Name:_____________________________ Shift:______________________________
Date:_________________________ Qualification:___________________
Multiple choice: Encircle the letter of the correct answer
1. What is the primary purpose of safety regulations?
a) To maximize profits for businesses
b) To protect and ensure the well-being of
individuals
c) To increase government control over industries
d) To promote competition in the marketplace
2. Who establishes safety regulations in the workplace?
a) Industry organizations
b) Environmental activists
c) Employee unions
d) Government authorities and regulatory bodies
3. Safety regulations aim to prevent:
a) Innovation and technological advancements
b) Accidents, injuries, and adverse effects of
hazardous conditions
c) Employee benefits and job satisfaction
d) Environmental pollution
4. In which contexts do safety regulations apply?
a) Only in residential areas
b) Only in recreational facilities
c) Workplaces, public spaces, and specific industries
d) Only in the healthcare sector
5. What is one of the key benefits of adhering to safety
regulations?
a) Increased product pricing
b) Reduced legal liabilities for businesses
c) Lower taxes for individuals
d) Increased work-related accidents
6. Which agency is responsible for overseeing safety
regulations in the workplace in the United States?
a) Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
b) Occupational Safety and Health Administration
(OSHA)
c) Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA)
d) Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
7. What is the primary goal of environmental safety regulations
overseen by the EPA?
a) Protecting worker rights
b) Promoting industrial growth
c) Protecting the environment and public health
d) Reducing energy consumption
8. Building and fire safety regulations cover aspects like:
a) Air quality standards
b) Hazardous waste management
c) Fire codes and building materials
d) Water quality guidelines
9. Electrical safety regulations aim to prevent hazards such as:
a) Water contamination
b) Chemical spills
c) Electrical shocks and fires
d) Air pollution
10. What do chemical safety regulations primarily focus on?
a) Safe handling of construction materials
b) Safe transportation of heavy machinery
c) Safe handling, storage, transportation, and
disposal of hazardous chemicals
d) Safe disposal of electronic waste
11. Which type of safety regulations outlines procedures for
responding to natural disasters and emergencies?
a) Occupational safety
b) Building and fire safety
c) Electrical safety
d) Emergency Response and Disaster Preparedness
12. Which agency oversees safety regulations related to
hazardous waste management?
a) OSHA
b) EPA
c) FDA
d) FEMA
13. Ergonomics is a topic covered by safety regulations related
to:
a) Electrical safety
b) Chemical safety
c) Occupational safety and health
d) Emergency response
14. What is a common safety concern addressed by building and
fire safety regulations?
a) Protecting wildlife habitats
b) Preventing workplace accidents
c) Ensuring safe escape routes and fire suppression
systems
d) Reducing energy consumption
15. Which type of safety regulations ensures the safe installation
and use of electrical systems and equipment?
a) Environmental safety regulations
b) Chemical safety regulations
c) Electrical safety regulations
a. Building and fire safety regulations
16. What is the main objective of the Clean Air Act of the
Philippines?
a) Promote water quality standards
b) Address noise pollution
c) Address air pollution and promote air quality standards
d) Regulate soil contamination
17. Which government department is responsible for
implementing and enforcing the Clean Air Act in the
Philippines?
a) Department of Transportation (DOTr)
b) Department of Health (DOH)
c) Department of Environment and Natural Resources
(DENR)
d) Department of Education (DepEd)
18. What do the air quality standards in the Clean Air Act
establish?
a) Limits on water pollution
b) Limits on noise pollution
c) Limits on air pollutants and guidelines for air quality
d) Limits on solid waste disposal
19. Which of the following is not regulated by the Clean Air Act
in terms of emissions?
a) Motor vehicles
b) Factories and industrial facilities
c) Incinerators
d) Residential buildings
20. What program does the Clean Air Act implement to address
vehicular emissions?
a) Water Quality Improvement Program
b) Noise Pollution Control Program
c) Smoke Belching Control Program
a) Soil Quality Enhancement Program
21. What is the primary goal of promoting the use of unleaded
gasoline and reducing lead content in gasoline?
a) Reduce noise pollution
b) Enhance vehicle performance
c) Protect public health and the environment
d) Increase energy consumption
22. Which government agency is responsible for establishing
and maintaining an air quality management system for
monitoring air pollution?
a) Department of Health (DOH)
b) Department of Agriculture (DA)
c) Department of Transportation (DOTr)
d) Department of Environment and Natural Resources
(DENR)
23. What is the purpose of regularly assessing compliance with
emissions standards under the Clean Air Act?
a) To promote noise reduction
b) To encourage the use of leaded gasoline
c) To ensure public health and environmental protection
d) To increase pollution levels
24. How does the Clean Air Act encourage public awareness and
education regarding air quality and pollution prevention?
