Professional Documents
Culture Documents
01. Which of the following speed time graphs is not 01. fuEufyf[ kr esadkS
u&l k xfr&l e; xzki Ql a
Hko ughagS\
possible ?
x fr x fr
speed speed
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
t t
t t l e; l e;
time time
speed speed
x fr x fr
t t t
time t l e; l e;
time
02. A bus starts moving with acceleration 2 m/s2. 02. , d cl 2 ehñ@ l s-2 dsRoj. k l spyuk i zkja Hk djrh gSA , d
A cycl ist 84 m beh ind the bus starts l kbfdy l okj cl l s84 ehñ i hNsyxkrkj 20 ehñ@ l sñ dhnj l s
simultaneously towards the bus at 20 m/s. After cl dhv kjspyuk i zkja HkdjrkgSAfdrusl e; dsckn og cl
what time will he be able to overtake the bus ? dksi kj dj ysxk \
(1) 6 sec. (2) 14 sec. (3) 8 sec. (4) 12 sec. (1) 6 l s ñ (2) 14 l s ñ (3) 8 l sñ (4) 12 l s ñ
03. A field gun of mass 2 × 103 kg fires a shell of 03. 2 × 10 nz 3 O;eku dk , d {ks=k cUnw d 200 ehñ@ l sñ dh xfr l s
mass 20 kg with a velocity of 200 m/s. Calculate
20 fdñxzkñnzO;eku dhxksy hNksM+ r kgSAcUnwd dsi zfr{ksi dhxfr
the velocity of the recoil of the gun.
dh x. kuk djsaA
(1) 1 m/s (2) 2 m/s (3) 0.5 m/s (4) 4 m/s
(1) 1 ehñ@ l sñ (2) 2 ehñ@ l sñ (3) 0.5 ehñ@ l sñ(4) 4 ehñ@ l sñ
04. What force is needed to speed up a frictionless
80 kg cart from 5 metres per second to 7.5 metres 04. 4 l s ñ esa5 ehVj i zfr l sd s.M l s7-5 ehVj i zfr l sd s.M rd dh
per seocnd in 4 seconds ? ?k"kZ
. kghu 80 fdyksokysxkM+ h esaxfr nsusdsfy, fdl cy dh
(1) 50 N (2) 60 N (3) 43 N (4) 74 N v ko' ; drk gksrhgS\
05. The time period of an earth satellite in circular (1) 50 N (2) 60 N (3) 43 N (4) 74 N
orbit is independent of : 05. oÙ̀kh; d{k esai F̀oh dsmixzg dk dky Lora
=k jgrk gS&
(1) both the mass of the satellite and radius of
the orbit (1) mi xz
g dsnzO;eku v kS
j d{k dh f=kT; k nksuksal s
(2) radius of its orbit (2) bl dhd{kkdhf=kT; k l s
(3) the mass of the satellite (3) mi xz
g dsnzO;eku l s
(4) neither the mass of the satellite nor the
radius of its orbit. (4) u rksmi xz
g dsnzO;eku v kS
j uk ghbl dsd{kk dhf=kT; k l s
06. For a satellite moving in an orbit around the 06. i F̀ohdsd{kkdspkjksav ksj ?kq
eusokysmixzg dsfy, xfrt Åt kZ
earth, the ratio of kinetic energy to potential v kSj fLFkfrt Åt kZdk v uq
i kr gS&
energy is :
1 1 1
1 (1) 2 (2) (3) 2 (4)
(1) 2 (2) (3) 2 (4) 4 2
4 2
07. If the K.E. of a body is increased by 800%, by what 07. ; fn fdl hoLrqdhxfrt Åt kZ800% l sc<+
k; kt krkgS
] rksbl dk
percentage will its momentum increase? laosx fdrusi zfr' kr l sc<+
sxk \
(1) 400% (2) 300% (3) 150% (4) 200% (1) 400% (2) 300% (3) 150% (4) 200%
08. If 30,000 joules of work is done in pumping water 08. ; fn 15 ehVj dhšpkbZrd i kuhdksi Ei djusesa30]000 t w
y
up to a height of 15 meters, how much water is dk; Zfd; k t krk gS
] fdruk i kuh i a
i fd; k t k, xk\
pumped ? (g = 10 m/s2)
(g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 250 kg (2) 200 kg (3) 160 kg (4) 400 kg
(1) 250 kg (2) 200 kg (3) 160 kg (4) 400 kg
Space For Rough Work Class-X/02
09. Which is not a unit of energy : 09. Åt kZdh bdkbZdkS u ughagS&
(1) Watt second (2) Kilo watt hour (1) okV l s
d s.M (2) fdyksokV ?kV
ak
(3) Newton second2 (4) Joule 2
(3) U;w
Vu l sd . M (4) t w
y
10. Velocity of sound measured in hydrogen and
oxygen gas at a given temperature will be in the 10. fn, x, rki i j gkbMªkst u v kS
j v kW
Dl ht u esaeki sx, èofu dssosx
ratio : dk v uq
i kr gksxk &
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 1 : 4 (3) 16 : 1 (4) 1 : 16 (1) 4 : 1 (2) 1 : 4 (3) 16 : 1 (4) 1 : 16
11. Voice of a friend is recognized by its :
11. nksLr dsv kokt dksi gpkuk t krk gS
] bl dh
(1) pitch (2) quality
(3) intensity (4) velocity (1) fi p }kjk (2) xq
. k }kjk (3) rhozrk }kjk (4) osx }kjk
12. A source of frequency 600 Hz emits waves of 12. 600 Hz v kof̀Ù
kdk, d l zksr 0-3 ehñdkrja
xnS
è; ZmRiUu djrk
wavelength 0.3 m. How long does it take the gSArja
x dks720 ehñ nw
j hr; djusesafdruk l e; ysxh\
waves to travel 720 m ?
