NCM 103 LEC (FUNDA LEC)
Which of the following is true about intrapersonal level of
1. Facilitates understanding and collaboration of nursing actions
with their clients and other member of the health care team.
Communicator
2. This refers to the condition of being in poor health all aspects of
health. Illness
3. A nurse is showing a patient how to use crutches at home and
instructing his mother about how to change his bandages. At this
time, the nurse is primarily acting as: Teacher
4. In the Health Belief Model, the nurse recognizes that the focus is
placed on the: Relation of perceptions and compliance
therapy
5. The Process of Influencing helps the client in making decisions
to establish and achieve their goals towards alleviating their
conditions. Leader
6. Which principle of code of ethics states that research should not
cause harm? Nonmaleficence
7. Knowing yourself is a good personal quality of a nurse. True
8. According to American Nurses Association, Health and illness
are human experience. The presence of illness does not preclude
health, nor does optimal health preclude illness. True
9. Provides care and comfort for person together with preserving
the dignity of human being. Caregiver
10. Ensuring proper medication dosages, and keeping accurate
record is: Attention to detail
11. It is a great idea to view every work environment as a learning
opportunity. Willing to learn
12. The Illlness-Wellness/Health Continuum is an excellent resource
for nurses who want to: Educate their patients about their
overall health now and where it has the potential to go in the
future.
13. The following are activities in the pre-interaction phase.
Identifies information to be discussed; plan initial visit;
Recognize own feelings
14. Investigates the role of nurses which further improves the
nursing practice. Researcher
15.
communication? used for both sender and receiver
16. Communication with older adults should keep environmental
distractions to a minimum. Which includes? Speaking in short,
simple sentences, one subject at a time
17. Involves "planning, giving directions, developing staff,
monitoring operations, giving reward fairly, and representing
both staff members and administrations as needed. Manager
18. This is broadly associated with caring which includes the
required skills and knowledge to treat their patients.
Compassionate
19. According to Leavell and Clark’s ecologic model, all of this are
factors that affects health and illness: Environment, Agent, Host
20. Requires one to have master's degree in nursing and must have
specialization in a particular field of nursing. Clinical Nurse
specialist
21. A Nursing role which Assesses the client’s motivations and
capacity for change, Identifies the problem, determines
alternatives, explores possible outcomes of the alternative, etc.
Change Agent
22. Requires advanced educational or nursing practice who can
assess, diagnose interpret medical tests. Nurse Practitioner
23. Reflection is thinking from a non-critical point of view. False
24. Among the therapeutic techniques, this pertains to being more
understandable and restating message. Seeking clarification
25. The founder of Philippine Nurses Association. Anastacia Giron
Tupaz
26. The following are purposes of why Nurses should communicate
effectively. to be able to collect assessment data, to initiate
interventions, evaluate outcomes of care
27. In the health care field, which professionals abide by a code of
ethics? All health care professions
28. Which therapeutic communication skill is most likely to
encourage client to verbalize? Providing general lead
29. Man as a bio psychosocial being refers to man as? Will never
be able to understand another man
30. Which of the following questions is the best example of the
therapeutic communication technique of offering self? I am
here to listen
31. The main task during the working phase includes? enhance
trust, rapport and develop caring
32. The following is true about attentive Listening. Being mindful,
Encourage the client to trust, Conveys an attitude of caring
33. Which of the following are considerations in verbal mode of
communication? pace and intonation
34. She is known as "Tandang Sora" nurse the wounded Filipino
soldiers and gave them shelter and food. Melchora Aquino
35. Defends the client's right to be treated equally without any harm
intentionally or unintentionally. Client Advocate
36. Which of the following are methods of communication?
gestures or body actions; talking, listening, and writing;
painting, dancing, story telling
37. In health belief model, Individual perception matters. Which of
the following is highly UNLIKELY to influence preventive
behavior? Perceived curability of an illness
38. Man’s subsystem includes which of the following? cells, tissues,
organs, organ system
39. It is a delivery of care to individual clients by a group of
providers. Team Nursing
40. Man is an individual with vital reparative process, this concept
was coined by? Florence Nightingale
41. It was built exclusively for patients with leprosy. San Lazaro
Hospital
42. What does beneficence mean? To do good
43. It is the extent to which an individual’s behavior coincide with
medical or health advice. Adherence
44. Your client has told you that he is depressed and is thinking
about committing suicide. You responded, “Why would you kill
yourself?” As a nurse, you know that this is non therapeutic for
what reason? It demands an explanation
45. The following are an example of man as super Ordinate System.
problems at work, presence of family and friends
46. These are all internal variables: Age, Race, Gender
47. This patient care model works best when there are plenty of
patient but few nurses. Functional nursing
48. According to Boykin and Shoenhofer the theory is grounded in
which several key assumptions? persons live their caring
moment to moment
49. The nurse is communicating with a well-oriented grandmother
in a homecare setting. Which statement best reflects respectful
and caring communication? Are you comfortable, Mrs. Co
50. Caring is the heart of nursing’ s identity. True
51. Caring is the essence and central unifying, a dominant domain
that distinguishes nursing from other health disciplines this is
coined by? Leininger
52. Performs direct nursing actions in specialty areas. They may or
may not have advance education preparation as long as they are
certified by a government body to perform such duties. Nurse
clinician
53. Which one of the following is an example of the emotional
component of wellness? A client expresses frustration with
her partner's substance abuse.
54. Helps the client learn the state of their well-being and the
therapies that will be done to them to alleviate their health
conditions. Teacher
55. Pre-interaction phase also called orientation phase includes
which of the following? planning stage
56. One of the hindrance to therapeutic communication is assuming,
which refers to? thinking that you know what the client really
means
57. According to Maslow, the following are true about a self-
actualized person? Desires privacy, autonomous; Understands
poetry, music, philosophy, science etc.; Problem centered
58. The nurse questions a doctor’s order of Morphine sulfate 50 mg,
IM for a client with pancreatitis. Which role best fit that
statement? Client advocate
59. Which of the following activities of a nurse is an example of
tertiary prevention? Arranging for a hospice nurse to visit
with the family of a client with cancer
60. The client is paraplegic (paralysis of the legs and lower body)
and is in the hospital for electrolyte imbalance. Based on the
levels of prevention, the client is receiving care at the:
Secondary Prevention
61. A client recently diagnosed with hypertension is confident that it
can be improved with diet and exercise alone, and recently
checked out a video on the management of hypertension at the
World Health Organization, the client's actions are most
representative of which one of the following models: Health
belief model
62. A registered nurse who received specialized education and
training to provide care to patients who experienced violence.
Forensic Nurse
63. According to WHO, it is a social and political action enhancing
public awareness in health, fostering healthy lifestyle and
creating conditions conducive to health. Health Promotion
64. Client communication are words or thoughts, non-distinct from
feelings. False
65. It is normal to feel frustrated about the discomfort. Which of the
following is most representative of the skills associated with the
working phase of the helping relationship? Respect
66. This model represents the Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs in
which health is actualization or realization of person’s potential.
Eudaimonistic Model
67. The following are major attributes of human being. The ability
to use verbal symbols as language as a means of developing
and maintaining culture; Family formation; Tendency to see
and maintain territory
68. The organizer of the Philippine Red Cross under the inspiration
of Apolinario Mabini. Dona Hilaria de Aguinaldo
69. Which of the following is an example of a primary prevention
activity? Nutrition counseling for young adults with a strong
family history of high cholesterol.
70. Nurses help the clients to cope with the stress brought about
their health conditions, also facilitates the client’s growth in all
aspect: physical, emotional, psychological and even spiritual.
Counselor
71. A nurse reviews the client’s progress toward understanding his
behavior under stress. This is typical of which phase in the
therapeutic relationship? Pre-interaction
72. What occupation requires extensive education that requires
special knowledge, skill, and preparation. Profession
73. The following pertains to Watson Theory of Human Care.
Caring allows access to higher human spirit; Caring is
healing
74. Which factors influencing communication process refers to
standards that influence behavior and personal point of view?
Values and perceptions
75. Knowing is one of the ingredients of Caring which refers to?
needs and how to respond
1. The use of conceptual models for collecting and organizing
assessment data ensures which of the following? Collection of
all necessary information for a thorough appraisal
2. The following are purposes of the nursing process.
to deliver specific nursing interventions to meet those needs;
to identify a client’s health status; to establish plans to meet
the identified needs
3. Which of the following behaviors is most representative of the
assessment phase of the nursing process? Organizing data in
the client’s family history
4. The nurse wishes to determine the client’s feelings about a
recent diagnosis. Which interview question is most likely to
elicit this information? “Tell me about your reactions to the
diagnosis.”
5. In the documenting activity of the assessing phase of the nursing
process, the nurse performs which of the following? Records
data in the client record
6. Which of the following characteristics of the nursing process
pertains to organizing the plan of care in accordance to the
client’s health problem? client centeredness
7. Which of the following is a TRUE statement about the nursing
process? if inadequate data are obtained during assessing,
the nursing diagnoses will be incomplete or incorrect
8. Which of the following elements is best categorized as primary
subjective data? Client states severe pain when walking up
stairs.
9. Which of the following is the purpose of assessing? Establish a
database of client responses to his or her health status.
10. Which of the following behaviors would indicate that the nurse
was utilizing the assessment phase of the nursing process to
provide nursing care? Reviews client’s history
1. One of the primary advantages of using a three-part diagnostic 14. It refers to a problem that exists at the moment. Actual nursing
statement such as the problem, etiology, signs and symptoms diagnosis
PES format includes which of the following? Actual diagnosis
can be documented 15. Which of the following nursing diagnoses contains the proper
components? Risk for falls related to tendency to collapse
2. Which of the following nursing diagnosis is correctly stated? when having difficulty breathing
Ineffective airway clearance related to accumulation of
secretions in lungs. 1. These are the guideline in writing nursing care plans?
Use category heading, with Date and signed, Use
3. Which of the following behaviors is most representative of the standardized/approved medical
nursing diagnosis phase of the nursing process? Identifying
major problems or needs 2. The nurse recognizes which of the following as a benefit of
using a standardized care plan? They have been approved by
4. It refers to a diagnosis that is associated with cluster of other accrediting agencies.
diagnosis. Syndrome Diagnosis
3. Planning is basically the nurse’s responsibility, in-put from the
5. The nurse is conducting the diagnosing phase or nursing client and support persons is not essential. False
diagnosis of the nursing process for a client with fever. Which
step exists between data analysis and formulating the diagnostic 4. Which of the following activities follows after setting priorities?
statement? Identify the client’s problems and strengths. Establish goals/outcomes.