 Name:_____________________________ Shift:______________________________
Date:_________________________ Qualification:___________________
a) Through mandatory fines for individuals b) Establishing the ECC system and Environmental
b) By establishing more industrial facilities Impact Statement (EIS) requirement
c) By promoting community involvement and education c) Setting standards for workplace safety
d) By increasing noise pollution levels d) Promoting noise reduction measures
25. Which entities are encouraged to be actively involved in 35. Which set of regulations provides the procedures and
addressing air pollution according to the Clean Air Act? guidelines for ECC applications and the issuance of ECCs in
a) Private businesses only the Philippines?
b) International organizations only a) DENR Administrative Order No. 30
c) Communities, non-governmental organizations, and b) DENR Administrative Order No. 2005-08
local government units
c) DENR Administrative Order No. 2017-16
d) Regulatory bodies only
d) DENR Administrative Order No. 198
26. What is the primary purpose of the National Electrical Code
(NEC) in the Philippines? 36. Under the ECC system, projects are categorized into which
a) Regulating water quality standards two main categories based on their potential environmental
impact?
b) Ensuring safe electrical installations and preventing
a) Category A and Category C
electrical hazards
b) Category B and Category D
c) Managing air pollution
c) Category X and Category Y
d) Promoting noise reduction measures
d) Category 1 and Category 2
27. The National Electrical Code (NEC) covers various aspects
37. What is the primary objective of public consultation during
of electrical installations, including:
the ECC application process in the Philippines?
a) Water treatment systems
a) To expedite the approval of projects
b) Road construction standards
b) To raise awareness about the ECC requirement
c) Wiring, grounding, overcurrent protection, and electrical
c) To involve affected communities and stakeholders
equipment
and gather input
d) Fire safety measures
d) To assess fire safety measures in the proposed
28. What is the primary focus of the Fire Code of the
project
Philippines?
a) Regulating air quality standards 38. Which government agency enforces ECC guidelines and
monitors compliance with environmental standards in
b) Fire safety and prevention in buildings and structures
development projects?
c) Managing water pollution
a) Department of Agriculture (DA)
d) Ensuring proper waste disposal
b) Department of Health (DOH)
29. Which types of structures are addressed by the Fire Code of
c) Local government units (LGUs)
the Philippines?
d) Department of Environment and Natural Resources
a) Only residential buildings
(DENR)
b) Residential and industrial buildings
39. What do DENR Administrative Orders provide in the context
c) Residential and commercial buildings
of ECCs?
d) Residential, commercial, industrial, and public
a) Safety regulations for construction projects
buildings
b) Guidelines for land use planning
30. Who is responsible for enforcing the National Electrical
c) Specific requirements and procedures for ECC
Code (NEC) and the Fire Code at the local level in the
applications and issuance
Philippines?
a) Department of Environment and Natural Resources d) Guidelines for wastewater treatment
(DENR) 40. What is the overarching goal of the ECC and its associated
regulations in the Philippines?
b) Local government units (LGUs)
a) To encourage high noise levels in industrial areas
c) Department of Health (DOH)
b) To ensure the efficient use of energy resources
d) Department of Transportation (DOTr)
c) To promote sustainable development while minimizing
31. What is the primary purpose of an Environmental
adverse environmental impacts
Compliance Certificate (ECC) in the Philippines?
a) To regulate air quality standards d) To reduce compliance with environmental standards
b) To ensure fire safety in buildings 41. What type of hazard in the workplace can result from
tripping, slipping, or falling from heights, potentially causing
c) To assess the potential environmental impact of
injuries?
development projects
a) Chemical hazard
d) To manage water pollution
b) Ergonomic hazard
32. Which government agency in the Philippines is responsible
c) Physical hazard
for issuing ECCs for development projects?
d) Psychosocial hazard
a) Department of Health (DOH)
b) Department of Transportation (DOTr)
42. Exposure to excessive noise levels in the workplace can lead
c) Department of Environment and Natural Resources
to which health issue?
(DENR)
a) Musculoskeletal disorders
d) Department of Agriculture (DA)
b) Respiratory problems
33. What document is closely associated with the issuance of an
c) Hearing damage
ECC and is required for projects with significant
d) Work-related stress
environmental impacts?
a) Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) 43. Prolonged exposure to vibration in the workplace is
associated with the development of:
b) Noise Pollution Impact Statement (NPIS)
a) Infectious diseases
c) Water Quality Management Plan (WQMP)
b) Repetitive strain injuries
d) Energy Efficiency Report (EER)
c) Work-related stress
34. What is the purpose of Presidential Decree No. 1586 in the
d) Chemical burns
Philippines?
a) Regulating water quality standards 44. What type of hazard may result from exposure to ionizing or
non-ionizing radiation in the workplace?