(1) 2 l s
ñ (2) 5 l s
ñ (3) 6 l s
ñ (4) 4 l s
ñ
(1) 2 sec. (2) 5 sec. (3) 6 sec. (4) 4 sec.
13. When a spherical convex lens made up of glass 4
13. t c l hl sdscusxksy h; mÙky ysa
l (µ = 1.5) dksi kuh 3
4
(µ = 1.5) is immersed in water its focal
3 esaMq
ck; k t krk gSrksl hl k&i kuhO;oLFkk dh i Q
ksd l nw
j h&
length of glass-water arrangement.
(1) c<+
r hgS (2) ?kVrh gS
(1) increases (2) decreases
(3) remains unchanged (4) can’t say (3) dks
bZcnyko ughagksrk gS
A(4) dq
N dgk ughat k l drk gS
A
14. The lateral displacement of an incident ray 14. , d v k; rkdkj Xykl LyS o l sxq
t jrsgq
, fdl hv ki frr fdj. kdk
passing out of a rectangular glass slab, for the i k' oZfoLFkki u] ml hl eku v ki ru dks.k dsfy, gS&
same angle of incidence :
(1) is directly proportional to the thickness of the (1) Xykl LyS
c dh eksVkbZdsl ekuq
i kr gSA
glass slab (2) Xykl LyS
c dh eksVkbZdsO;q
RØekuq
i kr gSA
(2) is inversely proportional to the thickness of
the glass slab (3) Xykl LyS
c dseksVkbZl sLora
=k gSA
(3) is independent of the thickness of the glass (4) mi ; q
Dr dksbZfodYi l gh ughagSA
Z
slab
(4) none of the above options is correct 15. , d Ý; w
t rkj ckj&ckj t y t krkgS
] t c bl sv PNsghVj esami; ksx
15. A fuse wire repeatedly gets burnt when used with fd; kt krkgSA_______ Ý; w t rkj dksmi; ksx djusdhl ykg nh
a good heater. It is advised to use a fuse wire of t krh gSA
_______ .
(1) v f/ d yEckbZds (2) de f=kT; k ds
(1) more length (2) less radius
(3) less length (4) more radius (3) de yEckbZds (4) v f/ d f=kT; kds
16. Two air conditioners of 2000 W, a fan of 300 W, a 16. 2000 okV dsnks, ; j da Mh' kuj] 300 okV dk, d i a [ kk] 60 okV
bulb of 60 W and a computer offering 40 W are dk, d cYc v kS j 40 okV dk, d dEI; w Vj] 220 oksYV dsmi; ksx
used in a house hold using 220V. The power okys?kj esami; ksx fd; kt krkgSAbl fLFkfr esami; ksx fd, t kus
rating of the fuse to be used in this case is :
okysÝ; wt dh ' kfDr dh nj gS&
(1) 10 A (2) 32 A (3) 20 A (4) 16 A (1) 10 A (2) 32 A (3) 20 A (4) 16 A
17. A 80 watt electric lamp gives off energy in the
17. , d 80 okV dkfo| q r ySEi] 7-2 t w
y i zfr l sd s.Mdsnj l si zd k' k
form of light at a rate of 7.2 joule per second.
