Physics crash ss1-ss2 Name:…………………………………………….

1. The driver of a car moving with a uniform speed 40 ms-¹ observes a truck approaching in the opposite direction with a speed of 20
ms-¹. Calculate the speed of the car relative to that of the truck …………….
2. A boy travels 8 km eastward to a point B and then 6km northward to another point C. determine the difference between the
magnitude of displacement of the boy and distance traveled by him……………
3. How far will a body move in 4 seconds if uniformly accelerated from rest at the rate of 2 m s………………
4. A body accelerates uniformly from rest at the rate of 3 ms-¹ for 8 seconds. Calculate the distance covered by the during the
acceleration. …………………………
5. A ball is dropped from a height of 45 m above the ground. Calculate the velocity of the ball just before it strikes the ground. (Neglect
air resistance and take g as 10 ms-²) ……………………………….
6. A body accelerates uniformly from rest at 2 ms-¹.Calculate the magnitude of its velocity after traveling 9 m. …………………………
7. A coin is pushed from the edge of a laboratory bench with a horizontal velocity of 15.0 ms-1. If then height of the bench from the floor
is 1.5 m, calculate the distance from the foot of the bench to the point of impact with the foot g = 10 ms-² …………………………….
8. Which of the following sketches represents the velocity-time graph of the motion a stone projected vertically upwards and allowed to
return to the
A point of projection? B C D
V V V
V
t t t t
9. An object is projected with a velocity of 100 m s-¹ from the ground level at an angle θ to the vertical. If the total time of flight of the
projectile is 10 s, calculate θ. (g = 10 ms-²). …………………………….
10. A ball is projected horizontally from the top of a hill with a velocity of 20ms-1. If itreaches the ground 4 second later, what is the height
of the hill? (g =10ms-²)……………………………………..
11. At what angle to the horizontal must the nozzle of machine gun be kept when firing to obtain a maximum horizontal range for the
bullets? ……………………………………..
12. The distance travelled by a particle starting from rest is plotted against the square of the time elapsed from the commencement of
motion. The resultant graph is linear. The slope of this graph is a measure of (A) initial displacement (B) initial velocity (C)
acceleration (D)half the acceleration
13. A small metal ball is thrown vertically upwards from the top of a tower with an initial velocity of 20ms -1. If the ball took a total of 6s to
reach ground level, determine the height of the tower. (A) 60m (B) 80m (C) 100m (D) 120m
14. An object is projected with velocity of 80 ms -1 at an angle of 30o to the horizontal. The maximum height reached is (A) 20 m (B) 80 m
(C) 160 m (D) 320 m
15. A uniform metre rule weighting 0.5N is to be pivoted on a knife-edge at the 30cm-mark. Where will a force of 2N be placed from the
pivot to balance the metre rule? (A) 95cm (B) 25cm (C) 20cm (D) 5cm
16. Which of the following consists entirely of vector quantities? (A) Velocity, magnetic flux and reaction. (B) Tension, magnetic flux and
mass (C) Displacement, impulse and power (D) Work, pressure and moment.
17. Which of these statements are correct for the pressures in liquids? I Pressure in a liquid at a point acts equally in all directions II
Pressure increases with depth III Pressure at a depth depends on the shape of the container. IV Pressures at the same depth in
different liquids are proportional to the densities of the liquids. (A) I, II and III only (B) I, II and IV only (C) I, III and Iv only (D) II, III and
IV only.
18. A body of mass 100g moving with a velocity of 10.0 ms-1 collides with a wall. If after the collision, it moves with a velocity of 2.0ms-1 in
the opposite direction, calculate the change in momentum. (A) 0.8Ns (B) 1.2Ns (C) 12.0Ns (D) 80.0Ns
19. A wheel and axle is used to raise a load of 500N by the application of an effort of 250N. If the radii of the wheel and the axle are
0.4cm and 0.1cm respectively, the efficiency of the machine is (A) 50% (B) 60% (C) 20% (D) 40%
20. 200g of water at 900Cis mixed with 100g of water at 300C.What is the final temperature? (A) 500C (B) 600C (C) 700C (D) 800C
21. An electric kettle with negligible heat capacity is rated at 2000W. If 2.0kg of water is put in it, how long will it take the temperature of
water to rise from 200C to 1000C? (A) 420s (B) 336s (C) 168s (D) 84s. [specific heat capacity of water = 4200 J kg-1 K-1].
