0.77V
Based on the data , the reducing power of Fe2+, Al and Br- will increasing in
the order
(a)Br-< Fe2+< Al (b)Fe2+< Al <Br-
(c)Al< Br-< Fe2+ (d)Al< Fe2+< Br-
2. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions: (1×4)
Molar conductivity of an electrolyte is the conductance of all the ions produced by
one gram mole of the electrolyte in solution. The molar conductance of strong
electrolytes at infinite dilution can be obtained graphically by extrapolation while
the same for weak electrolytes cannot be obtained graphically. It is calculated
theoretically with the help of Kohlrausch,s law.
The following questions are multiple choice questions. Choose the most
appropriate answer:
(i) The conductivity of 0.01M KCl solution is 1.41x10-3Scm-1. What is the molar
conductivity of the solution(Scm2mol-1)
(a) 14.1 (b) 1.41 (c) 1410 (d) 141
(ii) Which of the following has highest molar conductivity?
(a) 0.01M KCl (b) 0.05M KCl (c) 0.02M KCl (d) 0.005M KCl
(iii)The correct order of molar conductivity at infinite dilution of LiCl, NaCl and
KCl is
(a) LiCl > NaC l > KCl (b) KCl > NaCl > LiCl
(c) NaCl > KCl > LiCl (d) LiCl > KCl > NaCl
(iv)The limiting molar conductivities  for NaCl, KBr and KCl are 126, 152 and
0

150 S cm2 mol-1 respectively. The 0 for NaBr is


(a) 278S cm2 mol-1
(b) 176S cm2 mol-1
(c) 128S cm2 mol-1
(d) 302S cm2 mol-1
3. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions: (1×4)
A galvanic cell is an electrochemical cell that produces electricity as a result of
spontaneous reaction occurring inside it. Any redox reaction may be expressed in
terms of two half-reactions showing the loss and gain of electrons. Knowing the
standard electrode potentials of the half reactions the standard emf of the cell can be
calculated. The standard emf further helps in calculating free energy change and
equilibrium constant of the cell reaction.
The following questions are Reason Assertion type questions carrying 1 mark
[8]
each. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(i)Assertion: The Daniel cell becomes dead after sometime.
Reason : Oxidation potential of Zn decreases and that of Cu increases.
(ii) Assertion: For Daniel cell Ecell=1.1V , the application of opposite potential
Greater than 1.1V results the flow of electrons from cathode to
anode.
Reason : Zn is deposited at anode and Cu is dissolved at cathode.
(iii)Assertion: Cu liberates hydrogen from a dilute solution of HCl.
Reason : Hydrogen is below Cu in the electrochemical series.
(iv)Assertion: The emf of the cell is related to equilibrium constant as
0.0591
Ecell = n
logK.
Reason : As Ecell changes with concentration of the electrodes, K of the
cell reaction also changes with concentration.
4. In the following questions, a statement of assertion followed by a statement of
reason is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.

(i)Assertion: The molar conductance of weak electrolytes at infinite dilution is


equal to sum of the molar conductance of cation and anion.
Reason: Kohlrausch,s law is applicable to both strong and weak
electrolyte.
(ii) Assertion: Electrolysis of aq. NaCl produces chlorine gas at anode.
Reason: Na+ ion is obtained at cathode.
(iii)Assertion: Copper sulphate solution can be stored in zinc vessel.
Reason: Zinc is more reactive than copper.
(iv)Assertion: Current stops flowing when Ecell= 0
Reason: Equilibrium of the cell is attained.
(v) Assertion: Conductivity of all electrolytes decreases on dilution.
Reason: On dilution, number of ions per unit volume decreases.
UNIT-4
CHEMICAL KINETICS
1. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions: (1×4)
Thermal decomposition of N2O5is performed in an inert solvent so that brown
coloured NO2 gas remains in the solution and volume of molecular oxygen
collected as shown in the equation
2N2O5 (g) ⃗ 4NO2 (g) + O2 (g) ; Rate = k [N2O5]
Experimental observation reveal that by doubling the concentration of N2O5, the
reaction rate is doubled but does not become four times and when the
concentration of N2O5 is taken half, the reaction rate is halved.
The following questions are multiple choice questions. Choose the most
appropriate answer:
(i) What is the order of the above reaction?
(a) zero (b) one (c) two (d) can’t be predicted
(ii) When the initial concentration of N2O5 is doubled in the above reaction, its
half life period is
(a) doubled (b) halved (c) quadrupled (d) not affected

[9]
(iii)For the reaction, 2N2O5 → 4NO2 + O2, the values of rate of reaction and rate
constant are 1.02 x 10–4mol.L–1s–1 and 3.4 x 10–5s–1 respectively then the
concentration of N2O5 at the same time will be
(a) 3.0mol.L–1 (b)1.02 x10–4mol.L–1
(c) 1.73 mol.L–1 (d)3.4 x 10-5 mol.L–1
(iv)The rate of formation of molecular oxygen (O2)in the reaction will be equal to
(a) twice of the rate of disappearance of N2O5
(b) four times of the rate of formation of NO2
(c) one-fourth of the rate of formation of NO2
(d) one-fourth of the rate of disappearance of N2O5
2. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions: (1×4 =4)
Rate of a reaction is the change in conc. of reactants or products with time.
According to Rate law, rate of a reaction is directly proportional to the product of
conc. of reactants each raised to some power which may or may not be equal to
their stoichiometric coefficients.
For a general reaction; mA + nB → Products,
According to Rate law; rate α [A]α[B]β,
Or, rate = k [A]α[B]β
where k = rate constant and Order of reaction = α+β
All radioactive disintegrations are the examples of first order reactions whose
half life period is always independent of the initial concentration of the reactant
The following questions are multiple choice questions. Choose the most
appropriate answer:
(i)If the value of rate constant is equal to the rate of reaction then the order of
reaction will be
(a) zero (b) one (c) two (d) none of these
nd
(ii) The units of rate constant for 2 order reaction is
(a) mol.L–1s–1 (b) L.mol–1s–1 (c) s–1 (d) mol–2L2.s–1
(iii) Half life period of a radioactive element is 10 seconds. The time required for
decay of 75% of the radioactive element will be
(a) 5 seconds (b) 10 seconds (c) 15 seconds (d) 20 seconds
(iv) Which one of the following plots of Half life period vs Concentration
represents a first order reaction?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

3. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions: (1×4 =4)
In some reactions, one of the products acts as catalyst, such reactions are called
Auto catalytic reactions. The rate of homogeneous auto catalytic reactions is
directly proportional to the concentration of auto catalyst. Hydrolysis of esters is
an example for such reactions.
CH3COOC2H5(l) + H2O(l) ⃗
+
H CH3COOH(l) + C2H5OH(l)
In the above reaction, Acetic acid acts as auto catalyst and the rate of reaction
will increase with the progress of reaction. Here the expected order of reaction is
two but in fact it is a first order reaction because H 2O is present in large excess,
its concentration remains constant.
[10]
The following questions are Reason Assertion type questions carrying 1 mark
each. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(i)Assertion: Hydrolysis of esters in acidic medium is of pseudo first order
reaction.
Reason: Rate constant is same at different time intervals.
(ii) Assertion : In above reaction, the rate of reaction increases with the
progress of reaction.
Reason: Acetic acid (CH3COOH) acts as auto catalyst.
(iii) Assertion: The rate of reaction is not expressed in terms of change of conc.
of water.
Reason: The change in concentration of water will be very negligible.
(iv) Assertion : The unit of rate constant of pseudo unimolecular reaction is same
as that of 2nd order reaction.
Reason: The expected order is two but in fact it is a first order reaction
because H2O is present in large excess, its concentration remains
constant.
4. In the following questions, a statement of assertion followed by a statement of
reason is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(i)Assertion: Rate of reaction increases with increase in temperature.
Reason: Number of collisions increases with increase in temperature.
(ii) Assertion: Order and molecularity of a reaction are always equal.
Reason: In the mechanism, the slowest step is known as rate determining
step.
(iii) Assertion: Rate of zero order reaction remains constant till end.
Reason: Rate is independent of conc. of reactants for zero order reaction.
(iv) Assertion: Order of a reaction can be a whole number, zero or fractional.
Reason: Order of reaction can be taken from balanced chemical equation.
(v) Assertion: Acidic hydrolysis of ester is a first order reaction whereas base
hydrolysis is a second order reaction.
Reason: Acid acts as a catalyst whereas base acts as a reactant.
UNIT-5
SURFACE CHEMISTRY
1. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions: (1x4)
The subject of coagulation of lyophobic colloids has been studied extensively
since the early age of colloid chemistry. The aim of these investigations was to
establish the mechanism of coagulation and thus to understand the very existence
of the colloidal state.
Certain qualitative observations, such as coagulation by electrolytes, the
dependence of the coagulation rate on the electrolyte concentration, the existence
of a fairly well-defined critical concentration as a border line between slow and
fast coagulation, and certain empirical rules, such as that of Schultz-Hardy
correlating the critical concentration to the valency of the electrolyte had been
accumulated when Von Smoluchowski put forward his well-known theory of
kinetics of coagulation. He treated coagulation as a diffusion process and arrived
at a series of equations which give not only the rate of rapid coagulation, but also
the relationship between the number of clusters formed containing various
number clusters formed containing various numbers of primary particles.
The following questions are multiple choice questions. Choose the appropriate
[11]
answer:
(i) Lyophilic sols are more stable than lyophobic sols because the particles
(a) are positively charged (b) are negatively charged
(c) are solvated (d) repel each other
(ii) The dispersed phase in colloidal iron (III) hydroxide and colloidal gold is
positively and negatively charged respectively., which of the following
statement is not correct.
(a) MgCl2 solution coagulates gold sol readily than iron (III) hydroxide sol.
(b) Na2SO4 solution causes coagulation in both.
(c) Mixing of two sols have no effect
(d) Coagulation in both sols can be brought about by electrophoresis.
(iii) The coagulation values in millimoles per litre of the electrolytes used for
The coagulation of As2S3 are given below
I. NaCl = 52 II.BaCl2 = 0.69 III. MgSO4 = 0.22
The correct order of their coagulating power is
(a) III> I> II (b) I > II > III
(c) II > I > III (d) III > II > I
(iv)The capacity of an ion to coagulate a colloidal solution depends on:
(a) its shape (b) amount of its charge
(c) the sign of charge (d) both amount and sign of charge
2. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions: (1x4 = 4)
For the last few decades, various conventional physicochemical methods for
removing dyes from industrial waste are used, including filtration, coagulation,
and flocculation, chemical oxidation with chlorine, ozone, hydrogen peroxide and
advance oxidation processes (AOPs) such as Fenton’s reaction. However, these
methods are not widely in use because they are either economically unfavourable
or technically complicated. On the other hand, adsorption is considering the most
promising tool for the removal of organic pollutants such as dyes because of low
cost, operational ease, and efficiency, high pollutant uptake capacity, effective
treatment in dilute solutions, .
This paper reports the results of adsorption of acid blue and basic blue from
aqueous solutions on powder activated charcoal (PAC). Adsorption behaviour of
the dyes as a function of temperature, pH, and shaking time was studied. The
thermodynamics parameters such as free energy change (ΔG), enthalpy changes
(ΔH), and entropy changes (ΔS) were also computed from adsorption data. The
adsorption isotherms for both acid blue and basic blue were of L type. The
adsorption of both the dyes was found to decrease with the increase in
temperature. The adsorption decreases with the increase of pH in the case of acid
blue and increases with the increase of pH in the case of basic blue. The negative
ΔG and ΔH values show that the adsorption of dyes on activated charcoal is
spontaneous and exothermic. The heat of adsorption was calculated using
equation lnK = ΔS/R – ΔH/RT
By plotting a graph lnK versus reciprocal of temperature, the slope gave the value
of heat of adsorption. The values of ΔH are negative for cases, indicating that the
process is exothermic. The enthalpy of adsorption is greater than 40 kJ mol−1,
indicating that interaction between sorbent and adsorbate molecule is chemical.
The entropy was calculated by using equation ΔG = ΔH – TΔS. The entropy of
adsorption of molecules from the solution on the surface was decreased.
[12]
Molecules before adsorption can move in three dimensions, but as they get
adsorbed on the surface, the motion of molecules is restricted towards the surface,
and their disorders decreased, resulting in the decrease in entropy. This type
adsorption is likely classified as reversible adsorption. Both Basic blue and Acid
blue are found to be chemisorbed on activated charcoal. In conclusion, the powder
activated charcoal may display a high potential for the treatment of dye-
containing wastewater.

Adsorbent quantity on the adsorption of dyes at a constant dye concentration


i.e. amount of dyes adsorbed (x/m) vs. amount of activated charcoal.
The following questions are multiple choice questions. Choose the appropriate
answer:
(i)Which of the following is not an adsorbent?
(a) Carbon (b) Polymers and resins (c) Clay (d) Dry sponge

(ii)Calculate the adsorption of a dye on activated carbon at 25°C, where k =


0.025, n = 0.5 and C = 0.04, based on the Freundlich isotherm.
(a) 0.050 (b) 0.030 (c) 0.040 (d) 0.060
(iii)Which of the following is not characteristic of chemisorption?
(a) It is irreversible (b) It is specific
(c) It is multilayer phenomenon (d) Heat of adsorption is about 400kj
(iv)Which of the following relation is correct?
(x) x/m = constant (at high pressure)
(y) x/m = constant x p 1/n (at intermediate pressure)
(z) x/m = constant x p n (at lower pressure)
(a) all are correct (b) all are wrong
(c) x & y are correct (d) z is correct
3. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions: (1x4 = 4)
Many investigators have suggested that the charge of a colloidal particle may be due
to the ionisation of the molecules on its surface. The fact that the colloids of a basic
nature usually carry a positive charge and those of an acidic nature a negative one is
strongly suggestive of this view as has been pointed out by Noyes, Burton and
others.
According to the above idea the positive charge on ferric hydroxide sol which
contains a small quantity of hydrochloric acid, is due to the power of the molecules
on the surface of the molecules to dissociate into positively charged iron ions and
negative chlorine and possibly hydroxyl ions.
The iron ions are held to the particles because they form part of the complex
molecular aggregate of ferric hydroxides. The chlorine ions on the other hand are in
true solution, but unless there are other negative ions distributed in solutions to
replace them, they are unable to diffuse far from the surface of the particle, because
of the development of a strong electrostatic attraction by the positive ions on the
surface.
In the same way the negative charge of a silica acid sol containing a small quantity of
[13]
sodium hydroxide may be regarded as being due to the ionisation of
surface layer of Silicic acid and complex sodium silicate into hydrogen and sodium
ions. The complex silicate ion remains on the surface of the particle because it forms
structural part of the large molecular aggregates. The sodium and hydrogen ions
although in true solution are unable to diffuse away from the particle because of the
electrostatic attraction of the negative ions on the surface.
The following questions are Reason Assertion type questions carrying 1 mark
each. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(i)Assertion: Addition of AgNO3(aq) to KI (aq) gives negative sol whereas
addition of KI (aq) to AgNO3 gives positive sol of AgI.
Reason : The sol particles adsorb the common ions present in solution and
acquires their charge.
(ii) Assertion: The charge on lyophobic particles is responsible for their nature
to exist as sol.
Reason : It is the formation of thin layer around sol particles which is
responsible for stability of lyophilic sols.
(iii)Assertion: Gold may be positive, negative or neutral depending upon its
method of preparation.
Reason : Gold sol may be obtained by electro disintegration as well as by
reduction of AuCl3 with SnCl2 or hydrazine etc.
(iv)Assertion: 50 ml of 0.1 M AgNO3 + 50 ml of 1.5 M KI solutions will
lead to the formation of negative charged colloidal [AgI]I- sol.
Reason : 50 ml of 1.5 M KI will contain greater number of moles of KI
Than the number of moles of AgNO3 in 50 ml of 0.1 M
AgNO3,the I- ion will be adsorbed on AgI.
4. In the following questions a statement of assertion followed by a statement of
reason is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(i) Assertion: Colloidal solutions are stable but colloidal particles do not settle
down.
Reason : Brownian movement counters the force of gravity actively on
colloidal particles.
(ii) Assertion: Fe3+ can be used for coagulation of As2S3 solution.
Reason : Fe3+ reacts with As2S3 to give Fe2S3.
(iii) Assertion: The micelle formed by sodium stearate in water has -COO-
Groups at the surface.
Reason : Surface tension of water is reduced by the addition of stearate.
(iv) Assertion: Micelles are formed by surfactants above CMC .
Reason : The conductivity of a solution having surfactant molecule
decreases sharply at CMC.
(v) Assertion: The blue colour of sky is due to scattering of light by dirt or dust
particles present in air.
Reason : Larger size of dispersed phase particles show more scattering as
well as higher is the wavelength of light longer is scattering.
UNIT-7
p-BLOCK ELEMENTS
1. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions: (1×4)
Xenon trioxide is formed in the hydrolysis of XeF 4 and XeF6 according to the
following reactions:
[14]
3XeF4 + 6H2O  XeO3 + 2Xe + 3/2O2 + 12HF
XeF6 + 3H2O  XeO3 + 6HF
The colorless, odorless, and stable aqueous solutions of XeO3 appear to contain
XeO3 molecules. On evaporation of water, XeO3 is obtained as a white
deliquescent solid that is dangerously explosive. In basic solution, a xenate ion (
4 ) is formed, as in the following Reaction
HXeO−¿¿

−¿¿
The ion HXeO4 slowly disproportionate to give a xenate (or perxenate ion,
XeO 6 ) as in the Reaction given below.
4 −¿¿

−¿¿
Perxenatesare also formed by oxidation of HXeO4 with ozone. The perxenate
ions are yellow and are both powerful and rapid oxidizing agents. Salts such as
Na4XeO6.8H2O are stable and sparingly soluble in water. In alkaline solution, the
main form is the ion HXeO3−¿
6
¿
, and perxenates are only slowly reduced by water.
However, in acid solution, reduction by water according to Reaction given below
is almost instantaneous, and the hydroxyl radical is involved as an intermediate.