What percentage of energy does the lamp ds: i esaÅt kZi znku djrk gSAÅt kZdk fdruk i zfr' kr yS Ei
transform into light energy ? i zd k' k Åt kZesa: i kUrj djrk gS\
(1) 4.5% (2) 6.4% (3) 12.8% (4) 9% (1) 4.5% (2) 6.4% (3) 12.8% (4) 9%
18. If an electron revolves in the path of radius of 18. ; fn dksbZbysDVªkW
u 2.5 × 1017 pØ l sd s.M–1 dh v kof̀Ùk l s
2 × 10–10 m at a frequency of 2.5 × 1017 cycles s–1, 2 × 10 –10 ehñ dhf=kT; kokysi Fkesa?kw
. kZ
u gSrksoÙ̀kesafo| q
r
then find the electric current in the circle. / kjk Kkr djsa&
(1) 20 mA (2) 0.6 mA (3) 40 mA (4) 1.2 mA (1) 20 mA (2) 0.6 mA (3) 40 mA (4) 1.2 mA
(3) Zn is most reactive and Cu is least reactive (3) Zn v frv fHkfØ; k' khy gSrFkkCu fuEuv fHkfØ; k' khy gS
(4) Cu is most reactive and Fe is least reactive (4) Cu v frv fHkfØ; k' khy gSrFkkFe fuEuv fHkfØ; k' khy gS
23. PbO2 + 4HCl PbCl2 + 2H2O + Cl2 23. PbO2 + 4HCl PbCl2 + 2H2O + Cl2
The substance undergoing oxidation is – v kW
Dl hdj. k esaHkkx ysusokysi nkFkZgS
a&
(1) Lead dioxide (2) Hydrochloric acid (1) ysM v kWDl kbM (2) gkbMªks
Dyksfjd v Ey
(3) Hydrogen (4) Lead chloride (3) gkbMªks
tu (4) ysM DyksjkbM
24. Ammonium chloride is a salt of 24. v eks
fu; e DyksjkbM yo. k gS &
(1) weak Acid and Weak Base (1) nqcZ
y v Ey rFkk nq cZ
y {kkj dk
(2) weak Acid and Strong Base (2) nqcZ
y v Ey rFkk i zcy {kkj dk
(3) strong Acid and Strong Base (3) i z
cy v Ey rFkk i zcy {kkj dk
(4) strong Acid and Weak Base (4) i z
cy v Ey rFkk nq cZ
y {kkj dk
25. Identify the type of product formed in the given 25. nhxbZjkl k; fud v fHkfØ; kes amRiUu mRikn dsi zd kj dhi gpku
chemical equation.
djsa&
Pb(OH)2 + HNO3 Pb(OH) NO3 + H2O
Pb(OH)2 + HNO3 Pb(OH) NO3 + H2O
(1) An acidic salt (2) A basic salt
(1) , d v Eyh; yo. k (2) , d {kkjh; yo. k
(3) A base (4) An acid
(3) , d {kkj (4) , d v Ey
26. Which of the following gives the correct
26. fuEufyf[ kr esal sdkS
u v Eyh; ' kfDr dkc<+ r kgq
v kØe nsrkgS
\
increasing order of acidic strength?
(1) t y < , l hfVd v Ey < gkbMªks Dyksfjd v ey
(1) Water < Acetic acid < Hydrochloric acid
(2) Water < Hydrochloric acid < Acetic acid (2) t y < gkbMªks Dyksfjd v Ey < , l hfVd v Ey
(3) Acetic acid< Water < Hydrochloric acid (3) , l hfVd v Ey < t y < gkbMªks Dyksfjd v Ey
(4) Hydrochloric acid < water < Acetic acid (4) gkbMªksDyksfjd v Ey < t y < , l hfVd v Ey
Space For Rough Work Class-X/04
27. Acetic acid was added to a solid X kept in a test 27. , d i j[ kuyhesaj[ ksx; sBksl X esa, l hfVd v Ey feyk; k x; kA
tube. A colourless and odourless gas was evolved.
, d ja
xghu rFkkxSl ghu xS l eqDr gq
bZAxS l dkspw
ukt y esai zokfgr
The gas was passed through lime water which
turned milky. It was concluded that djusi j og ml snwf/ ; kcuknsrhgSAfu"d"kZ; g fudyrkgSfd%
(1) solid X is sodium hydroxide and the gas
evolved is CO2
(1) Bks
l X l ksfM; e gkbMªkW
Dl kbM gSrFkk mRiUu xS
l CO2 gS
A
(2) solid X is sodium bicarbonate and the gas
evolved is CO2 (2) Bks
l X l ksfM; e ckbdkcksZ
usV gSrFkk mRiUu xS
l CO2 gS
A
(3) solid X is sodium acetate and the gas evolved (3) Bks
l X l ksfM; e , l hVsV gSrFkk mRiUu xS
l CO2 gS
A
is CO2
(4) Bks
l X l ksfM; e DyksjkbM gSrFkk mRiUu xS
l CO2 gS
A
(4) solid X is sodium chloride and the gas evolved
is CO2
28. Which of the following salts on dissolving in 28. fuEu esal sdkS
u l syo. k dks] 298 K rki i j t y esa?kq
y kusl s
water will give a solution with pH less than 7 at 7 l sde pH eku okykfoy; u nsrkgS\
