PHYSICS

Workbook Cum Question Bank with Answers

CLASS-XII (CHSE)

Writer

Dr. (Mrs.) Binodini Pradhan

Reader in Physics (Retd.)
R. D. Womens University,
Bhubaneswar

SCHEDULED CASTES & SCHEDULED TRIBES

RESEARCH & TRAINING INSTITUTE (SCSTRTI)
ST & SC DEVELOPMENT DEPARTMENT
BHUBANESWAR

2022
The ST & SC Development Department, Government of Odisha has introduced an innovative
education programme for the students appearing in +2 Science and Commerce examination
pursuing studies in the ST & SC Development Department Schools (EMRS & HSS) to ensure
quality education at +2 level. In this regard it is to mention that an Academic Performance
Monitoring Cell (APMC) has been set up in SCSTRTI to monitor the Training and Capacity
Building of Teachers of SSD Higher Secondary Schools and Ekalavya Model Residential
Schools (EMRS) to enhance quality education for better performance of the students
appearing +2 Science and Commerce examination.
Since March 2020 due to Covid-19 Pandemic Situation, the state government has closed all
the HSS & EMRS and online classes were going on. The CBSE & CHSE Board were unable to
conduct the offline examinations in 2020 and 2021. Since a few months, offline classes are
going on. To combat the situation, the CBSE & CHSE Boards have introduced alternate
comprehensive examination patterns such as 1st and 2nd Term End Examinations and Quarter
End Examinations etc. to be operative from 2021-22 academic session. Accordingly the
Question patterns have completely being changed by both Boards.
To face this situation, the APMC has designed Workbook-Cum-Question Bank with Answers
as per the new direction of the Boards. The best of subject experts have been roped to
formulate self-contained and self-explanatory “Workbook-Cum-Question Bank with
Answers” as per the new pattern of examinations of CHSE & CBSE Boards. They have tried to
make the material as far as activity based and solution based as feasible.
I would like to extend my sincere thanks to Prof. (Dr.) A. B. Ota, Advisor-Cum-Director and
Special Secretary, SCSTRTI. I would also like to thank Dr. S. C. Das, SLPM, APMC and the team of
subject experts for their sincere effort in bringing out the Question Bank in a very short time.
The Workbook-Cum-Question Bank with Answers will cater to the needs of students during
this pandemic situation and will be extremely useful for students of Science and Commerce of
CBSE and CHSE to face the new pattern of examination, as these are designed accordingly.

Ranjana Chopra
Principal Secretary
ST & SC Development Department
Govt. of Odisha
An innovative education programme has been initiated by setting up an Academic Performance
Monitoring Cell (APMC) in Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Research and Training
Institute (SCSTRTI) to monitor the Training and Capacity Building of Teachers of SSD Higher
Secondary Schools and Ekalavya Model Residential Schools (EMRS) and to ensure quality
education of students studying at +2 level under the administrative control of the ST & SC
Development Department.
Due to Covid-2019 pandemic situation, all the schools under administrative control of ST & SC
Development Department are closed since March 2020. As a result different Boards were not
able to conduct offline examinations in 2020 and 2021. As an alternative, CBSE Board and CHSE
Board have made comprehensive examination patterns in the form of 1st & 2nd Term End and 3rd
Quarter End examinations respectively to be followed from 2021-22 academic session.
The present situation demands to fullfill the desire of students and designed new pattern of
questions, which will cater to the need of students to face the examinations boldly without any
fear and nervousness. The APMC under the banner of SCSTRTI has taken the initiative to
prepare Workbook-Cum-Question Bank with Answers in Physics, Chemistry, Biology (Botany
& Zoology), Mathematics, Information Technology / Computer Science, English and Odia of
Science stream and Business Mathematics and Statistics, Business Studies and Management,
Accounting, Cost Accountancy, Fundamentals of Management Accounting, Fundamentals of
Entrepreneurship, Banking & Insurance etc. of Commerce stream as per the new pattern of
questions to be adopted in both CBSE and CHSE Boards and prepared books separately.
The subject experts, who are the best in their respective subjects in the state have been roped in
for this exercise. They have given their precious time to make the new pattern of Question Bank
as activity and solution based as per the direction of both CBSE and CHSE Boards.
I hope this material will be extremely useful for the students preparing for the +2 examination
in different subject of Science and Commerce streams.

