You are on page 1of 17

Microbiology The Human Experience

1st Edition Zarrintaj Test Bank


Visit to download the full and correct content document: https://testbankdeal.com/dow
nload/microbiology-the-human-experience-1st-edition-zarrintaj-test-bank/
Chapter 08: Bacterial Genetics and Biotechnology

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The image shown is a space-filling model of

a. DNA. c. protein.
b. peptidoglycan. d. lipid.
ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: 8.1
OBJ: 8.1a Describe the structure of a bacterial genome, and explain how it differs from a
eukaryotic genome. MSC: Understanding

2. Which of the following is found in eukaryotic but not prokaryotic genomes?


a. promoters c. introns
b. operons d. genes
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: 8.1
OBJ: 8.1a Describe the structure of a bacterial genome, and explain how it differs from a
eukaryotic genome. MSC: Remembering

3. Each bacterial species has a unique


a. cell shape. c. genome.
b. cell wall. d. glycolytic pathway.
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: 8.1
OBJ: 8.1a Describe the structure of a bacterial genome, and explain how it differs from a
eukaryotic genome. MSC: Understanding

4. Which of the following is true of plasmids?


a. They can be the entire genome.
b. They are common in eukaryotic cells.
c. They are usually linear.
d. They may contain antibiotic resistance genes.
ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: 8.1
OBJ: 8.1b Explain what a plasmid is, and describe the role of plasmids in the spread of antibiotic
resistance genes. MSC: Remembering
5. Plasmids usually contain genes that are
a. important for cell survival in all environments.
b. important for cell survival in particular environments.
c. not important for cell survival in any environments.
d. composed of single-stranded DNA.
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: 8.1
OBJ: 8.1b Explain what a plasmid is, and describe the role of plasmids in the spread of antibiotic
resistance genes. MSC: Understanding

6. In this image of a nucleoside, which arrow is pointing to the 2 carbon of deoxyribose?

a. 1 c. 3
b. 2 d. 4
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: 8.2
OBJ: 8.2a Explain how bidirectional semiconservative DNA replication copies the circular
chromosome of a bacterium during cell division. MSC: Understanding

7. In this image of a nucleoside, which arrow is pointing to the 5 carbon of deoxyribose?

a. 1 c. 3
b. 2 d. 4
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: 8.2
OBJ: 8.2a Explain how bidirectional semiconservative DNA replication copies the circular
chromosome of a bacterium during cell division. MSC: Understanding

8. In the active site of DNA polymerase, which monomer will form correct base pairs with a C in the
template strand?
a. dATP c. dGTP
b. dCTP d. dTTP
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: 8.2
OBJ: 8.2a Explain how bidirectional semiconservative DNA replication copies the circular
chromosome of a bacterium during cell division. MSC: Understanding
9. An E. coli cell whose DNA contains N14 is placed in media with dNTPs containing a heavy isotope
of nitrogen, N15, which incorporates into newly synthesized DNA. After one cell division, what
will the DNA in the daughter cells look like?
a. One cell will have both strands of the helix N14; the other cell will have both strands of the
helix N15.
b. One cell will have mostly N14 with a little bit of N15; the other cell will have mostly N15
with a little N14.
c. Each cell will have one strand of N14 and one strand of N15.
d. It is impossible to predict what the DNA in the daughter cells will look like.
ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: 8.2
OBJ: 8.2a Explain how bidirectional semiconservative DNA replication copies the circular
chromosome of a bacterium during cell division. MSC: Evaluating

10. If you wanted to radioactively tag newly synthesized DNA, which numbered phosphate would
need to be radioactive?

a. 1 c. 3
b. 2 d. Either 1, 2, or 3 would work.
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: 8.2
OBJ: 8.2b Explain the steps of replication by DNA polymerase, including initiation, elongation,
and termination. MSC: Understanding

11. DNA replication begins at a chromosomal region called the


a. activator. c. origin.
b. initiator. d. promoter.
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: 8.2
OBJ: 8.2b Explain the steps of replication by DNA polymerase, including initiation, elongation,
and termination. MSC: Remembering

12. Which of the choices below has the correct 5 and 3 DNA end designations?
a. 1 = 5 2 = 3 3 = 5 4 = 3
b. 1 = 3 2 = 5 3 = 5 4 = 3
c. 1 = 5 2 = 5 3 = 3 4 = 3
d. 1 = 3 2 = 3 3 = 5 4 = 5
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: 8.2
OBJ: 8.2a Explain how bidirectional semiconservative DNA replication copies the circular
chromosome of a bacterium during cell division. MSC: Analyzing

