Sure Shot 60 in JEE

Sure shot 60
JEE 2024 is around the corner

JEE MAIN CUT-OFF
Previous year JEE Main Qualifying Cut Off
Category 2023 2022 2021 2020 2019
General 90.7788642 88.4121383 87.8992241 90.3765335 89.7548849
EWS 75.6229025 63.1114141 66.2214845 70.2435518 78.2174869
OBC-NCL 73.6114227 67.0090297 68.0234447 72.8887969 74.3166557
SC 51.9776027 43.0820954 46.8825338 50.1760245 54.0128155
ST 37.2348772 26.7771328 34.6728999 39.0696101 44.3345172
PwD 0.0013527 0.0031029 0.0096375 0.0618524 0.11371730

Percentile January 23 April 23 June 22 July 22
99 192 200 206 213
95 134 141 134 149
90 106 110 145 116

We know the important chapters
What are the type of questions going

to be asked from that…..
Let’s have the analysis of the
topics today
Chapter Name Question Type
Ionisation enthalpy and
Periodic Properties Electron gain enthalpy
Chemical Bonding Molecular Orbital Theory, VSEPR Theory and Hybridisation
S block Flame colour
P-Block Oxoacids of P and S
Chemistry
D and f block Magnetic Moment

Coordination compounds spin magnetic moment
Mole concept Stoichiometry based problems
Atomic structure Quantum numbers
Chemical Equilibrium equilibrium Constant
Thermodynamics Reaction based
Solutions ΔTf and ΔTb
Electrochemistry Conductance
Chemical Kinetics Activation Energy
General Organic Chemistry Aromaticity and resonance
Environmental Chemistry Smog
Chemistry 15 questions in total
Chemistry 15 questions in total
The mark you can get from these

topics are ≈ 60
Units & Measurements Dimensions
Projectile Motion Range & Velocity
Rotation Moment of inertia
Gravitation Variation in g
Solids Young's Modulus
Physics
Thermodynamics Heat Engine

Simple harmonic motion Time period
Electrostatics Electric Field
Capacitors Dielectrics
Magnetic Field Straight Wire & Circular Coil
Alternating current Series RLC Circuit
EM Waves E/B=C
Wave Optics Young's Double Slit Experiment
Half Life , Photoelectric Effect , De Broglie
MODERN PHYSICS & Electronic Transition
Semiconductors Diode & Logic Gates
Physics 17 questions in total
Physics 17 questions in total
The marks you can get from these

topics are ≈ 68
Quadratic equations No. of roots and roots & coefficients
Sequence and Series Arithmetic Progression/Vn Method
Binomial Theorem Finding remainder/ General term (Coefficients)
Math
Matrices and Determinants Properties of Adjoint/System of linear equations

3D Geometry Shortest distance between lines
Differential equations Linear Differential Equations
Mathematical Reasoning logical equivalent and Tautology
Area under the Curve Area under parabola and line
Parabola Tangent to parabola
Math 9 questions in total
9 questions in total
The marks you can get from these

Math
topics are ≈ 36
≈ 164 marks in total
NIT CSE with 164 marks
NIT DURGAPUR (HS) NIT Manipur (OS)
NIT JALANDHAR (HS) NIT Hamirpur (HS)
NIT SILCHAR (os) NIT Uttarakhand (OS)
NIT RAIPUR (os) NIT Puducherry (OS)
NIT GOA NIT Arunachal Pradesh (OS)
NIT PATNA (OS) NIT Sikkim (OS)
NIT Mizoram (OS)

NIT MEGHALAYA (os)
NIT Nagaland (OS)
NIT AGARTALA (OS)
NIT Andhra Pradesh (OS)
NIT SRINAGAR (OS)
≈ 164 marks in total
A few more steps to 99%ile

Now, let’s have a look to these questions
Chemistry
Ionisation enthalpy and Electron gain enthalpy
JEE Main 25th January 2023 S-1 JEE Main 25th July 2022 S-2
Q. Inert gases have positive electron Q. The first ionization enthalpies of Be, B,
gain enthalpy. Its correct order is N and O follow the order
(A) Xe < Kr < Ne < He (A) O < N < B < Be
(B) He < Ne < Kr < Xe (B) Be < B < N < O
(C) He < Xe < Kr < Ne (C) B < Be < N < O
(D) He < Kr < Xe < Ne (D) B < Be < O < N
JEE Main 25th June 2022 S-2

JEE Main 01th February 2023 S-2
Q. The correct order of electron gain
Q. For electron gain enthalpies of the
enthalpies of Cl, F, Te and Po is
elements denoted as ΔegH, the incorrect
(A) F < Cl < Te < Po
option is:
(B) Po < Te < F < Cl
(A) ΔegH(Cl) < ΔegH(F)
(C) Te < Po < Cl < F
(B) ΔegH(Se) < ΔegH(S)
(D) Cl < F < Te < Po
(C) ΔegH(I)< ΔegH(At)
(D) ΔegH(Te) < ΔegH(Po)
JEE Main 29th June 2022 S-2 JEE Main 27th July 2022 S-2
Q. Outermost electronic configurations
Q. Given below are two statements. One
of four elements A, B, C, D are given
is labelled as Assertion A and the order
below:
is labelled as Reason R.
(A) 3s2
Assertion A: The first ionization enthalpy
(B) 3s23p1
for oxygen is lower than that of nitrogen.
(C) 3s23p3
Reason R: The four electrons in 2p
(D) 3s23p4
orbitals of oxygen experience more
The correct order of first ionization
electron-electron repulsion.
enthalpy for them is :
In the light of the above statements,
(A) (A) < (B) < (C) < (D)
choose the correct answer from the
(B) (B) < (A) < (D) < (C)
options given below.
(C) (B) < (D) < (A) < (C)
(A) Both A and R are correct and R is the
(D) (B) < (A) < (C) < (D)
correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is correct but R is not correct.
(D) A is not correct but R is correct.
JEE Main 25th January 2023 S-1
Q. Given below are two statements: one

is labelled as Assertion (A) and the
other is labelled as Reason (R)
Assertion A: The first ionization enthalpy
of 3d series elements is more than that
of group 2 metals
Reason R: In 3d series of elements
successive filling of d-orbitals takes
place.
choose the correct answer from the
options given below:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A
(C) A is false but R is true
(D) A is true but R is false
Molecular Orbital Theory
Q. Among the following species

Q. The correct order of bond orders of C22-, N22-
N2, N2+, N2-, N22-, O2, O2+, O2-, O22-
and O22- is, respectively.
the number of species showing diamagnetism
(A) C22- < N22- < O22- (B) O22- < N22- < C22- is
(C) C22- < O22- < N22- (D) N22- < C22- < O22- JEE Main 27th July 2022 S-1
JEE Main 25th June 2022 S-1 Q. Amongst the following the number of
oxide(s) which are paramagnetic in nature is
Q. Bonding in which of the following diatomic Na2O, KO2, NO2, N2O, ClO2, NO, SO2, Cl2O
molecule(s) become(s) stronger, on the basis of
MO Theory, by removal of an electron? JEE Main 27th July 2022 S-1
(A) NO (B) N2 (C) O2 (D) C2 (E) B2 Q. According to MO theory, number of

species/ions from the following having identical
bond order is___:
CN- , NO+ , O2 , O2+ , O22+
Molecular Orbital Theory
JEE Main 24th Jan 2023 S-2 JEE Main 26th June 2022 S-1
Q. What is the number of unpaired electrons(s) Q. Consider the ions/molecule

in the highest occupied molecular orbital of the
O2+, O2, O2-, O22-
following species: N2 ; N2+ ; O2; O2+ ?
(A) 0, 1, 2, 1 (B) 2, 1, 2, 1 (C) 0, 1, 0, 1 (D) 2, 1, 0, 1 For increasing bond order the correct option is:
JEE Main 29th Jan 2023 S-2 (A) O22- < O2- < O2 < O2+ (B) O2- < O22- < O2 < O2+
Q. According to MO theory the bond orders for (C) O2- < O22- < O2+ < O2 (D) O2- < O2+ < O22- < O2
O22-, CO and NO+ respectively are
(A) 1, 3, and 3 (B) 1, 3, and 2
(C) 1, 2, and 3 (D) 2, 3 and 3
Q. The number of paramagnetic species

among the following is____.
B2, Li2, C2, C2-, O22-, O2+ and He2+
VSEPR Theory and Hybridisation
Q. Amongst SF4, XeF4, CF4 and H2O, the number Q. The sum of number of lone pairs of electrons
of species with two lone pairs of electrons___. present on the central atoms of
XeO3, XeOF4 and XeF6 is____
Q. Based upon VSEPR theory, match the shape JEE Main 25th July 2022 S-2
(geometry) of the molecules in List - I with the
molecules in List - II and select the most Q. The sum of number of lone pairs of electrons
appropriate option present on the central atoms of
List - I XeO3, XeOF4 and XeF6 is____
List-II JEE Main 29th July 2022 S-2
(Shape) (Molecules)
(A) T-shaped (I) XeF4 Q. Consider, PF5, BrF5, PCl3, SF6, [ICl4]-, ClF3 and
(B) Trigonal planar (II) SF4 IF5.
(C) Square planar (III) ClF3 Amongst the above molecule(s)/ion(s), the
(D) See-saw (IV) BF3 number of molecules(s)/ion(s) having sp3d2
hybridization is____.
(A) (A)-I, (B)-II, (C)-III, (D)-IV
(B) (A)-III, (B)-IV, (C)-I, (D)-III
(C) (A)-III, (B)-IV, (C)-II, (D)-I
(D) (A)-IV, (B)-III, (C)-I, (D)-II
JEE Main 27th June 2022 S-2 JEE Main 28th June 2022 S-2
Q. Identify the incorrect statement for PCl5 from Q. In the structure of SF4, the lone pair of
the following. electrons on S is in.
(A) In this molecule, orbitals of phosphorus are (A) Equatorial position and there are two Ione
assumed to undergo sp3d hybridization pair-bond pair repulsions at 90°
(B) The geometry of PCl5 is trigonal (B) Equatorial position and there are three lone
bipyramidal. pair-bond pair repulsions at 90°
(C) PCl5 has two axial bonds stronger than (C) Axial position and there are three lone pair-
three equatorial bonds bond pair repulsion at 90°
(D) The three equatorial bonds of PCl5 lie in a (D) Axial position and there are two lone pair-
plane. bond pair repulsion at 90°
JEE Main 27th July 2022 S-2
Q. The number of molecule(s) or ions(s) from

the following having non-planar structure is__.
NO3-, H2O2, BF3, PCl3, XeF4,
SF4, XeO3, PH4+, SO3 [Al(OH)4]-
Q. The hybridization of P exhibited in PF5 is spxdy. Q. Consider the species CH4, NH4+ and BH4-. Choose
The value of y is____. the correct option with respect to the there species:
(A) They are isoelectronic and only two have
JEE Main 29th July 2022 S-1 tetrahedral structures
Q. Number of lone pairs of electrons in the
(B) They are isoelectronic and all have tetrahedral
central atom of SCl2, O3, ClF3 and SF6,
structures
respectively, are:
(C) Only two are isoelectronic and all have
(A) 0, 1, 2 and 2 (B) 2, 1, 2
tetrahedral structures
and 0 (D) Only two are isoelectronic and only two have
(C) 1, 2, 2 and 0 (D) 2, 1, 2 tetrahedral structures
and 0
Q. Number of lone pair (s) of electrons on

central atom and the shape of BrF3 molecule
respectively, are:
(A) 0, triangular planar
(B) 1, pyramidal
(C) 2, bent T-shape
(D) 1, bent T-shape
Q. Match List-I with List-II Q. Match List-I with List-II:
List-I List-II List-I List-II
(Compound) (Shape) (A) XeO3 (I) sp3d; linear
(A) BrF5 (I) bent (B) XeF2 (II) sp3; pyramidal
(B) [CrF6]3- (II) Square pyramidal (C) XeOF4 (III) sp3d3; distorted octahedral
(C) O3 (III) Trigonal (D) XeF6 (IV) sp3d2; square pyramidal
bipyramidal Choose the correct answer from the options
(D) PCl5 (IV) Octahedral given below:
Choose the correct answer from the options
(A) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
given below:
(B) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(A) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (B) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (C) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(C) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (D) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (D) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
JEE Main 31th Jan 2023 S-2
Q. Amongst the following, the number of

species having the linear shape is___.
XeF2, I3+, C3O2, I3-, CO2, SO2, BeCl2 and BCl2Θ
JEE Main 30th Jan 2023 S-1 JEE Main 31th Jan 2023 S-1
Q. Match List-I with List-II:
Q. Match List-I with List-II:
List-I List-II
List-I List-II
(Molecule/ions) (No. of lone pairs of e-
(A) XeF4 (I) See - Saw
on
(B) SF4 (II) Square planar
central atom)
(C) NH4 + (III) Bent T-shaped
(A) IF7 (I) Three
(D) BrF3 (IV) Tetrahedral
(B) ICl4- (II) One
(C) XeF6 (III) Two
given below:
(D) XeF2 (IV) Zero
(A) A-IV, B-IIII, C-II, D-I (B) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
Choose the correct from the options given
(C) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III (D) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
below:
(A) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (B) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(C) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (D) A-IV, B-1, C-II, D-III
Flame colour – s block
JEE Main 26th June 2022 S-2 JEE Main 07th January 2023 S-2
Q. S-block element which cannot be
Q. Given below are two statements, one
qualitatively confirmed by the flame
is labelled as Assertion A and the other
test is
is labelled as Reason R.
(A) Li (B)
Assertion A:- The alkali metals and their
Na
salts impart characteristic colour to
(C) Rb (D) Be
reducing flame.
Reason R:- Alkali metals can be
JEE Main 24th June 2022 S-2 detected using flame tests.
Q. In the flame test of a mixture of salts, choose the most appropriate answer
a green flame with blue centre was form the options given below.
observed. Which one of the following (A) Both A and R are correct but R is not
cations may be present? the correct explanation of A.
(A) Cu2+ (B) Sr2+ (B) A is correct but R is not correct.
(C) Ba2 (D) Ca2 (C) A is not correct but R is correct.
(D) Both A and R are correct and R is the
Flame colour – s block
Q. Match
JEE Main 29List I with List II
th June 2022 S-1
List-I List-
II Q. Q. Match List I with List II
(Metal) (Emitted light List-I List-II
wavelength (nm)) (Elements) (Colour imparted to
(A) Li (I) the flame)
670.8 (A) K (I) Brick Red
(B) Na (II) 589.2 (B) Ca (II) Violet
(C) Rb (III) 780.0 (C) Sr (III) Apple Green
(D) Cs (IV) 455.5 (D) Ba (IV) Crimson Red
Choose the correct answer from the Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV A A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
B. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
C. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV B A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
D. A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
C A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
D A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Oxoacids of P and S
JEE Main 26th June 2022 S-1 JEE Main 29th June 2022 S-1 JEE Main 24th Jan 2023 S-1
Consider the following reaction: The oxoacid of phosphorus

