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MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. ________ RNA polymerase plus sigma factor together are called ________.
a. Transcription; translation d. Core; holoenzyme
b. Holoenzyme; core e. Ribosome; rRNA
c. Translation; transcription
ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: 8.1
OBJ: 8.1b Describe the structure and functions of the RNA polymerase holoenzyme components
MSC: Remembering
2. The process of taking a DNA template and making a complementary RNA molecule is called
a. transposition. d. translation.
b. transertion. e. transcription.
c. replication.
ANS: E DIF: Easy REF: 8.1 OBJ: 8.1a Define transcription
MSC: Remembering
6. DNA-dependent ________ polymerase makes a copy of DNA that is then used for translation. The
process carried out by this enzyme is called ________.
a. RNA; transformation d. RNA; transcription
b. protein; transcription e. protein; transposition
c. DNA; transcription
ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: 8.1 OBJ: 8.1a Define transcription
MSC: Remembering
7. A researcher is studying transcription and has added a chemical to a transcription experiment using
both E. coli and mammalian cells. This chemical inhibits both systems. The chemical is most
likely
a. streptomycin. d. rifampin.
b. rifamycin. e. actinomycin D.
c. erythromycin.
ANS: E DIF: Medium REF: 8.2
OBJ: 8.2c Describe how antibiotics were used to probe RNA polymerase structure
MSC: Analyzing
8. Molecules of sRNA do not encode proteins but are used to ________ the stability or translation of
specific mRNAs into proteins.
a. start d. speed up
b. regulate e. slow down
c. stop
ANS: B DIF: Medium REF: 8.2
OBJ: 8.2b Recall the functions of the different RNA classes MSC: Remembering
11. Using the genetic code shown below, find the correct start and stop codons. Which of the
following peptides might this message code for?
5'-GAGUUAUGCACGGGUUCUAUGUGUAG-3'
a. GLU-LEU-CYS-MET-GLY-SER-MET-CYS
b. MET-GLY-SER-MET-CYS
c. MET-HIS-GLY-PHE-TYR-VAL
d. MET-CYS-ILE-LEU-GLY-THR-TYR
e. ASP-VAL-TYR-LEU-GLY-TYR-VAL-LEU
ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: 8.3
OBJ: 8.3a Use the genetic code to translate an mRNA into protein
MSC: Applying
12. In the absence of Rho, what can bring about transcription termination?
a. stem and loop and stretches of uridines
b. stem and loop only
c. GC-rich region near the 3 terminus
d. GC-rich region near the 3 terminus followed by four to eight uridines
e. stem and loop followed by a GC-rich region
ANS: D DIF: Medium REF: 8.2
OBJ: 8.2a Summarize what occurs in each of the three stages of transcription
MSC: Understanding
13. Which drug intercalates into DNA and inhibits transcription in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes?
a. streptomycin d. rifampin
b. actinomycin D e. tetracycline
c. chloramphenicol
ANS: B DIF: Medium REF: 8.2
OBJ: 8.2c Describe how antibiotics were used to probe RNA polymerase structure
MSC: Understanding
14. The figure below shows subunits of a structure in a bacterial cell. This structure is
15. In the figure below, which label represents the Shine Delgarno site?
a. A d. D
b. B e. –35
c. C
ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: 8.2
OBJ: 8.2a Summarize what occurs in each of the three stages of transcription
MSC: Remembering
a. A d. D
b. B e. –35
c. C
ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: 8.2
OBJ: 8.2a Summarize what occurs in each of the three stages of transcription
MSC: Remembering
17. The unusual bases found in tRNA are poor substrates for
a. proteases. d. ribozymes.
b. polymerases. e. RNases.
c. ribosomes.