6. Which of the following is the correct way in writing an actual 5. Standardized care plan are typically written in which format?
nursing diagnosis? Problem, etiology and signs and symptoms Problem and Goals/Desired Outcomes/Nursing Interventions

7. What particular nursing diagnosis focuses on well patients. 6. Which of the following activities starts the planning? Set
Wellness nursing diagnosis priorities.

8. Deficient Fluid Volume related to insufficient intake to replace 7.
fluid loss AEB sunken eyeballs and decreased blood pressure.
From this nursing diagnosis statement, determine the cause of
the response. Insufficient intake to replace fluid loss 8.
9. Which of the following nursing diagnoses statement using
variation of basic formats is correctly stated? Risk for Impaired 9.
skin integrity related to decreased peripheral circulation
secondary to diabetes.
The nurse plans the interview setting should consider which the
following? Provide privacy
In writing goals make sure that each goal is derived from only
one nursing diagnosis. True
The nurse recognizes which of the following as a benefit of
using a standardized care plan? They have been approved by
accrediting agencies.

10. In the diagnostic statement “Excess Fluid Volume related to 10. Which of the following is part of planning? Goal setting
decreased venous return as manifested by lower extremity
edema (swelling) presents a complete diagnostic statement.” 11. Which of the following plans is correctly stated? Gain 2 kg
True after two days.

11. All of the following are nursing diagnosis written in correct
manner. Ineffective breastfeeding related to breast
engorgement; Hyperthermia related to the presence of
pathogenic microorganisms in the body; Ineffective airway
clearance related to the presence of thick and tenacious
secretions AEB rales on the upper right lung lobe,
productive cough, tachypnea and labored breathing
12. Which of the following nursing diagnoses contains the proper
components? Risk for Caregiver Role Strain related to
unpredictable illness course
13. In the case in which a client is vulnerable to developing a health
problem, the nurse chooses which type of nursing diagnosis
status? A risk nursing diagnosis
12. Which of the following is likely to occur if the goal statement is
poorly written? There is no standard against which to
compare outcomes.
1. A dependent nursing intervention ___________. requires an
order from another health care provider
2. After drawing conclusions, the nurse modifies the care plan as
indicated she may write? goal met, problem resolved,
Discontinued
3. A number of uses for the NIS include: Clinical documentation,
Standardized communication regarding care, Research on
intervention effectiveness
4. A nurse deciding to counsel a patient on what to expect with a
new medication would be considered which type of nursing
intervention? Independent
5. A nursing intervention _____________. is an actual treatment
and/or action that is performed to help a patient reach the
health goals.
6. A supporting data are the statement “that the goal/desired
outcome was met, partially met, or not met.” False
7. During the evaluation stage, the nurse performs which of the
following? Assess outcomes for completion, Determine
progress toward goals completion, Revise nursing care plan
8. Evaluation Decisions made after Implementation of Nursing
Interventions/Actions: to continue the plan of are if more time
is needed to achieve the outcomes, to modify the plan of care
if there are difficulties achieving the outcomes, to terminate
plan of care when each expected outcome is achieved
9. Interventions are included for illness treatment includes the
following: fall prevention, exercise promotion, management
of hyperglycemia
10. In this stage, you determine if the patient has achieved the
expected outcomes. Evaluation
11. It refers to the evaluation of a client’s record after discharge
from an agency. retrospective audit
12. The primary purpose of the evaluating phase of the care
planning process is to determine whether: Desired outcomes
have been met.
13. This type of nursing interventions refers actions the nurse carries
out in collaboration with other health team members, such as
physical therapists, social workers, dietitians, and primary care
providers. Collaborative
14. When initiating the implementation phase of the nursing
process, the nurse performs which of the following phases last?
Documenting interventions
15. Which nursing intervention is considered an independent
intervention? Encouraging the postoperative client to
perform coughing and deep breathing exercises
16. Which of the following demonstrates appropriate use of
guidelines in implementing nursing interventions? Encourage
all clients to be as independent as desired or tolerated
17. Which of the following principles does the nurse use in selecting
interventions for the care plan? Actions should focus in
eliminating the etiology
18. Which of the following refers to the potential problem? stated
in the nursing diagnosis is being prevented, but the risk
factors are still present
19. Which of the following represents application of the components
of evaluating? After determining that the outcome was not
met, start over with a new nursing care plan.
20. Which refers to goal was met? the client response is the same
as the desired outcome.
1. Knowing is one of the ingredients of Caring which refers to?
needs and how to respond
2. The nurse sits with the client and holds the client's hands as his
pain decreases. This situation is an example of the following
caring practice: Nursing presence
3. Which of the following refers to a Team? a group of people
who collaborate on related tasks toward a common goal
4. Which of the following is a TRUE statement about the nursing
process? if inadequate data are obtained during assessing,
the nursing diagnoses will be incomplete or incorrect
5. Which of the following examples illustrates the principle of
knowing the client? The nurse listens as the client describes
how he has been caring for his diabetes at home.
6. The nurse is conducting the diagnosing phase or nursing
diagnosis of the nursing process for a client with fever. Which
step exists between data analysis and formulating the diagnostic
statement? Identify the client’s problems and strengths.
7. The nurse manager delivers their clinical care and serve as
administrative leaders by performing which of the following?
Mentor and coach nursing staff; Listen to concerns and
provide counsel; Represent and support their nursing staff
8. Which of the following would indicate that the nurse was
utilizing the assessment phase of the nursing process to provide
nursing care? know the patient’s lifestyle.
9. The nurse teaches a client with diabetes how to make decisions
about insulin management after discharge. This teaching most
clearly reflects which caring activity? Empowering the client
10. This record can be place at the bedside to facilitate the carrying
out of doctor’s order or specific measures and designed to be
discarded. Temporary record
11. The patient’s bill of rights can be exercised by the patient’s in
behalf by a proxy decision maker in which circumstances?
patient is minor
12. The patient has the right to review the records pertaining to
his/her medical care. True