Which of the phosphorus oxoacid
A + alkali → B (Major Product) If B is an that is easily obtained from a
can create silver mirror from
oxoacid of phosphorus with no P–H reaction of alkali and white
AgNO3 solution?
bond, then A is phosphorus and has two P-H
(A) (HPO3)n
(A) White P4 bonds, is:
(B) H4P2O5
(B) Red P4 (A) Phosphoric acid
(C) H4P2O6
(C) P2O3 (B) Phosphinic acid
(D) H4P2O7
(D) H3PO3 (C) Pyrophosphorus acid
(D) Hypophosphoric acid JEE Main 31th Jan 2023 S-1
Which of the following oxoacids of The oxidation state of phosphorus
Which oxoacid of phosphorous
sulphur contains “S” in two different in hypophosphoric acid is
has the highest number of
oxidation states? +____ .
oxygen atoms present in its
(A) H2S2O3
chemical formula?
(B) H2S2O6
(A) Pyrophosphorous acid
(C) H2S2O7
(B) Hypophosphoric acid
(D) H2S2O8
(C) Phosphoric acid
(D) Pyrophosphoric acid
Oxoacids of P and S
JEE Main 24th Jan 2023 S-2 JEE Main 29th July 2022 S-2
Sum of 𝜋-bonds present in
Q. Consider the following sulphur based
peroxides and pyrosulphuric
oxoacids.
acid is
H2SO3, H2SO4, H2S2O8 and H2S2O7.
Amongst these oxoacids, the number of those
with peroxo(O-O) bond is___ .
Magnetic Moment - D and f block
JEE Main 24th January 2023 S-1 JEE Main 27th June 2022 S-1
Q. The magnetic moment of a transition Q. Acidified potassium permanganate

metal compound has been calculated solution oxidises oxalic acid. The spin-
to be 3.87 B.M. The metal ion is only magnetic moment of the
(A) Cr2+ (B) Mn2+ manganese product formed from the
(C) V2+ (D) Ti2+ above reaction is ______ B.M.
(Nearest integer)
Q. An acidified manganate solution JEE Main 26th July 2022 S-2
undergoes disproportionation reaction. Q. The spin-only magnetic moment

The spin-only magnetic moment value value of the compound with strongest
of the product having manganese in oxidizing ability among MnF4, MnF3 and
higher oxidation state is ______ B.M. MnF2 is _______ B.M. [nearest
(Nearest integer) integer].
Magnetic Moment - D and f block
JEE Main 25th July 2022 S-1 JEE Main 25th June 2022 S-2
Q. Among Co3+, Ti2+, V2+ and Cr2+ ions, Q. The metal ion (in gaseous state) with
one if used as a reagent cannot liberate lowest spin only magnetic moment
H2 from dilute mineral acid solution, its value is
spin-only magnetic moment in gaseous (A) V2+ (B) Ni2+
state is ______ B.M. (Nearest integer). (C) Cr2+ (D) Fe2+
Q. How many of the following metal ions have Q. The spin-only magnetic moment value of the
similar value of spin only magnetic moment in
most basic oxide of vanadium among V2O3,
gaseous state?____
V2O4 and V2O5 is _______ B.M. [nearest
(Given: Atomic number: V, 23 ; Cr, 24; Fe, 26; Ni,
integer].
28) V3+, Cr3+, Fe2+, Ni3+
spin magnetic moment
JEE Main 25th June 2022 S-2 JEE Main 27th June 2022 S-2 JEE Main 26th July 2022 S-1
Amongst FeCl3.3H2O, K3[Fe(CN)6] and Arrange the following The difference between spin
[Co(NH3)6]Cl3, the spin-only magnetic coordination compounds in only magnetic moment value
moment value of the inner-orbital the increasing order of of [Co(H2O)6]Cl2 and
complex that absorbs light at shortest magnetic moments.. (Atomic [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 is ____ .
wavelength is _____ B.M. numbers : Mn = 25; Fe = 26)
(A) [FeF6]3- (B) [Fe(CN)6]3-
(C) [MnCl6]3- (D) [Mn(CN)6]3- The spin only magnetic
The spin-only magnetic moment value (A) A < B < D < C moment of the complex
of an octahedral complex among (B) B < D < C < A present in Fehling’s reagent is
CoCl3.4NH3, NiCl2.6H2O and PtCl4.2HCl, (C) A < C < D < B ____ B.M.
which upon reaction with excess of (D) B < D < A < C
AgNO3 gives 2 moles of AgCl is ____
B.M. (Nearest Integer)
spin magnetic moment
Consider the following metal Spin only magnetic moment of

complexes : [MnBr6]4- is ___ B.M. (round off to the
[Co(NH3)]3+ closest integer)
[CoCl(NH3)5]2+
[Co(CN)6]3-
[Co(NH3)5(H2O)]3+
The spin-only magnetic Q. Correct order of spin only magnetic moment
moment value of the complex of the following complex ions is:
that absorbs light with shortest
wavelength B.M.
A [FeF6]3- > [CoF6]3- > [Co(C2O4)3]3-
JEE Main 01st Feb 2023 S-2
B [Co(C2O4)3]3- > [CoF6]3- > [FeF6]3-
The spin only magnetic moment of
[Mn(H2O)6]2+ complexes is ____ B.M. C [FeF6]3- > [Co(C2O4)3]3- > [CoF6]3-
(Nearest integer)
D [CoF6]3- >[FeF6]3- > [Co(C2O4)3]3-
Stoichiometry - Mole concept
Q. Zinc reacts with hydrochloric acid to give Q. Assume carbon burns according to following
hydrogen and zinc chloride. The volume of equation:
hydrogen gas produced at STP from the When 12 g carbon is burnt in 48 g of oxygen, the
reaction of 11.5 g of zinc with excess HCl is __N volume of carbon monoxide produced is___
(Nearest integer) × 10-1 L at STP [Nearest integer]
(Given : Molar mass of Zn is 65.4g mol-1 and [Given: Assume CO as ideal gas, Mass of C is 12
Molar volume of H2 at STP = 22.7L) g mol-1, Mass of O is 16 g mol-1 and molar
volume of an ideal gas at STP is 22.7 L mol-1]
Q. When a hydrocarbon A undergoes complete
combustion it requires 11 equivalents of oxygen Q. 56.0 L of nitrogen gas is mixed with excess of
and produces 4 equivalents of water. What is hydrogen gas and it is found that 20 L of
the molecular formula of A? ammonia gas is produced. The volume of
(A) C9H8 (B) C11H4 (C) C5H8 (D) C11H8 unused nitrogen gas is found to be___ L.
JEE Main 26th June 2022 S-1 JEE Main 29th Jan 2023 S-2
Q. On complete combustion 0.30 g of an Q. When a hydrocarbon A undergoes

organic compound gave 0.20 g of carbon combustion in the presence of air, it requires 9.5
dioxide and 0.10 g of water. The percentage of equivalents of oxygen and produces 3
carbon in the given organic compound is____ equivalents of water. What is the molecular
(Nearest Integer) formula of A?
JEE Main 28th July 2022 S-1 (A) C8H6 (B) C9H9 (C) C6H6 (D) C9H6
Q. On complete combustion of 0.492 g of an

organic compound containing C, H and O, JEE Main 29th Jan 2023 S-2
0.7938g of CO2 and 0.4428 g of H2O was
produced. The % composition of oxygen in the Q. When 0.01 mol of an organic compound
compound is____. containing 60% carbon was burnt completely,
4.4 g of CO2 was produced. The molar mass of
compound is ____ g mol-1 (Nearest integer)
Q.
JEEN 2(g) +
Main 293H
th July ⇌ 2NH
2(g) 2022 S-1
3(g)
20 g 5 g
Q. If a rocket runs on a fuel (C15 H30) and liquid Consider the above reaction, the limiting
oxygen, the weight of oxygen required and CO2 reagent of the reaction and number of moles of
released for every litre of fuel respectively are: NH3 formed respectively are:
(Given: density of the fuel is 0.756 g/mL) (A) H2, 1.42 moles (B) H2, 0.71
(A) 1188 g and 1296 g (B) 2376 and 2592 g moles
(C) 2592 g and 2376 g (D) 3429 g and 3142 g (C) N2, 1.42 moles (D) N2, 0.71
moles
Q. A 1.84 mg sample of polyhydric alcoholic
compound ‘X’ of molar mass 92.0 g/mol gave Q. Consider the reaction
1.344 mL of H2 gas at STP. The number of 4HNO3(l) + 3KCl(s) → Cl2(g) + NOCl(g) +
alcoholic hydrogens present in compound ‘X’ 2H2O(g) + 3KNO3(s)
is____. The amount of HNO3 required to produce 110.0 g
of KNO3 is
(Given: Atomic masses of H, O, N and K are 1, 16,
14 and 39, respectively)
(A) 32.2 g (B) 69.4 g (C) 91.5 g (D) 162.5 g
Q. On complete combustion, 0.492 g of an Q. In the given reaction,

organic compound gave 0.792 g of CO2. X + Y + 3Z ⇌ XYZ3
The % of carbon in the organic compound If one mole of each of X and Y with 0.05 mol of Z
is___ gives compound XYZ3. (Given : Atomic masses
(Nearest integer) of X, Y and Z are 10, 20 and 30 amu,
JEE Main 26th June 2022 S-2 respectively). The yield of XYZ3 is____g.
(Nearest integer)
Q. The mole of methane required to produce 81
g of water after complete combustion is___ ×
10-2 mol. [Nearest Integer]
Quantum numbers
Q. The number of s-electrons present in an ion with Q. Which of the following statements are correct?
55 protons in its unipositive state is (A) The electronic configuration of Cr is [Ar] 3d5 4s1
(A) 8 (B) 9 (C) (B) The magnetic quantum number may have a
12 (D) 10 negative value.
JEE Main 29th June 2022 S-1 (C) In the ground state of an atom, the orbitals are
Q. The electronic configuration of Pt (atomic filled in order of their increasing energies.
number 78) is: (D) The total number of nodes are given by n-2
(A) [Xe] 4f14 5d9 6s1 (B) [Kr] 4f14 5d10 Choose the most appropriate answer from the
(C) [Xe] 4f14 5d10 (D) [Xe] 4f14 options given below:
5d8 6s2 (A) (A), (C) and (D) only
(B) (A) and (B) only
JEE Main 30th Jan 2023 S-2 (C) (A) and (C) only
Q. Maximum number of electrons that can be (D) (A), (B) and (C) only
accommodated in shell with n = 4 are
(A) 16 (B) 32 (C) 50 (D)
72
Quantum numbers
Q. Given below are two statements. One is labelled
Q. Consider the following set of quantum numbers
as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason
n l m1
R. Assertion A : Energy of 2 s orbital of hydrogen
A. 3 3 -3
atom is greater than that of 2s orbital of lithium.
B. 3 2 -2
Reason R : Energies of the orbitals in the same
C. 2 1 +1
subshell decrease with increase in the atomic
D. 2 2 +2
number.
The number of correct sets of quantum numbers is
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
Q. The correct decreasing order of energy, for the explanation of S.
orbitals having, following set of quantum numbers: (B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
(A) n = 3, l = 0, m = 0 explanation of A
(B) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0 (C) A is true but R is false.
(C) n = 3, l = 1, m = 0 (D) A is false but R is true.
(D) n = 3, l = 2, m = 1
(A) D > B > C > A (B) B > D > C > A
(C) C > B > D > A (D) B > C > D >
A
Quantum numbers
Q. Given below are the quantum numbers for 4
Q. Consider the following statements: electrons.
(A) The principal quantum number ‘n’ is a positive A. n = 3, l = 2, m1 = 1, ms = + ½
integer with values of ‘n’ = 1, 2, 3, … B. n = 4, l = 1, m1 = 0, ms = + ½
(B) The azimuthal quantum number ‘l’ for a given C. n = 4, l = 2, m1 = - 2, ms = - ½
‘n’ (principal quantum number) can have values as D. n = 3, l = 1, m1 = - 1, ms = + ½
‘l’ = 0, 1, 2, ….. n The correct order of increasing energy is:
(C) Magnetic orbital number ‘ml’ for a particular ‘l’ (A) D < B < A < C (B) D < A < B <
(azimuthal quantum number) has (2l + 1) values. C
(D) ± ½ are the two possible orientations of electron (C) B < D < A < C (D) B < D < C <
spin A
(E) For l = 5, there will be a total of 9 orbital.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) (A), (B) and (C) (B) (A), (C), (D) and (E) Q. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers
(B) (A), (C) and (D) (D) (A), (B), (C) and (D) is not allowed?
(A) n = 3, 1 = 2, m1 = 0, s = + ½
(B) n = 3, 1 = 2, m1 = - 2, s = + ½
(C) n = 3, 1 = 3, m1 = - 3, s = - ½
(D) n = 3, 1 = 0, m1 = 0, s = - ½
Equilibrium Constant - Chemical Equilibrium
Q. 2NOCl(g) ⇌ 2NO(g) + Cl2(g)

In an experiment, 2.0 moles of NOCl was placed
in a one-litre flask and the concentration of NO
after equilibrium established, was found to be
0.4 mol/L. The equilibrium constant at 30℃ is
Q. AT 298 K, the equilibrium constant is 2 × 1015
______ × 10-4.
for the reaction:
JEE Main 28th July 2022 S-2 Cu(s) + 2Ag+(aq) ⇌ Cu2+(aq) + 2Ag(s)
The equilibrium constant for the reaction
Q. At 600 K, 2 mol of NO are mixed with 1 mol of O 2. 1/2Cu2+(aq) + Ag(s) ⇌ 1/2Cu(s) + Ag+(aq)
2NO(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2NO2(g) is x × 10-8. The value of x is ______ . (Nearest
The reaction occurring as above comes to Integer).
equilibrium under a total pressure of 1 atm.
Analysis of the system shows that 0.6 mol of
oxygen are present at equilibrium. The equilibrium
constant for the reaction is _____. (Nearest
integer).
Equilibrium Constant - Chemical Equilibrium
Q. For a reaction at equilibrium
JEE Main 24h June 2022 S-1
A(g) ⇌ B(g) + 1/2C(g) the relation between
Q. For reaction: dissociation constant (K), degree of
dissociation (α) and equilibrium pressure (p)
Kp = 2 × 1012 at 27℃ and 1 atm pressure. The Kc is given by:
for the same reaction is _______ × 1013.
(Nearest integer) (A)
(Given R = 0.082 L atm K-1 mol-1) (B)

(C)
Q. At 298 K (D)
N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g), K1 = 4 × 105 JEE Main 24th June 2022 S-2
N2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2NO(g), K2 = 1.6 × 1012 Q. PCl5 dissociates as PCl5(g)⇌ PCl3(g) +
H2(g) + 1/2O2(g) ⇌ H2O(g), K3 = 1.0 × 10-13 Cl2(g)
Based on above equilibria, the equilibrium 5 moles of PCl5 are placed in a 200 litre vessel
constant of the reaction, which contains 2 moles of N2 and is
2NH3(g) + 5/2O2(g) ⇌ 2NO(g) + 3H2O(g) is maintained at 600 K. The equilibrium pressure
_____ × 10-33 (Nearest integer) is 2.46 atm. The equilibrium constant Kp for the
dissociation of PCl5 is ______ × 10-3. (nearest
integer)
(Given: R = 0.082 L atm K -1 mol-1; Assume ideal
Reaction based - Thermodynamics
At 25oC and 1 atm pressure, the The enthalpy of combustion of propane, graphite and dihydrogen
enthalpy of combustion of benzene (l) at 298 K are :- 2220.0 kJ mol-1, -393.5 kJ mol-1 and -285.8 kJ mol-1
and acetylene (g) re -3268 kJ mol-1 and respectively. The magnitude enthalpy of formation of propane
-1300 kJ mol-1, respectively. The change (C3H8) is _____ kJ mol-1.(Nearest integer)
in enthalpy for the reaction JEE Main 25th July 2022 S-1
3C2H2 → C6H6(l), is
(A)+324 kJ mol-1 While performing a thermodynamics experiment, a student made
(B) +632 kJ mol-1 the following observations,
(C) -632 kJ mol-1 HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H2O , ∆H = - 57.3 kJ mol-1
(D) -732 kJ mol-1 CH3COOH + NaOH → CH3COONa + H2O , ∆H = -55.3 kJ mol-1
The enthalpy of ionization of CH3COOH as calculated by the
student is _____ kJ mol-1.(Nearest integer)
Reaction based - Thermodynamics
JEE Main 26th June 2022 S-2 JEE Main 21st June 2023 S-1
For complete combustion of methanol The enthalpy change for the conversion
CH3OH(1)+3/2O2(g)→ CO2(g) + 2H2O(l) of 1/2Cl2 (g) to Cl-(aq) is (-) _____
The amount of heat produced as Kj mol-1 (Nearest integer)
measured by bomb calorimeter is 726 Given :
kJ mol-1 at 27oC. The enthalpy of
combustion for the reaction is -x kJ
mol-1, where x is _____. (Nearest
integer)
(Given : R = 8.3 JK-1 mol-1)
28 L of CO2 is produced on complete

combustion of 16.8 L gaseous mixture of ethene
and methane at 25oC and 1 atm. Heat evolved
during the combustion process is ______ kJ.
Given ∆HC(CH4) = -900 kJ mol-1
∆Hc(C2H4) = -1400 kJ mol-1
Solutions - ΔTf and ΔTb
Q. In the depression of freezing point experiment
A. Vapour pressure of the solution is less than that Q. Lead storage battery contains 38% by weight
of pure solvent. solution of H2SO4. The van’t Hoff factor is 2.67 at
B. Vapour pressure of the solution is more than this concentration. The temperature in Kelvin at
that of pure solvent. which the solution in the battery will freeze is
C. Only solute molecules solidify at the freezing ____(Nearest integer).
point. Given Kf=1.8 K kg mol-1
D. Only solvent molecules solidify at the freezing
point.
(A) A and D only (B) B and C
only
(C) A and C only (D) A only
Q. A solution containing 2 g of a non-volatile
solute in 20 g of water boils at 373.52 K. The
molecular mass of the solute is _____ g mol-1.
(Nearest integer)
Given, water boils at 373 K, Kb for water = 0.52 K kg
mol-1)