13. The activity of what enzyme is modeled here?

a. gyrase c. DNA polymerase


b. helicase d. primase
ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: 8.2
OBJ: 8.2b Explain the steps of replication by DNA polymerase, including initiation, elongation,
and termination. MSC: Understanding

14. Which of the following lists enzymes involved in DNA replication in the order they act?
a. primase, helicase, DNA polymerase
b. helicase, DNA polymerase, primase
c. primase, DNA polymerase, helicase
d. helicase, primase, DNA polymerase
ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: 8.2
OBJ: 8.2b Explain the steps of replication by DNA polymerase, including initiation, elongation,
and termination. MSC: Applying

15. TAT is a codon for the amino acid tyrosine (Tyr). If a mutation changes TAT to TAA, what kind
of mutation has occurred?

a. frameshift c. nonsense
b. missense d. silent
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: 8.3
OBJ: 8.3a Explain the different kinds of mutations and how they occur.
MSC: Applying

16. TAT is a codon for the amino acid tyrosine (Tyr). If a mutation changes TAT to CAT, what kind
of mutation has occurred?
a. frameshift c. nonsense
b. missense d. silent
ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: 8.3
OBJ: 8.3a Explain the different kinds of mutations and how they occur.
MSC: Applying

17. A mutation known as a pyrimidine dimer is usually caused by


a. acridine orange. c. UV light.
b. DNA polymerase errors. d. X-rays.
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: 8.3
OBJ: 8.3b Describe different ways that a cell repairs DNA damage, preventing or reversing
mutations. MSC: Remembering

18. Which repair process leads to an abasic site as part of the repair pathway?
a. base excision repair c. recombination
b. methyl mismatch repair d. SOS repair
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: 8.3
OBJ: 8.3b Describe different ways that a cell repairs DNA damage, preventing or reversing
mutations. MSC: Understanding

19. During gel electrophoresis the ________ DNA fragments migrate more quickly and move further
down the gel toward the ________ pole.
a. larger; negative c. smaller; negative
b. larger; positive d. smaller; positive
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: 8.4
OBJ: 8.4a Describe the use of plasmids, restriction enzymes, and gel electrophoresis to analyze
DNA. MSC: Understanding

20. RFLP analysis requires which tools?


a. restriction enzymes and gel electrophoresis
b. restriction enzymes and PCR
c. gel electrophoresis and PCR
d. gel electrophoresis and DNA sequencing
ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: 8.4
OBJ: 8.4a Describe the use of plasmids, restriction enzymes, and gel electrophoresis to analyze
DNA. MSC: Evaluating

21. Recombinant human insulin is safely produced in bacteria. Which of the following is the correct
sequence of steps needed to produce such a transgenic bacterium?
a. transform bacteria, ligate, hybridize insulin cDNA and plasmid
b. hybridize insulin cDNA and plasmid, ligate, transform bacteria
c. hybridize insulin cDNA and plasmid, transform bacteria, ligate
d. ligate, hybridize insulin cDNA and plasmid, transform bacteria
ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: 8.4
OBJ: 8.4b Explain the formation of a recombinant DNA molecule, and describe applications in
medical technology. MSC: Applying

22. What technique is illustrated in this diagram?

a. DNA hybridization c. recombinant DNA production


b. DNA sequencing d. PCR
ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: 8.4
OBJ: 8.4c Explain the use of DNA hybridization and DNA sequencing technology.
MSC: Understanding

23. Which of the following RNAs gets translated into protein?


a. mRNA c. tRNA
b. rRNA d. sRNA
ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: 8.5
OBJ: 8.5a Describe the different kinds and functions of RNA products that are made from DNA.
MSC: Remembering

24. If a portion of the template strand of a gene has the sequence 5 TTGCAGCT 3, what is the
sequence of the RNA transcribed from this template?
a. 5AACGTCGA3 c. 5 AGCUGCAA3
b. 5AACGUCGA3 d. 5 AGCTGCAA3
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: 8.5
OBJ: 8.5b Explain how RNA polymerase copies a sequence of DNA to form mRNA.
MSC: Applying

25. During transcription termination


a. sigma disengages from RNA polymerase.
b. RNA polymerase disengages from the DNA.
c. ribosomes disengage from the mRNA.
d. DNA replicates the termination sequence.
ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: 8.5
OBJ: 8.5b Explain how RNA polymerase copies a sequence of DNA to form mRNA.
MSC: Remembering