ANS: E DIF: Easy REF: 8.3
OBJ: 8.2b Recall the functions of the different RNA classes MSC: Remembering
18. Most tRNA molecules begin with a 5' ________ and all end with a 3' ________, to which the
amino acids attach.
a. phosphate; hydroxyl d. A; TTA
b. C; GGA e. C; AAT
c. G; CCA
ANS: C DIF: Medium REF: 8.3
OBJ: 8.3b Describe the structure and function of tRNAs MSC: Remembering
19. During transcription of the ________ genes, normal, unmodified bases are incorporated, but
specific enzymes modify some of these later.
a. tRNA d. sRNA
b. tmRNA e. catalytic RNA
c. mRNA
ANS: A DIF: Medium REF: 8.3
OBJ: 8.3c Explain how aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases charge tRNAs
MSC: Remembering
20. Which of the following is normally read as a stop codon but encodes tryptophan in vertebrate
mitochondria?
a. AUG d. UGA
b. UCA e. UAG
c. UAC
ANS: D DIF: Difficult REF: 8.3
OBJ: 8.3a Use the genetic code to translate an mRNA into protein
MSC: Remembering
21. The charging of tRNAs is carried out by a set of enzymes called ________ synthetases.
a. ribozymes d. proteases
b. aminoacyl-tRNA e. polymerases
c. peptidyl
ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: 8.3
OBJ: 8.3c Explain how aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases charge tRNAs
MSC: Remembering
22. Which of the following may serve as a molecular clock that measures the approximate time since
two related species diverged?
a. tRNA d. sRNA
b. mRNA e. tmRNA
c. rRNA
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: 8.3
OBJ: 8.3b Describe the structure and function of tRNAs MSC: Remembering
23. After tmRNA releases an mRNA and aberrant polypeptide from a stuck ribosome,
a. clpX tags the peptide for destruction.
b. sspB tags the peptide for destruction.
c. tmRNA then destroys the peptide.
d. tmRNA ubiquitinates the peptide.
e. sspB recognizes a proteolysis tag and delivers the peptide to clpX for degradation.
ANS: E DIF: Medium REF: 8.3
OBJ: 8.3f Outline how a bacterial cell deals with an mRNA lacking a stop codon
MSC: Analyzing
24. A ________ mRNA is a single mRNA molecule that contains information from several contiguous
genes.
a. cistronic d. ribosomal
b. transfer e. small
c. polygenic
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: 8.3
OBJ: 8.3d Summarize what occurs during each of the three stages of translation
MSC: Remembering
25. Different ________ can bind simultaneously to the start of each gene within a polygenic mRNA.
a. genes d. ribosomes
b. proteins e. RNases
c. polymerases
ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: 8.3
OBJ: 8.3d Summarize what occurs during each of the three stages of translation
MSC: Remembering
26. E. coli is being used to study various agents that inhibit protein synthesis. One agent binds the 23S
rRNA of the 50S subunit and prevents peptide bond formation. No new proteins are produced. To
which antibiotic is this agent likely related?
a. chloramphenicol d. tetracycline
b. streptomycin e. erythromycin
c. puromycin
ANS: A DIF: Medium REF: 8.3
OBJ: 8.3e List some antibiotics that poison translation MSC: Analyzing
27. E. coli is being used in order to study various agents that inhibit protein synthesis. An agent will
bind the 16S RNA of the 30S subunit and block aminoacyl tRNA from entering the ribosome. This
agent is most likely related to
a. chloramphenicol. d. tetracycline.
b. streptomycin. e. erythromycin.
c. puromycin.
ANS: D DIF: Medium REF: 8.3
OBJ: 8.3e List some antibiotics that poison translation MSC: Analyzing
28. Which form of RNA has the task of unsticking stuck ribosomes?
a. mRNA d. tmRNA
b. rRNA e. tRNA
c. sRNA
ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: 8.3
OBJ: 8.2b Recall the functions of the different RNA classes MSC: Remembering
32. Which RNA species is a component of the 30S subunit of the ribosome?
a. 5S RNA d. tRNA
b. 16S RNA e. mRNA
c. 23S RNA
ANS: B DIF: Medium REF: 8.3
OBJ: 8.3b Describe the structure and function of tRNAs MSC: Understanding
33. The significance of the Shine-Dalgarno sequence is that it is the site where
a. RNA polymerase binds to begin transcription.
b. a ribosome binds so that it can initiate translation.
c. DNA polymerase binds to begin chromosome replication.
d. the tRNA binds to the mRNA in translation.
e. DNA polymerase begins synthesis of the Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand.