Q. Solid Lead nitrate is dissolved in 1 litre of
Q. A 0.5 percent solution of potassium chloride
water. The solution was found to boil at 100.15℃.
was found to freeze at -0.24℃. The percentage
When 0.2 mol of NaCl is added to the resulting
dissociation of potassium chloride is ______.
solution, it was observed that the solution froze
(Nearest integer)
at -0.8℃. The solubility product of PbCl2 formed
(Molar depression constant for water is 1.80 K
is _____ × 10-6 at 298 K. (Nearest integer)
kg mol-1 and molar mass of KCl is 74.6 g mol-1).
Given: Kb = 0.5 K kg mol-1 and Kf = 1.8 kg mol-1.
Assume molarity to be equal to molarity in all JEE Main 27th June 2022 S-1
cases.c Q. 2g of a non-volatile non-electrolyte solute is
JEE Main 25th June 2022 S-2 dissolved in 200 g of two different solvents A
Q. Solute A associates in water. When 0.7 g of and B whose ebullioscopic constants are in the
solute A is dissolved in 42.0 g of water, it ratio of 1 : 8. The elevation in boiling points of A
depresses the freezing point by 0.2℃. The and B are in the ratio x/y(x : y). The value of y is
percentage association of solute A in water, is ______ (Nearest integer).
[Given: Molar mass of A = 93 g mol-1. Molal
depression constant of water is 1.86 K kg mol-1]
(A) 50% (B) 60%
(C) 70% (D) 80%
Q. 1.80 g of solute A was dissolved in 62.5 cm3 of Q. 1.2 mL of acetic acid is dissolved in water to
ethanol and freezing point of the solution was make 2.0 L of solution. The depression in
found to be 155.1 K. The molar mass of solute A freezing point observed for this strength of acid
is ____ g mol-1. is 0.0198℃. The percentage of dissociation of
[Given: Freezing point of ethanol is 156.0 K the acid is _____(Nearest integer)
Density of ethanol is 0.80 g cm-3. Freezing point [Given: Density of acetic acid is 1.02 g mL-1
depression constant of ethanol is 2.00 K kg mol- Molar mass of acetic acid is 60 g mol-1 Kf(H2O)
1] = 1.85 K kg mol-1]
Q. A solution containing 2.5 × 10-3 kg of a solute Q. Elevation in boiling point for 1.5 molal solution
dissolved in 75 × 10-3 kg of water boils at of glucose in water is 4K. The depression in
373.535 K. The molar mass of the solute is freezing point for 4.5 molar solution of glucose
____ g mol-1. [nearest integer] (Given : Kb in water is 4K. The ratio of molal elevation
(H2O) = 0.52 K Kg mol-1, boiling point of water = constant to molal depression constant (Kb/Kf)
373.15 K) is _______ .
Q. The depression in freezing point observed for Q. The elevation in boiling point for 1 molal
a formic acid solution of concentration 0.5 mL L- solution of non-volatile solute A is 3K. The
1 is 0.0405℃. Density of formic acid is 1.05 g mL-
depression in freezing point for 2 molal solution
1. The Van’t Hoff factor of the formic acid
of A in the same solvent is 6K. The ratio of K b
solution is nearly: (Given for water Kf = 1.86 K kg and Kf i.e., Kb/Kf is 1 : X. The value of X is [nearest
mol-1) integer].
(A) 0.8 (B) 1.1
(C) 1.9 (D) 2.4 JEE Main 28th July 2022 S-1
JEE Main 25th July 2022 S-1 Q. 150 g of acetic acid was contaminated with
10.2 g ascorbic acid (C6H8O6) to lower down its
Q. Two solutions A and B are prepared by freezing point by (x × 10-1) ℃. The value of x is
dissolving 1 g of non-volatile solutes X and Y. _______. (Nearest integer)
respectively in 1 kg of water. The ratio of [Given Kf = 3.9 K kg mol-1; Molar mass of
depression in freezing points for A and B is ascorbic acid = 176 g mol-1]
found to be 1 : 4. The ratio of molar masses of X
and Y is:
(A) 1 : 4 (B) 1 : 0.25
(C) 1 : 0.20 (D) 1 : 5
Conductance - Electrochemistry
Following figure shows dependence of molar Q. The resistance of conductivity cell containing
conductance of two electrolytes on concentration. 0.01 M KCl solution at 298 K is 1750 𝛺. If the
Λ0m is the limiting molar conductivity. conductivity of 0.01 M KCl solution at 298 K is 0.152
× 10-3 S cm-1, then the cell constant of the
conductivity cell is ____ × 10-3 cm-1.
Q. The resistivity of a 0.8 M solution of an electrolyte

The number of Incorrect statement(s) from the
is 5 × 10-3 𝛺cm. Its molar conductivity is __ × 104 𝛺-1
following is___
(A) Λ0m for electrolyte A is obtained by extrapolation
cm2 mol-1. (Nearest integer)
(B) For electrolyte B, Λm vs √c graph is a straight line
with intercept equal to Λ0m
(C) At infinite dilution, the value of degree of
dissociation approach zero for electrolyte B.
(D) Λ0m for any electrolyte A or B can be calculated
using 𝜆° for individual ions.
Q. The limiting molar conductivities of NaI, NaNO3
Q. 1 × 10-5 M AgNO3 is added to 1 L of saturated
and AgNO3 are 12.7, 12.0 and 13.3 mS m2 mol-1,
solution of AgBr. The conductivity of this solution at
respectively (all at 25°C). The limiting molar
298 K is ___ × 10-8 S m-1.
conductivity of AgI at this temperature is___ mS
[Given: Ksp (AgBr) = 4.9 × 10-13 at 298 K
m2 mol-1
Q. The molar conductivity of a conductivity cell

filled with 10 moles of 20 mL NaCl solution is 𝛬m1 and 3
that of 20 moles another identical cell having 80 mL

NaCl solution is 𝛬m2, The conductivities exhibited by
these two cells are same.
The relationship between 𝛬m2 and 𝛬m1 is
(A) 𝛬m2 = 2𝛬m1 (B) 𝛬m2 = 𝛬m1/2
(C) 𝛬m2 = 𝛬m1 (D) 𝛬m2 = 4𝛬m1
Q. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: For KI, molar conductivity increases Q. Resistance of a conductivity cell (cell constant
steeply with dilution. 129 m-1) filled with 74.5 ppm solution of KCl is 100 𝛺
Statement II: For carbonic acid, molar conductivity (labelled as solution 1). When the same cell is filled
increases slowly with dilution. with KCl solution of 149 ppm, the resistance is 50 𝛺
In the light of the above statements, choose the (labelled as solution 2). The ratio of molar
correct answer from the options given below: conductivity of solution 1 and solution 2 is
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false i.e. The value of x is___
(C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true (Nearest integer)
Given, molar mass of KCl is 74.5 g mol-1
Activation Energy - Chemical Kinetics
Q. The rate constants for decomposition of

acetaldehyde have been measured over the JEE Main 26th June 2022 S-2
temperature range 700-1000 K. The data has
been analysed by plotting Ink vs 103/T graph. Q. Catalyst A reduces the activation energy for
The value of activation energy for the reaction a reaction by 10 kJ mol-1 at 300 K. The ratio of
is _____ kJ mol-1. (Nearest integer)
(Given : R 8.31 JK-1 mol -1) rate constants, is e x. The value of x
is ______. [Nearest integer]
[Assume that the pre-exponential factor is
same in both the cases. Given R = 8.31 JK -1 mol-
1]

Q. The equation k = (6.5 × 1012 s-1)e-26000K/T
is followed for the decomposition of compound
Q. It has been found that for a chemical
A. The activation energy for the reaction is
reaction with rise in temperature by 9K the rate
_____ kJ mol-1. [nearest integer]
constant gets doubled. Assuming a reaction to
(Given : R = 8.314 JK-1 mol-1)
be occurring at 300 K, the value of activation
energy is found to be _____ kJ mol-1 [Nearest
integer]
(Given ln 10 = 2.3, R = 8.3 JK -1mol-1, log2 = 0.30) Q. For a reaction, given below is the graph of
lnk vs 1/T. The activation energy for the reaction
is equal to ______ cal mol-1. (Nearest
integer).
Q. The activation energy of one of the reactions (Given: R = 2 cal K-1 mol-1).
in a biochemical process is 532611 J mol-1. When
the temperature falls from 310 K to 300 K, the
change in rate constant observed is
k300 = x × 10-3 k310. The value of x is ______.
[Given: ln 10 = 2.3 , R = 8.3 JK-1 mol-1]
JEE Main 31th January 2023 S-1 JEE Main 24th January 2023 S-1
Q. A → B Q. The number of correct statement/s from the

The rate constants of the above reaction at 200 following is ______ .
K and 300 K are 0.03 min-1 and 0.05 min-1 A. Larger the activation energy, smaller is the
respectively. The activation energy for the value of the rate constant.
reaction is _______ J (Nearest integer) B. The higher is the activation energy, higher is
(Given: ln10 = 2.3 , R = 8.3 JK -1 mol-1) the value of the temperature coefficient.
log5 = 0.70 C. At lower temperatures, increase in
log3 = 0.48 temperature causes more change in the value
log2 = 0.30 of k than at higher temperature.
D. A plot of ln k vs 1/T is a straight line with slope
equal to
Aromaticity and resonance - GOC
Q. Arrange the following carbocations in Q. Which of the following structures are
decreasing order of stability. aromatic in nature?
(A) A > C > B (B) A > B > (A) A, B, C and D (B) Only A
C and B
(C) C > B > A (D) C > A > (C) Only A and C (D) Only B,
B C and D
Q.
JEE Main 27 June 2022 S-2 is most stable?
Which of
th the following
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q. Which of the following carbocations is most JEE Main 01th February 2023 S-1
stable:
Q. Resonance in carbonate ion (CO32-) is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D) Which of the following is true?
(1) It is possible to identify each structure
individually by some physical or chemical
method.
(2) All these structures are in dynamic
equilibrium with each other
(3) Each structure exists for equal amount of
time
(4) CO32- has a single structure i.e., resonance
hybrid of the above three structures.
JEE Main 27th July 2022 S-1 JEE Main 24th January 2023 S-1
Q. Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Q. Increasing order of stability of the resonance
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. structure is:
Assertion A: [6] Annulene [8] Annulene and cis-[10]
annulene, are respectively aromatic, not-aromatic and A.
aromatic
[6] Annulene B.
[8] Annulene
C.
Cis-[10] Annulene
Reason R: Planarity is one of the requirements of D.

aromatic systems.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below. (1) C, D, B, A (B) C, D, A, B
(A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct (C) D, C, A, B (D) D, C, B, A
explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct
explanation of A.
(C) A is correct but R is not correct.
(D) A is not correct but R is correct.
Smog - Environmental Chemistry
Q. Given below are two statements: The photochemical smog does not generally
Statement I : Classical smog occurs in cool humid contain:
climate. It is a reducing mixture of smoke, fog and (A) No
sulphur dioxide (B) NO2
Statement II : Photochemical smog has components, (C) SO2
ozone, nitric oxide, acrolein, formaldehyde, PAN etc. (D) HCHO
In the light of above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect How can photochemical smog be controlled?
(C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (A) By using tall chimneys
(D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (B) By complete combustion of fuel
(C)By using catalytic converters in the
automobiles/industry
(D) By using catalyst
Correct statement about photo-chemical smog is:
(A) It occurs in humid climate.
(B) It is a mixture of smoke, fog and SO2
(C) It is reducing smog.
Smog - Environmental Chemistry
Q. Correct statement about smog is
Correct statement about photo-chemical smog is:
(A) It occurs in humid climate.
(B) It is a mixture of smoke, fog and SO 2
(C) It is reducing smog. A NO2 is present in classical smog
(D) It results from reaction of unsaturated
hydrocarbons. Both NO2 and SO2 are present in
B
classical smog
Photochemical smog has high

C
concentration of oxidizing agents
Classical smog also has high

D
concentration of oxidizing agents
Mathematics
No. of roots and roots & coefficients
JEE Main 31h January 2023 S-2

Q. The equation e4x + 8e3x + 13e2x - 8ex + 1 = 0,
Q. The sum of all the real roots of the equation x ∈ R has:
(e2x - 4) (6e2x - 5ex + 1) = 0 is (A) Two solutions and both are negative
(A) loge3 (B) -loge3 (C) loge6 (D) -loge6 (B) No solution
(C) Four solutions two of which are negative
JEE Main 28th July 2022 S-1 (D) Two solutions and only one of them is
negative.
Q. The sum of all real values of x for which JEE Main 31th Jan 2023 S-1
is equal to
Q. The number of real roots of the equation
Q. The sum of the cubes of all the roots of the Is

equation x4 -3x3 - 2x2 +3x + 1 = 10 is ____ . (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) 2
No. of roots and roots & coefficients
Q. If the sum of all the roots of the equation
Q. The minimum value of the sum of the

squares of the roots of x3 + (3 - a)x + 1 = 2a is:
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 8
Arithmetic Progression
Q. If then a1 + a2 + … + Q. If the sum of the first ten terms of the series

a25, is equal to:
(A) 51/144 (B) 49/138 (C) 50/141 (D) 52/147 where m and n are co-prime numbers, then
m + n is equal to
Q.
Q. The sum is equal to
(A) 7/87 (B) 7/29 (C) 14/87 (D) 21/29

