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MULTIPLE CHOICE
a. DNA. c. protein.
b. peptidoglycan. d. lipid.
ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: 8.1
OBJ: 8.1a Describe the structure of a bacterial genome, and explain how it differs from a
eukaryotic genome. MSC: Understanding
a. 1 c. 3
b. 2 d. 4
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: 8.2
OBJ: 8.2a Explain how bidirectional semiconservative DNA replication copies the circular
chromosome of a bacterium during cell division. MSC: Understanding
a. 1 c. 3
b. 2 d. 4
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: 8.2
OBJ: 8.2a Explain how bidirectional semiconservative DNA replication copies the circular
chromosome of a bacterium during cell division. MSC: Understanding
8. In the active site of DNA polymerase, which monomer will form correct base pairs with a C in the
template strand?
a. dATP c. dGTP
b. dCTP d. dTTP
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: 8.2
OBJ: 8.2a Explain how bidirectional semiconservative DNA replication copies the circular
chromosome of a bacterium during cell division. MSC: Understanding
9. An E. coli cell whose DNA contains N14 is placed in media with dNTPs containing a heavy isotope
of nitrogen, N15, which incorporates into newly synthesized DNA. After one cell division, what
will the DNA in the daughter cells look like?
a. One cell will have both strands of the helix N14; the other cell will have both strands of the
helix N15.
b. One cell will have mostly N14 with a little bit of N15; the other cell will have mostly N15
with a little N14.
c. Each cell will have one strand of N14 and one strand of N15.
d. It is impossible to predict what the DNA in the daughter cells will look like.
ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: 8.2
OBJ: 8.2a Explain how bidirectional semiconservative DNA replication copies the circular
chromosome of a bacterium during cell division. MSC: Evaluating
10. If you wanted to radioactively tag newly synthesized DNA, which numbered phosphate would
need to be radioactive?
a. 1 c. 3
b. 2 d. Either 1, 2, or 3 would work.
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: 8.2
OBJ: 8.2b Explain the steps of replication by DNA polymerase, including initiation, elongation,
and termination. MSC: Understanding
12. Which of the choices below has the correct 5 and 3 DNA end designations?
a. 1 = 5 2 = 3 3 = 5 4 = 3
b. 1 = 3 2 = 5 3 = 5 4 = 3
c. 1 = 5 2 = 5 3 = 3 4 = 3
d. 1 = 3 2 = 3 3 = 5 4 = 5
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: 8.2
OBJ: 8.2a Explain how bidirectional semiconservative DNA replication copies the circular
chromosome of a bacterium during cell division. MSC: Analyzing
14. Which of the following lists enzymes involved in DNA replication in the order they act?
a. primase, helicase, DNA polymerase
b. helicase, DNA polymerase, primase
c. primase, DNA polymerase, helicase
d. helicase, primase, DNA polymerase
ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: 8.2
OBJ: 8.2b Explain the steps of replication by DNA polymerase, including initiation, elongation,
and termination. MSC: Applying
15. TAT is a codon for the amino acid tyrosine (Tyr). If a mutation changes TAT to TAA, what kind
of mutation has occurred?
a. frameshift c. nonsense
b. missense d. silent
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: 8.3
OBJ: 8.3a Explain the different kinds of mutations and how they occur.
MSC: Applying
16. TAT is a codon for the amino acid tyrosine (Tyr). If a mutation changes TAT to CAT, what kind
of mutation has occurred?
a. frameshift c. nonsense
b. missense d. silent
ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: 8.3
OBJ: 8.3a Explain the different kinds of mutations and how they occur.