298 K?
(1) KCN (2) CH3COONa
(1) KCN (2) CH3COONa
(3) NaBr (4) NH4Cl
(3) NaBr (4) NH4Cl
29. The correct order of lewis acid character is
29. yw
bl v Ey dh i zd f̀r dk l gh Øe D; k gS\
(1) BF3 < BCl3 < BBr3 < BI3 (1) BF3 < BCl3 < BBr3 < BI3
(2) BCl3 > BF3 < BBr3 < BI3 (2) BCl3 > BF3 < BBr3 < BI3
(3) BBr3 < BI3 < BCl3 < BF3 (3) BBr3 < BI3 < BCl3 < BF3
(4) BF3 > BCl3 > BBr3 > BI3 (4) BF3 > BCl3 > BBr3 > BI3
30. Reaction between X and Y, forms compound Z. X 30. X rFkkY dschp v fHkfØ; kl s; kS
fxd Z dkfuekZ . kgksrkgSAX
loses electron and Y gains electron. Which of the bysDVªku R;kx djrkgSrFkkY bysDVªku xzg. kdjrkgSAZ ds}kjk]
following properties is not shown by Z? fuEufyf[ kr esal sdkS
u l k xq
. k i znf' kZ
r ughagksrk gS\
(1) Has high melting point (1) bl dh mPp xyuka
d gksrh gS
A
(2) Has low melting point
(2) bl dh fuEu xyuka
d gksrh gS
A
(3) Conducts electricity in molten state
(3) ; g xfyr v oLFkk es
afo| q
r dk pkyd gS
A
(4) Occurs as solid
(4) ; g Bks
l ds: i esagksrk gS
A
31. Alu mini um i s used i n th ermi te w eldi ng
because– 31. , Y; q
fefu; e dk mi; ksx FkekZ
bV osfYMa
x esagksrk gSD; ksa
fd &
(1) aluminium is a light metal (1) , Y; q
fefu; e , d gYdh/ krqgS
A
(2) aluminium has more affinity towards oxygen (2) , Y; q
fefu; e dksv kW
Dl ht u dsfy, v f/ d cU/q
r k gS
A
(3) aluminium is a strong oxidising agent (3) , Y; q
fefu; e , d i zcy v kW
Dl hdkjd i nkFkZgS
A
(4) aluminium is a reactive metal (4) , Y; q
fefu; e , d v fHkfØ; k' khy / krqgS
A
32. Which of the following statement is incorrect 32. fuEufyf[ kr esal sdkSu l k dFku v l R; gS&
(1) Roasting is done for sulphide ore. (1) l Yi QkbM v ; Ld dsfy, t kj. k fd; k t krk gS A
(2) reaction takes place in aluminothermic (2) , Y; q
feuksFkfeZd i zfØ; k esagksusokyh v fHkfØ; k dksm"eh;
process is also known as thermite reaction. v fHkfØ; k ds: i esaHkh t kuk t krk gSA
(3) Unwanted material with ore is called as (3) v ; Ld dsl kFkv oka fNr i nkFkZdksxSx ( v i ; Ld) dgrsgS
a A
a
gangue.
(4) oS|q
r vi ?kVuh' kks/u esav ' kq
¼ / krqdkmi; ksx dS FkksMds: i
(4) In electrolytic refining, impure metal is used esafd; k t krk gS
A
as cathode.
P Q R S (1) IV II III I
(1) IV II III I (2) I II III IV
(2) I II III IV (3) IV III II I
(3) IV III II I (4) II I III IV
(4) II I III IV
40. rRoksaP, Q, R rFkkS dsbysDVªkfud foU;kl uhpsfn; sx; sgS
&
a
40. Electronic configurations of elements P, Q, R and
S are given below : P : 2, 8, 1; Q : 2, 5
P : 2, 8, 1; Q : 2, 5 R : 2, 8, 7; S : 2, 8,5
R : 2, 8, 7; S : 2, 8,5 fuEufyf[ kr esal sdkS
u l sdFku l R; gS
a&
Which of the following statements are correct?