Prof. (Dr.) A. B. Ota

Advisor-Cum-Director & Special Secretary
SCSTRTI, Govt. of Odisha
 CONTENTS
Sl. Chapter Topics Page
No. No.

1. Chapter - 1 Electric Charges and Fields 1-8

2. Chapter - 2 Electric Potential & Capacitance 9-19

3. Chapter - 3 Current Electricity 20-36

4. Chapter - 4 Magnetic Effect of Current 37-49

5. Chapter - 5 Magnetism and Matter 50-56

6. Chapter - 6 Electromagnetic Induction 57-67

7. Chapter - 7 Alternative Current 68-77

8. Chapter - 8 Electromagnetic Waves 78-84

9. Chapter - 9 Ray Optics 85-97

10. Chapter - 10 Wave Optics 98-106

11. Chapter - 11 Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation 107-119

12. Chapter - 12 Atoms 120-129

13. Chapter - 13 Nucleus 130-143

14. Chapter - 14 Semiconductor Electronics 144-157

15. Chapter - 15 Communication System 158-166

***
 CHAPTER ONE
(ELECTRIC CHARGES AND FIELDS)
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS (OTQ)
A-I
MCQ
Choose the correct answer out of the 4. A charge q is placed at the centre
four probable given at the end of each of a cube of side ‘a’. The electric
question. flux through any one face of a cube
1. The minimum charge on an object is .
is (a) 𝑞𝑞/𝜀𝜀0 (b) 𝑞𝑞/3𝜀𝜀0
(a) One Coulomb (c) 𝑞𝑞/6𝜀𝜀0 (d) 6𝑞𝑞/𝜀𝜀0
(b) One Stat coulomb
5. In a region of space having a
(c) 1.6 × 10−20 Coulomb
uniform electric field E, a
(d) 1.6 × 10−19 Coulomb
hemispherical closed bowl of radius
𝟏𝟏
2. In MKS system equals r is placed. The electric flux
𝟒𝟒𝟒𝟒𝜺𝜺𝟎𝟎

(a) 9 × 109 Newton metre2 /(Coulomb)2 through the bowl is

(b) 1 Newton metre2 /(Coulomb)2 (a) 𝜋𝜋𝑟𝑟 2 𝐸𝐸 (b) 2𝜋𝜋𝑟𝑟 2 𝐸𝐸
(c) 1 Dyne × cm2 / ( Stat Coulomb)2 (c)2𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋 (d) 4𝜋𝜋𝑟𝑟 2 𝐸𝐸
(d) 9 × 109 Dyne × cm2 / (Stat Coulomb)2
6. A hollow spherical conductor of
3. Two charges are at distance d radius 2m carries a charge of
apart in air. The coulomb force 𝟓𝟓𝟓𝟓𝟓𝟓𝟓𝟓𝟓𝟓. Then the electric field
between them is F. If a dielectric strength at its surface is
material of dielectric constant K is (a) Zero
placed between them, the coulomb (b) 1.125 × 106 𝑁𝑁/𝐶𝐶
force now becomes. 106 𝑁𝑁
(c)2.25 ×
(a) F/K (b) FK 𝐶𝐶

(c) F/K2 (d) K2F (d) 4.5 × 106 𝑁𝑁/𝐶𝐶

//1//
7. The electric field intensity on the (b) 1.6 × 10−29 𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶
surface of charged conductor is: (c) 1.6 × 10−9 𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶
(a) zero
(d) 0.8 × 10−29 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐
(b) directed normally to the surface
11. An electric dipole of moment ��⃗
𝑷𝑷 is
(c) directed tangentially to the surface
��⃗.
placed in uniform electric field 𝑬𝑬
(d) directed along 45° to the surface
The torque acting on the dipole is.
8. Three charges each of +Q are (a) 𝑃𝑃�⃗. 𝐸𝐸�⃗ (b) 𝑃𝑃�⃗ × 𝐸𝐸�⃗
placed at the corners A,B,C of an
equilateral triangle as shown. The (c) 𝐸𝐸�⃗ × 𝑃𝑃�⃗ (d) 𝑃𝑃�⃗. (𝑃𝑃�⃗ × 𝐸𝐸�⃗ )
electric field strength at the circum
centre O is 12. The S.I. unit of electric flux is
(a) Zero (a) Weber
1 3𝑄𝑄
(b) (b) N/C
4𝜋𝜋𝜀𝜀 0 𝑟𝑟 2