26. What enzyme is used to produce cDNA?


a. DNA polymerase III c. RNA polymerase
b. DNA ligase d. reverse transcriptase
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: 8.5
OBJ: 8.4c Explain the use of DNA hybridization and DNA sequencing technology.
MSC: Remembering

27. Which of the following is NOT normally found in human cells?


a. cDNA c. mRNA
b. DNA d. tRNA
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: 8.5
OBJ: 8.4c Explain the use of DNA hybridization and DNA sequencing technology.
MSC: Applying

28. Which of the following is most likely a signature of an operon?


a. large distances between consecutive coding regions and functional association of the gene
products
b. large distances between consecutive coding regions and gene products involved in
different pathways
c. short distances between consecutive coding regions and gene products involved in
different pathways
d. short distances between consecutive coding regions and functional association of gene
products
ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: 8.5
OBJ: 8.5a Describe the different kinds and functions of RNA products that are made from DNA.
MSC: Analyzing

29. Ribosomes are composed of


a. protein only. c. both protein and rRNA.
b. RNA only. d. both protein and tRNA.
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: 8.6
OBJ: 8.6b Describe the ribosomal steps of initiation, elongation, and termination. Explain how
these steps may be targeted by antibacterial agents. MSC: Remembering

30. What energy source is used to drive translation?


a. ATP
b. GTP
c. NADPH
d. the energy released when peptide bonds form
ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: 8.6
OBJ: 8.6b Describe the ribosomal steps of initiation, elongation, and termination. Explain how
these steps may be targeted by antibacterial agents. MSC: Remembering

31. An antibiotic that inhibits peptidyl transferase activity likely binds to


a. aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase. c. a 30S ribosome subunit.
b. mRNA. d. a 50S ribosome subunit.
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: 8.6
OBJ: 8.6b Describe the ribosomal steps of initiation, elongation, and termination. Explain how
these steps may be targeted by antibacterial agents. MSC: Applying

32. Except for the initiating fMet tRNA, what is the order of sites that tRNAs take through a
ribosome?
a. first E, then P, and finally A c. first E, then A, and finally P
b. first A, then P, and finally E d. first P, then A, and finally E
ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: 8.6
OBJ: 8.6b Describe the ribosomal steps of initiation, elongation, and termination. Explain how
these steps may be targeted by antibacterial agents. MSC: Remembering

33. EF-G is involved in


a. transcription initiation. c. translation initiation.
b. transcription elongation. d. translation elongation.
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: 8.6
OBJ: 8.6b Describe the ribosomal steps of initiation, elongation, and termination. Explain how
these steps may be targeted by antibacterial agents. MSC: Understanding

34. After translation


a. all proteins are folded and secreted.
b. some proteins are folded but all are secreted.
c. all proteins are folded and some are also secreted.
d. some proteins are folded and another subset are secreted.
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: 8.6
OBJ: 8.6c Explain how proteins may require folding and secretion.
MSC: Applying

35. Phase variation controls protein levels by


a. altering the DNA sequence.
b. changing the rate of mRNA translation.
c. changing the rate of mRNA stability.
d. changing the rate of protein stability.
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: 8.7
OBJ: 8.7b Outline the levels of gene regulation. Explain why it is useful to regulate gene
expression at different levels.MSC: Understanding

36. Bacteria regulate virulence gene expression because


a. the genes need to be expressed all the time.
b. the genes do not need to be expressed all the time, and regulation saves energy.
c. the genes do not need to be expressed all the time; if they were, the bacterial cell would
die.
d. it does not cost them any energy to keep the gene expressed all the time.
ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: 8.7
OBJ: 8.7a Describe how and why a cell regulates expression of a virulence gene.
MSC: Understanding

37. The gene that codes for a protein involved in detoxifying an environmental toxin is only expressed
in the presence of the toxin. A repressor protein controls transcription of the gene. Which of the
following is true?
a. The toxin mediates induction of the gene by relieving repression imposed by the repressor.
b. The toxin mediates induction of the gene by stimulating activation mediated by an
activator.
c. The toxin mediates repression of the gene by relieving repression imposed by the
repressor.
d. The toxin mediates repression of the gene by stimulating activation mediated by an
activator.
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: 8.7
OBJ: 8.7b Outline the levels of gene regulation. Explain why it is useful to regulate gene
expression at different levels.MSC: Applying