22. The tendency of a body to remain at rest when a force is applied to it is called ……………………………
23. A force acts on a body for 0.5 s changing its momentum from 16.0 kg ms-¹ to 21.0 kg ms-¹, calculate the magnitude of the force
………………………………………..
24. A ball of mass 0.1kg approaching a tennis player with a velocity of l0ms-¹ is hit back in the opposite direction with a velocity of 15ms-
¹ if the time of impact between the racket and the ball is 0.0ls, calculate t magnitude of the force with which the ball is
hit…………………………………..
25. A ball of mass 0.1kg approaching a tennis player with a velocity of l0ms-¹ is hit back in the opposite direction with a velocity of 15ms-¹
if the time of impact between the racket and the ball is 0.0ls, calculate t magnitude of the force with which the ball is
hit………………………………………
26. A ball of mass 5.0kg hits a smooth vertical wall normally with a speed of 2m-¹ and rebounds with the same speed. Determine the
impulse experienced by the ball. …………………………………….
27. A net force of magnitude 0.6N acts on a body of mass 40g, initially at rest. Calculate the magnitude of the resulting acceleration.
…………………………………..
 28. A trolley of mass 4kg moving on a smooth horizontal platform with a speed of 1.0ms -1 collides perfectly with a stationary trolley of the
same mass on the same platform. Calculate the total momentum of the two trolleys immediately after the
collision………………………………………….
29. A machine of velocity ratio 5 is used in lifting a load with- an effort of 500 N. If the machine is 80% efficient, determine the magnitude
of the load. ……………………………………
30. Which of the following simple machines is a second class lever? A. Wheel barrow B. Crowbar C. Claw hammer D.
Seesaw
31. A wheel and axle of radii 800mm and 200mm respectively is used to raise a body of weight 800 N by the application of 250 N.
Calculate the efficiency of the machine…………………………………….
32. The velocity ratio of en inclined plane, inclined at an angle θ to the horizontal can be expressed as A. (sin θ)-² B.( sin θ) -¹
C. (cos θ)-¹ D. cos θ
33. A block and tackle system has six pulleys. A force of 50 N applied to it lifts a load of weight W. If the efficiency of the system is 40%,
calculate W. ………………………………..
34. A plane inclined at 30° to the horizontal has an efficiency of 50%. Calculate the force parallel to the plane required to push a load of
120 N uniformly up the plane. ………………………………..
35. The period of a simple pendulum of length 80.0 cm was found to have doubled when the length of the pendulum was increased by X.
Calculate ………………………………………………..
36. A body is projected horizontally from the top of a cliff 45m above the ground: If the body lands at a distance 30m from the foot of the
cliff, calculate the speed of projection. g= 10 ms-¹ ……………………
37. Which of the following statements best describes a rigid body? A body: which A. is not easily deformed B. when deformed
regains its shape C. is brittleD. when deformed remains deformed
38. A simple harmonic oscillator has a period of 0.02 s and amplitude of 0.25 m. Calculate the speed in ms-¹ at the centre of the
oscillation. A. 1.2 π B. 25.00 π C. 100.00 π D. 400.00 π
39. A slinky spring fixed at one end is placed horizontally on a table. The free end is displaced parallel to the table and then released.