The following questions are multiple choice questions. Choose the most
appropriate answer:
(i) When Xenon difluoride is hydrolysed what are the products formed?
(a) Xe, HF and O2 (b)XeO3 and HF
(c)XeOF4 and HF (d)XeO2F2
(ii) What is the shape of XeO3 molecule?
(a)Trigonal Planar (b)Tetrahederal
(c)Pyramidal (d)T-Shaped.
(iii)What is the Oxidation number of Xenon in Xenate¿ ion?
(a)+2 (b)+4 (c)+6 (d)+8
(iv) Which of the following noble gas species is isostructural with ICl4–?
(a)XeOF4 (b)XeF2 (c)XeF4 (d)XeO2F2
2.Read the passage given below and answer the following questions: (1×4)
Sulphur dioxide is an acidic gas that is primarily produced from the combustion
of fossil fuel containing sulphur, or from the oxidation of naturally occurring
sulphur gases. The oxidation of SO2 can occur either through gas or liquid phase
processes. The gas-phase oxidation of SO2 in the atmosphere primarily takes place
through its reaction with the hydroxyl radical (OH). This highly reactive radical is
produced in the atmosphere from the reaction of oxygen atoms with water, or
through other mechanisms such as the photolysis of nitrous acid (HONO) and
hydrogen peroxide (H2O2).The homogeneous, gas phase oxidation of SO2, is
driven primarily by its reaction with hydroxyl OH radicals through the reaction:

where M is a molecule of oxygen (O2) or nitrogen (N2) that removes the energy
liberated in the reaction. The hydroxysulphonyl (HOSO 2) radical intermediate
then reacts quickly with O2 to form sulphur trioxide (SO3) and an HO2 radical.

SO3 subsequently reacts with water vapour to form sulphuric acid (H2SO4):
[15]
OH radicals are produced by the photolysis of O3 in the presence of water vapour
through the formation of excited oxygen atoms (O*) in the reactions:

The following questions are multiple choice questions. Choose the most
appropriate answer:
(i) The reaction of Lead Sulphide with Ozone gives:
(a)Lead (b)LeadSulphate.
(c)Lead Oxide (d)No reaction.
(ii) What is the shape of Sulphur Dioxide molecule?
(a)Tetrahedral (b)Pyramidal (c)Angular (d)Linear.
(iii) What is the most convenient way of detecting Sulphur dioxide gas in lab?
(a)Treating with acidified potassium permanganate Solution.
(b)Dissolving in water.
(c)Treating with H2SO4 .
(d)Treating with Chlorine gas.
(iv) What are the total number of p π -d π bonds in Sulphuric Acid?
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 3 (d) 2
3. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions: (1×4)
The halogens react with each other to form interhalogen compounds. The
general formula of most interhalogen compounds is XYn, where n = 1, 3, 5 or 7,
and X is the less electronegative of the two halogens. The compounds which are
formed by the union of two different halogens are called inter halogen
compounds. There are never more than two types of halogen atoms in
an interhalogen molecule. There are of four general types: AX- type : ClF, BrF,
BrCl, ICl, IBr,AX3-type: ClF3, BrF3, (ICl3)2,AX5-type: ClF5, BrF5, IF5, AX7-type:
IF7.The interhalogen compounds of type AX and AX3 are formed between the
halogen having very low electronegative difference (e.g., ClF, ClF3). The
interhalogen compounds of type AX5 and AX7 are formed by larger atoms having
low electronegativity with the smaller atoms having high electronegativity. This is
because it is possible to fit the greater number of smaller atom around a larger one
(e.g. BrF5, IF7).Interhalogen are all prone to hydrolysis and ionize to give rise to
polyatomic ions. Reaction of inter halogens are similar to halogens. Hydrolysis of
interhalogen compounds give halogen acid and oxy-acid. All Interhalogens are
volatile at room temperature. All are polar due to difference in their
electronegativity. These are usually covalent liquids or gases due to small
electronegativity difference among them. Some compounds partially ionize in
solution.
The following questions are Reason Assertion type questions carrying 1 mark
each. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(i) Assertion: The Shape of ClF3 is T-shaped
Reason: Presence of Lone pairs on Chlorine distorts the
Trigonal bipyramidal geometry
(ii)Assertion: Inter-Halogens are more reactive than Diatomic Halogens
molecules.
Reason: Inter Halogens are covalent molecules.
[16]
(iii)Assertion: In IF5 molecule the Hybridization of Iodine is Sp3d2
Reason: The reactivity of Interhalogens is inversely proportional to the
difference in electronegativities of halogens.
(iv)Assertion: In BrF5 there are 6 bond angles as 900
Reason: Bromine has a lone pair in BrF5.
4.The following questions are Reason Assertion type questions carrying 1 mark
each. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(i) Assertion: HNO3 is stronger acid than HNO2.
Reason: In HNO3 there are two nitrogen to oxygen bonds whereas in
HNO2 there is only one.
(ii)Assertion: PH3 is more basic. than NH3.
Reason: Electronegativity of N is more than phosphorus.
(iii)Assertion: SeCl4 does not have a tetrahedral structure.
Reason: Se in SeCl4 has two lone pairs.
(iv)Assertion: SO3 acts as an oxidizing as well as a reducing agent.
Reason: SO2 acts as an oxidizing as well as a reducing agent.
(v)Assertion: HClO4 is a stronger acid than HClO3.
Reason: Oxidation state of chlorine in HClO4 is +7 and in HClO3. it is +5.
UNIT-8
d- AND f-BLOCK ELEMENTS
1. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions: (1×4)
Many ionic and covalent compounds of transition elements (and also inner transition
elements) are coloured. In contrast, compounds of the s- and p-block elements are
almost always white. Colour may arise from an entirely different cause in ions with
incomplete d or f shells. In free isolated gaseous ions, the five d orbitals are
degenerate, that is, they are identical in energy. The surrounding groups, which can
be solvent molecules in solution or ligands in a complex or other ions in a crystal
lattice, affect the energy of some d orbitals more than others. Thus, the d orbitals are
no longer degenerate and at their simplest they form two groups of orbitals of
different energy.
The following questions are multiple choice questions. Choose the most
appropriate answer
(i) Two sets of d-orbitals with different energies in an octahedral complex are:
(a) dz2 and dx2- y2 (b) dx2-y2anddxy
(c) dz2, dx2-y2 and dxy, dyz,dzx (d) dxy,dyzand dxy
(ii) Consider the following statements:
(A) Colour of a transition metal complex is dependent on energy difference
between two d-levels.
(B) Colour of the complex is dependent on nature of the ligand and the type
of complex formed.
(C) ZnSO4 and TiO2 are white-in both d-d* spectra are impossible.
Select correct statement :
(a) A, B, C (b) A, B (c) B, C (d) A, C
(iii) Out of the following, select colourless complexes:
(A) Ni(CO)4, (B) [Ni(CN)4]2- (C) [Ni(NH3)4]2+ (D) [Ni(H2O)4]2+
(E) VO22+ (F) CrO42- (G) MnO4-
(a) D, E (b) A, B, E (c) A, E (d) A, B

[17]
(iv) Intense blue colour of K Fe[Fe(CN)6] arises as a result of :
(a) electron transfer between Fe(II) and Fe(I)
(b) electron transfer between Fe(II) and Fe(III)
(c) d-d* transition
(d) spin magnetic moment.
2. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions: (1×4)
A characteristic property of the d-transition metals is their ability to exhibit several
oxidation states. The stability of a given oxidation state depends on the nature of the
element with which thetransition metal is combined. The highest oxidation states
are found in the compounds of fluorides and oxides because of most
electronegative nature of F and O. The different oxidation states of 3d- series
have been given below (very rare oxidation states are provided in parenthesis.)
The following questions are multiple choice questions. Choose the most
appropriate answer.

Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn
I I
II II II II II II II II II II
III III III III III III III III III
IV IV IV IV IV IV IV
V V V V V
VI VI VI
VII
(i) Nickel also shows (0) oxidation state. This oxidation state is in:
(a) nitriles (b) carbonyls
(c) cyclopentadienyl (d) in all of these.
(ii) Select correct statement(s):
(a) Stabilities of variable oxidation states can be explained by standard
electrode potential.
(b) Cr2+ is unstable and Cr3+ is stable in aqueous solution
(c) Fe2+ is stable and Fe3+ is unstable in aerated water.
(d) All of the above are correct statements.
(iii) These elements do not show the properties characteristic of transition
elements:
(a) Fe, Co, Ni (b) Sc, Y, La (c) Cu, Ag, Au (d) Zn, Cd, Hg
(iv)In which case(s) there is change in oxidation number ?
(a) aqueous solution of CrO42- is acidified
(b) SO2 gas is passed into Cr2O72- / H+
(c) Cr2O72- solution is made alkaline
(d) CrO2Cl2is dissolved in NaOH

3. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions: (1×4)
The colours of the transition metals are due to d-d excitation. The energy required
for d-delectron excitation is available in the visible range. Transition metal ions
have the tendency to absorb certain radiations from the visible region and exhibit the
complementary colour. The transition metal ions which have completely filled d-
orbitals possible within d-orbitals. The transition metal ions which have completely
empty d-orbitals are also colourless. In KMnO4 and K2Cr2O7, there are no unpaired
[18]
electrons at the central atom but they are deep in colour. The colour of these
compounds is due to charge transfer spectrum.
The following questions are Reason Assertion type questions carrying 1 mark
each. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(i) Assertion : Most of the compounds of the transition elements are coloured in
the solid and solution state.
Reason: During d-d transition the d-electrons absorb certain radiation
from the visible region of the spectrum.
(ii) Assertion : The purple colour of KMnO4 is due to the charge transfer
transition.
Reason: The intense colour, in most of the transition metal complexes is
due to d-d transition.
(iii) Assertion : [Fe(CN)6]3- is more stable than [Fe(CN)6]4-
Reason: Complexes where the iron is in the (III) oxidation state are
more stable than those in (II) oxidation state.
(iv) Assertion : Green solution of potassium manganate (VI), K2MnO4 turns
purple and brown solid is precipitated when CO2 is bubbled into
it.
Reason: K2MnO4 changes to K3MnO8 by CO2.
4. The following questions are Reason Assertion type questions carrying 1
mark each. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(i) Assertion : Nickel (II) compounds tend to be thermodynamically more stable
than platinum (II)
Reason: Platinum (IV) compounds are relatively more stable than nickel
(IV) compounds.
(ii) Assertion : Chromium can be used as a protective and non-corrosive plating
on other metals.
Reason: Due to atmospheric oxidation chemically a inert layer of Cr2O3 is
formed.
(iii) Assertion : Ionic radii of Ta and Nb are same.
Reason: The lanthanide contraction cancels almost exactly the normal
size increase on descending a group of transition elements.
(iv) Assertion : CrO3 is an acidic oxide.
Reason: CrO3 liberates CO2 with Na2C
(v) Assertion : Prussian blue and Turnbull’s blue are formed by different
reagents, yet they are identical.
Reason: They have formula as Fe[Fe(CN)6]-
UNIT-9
COORDINATION COMPOUNDS
1. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions: [1 X 4]
Chromium is a transition metal. It forms many complexes with different ligands.
According to Werner’s Theory of Coordination Compounds, metals possess two
types of valencies i.e. primary or principal or ionizable valency and secondary or
non ionizable valency. A metal complex having the composition Cr(NH3)4Cl2Br has
been isolated in two forms ‘A’ and ‘B’. The form ‘A’ reacts with AgNO 3 to give a
white precipitate readily soluble in dilute aqueous ammonia whereas ‘B’ gives a
pale yellow precipitate soluble in concentrated ammonia.

[19]
The following questions are multiple choice questions. Choose the most
appropriate answer:
(i) The formula of complex ‘A’is
(a)[Cr(NH3)4Br]Cl2 (b)[Cr(NH3)4BrCl]Cl
(c)[Cr(NH3)4Cl2]Br (d)Both (a) and (b)
(ii)The formula of the complex ‘B’is
(a)[Cr(NH3)4Br]Cl2 (b)[Cr(NH3)4ClBr]Cl
(c)[Cr(NH3)4Cl2]Br (d)[Cr(NH3)4]BrCl2
(iii) The hybridisation of Cr in the complexes ‘A’ and ‘B’ respectively is
(a)d2 sp3 and sp3d2 (b)sp3 d2 and d2sp3
(c)sp3 d and dsp3 (d)d2 sp3 and d2sp3
(iv) The spin only value of the magnetic moment of the complex is
(a)√3 B.M. (b)√8 B.M. (c)√15 B.M. (d)zero
2. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions: [1 x 4]
Rakhi took three complexes of chromium (III) ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ with the
empirical formula H12O6Cl3Cr. All the three complexes had water and chloride
ions as ligands. She observed that complex ‘A’ did not react with concentrated
sulphuric acid, whereas complex ‘B’ and ‘C’ lost 6.75% and 13.5% of their
original weight respectively on treatment with concentrated sulphuric acid.
The following questions are multiple choice questions. Choose the most
appropriate answer:
(i) The complex ‘A’is
(a)[Cr(H2O)3 Cl3] 3H2O (b)[Cr(H2O)4(Cl)2]Cl.2 H2O
(c)[Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 (d)[Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2.H2O
(ii)The complex ‘B’is
(a)[Cr(H2O4)Cl2]Cl.2H2O (b)[Cr(H2O)3Cl3].3H2O
(c)[Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2.H2O (d)[Cr(H2O)6]Cl3
(iii) The complex ‘C’is
(a)[Cr(H2O)4Cl2] Cl.2H2O (b)[Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2.H2O
(c)[Cr(H2O)3Cl3].3H2O (d)[Cr(H2O)6]Cl3
(iv) Coordination number of Cr is six. A complex ion of Cr with C 2O42-, en and
superoxide ion O2- has the formula [Cr(C2O4)X(en)Y(O2)Z]-.The ratio X:Y:Z
will be
(a) 1 : 1: 1 (b) 1 : 1 :2 (c) 2 : 1 :1 (d) 1 : 2: 2
3. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions: [1 x 4]
Crystal field theory was developed by Hans Bethe and John Van Vleck and
gives a much more satisfactory explanation for the bonding and the properties
of complex. It considers the metal-ligand bond to be purely ionic. According to
this theory, the degeneracy of d-orbitals is maintained if the negative charges
present around the central metal atom/ion form a spherically symmetrical field.
However if the negative field due to ligands with their negative ends approaches
towards the central metal atom/ion, the field no longer remains symmetrical.
Consequently the
degeneracy is splited. The pattern of splitting is different in octrahedral,
tetrahedral and square planar complex and also depends on field strength of
ligands.
The following questions are Assertion-Reason type questions. Choose the
correct answer out of the following choices
[20]
(i) Assertion: Potassium ferrocyanide is diamagnetic where as Potassium
ferricyanide is paramagnetic.
Reason: Crystal field splitting in ferrocyanide ion is greater than that
of
ferricyanide ion.
(ii)Assertion: Coordination entities with d4 to d7 ions are more stable for high
spin state.
Reason: If ∆0< P, high spin state is more stable.
(iii) Assertion: [Cu(NH3)4]2+ is coloured while [Cu(CN)4]3-iscolourless.
Reason: CN- is a stronger ligand than NH3.
(iv)Assertion: The crystal field splitting caused by CO is larger than I- .
Reason: CO is a strong field ligand and I- is a weak field ligand.
4.The following questions are Reason Assertion type questions carrying 1 mark
each. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(i) Assertion: The number of unpaired electrons present in [CuCl 2]- complex
is
zero.
Reason: The complex is linear in the solid state with sp hybridization.
(ii) Assertion: [Fe(CN)6]3- is weakly paramagnetic where as
[Fe(CN)4]4-
is diamagnetic.
Reason: [Fe(CN)6]3- is an inner orbital complex where as [Fe(CN)6]4- is an
outer orbital complex.