ANS: B DIF: Medium REF: 8.3
OBJ: 8.3d Summarize what occurs during each of the three stages of translation
MSC: Understanding
34. The energy source utilized by the elongation factors EF-G and EF-Tu is
a. proton motive force. d. phosphoenolpyruvate hydrolysis.
b. ATP hydrolysis. e. No energy source is required.
c. GTP hydrolysis.
ANS: C DIF: Medium REF: 8.3
OBJ: 8.3d Summarize what occurs during each of the three stages of translation
MSC: Understanding
35. Which of the following are required for the termination of translation?
a. sRNAs d. release factors
b. degrons e. ubiquitins
c. TolC proteins
ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: 8.3
OBJ: 8.3d Summarize what occurs during each of the three stages of translation
MSC: Understanding
36. Resistance to the protein synthesis antibiotics can be carried out by all of the following EXCEPT
a. the use of an acetyltransferase to destroy activity.
b. immediate metabolization to gain ATP.
c. efflux pumps to move it out of the cell.
d. the use of phosphotransferases to chemically modify the antibiotic.
e. mutations in genes for the bacterial target so antibiotics can no longer bind.
ANS: B DIF: Difficult REF: 8.3
OBJ: 8.3e List some antibiotics that poison translation MSC: Understanding
38. In the figure shown below, the RfaH protein is undergoing a change from ________ as a result of
binding to ________.
39. After ________, each polypeptide must be properly folded and placed at the correct cellular or
extracellular location.
a. replication d. degradation
b. transcription e. conjugation
c. translation
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: 8.4
OBJ: 8.4a Recall some examples of post-translational protein processing
MSC: Remembering
43. Certain proteins in a bacterial cell are short-lived and are labeled with a leucine, phenylalanine,
tryptophan, or tyrosine at the N-terminal end. These proteins are degraded by
a. GroEL and GroES. d. Sec A.
b. DnaK and DnaJ. e. ubiquitin.
c. clpAP protease.
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: 8.4
OBJ: 8.4c Identify the components involved in protein degradation and recall their roles in the
process MSC: Understanding
44. Gram-negative microbes are surrounded by two layers of ________, between which lies ________.
a. membrane; periplasm
b. membrane; periplasmic space and lipopolysaccharide
c. membrane; periplasmic space and peptidoglycan
d. lipopolysaccharide; periplasmic space and peptidoglycan
e. lipopolysaccharide; peptidoglycan
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: 8.5
OBJ: 8.5a List possible protein delivery locations in a bacterial cell
MSC: Remembering
45. The general secretion complex known as the SecYEG translocon is found in the
a. nucleus. d. periplasmic space.
b. inner membrane. e. outer membrane.
c. cell wall.
ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: 8.5
OBJ: 8.5b Describe the mechanisms that deliver proteins to the correct locations in a bacterial
cell
MSC: Remembering
46. The term “________” is used to describe movement of a protein from one compartment to another.
a. export d. transport
b. import e. secretion
c. translocation
ANS: C DIF: Medium REF: 8.5
OBJ: 8.5b Describe the mechanisms that deliver proteins to the correct locations in a bacterial
cell
MSC: Remembering
50. The figure below shows a diagram of a DNA and a process. This microorganism is a(n) ________,
and the process being diagrammed is ________.
a. archaea; exon removal d. bacteria; exon removal
b. bacteria; splicing e. eukaryote; exon removal
c. eukaryote; splicing
ANS: C DIF: Medium REF: 8.6
OBJ: 8.6a Explain why bioinformatics is a key tool for microbiologists
MSC: Applying
51. Which of the following terms refers to an interdisciplinary field that uses computer programs to
compare genes of different species?
a. annotation d. sequence homology
b. bioinformatics e. computer analysis
c. open reading frames (ORFs)
ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: 8.6
OBJ: 8.6a Explain why bioinformatics is a key tool for microbiologists
MSC: Remembering
52. Genes that have arisen from a duplication within a species and have evolved to carry out different
functions are referred to as
a. homologs. d. homogenous.
b. orthologs. e. synonymous.
c. paralogs.