The resultimg wavelength is (A) transverse (B) longitudinal (C) stationary (D) electromagnetic
40. Light is considered as a transverse wave because it travels (A) through material without causing disturbance of the medium (B) through
space with constant speed (C) in a direction parallel to the plane containing the electric and magnetic fields (D) in a direction
perpendicular to the plane containing the electric and magnetic fields
41. Which of the following statements about a progressive mechanical wave is correct? (A) it can be a plane polarised (B) its energy is
localised at specific points of its profile (C) it does not require a material medium for its propagation (D) its frequency remains constant
as it travels between different media
42. What happens to the rays in a parallel beam oflight? (A) They diverges as they travel (B) Theymeet at infinity (C) They intersect (D) They
converge as they travel
43. The amplitude of a wave is the (A) distance travelled by the wave in a complete cycle of its motion (B) maximum diplacement of the
wave particle from the equilibrum position (C) separation of two adjacent particles vibrating in a phase (D) distance between two
successive troughs of the wave
44. The S.I units of frequency, period and amplitude of a wave are respectively (A) hertz, second and centimeter (B) second, metre and
hertz (C) metre, hertz and seconds (D) hertz, second and metre
45. Radio waves have a velocity of 3×108ms-1. Aradiostation sends out a broadcast on a frequency of800 kHz. The wavelength of the
broadcast is (A) 375.0 m (B) 267.0 m (C) 240.0 m (D) 37.5 m
46. A certain wave has a speed of 20ms-1. If the frequency of the wave is 0.25Hz, calculate the distance between successive crests of the
wave (A) 5.0m (B) 40.0m (C) 50.0m (D) 80.0m
47. The distance between two points in phase on a progressive wave is 5cm. If the speed of the wave is 0.2ms -1, calculate its period (A)
4.00s (B) 2.50s (C) 0.25s (D) 0.04s
48. A wave of frequency 10Hz forms a stationarywave pattern in a medium where the velocity is20cms -1. the distance between adjacent
nodes is (A) 1.0cm (B) 1.5cm (C) 2.0cm (D) 5.0cm
49. A device used to prevent electrical overloading and explosion of electrical devices (A) fuse (B) electroscope (C) resistor (D)
capacitor.

50. Of the following derived units, the one that is not a unit of power is (A) Joule/second (B) Ampere-volt (C) Amphere2volt (D) volt2/Ohm
51. Which of the following modes is the most economical method of transmitting electrical power over long distances? (A) alternating current
at low voltage and high current (B) alternating current at high voltage and high current (C) alternating current at high voltage and low
current (D) direct current at low voltage and high current
52. In the wiring of houses, the fuse is connected to the wire coloured (A) Blue (B) Brown (C) Yellow (D) yellow and green
53. Which of the following factors does not affect the electric resistance of wire? (A) Length (B) Mass (C) Temperature (D) cross-sectional
area
54. The resistance of a wire depends on (A) The length of the wire (B) The diameter of the wire (C) The temperature of the wire (D) All of the
above.
55. A voltmeter is a device that (A) draws high current (B) has a very low resistance (C.) has a very high resistance (D) is able to measure
both voltage and current
56. Which of the following is a unit of the time rate of flow of electric charges? (A) Coulomb (B) Ampere (C) Volt (D) watt
57. Electrical resistance is a property of an electrical energy to be converted into (A) mechanical energy (B) heat energy (C) magnetic
energy (D) chemical energy
58. Which of the following is an electrolyte? A. Grape juice B. Sugar solution C. Alcohol D. Paraffin
59. Which of the following statement(s) about a three-pin plug is/are correct I. The brown wire is the live wire II. the fuse is connected to the
live wire III. The earth wire is coloured blue (a) I only (b) II only (c) I and Ii only (d) I, II and III
60. An aluminium cable of diameter 4×10-3m and resistivity 3.0×10-8Ωm has a resistance of 21Ω. Calculate the length of the cable. (π=3.14)
…………………………………………
61. A wire of cross-sectional area 0.60mm2 has a restivity of 7.2×10-7 Ωm. Calculate the length of wire that will have a resistance of 3Ω.
……………………………………
62. A wire of length 100cm has a resistance of 10Ω. If its cross-sectional area is 0.005cm 2, determine its resistivity.
………………………………
63. Calculate the resistivity of a wire of length 2m and cross-sectional area 0.004cm 2 if its resistance is 3.0ohm
………………………………………
64. Calculate the length of a constantan wire of cross- sectional area 4 π x 10 -8m2 and resistivity 1.1 x 10-6 Ω m required to construct a
standard resistor of resistance 21 Ω. [Take π = 22/7] ………………………….