I. rR
o Q rFkk S v koÙkZl kj. kh dsl eku v koÙkZesagS
a
I. Elements Q and S belong to the same period
of the periodic table. II. P , d {kkjh; / krqgS
II. P is an alkali metal. III. R , d / krqgS
III. R is a metal.
IV. rR
o S dh l a
; kst drk 3 gSA
IV. Valency of element S is 3.
(1) I and II only (2) II and IV only (1) ds
oy I rFkk II (2) ds
oy II rFkk IV
(3) I and III only (4) All of these (3) ds
oy I rFkk III (4) bues
al sl Hkh
41. The Galapagos Islands are associated with the 41. xsy ki sxksl v kbl yS
M] budsnkS
a Ms+l st q
M+
k gq
v k gS
&
visit of
(1) yS
ekdZ (2) MkfoZ
u
(1) Lamarck (2) Darwin
(3) Mendel (4) De vries (3) es
a
My (4) fM&os
fjt
42. Which one is natural anti-coagulant? 42. buesal sdkS u i zkdf̀r d&LdUnujks/h gS&
(1) Heparin (2) Sodium oxalate (1) gsi sfju (2) l ksfM; e v kW Dt s+
y sV
(3) Potassium oxalate (4) All of the above (3) i ks
VS f' k; e v kW Dt +
sy sV (4) mi ; qDr l Hkh
Z
43. Glycolysis occurs in prokaryotic cell in 43. Xyk; dks fyfl l ] i zksd s;ksZfVd dksf' kdk esagksrhgS &
(1) Cytoplasm (2) Nucleoplasm (1) t honz O; esa (2) U ;wfDy; ksIykTe
(3) Mitochondria (4) Nucleus (3) ekbVks d kW
fUMª; k (4) ukfHkd
44. Which one is not present in neuron? 44. buesal sdkS u ra f=kdk esamifLFkr ughagksrsgS \
a
(1) Cell body (2) Mitochondria (1) dks f' kdkdk; (2) ekbVks d kW
fUMª; k
(3) Centriole (4) Nucleus (3) ds
Unzd (4) ukfHkd
Equation II – l ehdj. k II –
C6H12O6+ 6O2 6CO2 + 6H2O + energy C6H12O6+ 6O2 6CO2 + 6H2O + Åt kZ
Choose the correct option for above equation
mi; q
Dr l ehdj. k dsfy, l ghfodYi pq
Z usa&
(1) Equation I show photosynthesis and catabolic
reaction (1) l ehdj. kI, i z
d k' kl a
' ys"k. kv kS
j v i p; v fHkfØ; kdksn' kkZ
rk
(2) Equation II show photosynthesis and anabolic gS
A
reaction (2) l ehdj. kII, i z
d k' kl a
' ys"k.kv kS
j mip; v fHkfØ; kdksn' kkZ
rk
(3) Equation II show respiration and catabolic gS
A
reaction
(3) l ehdj. k II, ' ol u v kS
j v i p; v fHkfØ; k dksn' kkZ
r k gS
A
(4) Equation I show respiration and catabolic
reaction (4) l ehdj. k I, ' ol u v kS
j v i p; v fHkfØ; k dksn' kkZ
r k gS
A
48. Choose the incorrect option 48. xyr fodYi dkspq
usa&
(1) Several factors like infections, injury or (1) v us
d ?kVd t S
l sl a
Øe. k] t [ e ; koD̀d l sl hfer jDr Jko]
restricted blood flow to kidneys reduce the
activity of kidney oD̀d dh l fØ; rk dks?kVkrk gS
A
(2) Translocation in phloem tissue occurs using (2) Ýyks
, e mÙkd dk LFkkukUrj. k] ATP l sÅt kZdk mi; ksx dj
energy from ATP gksrk gS
A
(3) The normal systolic pressure is about 80 mm (3) l kekU ; fl dqM+u nkc yxHkx 88 mm Hg dsnkc v kS
j
of Hg and diastolic pressure is 120 mm of
Hg.
v uqf' kfFkyu nkc yxHkx 120 mm Hg dknkc gS
A
(4) The opening and closing of the pore is a (4) ja
/ zdk[ kq
y ukv kS
j ca
n gksuk] j{kkdkjhdksf' kdkv ksadkdk; ZgS
A
function of guard cells 49. buesal sdkS
u i ' p efLr"d dk Hkkx ughagS
A
49. Which one is not a part of hind brain?
(1) i ks
l
a (2) es
M~;w
yk
(1) Pons (2) Medulla
(3) Cerebellum (4) Cerebrum (3) v uq
efLr"d (4) i z
efLrd
50. Voluntary actions and maintaining the posture 50. LoSfPNd fØ; kv kS j ' kjhj dseq
nzkv kS
j la
rq
y u dksdk; e j[ krkgS
and balance of the body are controlled by t ksfu; a
f=kr gksrk gS&
(1) Cerebrum (2) Cerebellum (1) i z
efLr"d }kjk (2) v uq
efLr"d }kjk
(3) Hypothalamus (4) Mid - brain (3) gkbi ks
Fksy sel }kjk (4) eè; &efLr"d }kjk
ab a b ab a b
(3) a 2 b2 (4) b2 a 2 (3) a 2 b2 (4) b2 a 2
4 4 4 4
62. If any two sides of a triangle are produced beyond
Space For Rough Work Class-X/09
its base and the exterior angles thus obtained 62. ; fn fdl hf=kHkq
t dhnksHkq t k, ¡v k/ kj dhv ksj c<+
kbZt k, v kS
j bl
are bisected, then these bisectors will include i zd kj cuscfg"dks.kksadksl ef}Hkkft r fd; kt k; rksbu v ¼Z d ksads
an angle equal to : chp dk dks.k cjkcj gksxk &
(1) Half the sum of the base angles. (1) v k/ kj dsdks . kksads; ksxi Q
y dsv k/ sdk
(2) Sum of the base angles.