ANS: C DIF: Medium REF: 8.7
OBJ: 8.6c Distinguish among homologs, orthologs, and paralogs
MSC: Remembering
53. How have bioinformatic approaches been helpful in designing growth media for intestinal bacteria
such as Faecalibacterium prausnitzii?
a. Genes encoding enzymes for fermentation and production of butyrate have been found.
b. The genome is similar to other bacteria and thus the media for those other bacteria can
now be used.
c. Bioinformatics has indicated genes for metabolism of sugars that can now be added to the
growth medium.
d. Bioinformatics has revealed that this bacterium can make its own amino acids and thus
they are not needed in the growth medium.
e. Bioinformatics has revealed that biosynthetic genes for certain amino acids and vitamins
are absent. Now these can be added to growth medium and the bacterium will grow.
ANS: E DIF: Medium REF: 8.6
OBJ: 8.6b Outline the annotation process; include how open reading frames (ORFs) are identified
and assigned putative functions MSC: Evaluating
54. Beta-lactamases are proteins found in many bacteria that can degrade beta-lactam antibiotics such
as ampicillin. Families of these proteins are coded by genes with similar sequences even though
they are found in a variety of bacteria. These genes would be considered to be
a. paralog. d. introns.
b. orthologs. e. aligned sequences.
c. open reading frames (ORFs).
ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: 8.6
OBJ: 8.6c Distinguish among homologs, orthologs, and paralogs
MSC: Analyzing
SHORT ANSWER
1. Describe how Marshal Nirenberg and Heinrich Matthaei utilized an E. coli cell lysate to figure
out the genetic code.
ANS:
Synthetic RNA molecules were synthesized and used in a cell-free lysate system. The synthetic
RNAs were repeated sequences, for example, poly-U or poly-ACAC. The cell-free
protein-synthesizing system synthesized polyphenylalanine from the poly-U template. Other
templates were also used in order to which amino acids would be incorporated into a growing
peptide chain.
2. How do sigma factors in a bacterium such as E. coli regulate major physiological responses?
ANS:
Any one species such as E. coli can make several different sigma factors that help RNA
polymerase find the beginnings of different subsets of genes. One key sigma factor is rpoD or
sigma 70. This sigma factor is involved in recognizing “housekeeping” genes that are always
needed. The different sigma factors help RNA polymerase recognize different classes of promoters
and control genes involved in nitrogen metabolism, flagellar synthesis, heat, stress, starvation,
sporulation, and other physiological responses. Organisms have protein sensors that monitor the
environment. When necessary, they direct the cell to increase synthesis of the appropriate sigma
factor. Accumulation of specialty sigma factors dislodge other sigma factors from RNA
polymerase and redirect RNA polymerase to promoters for genes that can be used to solve the
problem sensed by the protein sensors. The cell can control physiological responses by regulating
when a specific sigma factor accumulates.
ANS:
mRNA encodes proteins. rRNA is a component of ribosomes. tRNA carries amino acids to the
ribosome during translation. sRNA regulates the translation of mRNAs but does not code for
tmRNA, has properties of tRNA and mRNA and unsticks ribosomes that are stuck thus freeing
them for more protein synthesis. Catalytic RNA, also referred to as ribozymes, associates with
some proteins to provide catalytic activity, an example being RNAse P. Catalytic RNA is also
involved in some activity of the ribosome as well as in splicing.
4. How does mRNA compare to the template and nontemplate DNA strand?
ANS:
The mRNA is transcribed from the template strand. That means that the template strand is a
reverse complement to the mRNA. The nontemplate strand, therefore, is identical to the mRNA,
except that it contains Ts instead of Us. The nontemplate strand and the mRNA are both referred to
as sense strands.