65. A cell of internal resistance 0.01 ohms can be measured accurately using the (A) Ohm-meter (B) Potentiometer (C) Electroscope (D)
Metre bridge
66. Which of the following statements explains lost volt in an electric circuit? The (A) total p.d from a source to maintain a flow of current
through the circuit as well as the source (B) p.d to drive current through the circuit component except the source (C) p.d across all
external components connected to the source of electricity (D) p.d across the internal resistance of the cell
67. A current of 10A passes through a conductor for 10s, calculate the charge flowing through the conductor
……………………………………………
68. A car fuse marked 3A operates optimally on a 12V battery, calculate the resistance of the fuse …………..
69. Two identical cells each of e.m.f 2V and internal resistance 1.0Ω are connected in parallel. The combination is connected to an external
load of 1.5Ω. Calculate the current in the circuit ………………….
70. Two cells, each of e.m.f. 1.5V and an internal resistance 2 Ohms are connected in parallel. Calculate the current flowing when the cells
are connected to a 1 Ohms resistor. (………………………………………….
71. The difference of potential between the terminals of a cell is 2.2 volts. When a 4 ohm resistor is connected across the terminals of this
cell, the potential difference is 2 volts. What is the internal resistance of the cell? ………………………………………………..
72. A 24V potential difference is applied across a parallel combination of four 6-ohm resistors. The currents in each resistor is
……………………………………….
73. A cell can supply currents of 0.4Aand 0.2A through a 4.0 Ohms and 10.0 Ohms resistors respectively. The internal resistance of the cell
is ………………………………………..
74. A cell whose internal resistance is 0.5 Ohms delivers a current of 4A to an external resistor. The lost voltage of the cell is (A) 1.250V (B)
8.000V (C) 0.125V (D) 2.000V
75. A cell of internal resistance r supplies current to a 6.0 Ohms resistor and its efficiency is 75%. Find the value of r
…………………………………………………..
76. A radio is operated by eight cells each of e.m.f. 2.0V connected in series. if two of the cells are wrongly connected, the net e.m.f. of the
radio is …………………………
77. An electric cell with nominal voltage E has a resistance of 3 Ohms connected across it. If the voltage falls to 0.6Volts, the internal
resistance of the cell is …………………………….
78. Six dry cells each of e.m.f. 2.0 and internal resistance of 1.0Ω are connected in parallel across a load of 3.0Ω. Calculate the effective
current in the circuit. ……………………………..
79. A resistor of resistance R is connected to a battery of negligible internal resistance. If a siilar resistor is connected in series with it the (A)
effective resistance of the circuit is halved (B) total power dissipated is doubled (C) total current in the circuit is halved (D) terminal
voltage is halved
80. A cell of e.m.f. 1.5V is connected in series with a resistor of resistance 3.0Ω. A voltmeter connected across the cell registers 0.9V.
Calculate the internal resistance of the cell ………………………………..
81. A battery of e.m.f. 12.0V and internal resistance 0.5Ω is connected to 1.5Ω and 4.0Ω series resistor. Calculate the terminal voltage of the
battery. …………………………………..
82. A cell of e.m.f. 1.5V and internal resistance 1.0Ω is connected to two resistor of resistance 2.0Ω and 3.0Ω in series. Calculate the current
through the resistors …………………………
83. A lamp is rated 240V 60W, calculate the resistance of its filament …………………………
84. The maximum power dissipated by a 100Ω resistor in a circuit is 4W. Calculate the voltage across the resistor
…………………………………..
85. Three identical lamps each power 100W are connected in parallel across a potential difference of 250V. Calculate the current in the
circuit …………………………………
86. A portable generator is connected to six 100W lamps and a 600W amplifying system. How much energy is consumed if the generator
runs for 6 hours? ………………………………..