13. Which of the following are discussed with the client, when
securing the informed consent? benefits and risks of
treatment, complete information about the procedure,
alternatives to the treatment
14. Man is an individual with vital reparative process, this concept
was coined by? Florence Nightingale
15. Which of the following elements is best categorized as primary
subjective data? Client states severe pain when walking up
stairs.
16. Which of the following questions is the best example of the
therapeutic communication technique of offering self? I am
here to listen
17. The Philippine Nursing Law of 2012 is mandated by which of
the following? RA 9173
18. During the introduction phase of the nurse interview with the
patients upon the beginning of the shift, the most important
initial step to take is which of the following? Introduce
yourself to the patient.
19. Misconduct or practice that is below the standard expected of
ordinary, reasonable and prudent person. Negligence
20. According to Maslow, the following are true about a self-
actualized person? Follows the decision of the majority,
uphold justice and truth
21. When 2 parties discuss and agree orally or in writing the terms
and conditions during the creation of the contract. Expressed
22. This is intended to make the client concerns and strength focus
of care. FDAR
23. Nurse managers lead the care efforts on their units. True
24. An Oral, written or computer-based communication intended to
convey information to others is an example of? Report
25. When an ethical issue arises, one of the most important nursing
responsibilities in managing client care situations is which of the
following? Remain neutral and detached when making
ethical decisions.
26. During assessment the nurse wishes to confirm her tentative
nursing diagnosis from the urinalysis, fecalysis, complete blood
count and x-ray result of the patient. The nurse is aware that she
can find these data in which of the following sources of
secondary of data? Laboratory records
27. Health promotion is best represented by which of the following
activities? Preventing accidents in the home
28. In the Health Belief Model, the nurse recognizes that the focus is
placed on the: Relation of perceptions and compliance
therapy
29. Which of the following refers to the underlying principles
beneficence? doing good
30. Which of the following is the purpose of assessing? Establish a
database of client responses to his or her health status.
31. Which of the following elements is best categorized as objective
data? blood pressure is recorded 150/100 mmhg
32. She is the first nursing's first scientist-theorist for her work on
Nursing: What It is, and What It Is Not (1860/1969). Florence
Nightingale
33. A nurse is showing a patient how to use crutches at home and
instructing his mother about how to change his bandages. At this
time, the nurse is primarily acting as: Teacher
34. An important first step in ethical decision making is to
determine whether a moral situation exists. The following
criteria may be used EXCEPT: Moral principles or
frameworks exist that can be used to provide some
justification for the action; difficult choice exists between
actions that conflict with the needs of one or more persons;
The choice is guided by a process of weighing reasons.
35. Which of the following elements is best categorized as
secondary subjective data? Spouse states that the patient has
an upper abdominal pain and vomiting.
36. The following are purposes of the nursing process: to deliver
specific nursing interventions to meet those needs; to identify
a client’s health status; to establish plans to meet the
identified needs
37. One that has not been explicitly agreed to by the parties, but that
the law considers to exist. Implied
38. The patient Bill of Rights includes right to information regarding
diagnosis, treatment, and prognosis. True
39. Failure of a nurse to provide care that a reasonable person would
ordinarily use in a similar circumstance. Negligence
40. Which is NOT an objective of CPD? To develop positive
attitudes; to meet the challenge of changes in technology; to
keep up-to-date to new concept
41. Facilitates understanding and collaboration of nursing actions
with their clients and other member of the health care team.
Communicator
42. Provides care and comfort for person together with preserving
the dignity of human being. Caregiver
43. The nurse wishes to determine the patient's feelings about a
recent diagnosis. Which interview question is most likely to
elicit this information? "Tell me about your reactions to the
diagnosis."
44. Any written legal record of all pertinent interactions with the
patient in the course of nursing process. Documentation
45. Requires advanced educational or nursing practice who can
assess, diagnose interpret medical tests. Nurse Practitioner
46. One of the general rule for charting is the written signature of
the nurse should consist of her initial of first name and fill the
last name. True
47. Which charting entries is or are written accurately? with 3 cm
bruises at the right hand
48. Which of the following is an example of Subjective data?
symptoms & covert
49. Nurse Hane, an Emergency Room Nurse is conducting her
assessment to a client rushed in the hospital after a 16-year-old
male client who met a vehicular accident. She notes that the
client is under the influence of alcohol. The client also manifests
the signs and symptoms of internal bleeding, vital signs are T 36
C, PR 54bpm, RR 10cpm and BP 90/50. Nurse Ailuz is aware
that Nurse Hane is conducting: Initial Assessment
50. Continuing professional development (CPD) is described
internationally by a variety of terms these include? life-long
learning; professional skills development; continuing
nursing education
51. It refers to the state of being a partner & an association of two or
more people as partner. Partnership
52. It is a type of assessment in which the nurse performs within
specified time after admission to a hospital and the purpose is to
establish a complete database for problem identification,
reference and future comparison. Initial Assessment
53. Which of the following is an example of a primary prevention?
Pneumococcal vaccine given to senior citizens to prevent
Pneumonia
54. In the decision-making process, the nurse sets and weights the
criteria, examines alternatives and performs which of the
following before implementing the plan? Determines the
logical course of action should intervening problems arise
55. Continuing Professional Development (CPD) is the term used to
describe the learning activities professionals engage in to
develop and enhance their abilities. True
56. Integrity is one of the essential values of nurses which refers to
acting in accordance with an appropriate code of ethics and
accepted standards of practice. True
57. Self-awareness pertains to relationship between one’s perception
of oneself & others perception of oneself. True
58. Leaders were identified by their acts and accomplishments. This
refers to which theory? Great Man Theory
59. A patient reports feeling hungry but does not eat when food is
served. Using critical thinking skills, the nurse should perform
which of the following? Assess why the patient is not
ingesting the food provided.
60. This model represents the Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs in
which health is actualization or realization of person’s potential.
Eudaimonistic Model
61. Voluntary practice of validating that an individual nurse has met
minimum standards of nursing competence in specialty areas
such as maternal- child health, pediatrics, mental health,
gerontology, and school nursing. Certification
62. A consolidate patient orders and care needs in a centralized,
concise way. Kardex
63. A documentation system/ style of which the Information about a
particular problem is distributed throughout the record. Source
Oriented record
64. The Process of making an entry on a client record is? Recording
65. A legal role of a nurse that is expected to provide safe and
competent care so that harm (physical, psychologic or material)
to the recipient of the service is prevented. Provider of service
66. Nurse Malou saw her patient holding her right lower quadrant of
abdomen. Which of the following should Malou document as
her assessment: 9:00 a.m Seen patient holding her RLQ.
67. Which moral principle provides the basis for the nurse’s actions
to ensure that they remain faithful to agreements and promises?
Fidelity
68. Flow chart like vital signs, progress notes are example of
frequent or ongoing assessment. True
69. Which one of the following is an example of the emotional
component of wellness? A client expresses frustration with
her partner's substance abuse.
70. Nurse Kate is collecting data from the patient upon admission.
The patient told the nurse during an interview, “My vision
becomes hazy and cloudy whenever I stoop.” This data is:
Primary subjective data
71. The process of influencing helps the client in making decisions
to establish and achieve their goals towards alleviating their
conditions. Leader
72. Which of the following behaviors would indicate that the nurse
was utilizing the assessment phase of the nursing process to
provide nursing care? Review results of laboratory tests
73. Which of the following is true regarding the Patient's Bill of
Rights? The patient also has the right to know the immediate
and long- term financial implications of treatment choices, in
so far as they are known.
74. Is the process of determining and maintaining competence in
nursing practice. Credentialing
75. The Illlness-Wellness/Health Continuum is an excellent resource
for nurses who want to: Educate their patients about their
overall health now and where it has the potential to go in the
future.
76. Which of the following is the least priority in addressing patients
need after thorough assessment? A client who show
independence after home plan is given
77. This patient care model works best when there are plenty of
patient but few nurses. Functional nursing
78. Informed consent is an agreement by a nurse to administer a
course of treatment or a procedure. False
79. Unforeseen or inevitable event, irresistible force. This pertains
to? Force Majeure
80. A documentation system/ style intended to make the client and
client concerns and strength focus of care. Focus Charting
81. Any written legal record of all pertinent interactions with the
patient in the course of nursing process. Documentation
82. Which of the following is an important element of the informed
consent? The consent must be given voluntarily.
83. The daughter said, my mother always feels hungry and thirsty.
The data collected is: Secondary subjective data
84. A patient experienced a myocardial infarction four weeks ago
and is currently participating in the daily cardiac rehabilitation
sessions at the local fitness center. In what level of prevention is
the patient participating? Tertiary Prevention
85. Which of the following is an example of Objective data? Overt
data
86. Which of the following nursing diagnoses contains the proper
components? Risk for Caregiver Role Strain related to
unpredictable illness course
87. These are factors affecting the Health Care Delivery System."
Access to Health Insurance, Advances in Technology,
Increasing Number of Elderly
88. Which of the following would indicate that the nurse was
utilizing the assessment phase of the nursing process to provide
nursing care? Reviews physical examination
89. Is a legal permit that a government agency grants to individuals
to engage in the practice of a profession and to use a particular
title. License
90. An oral informal oral consideration of a subject by 2 or more
healthcare personnel to identify a problem or establish strategies
to resolve a problem. Discussion
91. The Kardex, NCP, Incident Reports and discharge Summary
records are considered examples of record keeping forms? True
92. Defends the client's right to be treated equally without any harm
intentionally or unintentionally. Client Advocate
93. Which of the following behaviors is most representative of the
nursing diagnosis phase of the nursing process? Identifying
major problems or needs
94. Let the master answer, command responsibility. This refers to?
Respondeat superior
95. Which of the following behaviors would indicate that the nurse
was utilizing the assessment phase of the nursing process to
provide nursing care? Reviews client’s history
96. What do you have to fill up when an event transpired is not
consistent with routine operation of a health care unit? Incident
report
97. Who claims that his or her legal rights have been infringed on by
one or more other persons or entities. Plaintiff
98. Which professional organization developed a code for nursing
students? NSNA (National Student Nurses' Association)
99. Rule of conduct commanding what is right and what is wrong.
Law
100. The bill of rights of patients includes the following: right to
have advance directives, right to privacy and confidentiality,
right to considerate and respectful care
NCM 103 LAB (FUNDA LAB) 10. After you have thoroughly washed and rinsed the hands, the
1. One of the presenting symptom of systemic infection is fever. next step to do is? Thoroughly dry hands
True
1. Heat causes blood vessels to Dilate
2. All infectious diseases are contagious. False
2. The following are important points in the application of hot
3. In the chain of infection, susceptible host refers to any water bag: Wrap the bag in a towel and place it on the
individual sick or well. True affected part, Hold the bag upside down to test for leakage,
Expel the remaining air and secure the top
4. Indirect contact refers to touching a non-contaminated object.
False 3. The following equipments are used for heat application:
Aquathermia, Electric pads, Hot water bag
5. Clean technique refers to the decrease in the possibility of
transferring microorganisms. False 4. The temperature for tepid sponge bath is 27-37 degrees
centigrade
6. Medical asepsis includes all practices intended to eradicate a
specific microorganism. False 5. Which is not included in the care to patients for sitz bath? Leave
each area wet and cover with damp towel
7. One vehicle of airborne diseases can be dust. True
6. Which is the effect of cold application? Vasoconstriction,
8. Convalescense period is also called a non-recovery period. Decrease pain, Muscle relaxation
False
7. Which of the following is not a local effect of heat? Decrease
9. Infection is a disease state resulting from an etiologic agent. the removal of waste, reduces blood flow to affected area,
True Lowers the temperature of the skin