ANS:
RNA polymerase scans DNA for promoters by binding DNA loosely, then coming off. When
RNA polymerase binds a promoter, the holoenzyme first forms a loosely bound closed complex
with the DNA. The DNA unwinds a turn and becomes an open complex, to which RNA
polymerase becomes tightly bound. RNA polymerase then begins complementary binding of
ribonucleotides to the open DNA.
ANS:
Rho-dependent termination involves Rho binding to GC-rich regions after the translational stop on
the mRNA. The mRNA wraps around Rho until Rho and RNA polymerase come into contact,
causing termination of transcription.
As the name implies, Rho-independent termination does not involve Rho-protein. Instead, a
region in the RNA after the translational stop contains a sequence that will base pair, forming a
hairpin that is immediately followed by a poly-U sequence. A hairpin followed by a poly-U
structure, behind the RNA pol, terminates transcription.
7. Name two antibiotics that affect transcription and explain their mode of action.
ANS:
Rifamycin B inhibits transcription initiation by binding bacterial RNA polymerase and blocking
RNA from leaving RNA polymerase. Actinomycin D intercalates between GC base pairs and
mimics a DNA base, which blocks the elongation phase of transcription in both prokaryotes and
eukaryotes. It is not selective for prokaryotes.
8. Define “half-life” in terms of mRNA. Biologically, why is it important that the half-life of mRNA
be the shortest of the RNAs? What chemically leads to a longer half-life for tRNAs and rRNAs?
ANS:
The half-life of mRNA is the time it takes to degrade half of the molecules of a given mRNA. An
mRNA should be present only when the product is necessary for the cell. You would not want it to
be around for long periods. The tRNAs and rRNAs are the machinery necessary for translation,
and they need to be maintained in the cell. They contain modified bases that are less susceptible to
degradation by RNase.
ANS:
The Shine-Dalgarno sequence is found in the mRNA upstream of the translational start codon. It is
a purine-rich consensus sequence that is complementary to the 3'-end of 16S rRNA in the 30S
ribosomal subunit. This base pairing aligns the start codon precisely with the P-site in readiness for
f-met tRNA binding.
10. Every mRNA has three possible reading frames. How does the ribosome find the correct reading
frame?
ANS:
Each mRNA has sequences upstream of the area that encodes the protein. This upstream leader
RNA contains a purine-rich sequence located four to eight bases upstream of the start codon, called
the ribosome-binding site. The sequence is complementary to a sequence at the 3' end of the 16S
rRNA. Binding of mRNA to this sequence places the start codon in the ribosome P-site.
11. Since ribosomes do not translate to the end of the mRNA, what causes translation to end?
ANS:
A stop codon marks the end of the coding sequence. When a stop codon moves to the A-site, a
release factor will enter the A-site and activate the peptidyl transferase, which cuts the bond
holding the peptide to the tRNA in the P-site. An additional release factor and ribosome recycling
factor help disassemble the ribosome.
12. Examine the DNA sequence shown below. How many possible reading frames does this piece of
DNA have? Explain where they are. Which one can be used and how do you know?
5'-AGTCGATCGAACGGTCATCG-3'
3'-TCAGCTAGCTTGCCAGTAGC-5'
ANS:
There are six possible reading frames in this piece of DNA, three in each direction using one of the
strands as a template. Codons are three bases wide and thus starting translation at each of the first
three bases in the sequence will start a new reading frame. By the fourth base, the reading frame is
back in frame with the first. Transcription does not start randomly and thus not all of the reading
frames will be used for transcription. The reading frame that may be used is starting at the third
base of the 5' end of the bottom strand as bolded below. This is the first base of a start codon, AUG
in the mRNA. Credit may also be given for any alternate start codons a student may find.
5'-AGTCGATCGAACGGTCATCG-3'
3'-TCAGCTAGCTTGCCAGTAGC-5'
13. At times a ribosome may get stuck with an mRNA that has been damaged so that there is no stop
codon. What happens to this ribosome to fix this problem?