(2) v k/ kj dsdks . kksads; ksxi Q
y dk
(3) Half the difference of the base angles.
(3) v k/ kj dsdks . kksadsv Urj dsv k/ sdk
(4) Difference of the base angles.
(4) v k/ kj dsdks . kksadsv Urj dk
9 3
63. Calculate sin if cos and , 9 3
11 2 63. sin dh x. kuk djs
a; fn cos rFkk , 2
11
2 10 2 10 3 2 3
(1) (2) (3) (4) 2 10 2 10 3 2 3
11 11 11 2 (1) (2) (3) (4)
11 11 11 2
64. The given table list’s the number of absentees
on different days in last 48 working days. 64. nh xbZl kj. kh esav a fre 48 dk; Zfnol esafoHkUu fnuksadh
v uq
i fLFkfr; ksadhl a
[ ; kl w
phcrkrhgSA
Number of absentees 2 4 6 8 10
Number of days 11 8 9 7 13 vuq
i fLFkfr; ksadh l a
[;k 2 4 6 8 10
What is the mean deviation about medium of fnuksadh l a
[ ;k 11 8 9 7 13
the given data ?
(1) 2.625 (2) 2.310 (3) 1.875 (4) 1.570
fn, x; sv k¡d M+
sadsekè; d dsi fjr v kS
l r fopyu D; k gS\
(1) 2.625 (2) 2.310 (3) 1.875 (4) 1.570
65. If and are the zeros of the quadratic
polynomial f(x) = ax2 + bx + c, then evaluate 65. ; fn rFkkf}?kkr O;a
td f(x) = ax2 + bx + c, ds' kw
U;d gks]
2 2 2 2
. rks dk eku Kkr djsaA
2 2 2 2
b2 2ac b2 2ac
(3) (4) none of these (3) (4) bues
al sdksbZugha
a2 a2
1 12 1 1 12 1
66. Solve for x and y : and 66. x rFkky dsfy, gy djs
a:
2(2x 3y) 7(3x 2y) 2 2(2x 3y) 7(3x 2y) 2
7 4 7 4
2 , where (2x + 3y) 0 and rFkk 2, t gk¡(2x + 3y) 0 rFkk
(2x 3y) (3x 2y) (2x 3y) (3x 2y)
(3x – 2y) 0. (3x – 2y) 0.
(1) x = 1, y = 2 (2) x = 2, y = 1 (1) x = 1, y = 2 (2) x = 2, y = 1
(3) x = 0, y = 3 (4) x = 2, y = 2 (3) x = 0, y = 3 (4) x = 2, y = 2
67. In fig. ABC is a right triangle, right angled at B. 67. fp=kesaABC , d l edks.kf=kHkq
t gS
] B i j l edks.kgSAekfè; dkvksa
Medians AD and CE are of respective length
AD rFkkCE dhyEckbZ ; k¡Øe' k%5 l sa-eh- rFkk2 5 l sa-eh- gS
A
a
5 cm and 2 5 cm. Find the length of AC.
AC dh yEckbZKkr djs aA
A A
E E
B D C B D C
(1) 4 cm. (2) 5 cm. (3) 6 cm. (4) 7 cm. (1) 4 l s
a
-eh- (2) 5 l s
a
-eh- (3) 6 l s
a
-eh- (4) 7 l s
a
-eh-
cos2 25 cos 2 65 tan10º cot 36 tan 80 cot 54 cos2 25 cos 2 65 tan10º cot 36 tan 80 cot 54
2
cos ec 65 – tan 252 2
tan 30 tan 452 cos ec 2 65 – tan2 25 tan2 30 tan2 45
7 1 3 6 7 1 3 6
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
4 2 5 7 4 2 5 7
70. The angles of elevation of the top of a tower from 70. fdl h ehukj dsv k/ kj l s, d js[kk esaa rFkk b nw
fj; ksai j fLFkr
two points P and Q at distance of a and b fcUnqv ksaØe' k%P rFkk Q l sehukj dsf' k[ kj dsmUu; u dks.k
respectively from the base and in the same i jLi j i w
j d gS
aAehukj dh Å¡pkbZKkr djsaA
straight line with it are complementary. Find
the height of the towers.
a
(1) (2) ab (3) ab (4) dks
bZugha
A
b
a
(1) (2) ab (3) ab (4) none
b
71. Find the sum of the first 24 terms of the 71. ml v uq
Øe dsi zFke 24 i nksadk ; ksx Kkr djsaft l dk nok¡i n
sequence whose nth terms is given by :
2
an 3 n fn; kx; kgS
A
2 3
an 3 n
3 (1) 422 (2) 384 (3) 272 (4) dks
bZugha
(1) 422 (2) 384 (3) 272 (4) None
72. fn; sx; sfp=k esa] TBP rFkk TCQ, O dsUnzokysoÙ̀k dh Li ' kZ
72. In the given figure, TBP and TCQ are tangents js[kk, ¡gS
aAl kFkgh] PBA = 60° rFkkACQ = 70°. BTC
to the circle whose centre is O. Also, PBA = 60° fu/ kZfjr djsa
&
and ACQ = 70°. Determine BTC.