10. Bacteria can be transported through fomites. True 8. Variables affecting physiologic tolerance to heat and cold:
individual tolerance and length of exposure, Size of the
1. Which of the following terms refers to the freedom from exposed body part and open wound, Body part and
microorganisms? Asepsis intactness of the skin

2. When breaking the chain of infection which of the following is 9. Rebound phenomena occurs when heat produces a maximum
true? every link in the chain of infection can be interrupted vasodilation beyond: 30 to 45 mins

3. During preparation before washing, that following are 10. Local effect of cold includes: Vasoconstriction
observed: Determine location of running water, Determine
client presence of signs and symptoms of infection, Assess 11. A client position that is back lying position with knees flexed
hands and hips externally rotated. Dorsal recumbent

4. In medical handwashing, the hands are held in what position? 12. A patient complains of difficulty of breathing should be placed
hold hands lower than the elbow in which of the following position. Semi fowlers

5. Which of the following is the correct rationale of using warm
water during handwashing? Warm water removes less of the
protective oil than hot water
6. The following are purposes of handwashing: To reduce the
risk of cross contamination among clients, To reduce the
risk of transmission of microorganism
7. The feces, urine, blood and other exudates are: Vehicles of
transmission for infectious agent
8. Which of these are factors in the chain of infection? Portal of
exit, Portal of entry, Reservoir
13. It is the point at which all the body mass is centered. Center of
gravity
14. What is the desired position for patient for enema? Sims
15. Which of the following statement is true? Balance is
maintained when the line of gravity falls close to the base of
support
16. Which of the following are the purposes of unoccupied bed: to
provide smooth, wrinkle free bed; To provide clean and neat
environment; To promote clients comfort