ANS:
A translation rescue molecule, tmRNA, is similar to a tRNA on one end. It carries an amino acid
and enters the A-site, where a peptide bond forms between the stalled peptide and the amino acid
on the tmRNA. Another part of the tmRNA is similar to mRNA and adds 10 amino acids, called a
proteolysis tag, to the peptide. This tag has marked the peptide for destruction. The mRNA end of
this tmRNA has displaced to old mRNA and has thus freed the ribosome.
14. Name two antibiotics that affect translation and explain their modes of action.
ANS:
Possible answers include the following: Streptomycin binds to the A-site of the 30s subunit of the
bacterial ribosome. It allows for mismatches in the codon and anti-codon, resulting in
mistranslation. Tetracycline binds to the A-site and prevents aminoacyl-tRNA from binding to the
A-site. Chloramphenicol binds to the 23s RNA of the 50s subunit, binding specifically to the
peptidyl transferase portion and thus inhibiting peptide bond formation. Erythromycin binds to the
exit channel of the 23s subunit of the 50s ribosome resulting in prevention of peptide bond
formation. Other antibiotics include kasugamycin which prevent mRNA from binding to a
ribosome, fusidic acid which targets EF-G and thus prevents translocation, or puromycin which
has structural similarity to tRNA and thus can triack peptidyl transferase into activity without a
tRNA bound.
DIF: Medium REF: 8.3 OBJ: 8.3e List some antibiotics that poison
translation
MSC: Understanding
15. Where is fMet used as the N-terminal amino acid? What does that mean for the human immune
response?
ANS:
N-formylmethionine (fMet) is important during the course of an infection because fMet peptides
are produced only by bacteria and mitochondria, not by archaea or by the cytoplasmic ribosomes
of eukaryotes. Our white blood cells can detect low concentrations of fMet peptides (around 10–12
M) as a sign of invading bacteria or of necrotic (dying) host cells releasing mitochondria.
ANS:
Many proteins are only needed at certain times. If they persisted in the cell, they would adversely
affect the cell. Likewise, all proteins age over time and must be turned over to maintain adequate
activity. Therefore, degradation regulates not only protein levels but which proteins are present at a
given time. If a protein is damaged and becomes useless to the cell, it needs to be degraded. Its
components may then be recycled in the cell.
17. Explain how a type I secretion system works. Are the secreted proteins ever in periplasmic space?
ANS:
A type I secretion system is comprised of an ABC transporter that couples to TolC. There are three
components involved: an ATP-binding cassette, the ABC protein in the inner membrane, and
periplasmic protein lashed to the inner membrane. They share the use of the channel protein, TolC,
which keeps the protein that will be secreted from ever being inside the periplasmic space.
ANS:
DnaJ and DnaK will bind and clamp down on the nascent protein and aid it in folding into its
proper conformation. GroEL and GroES, on the other hand, form a stacked ring into which the
protein can be placed. Cycles of ATP binding and hydrolysis cause conformational changes within
the chamber that can reconfigure target proteins.
19. How are folded and unfolded proteins moved from the cytoplasm to the periplasm?
ANS:
The completed pre-secretion protein is then captured by a piloting protein called SecB, which
unfolds the pre-secretion protein and delivers it to SecA, a protein peripherally associated with the
membrane-spanning SecYEG translocon, which moves them into the periplasm where chaperones
guide their folding. An alternative mechanism is the twin arginine translocase (TAT), which moves
folded proteins from the cytoplasm to the periplasm. These proteins have a twin arginine motif
sequence that is recognized by the TAT. Whereas Sec-dependent transport is ATP driven, the TAT
system is powered by the proton motive force.
The SecB protein binds to unfolded proteins and brings them to the SecYEG translocon, which
moves them into the periplasm where chaperones guide their folding. The twin arginine translocase
(TAT) moves folded proteins from the cytoplasm to the periplasm. These proteins have a twin
arginine motif sequence that is recognized by the TAT. Proton motive force supplies the energy for
this.
20. A variety of online software tools are available to aid with analyzing DNA and protein sequences.
Name any three and explain what they can be used for.