MSC: Applying
18. Which repair process leads to an abasic site as part of the repair pathway?
a. base excision repair c. recombination
b. methyl mismatch repair d. SOS repair
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: 8.3
OBJ: 8.3b Describe different ways that a cell repairs DNA damage, preventing or reversing
mutations. MSC: Understanding
19. During gel electrophoresis the ________ DNA fragments migrate more quickly and move further
down the gel toward the ________ pole.
a. larger; negative c. smaller; negative
b. larger; positive d. smaller; positive
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: 8.4
OBJ: 8.4a Describe the use of plasmids, restriction enzymes, and gel electrophoresis to analyze
DNA. MSC: Understanding
21. Recombinant human insulin is safely produced in bacteria. Which of the following is the correct
sequence of steps needed to produce such a transgenic bacterium?
a. transform bacteria, ligate, hybridize insulin cDNA and plasmid
b. hybridize insulin cDNA and plasmid, ligate, transform bacteria
c. hybridize insulin cDNA and plasmid, transform bacteria, ligate
d. ligate, hybridize insulin cDNA and plasmid, transform bacteria
ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: 8.4
OBJ: 8.4b Explain the formation of a recombinant DNA molecule, and describe applications in
medical technology. MSC: Applying
24. If a portion of the template strand of a gene has the sequence 5 TTGCAGCT 3, what is the
sequence of the RNA transcribed from this template?
a. 5AACGTCGA3 c. 5 AGCUGCAA3
b. 5AACGUCGA3 d. 5 AGCTGCAA3
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: 8.5
OBJ: 8.5b Explain how RNA polymerase copies a sequence of DNA to form mRNA.
MSC: Applying
32. Except for the initiating fMet tRNA, what is the order of sites that tRNAs take through a
ribosome?
a. first E, then P, and finally A c. first E, then A, and finally P
b. first A, then P, and finally E d. first P, then A, and finally E
ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: 8.6
OBJ: 8.6b Describe the ribosomal steps of initiation, elongation, and termination. Explain how
these steps may be targeted by antibacterial agents. MSC: Remembering
37. The gene that codes for a protein involved in detoxifying an environmental toxin is only expressed
in the presence of the toxin. A repressor protein controls transcription of the gene. Which of the
following is true?
a. The toxin mediates induction of the gene by relieving repression imposed by the repressor.
b. The toxin mediates induction of the gene by stimulating activation mediated by an
activator.
c. The toxin mediates repression of the gene by relieving repression imposed by the
repressor.
d. The toxin mediates repression of the gene by stimulating activation mediated by an
activator.
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: 8.7
OBJ: 8.7b Outline the levels of gene regulation. Explain why it is useful to regulate gene
expression at different levels.MSC: Applying
38. PrfA protein is a global regulator of virulence genes in Listeria, a bacterium that can cause severe
food poisoning. Below host body temperatures PrfA mRNA exists in a conformation that hides the
ribosome binding site. Upon entry into a host and a rise in temperature, hydrogen bonds in the
mRNA break, exposing the ribosome binding site. What level of gene regulation is seen here?
a. changing the DNA sequence c. translation control
b. transcription control d. posttranslational control
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: 8.7
OBJ: 8.7a Describe how and why a cell regulates expression of a virulence gene.
MSC: Applying
40. In the lac operon, a mutation in the operator, LacO, that prevents repressor binding will cause
which of the following changes compared to wild type cells?
a. more expression of the lac operon when lactose is present
b. more expression of the lac operon when lactose is absent
c. less expression of the lac operon when lactose is present
d. less expression of the lac operon when lactose is absent
ANS: B DIF: Difficult REF: 8.7
OBJ: 8.7b Outline the levels of gene regulation. Explain why it is useful to regulate gene
expression at different levels.MSC: Analyzing
41. In a two-component signal transduction system the response regulator activity is altered via
phosphorylation. This is an example of
a. changing the DNA sequence. c. translation control.
b. transcription control. d. posttranslational control.
ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: 8.7
OBJ: 8.7b Outline the levels of gene regulation. Explain why it is useful to regulate gene
expression at different levels.MSC: Applying
Doxycycline is an antibiotic that binds to the bacterial ribosome. How does this antibiotic interfere
with the creating of proteins in bacterial cells?
a. Binding to the ribosome prevents DNA strands from being separated properly, preventing
transcription.
b. Binding to the ribosome prevents mRNA strands from being properly assembled from
single-stranded DNA templates.
c. Binding to the ribosome prevents mRNA from being properly read and translated into an
amino acid sequence.
d. Binding to the ribosome prevents completed proteins from being exported to the cell
surface.
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Case History 8.2
OBJ: 8.6b Describe the ribosomal steps of initiation, elongation, and termination. Explain how
these steps may be targeted by antibacterial agents. MSC: Applying
COMPLETION
ANS: promoters
DIF: Moderate REF: 8.1
OBJ: 8.1a Describe the structure of a bacterial genome, and explain how it differs from a
eukaryotic genome. MSC: Remembering
2. TAT is a codon for the amino acid tyrosine (Tyr). If a mutation changes TAT to TAC, a
________-point mutation has occurred.
ANS: silent
3. An enzyme that cuts the DNA phosphodiester backbone at a particular DNA sequence is called a
________.
ANS:
restriction endonuclease or restriction enzyme
restriction endonuclease
restriction enzyme
4. Proteins that assist the folding of newly formed proteins are known as ________.
ANS:
chaperones
heat shock proteins
5. A protein that affects the expression of many different genes is known as a ________.
SHORT ANSWER
ANS:
Prior to replication both DNA strands are methylated. During synthesis the newly synthesized
daughter strands are initially not methylated. Hence, it is the unmethylated strand that is repaired.
After a lag the daughter strands do become methylated. The semiconservative nature of DNA
synthesis aids in this process.
2. Why might the insertion or deletion of three base pairs in a gene be less harmful than the insertion
or deletion of only one or two base pairs?
ANS:
This is due to the triplet nature of codons. An insertion or deletion of three base pairs will add or
remove a single amino acid from the final protein. Insertion or deletion of one or two base pairs
will throw off the reading frame, and the rest of the protein downstream of the mutation will have
different amino acids.
3. During Sanger DNA sequencing, in addition to normal dNTPs used in cellular DNA synthesis,
small amounts of modified DNA polymerase substrates are added to the reaction. How do these
modified monomers differ from the normal dNTPs?
ANS:
First, the modified monomers are dideoxy nucleotide triphosphates (ddNTPs) that lack the 3OH
group. This leads to chain termination. Second, each different ddNTP (ddATP, ddTTP, ddCTP,
and ddGTP) has a different fluorescent label attached. This allows the identification of the ddNTP
at the end of each synthesized fragment.
4. Is the mRNA shown a model of a bacterial mRNA or a eukaryotic mRNA? Please explain your
rationale.
ANS:
This mRNA represents a bacterial mRNA. I know this because there are two protein-coding
regions within a single mRNA, part of an operon. Operons are rare to nonexistent in eukaryotes,
and each spliced mRNA codes for a single protein—there are no multiple ribosome-binding sites
in eukaryotic mRNAs.
5. Two common levels of regulation of protein activity are transcriptional control and
posttranslational control. Please discuss the differences between the two in terms of speed of
response and energy efficiency.
ANS:
Transcriptional control will be the slowest (the gene needs to be transcribed, the mRNA translated,
and the protein correctly folded before protein activity) but is the most energy efficient because
proteins are only made when they are needed. Posttranslational control is the fastest (the protein is
already synthesized; it just needs a modification) but is less energy efficient because a protein
might be made and degraded before it ever gets activated.
6. CASE HISTORY
In San Francisco, a 3-year-old boy named Luke was admitted to the hospital after an abrupt onset
of fever and a generalized seizure. The boy’s cerebrospinal fluid was normal, and he had a normal
chest radiograph, but his white blood cell count was 20,000/mm3 (normal is 5,000–10,000), with
85% polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMns). Luke’s blood culture revealed bacteremia (bacteria
in the blood). The bacteria were identified as “nontypeable” Haemophilus influenzae bacteria.