9. The first line of defense against disease is: an intact skin 17. Which of the following principles of body mechanics are applied
in bed making? A person is more stable if the center of
 gravity is close to the base of support; Smooth, rhythmical
movement at moderate speed require less energy; Face in the
direction of the task to be performed
18. Purpose of occupied bed: To provide clean and neat
environment; To provide smooth, wrinkle free bed; To
promote clients comfort
19. It is an accessory of the bed use to support clients foot in a
normal right angle to the legs to prevent plantar flexion. Foot
board
20. A nurse was asked to perform occupied bedmaking. Which of
the following actions must she perform first? Assess the
patient’s ability to moved and be repositioned
1. When completing and duplicating the records during transfer,
you need to do the following except? Endorse the chart to any
member of the health team
2. Documentation is important during? Discharge, Admission,
Transfer
3. Which of the following responsibilities of the nurse during
admission is considered to be the most important? Conducting
brief general assessment
4. Which of the following would be the best intervention when the
patient shows anxiety during transfer? Allowing the patient to
verbalize his feelings and reasons of anxiety
5. The perception of the patient's chief complain can be assess
through? History Taking
6. Which of the following condition suggests that the patient is not
yet ready to be discharged? Patient's V/S result as follows:
RR=18bpm, Temp= 38.7 C, PR= 78
7. Reviewing the doctor's order during admission is important
because? It provides reason for admission, It provides plan of
medical care, It provides information about the patient's
condition
8. Discharge is completed by which of the following activity?
Completion of business function/ Hospital bill
9. During admission, who can be the primary source of
information? Patient
1. Student Nurse Madonna is about to remove used sterile gloves.
She has understood the lesson when she does which of the
following steps? Pull off the first glove by grasping slightly
back from the wrist, turning it inside out, and striding the
dirty glove into the still gloved hand.
2. ROM should be performed? Twice a day
3. Adduction: Toward the center of the body
4. All of the following are TRUE in providing ROM exercise,
EXCEPT? It promotes deterioration of joint capsules,
ankylosis and contracture
5. In providing passive range of motion exercise, the nurse must
perform the following, EXCEPT? Support the client’s limb on
the affected joint
6. Student Nurse Madonna performs donning of gloves. While
performing the procedure, her clinical instructor’s teaching is
indeed successful when she states which of the following
statements regarding the outer boarder of the paper wrapper that
holds the sterile gloves? Is not sterile 1 inch all the way
around.
7. The effects of the hospital physical environment on the healing
process and well-being have proven to be increasingly relevant
for patients and their families. Efficient Bed making is no
exemption to this. Nurse Maria can provide physical and
psychological comfort in which nursing intervention? Providing
clean, fresh and neat bed linens.
8. The following are principles of surgical asepsis, EXCEPT?
Supplies remain sterile even opened for prolong period as
long as it does not touch unsterile items
9. Student Nurse Clarissa is tasked to perform bedmaking at Room
6 of the Medical Ward. She performs all the following steps in
stripping the bed, EXCEPT: Rolling all soiled linen inside the
bottom sheet, hold it away from her uniform, and placing
them directly on the floor.
10. In changing the bottom sheet and draw sheet in occupied bed,
the first thing to do is? Assist the client to turn on the side
facing away from the side where the clean linen is
11. What is the reason for raising the side rails? It is to prevent the
patient from falling
12. To doff (remove) used sterile gloves the nurse should: Pull off
the first glove by grasping slightly back from the wrist,
turning it inside out, and wading the dirty glove into the still
gloved hand.
13. A toe pleat which has a fold in the sheet 5 to 10 cm
perpendicular to the foot of the bed is? Vertical toe pleat
14. In adding or pouring liquid in the sterile area, the following must
be kept in mind, EXCEPT: Hold the bottle in slight angle so
the label is under, to avoid spilling
15. Which is NOT included in the purpose of the bedmaking? It
does not save energy
16. Which of the following is the purpose of changing an occupied
bed? To provide clean, neat environment for the client; To
promote client comfort; To conserve client’s energy
17. All of the following are observed in providing passive ROM,
EXCEPT: If patient complains of minimal joint pain upon
movement, activity should be discontinued
18. When opening package of sterile gloves, it is important to place
the package of gloves on a clean, dry surface because. Any
moisture on the surface could contaminate the gloves.
19. After choosing the correct size of gloves, Student Nurse
Madonna knows that the first thing that she must do in donning
sterile gloves is: Wash hand with soap and water using good
hand-washing technique.
20. What are the purposes of ROM, except: Prevent bad breath
21. Before introducing an object to a sterile field, Nurse Quinn
should do the following, EXCEPT: Immediately open the
package and hand over to the scrub nurse.
22. When opening a sterile package, the last flap to be opened
should be closest to you.
23. Hands should be lower than the elbows so that the water flows
from the arms to the fingertips since Elbows are less
contaminated than the fingers.
24. Immersion of inanimate object in a disinfectant solution with
resulting destruction of all testable microorganisms except
spores is? Chemical disinfection
25. Which is NOT a key aspect of sterile technique? All articles
used in a procedure have not been sterilized.
26. Which areas of a surgical gown are considered sterile? The
front from the chest to the level of the surgical field.
27. The first line of defense of the body is? Intact skin and mucous
membranes
28. Bedmaking is normally recorded? False
29. Before he places the contents of the sterile package on the sterile
field, Student Nurse Carlo measures the distance of the package
above or from the field which is about: 2.5 cm.
30. The rationale of turning on the water and adjusting the flow
when preparing for handwashing is to? To check the
temperature and pressure of the water.
31. Bedmaking are always done before bed bathing. False
32. All of the following are correct: Sterile person turns his back
to an unsterile area when passing it; If in doubt about
sterility of anything, consider it not sterile; Sterile persons
must avoid leaning over unsterile areas.
33. After thoroughly had washed and rinsed the hands, you must?
Thoroughly dry hands
34. The following areas are considered sterile, EXCEPT: The upper
back part of the gown
35. Supination: To turn upward
36. In occupied bedmaking, the rationale in fan folding the draw
sheet and bottom sheet at the center of the bed as close to and
under the client as possible is: Leaves the near half of the bed
free to be changed
37. What movement is used when rubbing the elbows down the
wrist? Circular
38. Which action performed by Nurse Maria during unoccupied bed
making prevents stretching, reaching and possible muscle strain?
Using good body movement and making each step
purposeful.
39. Pointing the toes of each foot upward is called? Dorsiflexion
40. In using sterile forceps, when handling sterile items, you must
always do the following, EXCEPT? Always position handle at
the edge of the field
41. Moving the bones of the forearm so that the palm of the hand
face upward when held in front of the body is called?
Supination
42. What is the 8th step in performing occupied bedmaking? Ensure
continued safety of the client.
43. Which of the following is NOT an example of hyperextension
range of motion exercises? Move each leg forward and
upward
44. Which of the following is considered as unsterile? Used sterile
gloves in the sterile table
45. Which of the following would require the nurse to put on a new
pair of sterile gloves? Grasping the patients gown to move it
out of the way
46. The first step in donning sterile gloves, after choosing the
correct size is: Wash hand with soap and water using good
hand-washing technique.
47. After choosing the correct size of gloves, Student Nurse
Madonna knows that the first thing that she must do in donning
sterile gloves is: Wash hand with soap and water using good
hand-washing technique.
48. Assessment of the hands before handwashing includes. Check
hands for breaks in the skin; Nails should be kept short;
Remove all jewelry
49. The outer boarder of the paper wrapper that holds the sterile
gloves: Is not sterile 1 inch all the way around.
50. A sterile field includes which of the following? Working areas
and equipment covered with sterile drapes and drape
accessories; The site surrounding an incision of tissue
perforation; Personnel in sterile attire.
51. Cross-contamination is a major concern for anyone working in a
hospital or clinical setting. This includes doctors and nurses as
well as other hospital staff. There are plenty of opportunities for
cross-contamination to occur. Most of these opportunities may
be expected, but there are some opportunities that all health care
professionals should be aware of that may not be as obvious.
Which of the following actions by staff nurses in the ward that
can best contribute to cross-contamination? Nurse Sheila
shakes dirty linen at times to check patient’s belongings.
52. Patients who are confined to bed should be provided with which
accessory device to help prevent foot drop? Foot board
53. It is the movement of the bone around its central axis. This
refers to? Rotation
54. Physical Examination of the joints involves the following,
EXCEPT? Percussion
55. When opening the outer package of sterile gloves, the nurse
should? Remove the inner package from the outer package;
open the outer package without contaminating the gloves or,
avoid contaminating the inner package.
56. Never exercise or stretch joint to the point of pain. True
57. You assessed that the patient needs special mattress like
eggcrate, with regards to her condition, what is the reason
behind? To reduce or prevent ulcerations or pressure sores
58. The following are purposes of handwashing, EXCEPT? To
reduce the number of microorganisms in the body
59. Bed making is usually delegated? True
60. What is the second step in performing bedmaking in an occupied
bed? Perform hand hygiene
61. While placing sterile supplies on a sterile field. The nurse notes
that the sterile towel is wet. The nurse Knows that her supplies
would be contaminated because the towel is wet.
62. Which of the following is the correct rationale of using warm
water during handwashing? Warm water removes less of the
protective oil than hot water
63. Patient can do own ROM: Active ROM
64. The following are done during preparation of sterile field,
EXCEPT: Reach over the field to get the needed packed
items
65. The nurse put on the first glove, observing which of the
following first? grasp the glove for the dominant hand by its
folded cuff edge (on the palmar side)
66. What is the 4th step in bedmaking? Remove the top bedding
67. Which is NOT included in the assessment when changing linen
in an occupied bed? To identify specific gown to be used
68. After using gloves contaminated with body secretions, the
proper way to dispose it is: Dispose the gloves to the yellow-
colored trash bins
69. Which of the following situation is the inappropriate use of
gloves? Changing the patient’s linen with a new one
70. It is an exercise wherein the clients move each joint in the body
through its complete ROM. This pertains to? Active ROM
71. The nurse should put the second glove on the dominant hand.
False
72. In draping a table, the nurse drapes from ________ to _______
protecting her gloves ________. Front, back, by cuffing drape
edge.
73. Madonna is a freshman nursing student and she has just seen the
video demonstration of her clinical instructors on proper
gloving. During her guided practice, she was asked about when
to use sterile gloves. Madonna needs additional instruction when
she states which of the following procedures? Changing bed
linens.
74. Which is NOT considered part of a sterile field? Glove of sterile
person who has folded his arms.
75. Rubbing hands together generating friction on all surfaces of the
hands and fingers, including thumbs, backs of fingers, backs of
the hands, and beneath the fingernails will take how many
seconds? 10- 15 seconds
76. In medical handwashing, the hands are held in what position?
hold hands lower than the elbow
77. While wearing sterile gloves, the nurse must keep the hands
above their own waist level at all times. True
78. Student Nurse Carlo will open a wrapped package on a surface.
He needs additional guided practice when he performs which of
the following actions? Reaching over the package and
 pinching the first flap on the outside of the wrapper between
the thumb and index fingers.
79. During the preparation before washing, that following are
performed EXCEPT? Introduce yourself
1. A 16-year-old client was recently diagnosed with
Chromhidrosis. What type of cleansing bath is most appropriate
for the client? Shower
2. During logrolling a client, it is important to place a pillow after
turning the client's head as a support. What is the rationale for
this? To prevent lateral flexion of the neck.
3. The following are purposes of bathing except: To remove
transient microorganisms, body secretions and excretions,
and dead skin cells.
4. To be healthy, hair needs to be brushed daily. Which of the
following statement about hair care is incorrect? A brush with
fine bristles provides the best stimulation to blood
circulation in the scalp.
5. Which is true regarding mitered corner? It is a means of
anchoring sheets or linens on mattresses.
6. When moving or transferring a client, the nurse must tighten her
gluteal, abdominal, and arm muscles to? To prepare them for
action and prevent injury.
7. In washing the back and the perineum of the patient, what
position will the client assume? Side-lying position
8. Before changing an unoccupied bed, it is important to assess the
patient's EXCEPT: Past and family history of diseases
9. When moving or transferring a client, the nurse faces in the
direction of the movement to? To prevent twisting the spine.
10. What is the technique used to turn a client in unison and whose
body must at all times be kept in straight alignment and moved
in unison? Logrolling.
11. The purpose of bedmaking is: To prevent complications by
ensuring comfort and security to the patient; To provide
active and passive exercise to the patient.
12. Before he places the contents of the sterile package on the sterile
field, Student Nurse Carlo measures the distance of the package
above or from the field which is about: 2.5 cm.
13. Nurse Zaiarah teaches a patient about pursed lip breathing. The
nurse identifies that the teaching is affected when the patient
says its purpose is to: Help maintain open airways.
14. Nurse keasha will perform perineal care to a 55-year-old
comatose patient. What principle should she follow? Clean