87. Which of the following will not lower the surface tension of water? (A) Detergent (B) Methylated spirit (C) Soap solution (D)
Grease
88. Which of the following phenomena causes capillary of liquids in tubes of narrow bore? (A) Viscosity (B) surface tension (C) Osmosis
(D) brownian motion
89. A steel needle floating on water, sinks when kerosine is added to the water. This is because the kerosine (A) increased the surface
tension of the water (B) reduces the density of the water (C) reduces the surface tension of the water (D) reduces the upthrust on the
needle
90. A small steel needle is carefully floated on water in a beaker. When a few drops of kerosene are introduced into the water the needle
sinks. Which of the following statements correctly explain(s) the observation? I There is a tension on the water surface. II Kerosene
reduces the density of water so that the needle becomes denser than water. III Kerosene reduces the surface tension of water. (A) I
only (B) II only (C) III only (D) I and II E. I and III
91. Which of the following observations is not an effect of surface tension? (A) droplets of water dripping slowly from a tap (B) mercury
spilled on a clean glass plate forms spherical droplets (C) an indect walking across the surface of a pond (D) water flowing out more
easily then engine oil from a container
92. Water does not drop through an open umbrella of silk material unless the inside of the umbrella is touched (A) Osmotic pressure (B)
Capillarity (C) Surface tension (D) Viscosity
93. If a beaker is filled with water, it is observed that the surface of the water is not horizontal at the glass-water interface. This behaviour
is due to (A) Friction (B) Viscosity (C) Surface tension (D) Evaporation.
94. The force between molecules of the same substance is termed (A) elastic force (B) repulsive force (C) cohesive force (D)
adhesive force.
95. The movement of fluid up or down a narrow tube is (A) Osmosis (B) brownian motion (C) Capillarity (D) diffusion
96. The force between the molecules of a liquid in contact with that of a solid is (A) adhesive (B) cohesive (C) magnetic (D) repulsive
97. Which of the following substances is the most volatile at room temperature? (A) Water (B) Diesel (C) Petrol (D) kerosine
98. The property of a fluid that is used to determine its suitability as a lubricant is its (A) Capillarity (B) Viscocity (C) surface tension (D)
relative density
99. A ball bearing is gently released from rest and allowed to fall through a viscous fluid. Which of the following statements about the
motion is correct? (A) its acceleration decreases before terminal velocity is attained (B) when terminal velocity is attained the acceleration
of the fluid becomes zero (C) its velocity increases before terminal velocity is attained (D) there is no resultant force on the ball before it
attains terminal velocity
100. The total length of a spring when a mass of 200g is hung from its end is 14cm, while its total length is 16cm when a mass of 30kg
end. Calculate the unstretched length of the spring assuming Hooke’s law is obeyed. (A) 9.33 cm (B) 10.00cm (C) 10.66cm (D) 12.00cm
E. 15.00cm
101. On top of a spiral spring of force constant 500Nm -1 is placed a mass of 5×10-3kg. If the spring is compressed downwards by a length
of 0.02m and then released, calculate the height to which the mass is projected (A) 2 m (B) 8 m (C) 1 m (D) 4 m
102. A catapult used to hold a stone of mass 500g is extended by 20cm with an applied force f. If the stone leaves with a velocity of 40
ms-1, the value of F is …………………………………….
1
103. The potential energy in an elastic string of force constant k which has been extended by xmetres is expresses as (A) 2 kx2 (B) kx2
1
(C) Y= 2 kx (D) kx
104. A spiral spring of natural length 30.0cm and force constant of 20Nm -1 is compressed to 20.0cm. Calculate the energy stored in the
spring ……………………………
105. An elastic string of force constant 200Nm-1 is stretched through 0.8m within its elastic limit. Calculate the energy stored in the string
……………………………………
106. Which of the following statements is not correct about a loaded spiral spring? (A) the extension is proportional to the applied force,
provided the elastic limit is not exceeded (B) if the elastic limit is not exceeded, the contraction the contraction is proportional to the load
removed (C) up to the yield point, extension is not longer proportional to the applied load (D) beyond the elastic limit, extension is no
longer proportional to the applied load
107. A tuber of cassava can be processed into powder. This explains the face that (A) matter can change sponteneously from one state to
another (B) matter cannot be destroyed (C) force is required to change natter from one state to another (D) matter is made up of tiny
particle
108. The molecular structure of a liquid is such that (A) the molecules have unlimited freedom of movement (B) molecular movement is
restricted to vibration only (C) intermolecular collisions take place (D) all molecules moves move with the same speed
109. Which of the following concept is not an evidence of the particle nature of matter? (A) diffusion (B) brownian motion (C) diffraction (D)
crystallization
110. Which of the following statements about matter is not correct? (A) Molecules of solids move more freely than molecules of liquids and
gases (B) Molecules of solids are more closely packed than those of liquids (C) Energy is required to break the intermolecular forces of
attraction between molecules (D) Molecules of liquids move about within the liquid and they are in constant motion
111. 1,000 identical drops of oil of density 5000kg/m 3 have a total mass of 5× 10 -4kg. One of the drops forms a thin film of area 0.5m 2 on
water. The thickness of the film is ………………………………….