Q.
Q. where m
and n are
co-prime, then m + n is equal to

(A) 20/11 (B) 11/6 (C) 241/132 (D) 21/11
JEE Main 01th Feb 2023 S-2 JEE Main 01th Feb 2023 S-1
Q. The sum of the common terms of the Q. Let a1 = 8, a2, a3, …. an be an A.P. If the sum of
following three arithmetic progressions. its first four terms is 50 and the sum of its last
3, 7, 11, 15, ……………….., 399, four terms is 170, then the product of its middle
2, 5, 8, 11, …………………., 359 and two terms is_____.
2, 7, 12, 17, ……………….., 197, is equal to______. JEE Main 27th July 2022 S-1
JEE Main 26th July 2022 S-2 Q. Suppose a1,a2,, …, an, … be an arithmetic
progression of natural numbers. If the ratio of
Q. Different A.P.’s are constructed with the first the sum of the first five terms to the sum of first
term 100, the last term 199, and integral nine terms of the progression is 5 : 17 and
common differences. The sum of the common 110 < a15 < 120, then the sum of the first ten terms
differences of all such. A.P.’s having at least 3 of the progression is equal to:
terms and at most 33 terms is. (A) 290 (B) 380 (C) 460 (D) 510
Q. Let 3, 6, 9, 12, …. upto 78 terms and 5, 9, 13, 17, … Q. The 8th common term of the series
upto 59 terms be two series. Then, the sum of S1 = 3 + 7 + 11 + 15 + 19 + ….,
the terms common to both the series is equal to S2 = 1 + 6 + 11 + 16 + 21 + …. is ______.
JEE Main 31st Jan 2023 S-1 JEE Main 25th Jan 2023 S-1
Q. Let a1, a2, …, an be in A.P. If a5 = 2a7 and a11 =18, Q. Let A1, A2, A3 be the three A.P. with the same
common difference d and having their first
terms as A, A + 1, A + 2, respectively. Let a, b, c
be the 7th, 9th, 17th terms of A1, A2, A3, respectively
such that
Q. If a1, a2, a3, … and b1, b2, b3 ….. Are A.P. and
a1 = 2, a10 = 3, a1 b1 = 1 = a10 b10 then a4b4 is equal If a = 29, then the sum of first 20 terms of an AP
to whose first term is c - a - b and common
(A) 35/27 (B) 1 (C) 27/28 (D) 28/27 difference is d/12, is equal to_____
Q. If where n is an even integer, is an

arithmetic progression with common difference 1
and then n is equal to:
(A) 48 (B) 96 (C) 92 (D) 104

Finding remainder/ General term (Coefficients)
Q. The remainder when 72022 + 32022 is divided

Q. The remainder when 32022 is divided by 5 is
by 5 is:
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
Q. The remainder when 1 + 3 + 32 + 33 + … + 32021 Q. The remainder when (2023)2023 is divided by

is divided by 50 is_____. 35 is ____.
JEE Main 26th June 2022 S-1 JEE Main 31st Jan 2023 S-1
Q. The remainder when (2021)2023 is divided by 7 is:

Q. The remainder on dividing 599 by 11 is___.
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 5 (D) 6
JEE Main 27th July 2022 S-1 JEE Main 01st Feb 2023 S-1
Q. The remainder when (2021)2022 + (2022)2021 is

Q. The remainder when 19200 + 23200 is divided
divided by 7 is
by 49 is_____.
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 6
JEE Main 31st Jan 2023 S-2
Q. The coefficient of x-6, in the expansion of
Q. If the constant term in the binomial
expansion of is -84 and the

coefficient of x-3l is 2⍺ β, where β < 0 is an odd

Q. If the coefficient of x10 in the binomial
number. Then |⍺ l + β| is equal to____
expansion of is 5k l, where l,k ∈ N JEE Main 29th June 2022 S-2
and l is coprime to 5, then k is equal to__.
Q. Let the coefficients of x-1 and x-3 in the
expansion of x > 0, be m and n
Q. If the constant term in the expansion of
respectively. If r is a positive integer such
is 2k. l, where l is an odd
mn2 = 15Cr . 2r, then the value of r is equal to__.
integer, then the value of k is equal to:
JEE Main 30th Jan 2023 S-1 JEE Main 01st Feb 2023 S-2
Q. If the coefficient of x15 in the expansion of Q. If the term without x in the expansion of
is equal to the coefficient of is 7315, then |⍺| is equal to__
x-15 in the expansion of

where a and b are positive real numbers, then
for each such ordered pair (a, b): Q. If the sum of the coefficients of all the
positive powers of x, in the binomial expansion
(A) a = b (B) ab = 1 (C) ab = 1 (D) ab = 3
of is 939, then the sum of all the
JEE Main 25th July 2022 S-1 possible integral values of n is:
Q. If the maximum value of the term
independent of t in the expansion of Q. Let ⍺ > 0, be the smallest number such that
x ≥ 0, is K, then 8K is the expansion of has a term
equal to___. βx-⍺, β ∈ N. Then ⍺ is equal to____.

Q. The term independent of x in the expression
of (1 - x2 + 3x3) x ≠ 0 is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Q. If the coefficients of x and x2 in the expansion

of (1 + x)p(1 - x)q, p, q ≤ 15, are -3 and -5
respectively, then the coefficient of x3 is equal to
Properties of Adjoint/System of linear equations

Q. Consider a matrix
Q. Let A and B be two 3 × 3 matrices such that AB = I
and , then |adj(B adj(2A))| is equal to
where ⍺, β, γ are three distinct natural numbers.
(A) 16 (B) 32 (C) 64 (D) 128
If
then the number of such 3- tuples (⍺, β, γ) is__. Q. The positive value of the determinant of the
matrix A, whose
Q. Let the matrix and the matrix JEE Main 26th June 2022 S-1
B0 = A49 + 2A98. If Bn = Adj(Bn-1) for all n ≥ 1, then Q. Let A be a 3 × 3 invertible matrix. If

det(B4) is equal to: |adj(24A) = adj(3 adj(2A))|, then |A|2 is equal to:
(A) 328 (B) 330 (C) 332 (D) 336 (A) 66 (B) 212 (C) 26 (D) 1
Q. If the system of equations x + 2y + 3z = 3, Q. If the system of linear equations

4x + 3y - 4z = 4, 8x + 4y - λz = 9 + μ has infinitely 2x + y - z = 7, x - 3y + 2z = 1, x + 4y + δz = k,
many solutions then the ordered pair (λ, μ) is equal where δ, k ∈ R has infinitely many solutions, then
to___ δ + k is equal to:
(A) (B) (A) -3 (B) 3 (C) 6 (D) 9
(C) (D) JEE Main 26th June 2022 S-2
JEE Main 28th June 2022 S-2 Q. If the system of equations ⍺x + y + z = 5,

x + 2y + 3z = 4, x + 3y + 5z = β, has infinitely
Q. If the system of linear equations many solutions, then the ordered pair (⍺, β) is
2x - 3y = γ + 5, ⍺x + 5y = β + 1, where ⍺, β, γ ∈ R equal to:
has infinitely many solutions, then the value of (A) (1, -3) (B) (-1, 3) (C) (1, 3) (D) (-1, -3)
|9⍺ + 3β + 5γ| is equal to
JEE Main 01st Feb 2023 S-1 JEE Main 24th June 2022 S-1
Q. Let S denote the set of all real values of λ Q. The number of values of ⍺ for which the
such that the system of equations λx + y + z = 1, system of equations: x + y + z = ⍺,
x + λy + z = 1, x + y + λz = 1 is inconsistent, then ⍺x + 2⍺y + 3z = -1, x + 3⍺y + 5z = 4 is
is equal to inconsistent, is
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
(A) 2 (B) 12 (C) 4 (D) 6 JEE Main 28th June 2022 S-1
JEE Main 26th June 2022 S-1 Q. If the system of linear equations
2x + 3y - z = -2, x + y + z = 4, x - y + |λ|z = 4λ - 4
Q. The ordered pair (a, b), for which the system of
where λ ∈ R, has no solution, then
linear equations 3x - 2y + z = b, 5x - 8y + 9z = 3,
(A) λ = 7 (B) λ = -7 (C) λ = 8 (D) λ2 = 1
2x + y + az = -1 has no solution, is:
(A) (3, ⅓) (B) (-3, ⅓) (C) (-3, -⅓) (D) (3, -⅓)

Q. The number of θ ∈ (0, 4𝜋) for which the
Q. Let the system of linear equations system of linear equations 3(sin 3θ)x - y + z = 2,
x +2y + z = 2, ⍺x + 3y - z = ⍺, -⍺x + y + 2z = -⍺ be 3(cos 2θ)x + 4y + 3z = 3, 6x + 7y + 7z = 9 has no
inconsistent. Then ⍺ is equal to: solution is:
(A) 5/2 (B) -5/2 (C) 7/2 (D) -7/2 (A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 9
JEE Main 30th Jan 2023 S-1 JEE Main 31st Jan 2023 S-1
Q. Let the system of linear equations Q. For the system of linear equations
x + y + kz = 2, 2x + 3y - z = 1, 3x + 4y + 2z = k x + y + z = 6, ⍺x + βy + 7z = 3, x + 2y + 3z = 14,
have infinitely many solutions. Then the system which of the following is NOT true?
(k + 1)x + (2k - 1)y = 7, (2k + 1)x + (k + 5)y = 10 (A) If ⍺ = β = 7, then the system has no solution
has: (B) If ⍺ = β and ⍺ ≠ 7 then the system has a
(A) Infinitely many solutions unique solution
(B) Unique solution satisfying x - y = 1 (C) There is a unique point (⍺, β) on the line
(C) no solution x + 2y + 18 = 0 for which the system has
(D) Unique solution satisfying x + y = 1 infinitely many solutions
(D) For every point (⍺, β) ≠ (7, 7) on the line
x - 2y + 7 = 0, the system has infinitely many
solutions
Shortest distance between lines
Q. The shortest distance between the lines Q. The line l1 passes through the point (2, 6, 2)
and is perpendicular to the plane
2x + y - 2z = 10. Then the shortest distance
is equal to
between the line l1 and the line
Q. The shortest distance between the lines (A) 7 (B) 19/3 (C) 19/7 (D) 9

(A) 7√3 (B) 5√3 (C) 6√3 (D) 4√3
Q. If the shortest between the lines
Q. Shortest distance between the lines
then the square of the sum of all possible

(A) 2√3 (B) 4√3 (C) 3√3 (D) 5√3 values of 𝞴 is
Shortest distance between lines
Q. If the shortest distance between the line Q. The shortest distance between the lines
joining the points (1, 2, 3) and (2, 3, 4), and the
line is 𝛂, then 28𝛂2 is (A) 2√29 (B) 1 (C) √37/√29 (D) √29/2
equal to ______
JEE Main 31th Jan 2023 S-1 Q. If the shortest distance between the lines
Q. Let the shortest distance between the lines

Then the sum of all possible values of λ is:
(A) 16 (B) 6 (C) 12 (D) 15
If (𝛂, 𝜷, 𝛄) lies on L, then which of the following is
NOT possible? JEE Main 27th June 2022 S-2
(A) 𝛂 + 2𝛄 = 24 (B) 2𝛂 + 𝛄 = 7
(C) 2𝛂 - 𝛄 = 9 (D) 𝛂 -2 𝛄 = 19 Q. The shortest distance between the lines
(A) (B) (C) (D)

Linear Differential Equations
Q. Let y = y(x) be the solution of the differential Q. Let the solution curve y = y(x) of the DE
equation x3 dy + (xy -1) dx = 0, x > 0,
Then y(1) is equal to
(A)1 (B) e (C) 2 - e (D) 3 pass through the origin. Then y(1) is equal to :
(A) (B)
Q. If the solution of the differential equation
satisfies y(0) = 0, then the value of y(2) is___ (C) (D)

(A) -1 (B) 1 (C) 0 (D) e
Q. Let y = y(x) be the solution curve of the DE
Q. Let y = y(x) be the solution of the differential

equation
with y(2) = - 2. Then y(3) is equal to
(A) (B)
(A) -18 (B) -12 (C) -6 (D) -3
(C) (D)
Q. Let y = y(x) be the solution of the differential

Q. If y = y(x), be the solution curve of the
equation
differential equation
If y(2) = 2, then y(e) is equal to
(A) (B) (C) (D)

(a) (b)
Q. If y = y(x) is the solution curve of the
(c) (d)
differential equation
y(0) = 1, then is equal to
Q. If x = x(y) is the solution of the differential
(A) (B) equation
then x(e) is equal to:

(C) (D)
(A)e3(ee-1) (B) ee(e3-1)
(C) e2(ee+1) (D) ee(e2-1)

Q. Let y = y(x) be the solution of the differential Q. Let y = y (x) be the solution curve of the DE
equation
with Which passes through the point (0,1). Then y(1) is

equal to
If then the value of 3α2 is
(A) 1/2 (B) 3/2 (C) 5/2 (D) 7/2
equal to _____ .
JEE Main 28th July 2022 S-2 JEE Main 25th Jan 2023 S-2
Q. Let y = y(x) be the solution curve of the Q. Let y = y(t) be a solution of the differential
differential equation equation where, α > 0, β > 0
x > 1 passing through the point and 𝛾 > 0. Then
is equal to (A) is 0 (B) Does not exist

(a) 11 + 6 loge 3 (b) 19 (C) is 1 (D) is -1
(c) 12 - 2 loge3 (d) 19 - 6 loge 3

logical equivalent and Tautology
Q. The negation of the Boolean expression Q. (p ∧ r) ⇔ (p ∧ (~q)) is equivalent to (~p) where r is

((~q) ∧ P) ⇒ ((~p) ∨ q) is logically equivalent to (A) p (B) ~p (C) q (D) ~q
(a) p ⇒ q (b) q ⇒ p (c) ~ (p ⇒ q) (d) ~(q ⇒ p)
Q. The statement (p ⇒ q) ∨ (p ⇒ r) is NOT Q. The compound statement

equivalent to: (~(P ∧ Q)) ∨ ((~P) ∧ Q) ⇒ ((~ P) ∧ (~ Q)) is equivalent to
(a) (p ∧ (~r)) ⇒ q (b) (~ q) ⇒ ((~ r) ∨ p) (A) ((~ P) ∨ Q) ∧ ((~ Q) ∨ P) (B) (~ Q) ∨ P
(c) p ⇒ (q ∨ r) (d) (p ∧ (~ q)) ⇒ r
(C) ((~ P) ∨ Q) ∧ (~ Q) (D) (~ P) ∨ Q
Q. Let p and q be two statements.
Q. The Boolean expression (~(p ⋀ q))Vq is equivalent to:
Then ~(p ⋀ (p ⇒ ~q)) is equivalent to
A. q → (p ⋀ q) B. p → q
(A) p V (p ⋀ (~q)) (B) p V ((~p) ⋀ q)
C. p → (p → q) D. p → (p V q)
(C) (~p) V q (D) p V (p ⋀ q)
Q. Among the statements:
(S1) ((p V q) ⇒ r) ⇔ (p ⇒ r)
Q. Which of the following statements is a
(S2) ((p V q) ⇒ r) ⇔ ((p ⇒ r) V (q ⇒ r))
tautology?
(A) Only (S1) is a tautology
(a) ((~ p) ∨ q) ⇒ p (b) p ⇒ ((~ p) ∨ q)
(B) Neither (S1) nor (S2) is a tautology
(c) ((~ p) ∨ q) ⇒ q (d) q ⇒ (( ~ p) ∨ q)
(C) Only (S2) is a tautology
(D) Both (S1) and (S2) are tautologies

Q. The number of values of r ∈ {p, q, ~p, ~q} for
Q. Let r ∈ {p, q, ~p, ~q} be such that the logical which ((p ∧ q) ⇒ (r ∨ q)) ∧ ((p ∧ r) ⇒ q) is a
statement r ∨ (~ p) ⇒ (p ∧ q) ∨ r is a tautology. tautology, is:
Then ‘r’ is equal to: (a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 4
(a) p (b) q (c) ~p (d) ~q
Q. (S1): (p ⇒ q) ∨ (p ∧ (~q)) is a tautology
Q. Let Δ ∈ {∧, ∨, ⇒, ⇔} be such that
(S2): ((~p) ⇒ (~q)) ∧ ((~ p) ∨ q) is a
(p ∧ q) Δ ((p ∨ q) ⇒ q) is a tautology.
Contradiction. Then
Then Δ is equal to:
(a) Only (S2) is correct
(a) ∧ (b) ∨ (c) ⇒ (d) ⇔
(b) Both (S1) and (S2) are correct
(c) Both (S1) and (S2) are wrong JEE Main 26th June 2022 S-1
(d) Only (S1) is correct