P
P
B 60
B 60 °
°
T O A
T O A °
70
7 0°
C
C
Q
Q
(1) 80° (2) 50° (3) 130° (4) 30° (1) 80° (2) 50° (3) 130° (4) 30°
73. An open metal bucket is in the shape of a 73. / krqdk, d [ kqy kckYVh' ka d qfNUud ds: i esagSt ksfp=kkuq l kj
frustum of a cone, mounted on a hollow ml dh/ krqdscus[ kks[kyscsy ukdkj v k/ kj i j fLFkr gSAckYVh
cyclindrical base made of the same metallic dsnksoÙ̀kkdkj fl jksadsO;kl 45 l sa
- eh- rFkk25 l sa
- eh- gS
] ckYVh
sheet, as shown in fig. The diameter’s of the two
dhdq y mnxzšpkbZ40 l sa - eh- rFkkcsy ukdkj v k/ kj dhšpkbZ
circular ends of the bucket are 45 cm and 25
cm, the total vertical height of the bucket is 40 6 l sa
- eh- gSAckYVh dkscukusesayxs/ krqdspknj dk {ks=ki Q y
cm and that of the cylindrical base is 6 cm. Find Kkr djsaA
the area of the metallic sheet used to make the
bucket. - eh-2
(1) 33615.48 l s
a
(1) 33615.48 cm2 - eh-2
(2) 4204 l s
a
(2) 4204 cm2 - eh-2
(3) 3568.90 l s
a
(3) 3568.90 cm2
- eh-2
(4) 4860.90 l s
a
(4) 4860.90 cm2
C C
its kbZ 5 bdkbZ
13 un 5 units 13 bd
A A B
B
12 4 5 4 12 4 5 4
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
13 5 4 3 13 5 4 3
75. If the zeros of the polynomial x3 – 3x2 + x + 1 are 75. cgq
i n x3 – 3x2 + x + 1 ds' kw
U;d a – b, a, a + b gS
Aa rFkk
a
a – b, a, a + b. find a and b. b Kkr djsaA
(1) a 1, b 2 (2) a = 1, b = 1 (1) a 1, b 2 (2) a = 1, b = 1
(3) a 2, b 1 (4) None of these (3) a 2, b 1 (4) bues
al sdksbZugha
76. In a trapezium ABCD, AB||DC and DC = 2AB.
FE drawn parallel to AB cuts AD at F and BC at E;
76. l eyEc ABCD es ,aAB||DC rFkkDC = 2AB. AB dsl ekU kkU
rj
FE [ kha
phxbZgSt ksAD dksF i j rFkkBC dksE i j bl i zd kj
BE 3
such that . BE 3
EC 4 dkVrhgSfd .
A B EC 4
A B
F G E
F G E
D C
Diagonal DB intersects EF at G, then which of D C
the following are true ? fod. kZDB, EF dksG i j i zfrPNsn djrkgS
] rksfuEufyf[ kr esal s
(1) 10 EF = 7 AB (2) 7 EF = 10 AB dkS
u l R; gS\
(3) EF = AB (4) None (1) 10 EF = 7 AB (2) 7 EF = 10 AB
77. The vertices of a triangle are (2, a), (1, b) and (3) EF = AB (4) dksbZugha
(c2, –3). Find the condition that the centroid may 77. fdl hf=kHkqt ds' kh"kZ(2, a), (1, b) rFkk(c2, – 3) gS
aAog ' kÙkZ
lie on the x-axis. Kkr djsaft l esa
sfd dsUnzx-v {k i j fLFkr gksA
(1) a + b = 3 (2) 3 + c2 = 3 (1) a + b = 3 (2) 3 + c2 = 3
(3) a + b = 0 (4) None (3) a + b = 0 (4) dksbZugha
78. Match the Column-I with Column-II. If and
are the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial 78. LrEHkI dkLrEHkII l sfeyku djsaA; fn rFkk f}?kkrh; cgq in
f(x) = x2 – 3x – 2 then, f(x) = x2 – 3x – 2 ds' kw U;d gksa] rks&
Column - I Column - II Lr EHk- I Lr EHk- II
4 17 1 4 17 1
(i) 2 + 2 = (a) (i) 2 + 2 = (a)
4 4
1 1
(ii) (b) –6 (ii) (b) –6
2 2
1 1 1 1
(iii) (c) 161 (iii) (c) 161
3 3
(iv)4 + 4 = (d) (iv)4 + 4 = (d)
2 2
(1) (i-c), (ii-b), (iii-d), (iv-a) (1) (i-c), (ii-b), (iii-d), (iv-a)
(2) (i-d), (ii-b), (iii-c), (iv-a) (2) (i-d), (ii-b), (iii-c), (iv-a)
(3) (i-b), (ii-d), (iii-c), (iv-a) (3) (i-b), (ii-d), (iii-c), (iv-a)
(4) (i-b), (ii-a), (iii-d), (iv-c) (4) (i-b), (ii-a), (iii-d), (iv-c)