38. PrfA protein is a global regulator of virulence genes in Listeria, a bacterium that can cause severe
food poisoning. Below host body temperatures PrfA mRNA exists in a conformation that hides the
ribosome binding site. Upon entry into a host and a rise in temperature, hydrogen bonds in the
mRNA break, exposing the ribosome binding site. What level of gene regulation is seen here?
a. changing the DNA sequence c. translation control
b. transcription control d. posttranslational control
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: 8.7
OBJ: 8.7a Describe how and why a cell regulates expression of a virulence gene.
MSC: Applying

39. In a typical two-component signal transduction system


a. the sensor kinase senses the environment and the response regulator directly alters
transcription.
b. both the sensor kinase and the response regulator sense the environment.
c. both the sensor kinase and the response regulator directly alter transcription.
d. the sensor kinase directly alters transcription and the response regulator senses the
environment.
ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: 8.7
OBJ: 8.7b Outline the levels of gene regulation. Explain why it is useful to regulate gene
expression at different levels.MSC: Understanding

40. In the lac operon, a mutation in the operator, LacO, that prevents repressor binding will cause
which of the following changes compared to wild type cells?
a. more expression of the lac operon when lactose is present
b. more expression of the lac operon when lactose is absent
c. less expression of the lac operon when lactose is present
d. less expression of the lac operon when lactose is absent
ANS: B DIF: Difficult REF: 8.7
OBJ: 8.7b Outline the levels of gene regulation. Explain why it is useful to regulate gene
expression at different levels.MSC: Analyzing
41. In a two-component signal transduction system the response regulator activity is altered via
phosphorylation. This is an example of
a. changing the DNA sequence. c. translation control.
b. transcription control. d. posttranslational control.
ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: 8.7
OBJ: 8.7b Outline the levels of gene regulation. Explain why it is useful to regulate gene
expression at different levels.MSC: Applying

42. CASE HISTORY


In Wichita, Kansas, a 20-year-old college student named Lillian visited the college health
practitioner for a routine gynecological exam. Lillian’s periods had been regular, but she recently
noted some spotting between periods. Her last menstrual period was four weeks prior. The
practitioner asked Lillian whether she was sexually active. Lillian reported two male partners
within the past six months. She reported no vaginal discharge, dyspareunia (painful intercourse),
genital lesions, or sores. Her breast, thyroid, and abdominal exam were within normal limits, as
were her vital signs—blood pressure: 118/68, pulse: 74, respiration: 18, temperature: 37.1C
(98.6F).
The genital exam revealed normal vulva and vagina. The practitioner found no cervical
motion pain and no uterine or adnexal tenderness (areas that include and surround the fallopian
tubes and ovaries). But Lillian’s cervix appeared inflamed and bled easily, with a purulent
discharge coming from the cervical os (opening).
The practitioner performed nucleic acid amplification tests (NAATs) for Chlamydia
trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Within a day, the NAAT results were positive for
Chlamydia and negative for N. gonorrhoeae. Wet-mount microscopy revealed no pathogens but
many WBCs (white blood cells). The diagnosis was confirmed as chlamydia infection, an infection
reportable to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
The practitioner prescribed doxycycline to clear up the infection. To curtail transmission,
the practitioner asked Lillian to identify all her sexual partners for partner notification. Lillian
recalled a third partner seven months earlier. The practitioner also recommended use of condoms
to decrease further infections.

Doxycycline is an antibiotic that binds to the bacterial ribosome. How does this antibiotic interfere
with the creating of proteins in bacterial cells?
a. Binding to the ribosome prevents DNA strands from being separated properly, preventing
transcription.
b. Binding to the ribosome prevents mRNA strands from being properly assembled from
single-stranded DNA templates.
c. Binding to the ribosome prevents mRNA from being properly read and translated into an
amino acid sequence.
d. Binding to the ribosome prevents completed proteins from being exported to the cell
surface.
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Case History 8.2
OBJ: 8.6b Describe the ribosomal steps of initiation, elongation, and termination. Explain how
these steps may be targeted by antibacterial agents. MSC: Applying

COMPLETION

1. Transcription of genes starts at regions of the genome called ________.

ANS: promoters
DIF: Moderate REF: 8.1
OBJ: 8.1a Describe the structure of a bacterial genome, and explain how it differs from a
eukaryotic genome. MSC: Remembering

2. TAT is a codon for the amino acid tyrosine (Tyr). If a mutation changes TAT to TAC, a
________-point mutation has occurred.