1 𝑄𝑄
(c) (c) Volt × meter
4𝜋𝜋𝜀𝜀 0 𝑟𝑟 2

1 𝑄𝑄 2 (d) J/C
(d)
4𝜋𝜋𝜀𝜀 0 𝑟𝑟 2
13. The Units of permittivity of free
9. The electric field intensity E due to space 𝜺𝜺𝟎𝟎 can be written as
an infinite uniformely charged (a) 𝐶𝐶/𝑁𝑁𝑚𝑚2 (b) 𝐶𝐶 2 /𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁
plane sheet at a point distant r
from the sheet is (c) 𝐶𝐶 2 / 𝐽𝐽𝐽𝐽 (d) 𝐶𝐶/𝐽𝐽𝐽𝐽

(a) 𝐸𝐸 ∝ r 14. Two point charges having a total

(b) 𝐸𝐸 ∝ 𝑟𝑟 −1 charge 𝑸𝑸 are distance 𝒙𝒙 apart.
(c) 𝐸𝐸 ∝ 𝑟𝑟 −2 What is the charge on each point so

(d) E is independent of r that the force they exert on one

another is maximum ?
10. An electric dipole consists of two
𝑄𝑄 3𝑄𝑄 𝑄𝑄 𝑄𝑄
opposite charges each of magnitude (a) ; (b) ;
4 4 2 2
−𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏
𝟏𝟏. 𝟔𝟔 × 𝟏𝟏𝟎𝟎 𝑪𝑪 at separation 𝑰𝑰𝑰𝑰°.
𝑄𝑄 7𝑄𝑄
(c) ; (d) 𝑄𝑄, 𝑧𝑧𝑧𝑧𝑧𝑧𝑧𝑧
The dipole moment is 8 8

(a) 1.6 × 1019 𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶

//2//
15. (a) 1 (b) √2
1
(c) (d) 2√2
√2

16. A body gets positive charge. It

means that
(a) it has lost electrons

Four charges are placed at the (b) it has gained protons

corners of a square ABCD of side a (c) it has gained positrons
as shown is the above figure. The (d) it has gained \∝ − particles
Charge A is in equilibrium. Then
the ratio 𝒒𝒒𝟏𝟏 /𝒒𝒒𝟐𝟐 is

***

A-II

FILL IN THE BLANKS

1. The unit of electric field intensity in 5. An alpha particle is situated in an

S.I. System is ________. electric field of 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏 × 𝟏𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟒𝟒 𝑵𝑵/𝑪𝑪. The
force exerted on it is _______.
2. The electric field intensity inside a
solid uniformely charged spherical 6. A charge of 𝟎𝟎. 𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑 × 𝟏𝟏𝟎𝟎−𝟕𝟕 𝑪𝑪 is
conductor is ______. brought in an electric field. It
experience a force of 𝟏𝟏𝟎𝟎−𝟓𝟓 𝑵𝑵. The
3. A sphere of radius 100cm has a
𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐 electric field strength at the point is
charge of � � 𝝁𝝁𝝁𝝁. Its surface
𝟑𝟑 ______.
density of charge in SI units is____.
7. ABC is an equilateral triangle of
4. Two spheres have their surface
side 10cm. Charges +𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏 and
density of charge in the ratio 2:3
𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝝁𝝁𝝁𝝁 are placed at B and C. The
and their radii in the ratio 3:2. The
resultant intensity at A is _____.
ratio of the charges on them
is__________.

//3//
8. Two Spheres of equal radii have 15. The ratio of Coulomb force and
charges ‘q’ and ‘3q’. The ratio of Gravitational force between two
their surface density of charge is charged particles is approximately
________. equal to _______.

9. The mass of a body ____when it is 16. The dimension of electric flux is

negative charged. ________.

10. _____ is the surer test of 17. The electric lines of forces due to an
electrification. isolated negative point charge
are________.
11. An electric line of force is directed
away from a__________ charge. 18. I Coulomb =_______ state coulomb.