Q. Let Δ, ▽ ∈ {⋀, V} be such that p ▽ q ⇒ ((p ▽ q) ▽ r) is
a tautology. Then (p ▽ q) Δr is logically equivalent to:
Q. Let the operations *, ⊙ ∈ {⋀, V}. (A) (p ▽ r) V q (B) (p Δ r) ⋀ q
If (p * q) ⊙ (p ⊙ ～q) is a tautology, then the (C) (p ⋀ r) Δ q (D) (p ▽ r) ⋀ q
ordered pair (*, ⊙) is:
(A) (V, ⋀) (B) (V, V) (C) (⋀, ⋀) (D) (⋀, V) JEE Main 25th Jan 2023 S-2
Q. Let Δ, ▽ ∈ {⋀, V} be such that (p → q) Δ (p ▽ q) is a

tautology. Then
(A) Δ = ⋀, ▽ = V (B) Δ = V, ▽ = ⋀
(C) Δ = V, ▽ = V (D) Δ = ⋀, ▽ = ⋀
Area under parabola and line
Q. Let 𝜶 be the area of the larger region
bounded by the curve y2 = 8x and the lines y = x Q. The area of the region
and x = 2, which lies in the first quadrant. Then S = {(x, y ) : y2 ≤ 8x, y ≥ √2 x, x ≥ 1} is
the value of 3𝜶 is equal to_______. (A) (13√2)/6 (B) (11√2)/6 (C) (5√2)/6 (D) (19√2)/6
Q. The area of the region enclosed by y ≤ 4x2, Q. The area of the region bounded by y2 = 8x and
x2 ≤ 9y and y ≤ 4, is equal to: y2 = 16(3 - x) is equal to:
(A) 40/3 (B) 56/3 (C) 112/3 (D) 80/3 (A) 32/3 (B) 40/3 (C) 16 (D) 19
Q. If the area enclosed by the parabolas
Q. If the area of the region bounded by the P1 : 2y = 5 x2 and P2 : x2 - y + 6 = 0 is equal to the area
curves y2 - 2y = -x, x + y = 0 is A, then 8A is enclosed by P1 and y = ⍺x, ⍺ > 0, then ⍺3 is equal
equal to to____.
Area under parabola and line
Q. The area bounded by the curves y = |x2 - 1| Q. Let q be the maximum integral value of p in [0, 10]
and y= 1 is for which the roots of the equation
(A) (B) are rational. Then the area
of the region {(x, y) : 0 ≤ y ≤ (x - q)2, 0 ≤ x ≤ q} is
(C) (D)
(A) 243 (B) 25 (C) 125/3 (D) 164
Q. The area of the region given by

Q. Let A1 = {(x, y) : |x| ≤ y2, |x| +2y ≤ 8} and
A = {(x, y) ; x2 ≤ y ≤ min {x + 2, 4 - 3x}} is:
A2 = {(x, y) : |x| + |y| ≤ k}. If 27 (Area A 1) = 5 (Area A2),
(a) (b) (c) (d) then k is equal to:

Q. The area bounded by the curve y = |x2 - 9| and
Q. Let the area of the region
the line y = 3 is:
{(x, y) : |2x - 1| ≤ y ≤ | x2 - x|, 0 ≤ x ≤ 1} be A. Then
(A) 4(2√3 + √6 - 4} (B) 4(4√3 + √6 - 4)
(6A + 11)2 is equal to__
(C) 8(4√3 + 3√6 - 9) (D) 8(4√3 + √6 - 9)
Tangent to parabola
Q. Let P : y2 = 4ax, a > 0 be parabola with focus S. Q. The distance of the point (6, -2√2) from the
Let the tangents to the parabola P make an angle common tangent y = mx + c, m > 0, of the curves x
of 𝞹/4 with the line y = 3x + 5 touch the parabola P = 2y2 and x = 1 + y2 is
at A and B. Then the value of a for which A, B and S (A) 1/3 (B) 5 (C) 14/3 (D) 5√3
are collinear is:
(A) 8 only (B) 2 only (C) ¼ only (D) any a>0
JEE Main 31st Jan 2023 S-2 Q. The equations of the sides AB and AC of a triangle
ABC are (λ + 1)x + λy = 4 and
Q. Let S be the set of all a ∈ N such that the area of λx + (1 - λ)y + λ = 0 respectively. Its vertex A is on the
the triangle formed by the tangent at the point y-axis and its orthocentre is (1, 2). The length of the
P(b, c), b, c ∈ N, on the parabola y2 = 2ax and the tangent from the point C to the part of the parabola
lines x = b, y = 0 is 16 unit2, then y2 = 6x in the first quadrant is
Is equal to____. (A) √6 (B) 2√2 (C) 2 (D) 4
Q. If two tangents drawn from a point (⍺, β) lying Q. The tangents at the point A(1, 3) and B(1, -1) on
on the ellipse 25x2 + 4y2 = 1 to the parabola y2 = 4x the parabola y2 - 2x - 2y = 1 meet at the point P.
are such that the slope of one tangent is four Then the area (in unit2) of the triangle PAB is:
times the other, then the value of (10⍺ + 5)2 + (16β2 (A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 8
+ 50)2 equals_____.
Tangent to parabola
Q. If the line y = 4 + kx, k > 0, is the tangent to Q. If y = m1x + c1 and y = m2x + c2, m1 ≠ m2, are two
the parabola y = x - x2 at the the point P and V common tangents of circle x2 + y2 = and parabola
is the vertex of the parabola, then the slope of y2 = x, then the value of 8|m1 m2| is equal to
the line through P and V is: (A) 3 + 4√2 (B) -5 + 6√2
(A) 3/2 (B) 26/9 (C) 5/2 (D) 23/6 (C) -4 + 3√2 (D) 7 + 6√2
Q. If the tangents drawn at the points P and Q

Q. Let A be a point on the x-axis. Common tangents
on the parabola y2 = 2x - 3 intersect at the point
are drawn from A to the curves x2 + y2 = 8 and
R(0, 1), then the orthocentre of the triangle PQR
y2 = 16x. If one of these tangents touches the two
is:
curves at Q and R, then (QR)2 is equal to:
(A) (0, 1) (B) (2, -1) (C) (6, 3) (D) (2, 1)
(A) 64 (B) 76 (C) 81 (D) 72

Q. Two tangent lines l1 and l2 are drawn from the
Q. If the length of the latus rectum of a
point (2, 0) to the parabola 2y2 = -x. If the lines l1
parabola, whose focus is (a, a) and the tangent
and l2 are also tangent to the circle
at its vertex is x + y = a, is 16, then |a| is equal to
(x - 5)2 + y2= r, then 17r is equal to
(A) 2√2 (B) 2√3 (C) 4√2 (D) 4
Physics
Dimensions
Q. Match List I with List II Q. Match List I with List II:

LIST I LIST II
given below:
A. Planck’s I. [M1L2T-2] LIST I LIST II
constant(h)
A. Pressure gradient I. [M0L-2T-2]
B. Stopping II. [M1L1T-1]
potential (Vs) B. Energy density II. [M1L-1T-2]
C. Work III. [M1L2T-1] C. Electric Field III. [M1L-2T-2]

function(ф)
D. Latent heat IV. [M1L1T-3A-1]
D. Momentum (p) IV. [M1L2T-3A-1]
(A) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV (B) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(A) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV (B) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (C) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I (D) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
(C) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I (D) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
Dimensions
JEE Main 31th June 2023 S-2 JEE Main 1st Feb 2023 S-2
Q. Match List - I with List - II Q. If the velocity of light c, universal gravitational

constant G and planck’s constant h are chosen as
LIST I LIST II
fundamental quantities. The dimensions of mass
in the new system is :
A. Angular I. [ML2 T-2]
Momentum
(A)
B. Torque II. [ML-2 T-2] (B)
(C)
C. Stress III. JEE Main 1st Feb 2023 S-1
[ML2 T-1]
(D)
Q. Represents the equation of
D. pressure gradient IV. [ML-1 T-2]
state of some gases. Where P is the pressure, V is
the volume. T is the temperature and a, b, R are
(A) A - I, B-IV, CIII, D-II (B) A - III, B-I, CIV, D-II the constants. The physical quantity, which has
(C) A - II, B-III, CIV, D-I (D) A - IV, B-II, CI, D-III dimensional formula as that of , will be :
(A) Bulk modulus (B) Modulus of
rigidity
(C) Compressibility (D) Energy density
Dimensions
Q. In Vander Waals equation
P is pressure, V is volume, R is universal gas constant Q. Match List - I with List - II
and T is temperature. The ratio of constants is
List-I List-II
dimensionally equal to:
(A) A Angular Momentum I [ML2T-2]

(B)
B Torque II [ML-2T-2]
(C)Main
JEE PV 27th June 2022 S-2
Q. If L, C and(D)
R are
PVthe
3 self inductance, capacitance and C Stress III [ML2T-1]
resistance respectively, which of the following does not
have the dimension of time ? D Pressure gradient IV [ML-1T-2]
(A) RC
(B)
given below:
(C) (A) A - I, B-IV, CIII, D-II (B) A - III, B-I, CIV, D-II
(D) (C) A - II, B-III, CIV, D-I (D) A - IV, B-II, CI, D-III
Range & Velocity
Q. The maximum vertical height to which a man Q. A particle of mass 100 is projected at time
can throw a ball is 136 m. The maximum t = 0 with a speed 20 ms-1 at an angle 45° to the
horizontal distance upto which he can throw the horizontal as given in the figure. The magnitude
same ball is of the angular momentum of the particle about
(A) 192 m (B) 136 m (C) 272 m (D) 68 m the starting point at time t = 2s is found to be √K
JEE Main 25th Jan 2023 S-2 kg m2/s. The value of K is.
(Take g = 10 ms-2)
Q. Two objects are projected with same velocity
‘u’ however at difference angles ⍺ and β with the
horizontal. If ⍺ + β = 90°, the ratio of horizontal
range of the first object to the 2nd object will be:
(A) 4 : 1 (B) 2 : 1 (C) 1 : 2 (D) 1 : 1 JEE Main 31th Jan 2023 S-1
JEE Main 29th Jan 2023 S-1 Q. The initial speed of a projectile fired from
ground is u. At the highest point during its motion,
Q. A stone is projected at angle 30° to the
the speed of projectile is √3/2u. The time of flight
horizontal. The ratio of kinetic energy of the stone
of the projectile is:
at point of projection to its kinetic energy at the
(A) u/2g (B) u/g (C) u/g (D) √3u/g
highest point of flight will be:
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 1 : 4 (C) 4 : 1 (D) 4 : 3
Range & Velocity
Q. A child stands on the edge of the cliff 10m above Q. A body is projected from the ground at an angle
the ground and throws a stone horizontally with an of 45° with the horizontal. Its velocity after 2s is 20
initial speed of 5 ms-1. Neglecting the air resistance, ms-1. The maximum height reached by the body
the speed with which the stone hits the ground will during its motion is___m.
be______ ms-1 (given, g = 10 ms-2). (use g = 10ms-2)
(A) 20 (B) 15 (C) 30 (D)
26 Q. A fighter jet is flying horizontally at a certain
altitude with a speed of 200 ms-1. When it passes
Q. A projectile is projected with velocity of 25 m/s directly overhead an anti-aircraft gun, bullet is
at an angle θ with the horizontal. After t seconds its fired from the gun, at an angle θ with the horizontal,
inclination with horizontal becomes zero. If R to hit the jet. If the bullet speed is 400 m/s, the
represents horizontal range of the projectile, the value of θ will be____°.
value of θ will be: [use g = 10 m/s2] JEE Main 27th June 2022 S-1
(A) (B) Q. A projectile is launched at an angle ‘α’ with the

horizontal with a velocity 20 ms-1. After 10 s, its
(C) (D)
inclination with horizontal is ‘β’. The value of tanβ
will be: (g = 10 ms-2)
(A) tan α + 5 sec α (B) tan α - 5 sec α
Range & Velocity
Q. Given below are two statements. One is Q. A person can throw a ball upto a maximum
labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled range of 100 m. How high above the ground he
as Reason R. can throw the same ball?
Assertion A :Two identical balls A and B thrown (A) 25 m (B) 50 m (C) 100 m (D) 200 m
with same velocity ' u ' at two different angles
with horizontal attained the same range R. If A
and B reached the maximum height h1 and h2 Q. A ball is projected from the ground with a
respectively, then R = 4√h1h2 speed 15 ms-1 at an angle θ with horizontal so
Reason R: Product of said heights. that its range and maximum height are equal,
then ‘tan θ’ will be equal to
Choose the CORRECT answer: (A) ¼ (B) ½
Q. Two projectile thrown at 30° and 45° with the
horizontal (C)2022
respectively,
JEE Main 26th July 2reach
S-1the maximum (D) 4
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
height in same time. The ratio of their initial
explanation of A.
velocities is
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
(A) 1 : √2 (B) 2 : 1 (C) √2 : 1 (D) 1 : 2
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
Range & Velocity

Q. A NCC parade is going at a uniform speed of
9 km/h under a mango tree on which a monkey Q. A ball of mass m is thrown vertically upward.
is sitting at a height of 19.6 m. At any particular Another ball of mass 2 m is thrown an angle θ
instant, the monkey drops a mango. A cadet with the vertical. Both the balls stay in air for the
will receive the mango whose distance from the same period of time. The ratio of the heights
tree at time of drop is: (Given g = 9.8 m/s2) attained by the two balls respectively is 1/x. The
(A) 5m (B) 10 m (C) 19.8 m (D) 24.5 m value of x is____.