 Name:_____________________________ Shift:______________________________
Date:_________________________ Qualification:___________________
a) Biological hazard c) Respond effectively to unexpected events and
b) Ergonomic hazard emergencies
c) Fire and explosion hazard d) Conduct risk assessments
d) Radiation hazard 56. Contingency planning is an integral part of:
45. Electrical shocks and burns can occur due to which type of a) Risk management and business continuity
hazard in the workplace? b) Workplace violence prevention
a) Biomechanical hazard c) Basic life support training
b) Confined space hazard d) Workplace hazard identification
c) Environmental hazard 57. Exposure to disease-carrying insects or animals in the
d) Electrical hazard workplace is an example of a:
46. Exposure to toxic or flammable chemicals in the workplace a) Physical hazard
can lead to: b) Biological hazard
a) Musculoskeletal disorders c) Chemical exposure
b) Stress-related illnesses d) Workplace violence risk
c) Poisoning, burns, or respiratory problems 58. Handling biological specimens or materials that can lead to
d) Confined space hazards infections is associated with which type of workplace
47. Accidental spills of hazardous chemicals in the workplace hazard?
can result in: a) Contingency measures
a) Prolonged exposure to noise b) Biological hazard
b) Repetitive motion injuries c) Toxic substances exposure
c) Immediate danger and long-term environmental damage d) Workplace violence risk
d) Confined space hazards 59. Which type of hazard in the workplace involves the exposure
48. Working in inadequate workspace setups that can lead to to toxic chemicals or substances that can result in poisoning
musculoskeletal disorders is an example of which type of or chronic health issues?
hazard? a) Biological hazard
a) Confined space hazard b) Chemical exposure
b) Fire and explosion hazard c) Workplace violence risk
c) Ergonomic hazard d) Contingency measures
d) Psychosocial hazard 60. Workplace violence encompasses threats, assaults, or
49. High workloads, tight deadlines, and workplace conflicts can violence from colleagues, clients, or visitors and falls under
contribute to which type of workplace hazard? which category of workplace hazard?
a) Physical hazard a) Chemical exposure
b) Biomechanical hazard b) Contingency measures
c) Psychosocial hazard c) Workplace violence risk
d) Environmental hazard d) Biological hazard
50. Working in confined spaces without proper precautions can 61. What is the characteristic appearance of bleeding from
lead to hazards such as: capillaries?
a) Repetitive motion injuries a) A consistent blood flow with dark red blood
b) Respiratory problems b) Bright red blood spurting out
c) Asphyxiation, toxic exposure, or entrapment c) Blood that looks like a trickle
d) Noise-related injuries d) None of the above
51. What does the "ABC" of First Aid stand for? 62. Which type of bleeding often requires applying direct
a) Always Be Calm pressure to encourage clotting?
b) Airway, Breathing, Circulation a) Arterial bleeding
c) Allergic Reactions, Bandaging, Cardiac Arrest b) Capillary bleeding
d) Avoiding Broken Bones, CPR, Checking Pupils c) Venous bleeding
52. In First Aid, what is the first step when someone is d) None of the above
unconscious or unresponsive?
a) Check for a pulse
b) Begin chest compressions
c) Clear their airway
d) Provide rescue breathing

53. When providing rescue breathing during First Aid, you

should: 63. What should you do to protect yourself from infectious
a) Check the person's pulse first diseases when providing first aid for bleeding?
b) Begin with chest compressions a) Apply direct pressure to the wound
c) Administer an epinephrine injection b) Elevate the bleeding body part
d) Ensure the person's airway is clear c) Wash your hands or use disposable gloves
54. In basic life support, what should you do if a person is d) Rinse the wound with water
breathing but unresponsive? 64. If the cloth covering a bleeding wound becomes soaked,
a) Provide chest compressions what should you do?
b) Clear their airway a) Remove the cloth and apply a clean bandage
c) Check for a pulse b) Add more layers of cloth
d) Administer an antihistamine c) Elevate the bleeding body part
55. Contingency measures in organizations are proactive steps d) Apply more pressure to the wound
taken to: 65. In the case of arterial bleeding, what type of blood is
a) Identify workplace hazards typically observed?
b) Prevent workplace violence a) Bright red blood spurting out
b) Dark red blood with a consistent flow
 Name:_____________________________ Shift:______________________________
Date:_________________________ Qualification:___________________
c) Blood that looks like a trickle a) Delay action to see if the spill resolves itself
d) None of the above b) Activate trained spill response teams immediately
66. When should you call 911 for a suspected broken bone? c) Remove personal protective equipment to assess the
a) Anytime someone has a suspected fracture situation
b) Only if the person is unresponsive d) Use absorbent materials to encourage spill spreading
c) Only if the bone is poking through the skin 78. What should be used to prevent a spill from spreading further
d) If you can transport the person without difficulty during cleanup?
67. What should you avoid doing if you suspect a person has a a) Safety cabinets
fracture in their spinal column, head, hip, pelvis, or thigh? b) Secondary containment systems
a) Elevating the injured area c) Emergency shutdown systems
b) Keeping the person still d) Ignition sources
c) Moving the person 79. What is the role of emergency shutdown systems in spillage
d) Applying direct pressure to the wound control?
68. In the case of an open or compound fracture, what should a) To encourage spills
you do? b) To isolate equipment and pipelines during a spill
a) Elevate the injured area c) To disperse hazardous materials
b) Apply direct pressure to the wound d) To enhance spill response
c) Call 911 80. What is the recommended approach for disposing of
d) All of the above contaminated materials from a spill cleanup?
69. What is the recommended action when you cannot keep an a) Dispose of them haphazardly
injury from moving well enough to transport the person with b) Dispose of them in a manner that violates regulations
a suspected fracture? c) Dispose of them according to regulatory requirements
a) Keep the person as still as possible d) Dispose of them in a way that protects the environment
b) Elevate the injured area 81. Which heavy construction machine is primarily used for
c) Apply direct pressure to the wound grading and leveling surfaces, especially in road construction
d) None of the above and maintenance?