12. The coulomb force between two ��⃗ is

19. A dipole of dipole moment 𝑷𝑷
charged bodies is a ____ force. placed in a uniform electric field ��⃗
𝑬𝑬.

13. The coulomb force between two The net force acting on it is ______.

charged bodies is a ___________ 20. The total charge given to a

range force. conductor resides on its _______.

14. For a uniform electric field the

electrostatic lines of force are ____.

***

A-III

GIVE ONE WORD ANSWER TO THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS.

1. What type of force is an 3. What is the intensity of electric field

electrostatic force? near a plane sheet of charge?

2. What quantity defines charge per 4. What is the region surrounding an

unit area? electric charge in which another
charge experience forces called. ?

//4//
5. Which particles are responsible for 10. Which law relates the net electric
electrification of a body? flux through a surface to the net
charge enclosed by it.
6. What is the name given to a pair of
equal and opposite charges 11. Which law governs the force
separated by small distance. between two point charges.

7. How does the mass of a body 12. Which property of charges

change when it is positively indicates that a charged body
charged. cannot posses charge which is
fraction of e.
8. What amount of flux is linked with
XY pane of a square of side 10cm if 13. What is the angle between the
��⃗ = 𝟐𝟐𝒊𝒊̂ + 𝟑𝟑𝒋𝒋̂.
electric field 𝑬𝑬 electrostatic line of force and the
surface of a charged conductor just
9. Is dipole moment a scalar or a
outside the conductor.
vector.

***

A-IV

GIVE ANSWER IN ONE SENTENCE.

1. Define electric field intensity at a 5. How does the strength of electric

point. field due to a very small dipole
change with distance ‘r’ or the axis
2. What is the Law of conservation of
and on equatorial line.
charge ?
6. Define an electric dipole.
3. What is meant by quantization of
charge ? 7. State Gauss Law in electrostatics.

4. Why two electric lines of force do 8. What happens to a electric dipole

not interest ? when it is placed in a uniform
electric field.

//5//
9. A table tennis ball which has been generator. What will be the motion
convered with a conducting paint is of the ball ?
suspended by a silk thread so that it
10. How does the electric field strength
hangs between two metallic plates.
varies with distance near an infinite
One plate is earthed while the other
long uniformly charged line charge.
plate is connected to a high voltage

***

SUBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

1. What is an electric dipole ? find 4. State Gauss’ Law and apply it to

expression for the electric field find the electric field intensity due
intensity on the axis of an ideal to an uniformly charged infinite
dipole. plane sheet of charge.

2. Define dipole moment of an electric 5. State Gauss’ Law and apply it to

dipole. Find expression for the find electric field intensity due to an
electric field intensity of an ideal infinitely long straight uniformly
dipole on the equatorial line. charged wire.

3. Given an example of an electric

dipole. Find the torque on a dipole
placed in a uniform electric field.

***

//6//
 ANSWERS KEY
Chapter -1
A-I
MCQ

1. (d) 9. (d)
2. (a) 10. (b)
3. (a) 11. (b)
4. (c) 12. (c)
5. (a) 13. (c)
6. (b) 14. (b)
7. (b) 15. (d)
8. (a) 16. (a)
***

A-II
FILL IN THE BLANKS.

1. N/C 11. Positive

2. Zero 12. Conservative / central
3. 1.67 × 10−7 𝐶𝐶/𝑚𝑚^2 13. Long
4. 3:2 14. Parallel
5. 4.8 × 10−4 𝑁𝑁 15. 1040
6. 300 𝑉𝑉/𝑚𝑚 16. 𝑀𝑀𝐿𝐿3 𝑇𝑇 −3 𝐴𝐴−1
7. 9 × 107 𝑁𝑁/𝐶𝐶 17. Convergent
8. 1:3 18. 3 × 109
9. Increases 19. Zero
10. Repulsion 20. Surface

***

//7//
 A-III
ONE WORD ANSWER

1. Conservative 8. Zero
2. Surface Charge density 9. Vector
3. 𝜎𝜎/2𝜀𝜀0 10. Gauss
4. Electric field 11. Coulomb
5. Electrons 12. Quantization
6. Electric dipole 13. 90°
7. Decreases.