The nontypeable H. influenzae strain was beta-lactamase-positive (expressed an enzyme to
inactivate penicillin G, ampicillin, and amoxicillin) but proved sensitive to cefixime, a
third-generation cephalosporin.
The diagnosis surprised the boy’s two fathers. They showed the doctor Luke’s full record of
immunizations and booster shots, including the standard DTaP (diphtheria, tetanus, and
pertussis), hepatitis B, pneumococcus, and Haemophilus influenzae b (Hib). Why was Luke not
protected by the Hib vaccine? The doctor explained that the Hib vaccine protected only from H.
influenzae type b, the most common virulent strain—but not the only virulent strain. Six strains, or
serotypes, a through f, are “typed” based on the type of polysaccharide capsule surrounding the
cell envelope. The Hib vaccine targets capsule type b. But some variant strains of H. influenzae,
called “nontypeable,” lack a capsule. These strains can be identified on the basis of other
properties, such as enzyme activities, but they are unaffected by the vaccine. Fortunately, after
seven days of intravenous antibiotic, Luke recovered fully.
The H. influenzae strain infecting Luke was beta-lactamase positive. Would the cell be likely to
express the gene for this enzyme at all times? Describe one mechanism by which the cell could
regulate the expression of this enzyme.
ANS:
No, in order to make the best use of available resources, beta-lactamase enzymes used to resist an
antibiotic might only be expressed in the presence of that antibiotic. Several mechanisms described
in the chapter could be mentioned, including removal of a repressor governing this gene when it
binds a beta lactam ring.
7. CASE HISTORY
Tina, a 33-year-old store clerk from Peoria, Illinois, had her first dental exam in five years. She
told the hygienist that her gums hurt and that stains appeared on her pillow where her jaw had
rested. She also told the hygienist that she did not smoke or drink.
The hygienist found that Tina’s gums were swollen and bled upon probing. The gums had
receded from Tina’s teeth, forming pockets about 5 mm deep, and X-rays revealed some loss of
bone.
Tina then saw the dentist, who told her she had periodontitis, inflammatory disease of the
gums and bone supporting the teeth. Periodontitis is caused by dental plaque, a biofilm of mixed
bacterial species that grow on the teeth. Without regular oral hygiene, the biofilm grows beneath
the gum and eventually causes loss of teeth.
Tina expressed surprise, as she thought that only elderly people suffered gum disease. The
dentist asked her again whether she smoked, perhaps two packs a day. Tina denied smoking that
much, but admitted to one pack a day. The dentist told her that smoking is a common factor in
early gum disease, as are diabetes and genetic susceptibility. Under predisposing conditions, many
different kinds of bacteria can cause gum disease.
To determine the bacterial species causing Tina’s periodontitis, the dentist ordered a DNA
test. The DNA test works by polymerase chain reaction (PCR), a technique in which a short piece
of DNA is amplified (copied many times), making it possible to read the sequence of DNA base
pairs. The DNA sequence reveals the bacterial species. Tina’s DNA test revealed Porphyromonas
gingivalis and Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans, two Gram-negative anaerobes that are
sensitive to metronidazole and amoxicillin, respectively.
The DNA test enabled the dentist to target the most effective antibiotics for Tina’s condition.
The dentist also enrolled Tina in a smoking cessation program.
Following amplification of the bacterial DNA from Tina’s sample, one of the ways the bacteria
involved may be identified is via sequencing of the amplified fragment of DNA. Explain how this
process works and how it can be used to identify bacteria.
ANS:
The sequence of a template DNA can be read by using reactions of DNA synthesis by a DNA
polymerase. Each reaction includes dNTPs with a small amount of fluorescent-tagged
chain-terminating dideoxy NTP for each of the four nucleotides. The reactions generate patterns of
DNA fragments terminated at each of the four nucleotides; the mixtures are separated by
electrophoresis and detected by a laser. The sequence can then be compared to known sequences to
yield a species-level identification.