 112. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? I The mass number is equal to the total number of protrons and electrons in an
atom. II The atomic number is equal to the number of protrons in an atomIII The number of electrons in an atom is equal to the total
number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus. (A) I only (B) II only (C) III only (D) I and II only
113. Which of the following statements describes an atom accurately? I Atoms of all elements are identical II An atom contains a nucleus
and number of electrons. III Due to the electrons in the atom, an atom is negatively charged. IV Electrons in the atom move in circular
orbits round the nucleus. (A) I and II (B) II and III (C) III and IV (D) II and IV
114. Which of the following physical processes cannot be explained by the molecular theory of matter? (A) Evaporation (B) thermal
conduction (C) radiation of heat (D) convectional current of fliuds
115. One common characteristics of solids, liquids and gasses is that (A) all the three has fixed volume (B) their molecule have the same
size (C) their molecules are always in motion (D) all the three have the same inter molecular forces
116. The electricity meters in houses measure energy unit consumed in (A) kilowatt-hour (B) volt (C) ampere (D) coulomb
117. The cost of running five 60W lamps and four 100W lamps for 20 hours if electrical energy costs N10.00 per kWh is
………………………………………….
118. An atom is normally electrically neutral because the (A) number of electrons is equal to the number of protons (B) number of electrons
is equal to the number of neutrons (C) number of protons is equal to the number of neutrons (D) electrons of the atom are buried
deeply in the nucleus
119. In order to obtain a sound note of a high pitch from a wire stretched by a constant tension, the wire must be A. short and thick
B. short and thin C. long and thick D. long and thin.
120. Sound interference is necessary to produce the phenomenon of (A) beats (B) doppler effect (C) acoustic resonance (D) echo
121. Which of the following factors can affect the speed of sound in air? i. The temperature of the surrounding ii. The direction of the wind
iii. The pitch of the sound. (A) i and ii only (B) ii and iii only (C) i and iii only (D) i, ii and iii
122. Which of the following reasons explains why the walls and ceilings of a standard concert hall are usually covered with perforated
pads? To (A) increase the intensity of sound waves (B) increases the loudness of the sound waves (C) reduce the effect of revibration of
sound waves (D) decreases thr frequency of sound waves
123. A girl standing some distance from the cliff claps her hands and hears the echo 0.8s later. calculate her distance from the cliff. [speed
of sound in air = 320 ms-1] (A) 23m (B) 128m (C) 288m (D) 298m
124. A girl stand 80m away from a tall cliff and blows a whistle. If the speed of sound in air is 330m s-1, how long would it take for her to
hear the echo of the sound? (A) 2.062s (B) 0.970s (C) 0.485s (D) 0.242s
125. Which of the following instruments is not a wind instrument? (A) clarinet (B) saxophone (C) trumpet (D) xylophone
126. Which of the following actions will not cause an increase in the frequency of a vibrating string? (A) increasing the tension of the
string (B) decrease the mass per unit length of the string (C) decrease the length of the string (D) increasing the cross sectional area of the
string
127. If the fundamental frequency of a closed pipe organon a day when the speed of sound is 340ms -1 is170 Hz, then the length of the
pipe is (A) 50cm (B) 70cm (C) 100cm (D) 150cm (E) 200cm
128. The lowest note emitted by a stretched string hasa frequency of 40 Hz. How many overtones arethere between 40 Hz and 150 Hz?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4.