ANS: silent

DIF: Easy REF: 8.3


OBJ: 8.3a Explain the different kinds of mutations and how they occur.
MSC: Applying

3. An enzyme that cuts the DNA phosphodiester backbone at a particular DNA sequence is called a
________.

ANS:
restriction endonuclease or restriction enzyme
restriction endonuclease
restriction enzyme

DIF: Easy REF: 8.4


OBJ: 8.4a Describe the use of plasmids, restriction enzymes, and gel electrophoresis to analyze
DNA. MSC: Remembering

4. Proteins that assist the folding of newly formed proteins are known as ________.
ANS:
chaperones
heat shock proteins

DIF: Moderate REF: 8.6


OBJ: 8.6c Explain how proteins may require folding and secretion.
MSC: Remembering

5. A protein that affects the expression of many different genes is known as a ________.

ANS: global regulator

DIF: Moderate REF: 8.7


OBJ: 8.7a Describe how and why a cell regulates expression of a virulence gene.
MSC: Remembering

SHORT ANSWER

1. If DNA polymerase misincorporates a base, leading to a mismatch, how do repair enzymes


distinguish the parental and daughter DNA strands to specifically fix the daughter strand?

ANS:
Prior to replication both DNA strands are methylated. During synthesis the newly synthesized
daughter strands are initially not methylated. Hence, it is the unmethylated strand that is repaired.
After a lag the daughter strands do become methylated. The semiconservative nature of DNA
synthesis aids in this process.

DIF: Difficult REF: 8.2


OBJ: 8.2b Explain the steps of replication by DNA polymerase, including initiation, elongation,
and termination. MSC: Understanding

2. Why might the insertion or deletion of three base pairs in a gene be less harmful than the insertion
or deletion of only one or two base pairs?

ANS:
This is due to the triplet nature of codons. An insertion or deletion of three base pairs will add or
remove a single amino acid from the final protein. Insertion or deletion of one or two base pairs
will throw off the reading frame, and the rest of the protein downstream of the mutation will have
different amino acids.

DIF: Difficult REF: 8.3


OBJ: 8.3a Explain the different kinds of mutations and how they occur.
MSC: Analyzing

3. During Sanger DNA sequencing, in addition to normal dNTPs used in cellular DNA synthesis,
small amounts of modified DNA polymerase substrates are added to the reaction. How do these
modified monomers differ from the normal dNTPs?

ANS:
First, the modified monomers are dideoxy nucleotide triphosphates (ddNTPs) that lack the 3OH
group. This leads to chain termination. Second, each different ddNTP (ddATP, ddTTP, ddCTP,
and ddGTP) has a different fluorescent label attached. This allows the identification of the ddNTP
at the end of each synthesized fragment.

DIF: Difficult REF: 8.4


OBJ: 8.4c Explain the use of DNA hybridization and DNA sequencing technology.
MSC: Evaluating

4. Is the mRNA shown a model of a bacterial mRNA or a eukaryotic mRNA? Please explain your
rationale.

ANS:
This mRNA represents a bacterial mRNA. I know this because there are two protein-coding
regions within a single mRNA, part of an operon. Operons are rare to nonexistent in eukaryotes,
and each spliced mRNA codes for a single protein—there are no multiple ribosome-binding sites
in eukaryotic mRNAs.

DIF: Moderate REF: 8.6


OBJ: 8.6a Explain the relationship between transcription and translation in bacteria.
MSC: Applying

5. Two common levels of regulation of protein activity are transcriptional control and
posttranslational control. Please discuss the differences between the two in terms of speed of
response and energy efficiency.

ANS:
Transcriptional control will be the slowest (the gene needs to be transcribed, the mRNA translated,
and the protein correctly folded before protein activity) but is the most energy efficient because
proteins are only made when they are needed. Posttranslational control is the fastest (the protein is
already synthesized; it just needs a modification) but is less energy efficient because a protein
might be made and degraded before it ever gets activated.