C
C B
B
P
P O
O A F
A F D
D
E
E
(1) 96°, 68° (2) 72°, 59° (3) 59°, 72° (4) 68°, 96°
(1) 96°, 68° (2) 72°, 59° (3) 59°, 72° (4) 68°, 96°
80. , d O;fDr 48 fd-eh- dhnw j h, d fn; sx; sl e; esaVgyrkgS A; fn
80. A man walks a distance of 48 km in a given time.
If he walks 2 km an hour faster, he will perform
og 2 fd-eh- i zfr?kaVk rst Vgyrk gS arksog ml ; k=kk dks4 ?ka Vk
the journey 4 hours before. Find his normal rate i gysi w j k dj ysxk Aml dsVgyusdh l kekU; pky Kkr djsaA
of walking? (1) 4 fd-eh@ ?ka
Vk (2) 6 fd-eh@ ?ka
Vk
(1) 4 km/h (2) 6 km/h (3) 3 km/h (4) 8 km/h (3) 3 fd-eh@ ?ka
Vk (4) 8 fd-eh@ ?ka
Vk
81. In a row of girls, Purnima is eighth from the right 81. yM+ fd; ksadsdrkj esa ] iwf. kZ
ek nk, ¡ l sv kBosa
sv kjS Hkkouk ck¡, l s
and Bhavana is twelfth from the left. When ckjgosaLFkku i j gSAt c i wf. kZekv kSj Hkkoukv i usLFkku dkv nyk
Purnima an d Bhavana interchange their
cnyhdjrhgSrksHkkouk ck, ¡l sbDdhl osaLFkku i j gkst krhgS A
positions, Bhavana becomes twenty-first from
the left. Which of the following will be Purnima’s nk, ¡ l sfuEufyf[ kr esadkSuiw f. kZ
ek dh ubZfLFkfr gS \
new position from the right? (1) 8 ok¡ (2) 17 ok¡
(1) 8th (2) 17th (3) 21 ok¡ (4) v k¡d Ms
+v i ; kZ
Ir gSA
a
(3) 21st (4) Data inadequate
82. ; fn ‘A’, ^; ksx* dksl w
fpr djrkgS ] ‘S’, ^?kVko* dksl w fpr djrk
82. If ‘A’ stands for ‘addition’, ‘S’ stands for
‘subtraction’, ‘D’ stands for ‘division’, ‘M’ stands gS] ‘D’, ^Hkkx* dksl wfpr djrkgS ] ‘M’, ^xq. kk* dksl w
fpr djrkgS]
for ‘multiplication’, ‘G’ stands for ‘greater than’, ‘G’, ^cM+ kgS * dksl w
fpr djrkgS ] ‘E’, ^cjkcj gS * dksl w
fpr djrk
‘E’ stands for ‘equal to’ and ‘L’ stands for ‘less gSrFkk ‘L’, ^NksVk gS * dksl w
fpr djrk gSrksfuEufyf[ kr esadkS u
than’, which one of the following is correct? l ghgS \
(1) 8 G 2 M 3 M 4 D 2 M 4 (1) 8G2M3M4D2M4
(2) 12 E 4 A 2 D 1 M 4 M 2 (2) 12 E 4 A 2 D 1 M 4 M 2
(3) 2 L 2 M 4 A 1 M 4 S 8 (3) 2L2M4A1M4S8
(4) 10 E 2 A 2 M 4 A 1 S 2 (4) 10 E 2 A 2 M 4 A 1 S 2
83. Find the missing number, if same rule is 83. yqIr l a
[ ; kdksKkr djsa; fn l Hkhrhu fp=kksaesal eku fu; e ykxw
followed in all the three figures.
gksrsga
A
S
5 6 6 7 4 8
15 ? 8 5 6 6 7 4 8
15 ? 8
4 12 8 4 12 8
(1) 5 (2) 12 (3) 7 (4) 14 (1) 5 (2) 12 (3) 7 (4) 14
84. Select a figure from the options in which Fig. (X)
is embedded as one of its parts.
84. fodYi l sml fp=k dkspq
ua
sft l esafp=k‘X’ bl ds, d fgLl sds
: i esal ekfgr gS
A
Fig. (X)
fp =k (X)