from the genital area then move to the buttocks.
15. When breaking the chain of infection, the following are true,
EXCEPT? Mode of entry of harmful organism is through
direct contact by sneezing and coughing.
16. In performing perineal care to an uncircumcised patient, Nurse
Timothy retracts the prepuce to expose the glans penis for
cleaning. Unrestricted foreskin is a condition called? Phimosis
17. Which of the following is the FIRST priority in preventing
infections when providing care for a client? Handwashing.
18. It is an exercise wherein the clients move each joint in the body
through its complete ROM. This pertains to? Active ROM
19. The following are TRUE in preparing heat application using a
hot bag therapy except? Place the stopper tightly and
immediately on the affected area.
20. The client is ambulating for the first time after surgery. The
client tells the nurse, "I feel faint." Which is the best action of
the nurse? Assist the client to a nearby chair.
21. In cleaning between the buttocks during perineal care, Nurse
Amanda does all of the following except? Apply a perineal pad
as needed from front to back for post-delivery or
menstruating females.
22. About how many inches is the walker moved ahead while body
weight is borne by both legs and when maximum support is
required? 6 inches
23. Which action performed by Nurse Maria during unoccupied bed
making prevents stretching, reaching and possible muscle strain?
Using good body movement and making each step
purposeful.
24. When assessing a client's gait, which does the nurse look for and
encourage? The spine rotates, initiating locomotion.
25. Bad breath is most often caused by a buildup of bacteria in the
mouth from gum disease, food, or plaque. Bad breath is
medically known as? Halitosis.
26. What is the rationale behind this concept "Roll all soiled linen
inside the bottom sheet, hold it away from your uniform and
place it directly in the linen hamper, not on the floor.?" To
prevent cross-contamination of microorganisms.
27. If the wound is caused by a sharp pointed object, it is called?
Puncture wound
28. Bathing is an important part of hygienic care as it removes
accumulated oil, perspiration, dead skin cells, and transient
bacteria. Which of the following statement about bathing is
incorrect? Excessive bathing can interfere with the intended
lubricating effect of the sebum, causing dryness of the skin.
This is an important consideration, especially for infants,
who produce less sebum.
29. The nurse is performing an immobilized client. Which
assessment causes the nurse to take action? Reddened area on
sacrum.
30. Which of the following is correct in doing perineal care to a
male patient? For a circumcised male: Clean area using
downward stroke beginning at the tip of the penis and
moving toward the anus.
31. In changing the bottom sheet and draw sheet in occupied bed,
the first thing to do is? Assist the client to turn on the side
facing away from the side where the clean linen is.
32. About how many inches are added from the anterior fold of the
axilla to the heel of the foot when measuring crutch length of a
client lying in a supine position? 1 inch
33. All of the following are correct: If in doubt about sterility of
anything, consider it not sterile; Sterile persons must avoid
leaning over unsterile areas; Sterile person turns his back to
an unsterile area when passing it.
34. Which of the following is an incorrect intervention in bathing
the patient? If the bed linen is to be changed place it on the
floor.
35. About how many degrees should the angle of elbow flexion be,
when determining the correct placement of the hand bar? 30
36. Which of the following is NOT an example of hyperextension
range of motion exercises? Move each leg forward and
upward.
37. Which of the following is a true statement? Female urethra is
shorter (4 cm) compared to male urethra (20cm).
38. In bathing the patients, it is recommended that we use warm
water. What is the rationale behind this practice? It prevents
burn injury to the patient; It stimulates better blood
circulation; It helps in relaxing the patient.
39. It is the movement of the bone around its central axis. This
refers to? Rotation
40. When moving the client to a sitting position, the nurse pivots on
the balls of the feet in the desired direction and face the foot of
the bed to? To prevent twisting her spine.
41. All of the following are done during admission, transfer and
discharge: Assessment of vital signs; Documentation.
42. It involves an immediate and direct transfer of microorganisms
from a person to person through touching, coughing, biting and
kissing? Direct transmission
43. Nurse Mica will perform perineal care to a patient in the ward.
She will correctly position the patient to? Side-lying.
44. Which of the following statement is true? Balance is
maintained when the line of gravity falls close to the base of
support.
45. When moving or transferring a client, the nurse must pull or roll
the client toward her to the lateral position and after which must
place her hands far on which two of the heaviest parts of the
body? Hip and shoulders.
46. Nurse Ana is shampooing a client's hair while the client is in
bed. Which intervention should she make to reduce back strain
while performing the procedure? Raise the bed to elbow
height.
47. What is the correct distance in positioning the tip of a standard
cane, to the side and in front of the near foot so that the elbow is
slightly flexed? 6 inches
48. When positioning clients in bed, the nurse can do a number of
things to ensure proper alignment and promote client comfort
and safety: Place support devices in specified areas according
to the client's position; Avoid placing one body part,
particularly one with bony prominences, directly on top of
another body part; Ensure that the bed is clean and dry.
49. When moving or transferring a client, the nurse must lean her
trunk forward, and flex her hips, knees, and ankles to? To lower
her center of gravity and increase her stability.
50. This type of wound is caused by rubbing of the skin surface on
rough surface. Abrasion
51. The nurse put on the first glove, observing which of the
following first? Grasp the glove for the dominant hand by its
folded cuff edge (on the palmar side).
52. It is important that nurse should not lift more than 35 pounds
without assistance from proper equipment and or other
individuals. True
53. In hand washing, what movement is used when rubbing the
elbows down the wrist? Circular
54. These are the guidelines in transferring patient: Plan what to do
and how to do it; Remove obstacles from the area used for
 the transfer; During the transfer, explain step by step what
the client should do.
55. Patients who are confined to bed should be provided with which
accessory device to help prevent foot drop? Foot board
56. Which comes first in changing an unoccupied bed? Place the
fresh linen on the client's chair or overbed table; do not use
another client's bed.
57. In male clients, beard and mustache care is included in hygienic
care for the hair. Which statement about using a safety razor to
shave facial hair is correct? Wear gloves.
58. Student Nurse Madonna is about to remove used sterile gloves.
She has understood the lesson when she does which of the
following steps? Pull off the first glove by grasping slightly
back from the wrist, turning it inside out, and striding the
dirty glove into the still gloved hand.
59. All of the following are purposes of perineal care: It keeps the
perineal area clean and less likely to breakdown; To prevent
infections, skin breakdown, itching and odor.
60. The following are standards in airborne precaution: Susceptible
people should not enter the room who has a client who has
measles; Wear a N95 when entering the room; Limit
movement of client outside the room to essential purposes
61. This refers to reduced oxygen in the blood and is characterized
by a low partial pressure of oxygen in the arterial blood.
Hypoxemia
62. When moving or transferring a client, the nurse must rock from
the front leg to the back leg when pulling or from the back leg to
the front leg when pushing to? To overcome inertia and
counteract weight of the patient.
63. Which mobility aid transfers weight from the legs to the upper
body and is often used by people who cannot use their legs to
support their weight, for reasons ranging from short-term
injuries to lifelong disabilities? Crutch
64. When opening a sterile package, the last flap to be opened
should be Closest to you.
65. The following are true statement about perineal care: Wash the
groin from front to back; It should be done at least once a
day during bed bath or done more when patient has
incontinence; Always use new section of cloth in every
stroke.
66. When turning the client to the prone position, the nurse never
pulls the client across the bed because doing so may? Injure the
breasts of the woman or the genitalia of the male.
67. Ticks are small gray-brown parasites that bite into tissue and
suck blood. Which of the following is a correct practice to hair
infested with ticks? Save the tick in a bottle of rubbing
alcohol.
68. When moving or transferring a client, the nurse assumes a broad
stance to? To widen base support and increase stability.
69. All of the following are TRUE in providing ROM exercises: It
helps immobilized client to maintain cardiorespiratory
function; It involves isotonic exercise; It maintain or
increase muscle strength and endurance.
70. ROM exercises should be performed? Twice a day.
71. Which of the following principles of body mechanics are applied
in bed making? Person is more stable if the center of gravity
is close to the base of support; Face in the direction of the
task to be performed; Smooth, rhythmical movement at
moderate speed
72. Therapeutic baths are given for physical effects, such as to
soothe irritated skin or to treat an area. Different types of
therapeutic baths are used for different skin conditions. Which
of the following statement about therapeutic bath is correct?
Chlorine bleach can be added to bath water for children who
develop recurrent skin infections with eczema.
73. In adding or pouring liquid in the sterile area, the following must
be kept in mind: Obtain the exact amount of liquid if possible;
Before pouring read the label three times; Hold the bottle at
height 4 to 6 inches above the bowl.
74. Always push a stretcher from the end where the client's head is
positioned. This position will protect the client's head during
collision. True
75. In the stages of infection, the time from the exposure of the
patient to a pathogen up to the appearance of the first sign and
symptom is called? Incubation period
76. Student Nurse Clarissa is tasked to perform bedmaking at Room
6 of the Medical Ward. She performs all the following steps in
stripping the bed, EXCEPT: Rolling all soiled linen inside the
bottom sheet, hold it away from her uniform, and placing
them directly on the floor.
77. It is the efficient, coordinated, and safe use of the body to move
objects and carry out the activities of daily living. Body
Mechanics
78. In using sterile forceps, when handling sterile items, you must
always do the following, EXCEPT? Always position handle at
the edge of the field.
79. Before moving up a client in bed, it is important to assess the
following EXCEPT: Client's present and past medical
history.
80. After using gloves contaminated with body secretions, the
proper way to dispose it is: Dispose the gloves to the yellow-
colored trash bins.
81. About how many inches is the right crutch moved ahead to a
suitable distance, when using four-point gait? 4 to 6
82. In cleaning the eyes of the patient, what is the proper way of
doing it? Start from the inner canthus to outer canthus.
83. Which among these weight measurements is considered as
already dependent thus requires assistance from other health
care personnel? 35 pounds
84. Before performing perineal care, Nurse Mica prepares all the
equipment needed like a bath basin with warm water. She is also
aware that that the correct temperature of the water to be used
for the perineal is care is? 43 to 46 C.
85. During transferring the patient between bed and chair, what is
the rationale behind this concept, "Move forward and sit on the
edge of the bed with feet placed flat on the floor?" To bring the
client's center of gravity closer to the nurse's.
86. Which areas of a surgical gown are considered sterile? The
front from the chest to the level of the surgical field.
87. In washing the perineal-genital area of the patient, Nurse Mica
does all of the following except? Wipe from the rectum to the
pubis.
ANAPHY
1. Which of these is NOT one of the large veins carrying blood to
the heart? Pulmonary vein
2. The gallbladder: stores bile.
3. Skeletal joint in the different part of the body like shoulder, hip,
knee and elbow is an example of what type of joints?
Cartilaginous
4. Which of these statements concerning the normal pathway of
blood flow? from the coronary sinus to the right atrium,
from the pulmonary arteries to the lungs, from the aorta to
all parts of body except lungs
5. Pleural fluid: is located in the space between the parietal and
visceral pleurae; acts as a lubricant allowing the pleurae to
slide past each other; increases surface tension.
6. Which of these statements concerning the upper limb is TRUE?
The hand is composed of 5 metacarpals.
7. The nodes of Ranvier: Allow salutatory conduction of action
potential; Increase the conduction velocity of an action
potential; Allow action potential to develop
8. The bones of the skull are joint by what? Sutures
9. The portion of the digestive tract in which digestion begins is the
Oral cavity
10. The deep groove that separates the right and left cerebral
hemispheres from each other is the: Longitudinal fissure
11. This is located in the upper thorax posterior to the sternum
which is large in infants and children decreases size throughout
adulthood. Thymus
12. Which of these movements would be needed to bend over and
touch your big toe? Both "Extension of forearms" and
"Flexion at the wrist"
13. The part of the brainstem that regulates heart rate, breathing,
swallowing, coughing, and sneezing is: Medulla Oblongata
14. Which portion of the renal tubule reabsorbs electrolytes, plasma
proteins, nutrients, vitamins, and water? Proximal convoluted
tubule
15. The most prevalent antibody 80% produced later in the immune
response, only that can cross placenta. IgG
16. Which among the following is both a nervous and endocrine
system organ? Adrenals
17. All of the formed elements of the blood are formed from a single
population of cells called: Hemocytoblasts
18. The atria of the heart: are separated from each other by the
Interatrial Septum.
19. The primary muscle(s) responsible for elevating the ribs during
inspiration is/are the External Intercostals.
20. Which among the following does NOT occur during exercise?
Hyperglycemia
21. Which of these valves is found between the right atrium and the
right ventricle? Tricuspid Valve
22. The blood vessels that supply blood to the heart tissue are the:
Coronary Arteries
23. A large groove that runs around the heart, and separates the atria
from the ventricles is the: Coronary Sulcus \
24. It is also known as the largest endocrine gland. Thyroid
25. Which cells in the small intestine have digestive enzymes
attached to their surfaces? Absorptive Cells