129. When the length I of a piece ofwire under constanttension is varied, the relationship of the frequencyof vibration f with l is (A) f &l (B) f
& 1/l2 (C) f &l (D) f & 1/l
130. An open pipe closed at one end produces its first fundamental note. If the velocity of sound in air is v and l the length of the pipe, the
frequency of the note I (A) v/2l (B) 2v/l (C) v/5l (D) v/4l
131. A sonometer wire of linear density 0.08kgm -1 subjected to a tension of 800N is plucked. Calculate the speed of a pulse which moves
from one end of the wire to the other (A) 179.0ms-1 (B) 100.0ms-1 (C) 15.8ms-1 (D) 8.0ms-1
132. A sound wave is produced from a source and an echo is heard t seconds afterwards. If d is the distance of the reflecting surface from
the source, v the speed, p the wavelength and T the period of the wave, then (A) d = 2t/ λ (B) d = λt/ 2T (C) d = 2T/ λt (D) d = λT/2t
133. The factor which enables the ear to distinguish between a note played on different instruments is the (A) pitch (B) speed (C)
harmonics (D) loudness
134. A converging lens produces an image four times as large as an object placed 25cm from the lens. Calculate its focal length (A)
100cm (B) 33cm (C) 29cm (D) 20cm
135. A lens of focal length 12.0cm forms an upright image three times the size of a real object. Th edistance between the object and the
image is (A) 8.0cm (B) 16.0cm (C) 24.0cm (D) 32.0cm
136. An object 3.0cm high is placed 60.0cm from a converging lens whose focal length is 20.0cm.Calculate the size of the image formed.
(A) 0.5cm (B) 1.5cm (C) 2.0cm (D) 6.0cm
137. By what factor will the size of an object placed10cm from a convex lens be increased if the image is seen on a screen placed 25cm
from the lens? (A) 2.5 (B) 1.5 (C) 0.4 (D) 15.0
138. To obtain a magnification of 2.5, howfar should an object be placed from the pole of a thin converging lens of focal length 10.20m?
(A) 0.13m (B) 0.25m (C) 0.28m (D) 0.50m
139. An object is placed 10cm from a converging lens of foal length 15cm. Calculate the magnification of the image formed (A) 3.0 (B) 1.5
(C) 0.6 (D) 0.3
140. An object is placed 15cm from a diverging lens of focal length 12cm. The image of the object formed by the lens in (A) real and
6.67cm from the lens (B) virtual and 6.67cm from the lens (C) real and 60.00cm from the lens (D) virtual and 60.00cm from the lens
 141. A thin lens is placed 50cm from an illustrated object. The image produced has linear magnification of 1/4m. Calculate the power of
the lens in dioptres (A) 2.5D (B) 5.0D (C) 10.0D D. 25.0D
142. A converging lens and a screen are placed 20 cm and 80 cm respectively from an object in a straight line so that a sharp image of
the object is formed on the screen. If the object is 3cm high. Calculate the height of the image formed (A) 1 cm (B) 9cm (C) 12cm (D) 15cm
143. The eye controls the mount of light reaching the retina by adjusting the (A) Iris (B) Optic nerve (C) Cornea (D) Retina
144. Which of the following defects of vision is as a result of the eye ball being too long? A. long sight B. astigmatism C. short sight D.
loss of accommodation
145. Presbyopia is a defect of the eye resulting from A. weak ciliary muscles B. short eyeball C. loss of sphericity of the lens D. long
eyeball
146. Which of the following eye defects can be corrected using a cylindrical lens?A. PresbyopiaB. Chromatic aberrationC. MyopiaD.
Astigmatism
147. For correcting long sight defects in the human eye we require aA. Converging lensB. Diverging lensC. MicroscopeD. PeriscopeE.
Plain glass sheet.
148. An incident ray is reflected normally by a plane mirror onto a screen where it forms a bright spot. The mirror and screen are parallel and
1m apart. If the mirror is rotated through 5o, calculate the displacement of the spot (A) 8.7cm (B) 10.0cm (C) 15.4cm (D) 17.6cm
149. The image which cannot be formed on a screen is said to be (A) inverted (B) erect (C) real (D) virtual
150. Two plane mirrors are inclined to each other such that an object placed between them has 11 images. Determine the angle of inclination
(A) 30° (B) 45° (C) 60° (D) 90°