***

//8//
 CHAPTER TWO
(ELECTRIC POTENTIAL & CAPACITANCE)
SECTION -A
A-II
MCQ

1. Two charges +𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏 and – 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏 are 4. A parallel plate capacitor with air
placed 10Cm apart .Potential at the between the plates has capacitance
centre of the line joining the two of 𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐. If the capacitor is immersed
charges. in a liquid of dielectric constant 5.
(a) 2𝑉𝑉 Its capacitance will be .
(b)Zero (a) 05𝜇𝜇𝜇𝜇 (b)10𝜇𝜇𝜇𝜇
(c)5𝜇𝜇𝜇𝜇 (d)2𝜇𝜇𝜇𝜇
(c)−2𝑉𝑉
(d) none of the above 5. The electric potential at a point at a
distance of 2m from a point of
2. An electron of mass m and charge e
charge of 0.1µC is 450V. The electric
is accelerated through a P.D of V
field at the point will be
volts in vacuum. Its final velocity.
(a)225N/c
𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒
(a) (b) (b)2.25N/C
𝑚𝑚 2𝑚𝑚
(c)22.5N/c
𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 √2𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒
(c)� (d) (d)None of the above
𝑚𝑚 𝑚𝑚

6. There are 10 units of charge at the

3. The possible unit of Electric field
centre of a circle of radius of 1m.
intensity is
The work done in moving 1 unit of
(a) Newton / meter
charge once around the circle is .
(b)Newton- Coulomb
(a) 10units
(c)𝐽𝐽𝑐𝑐 −1 𝑚𝑚−1
(b) 100 units
(d)𝐽𝐽 𝑐𝑐 𝑚𝑚−1
(c) 150units
(d) Zero

9
7. Two concentric spheres of radii R 10. The electric field exist in space
and r have similar charges with around a point charge +Q. A +ve
equal surface densities, 𝝈𝝈 what is the charge +q is carried from A to B and
electric potential at their common A to C .,where B, C lie
centre. on the circle with +Q
𝜎𝜎
(a) at the centre . Work
𝜖𝜖 0
𝜎𝜎 done is:
(b) (𝑅𝑅 + 𝑟𝑟)
𝜖𝜖 0
(a) greater along path AC than charge
𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅
(c) AB
𝜖𝜖 0
𝜎𝜎 (b) greater along path AB then charge
(d) (𝑅𝑅 − 𝑟𝑟)
𝜖𝜖 0
AC
8. A particle A has a charge +q and
(c) same in both the case
particle B has a charge of +4q. Each
(d) zero in both the case.
of them have same mass m. When
the particle are allowed to fall from 11. The distance between the plates of a
rest through same P.D., ratio of parallel plate capacitor of
𝒗𝒗𝒗𝒗
their speeds is capacitance C is doubled and area of
𝒗𝒗𝒗𝒗
each plate is reduced to half. It’s
(a) 1:4
new capacitance will be:
(b) 1:2
(c)2:1 (a) 2𝐶𝐶
𝐶𝐶
(d)4:1 (b)
2
𝑪𝑪
9. The electric potential V is given as (c)
𝟒𝟒

function of x . 𝑽𝑽(𝒙𝒙) = 𝟓𝟓𝒙𝒙𝟐𝟐 + 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏 −

(d) 4C
𝟒𝟒 . The value of electric field at .
𝒙𝒙 = 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏 is 12. The radius of sphere having
capacitance of 𝟎𝟎. 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏 is
(a) – 20𝑉𝑉/𝑚𝑚
(a) 9km
( b) – 23𝑉𝑉/𝑚𝑚
(b) 0.9 km
(c) 11 𝑉𝑉/𝑚𝑚
(c) 8km
(d) 6𝑉𝑉/𝑚𝑚
(d) 0.8km

//10//
13. A capacitor of capacitance𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐 is 17. The effective capacitance between
charged to a P.D of 500 volts . The two points A and B
energy stored in the capacitor is
(a) 25joules
(b) 500 joules
(c) 2.5 joules
(d) 0.25 joules