Q. A ball is projected with kinetic energy E, at an
angle of 60° to the horizontal. The kinetic energy Q. If the initial velocity in horizontal direction of
of this ball at the highest point of its flight will a projectile is unit vector and the equation of
become : trajectory is y = 5x (1 - x). The y component
(A) Zero (B) E/2 (C) E/4 (D) E vector of the initial velocity is___
(Take g = 10 m/s2)
Range & Velocity

Q. An object is projected in the air with initial

Q. Two bodies are projected from
velocity u at an angle θ. The projectile motion is
ground with same speeds 40 ms-1 at such that the horizontal range R, is maximum.
two different angles with respect to Another object is projected in the air with a
horizontal. The bodies were found to horizontal range half of the range of first object.
The initial velocity remains same in both the
have same range. If one of the body
case. The value of the angle of projection, at
was projected at an angle of 60°, with which the second object is projected, will
horizontal then sum of the maximum be____degree.
heights, attained by the two
projectiles is___________m.
(Given g = 10 ms-2)
Moment of inertia
Q. Two discs of same mass and different radii are

made of different materials such that their thicknesses
are 1 cm and 0.5 cm respectively. The densities of
Q. ICM is moment of inertia of a circular
materials are in the ratio 3 : 5. The moment of inertia of
disc about an axis (CM) passing through
these discs respectively about their diameters will be
its center and perpendicular to the plane
in the ratio of x/6. The value of x is
its center and perpendicular to the plane
of disc. IAB is it’s moment of inertia about JEE Main 25th June 2022 S-2
an axis AB perpendicular to plane and
Q. Moment of Inertia (M.I.) of four bodies having same
parallel to axis CM at a distance 2/3R
mass ‘M’ and radius ‘2R’ are as follows:
from center. Where R is the radius of the
I1 = M.I. of solid sphere about its diameter
disc. The ratio of IAB and ICM is x : 9. The
I2 = M.I. of solid cylinder about its axis
value of x is _____ . I3 = M.I. of solid circular disc about its diameter
I4 = M.I. of thin circular ring about its diameter
If 2(I2 + I3) + I4 = x. I1 then the value of x will be
Moment of inertia
Q. Moment of inertia of a dise of mass M and radius ‘R’ Q. The moment of inertia of a uniform thin rod about a
about any of its diameter is . The moment of perpendicular axis passing through one end is I1.The
inertia of this disc about an axis normal to the disc same rod is bent into a ring and its moment of inertia
and passing through a point on its edge will be, . about a diameter is I2. If then the value of x
The value of x is _____ . will be ______ .
Q. A pulley of radius 1.5 m is rotated about its axis by a

force F = (12t - 3t2) N applied tangentially (while t is
measured in seconds). If moment of inertia of the
pulley about its axis of rotation is 4.5 kg m2, the
number of rotations made by the pulley before its
direction of motion is reversed, will be K/𝜋. The value of
K is _____ .
Variation in g

Q. The variation of acceleration due to gravity
(g) with distance (r) from the centre of the
Q. T is the time period of simple pendulum on
earth is correctly represented by: (Given R =
the earth’s surface. Its time period becomes x T
radius of earth)
when taken to a height R (equal to earth’s
radius) above the earth’s surface. Then, the
value of x will be:
(A) 1 (B) 2
(A)
(C) ½ (D) ¼
(B)
Q.The percentage decrease in the weight of a

rocket, when taken to a height of 32 km above
the surface of earth will, be: (C)
(Radius of earth = 6400 km) (D)
(A) 1% (B) 3% (C) 4% (D) 0.5%
Variation in g
Q.Assume there are two identical simple
Q. A body weight W, is projected vertically
pendulum Clocks - 1 is placed on the earth and
upwards from earth’s surface to reach a height
Clock - 2 is placed on a space station located
above the earth which is equal to nine time the
at a height h above the earth surface. Clock - 1
radius of earth. The weight of the body at that
and Clock - 2 operate at time periods 4s and 6s
height will be:
respectively. Then the value of h is_
(A) W/91 (B) W/100 (C) W/9 (D) W/3
(Consider radius of earth RE = 6400 km and g
on earth 10m/s2)
(A) 1200 km (B) 1600 km
Q.An object is taken to a height above the
(C) 3200 km (D) 4800 km
surface of earth at a distance 5/4R form the
centre of the earth. Where radius of earth, R =
6400 km. The percentage decrease in the Q.The height of any point P above the surface of
weight of the object will be earth is equal to diameter of earth. The value of
(A) 36% (B) 50% (C) 64% (D) 25% acceleration due to gravity at point P will be :
(Given g = acceleration due to gravity at the
surface of earth)
(A) g/2 (B) g/4 (C) g/3 (D) g/9
Variation in g
Q. The approximate height from the surface of
earth at which the weight of the body becomes Q. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
of its weight on the surface of earth is: [Radius Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
of earth R = 6400 km and = 1.732] Assertin A: A pendulum clock when taken to Mount
(A) 3840 km (B) 4685 Everest becomes fast.
km Reason R : The value of g (acceleration due to gravity)
(C) 2133 km (D) 4267 is less at Mount Everest than its value on the surface of
earth.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
Q. If the acceleration due to gravity experienced appropriate answer from the options given below
by a point mass at a height h above the surface (A) Both A and R are correct but T is NOT the correct
of earth is same as that of the acceleration due explanation of A
to gravity at depth 𝛼h (h << Re) from the earth (B) Both A and R are correct but T is the correct
surface. The value of 𝛼 will be _____ . explanation of A
(use Re = 6400 km) (C) A is not correct but R is correct
(D) A is not correct but R is not correct
Variation in g
JEE Main 24th January 2023 S-2 JEE Main 01st February 2023 S-1
Q. Given below are two statements: Q. Given below are two statements:
Statements I : Acceleration due to earth’s gravity decreases Statement – I :Acceleration due to gravity is
as you go ‘up’ or ‘down’ from earth’s surface. different at different places on the surface of
Statements II : Acceleration due to earth’s gravity is same at a earth.
height ‘h’ and depth ‘d’ from earth’s surface, if h = d. Statement - II : Acceleration due to gravity
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate increases as we go down below the earth’s
answer from the options given below surface.
(A) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct In the light of the above statements, choose the
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect correct answer from the options given below
(C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(D) Both Statement I and Statement are correct (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(D) Statement I is true but Statement II is true
Young's Modulus
25 Jan -Shift 1 JEE 2023 JEE Main 31st January 2023 S-1
Q. As shown in the figure, in an experiment to Q. A thin rod having a length of 1 m and area of
determine Young’s modulus of a wire, the cross-section 3 × 10-6 m2 is suspended vertically
extension-load curve is plotted. The curve is a from one end. The rod is cooled from 210°C to
straight line passing through the origin and 160°C. After cooling, a mass M is attached at the
makes an angle of 45° with the load axis. The lower end of the rod such that the length of rod
length of wire is 62.8 cm and its diameter is 4 again becomes 1 m. Young’s modulus and
mm. The Young’s modulus is found to be x × 104 coefficient of linear expansion of the rod are 2 ×
Nm-2. The value of x is____ . 1011 Nm-2 and 2 × 10-5 K-1, respectively. The value
of M is _____ kg. (Take g = 10 m s-2)

Q. In an experiment of determine the Young’s
modulus of wire of a length exactly 1m, the
31 Jan -Shift 2 JEE 2023 extension in the length of the wire is measured as
Q. For a solid rod, the Young’s modulus of 0.4 mm with an uncertainty of ± 0.01 mm. The
elasticity is 3.2 × 1011 Nm-2 and density is 8 × 103 kg error in the measurement of Young’s modulus
m-3. The velocity of longitudinal wave in the rod (ΔY) is found to be x × 1010 Nm-2. The value of x
will be is____ [Take g = 10 m/s2]
(A) 145.75 × 103 ms-1 (B) 3.65 × 103 ms-1
3 -1 3 -1
Young's Modulus
JEE Main 28th July 2022 S-1 JEE Main 28th July 2022 S-2
Q. The force required to stretch a wire of cross-
section 1 cm2 to double its length will be: Q. A string of area of cross section 4 mm and
(Given Young’s modulus of the wire = 2 × 1011 length 0.5 is connected with a rigid body of
N/m2) mass 2 kg. The body is rotated in a vertical
(A) 1 × 107 N circular path of radius 0.5 m. The body acquires
(B) 1.5 × 107 N a speed of 5 m/s at the bottom of the circular
(C) 2 × 107 N path. Strain produced in the string when the
(D) 2022
JEE Main 26th July 2.5 × S-2
107 N body is at the bottom of the circle is ………. × 10-5.
(Use Young’s modulus 1011 N/m2 and g = 10
Q. A uniform heavy rod of mass 20 kg. Cross
m/s2)
sectional area 0.4 m2 and length 20 m is
JEE Main 31st January 2023 S-2
hanging from a fixed support. Neglecting the
lateral contraction, the elongation in the rod Q. Under the same load, wire A having length
due to its own weight is x × 10-9 m. The value of x 5.0 m and cross section 2.5 × 10-5 m2 stretches
is____. uniformly by the same amount as another wire
Given Young’s modulus Y = 2 × 1011 Nm-2 and g B of length 6.0 m and a cross section of 3.0 × 10-
5 m2 stretches. The ratio of the Young’s modulus
= 10 ms-2)
of wire A to that of wire B will be:
(A) 1 : 4 (B) 1 : 1 (C) 1 : 10 (D) 1 : 2
Young's Modulus
01 Feb -Shift 2 JEE 2023
Q. The Young’s modulus of a steel wire of length
Q. If the length of a wire is made double and
6 m and cross-sectional area 3 mm2, is 2 × 1111
radius is halved of its respective values. Then, the
N/m2. The wire is suspended from its support
Young’s modulus of the material of the wire will:
on a given planet. A block of mass 4 kg is
(A) Remains same
attached to the free end of the wire. The
(B) Biome 8 times its initial value
acceleration due to gravity on the planet is ¼ of
(C) Become 1th/4 of its initial value
its value on the earth. The elongation of wire is
(D) Become 4 times its initial value
(Take g on the earth = 10 m/s2)
27 July -Shift 2 JEE 2022
Q. A steel wire of length 3.2 m (Y s = 2.0 × 1011 Nm-

2) and a copper wire of length 4.4 M
(YC = 1.1 × 1011 Nm-2), both of radius 1.4 mm are

connected end to end. When stretched by a
load, the net elongation is found to be 1.4 mm.
The load applied, in Newton, will be:
(Given π = 22/7)
(A) 360 (B) 180 (C) 1080 (D) 154
Heat Engine
Q. A heat engine operates with the cold Q. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
reservoir at temperature 324 K. The minimum Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R Assertion A:
temperature of the hot reservoir, if the heat Efficiency of a reversible heat engine will be highest at -273°C
engine takes 300 J heat from the hot reservoir temperature of cold reservoir.
and delivers 180 J heat to the cold reservoir per Reason R: The efficiency of Carnot engine depends not only
cycle, is ___________K. on temperature of cold reservoir but it depends on the
JEE Main 1st Feb 2023 S-2 temperature of hot reservoir too and is given as
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
Q. A carnot engine operating between two
answer from the options given below:
reservoirs has efficiency ⅓. When the
(A) A is true but R is false
temperature of cold reservoir raised by x, its
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation
efficiency decreases to ⅙. The value of x, if the
of A
temperature of hot reservoir is 99°C, will be:
(C) A is false but R is true
(A) 16.5 K (B) 33 K (C) 66 K (D) 62 K
(D) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Heat Engine
Q. In 1st case, Carnot engine operates between
Q. A carnot engine has efficiency of 50%. If the temperature of
temperatures 300 K and 100 K. In 2nd case,
sink is reduced by 40oC , its efficiency increases by 30%. The
case shown in the figure, a combination of two temperature of the source will be :
engines is used. The efficiency of this (A) 166.7 K (B) 255.1 K (C) 266.7 K (D) 367.7 K
combination (in 2nd case) will be:
(A) Same as the 1st case
Q. A carnot engine whose heat sinks at 27°C, has an
(B) Always greater than the 1st case efficiency of 25%. By how many degrees should the
(C) Always less than the 1st case efficiency by 100% of the original efficiency?
(A) Increases by 18° C (B) Increases by 200°C
(D) May increase or decrease with
(C) Increases by 120°C (D) Increases by 73°C
respect to the 1st case
JEE Main 26th Jun3 2022 S-1
Q. A carnot engine take 5000 kcal of heat from a reservoir at

Q. The efficiency of a Carnot engine, working
727°C and gives heat to a sink at 127°C. The work done by the
between steam point and oce point, will be :
engine is :
(A) 26.81% (B) 37.81% (C) 47.81% (D) 57.81%
(A) 3 x 106 J (B) Zero
(C) 12.6 x 106 J (D) 8.4 x 106 J
Heat Engine
Q. In a carnot engine, the temperature of reservoir is 527°C

and that os sink is 200 K. If the work done by the engine
when it transfers heat from reservoir to sink is 12000 kl, the
quality of heat absorbed by the engine from reservoir is
__________× 106 J.
Q. A carnot engine with efficiency 50% takes

heat from a source at 600 K. In order to
increase the efficiency to 70%, keeping the
temperature of sink same, the new temperature
of the source will be:
(A) 360 K (B) 1000 K (C) 900 K (D) 300 K
Time period
Q As per given figures, two springs

Q The velocity of a particle executing SHM
of spring constants K and 2K are
varies with displacement (x) as 4v2 = 50 - x2 .
connected to mass m. If the
period of oscillation in figure (a) is The time period of oscillations is x/7 s. The
3s, then the period of oscillation value of x is_____.
in figure (b) will be √x s. The value
of x is____
Q The displacement of simple harmonic
oscillator after 3 seconds starting from its
Q A mass “m” attached to free end of a spring executes mean position is equal to half of its amplitude.
SHM with a period of 1 s. If the mass is increased by 3 kg The time period of harmonic motion is:
the period of oscillation increases by one second, the (A) 6 s (B) 8 s (C) 12 s (D) 36 s
value of mass “m” is_____ kg.
Time period
JEE Main 31st Jan 2023 S-2 JEE Main 25th July 2023 S-2
Q In the figure given Q n figure (A), mass ‘2 m’ is

below, a block of mass fixed on mass ‘m’ which is
M = 490 g placed on a attached to two springs of
frictionless table spring constant k. In
is connected with two figure (B), mass ‘m’ is
springs having same spring attached to two spring of spring constant ‘k’ and ‘2k’. If mass
constant (K = 2 Nm-1). If the block is ‘m’ in (A) and (B) are displaced by distance ‘x’ horizontally
horizontally displaced through ‘X’ m then the and then released, then time period T1 and T2 corresponding
number of complete oscillations it will make in to (A) and (B) respectively follow the relation.
14𝜋 seconds will be_____.
A. B. C. D.
Electric Field
Q As shown in the figure, a point charge Q is Q.Two uniformly charged spherical conductors
placed at the centre of conducting spherical A and B of radii 5 mm and 10 mm are separated
shell of inner radius a and outer radius b. The by a distance of 2 cm. If the spheres are
electric field due to charge Q in three different connected by a conducting wire, then in
regions I, II and III is given by : equilibrium condition, the ratio of the
(I : r < a, II : a < r < b, III : r > b) magnitudes of the electric fields at the surface
(A) EI = 0, EII = 0, EIII ≠ 0 of the sphere A and B will be :
(B) EI ≠ 0, EII = 0, EIII ≠ 0 (A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 1 (C) 1 : 1 (D) 1 : 4
(C) EI ≠ 0, EII = 0, EIII = 0
(D) EI = 0, EII = 0, EIII = 0 JEE Main 28th June 2022 S-2