70. What is the primary goal when providing first aid for a a) Hydraulic Excavator
broken bone or fracture? b) Wheel Loader
a) Applying a clean bandage to the injury c) Bulldozer
b) Keeping the person warm d) Motor Grader
c) Immobilizing the injury to prevent further damage 82. What is the main function of a bulldozer in construction and
d) Rinsing the wound with water earthmoving tasks?
71. What is the primary goal of spillage control measures? a) Digging and excavation
a) To maximize spill occurrences b) Material handling and transport
b) To prevent hazardous materials storage c) Grading and leveling surfaces
c) To minimize the potential consequences of spills d) Pushing and moving soil and debris
d) To encourage hazardous substances' use without 83. Which heavy equipment is characterized by a large metal
precautions blade at the front for pushing and moving materials?
72. Which of the following is a key element in spillage a) Hydraulic Excavator
prevention? b) Wheel Loader
a) Storing hazardous substances in any available container c) Bulldozer
b) Segregating incompatible materials d) Motor Grader
c) Labeling containers is optional 84. In which industries are hydraulic excavators commonly used
d) Training employees is unnecessary for digging and earthmoving tasks?
73. What is the purpose of secondary containment systems, such a) Road construction and maintenance
as spill pallets and berms? b) Mining and forestry
a) To encourage spills c) Agriculture and material handling
b) To capture and contain spills d) Grading and leveling surfaces
c) To increase spill dispersion
d) To store hazardous substances 85. What is the primary function of a wheel loader in various
74. In spill response, what is the role of personal protective industries?
equipment (PPE)? a) Grading and leveling surfaces
a) To enhance the spread of spilled materials b) Pushing and moving materials
b) To discourage responders from taking action c) Digging and excavation
c) To prevent exposure to hazardous substances d) Loading, transporting, and dumping materials
d) To increase the risk of contamination 86. Which heavy construction machine is commonly used for
75. What should be done with contaminated materials after a digging, excavation, and material handling tasks and is
spill cleanup? characterized by a hinged arm with a bucket attachment?
a) Dispose of them according to regulatory requirements a) Wheel Loader
b) Keep them in storage indefinitely b) Bulldozer
c) Release them into the environment c) Hydraulic Excavator
d) Reuse them without decontamination d) Motor Grader
76. What is the purpose of conducting post-incident analysis 87. In road construction, which specialized construction machine
following a spill? is primarily responsible for creating smooth, even surfaces
a) To ignore root causes and prevent future spills and leveling the roadbed?
b) To identify the root causes and areas for improvement a) Wheel Loader
c) To minimize regulatory compliance b) Bulldozer
d) To avoid keeping records of spill incidents c) Hydraulic Excavator
77. Which of the following is a recommended spill response d) Motor Grader
action during a spill incident?
 Name:_____________________________ Shift:______________________________
Date:_________________________ Qualification:___________________
88. What is the primary function of a motor grader in large-scale 99. In which construction scenario is a backhoe loader most
infrastructure projects? commonly used?
a) Digging and excavation a) Smoothing road surfaces
b) Material handling and transport b) Lifting heavy objects
c) Grading and leveling surfaces c) Compacting materials
d) Pushing and moving materials d) Digging and excavation
89. Which heavy equipment is commonly used in agriculture for 100. What is the typical role of a static roller in road construction
loading, transporting, and dumping various bulk materials projects?
like soil, gravel, and crops? a) Excavation of trenches
a) Wheel Loader b) Vibratory compaction of soil
b) Bulldozer c) Final compaction of road surfaces
c) Hydraulic Excavator d) Material handling and transport
d) Motor Grader 101. Operator Serviceable (OS) parts are components of heavy
90. What distinguishes a wheel loader from other heavy machinery that:
construction equipment? a) Require specialized technician maintenance
a) It has a large metal blade for pushing materials. b) Can only be replaced, not serviced
b) It is used for precision grading and leveling. c) Are intended to be serviced by the equipment operator
c) It has a hinged arm with a bucket attachment. d) Are permanently sealed and non-serviceable
d) It is primarily designed for material handling tasks. 102. What is the purpose of Operator Serviceable (OS) parts in
91. What type of heavy construction equipment combines the heavy machinery?
features of a tractor loader and a hydraulic excavator, making a) To reduce equipment operator involvement in
it versatile for digging, loading, and material handling? maintenance
a) Bulldozer
b) To increase downtime and repair costs
b) Backhoe Loader
c) To simplify operator responsibilities
c) Road Roller
d) To enable operators to perform routine maintenance tasks
d) Motor Grader
103. Which of the following is an example of an Operator
92. What is the primary function of a road roller in road Serviceable (OS) part?
construction and maintenance? a) Engine overhaul kit
a) Digging and excavation
b) Hydraulic pump replacement
b) Material handling and transport
c) Changing light bulbs
c) Compacting and smoothing road surfaces
d) Replacing the entire transmission
d) Grading and leveling surfaces
104. When it comes to routine maintenance, what is a common
93. Which type of road roller compacts materials through static task an equipment operator may perform on heavy
weight and pressure rather than vibrations? machinery?
a) Static Roller a) Major engine rebuild
b) Vibratory Roller b) Complete system diagnostics
c) Backhoe Loader c) Cleaning and replacing air filters
d) Motor Grader d) Overhauling the entire hydraulic system
94. In road construction, what is the main advantage of using
vibratory rollers over static rollers?