26. How many bones are there in the vertebral column? 24
27. Luigi has been absent for days because of influenza. He acquired
it from exposure from his classmates. Natural Active
28. Which layer of the digestive tract is in direct contact with the
food that is consumed? Mucosa
29. Which reproductive function is a function solely of the female
reproductive system? Development and Nourishment of a new
individual
30. Dentin: makes up most of the structure of the teeth.
31. This is stimulated by sympathetic nervous system neurons to
release two similar hormone adrenaline and noradrenaline.
Adrenal Medulla
32. Functional hormone of the thyroid cannot be made without
iodine. True
33. The stomach: has large folds in the submucosa and mucosa
called Rugae
34. The best anatomical terms to describe the back region of the
body would be: Dorsal
35. The two bones of the skull in which teeth are located are the
Maxilla and Mandible
36. Which of these statements concerning ABO blood types is
correct? Type O blood contains antibodies against both A
and B antigens.
37. This gland consist two lobes joined by a central mass, or
isthmus. Thyroid Gland
38. Spermatogenesis occurs in the Seminiferous Tubules.
39. Tiny bones called _______ transmit vibrations to the inner ear
Ossicles
40. Which of the following process is involved in the wound healing
process? Formation of granulation tissue, Regeneration or
replacement of tissues, and Inflammation
41. The major effect of this hormone is directed to the growth and
long bone of skeletal muscles and long bone of the body and
determine the final body size. Growth hormone
42. The bones of the head and trunk comprise which skeleton: Axial
43. The arm is ___________ to the hand. Proximal
44. The bicuspid (mitral) valve: prevents blood flow from the left
ventricle to the left atrium
45. This is the principal antibody of blood quickly produce in
response to an antigen, responds to artificial immunization. IgM
46. Melanin is: produced by melanocytes.
47. What hormone is produced in the inner most layer of the adrenal
cortex? Androgen and Estrogen
48. Which among the following is a function of the immune system?
Absorbs fats from the small intestines; Maintains fluid
balance in tissues; Defends against foreign bodies and
microorganisms
49. Defecation: can occur as a result of mass movements;
involves parasympathetic reflexes mediated by the spinal
cord; can be initiated by stretch of the rectum.
50. Tachycardia occurs when: the heart rate is more than 100
beats per minute
51. Why doesn’t the stomach digest itself? The stomach wall is
protected by large amounts of mucus.
52. Respiration refers to: gas exchange between blood and tissues;
gas exchange between the air in the lungs and blood;
ventilation, the movement of air into and out of the lungs.
53. Which of the following is a function of the integumentary
system? physical barrier to foreign particles and
microorganisms; absorption of ultraviolet light by melanin;
provides water loss to get rid of waste products
54. The type of glands that open into a hair follicle and produces
sebum are: Sebaceous Glands
55. The peripheral nervous system (PNS) consists of: All nerves
and ganglia outside the spinal cord
56. Which among the following does not cause the increase level of
insulin in the body? Hypoglycemia
57. Which of these functions are accomplished by the nasal cavities?
Mucus produced by the nasal lining traps debris from the
air; Cilia on the mucous membrane sweep debris into the
pharynx; Air is humidified and warmed.
58. Papillary muscles are attached to the cusps of valves by thin,
strong connective tissue strings called the: Chordae Tendineae
59. Cardiac output is equal to the: volume of blood in the body
times the number of beats per minute
60. Which type of connective tissue that support and protect organs,
provides insulation, and serves as reserve food supply is?
Adipose
61. In order for visual system to work properly, the lens must focus
light into: Retina
62. Red blood cells: contain large quantities of hemoglobin
63. Untreated individuals with cretinism may lead into mental
retardation. True
64. Which of these glands does not secrete saliva into the oral
cavity? Pancreas
65. This is an elaborated system that store and release calcium when
it demands during muscle contraction? Sarcoplasmic
Reticulum
66. These are the most common leukocytes and their dead cells are
part of pus. Neutrophils
67. The sensory receptors in your skin that are specialized to report
information about changes in temperature are the: Free Nerve
Endings
68. The major component of plasma is: Water
69. The anterior hip muscle that flexes the thigh is the ________.
Iliopsoas
70. The following statements is correct about calcitonin: Stimulate
calcium uptake and incorporation into the bone matrix;
Inhibit osteoclast activity and the release of calcium from the
bone matrix; An increase in blood calcium in the blood
stimulates calcitonin activity.
71. The thick middle layer of the heart, composed of cardiac muscle,
is the Myocardium
72. Function of the large intestine: absorption of water and salts;
absorption of certain vitamins; production of mucus
73. Vision and hearing are different: Sensory Receptors
74. The 9-month old baby was given a shot of measles vaccine to
protect him. Artificial Active
75. Gaps between segments of oligodendrocytes or between
individual Schwann cells are called: Nodes of Ranvier
76. Given these structures: 1) AV node 2) atrioventricular bundle 3)
bundle branches 4) Purkinje fibers Arrange these parts of the
conduction system of the heart in the correct order, as an action
potential would pass through them. 1, 2, 3, 4
77. Evaluation of auditory and olfactory input, memory, abstract
thought, and judgment are all associated with the lobe on:
Temporal
78. In the anatomical position the subject: Is standing upright
facing the observer with the palms forward.
79. Which is a function of the urinary system? Excretion of wastes;
Regulation of erythrocyte production; Regulation of blood
volume
80. The right side of the heart forces blood to flow: to the Lungs
81. The most common formed elements in the blood are:
Erythrocytes
82. The nasal cavity is divided into right and left sides by the: Nasal
Septum
83. The process of blood cell production is called: Hematopoiesis
84. The mother’s immunity is transferred to her baby inside the
womb through the placenta. Natural Passive
85. The white blood cells called granulocytes are: Neutrophils,
Basophils, and Eosinophils
86. Which type of tissue that protect underlying structures, secrete
fluids and absorb substances? Epithelial
87. The plane that divides the body into superior and inferior portion
is the: Transverse
88. The axial skeleton is made up of the following: Skull, Sternum,
Ribs, Hyoid, Spinal Column
89. The heart is within the: Thoracic Cavity
90. The armpit or axilla is ______________ to the hip. Superior
91. There are _____ pairs of cranial nerves and _____ pairs of spinal
nerves. 12, 31
92. This hormone is involved in helping to regulate levels of
calcium and phosphate in the blood opposing the action of
parathyroid hormone. Calcitonin
93. Generating heat is one of the functions of these muscles.
Skeletal
94. During swallowing, the swallowing center in the medulla
oblongata is activated.
95. An increase of ADH causes the kidneys to ________ the
reabsorption of water, causing them to produce ________ urine.
increase; less
96. Large points of muscle attachment near the proximal end of the
femur are called ________. Trochanters
97. The ___________ is the layer of the skin made of epithelial
tissue and the __________ is composed of dense connective
tissue. epidermis; dermis
98. In circumcision, this part of the male external structure is cut.
Prepuce
99. These stomach cell types are correctly matched with its function
parietal cells—produce hydrochloric acid;
endocrine cells—produce regulatory hormones;
surface mucous cells—produce mucus
100. Vertebrae are best classified as Irregular Bones.
114. Which of these hormones stimulates stomach secretions?
Gastrin
115. Cerebrospinal fluid is secreted by the _____ in the ventricles,
and passes back into the blood through the _____. Choroid
Plexus, Arachnoid Villi
116. All of the following are functions of the heart: ensures one-way
flow of blood; generation of blood pressure; regulates rate
and force of blood delivery