(iii) Assertion: K2[Ni(EDTA)] is more stable than K3[Al(C2O4)3]


Reason: Nickel(Ni) is a transition element while aluminium (Al) is non-
transition element.
(iv) Assertion: NF3 is a weaker ligand than N(CH3)3 .
Reason: NF3 ionizes to give F- ions in aqueous solution.
(v) Assertion: [Fe(H2O)5NO]SO4is paramagnetic.
Reason: The Fe in [Fe(H2O)5NO]SO4 has three unpaired electrons.
UNIT-10
HALOALKANES & HALOARENES
1. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions: (1×4)
Haloalkane are colourless( when pure), sweet smelling liquids.CH 3Cl,CH3Br and
C2H5Cl and freons are gases. Boiling point increases with increase in molecular
weight and increase in carbon chain and decreases with branching. They are
insoluble in water due to inability to form H-bonds with water. Haloalkane undergo
nucleophilic substitution reaction by SN2 mechanism, 10> 20>30. SN1 if carbocation
formed is stable. They also undergo nucleophilic elimination reaction with alcoholic
KOH. Haloarenes are less reactive than haloalkanes towards nucleophilic
substitution due to resonance. Haloarenes undergo electrophilic substitution reaction
like nitration, sulphonation, Friedel craft alkylation and acylation. Chloroformis
used as solvent, iodoform is used as antiseptic, DDT is insecticide.

The following questions are multiple choice questions. Choose the most
appropriate answer:
(i) Correct order of boiling point is
[21]
(a) R-Br > R-Cl> R-I > R-F (b) R-Br < R-Cl< R-I < R-F
(c) R-F < R-Cl< R-Br < R-I (d) R-F > R-Cl> R-Br > R-I
(ii)A hydrocarbon A (C5H10) gives only one mono chloro product on photo
chlorination. Identify A.
(a) Pentane (b) Isopentane (c) Butane (d) Cyclopentane
(iii) Out of CH2=CH-CH2Cl and CH3CH2CH2Cl which one undergoes SN1
mechanism faster.
(a) CH2=CH-CH2Cl (b) CH3CH2CH2Cl
(c) Same rate (d) Can’t be determined
(iv) Cyclohexyl chloride is less reactive than 1-chloro-1-methyl cyclohexane
because
(a) reaction proceeds through carbocation formation
(b) in cyclohexyl chlorides 20 carbocation is formed and in 1-choro-1-
methylcyclohexane 30carbocation is formed
(c) it follows SN1 mechanism
(d) All of the above
2. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions: (1×4 =4)
In search for convenient laboratory method for the preparation of relatively large
quantity of biphenyl, T.F Murray investigated the action of sodium on boiling
chlorobenzene and observed biphenyl is produced in about 20% yield and same way
to prepare higher aliphatic hydrocarbon alkyl halide reacts with boiling sodium.
Wurtz-fiitig reaction involves the mixture of haloalkane and haloarene. Even
number of hydrocarbon are more likely to be formed.
The following questions are multiple choice questions. Choose the most
appropriate answer:
(i) Octane can be formed from which alkyl halide on reaction with sodium in
ether?
(a) Isobutyl chloride (b) n-butyl chloride
(c) n-propyl chloride (d) ethyl chloride
(ii)Benzene to biphenyl can be prepared by following step
(a) first chlorination then Fittig reaction
(b) first Wurtz reaction then chlorination
(c) first chlorination then nitration
(d) Wurtz reaction only
(iii) C3H7Cl (A) undergoes wurtz reaction to give C6H14 (B) having 10,30 carbon.
Identify name of A and B.
(a) propyl chloride and hexane
(b) isopropyl chloride and 2,3-dimethyl butane
(c) n-propylchloride and 2,3-dimethyl butane
(d) isopropyl chloride and hexane
(iv) o-chlorotoluene cannot be prepared by which method
(a) Chlorination of toluene in presence of UV light
(b) Chlorination of toluene in presence of Lewis acid
(c) Chlorination of benzene followed by Fridelcraft alkylation
(d) Fridelcraft alkyation of chlorobenzene.
3. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions: (1×4)
Electronegativity is the ability to attract the shared pair in a covalent bond a
dipole is induced in the C–X bond and it becomes polar the carbon is thus open
to attack by nucleophiles. Nucleophile means ‘liking positive’.
[22]
NUCLEOPHILES-are electron pair donors and it possesses at least one lone pair
of electrons. Nucleophiles having two donor atoms, but donate electron through
only one atom at a time are called ambident nucleophiles. This preferential
behaviour helps to determine the structure. Study says potent nucleophile can
substitute one group in haloalkane in suitable environment. The group being
substituted is called leaving group, whose leaving capacity affects substitution
reaction. SN reaction are less likely to occur in haloarenes, due to instability of
phenyl cation and sp2 hybridized carbon
In the following questions, a statement of assertion followed by a statement of
reason is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(i) Assertion: It is difficult to replace chlorine by -OH in chlorobenzene in
comparison to that of chloroethane.
Reason : C – Cl bond in chlorobenzene has a partial double character
due to resonance.
(ii) Assertion: KCN reacts with methyl chloride to give methyl isocyanide.
Reason : CN- is ambident nucleophile
(iii) Assertion: 2.4-dinitro-chlorobenzene is more reactive towards SN reaction.
Reason : Electron donating group at ortho and para position facilitates
SN reaction at aromatic ring

(iv) Assertion: Ethyl iodide can easily be substituted by OH- in comparison to


other halogen derivatives.
Reason : Leaving capacity of iodide is more as their bond enthalpy is
more.
4. In the following questions, a statement of assertion followed by a statement
of reason is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(i) Assertion: Alkyl halides are soluble in organic solvents.
Reason : p-dichlorobenzene possesses low M.P
(ii)Assertion: Halogen acids are used to prepare alkyl halides from alkene.
Reason : It is electrophilic addition, electophiles are added to alkenes
(iii) Assertion: Optically active 2-chloro butane on treatment with NaI in
acetone undergoes racemisation.
Reason: As carbocation is formed as intermediate, so both retention
and inversion is possible
(iv) Assertion: Nucleophilic substitution reaction on an optically active alkyl
halide gives a mixture of enantiomers.
Reason: The reaction occurs by SN2 mechanism.
(v) Assertion: The major products formed by heating C6H5CH2OCH3 with HI
are C6H5CH2I and CH3OH.
Reason : Benzyl cation is more stable than methyl cation.
UNIT-11
ALCOHOLS, PHENOLS AND ETHERS
1. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions: (1×4)
Carbolic acid known as phenol can be commercially prepared by number of
processes such as Dow process, Raschig-Howker process, Hock process known as
cumene process. About 75 % of acetone consumed annually worldwide are prepared
by cumene process as byproduct. Phenol can also be obtained from middle oil
fraction of coal tar distillation which mainly contains phenol and naphthalene. It is a
[23]
white crystalline volatile solid, mildly acidic, needs careful handling causes chemical
burning. It is an important industrial commodity as precursor to many materials and
useful compounds such as synthesis of polymer bakelite, nylon, epoxies, drugs like
aspirin, salol, phenacetin, etc and phenolphthalein indicator which is extremely used
as acid base titration. Apart from these it is also used as detergents, antiseptics,
disinfectants, herbicides.
(i) Reaction of phenol with chloroform in presence of dilute sodium hydroxide
finally introduces which one of the following functional group?
(a) -COOH (b)-CHCl2 (c) -CHO (d) -CH2Cl
(ii) Among the following sets of reactants which one produces anisole?
(a) C6H5 - CH3 , CH3COCl, AlCl3 (b) CH3CHO , RMgX
(c) C6H5OH, NaOH , CH3l (d) C6H5OH, neutral FeCl3
(iii) Phenol is less acidic than
(a) p-nitrophenol (b) ethanol (c) cresol (d) benzyl alcohol
(iv) An ether solution of PhCH3 (I), PhNH2 (II) and PhOH (III) is extracted
with aqueous NaOH. The ether layer will contain which compounds after
extraction?
(a) only (III) (b) I + II (c) II + III (d) I + III

2. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions: (1×4)
Diethyl ether is an excellent solvent and has been widely used in laboratory since it
is largely inert and dissolves many organic compounds .But it is highly flammable
and great care must be taken to avoid using it near sparks or flames Another problem
with ethers is that they can react slowly with oxygen to form unstable peroxides
which may decompose explosively. Diethyl ether has been used as a general
anaesthetic agent since long but it is not an ideal anaesthetic, though it is safer than
chloroform and more effective than nitrous oxide. Unwanted side effects are cough,
sore throat, painful red eyes, headache, drowsiness, vomiting and nausea. In view of
these side effects, much safer fluorinated ethers are used as anaesthetic agents these
days.
The following questions are multiple choice questions. Choose the most
appropriate answer .
(i)An hydrous ether is not used as solvent in the preparation of
(a)Gringnard reagents (b)Alkane in Wurtz’s reaction
(c)Diphenyl in Fittig’s reaction (d)None of these
(ii)When ether is exposed in air for sometime,an explosive substance formed is
(a)peroxide (b)TNT (c)oxide (d)super oxides
(iii)IUPAC name of the compound CH3-CH(CH3)-OCH3 is:
(a)1-methoxy-1-methylethane (b) 2-methoxy-2-methylethane
(c) 1-methoxypropane (d)isopropylmethyl ether
(iv)Ethanol and Dimethyl ether can be distinguished by
(a)Lucas reagent (b)Tollen’s reagent
(c)Idoform reaction (d)Williamson synthesis
3. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions: (1×4)
Alcohols, commonly methanol and ethanol are the excellent solvent used in
medicines and an important chemical compound involved in synthesis of many
chemical compounds. However in spite of its benefits to man, its impact on social
behavior has always been questioned. Media has often shown abnormal behaviour of
[24]
people while drunk. It is considered as a curse in the lives of those who are addicted
to alcohol .Alcoholic people are not only lowering their metabolism and affecting
central nervous system, they are also a threat to the lives of others.Anger and rude
behavior are some of its ill effects.
The following questions are Reason Assertion type questions carrying 1 mark
each. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(i)Assertion: Methanol is stronger acid than water.
Reason: Among the monohydric aliphatic alcohols methanol is strongest
acid
(ii) Assertion: During acid catalysed esterification, oxygen atom of alcohol is
present in ester molecule
Reason: Esterification is a reversible reaction
(iii) Assertion: Ethanol and dimethyl ether are isomers
Reason: Ethanol and dimethyl ether have same molecular formula
(iv) Assertion: Ethanol is an excellent solvent used in medicines
Reason: Ethanol is highly polar and capable of forming H-bond with others

4. In the following questions a statement of assertion followed by a statement


of reason is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(i) Assertion: Addition reaction of water to but-1-ene in acidic medium yields
butan-2-ol
Reason: Addition of water in acidic medium proceeds through the
formation of primary carbocation.
(ii) Assertion: p-nitrophenol is more acidic than phenol.
Reason: Nitro group helps in the stabilisation of the phenoxide ion by
dispersal of negative charge due to resonance.
(iii) Assertion: IUPAC name of the compound
CH3- CH2- O- CH2-CH2-CH3 is 2-Ethoxy-2-methylethane.
Reason: In IUPAC nomenclature, ether is regarded as hydrocarbon
derivative in which a hydrogen atom is replaced by —OR or —
OAr group [where R = alkyl group and Ar = aryl group].
(iv) Assertion: Bond angle in ethers is slightly less than the tetrahedral angle.
Reason: There is a repulsion between the two bulky (—R) groups.
(v) Assertion: Boiling points of alcohols are more than ethers.
Reason: They can form intermolecular hydrogen-bonding.
UNIT-12
ALDEHYDES, KETONES AND CARBOXYLIC ACIDS
1. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions: (1x4)
A solventless and expeditious method for the preparation of alcohols is described
from aldehydes using barium hydroxide, Ba(OH)2.8H2O, and paraformaldehyde
via microwave irradiation as well as under classical conditions. A comparison of
this microwave-accelerated Cannizzaro reaction to the one under conventional
heating mode is also reported.

The following questions are multiple choice questions. Choose the most
[25]
appropriate answer
(i). An aromatic compound ‘X’ with molecular formula C9H10O gives the
Following chemical tests
It forms 2,4-DNP derivative.
It reduces Tollen’s reagent.
It undergoes Cannizzaro reaction.
On vigorous oxidation, 1,2-benzenedicarboxylic acid is obtained.
Compound X is

(ii) Which of the following does not undergo Cannizzarro’s reaction?


(a) Benzaldehyde (b) 2-Methylpropanal
(c) p-Methoxybenzaldehyde (d) 2, 2-Dimethylpropanal
(iii)Identify the product.

(iv) Cross Cannizzaro reaction between formaldehyde and benzaldehyde


results in a mixture of:
(a) Benzyl alcohol and benzoic acid (b) Formic acid and methyl alcohol
(c) Benzyl alcohol and formic acid (d) Benzyl alcohol and methanol.
2. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions: (1×4 =4)
Aldehydes and ketones are highly reactive compounds. Since both these classes of
organic compounds have the same functional group. i.e., polarized carbonyl group,
they show a number of common reactions. However, the presence of a H-atom on
the carbonyl group of aldehydes make them much more reactive than ketones. At the
same time, this H-atom is responsible for many reactions in which aldehydes differ
from ketones. The carbonyl group undergoes nucleophilic addition reactions due to
electronegativity difference between carbon and oxygen atoms. Aldehydes aand
ketones react with hydrogen cyanide(HCN) to yield cyanohydrins. Further
aldehydes and ketons having atleast on α-H atom in the presence of dilute alkali as a
catalyst form β-hydroxy aldehyde (aldol) or β-hydroxy ketones (ketol). This reaction
is known as aldol condensation. Aldehydes which do not have an α-hydrogen
undergo disproportionation reaction in the presence of concentrated alkali giving a
mixture of alcohol and salt of carboxylic acid. This reaction is called Cannizzaro
[26]
reaction. Cannizzaro reaction involves a hydride ion shift from the carbonyl carbon
that is attacked by the base to another carbonyl carbon. Since, there is no hydrogen
attached to the carbonyl carbon in a ketone therefore therefore it does not undergo
Cannizzaro reaction.
The following questions are multiple choice questions. Choose the most appropriate
answer
(i) In the correct order, what are the three steps in the mechanism of an Aldol
reaction?
(a)Protonation, enolate formation, nucleophilic addition.
(b)Enolate formation, protonation, nucleophilic addition.
(c)Enolate formation, nucleophilic addition, protonation.
(d)Nucleophilic addition, enolate formation, protonation
(ii).The crossed aldol condensation product of the reaction between
Formaldehyde and Acetaldehyde is ………………
(a) 3 – hydroxy propanol (b) 3 – hydroxypropanal
(c) 2 – hydroxybutanal (d) 3 – hydroxybutanal
(iii). What reaction type is an Aldol reaction?
(a) nucleophilic substitution (b) electrophilic substitution
(c) electrophilic addition (d) nucleophilic addition
(iv). When propanal reacts with 2-methylpropanal in presence of NaOH, four
different products are formed. The reaction is known as
(a) Aldol condensation (b) Cross aldol condensation
(c) Cannizzaro reaction (d) HVZ condensation
3. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions: (1x4)
Carboxylic acids are the most acidic amongst all the organic compounds studies so
far. However, carbolyxic acids are much weaker acids than the mineral acids.
Carboxylic acids are more acidic than alcohols are phenols due to the less
electrophilic nature of carboxyl carbon which puts a partial positive charge on the
hydroxyl O-atom. The value of K a is a measure of the acidic strength of an acid.
Greater the value of Ka, greater is the tendency of the acid to ionize and hence
stronger is the acid. The acidic strength of saturated aliphatic carboxylic acids
depends mainly upon the inductive effect of the substituted and its position with
respect to –COOH group. Electron-donating substituents tend to decrease whereas
electron-withdrawing substituents tend to increase the acidic strength. The acidic
strength of aromatic carboxylic acids, on the other hand depends upon both the
inductive and the resonance effect of the substituents.
In these questions, a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason is
given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(i) Assertion: Benzoic acid is a weaker acid than formic acid.
Reason: Phenyl group destabilizes the carboxylate anion due to
conjugation.
(ii) Assertion: Carboxylic acids donot give characteristic of carbonyl group.
Reason: The carbonyl group is sterically hindered in carboxylic acid.
(iii) Assertion: Carboxylic acids of lower molecular mass are water soluble.
Reason : Carboxylic acids of lower molecular mass are hydrogen
bonded with molecules of water.