105. What type of maintenance approach emphasizes identifying
a) Greater maneuverability
issues early, preventing breakdowns, and reducing
b) Higher compaction efficiency downtime?
c) Lower maintenance requirements a) Reactive maintenance
d) Improved soil excavation capability b) Proactive maintenance
c) Corrective maintenance
95. Which heavy construction machine is commonly used for d) Emergency maintenance
compacting and smoothing road surfaces and other flat 106. Which Operator Serviceable (OS) part is essential to ensure
areas? proper engine performance and longevity?
a) Backhoe Loader a) Replacing the entire exhaust system
b) Road Roller b) Changing transmission fluid
c) Static Roller c) Cleaning and replacing air filters
d) Bulldozer d) Overhauling the entire cooling system
96. What is the primary compaction method used by static 107. What is the primary benefit of operators performing routine
rollers to compact materials in road construction? maintenance tasks on heavy machinery?
a) Vibrations a) Reduced equipment lifespan
b) Dynamic weight shifting b) Increased repair costs
c) Static weight and pressure c) Improved reliability and reduced downtime
d) Material extrusion d) Decreased operator involvement
97. Which type of roller is particularly effective for compacting 108. Which of the following is NOT an example of an Operator
granular materials such as soil, gravel, and asphalt? Serviceable (OS) part?
a) Backhoe Loader a) Checking battery terminals/connection
b) Road Roller b) Adjusting tire inflation/tire pressure
c) Static Roller c) Replacing a damaged hydraulic pump
d) Vibratory Roller d) Greasing/lubricating points
98. Which heavy construction equipment relies on vibrations to 109. What is the significance of Operator Serviceable (OS) parts
achieve densification and improve compaction efficiency? in preventive maintenance?
a) Backhoe Loader a) They require specialized technician maintenance
b) Road Roller b) They eliminate the need for routine inspections
c) Static Roller c) They empower operators to contribute to equipment
d) Vibratory Roller reliability
 Name:_____________________________ Shift:______________________________
Date:_________________________ Qualification:___________________
d) They lead to increased unplanned breakdowns a) Enhancing fuel efficiency
110. Operator Serviceable (OS) parts are particularly important b) Preventing equipment damage and malfunction
for maintaining which of the following on heavy machinery? c) Reducing equipment weight
a) Fuel water separator d) Increasing noise levels
b) Advanced computer systems 122. Before starting any adjustment, what precaution should be
c) Electronic control modules taken to prevent accidents?
d) Complex hydraulic systems a) Ensure the equipment is turned on and energized
111. What is the primary function of a car battery in a vehicle's b) Wear appropriate safety gear
electrical system? c) Use excessive force when making adjustments
a) Providing fuel to the engine d) Disregard manufacturer's specifications
b) Generating engine power 123. When adjusting belt tension, what tool may be used to
c) Supplying electrical energy to start the engine and power measure the tension?
accessories a) Safety glasses
d) Regulating the vehicle's air conditioning b) Tension gauge
112. Which type of car battery is known for being maintenance- c) Gloves
free and sealed to prevent the need for adding water? d) Operator's manual
a) Flooded Lead-Acid Battery 124. What is a key step in adjusting alignment for chains in
b) Sealed Lead-Acid Battery (SLA) machinery?
c) Lithium-Ion Battery a) Check for lateral misalignment
d) Alkaline Battery b) Tighten all mounting hardware
113. In a traditional lead-acid car battery, what is the primary c) Increase deflection
purpose of the electrolyte? d) Disengage the chain from the sprockets
a) To power the vehicle's lights 125. How should you check deflection for belts between two
b) To supply fuel to the engine pulleys during the adjustment process?
c) To provide electrical energy to start the engine a) Apply excessive pressure with your finger
d) To mix with engine oil b) Do not check deflection
114. What is the main purpose of an air cleaner or air filter in c) Measure it with a deflection gauge
various applications? d) Refer to the manufacturer's specifications to ensure it's
a) To remove impurities and contaminants from the air within the recommended range
b) To increase indoor air pollution 126. What type of battery is commonly used in modern vehicles
c) To regulate air temperature with start-stop systems and high electrical demands?
d) To generate electricity a) Gel Cell Battery
115. Air cleaners are commonly used in which of the following b) Lithium-Ion Battery
systems or applications? c) Calcium-Calcium Battery
a) HVAC systems d) Gel Cell Battery
b) Fuel injection systems 127. Which type of battery uses an absorbent glass mat separator
c) Tire pressure monitoring systems to immobilize the electrolyte?
d) Exhaust systems a) Gel Cell Battery
116. What are battery terminals responsible for in a vehicle's b) Lithium-Ion Battery
electrical system? c) Calcium-Calcium Battery
a) Regulating engine temperature d) AGM Battery
b) Connecting the battery to electrical components 128. What is the primary advantage of lithium-ion (Li-ion)
c) Distributing fuel to the engine batteries over lead-acid batteries in hybrid and electric
d) Controlling tire pressure vehicles (EVs)?