ANS:
Answers will vary. Any of the following are correct: 1) BLAST is used to compare a sequence of
interest to other sequences or proteins in a sequence database. 2) Multiple sequence alignment,
aligns sequences identified as homologous in a BLAST search. 3) KEGG is specific for
biochemical pathways but can predict which pathways an organism has based on genes. 4) Motif
search can search sequences for motifs such as ATP-binding motifs. 5) ExPASy contains many
tools with a focus on its index of proteins. 6) Joint Genome Institute genome portal has compiled
genome sequences of organisms including bacteria.
ANS:
Eukaryotic genes contain introns. Since there are few identifying sequences defining intron
borders, sophisticated computer analysis is necessary. In prokaryotes, it is simpler to identify an
ORF.
ANS:
Annotation is analogous to identifying separate sentences and words in an unknown language.
Annotating a DNA sequence is done with computers using the known rules of transcription and
translation to identify the start and stop sites of potential genes. DNA sequences are then translated
in silico to determine amino acid sequences. When a sequence appears to encode a protein, the
DNA sequence is called an open reading frame (ORF).
9 juillet 1917.
1917.
6 août 1917.
19 mai 1918.
6 juin 1918.
9 juin 1918.
1920.
Mileke, qui a maintenant sept ans, vient de rentrer avec les trois
vaches qu’il a menées paître. Il crie dès la rue :
— Mère ! la bleue est enfin « willig » : ça suinte, et elle a sauté
trois fois sur les autres vaches.
— Ah ! fit la petite femme, il était temps : on la conduira demain
au taureau.
Mileke est allé tout de suite avec Fineke construire un fort sur un
tas de sable qui se trouve dans la cour de la ferme.
Ils sont chez moi à faire des cumulets sur le tapis. Fineke, en
jetant jambes par-dessus tête, découvre, dans un écartement, tout
son petit sexe. Mileke me regarde saisi, rougit, puis, la bouche en
rond, lève les yeux vers le plafond.
L’effarouchement de Mileke est que, moi, j’ai vu cela. Lui, mon
Dieu, il voit cela souvent, et n’y fait pas plus attention qu’à ses pieds
ou à sa tête.
29 juillet 1920.
Novembre 1914.
8 janvier 1915.
7 février 1915.
27 février 1915.
Deux grands-ducs, chacun isolé dans une cage d’un mètre carré.
A mon approche sous le parapluie, ils hérissent leur plumage
jaspé de toute la gamme des mordorés ; ils écarquillent comme des
phares leurs yeux orange ; ils dressent leurs oreilles en plumet ; ils
claquent leurs mandibules férocement ; puis ils m’observent.
Sous mon parapluie, ma tête était sans doute ombragée ; ils
pouvaient ainsi mieux voir mes yeux, agrandis par l’action de la
neige et du vent. De leur regard myope, ils me fixent, lèvent et
abaissent le corps en le balançant à droite et à gauche, comme pour
prendre leur élan vers ces deux points lumineux. Je me mis à
mouvoir expressément les yeux : leurs yeux d’or foncé, avec un
profond point noir au milieu, qui s’agrandissait et se rapetissait, se
fermaient de temps en temps d’un battement des paupières,
veloutées de petites plumes blanches. Ces yeux de lave brûlante et
ces claquements de mandibules sont d’une férocité grandiose.
Les dromées, bêtes qui ressemblent à des autruches, m’étonnent
par un battement de tambourin qu’on entend de l’intérieur de leur
corps, sans que leurs bouches se meuvent. Le gardien me dit que
c’est un son de contentement et de santé.
Dieu, que j’aime les bêtes ! Sans le jardin zoologique, Anvers me
serait maintenant odieux. L’Escaut, cette autre beauté de la ville, est
si tragiquement abandonné, il nous fait tant regretter la vie, le
mouvement, le bruit qu’amenait sa richesse, que je n’ai plus le cœur
d’y aller. Les premiers temps de la guerre, je l’aimais beaucoup,
ainsi beau par lui-même ; mais maintenant que le pays agonise par
l’absence de l’abondance qu’il nous amenait, j’y deviens trop triste.
28 février 1915.
5 mars 1915.