14. (a)2𝜇𝜇𝜇𝜇 (b)4𝜇𝜇𝜇𝜇

(c)3𝜇𝜇𝜇𝜇 (d)0.4𝜇𝜇𝜇𝜇

18. The minimum number of capacitors

of 𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐 each required to obtain a
capacitance of 𝟓𝟓𝟓𝟓𝟓𝟓 is
(a) 6
The equivalent capacitance between (b) 4
A and B is (c) 3
(a)3𝜇𝜇𝜇𝜇 (b)4𝜇𝜇𝜇𝜇 (d)5
(c)5𝜇𝜇𝜇𝜇 (d)6𝜇𝜇𝜇𝜇
19. A 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏 capacitor is charged to a
15. The radius of soap bubble whose P.D of 50 Volts and is connected to
potential is16V is doubled . The new another uncharged capacitor in
potential of the bubble is parallel. Now common potential
(a) 2V (b) 4V difference becomes 20V. The
(c) 8V (d) 16V capacitance of the second capacitor
is .
16. The capacitance of capacitor does
(a)15𝜇𝜇𝜇𝜇
not depend upon
(b)30𝜇𝜇𝜇𝜇
(a) charge
(c)20𝜇𝜇𝜇𝜇
(b) voltage
(d)10𝜇𝜇𝜇𝜇
(c) nature of material
(d) all of these

//11//
20. The electric charge Q is uniformly 22. If a dielectric slab of 𝟒𝟒 × 𝟏𝟏𝟎𝟎−𝟓𝟓 m
distributed around a semicircle of thick in introduced between the
radius ‘r’. The electric potential at plates of parallel plate capacitor, the
the centre of semicircle is distance between the plates is to be
1 𝑄𝑄
a) increased by 𝟑𝟑. 𝟓𝟓 × 𝟏𝟏𝟎𝟎−𝟓𝟓 𝒎𝒎 to
4𝜋𝜋𝜀𝜀 0 𝑟𝑟
1 𝑄𝑄 resume the capacity to the original
(b)
8𝜋𝜋𝜀𝜀 0 𝑟𝑟
value . Then dielectric constant of
1 𝑄𝑄
(c) the material slab is
𝜀𝜀 0 𝜋𝜋 𝑟𝑟

(d) Zero (a) 6 (b) 8

(c) 12 (d) 20
21. Five capacitors of 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏capacitance
each are connected to a d.c potential 23. A parallel plate capacitor has the
of 100 volt as shown in the figure. space between its plates filled by two
The equivalent capacitance between dielectrics of thickness d/2 with
two points A and B is . dielectric constants 𝑲𝑲𝟏𝟏 and 𝑲𝑲𝟐𝟐 . If d
is the distance of separation between
the plates, the capacitance of the
capacitor is.
2 𝜖𝜖 0 𝑑𝑑 𝐾𝐾1 +𝐾𝐾2
(a) � �
𝐴𝐴 𝐾𝐾1 −𝐾𝐾2

2 𝜖𝜖 0 𝐴𝐴 𝐾𝐾1 𝐾𝐾2
(b) � �
(a)40𝜇𝜇𝜇𝜇 𝑑𝑑 𝐾𝐾1 +𝐾𝐾2

2 𝜖𝜖 0 𝑑𝑑 𝐾𝐾1 − 𝐾𝐾2
(b)20𝜇𝜇𝜇𝜇 (c) � �
𝐴𝐴 𝐾𝐾1 +𝐾𝐾2
(c)10𝜇𝜇𝜇𝜇 2 𝜖𝜖 0 𝐴𝐴
(d) (𝐾𝐾1 − 𝐾𝐾2 )
𝑑𝑑
(d)30𝜇𝜇𝜇𝜇

***

//12//
 A-II
FILL IN THE BLANKS.

1. All line of force intersects at _____ 7. In the figure given below each
degree with an equipotential capacitor has a capacitance of 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏.
surface. The equivalent capacitance of the
system between A and B is
2. The capacitance of a charged
______𝝁𝝁𝝁𝝁.
conductor is C and potential energy
due to charge on it is V Joule. Then
the charge on the conductor is
_____________.