[27]
(iv) Assertion: Formic acid reduces mercuric chloride to mercurous chloride on
heating while acetic acid does not.
Reason: Formic acid is a stronger acid than acetic acid.
4. In these questions, a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason
is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(i) Assertion:  Aromatic aldehydes and formaldehyde undergo Cannizzaro
reaction.
Reason:   Aromatic aldehydes are almost as reactive as formaldehyde.
(ii)Assertion: Carboxylic acids contain a carbonyl group but do not give the
characteristic reactions of the group.
Reason : The electrophilicity of the carbon atom is more in carboxylic
acids than in aldehydes and ketones.
(iii) Assertion: When ethanol is treated with Fehling’s solution, it gives a red
precipitate.
Reason : Fehling’s solution is reduced by aldehydes to gives a red
precipitate of Cu2O

(iv)Assertion:  The boiling points of aldehydes and ketones are higher than
hydrocarbons and ethers of comparable molecular masses.
Reason: Aldehydes and ketones undergo intermolecular association due
to dipole- dipole interactions.
(v) Assertion: pka of acetic acid is lower than that of phenol.
Reason: Phenoxide ion is more resonance stabilized than acetate ion.
UNIT-13
AMINES
1. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions: (1×4 =4)
Nitrilehydrogen at ion is an important method to obtain amines. The most
commonly used approaches in nitriles hydrogen at ion are using strong hydride
donors, such as lithium aluminum hydride, or catalytic
hydrogenation. However, these methods always lack chemo-selectivity and need
complicated procedures to obtain target compounds. The difficulty arises
because the imine, as an intermediate produced by the reduction of cyano
group, could couple with an already formed primary amine, which leads to
secondary amine. Furthermore, a secondary amine could also react with another
imine molecule to form tertiary amine.
Therefore, transforming nitrile stop primary amines with high selectivity and
yields has become an important field to chemists. Except for a few examples,
KBH4 or NaBH4 alone generally could not reduce nitriles to amines. The
reducing ability of NaBH4 could been anced by introducing some special
additives. For example, CoCl 2, ZrCl4, I2and bis(2- bromoethyl) selenium
dibromideare effective additives for the reaction.
Recently Khurana and Co-workers reported that aromatic nitriles could be reduced
to primary amines with NaBH4 using NiCl2 as additive. However, this method is
not efficient for aliphatic nitriles. Caddick and co-workers introduced a suitable
trapping agent such as acetic anhydride or di-tert- butyldicarbonate to the
reaction(NiCl2/NaBH4),the protected primary amines were firstly obtained, and the
product amines were formed by subsequent deprotection treatment. In this method,
longer synthesis routes were needed and the yields of primary amines are not high
[28]
enough.

The following questions are multiple choice questions.Choose the most appropriate
answer:
(i) Which one of the following statements about CH3CN is not true?
(a) Its IUPAC name is ethanenitrile
(b)The bond between C and N is a triple bond
(c)The carbon-carbon bond is longer than the carbon nitrogen bond
(d)It has a relatively high boiling point due to hydrogen bonding
(ii) Ethyl amine reacts with acetaldehyde followed by reduction with H2/Pt to
produce:
(a) Acidamide (b)10amine
(c)20amine (d)30amine

(iii) CH 3 CH 2 Cl NaCN × ¿/ H 2 Y Aceticanhydride Z


→ → →

Z in the reaction sequence is


(a)CH3CH2CH2NHCOCH3 (b)CH3CH2CH2NH2
(c)CH3CH2CH2CONHCH3 (d)CH3CH2CH2CONHCOCH3
(iv) Which of the following amine can’t be prepared by the reduction
of nitriles?
(a) Benzylamine (b) Aniline (c) Ethylamine(d) 2-phenylethanamine
2. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions: (1×4)
Amines can act as a nucleophile (a Lewis base) because its lone pair non
bonding electrons can form a bond with an electrophile or as a Bronsted-
Lowry base because it can accept a proton from a proton acid. The basicity of
the amines depends on the ability of the lone pair nonbonding electrons at
nitrogen atom to form bond with an acid. The more easier the lone pair
electrons formed bond with the acid, will make the amines a stronger base. The
equilibrium constant for this reaction is called base-dissociation constant,
symbolized by Kb:Kb=[BH+]/[:B][H+] (Strong base have higher values of K b).
The greater the electron density, the more basic the molecule. Groups that
donate or supply electrons (by means of positive inductive effect) will increase
the basicity of amines like alkyl groups (-CH 3, etc.) while groups that decrease
the electron density like -NO2 etc., (by means of negative inductive effect)
around the nitrogen decrease the basicity of the molecule.
The following questions are multiple choice questions. Choose the most
appropriate answer:
(i) The correct order basicities of the following compounds is:

(a)2>1>3>4 (b)1>3>2>4 (c)3>1>2>4 (d)1>2>3>4


[29]
(i) Which is least basic?
(a)C6H5NH2 (b)(C6H5)2NH (c)CH3NH2 (d)(CH3)2NH
(ii) Considering the basic strength of amines in aqueous solution, which one has the
smallest Pkb value?
(a) (CH3)2NH (b) CH3NH2 (c) (CH3)3N (d)C6H5NH
(iii) Which among the following is the strongest base:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

3. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions: (1×4 =4)
Treatment of primary amine with nitrous acid results in the formation of diazonium
salt, a compound of the type Ar/R-N≡N +X-,where X-is an anion like chloride,
bromide, sulphate etc. But since nitrous acid is unstable, as a result it is generated
in situ by treatment of sodium nitrite with strong acid such as HCl or H2SO4. This
process of conversion of primary amine to its diazonium salt is known as
diazotization. Diazonium salts of aliphatic primary amine are highly unstable even
at lower temperatures, as a result as soon as they are formed they decompose,
liberating nitrogen to form carbocation. The carbocation may undergo substitution
and elimination reaction to give alcohol and alkene respectively. As a result
diazotization of Aliphatic primary amine is of little or
no importance, and there action are also of no importance. Though diazonium
salts of primary aromatic amines are also unstable, but they are far more stable
in comparison to diazonium salts of aliphatic primary amines and they do not
decompose when the temperature of the reaction mixture is kept below 278K.

The following questions are Reason Assertion type questions carrying 1 mark
each. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(i) Assertion: Aniline on reaction with NaNO2/HCl followed by
coupling with phenol in basic medium gives a blue colour
ppt.
Reason: The colour of the compound formed in the reaction is due
to extended conjugation.
(ii) Assertion: The diazonium salts of aromatic amines are more stable
than those of the aliphatic amines.
+
Reason: The N2 is a meta directing and deactivating group.
(iii) Assertion: When the temp. of the diazonium salt solution is
allowed to rise above 278K, the salt is hydrolysed to form
phenol
Reason: Aryl diazonium salts are highly soluble in water.
[30]
(iv) Assertion: The benzene diazonium chloride reacts with CuCN/KCN
to form cyano benzene which is hydrolysed in acidic medium
to form benzoic acid
Reason: The reaction involves retention of diazo group.
4. The following questions are Reason Assertion type questions carrying 1 mark
each. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(i) Assertion: Ammonolysis of alkylhalides is not a suitable method for
preparation of pure primary amines.
Reason: Ammonolysis of alkyl halides yields mainly tertiary
amines.
(ii) Assertion: Aniline does not undergo Friedel -Crafts reaction.
Reason: Friedel –Crafts reaction is an electrophilic substitution
reaction.
(ii) Assertion: Aniline reacts with bromine water at room temperature to
form2,4,6-tribromoaniline,
Reason: -NH2group is ortho and para directing and a powerful
activating group.
(iii) Assertion: Ethylamine is soluble in water whereas aniline is not.
Reason: Ethylamine dissolves in water due to intermolecular
H- bonding.
(iv) Assertion : Amines are more basic than esters and ethers.
Reason : Nitrogen is less electronegative than oxygen. It is a better
position to accommodate the positive charge on the proton.
UNIT-14
BIOMOLECULES
1. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions: (1x4=4)
Amino acids contain both acidic -NH3+and basic-COO-groups. Hence they are
amphoteric in nature. The predominant form of the amino acid depends on the pH
of the solution. In an acidic solution, the (-COO -) group is protonated to a free
-COOH group, and the molecule has an overall positive charge. As the pH is raised,
the -COOH loses its proton at about pH of 2. This point is called pKa1 the first acid-
dissociation constant. As the pH is raised further, the -NH 3+group loses its proton at
about pH 9 or 10. This point is called pKa2the second acid-dissociation constant.
Above this pH, the molecule has an overall negative charge.

Base is slowly added, and the pH is recorded.