Q.Two point charges A and B of magnitude +8 ×
10-6 C and -8 × 10-6C respectively are placed
Q. A point charge of 10μC is placed at the origin.
at a distance d apart. The electric field at the
At what location on the X-axis should a point
middle point O between the charges is 6.4 × 104
charge of 40μC be placed so that the net
NC-1. The distance ‘d’ between the point
electric field is zero at x = 2 cm on the X-axis ?
charges A and B is
(A) x = 6 cm (B) x = 4 cm
(A) 2.0 m (B) 3.0 m (C) 1.0 m (D) 14.0 m
(C) x = 8 cm (D) x = -4 cm
Electric Field
Q. In the figure, a very large plane sheet of positive Q. Given below are two statements:
charge is shown, P1 and P2 are two points at distance l Statement-I : A point charge is brought in an electric
and 2l from the charge distribution. If 𝜎 is the surface field. The value of electric field at a point near to the
charge density then the magnitude of electric fields E1 charge may increase if the charge is positive.
and E2 at P1 and P2 respectively are: Statement-II : An electric dipole is placed in a non-
(A) E1 = 𝜎/𝜀0, E2 = 𝜎/𝜀0, uniform electric field. The net electric force on the
(B) E1 = 2𝜎/𝜀0, E2 = 𝜎/𝜀0, dipole will not be zero
(C) E1 = E2 = 𝜎/2𝜀0, Choose the correct answer from the options given
(D) E1 = E2 = 𝜎/𝜀0, below:
(A) Both statement-I and statement-II are ture.
(B) Both statement-I and statement-II are false.
(C) Statement-I is true but statement-II if false
Q. A long cylindrical volume contains (D) Statement-I is false but statement-II if true.
a uniformly distributed charge of density
𝜌 Cm-3. The electric field inside the
cylindrical volume at a distance from its
axis is ______ Vm-1
Electric Field
Q. The three charges q/2, q and q/2 are placed at the Q. A spherically symmetric charge distribution is
corners A, B and C of a square of side ‘a’ as shown if considered with charge density varying as
figure. The magnitude of electric field (E) at the
comer D of the square, is:
(A)
Where, r(r < R) is the distance from
(B) the centre O (as shown in figure).
The electric field at point P will be:
(A) (B)
(C) (D) (C)
(D)
Dielectrics
Q A capacitor has capacitance 5𝜇F When it’s Q A parallel plate capacitor has plate area 40 cm2 and
parallel plates are separated by air medium plates separation 2 mm. The space between the plates is
of thickness d. A slab of material of dielectric filled with dielectric medium of a thickness 1 mm and
constant 1.5 having area equal to that of dielectric constant 5. The capacitance of the system is:
plates but thickness d/2 is inserted between
the plates. Capacitance of the capacitor in A. 24 ε0 F B. C. D. 10 ε0 F
the presence of slab will be ____ 𝜇F.
Q A parallel plate capacitor with plate area A and

plate separation d = 2 m has a capacitance of 4 𝜇F.
The new capacitance of the system if half of the
space between them is filled with a dielectric
material of dielectric constant K = 3 (as shown
in figure) will be:
A. 2𝜇F B. 32𝜇F C. 6𝜇F D. 8𝜇F
Dielectrics
JEE Main 31st Jan 2023 S-2 JEE Main 24th June 2023 S-1
Q Two parallel plate capacitors C1 and C2 each Q A parallel plate capacitor is formed by two plates each of
having capacitance of 10 μF are individually area 30𝜋 cm2 separated by 1 mm. A material of dielectric
charged by a 100 V D. C. source. Capacitor C1 is strength 3.6 × 107 Vm-1 is filled between the plates. If the
kept connected to the source and a dielectric maximum charge that can be stored on the capacitor
slab is inserted between it plates. Capacitor C2 without causing any dielectric breakdown is 7 × 10-6 C, The
is disconnected from the source and then a value of dielectric constant of the materials is:
dielectric slab is inserted in it. Afterwards the
(A) 1.66 (B) 1.75
capacitor C1 is also disconnected from the
(C) 2.25 (D) 2.33
source and the two capacitors are finally
connected in parallel combination. The
common potential of the combination will
be______ V. (Assuming Dielectric Q A parallel plate capacitor filled with a medium of dielectric
Constant = 10)
constant 10, is connected across a battery and is charged.
The dielectric slab is replaced by another slab of dielectric
constant 15. Then the energy of capacitor will :
A. Increased by 50% B. Decrease by 15%
C. Increased by 25% D. Increase by 33%
Dielectrics
Q The displacement current of 4.425 𝜇A is Q Two metallic plates form a parallel plate capacitor.
developed in the space between the plates of The distance between the plates is ‘d’. A metal sheet of
parallel plate capacitor when voltage is thickness d/2 and of a area equal to area of each plate
changing at a rate of 106 Vs-1. The area of is introduced between the plates. What will be the ratio
each plate of the capacitor is 40 cm2. The of the new capacitance to the original capacitance of
distance between each plate of the the capacitor?
capacitor is x × 10-3m. The value of x is
(Permittivity of free space, E0 = 8.85 x 10- A. 2 : 1 B. 1 : 2 C. 1:4 D. 4:1
12C2N-1m-2)
Q Two parallel plate capacitors of capacity C
and 3C are connected in parallel
Q A parallel plate capacitor is made up of
combination and charged to a potential
stair like structure with a plate area A of difference 18V. The battery is then
each stair and that is connected with a disconnected and the space between the
wire of length b, as shown in the figure. plates of the capacitor of capacity C is
The capacitance of the arrangement is completely filled with a material of dielectric
constant 9. The final potential difference
The value of x is _____
across the combination of capacitors will be
Dielectrics
Q A composite parallel plate capacitor is made Q A parallel plate capacitor with width 4 cm, length 8 cm
up of two different dielectric materials with and separation between the plates of 4mm is connected to
different thickness (t1 and t2) as shown in a battery of 20 V. A dielectric slab of dielectric constant 5
figure. The two different dielectric material are having length 1 cm, width 4 cm and thickness 4 mm is
separated by a conducting foil F. The voltage of inserted between the plates of parallel plate capacitor. The
the conducting foil is _____ V. electrostatic energy of this system will be _____∈0 J.
(Where ∈0 is the permittivity of free space)
Q Sectional area as the plates of a parallel

plate capacitor and thickness ¾ d, where d is
the separation of the plates. The capacitance of
the capacitor when the slab is inserted between
the plates will be:
(Given Co = capacitance of capacitor with air
as medium between plates.)
A. B. C. D.
Straight Wire & Circular Coil
Q A long solenoid is formed by winding 70 turns
cm-1. If 2.0 A current flows, then the magnetic Q A circular loop of radius r is carrying current I
field produced inside the solenoid is _____ A. The ratio of magnetic field at the centre of
(μ0 = 4π × 10-7 TmA-1) circular loop and at a distance r from the centre
A. 1232 × 10-4 T B. 176 × 10- of the loop on its axis is:
4T A. B. C. D.
C. 352 × 10-4 T D. 88 × 10-4 T
Q A closely wound circular coil of radius 5cm

produces a magnetic field of 37.68 × 10-4 T at its
center. The current through the coil is______
A. [Given, number of turns in the coil is 100 and
π = 3.14]

Q As shown in the figure, along straight Q. The electric current in a circular coil of four turns produces
conductor with semicircular arc of radius 𝜋/10 a magnetic induction 32 T at its centre. The coil is unwound
m is carrying current I = 3A. The magnitude of and is rewound into a circular coil of single turn, the magnetic
the magnetic field at the centre O of the arc is: induction at the centre of the coil by the same current will be :
(The permeability of the vacuum = 4π × 10-7 NA- (A) 8T (B) 4T (C) 2T (D) 16T
2)
Q. The electric current in a circular coil of 2 turns produces a

magnetic induction B1 at its centre. The coil is unwound and is
rewound into a circular coil of 5 turns and the same current
(A) 6 μT (B) 1 μT (C) 4 μT (D) 3 μT produces a magnetic induction B2 at its centre. The ratio of
(A) (B) (C) (D)
JEE Main 31st Jan 2023 S-2 JEE Main 29th June 2022 S-2
Q A long conducting wire having a current I

Q An infinitely long hollow conducting cylinder
flowing through it, is bent into a circular coil of N
with radius R carries a uniform current along its
turns. Then it is bent into a circular coil of n
surface. Choose the correct representation of
turns. The magnetic field is calculated at the
magnetic field (B) as a function of radial
centre of coils in both the cases. The ratio of the
distance (r) from the axis of cylinder.
magnetic field in first case to that of second
case is:
(A) (B)
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(C) (D)
Q Two long current carrying conductors are Q. The magnetic field at the centre of a
placed parallel to each other at a distance of 8 circular coil of radius r, due to current I flowing
cm between them. The magnitude of magnetic through it, is B. The magnetic field at a point
field produced at mid-point between the two along
conductors due to current flowing in them is the axis at a distance r/2 from the centre is
300 µT. The equal current flowing in the two
conductors is: (A) (B) 2B (C) (D)
(A) 30A in the same direction
(B) 30A in the opposite direction
(C) 60A in the opposite direction JEE Main 26th July 2022 S-1
(D) 300A in the opposite direction
Q. Bx and BY are the magnetic field at the
centre of two coils X and Y respectively, each
Q. A long straight wire with a circular cross-section having carrying equal current. If coil X has 200 turns
radius R, is carrying a steady current I. The current I is uniformly and 20 cm radius and coil Y has 400 turns
distributed across this cross-section. Then the variation of and 20 cm radius, the ratio of Bx and BY
magnetic field due to current I with distance r (f < R) from its
centre will be: (A) 1:1 (B) 1:2 (C) 2:1 (D) 4:1
(A) B ∝ r2 (B) B∝r (C) (D)
Series RLC Circuit
Q A series LCR circuit is connected to an AC Q For the given figures, choose the correct options:
source of 220 V, 50 Hz. The circuit contains a
resistance R = 80Ω, an inductor of inductive
reactance XL = 70Ω, and a capacitor of
capacitive reactance XC = 130Ω. The power
factor of circuit is x/10. The value of x is: (A) The rms current in circuit (b) can never be larger than
JEE Main 25th Jan 2023 S-2 that in (a)
(B) The rms current in figure (a) is always equal to that in
Q A series LCR circuit is connected to an ac figure (b)
source of 220V, 50Hz. The circuit contain a
(C) The rms current in circuit (b) can be larger than that
resistance R = 100Ω and an inductor of
in (a)
inductive reactance XL = 79.6Ω. The (D) At resonance, current in (b) is less than that in (a)
capacitance of the capacitor needed to
maximize the average rate at which energy is
supplied will be_____μF.
Series RLC Circuit
Q To increase the resonant frequency in series Q The effective current I in the given circuit at
LCR circuit, very high frequencies will be _____ A
(A) Source frequency should be increased
(B) Another resistance should be added in
series with the first resistance.
(C) Another capacitor should be added in
series with the first capacitor
(D) The source frequency should be decreased.

Q An inductor of inductance 2 μH is connected Q An AC source is connected to an inductance

in series with a resistance, a variable capacitor of 100 mH, a capacitance 100 𝜇F and a
and an AC source of frequency 7 kHz. The value resistance of 120 𝛺 as shown in figure. The time
of capacitance for which maximum current is in which the resistance having a thermal
drawn into the circuit is 1/x F, where the value of capacity 2 Jo/C will
x is______. (take 𝜋 = 22/7) get heated by 16 oC
is __ s.
Series RLC Circuit
Q An inductor of 0.5 mH, a capacitor of 200 𝜇F Q For a series LCR circuit, I vs 𝜔 curve is shown:
and a resistor of 2 𝛺 are connected in series (a) To the left of 𝜔t, the circuit is mainly
with a 220 V ac source. If the current is in phase capacitive.
with the emf, the frequency of ac source will be (b) To the left of 𝜔t, the circuit is mainly
______× 102 Hz. inductive.
(c) At 𝜔t, impedance of the circuit is equal to
the resistance of the circuit.
Q In the given circuit, the (d) At 𝜔t, impedance of the circuit is 0.
magnitude of VL and VC are Choose the most appropriate answer from the
twice that of VR. Given that options given below:
f = 50 Hz, the inductance of (A) (a) and (d) only
the coil is 1/K𝜋 The value of (B) (b) and (d) only
K is __ (C) (a) and (c) only
(D) (b) and (c) only
EM Waves : E / B = C
Q. Given below are two statements: Q. The electromagnetic wave travel in a medium at
Statement I: Electromagnetic waves are not a speed of 2.0 × 108 m/s. The relative permeability
deflected by electric and magnetic field of the medium is 1.0. The relative permittivity of the
Statement II: The amplitude of electric field and the medium will be:
magnetic field in electromagnetic waves are (A) 2.25 (B) 4.25 (C) 6.25 (D) 8.25
related to each other as JEE Main 24th June 2020 S-1
In the light of the above statements, choose the
Q. A plane electromagnetic wave travels in a
correct answer from the option given below:
medium of relative permeability 1.61 and relative
(A) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
permittivity 6.44. If magnitude of magnetic intensity
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
is 4.5 × 10-2 Am-1 at a point, what will be the
(C) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
approximate magnitude of electric field intensity at
(D) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
that point?
Q. Light wave traveling in air along x-direction is (Given : Permeability of free space 𝜇0 = 4𝜋 × 10-7 NA-2,
speed of light in vacuum c = 3 × 108 ms-1)
given by Ey = 540 sin π × 104 (x - ct) Vm-1. Then, the
peak value of magnetic field of wave will be (Given (A) 16.96 Vm-1 (B)
c = 3 × 108 ms-1) 2.25 × 10-2 Vm-1
(A) 18 × 10-7 T (B) 54 × 10-7 T (C) 8.48 Vm-1 (D)
6.75 × 106 Vm-1
-8 -8
Q. Given below are two statements:
Q. The oscillating magnetic field in a plane
Statement I: A time varying electric field is a source
electromagnetic wave is given by By = 5 × 10-6 sin
of changing magnetic field and vice-versa. Thus a
1000π (5x - 4 × 108 t) T. The amplitude of electric field disturbance in electric or magnetic field creates EM
will be: wave
(A) 15 × 102 Vm-1 (B) 5 × 10-6 Vm-1 Statement II: In a material medium. The EM wave
(C) 16 × 1012 Vm-1 (D) 4 × 102 Vm-1 travels with speed
JEE Main 24th June 2022 S-1 In the light of the above statements, choose the
Q. If electric field intensity of a uniform plane correct answer from the options given below:
electromagnetic wave is given as (A) Both statement I and statement II are true
(B) Both statement I and statement II are false
(C) Statement I is correct but statement II is false
Then, magnetic intensity H of this wave in Am-1 will be: (D) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is true
[Given: Speed of light in vacuum c = 3 × 108 ms-1,
permeability of vacuum 𝜇0 = 4𝜋 × 10-7 NA-2]
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q. An EM wave propagating in x-direction has a

wavelength of 8 mm. The electric field vibrating y- Q. The magnetic field of a plane electromagnetic
direction has maximum magnitude of 60 Vm-1. wave is given by
Choose the correct equations for electric and The amplitude of the electric field would be
magnetic field if the EM wave is propagating in
vacuum:
A 6Vm-1 along x-axis
(A)
B 3Vm-1 along z-axis

(B)
C 6Vm-1 along z-axis

(C)
D 2 × 10-8 Vm-1 along z-axis

(D)
Young's Double Slit Experiment
Q. In Young’s double slit experiment performed
Q. In young’s double slit experiment, the fringe using a monochromatic light of wavelength 𝜆,
width is 12mm. If the entire arrangement is when a glass plate (𝜇 = 1.5) of thickness x𝜆 is
placed in water of refractive index 4/3, then the introduced in the path of the one of the
fringe width becomes (in mm) interfering beams, the intensity at the position
(A) 16 (B) 9 (C) 4.8 (D) 12 where the central maximum occurred
previously remains unchanged. The value of x
will be:
Q. In Young’s double slit experiment the two (A) 3 (B) 2
slits are 0.6 mm distance apart. Interference (C) 1.5 (D) 0.5
pattern is observed on a screen at a distance JEE Main 25th Jan 2023 S-1
80 cm from the slits. The first dark fringe is
Q. In Young’s double slits experiment, the
observed on the screen directly opposite to
position of 5th bright fringe from the central
one of the slits. The wavelength of light will
maximum is 5 cm. The distance between slits
be___nm.
and screen is 1 m and wavelength of used
monochromatic light is 600 nm. The separation
between the slits is :
(A) 60 𝞵m (B) 48 𝞵m (C) 12 𝞵m (D) 36 𝞵m
Young's Double Slit Experiment
Q.In Young’s double slit experiment, two slits S 1 Q. In a double slit experiment with
and S2 are ’d’ distance apart and the monochromatic light, fringes are obtained on a
separation from slits to screen is D (as shown in screen placed at some distance from the plane
figure). Now if two transparent slabs of equal of slits. If the screen is moved by 5 × 10-2 m
thickness 0.1 mm but refractive index 1.51 and towards the slits, the change in fringe width is
1.55 are introduced in the 3 × 10-3 cm. If the distance between the slits is 1
path of beam (𝞴 = 4000 𝞴) mm, then the wavelength of the light will be_nm.
from S1 and S2 respectively.
The central bright fringe JEE Main 31st Jan 2023 S-2
spot will shift by______. Q. Two light waves of wavelengths 800 and 600
number of fringes. nm are used in Young’s double slit experiment to
JEE Main 28th June 2022 S-2 obtain interference fringes on a screen placed 7
m away from plane of slits. If the two slits are
Q. In a Young’s double slit experiment, an separated by 0.35 mm, then shortest distance
angular width of the fringe is 0.35° on a screen from the central bright maximum to the point
placed at 2 m away for particular wavelength where the bright fringes of the two wavelength
of 450 nm. The angular width of the fringe, coincide will be ________mm.
when whole system is immersed in a medium
of refractive index 7/5, is 1/⍺. The value of α is_
MODERN PHYSICS
Half Life
Q. If a radioactive element having half-life of Q. Substance A has atomic mass number 16