117. Which type of car battery terminal is typically marked with a a) Lower cost
positive (+) symbol? b) Longer lifespan
a) Negative terminal c) Higher maintenance requirements
b) Neutral terminal d) Lower energy density
c) Positive terminal 129. Enhanced Flooded Batteries (EFB) are designed for use in:
d) Ground terminal a) High-performance vehicles
118. Corrosion on battery terminals and cable ends is usually b) Traditional lead-acid batteries
caused by: c) Recreational vehicles
a) Contact with air d) Electric vehicles (EVs)
b) Weather conditions 130. Thin Plate Pure Lead (TPPL) batteries are an advanced form
c) Chemical reactions with the battery's sulfuric acid of which battery type?
d) UV radiation a) Gel Cell Battery
119. Why is regular maintenance of battery terminals and b) Lithium-Ion Battery
connections important? c) Calcium-Calcium Battery
a) To increase corrosion buildup d) AGM Battery
b) To reduce the vehicle's power 131. What is the primary purpose of maintaining proper tire
c) To ensure a reliable electrical system pressure in a vehicle?
d) To enhance engine performance a) Enhancing tire appearance
120. What safety precaution should be followed when working b) Improving fuel efficiency
with battery terminals and connections? c) Reducing vehicle weight
a) Disconnect the positive terminal first d) Enhancing engine performance
b) Wear safety glasses and gloves 132. Where can you find the recommended tire pressure for your
c) Apply additional lubrication to the terminals specific vehicle?
d) Perform maintenance with the engine running a) Inside the glove compartment
121. What is the primary purpose of belt and chain adjustments in b) In the vehicle's exhaust system
machinery and equipment? c) On the driver's side door jamb or placard
 Name:_____________________________ Shift:______________________________
Date:_________________________ Qualification:___________________
d) Under the hood d) The tire will become more fuel-efficient
133. What unit of measurement is commonly used for tire 145. What factors can influence the lifespan of wheel loader tires?
pressure recommendations (e.g., psi or kPa)? a) The color of the loader
a) Millimeters b) The driver's skill level
b) Gallons c) The type of jobs the equipment is used for and
c) Pounds per square inch (psi) maintenance
d) Kilowatts d) The loader's top speed
134. If your measured tire pressure is below the recommended 146. Which type of job is likely to result in shorter tire lifespan
level, how should you adjust it? for a wheel loader?
a) Release air until it's lower a) Road construction
b) Leave it as it is b) Quarrying
c) Add air until it reaches the recommended level c) Lawn mowing
d) Replace the tire d) Snow plowing
135. Overinflated tires can lead to: 147. What is a realistic estimate for the typical tire lifespan of a
a) Better fuel efficiency wheel loader?
b) Reduced risk of blowouts a) 100 hours
c) Poor handling and reduced traction b) 1,000 hours
d) Longer tire life c) 2,000 to 3,500 hours
136. What should you do after adjusting the tire pressure in all d) 10,000 hours
four tires? 148. What is a primary maintenance factor that can extend the
a) Replace the valve caps securely lifespan of wheel loader tires?
b) Leave the valve caps off a) Reducing tire pressure
c) Drive at high speeds to test the tires b) Using unbalanced tires
d) Ignore the valve caps c) Regular maintenance and upkeep
137. How often should you ideally check your tire pressure to d) Ignoring tire wear
ensure proper maintenance?
a) Once every few years
b) Only before long trips
c) Periodically, ideally once a month
d) Once a year
149. What is the primary purpose of lubricating or greasing points
138. What can you visually inspect for on your tires while on machinery and equipment?
checking the tire pressure? a) To make the equipment look shiny
a) Radio signal strength b) To reduce friction and prevent wear and tear
b) The vehicle's paint condition c) To increase the equipment's weight
c) Signs of damage, cuts, bulges, or excessive wear d) To improve equipment aesthetics
d) Engine temperature 150. How can you identify grease points on machinery or
139. Why is maintaining the correct tire pressure essential for equipment?
vehicle safety? a) By reading the equipment's user manual
a) It makes the vehicle go faster b) By checking the equipment's color
b) It helps reduce road noise c) By listening for unusual noises
c) It contributes to better handling and traction d) By counting the number of moving parts
d) It improves air conditioning performance 151. What is the primary purpose of a fuel water separator in a
140. What should you do if you find damage such as cuts, vehicle or equipment?
punctures, or excessive wear on your tires? a) To increase fuel efficiency
a) Nothing, as the tires are still safe to use b) To add water to the fuel
b) Replace or repair the damaged tires as needed c) To remove water and contaminants from the fuel
c) Increase tire pressure to compensate for the damage d) To enhance engine sound
d) Drive carefully only in good weather conditions 152. How does a fuel water separator separate water and
141. What is tire cupping? contaminants from fuel?
a) Even tire wear a) By using a magnetic field
b) A type of tire damage b) Through centrifugal separation
c) A tire rotation technique c) By chemical reactions
d) The proper alignment of tires d) By heating the fuel
142. What is a common symptom of tire cupping that drivers 153. Where does the separated water and contaminants collect
might experience? within a fuel water separator?