DIF: Difficult REF: 8.7


OBJ: 8.7b Outline the levels of gene regulation. Explain why it is useful to regulate gene
expression at different levels.MSC: Analyzing

6. CASE HISTORY
In San Francisco, a 3-year-old boy named Luke was admitted to the hospital after an abrupt onset
of fever and a generalized seizure. The boy’s cerebrospinal fluid was normal, and he had a normal
chest radiograph, but his white blood cell count was 20,000/mm3 (normal is 5,000–10,000), with
85% polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMns). Luke’s blood culture revealed bacteremia (bacteria
in the blood). The bacteria were identified as “nontypeable” Haemophilus influenzae bacteria.
The nontypeable H. influenzae strain was beta-lactamase-positive (expressed an enzyme to
inactivate penicillin G, ampicillin, and amoxicillin) but proved sensitive to cefixime, a
third-generation cephalosporin.
The diagnosis surprised the boy’s two fathers. They showed the doctor Luke’s full record of
immunizations and booster shots, including the standard DTaP (diphtheria, tetanus, and
pertussis), hepatitis B, pneumococcus, and Haemophilus influenzae b (Hib). Why was Luke not
protected by the Hib vaccine? The doctor explained that the Hib vaccine protected only from H.
influenzae type b, the most common virulent strain—but not the only virulent strain. Six strains, or
serotypes, a through f, are “typed” based on the type of polysaccharide capsule surrounding the
cell envelope. The Hib vaccine targets capsule type b. But some variant strains of H. influenzae,
called “nontypeable,” lack a capsule. These strains can be identified on the basis of other
properties, such as enzyme activities, but they are unaffected by the vaccine. Fortunately, after
seven days of intravenous antibiotic, Luke recovered fully.

The H. influenzae strain infecting Luke was beta-lactamase positive. Would the cell be likely to
express the gene for this enzyme at all times? Describe one mechanism by which the cell could
regulate the expression of this enzyme.

ANS:
No, in order to make the best use of available resources, beta-lactamase enzymes used to resist an
antibiotic might only be expressed in the presence of that antibiotic. Several mechanisms described
in the chapter could be mentioned, including removal of a repressor governing this gene when it
binds a beta lactam ring.

DIF: Difficult REF: Case History 8.1


OBJ: 8.7a Describe how and why a cell regulates expression of a virulence gene.
MSC: Applying

7. CASE HISTORY
Tina, a 33-year-old store clerk from Peoria, Illinois, had her first dental exam in five years. She
told the hygienist that her gums hurt and that stains appeared on her pillow where her jaw had
rested. She also told the hygienist that she did not smoke or drink.
The hygienist found that Tina’s gums were swollen and bled upon probing. The gums had
receded from Tina’s teeth, forming pockets about 5 mm deep, and X-rays revealed some loss of
bone.
Tina then saw the dentist, who told her she had periodontitis, inflammatory disease of the
gums and bone supporting the teeth. Periodontitis is caused by dental plaque, a biofilm of mixed
bacterial species that grow on the teeth. Without regular oral hygiene, the biofilm grows beneath
the gum and eventually causes loss of teeth.
Tina expressed surprise, as she thought that only elderly people suffered gum disease. The
dentist asked her again whether she smoked, perhaps two packs a day. Tina denied smoking that
much, but admitted to one pack a day. The dentist told her that smoking is a common factor in
early gum disease, as are diabetes and genetic susceptibility. Under predisposing conditions, many
different kinds of bacteria can cause gum disease.
To determine the bacterial species causing Tina’s periodontitis, the dentist ordered a DNA
test. The DNA test works by polymerase chain reaction (PCR), a technique in which a short piece
of DNA is amplified (copied many times), making it possible to read the sequence of DNA base
pairs. The DNA sequence reveals the bacterial species. Tina’s DNA test revealed Porphyromonas
gingivalis and Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans, two Gram-negative anaerobes that are
sensitive to metronidazole and amoxicillin, respectively.
The DNA test enabled the dentist to target the most effective antibiotics for Tina’s condition.
The dentist also enrolled Tina in a smoking cessation program.

Following amplification of the bacterial DNA from Tina’s sample, one of the ways the bacteria
involved may be identified is via sequencing of the amplified fragment of DNA. Explain how this
process works and how it can be used to identify bacteria.
ANS:
The sequence of a template DNA can be read by using reactions of DNA synthesis by a DNA
polymerase. Each reaction includes dNTPs with a small amount of fluorescent-tagged
chain-terminating dideoxy NTP for each of the four nucleotides. The reactions generate patterns of
DNA fragments terminated at each of the four nucleotides; the mixtures are separated by
electrophoresis and detected by a laser. The sequence can then be compared to known sequences to
yield a species-level identification.

DIF: Moderate REF: Chapter 8 Introduction


OBJ: 8.4c Explain the use of DNA hybridization and DNA sequencing technology.
MSC: Applying

You might also like