30 min is undergoing beta decay, the fraction and half life of 1 day. Another substance B has
of radioactive element remains undecayed atomic mass number 32 and half life of ½ day.
after 90 min will be: If both A and B simultaneously start undergo
(A) ⅛ (B) 1/16 (C) ¼ radioactivity at the same time initial mass 320
(D) ½ g each, how many total atoms of A and B
combined would be left after 2 days.
Q. A sample contains 10-2 kg each of to (A) 3.38 × 1024 (B) 6.76 × 1024
substances A and B with half lives 4 s and 8s (C) 6.76 × 1023 (D) 1.69 × 1024
respectively. The ratio of then atomic weights is JEE Main 26th June 2022 S-2
1 : 2. The ratio of the amounts of A and B after 16
s is x/100, the value of x is__. Q. A radioactive nucleus can decay by two
different processes. Half-life for the first
JEE Main 29th June 2022 S-2 process is 3.0 hours while it is 4.5 hours for the
second process. The effective half-life of the
Q. The half life of a radioactive substance is 5 nucleus will be:
years. After x years a given sample of the (A) 3.75 hours (B) 0.56 hours
radioactive substance gets reduced to 6.25% of (C) 0.26 hours (D) 1.80 hours
its initial value of x is_____.
Q. The activity of a radioactive material is Q. What is the half-life period of a radioactive

6.4 × 10-4 curies. Its half life is 5 days. The material if its activity drops to 1/16th of its initial
activity will become 5 × 10-6 curies after: value of 30 years ?
(A) 7 days (B) 15 days (A) 9.5 tears (B) 8.5
(C) 25 days (D) 35 days years
(C) 7.5 years (C) 10.5
years
Q. A radioactive nucleus decays by two Q. The disintegration rate of a certain
different process. The half life of the first radioactive sample at any instant is 4250
process is 5 minutes and that of the second disintegrations per minute. 10 minutes later,
process is 30s. The effective half-life of the the rate becomes 2250 disintegrations per
nucleus is calculated to be ⍺/11. The value of α minutes. The approximate decay constant is:
is____. (Take log101.88 = 0.274)
(A) 0.02 min-1 (B) 2.7 min-1
(C) 0.063 min-1 (D) 6.3 min-1
Q. The activity of a radioactive material is
2.56 × 10-3 Ci. If the half life of the material is 5
days, after how many days the activity will
becomes 2 × 10-5 Ci?
(A) 30 days (B) 35 days
(C) 40 days (D) 25 days
Q. The half life period of a radioactive Q. Two radioactive materials A and B have
substance is 60 days. The time taken for ⅞ th of decay constants 25λ and 16λ respectively. If
its original mass to disintegrate will be: initially they have the same number of nuclei,
(A) 120 days (B) 130 days then the ratio of the number of nuclei of B to
(C) 180 days (D) 20 days that of A will be “e” after a time 1/⍺λ. The value
of a is _______ .
Q. A freshly prepared radioactive source of half

life 2 hours 30 minutes emits radiation which is
64 times the permissible safe level. The
minimum time, after which it would be possible
to work safely with source, will be ______
hours.
Q. A radioactive sample decays 7/4 times its

original quantity in 15 minutes. The half-life of
the sample is
(A) 5 min (B) 7.5 min (C) 15 min (D) 30 min
MODERN PHYSICS
Photoelectric effect
24 Jan - Shift 1 JEE 2023 25 Jan - Shift 2 JEE 2023
From the photoelectric effect experiment, Given below are two statements :
following observations are made. Identify Statement I : Stopping potential in
which of these are correct photoelectric effect does not depend on
A. The stopping potential depends only the power of the light source.
on the work function of the metal. Statement II : For a given metal, the
B. The saturation current increases as the maximum kinetic energy of the
intensity of incident light increases. photoelectron depends on the
C. The maximum kinetic energy of a wavelength of the incident light.
photo electron depends on the intensity
In the light of above statements, choose
of the incident light.
the most appropriate answer from the
D. Photoelectric effect can be explained
options given below.
using wave theory of light.
Choose the correct answer from the
(A) I is incorrect but II is correct
(B) Both I & II are incorrect
(C) I Correct but II Incorrect
(A) B, C Only (B) 1A, C, D (C) B Only
(D) Both I & II are correct
(D) A, B, D
29 Jan - Shift 1 JEE 2023 31 Jan - Shift 2 JEE 2023
The threshold wavelength If the two metals A and B are exposed to 26 June - shift 2 2022
for photoelectric emission radiation of wavelength 350 nm. The work
The stopping potential for
from a material is 5500 Å. functions of metals A and B are 4.8 eV and 2.2
photoelectrons emitted from a
Photoelectrons will be eV. Then choose the correct option.
surface illuminated by light of
emitted, when this (A) B will not emit photoelectron
wavelength 6630 Å is 0.42 V. if
material is illuminated with (B) Both A & B will emit photo electron
the threshold frequency is x ×
monochromatic radiation (C) neither A nor B will emit photo
1013/s, where x
from a electron
is______(nearest integer).
A. 75 W infrared lamp (D) A will not emit photoelectron
24 June - shift 12022 (Give, speed light = 3 × 108 m/s,
B. 10 W infrared lamp Planck’s constant = 6.63 × 10-34
C. 75 W ultra-violet lamp When light of frequency twice the threshold Js)
D. 10 W ultra-violet lamp frequency is incident on the metal plate, the
Choose the correct answer maximum velocity of emitted electron is v1.
from the options given When the frequency of incident radiation is
below : increased to five times the threshold value,
the maximum velocity of emitted electron
(1) B & C Only becomes v2. If v2 = x v1, the value of x will
(2) A & D Only be_____.
(3) C Only
(4) C & D Only
24 June - shift 2 2022 28 June - shift 2 2022
The light of two different frequencies Let K1 and K2 be the maximum kinetic energies of
whose photons have energies 3.8 eV and photoelectrons emitted when two monochromatic
1.4 eV respectively, illuminate a metallic beams of wavelength 𝜆1 and 𝜆2, respectively are
surface whose work function is 0.6 eV incident on a metallic surface. If 𝜆1 = 3𝜆2 then:
successively. The ratio of maximum
speeds of emitted electrons for the two (A) (B) (C)
frequencies respectively will be: (D)
(A) 1:1 (B) 2:1 (C) 4:1 (D) 1:4 29 June - shift 1 2022
25 July - shift 1 2022 Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
Assertion A and the other is Reason R.
A metal exposed to light of Assertion A: The photoelectric effect does not take place, if the
wavelength 800 nm and emits energy of the incident radiation is less than the work function of a
photoelectrons with a certain metal.
kinetic energy. The maximum Reason R: Kinetic energy of the photoelectrons is zero, if the energy
of the incident radiation is equal to the work function of a metal.
kinetic energy of photoelectron
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate
doubles when light of wavelength
answer from the options, given below,
500 nm is used. The work function
of the metal (Take hc = 1230 eV- (A) A & R are correct & R is correct explanation of A
nm). (B) A & R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A
(A) 1.537 eV (B) 2.46 eV (C) A is correct but R is not correct
(D) A is not correct but R is correct
29 July - shift 1 2022
The kinetic energy of emitted electron is E when the light

incident on the metal has wavelength 𝜆. To double the
kinetic energy, the incident light must have wavelength
(A) (B) (C)

(D)
28 July - shift 2 2022
Two streams of photons, possessing energies to five and

ten times the work function of metal are incident on the
metal surface successively. The ratio of the maximum
velocities of the photoelectron emitted, in the two cases
respectively, will be
(A) 1:2 (B) 1:3 (C)

2:3 (D) 3:2
MODERN PHYSICS
De broglie
Q. An α-particle, a proton and an electron have Q. An electron with speed v and a photon with
the same kinetic energy. Which one of the speed c have the same de-Broglie wavelength.
following is correct in case of their De-Broglie If the kinetic energy and momentum of
wavelength: electron are Ee and pe and that of photon are
(A) 𝜆α > 𝜆p > 𝜆e (B) 𝜆α < 𝜆p < Eph and pph respectively. Which of the following
𝜆e is correct?
(C) 𝜆α ≡ 𝜆p = 𝜆e (D) 𝜆α > 𝜆p < (A)
𝜆e (B)
Q. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelength of an α-
particle and a proton accelerated from rest by (C)
JEE Main 25th Jan
(D)2023 S-1
the same potential is 1/√m, the value of m is
(A) 4 (B) 16 Q. Electron beam used in an electron
(C) 8 (D) 2 microscope, when accelerated by a voltage of
20 kV. Has a de-Broglie wavelength of 𝜆0. If the
Q. A proton moving with one tenth of velocity of voltage is increased to 40 kV. then the de-
light has a certain de-Broglie wavelength of 𝜆. Broglie wavelength associated with the
An alpha particle having certain kinetic energy electron beam would be:
has the same de-Brogle wavelength 𝜆. The (A) 3λ0 (B) 9λ0 (C) λ0/2 (D) λ0/√2
ratio of kinetic energy of proton and that of
alpha particle is:
(A) 2 : 1 (B) 4 : 1 (C) 1 : 2 (D) 1 : 4
Q. An α particle and a carbon 12 atom has
same kinetic energy K. The ratio of their de- Q. The equation can be used to
Broglie wavelength (𝜆a : 𝜆C12) is: find the de-Brogli wavelength of an electron. In
(A) 1 : √3 (B) √3 : 1 (C) 3 : 1 (D) 2 : √3 this equation x stands for:
Where
JEE Main 25th July 2022 S-2 m = mass of electron
P = momentum of electron
Q. The ratio of wavelengths of proton and K = Kinetic energy of electron
deuteron accelerated by potential Vp and Vd is V = Accelerating potential in volts for electron
1 : √2. Then, the ratio of Vp to Vd will be
(A) 1 : 1 (B) √2 : 1 (C) 2 : 1 (D) 4 : 1 (A) (B)
(C) (D)
Q. An electron accelerated through a potential Q. The de-Brogue wavelength for an electron

difference V1 has a de-Broglie wavelength of 𝜆. and a photon are 𝜆e and 𝜆p respectively. For the
When the potential is changed to V2, its de- same kinetic energy of electron and photon
Broglie wavelength increases by 50%. The which of the following presents the correct
value of (V1/V2)is equal to: relation between the de-Brogue wavelengths
(A) 3 (B) 9/4 (C) 3/2 of two?
(D) 4 (A) 𝜆p ∝ 𝜆e2 (B) 𝜆p ∝ 𝜆e
(c) (D)
MODERN PHYSICS
Electronic transition
JEE Main 24th Jan 2023 S-2 JEE Main 01st Feb 2023 S-2
Q. A photon is emitted in transition from n = 4 to Q. An electron of a hydrogen like atom, having

n = 1 level in hydrogen atom. The corresponding Z = 4, jumps from 4th energy state to 2nd energy
wavelength for this transition is state, the energy released in this process, will be:
(given, h = 4 × 10-15 eVs): (Where Rch = 13.6 eV)
(A) 94.1 nm (B) 941 nm (C) 97.4 nm (D) 99.3 nm Where R = Rydberg constant
c = Speed of light in vacuum
h = Planck’s constant
Q. A light of energy 12.75 eV is incident on a (A) 13.6 eV (B) 10.5 eV (C) 3.4 eV (D) 40.8 eV
hydrogen atom in its ground state. The atom
absorbs the radiation and reaches to one of its
excited states.The angular momentum of the Q. A beam of monochromatic light is used to
atom in the excited state is x/π × 10-17 eVs. The excite the electron in Li++ from the first orbit to
value of x is ____ the third orbit. The wavelength of
(use h = 4.14 × 10-15 eVs, c = 3 × 108 ms-1) monochromatic light is found to be x × 10-10 m.
The value of x is ____ .
[Given he = 1242 eV nm]
JEE Main 26th July 2022 S-1 JEE Main 31st Jan 2023 S-1
Q. In a hydrogen spectrum, 𝜆 be the wavelength Q. For hydrogen atom 𝜆1 and 𝜆2 are the
of first transition line of Lyman series. The wavelengths corresponding to the transitions 1
wavelength difference will be “a𝜆” between the and 2 respectively as shown in figure. The ratio
wavelength of 3rd transition line of Paschen of 𝜆1 and 𝜆2 is x/32. The value of x is____.
series and that of 2nd transition line of Balmer
Series where a = ___
Q. The energy levels of an atom is shown is

figure. Which one of these transitions will result
in the emission of a photon of wavelength 124.1
nm? Given JEE Main 25th July 2022 S-2
(h = 6.62 × 10-34 Js)
(A) B (B) A Q. Hydrogen atom from excited state comes to
(C) C (D) D the ground by emitting a photon of wavelength
𝜆. The value of principal quantum number ‘n’ of
the excited state will be: (R : Rydberg constant)
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Diode & Logic Gates
Q The logic gate equivalent to the given circuit Q For he given logic gates combination, the
diagram is: correct truth table will be
(A) OR
(A)
(B) NAND
(C) NOR
(D) AND
(B) (C)
(D)
Q In the following circuit, the correct relation
between output (Y) and inputs A and B will be:
(A) Y = AB
(B) Y = A + B
(C)
(D)
Diode & Logic Gates
Q The output waveform of the given logical Q The output Y for the inputs A and B of circuit is
circuit for the following inputs A and B as shown given by Truth table of the shown circuit is:
below, is:
(A) (A)
(B) (B) (C)

(D)

(C)
(D) Q Identify the logic operation performed by the
given circuit
(A) ADA gate
(B) OR gate
(C) NOR Gate
(D) NAND gate
Diode & Logic Gates
Q A logic gate circuit has two inputs A and B Q Identify the correct Logic Gate for the following output
and output Y. The voltage waveforms of A, B (Y) of two inputs A and B.
and Y are shown below The logic gate circuit is
(A) AND gate
(A)
(B) OR gate
(C) NOR gate
(D) NAND gate (B)
(C)
(D)
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NIT PATNA (OS) NIT Sikkim (OS)

NIT Mizoram (OS)

A few more steps to 99%ile

JEE Main 25th June 2022 S-2

Q. Given below are two statements: one

Q. Among the following species

(A) NO (B) N2 (C) O2 (D) C2 (E) B2 Q. According to MO theory, number of

Q. What is the number of unpaired electrons(s) Q. Consider the ions/molecule

JEE Main 25th June 2022 S-1

Q. The number of paramagnetic species

JEE Main 27th July 2022 S-2

Q. The number of molecule(s) or ions(s) from

Q. Number of lone pair (s) of electrons on

JEE Main 31th Jan 2023 S-2

Q. Amongst the following, the number of

D A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Consider the following reaction: The oxoacid of phosphorus

Q. The magnetic moment of a transition Q. Acidified potassium permanganate

undergoes disproportionation reaction. Q. The spin-only magnetic moment

Consider the following metal Spin only magnetic moment of

Q. On complete combustion 0.30 g of an Q. When a hydrocarbon A undergoes

Q. On complete combustion of 0.492 g of an

Q. On complete combustion, 0.492 g of an Q. In the given reaction,

Q. 2NOCl(g) ⇌ 2NO(g) + Cl2(g)

JEE Main 29th January 2023 S-2

JEE Main 25th Jan 2023 S-2

28 L of CO2 is produced on complete

JEE Main 29th Jan 2023 S-1

JEE Main 31th Jan 2023 S-2

Q. The resistivity of a 0.8 M solution of an electrolyte

JEE Main 25th July 2022 S-2

Q. The molar conductivity of a conductivity cell

that of 20 moles another identical cell having 80 mL

Q. The rate constants for decomposition of

JEE Main 27th June 2022 S-2

Q. A → B Q. The number of correct statement/s from the

Reason R: Planarity is one of the requirements of D.

JEE Main 01st Feb 2023 S-1

Photochemical smog has high

equal to_. βx-⍺, β ∈ N. Then ⍺ is equal to__.