At pH 2.3, half
Cationic in acid
of the cationic
pKa12
form has been
neutral pKa29-10 anionic in base
converted to the zwitter ionic form. At pH 6.0,
essentially all the glycine is in the zwitter ionic
form. At pH 9.6, half of the zwitter ionic form
has been converted to the basic form. Glycine
is mostly in the cationic form at pH values
below 2.3, mostly in the zwitter ionic form at
pH values between 2.3 and 9.6, and mostly in
the anionic form at pH values above 9.6. By
varying the pH of the solution, we can control
the charge on the molecule. This ability to
control the charge of an amino acid is useful
for separating and identifying amino[31] acids by
electrophoresis. Titration curve for Glycine
The following questions are multiple choice questions. Choose the most appropriate
answer
(i) Which of the following statements are not true for zwitter ionic substances
(a) The isoelectronic point is the pH at which the amino acid does not
migrate in an electric field.
(b) The pH at which the amino acid is neutral, i.e. the zwitter ion form is
dominant is known as isoelectric point.
(c) All zwitterion don’t possess isoelectric point (pI)
(d) The charge in the zwitter ionic amino acids can be varied by
electrophoresis .
(ii) An amino acid contains 2 basic groups -NH2 and -COO-. It is
(a) basic (b) acidic
(c) neutral (d) None of these
(iii) The proteins which are hydrolysed by acids, alkalis or enzymes to give
(a) Amino acids (b) Ethers (c) Esters (d) Cycloparaffins
(iv) From the above titration it can be concluded that
(a)Isoelectric point is reached when the concentration of acid and base is
equivalent in the solution.
(b)The zwittter ionic behavior of the solution is followed by a sharp range
of concentration.
(c) Nature of Glycine is Basic in nature.
(d) Glycine is natural in nature.
2. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions: (1×4 =4)
Both plant and animal proteins are made up of 20 common amino acids. The
proportion of these varies as a characteristic of a given protein, but all food proteins
with the exception of gelatine-contain some of each. Amino nitrogen accounts for
approximately 16% of the weight of proteins. Amino acids are required for the
synthesis of body protein and other important hydrogen containing compounds, such
as creatine, peptide hormones ,and some neurotransmitters, although allowances are
expressed as protein, the biological requirement is for amino acids..
The following questions are multiple choice questions. Choose the most
appropriate answer:
(i) Amino acids are best represented as:
(a)neutral molecule (b) isoelectronic ions(c) amphoteric ions
(d) zwitter ions
(ii) The main structural feature of protein is:
(a)Easter linkage (b)eather linkage (c)peptide linkage (d)all of these
(iii) The primary structure of a polypeptide is determined by:
(a) The number of disulphite bonds in the polypeptide
(b) The number of amino acids in the polypeptide
(c) The order of amino acids in the polypeptide
(d) The length of the polypeptide
(iv) Which is not a true statement ?
[32]
(a) ∝-carbon of ∝-amino acid is asymmetric.
(b) All proteins are found in L-form.
(c) Human body can synthesize all proteins they need.
(d) At pH=7,both amino and carboxylic group exist in ionised form.
3. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions: (1x4=4)
One of the most important classes of biomolecules is carbohydrates. These include
sugars, starch, glycogen, cellulose etc. these are formed by plants under a process
called photosynthesis and make up about 70% of plant material. Carbohydrates
provide us food, clothing and shelter in the form of starch, cotton and wood
respectively.
Earlier carbohydrates were called as hydrates of carbon C x(H2O). But this definition
is not applicable in all cases. Carbohydrates are also called saccharides. These can
be monosaccharides, oligosaccharides and polysaccharides. Carbohydrates can also
be classified as sugar and non-sugar. All the monosaccharides and oligosaccharides
are sugar.
The polysaccharides are non-sugar. All those carbohydrates which reduce Tollen’s
reagent or Fehling solution are called reducing carbohydrates, while others which do
not reduce these reagents are called non-reducing carbohydrates. All
monosaccharides are reducing. All polysaccharides are non-reducing.
All carbohydrates can be hydrolysed except monosaccharides. Monosaccharides
containing an aldehyde are called aldoses and those containing ketone are called
ketoses.
a.Assertion : Sucrose is a non-reducing sugar.
Reason : It has glycosidic linkage.
b.Assertion: Glocose and fructose can be distinguished by Tollen’s reagent.
Reason : Glucose contains an aldehyde group while fructose contains a
keto group.
c.Assertion: Carbohydrates were earlier called as hydrates of carbon.
Reason: Carbohydrates can be hydrolysed.
d. Assertion : Starch is a non-sugar.
Reason : Starch is polysaccharides.
4. The following questions are Reason Assertion type questions carrying 1 mark
each. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(i) Assertion (A): D(+) –glucose is dextrorotatory in nature.
Reason (R): ‘D’ represents its dextrorotatory nature.
(ii) Assertion(A): β-glycosidic linkage is present in maltose.
Reason(R): Maltose is composed of two glucose units in which C-
1 of one glucose unit is linked to C-4 of another glucose unit.
(iii) Assertion(A): Glycine must be taken through diet.
Reason(R): It is a non-essential amino acid.
(iv)Assertion(A): Glucose does not react with ammonia .
Reason(R): NH3 is a lewis base.
(v) Assertion(A): Reducing sugars undergo mutarotation.
Reason(R): During mutarotation, one pure anomeris converted
into an equilibrium mixture of two anomers.
[33]
ANSWER KEYS
CLASS: XII
UNIT-1 SOLID STATE
1. i) c ii)b iii)a iv)b
2. i) b ii)a iii)d iv)d
3. i)d ii)b iii)a iv)b
4. i) b ii)b iii)a iv)a v) b
UNIT-2 SOLUTION
1. i) d ii)b iii)d iv)c
2. i) c ii)c iii)a iv)d
3. i) a ii) a iii) b iv)d
4. i) a ii) b iii) a iv)d v) a
UNIT-3 ELECTROCHEMISTRY
1. i) a ii) a iii) c iv) a
2. i) d ii) d iii) b iv) c
3. i) c ii) b iii) d iv) d
4. i) b ii) c iii) d iv) a v) a
UNIT-4 CHEMICAL KINETICS
1. i) b ii) d iii) a iv) c
2. i) a ii) b iii) d iv) d
3. i) a ii) a iii) a iv) d
4. i) b ii) d iii) a iv) c v) a
UNIT-5 SURFACE CHEMISTRY
1. i) c ii) c iii)d iv) d
2. i) d ii) c iii) c iv) c
3. i) a ii) b iii) d iv)a
4. i) a ii) c iii) b iv) b v) a
UNIT-7 p-BLOCK ELEMENTS
1. i) a ii) c iii) d iv) c
2. i) b ii) c iii) a iv) d
3. i) a ii) b iii) b iv) d
4. i) c ii) d iii) c iv) d v) b
UNIT-8 d & f-BLOCK ELEMENTS
1. i) c ii) a iii) d iv) b
2. i) b ii)a iii) d iv) b
3. i) a ii) b iii) b iv) c
4. i) b ii) b iii) b iv) d v) d
UNIT-9 COORDINATION COMPOUND
1. i) b ii) c iii) d iv) c
2. i) c ii) c iii) a iv) b
3. i) c ii) d iii) b iv)a
4. i) c ii) c iii) b iv) c v) a

[34]
UNIT-10 HALOALKANES&HALOARENES
1. i) c ii) d iii) a iv) d
2. i) b ii) a iii) b iv) a
3. i) a ii) d iii) c iv) c
4. i) c ii) a iii) a iv) c v) a
UNIT-11 ALCOHOLS, PHENOLS & ETHERS
1. i) c ii) c iii) a iv) b
2. i) d ii) a iii) b iv) c
3. i) d ii) b iii) a iv) a
4. i) c ii) a iii) d iv) d v) a
UNIT-12 ALDEHYDES, KETONES & CARBOXYLIC ACIDS
1. i) a ii) b iii) d iv) c
2. i) c ii) b iii) d iv) b
3. i) a ii) c iii) a iv) b
4. i) c ii) c iii) a iv)a v) c
UNIT-13 AMINES
1. i) d ii) c iii) a iv) b
2. i) b ii) b iii) a iv) b
3. i) d ii) b iii) b iv) c
4. i) c ii) b iii) a iv) a v) a
UNIT-14 BIOMOLECULES
1. i) c ii) a iii) a iv) b
2. i) d ii) c iii) c iv) b
3. i) b ii) d iii) b iv) b
4. i) c ii) c iii) c iv) c v) a

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