a) Increased fuel efficiency a) In the fuel tank
b) Vibration in the steering wheel b) In a separate chamber or bowl
c) Quieter road noise c) In the engine
d) Improved traction d) In the exhaust system
143. What is the typical cause of tire cupping? 154. What type of force is used in the centrifugal separation
a) Proper vehicle alignment process inside a fuel water separator?
b) Misaligned tires or worn suspension components a) Magnetic force
c) Perfectly balanced tires b) Gravitational force
d) Frequent tire rotations c) Centrifugal force
144. If your vehicle's suspension is worn or damaged, what may d) Electromagnetic force
happen to the tire? 155. What can be found at the bottom of many fuel water
a) The tire will maintain even wear separators for periodic removal of water and contaminants?
b) The tire will bounce on the road surface a) Fuel pump
c) The tire will become overinflated b) Drain valve
 Name:_____________________________ Shift:______________________________
Date:_________________________ Qualification:___________________
c) Spark plug b) To remove all engine oil from the system
d) Air filter c) To filter out contaminants and debris from the oil
156. How does the clean fuel leave the fuel water separator to d) To increase engine friction
reach the engine? 168. Which of the following components does engine oil help seal
a) Through a separate fuel line in an internal combustion engine?
b) By evaporating into the air a) The exhaust system
c) Through a siphon tube b) The fuel injection system
d) Through the regular fuel lines c) The cooling system
157. What contaminants may be collected in the fuel water d) The piston rings and cylinder walls
separator's bowl? 169. What is the typical composition of synthetic engine oil?
a) Gold particles a) 100% natural oil
b) Silver particles b) A blend of minerals and synthetic compounds
c) Dirt, debris, rust particles, and microbial growth c) Chemically engineered compounds
d) Rubber particles d) A mixture of water and oil
158. Why is it important to remove water and contaminants from 170. Why is it important to follow the recommended oil change
the fuel in a vehicle or equipment? interval for your vehicle?
a) To increase the engine's weight a) To increase engine friction
b) To improve engine emissions b) To save money on oil changes
c) To prevent engine damage and maintain efficiency c) To maintain engine health and performance
d) To add color to the fuel d) To reduce engine cooling
159. How often should the drain valve on a fuel water separator
be opened to remove accumulated water and contaminants?
a) Every hour
b) Once a year
c) As needed, based on inspection
d) Never 171. What is the primary function of hydraulic fluid in a hydraulic
160. What is the recommended source for determining the proper system?
maintenance and service intervals for a vehicle's fuel water a) Providing electrical power
separator? b) Transmitting force
a) An astrology book c) Generating heat
b) Magic eight ball d) Regulating air pressure
c) The vehicle or equipment manufacturer's guidelines and 172. Which component of a hydraulic system pressurizes the
recommendations hydraulic fluid?
d) A random online quiz a) Reservoir
161. What is the primary function of engine oil in an internal b) Hydraulic cylinder
combustion engine? c) Hydraulic pump
a) Cooling the engine d) Control valve
b) Increasing friction between moving parts 173. What is the role of the reservoir in a hydraulic system?
c) Preventing wear and tear a) To cool the hydraulic fluid
d) Preventing engine cleaning b) To convert hydraulic pressure into linear motion
162. What role does engine oil play in engine cooling? c) To store and supply hydraulic fluid
a) It acts as a coolant in the radiator. d) To control the flow rate of hydraulic fluid
b) It helps radiate heat from the engine. 174. Which component is responsible for converting hydraulic
c) It absorbs and dissipates heat generated by the engine. pressure into linear mechanical force in a hydraulic system?
d) It has no effect on engine temperature. a) Hydraulic pump
163. Which type of engine oil is known for its high-performance b) Hydraulic cylinder
characteristics and is often used in modern vehicles? c) Control valve
a) Conventional (mineral) oil d) Actuator
b) Synthetic oil 175. What is the function of control valves in a hydraulic system?
c) Semi-synthetic oil a) To pressurize the hydraulic fluid
d) Recycled oil b) To store hydraulic fluid
164. What does the "W" in 10W-30 engine oil viscosity grade c) To regulate the flow and direction of hydraulic fluid
stand for? d) To convert hydraulic pressure into rotary motio
a) Warm 176. Which principle serves as the foundation for the operation of
b) Weight hydraulic systems?
c) Winter a) Archimedes' principle
d) Width b) Bernoulli's principle
165. What does the second number in an engine oil viscosity c) Newton's second law
grade represent in the format XW-40 (e.g., 10W-40)? d) Pascal's principle
a) Flow properties at high temperatures 177. How does hydraulic fluid return to the reservoir in a
b) Flow properties at low temperatures hydraulic system?