101. In generalized cell, cell typically have these main regions, this
is? Plasma Membrane, Nucleus, Cytoplasm 117. The onset of menstruation among girls is called: Menarche

118. Fingerprints and footprints are produced by dermal projections

102. The photoreceptors we need to appreciate a blue sky on a sunny into the epidermis called: Dermal Papillae
day are the _______, whereas the photoreceptors we use to
detect the stars outside at night are the _______. Cones; Rods
119. The following is a list of vessels and structures that are

103. Which hormone secreted by the anterior pituitary gland? associated with the heart.

Luteinizing; Prolactin; Oxytocin 1) right atrium

2) left atrium
3) right ventricle
104. The following statements are CORRECT about the factors 4) left ventricle
causing movement of lymph. Thoracic pressure changes; 5) superior & inferior vena cava
Contraction of lymphatic vessel; Skeletal muscle action 6) aorta
7) pulmonary artery
105. Blood: has a total volume of approximately 5L 8) pulmonary vein
9) mitrial/bicuspid valve
106. Which of these statements concerning the form and location of 10) tricuspid valve
the heart is correct? The apex is directed to the left, and deep 11) pulmonary semilunar valve
to the fifth intercostal space. 12) aorta semilunar valve
What is the correct order for the flow of blood entering the heart
107. Numerous raised folds on the surface of each cerebral from the BODY and leaving for PULMONARY
hemisphere are called: Gyri CIRCULATION? 5, 1, 10, 3, 11, 7

120. The hormones T3 and T4 play a vital role in the body. Which of
108. The distal convoluted tubule is the primary site for the the following are their function? Develop skeletal and nervous
reabsorption of solutes and water. True system, regulate electrolytes in the cells, regulate tissue
growth
109. Painful cramping during menstruation is called as:
Dysmenorrhea

110. The actual gas exchange between inspired air and the blood
occurs across the capillaries of the: Alveolar Ducts and Alveoli

111. Which of these statements concerning the conduction system of

the heart is true? The sinoatrial (SA) node of the heart acts as
the pacemaker.

112. This is found in colostrum, tears, saliva. IgA

113. The first structure in the kidney to collect newly formed urine is
the Minor Calyx