c) The number of oil changes needed per year a) By converting into electrical energy
d) Oil filter specifications b) Through a control valve
166. How often should you change the engine oil in your vehicle? c) After performing mechanical work
a) Every 10,000 miles d) By using a pump
b) Once a year 178. What is the role of filters in a hydraulic system?
c) Follow the vehicle manufacturer's guidelines a) To remove contaminants from the hydraulic fluid
d) Only when the oil appears dirty b) To pressurize the hydraulic fluid
167. What is the purpose of the oil filter in an engine? c) To convert hydraulic pressure into heat
a) To cool the engine oil d) To control the direction of fluid flow
 Name:_____________________________ Shift:______________________________
Date:_________________________ Qualification:___________________
179. Which type of hydraulic component is used for rotary motion b) Long-Lasting Electric Device
in a hydraulic system? c) Low Energy Demand
a) Hydraulic pump d) Luminous Energy Detector
b) Hydraulic cylinder 191. What is the primary function of a Rollover Protection
c) Control valve System (ROPS) in heavy equipment?
d) Hydraulic motor a) To increase fuel efficiency
180. What is the function of coolers in a hydraulic system? b) To protect the operator in case of a rollover accident
a) To regulate fluid temperature and maintain system c) To enhance equipment's speed
efficiency d) To reduce maintenance costs
b) To pressurize the hydraulic fluid 192. What does FOPS stand for in heavy equipment?
c) To convert hydraulic pressure into mechanical work a) Falling Objects Prevention System
d) To store hydraulic fluid] b) Forklift Operator Protection System
181. Which type of light bulb is commonly used in older heavy c) Fuel Oil Prevention System
equipment but is less energy-efficient and has a shorter d) Falling Object Protection System
lifespan compared to others?
a) Halogen bulbs
b) LED bulbs
c) Incandescent bulbs
d) Fluorescent bulbs 193. Safety interlock systems in heavy equipment help prevent
accidents by:
182. What gas is typically used in halogen bulbs to extend the life a) Increasing equipment speed
of the filament and produce brighter light? b) Requiring the operator to wear a specific uniform
a) Helium c) Ensuring that specific conditions are met before equipment
b) Neon operation
c) Krypton d) Providing additional headlights for night operations
d) Halogen gas 194. Which of the following is a component of blinkers in heavy
183. LED (Light Emitting Diode) bulbs are preferred in heavy equipment?
equipment for their energy efficiency and long lifespan. a) Steering wheel
Which of the following is a benefit of LED bulbs? b) Windshield wiper
a) They generate a lot of heat. c) Flasher relay
b) They are prone to filament damage. d) Brake pedal
c) They consume more power. 195. What is the primary function of a windshield guard in a
d) They can last significantly longer than traditional bulbs. vehicle?
184. In heavy equipment, where are halogen bulbs often used? a) To prevent the engine from starting
a) Brake lights b) To shield the windshield from environmental elements and
b) Taillights debris
c) Work lights c) To improve fuel efficiency
d) All of the above d) To regulate turn signal lights
185. Which type of light bulb is an improvement over 196. What is the purpose of a neutral safety switch in a vehicle's
incandescent bulbs and is commonly used in headlights? transmission system?
a) Halogen bulbs a) To activate the air conditioning
b) LED bulbs b) To control the vehicle's steering
c) Fluorescent bulbs c) To prevent the engine from starting when the transmission
d) Neon bulbs is in gear
186. What is a key reason why LED bulbs are popular in heavy d) To manage the vehicle's suspension
equipment lighting? 197. How does the parking brake function in heavy equipment?
a) They are prone to overheating. a) It regulates the equipment's speed
b) They have a short lifespan. b) It controls the air conditioning system
c) They are energy-efficient and have a long lifespan. c) It holds the vehicle in position while stationary
d) They are fragile and easily break. d) It operates the windshield wipers
187. What is the primary function of light bulbs in heavy 198. In the "BLOWAF" checklist for heavy equipment, what does
equipment? "F" represent?
a) Generating electricity a) Fire extinguisher
b) Creating heat b) Fuel system
c) Providing visibility and safety c) Fan belt
d) Controlling hydraulic systems d) Forklift operation
188. In heavy equipment, which type of light bulb is commonly 199. What is the role of an equipment dispatcher or foreman in
used for work lights and signal lights? heavy equipment operations?
a) Incandescent bulbs a) To operate heavy equipment
b) Halogen bulbs b) To oversee the maintenance and management of
c) LED bulbs equipment
d) Neon bulbs c) To manage fuel procurement
189. Compared to incandescent bulbs, which type of bulb d) To conduct equipment safety inspections
generates less heat and consumes less power? 200. What is the primary responsibility of maintenance personnel
a) Halogen bulbs in various industries?
b) LED bulbs a) Operating heavy equipment
c) Fluorescent bulbs b) Ensuring that equipment is in good working condition
d) Incandescent bulbs c) Managing equipment dispatch
190. What does LED stand for in LED light bulbs? d) Supervising equipment operators
a) Light Emitting Diode
Name:_____________________________ Shift:______________________________
Date:_________________________ Qualification:___________________