3. Two 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏 capacitors in series is

8. A hollow metallic sphere of radius
equal to ___________.
5cm is charged such that the
𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏
4. Charges of + � � × 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏−𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏 𝑪𝑪 are potential on its surface is 10V. The
𝟑𝟑
potential at the centre of the sphere
placed at each of the four corners of
is _______.
a square of side 8Cm the potential
at the intersection of the diagonals 9. A parallel plate capacitor has
is _________. capacitance C. if he distance
between the plates be doubled, the
5. The work done is carrying a charge
new capacity will be _______.
of 𝟓𝟓𝟓𝟓𝟓𝟓 from a point A to B is 8mJ.
The difference of potential between 10. A large sphere P of radius R is
A and B is _____. charged positively. It is
momentarily connected to a small
6. The electric potential V at any point
sphere Q of radius r . The two
x,y,z (in metre) in space is given by
spheres now have same _______.
𝑽𝑽 = 𝟒𝟒𝒙𝒙𝟐𝟐 . Then the electric field at
the point (1m, 0m, 2m) is 11. The equipotential line due to a point
__________ V/m. Charge Q is a _______.

//13//
12. A charge 5C is given a displacement point. 𝟎𝟎. 𝟓𝟓𝟓𝟓 from the centre of the
of 0.5m and the work done in the spherical conductor is __________.
process is 10J. the difference of
14. The work done by a charge q in
potential between the two points is.
moving around any charge Q in a
13. A hollow spherical conductor of circular path of radius R is
radius 1m has a charge of 𝟐𝟐. 𝟓𝟓𝟓𝟓𝟓𝟓. __________.
Then the electric potential at a

***
A-III
GIVE ANSWER IN ONE WORD.

1. What is the work done to carry an work done in deflecting it through

electron from the +ve terminal of a an angle of 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏°.
12V battery to its negative
6. What is the energy supplied by the
terminal?
battery in order to charge a
2. What is the work done to move a capacitor C to a potential difference
charge of 2C to infinity from a point V.
2m away from a charge of 1C.
7. What happens to the capacitance of
3. Which physical quantity can be a capacitor if a glass plate is
measured in electron volt. introduced between the plates.

4. What is the dimension formula of 8. What is the electrical resistance of a

electric potential. perfect dielectric ?

��⃗ is
5. An electric dipole of moment 𝑷𝑷 9. A parallel plate capacitor of
placed normal to the line of force of capacitance 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏 is charged to a
��⃗. Then what is the
electric field 𝑬𝑬 potential of 𝟓𝟓𝟓𝟓𝟓𝟓𝟓𝟓 and the battery is
disconnected. The plate separation

//14//
 is then reduced to half f its original distant r from the dipole is V. If the
value. What is the new potential ? distance is 3r then what is the
potential.
10. The electric potential due to an
electric dipole at and axial point

***

SECTION –B

EACH QUESTION CARRIES 2 MARKS

1. Two spherical conductors of A where the electric potential is

capacitances 3pF and 5pF are zero.
charged to potentials of 300V and
4. Eight drops of mercury each
500V respectively. The two are
charged to a potential 3V form a big
connected resulting in
drop. Find out the potential of the
redistribution of charges. Then
big drop.
find out (i) final potential. (ii) final
charge on the 3pF conductor . 5. The potential difference between
the two parallel plates is 𝟏𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟒𝟒 𝑽𝑽. If
2. A parallel plate capacitor is charged
the plates are separated by 𝟎𝟎. 𝟓𝟓𝟓𝟓𝟓𝟓
and then isolated . What in the
find out (i) The electric intensity
effect of increasing plate separation
between the plates. (ii) The force on
on (i) charge (ii) capacitance (iii)
an electron if it is placed between
potential give reasons.
the plates.
3. Two charges of magnitude 𝟒𝟒 ×
6. A charge of 2C is moved to infinity
−𝟖𝟖 −𝟖𝟖
𝟏𝟏𝟎𝟎 C and – 𝟔𝟔 × 𝟏𝟏𝟎𝟎 C at A and B
form a point 2m away from a
respectively are 50cm apart. Find
charge 1C. Find out the work done.
the distance of the point from point

//15//
7. What is potential gradient. How is it does it affect the (i) charge (ii)
related to electric field intensity at a capacity (iii) potential diff. between
point. plates (iv) Electric field between
plates.
8. What is meant by dielectric
polarisation. 10. The permittivity of diamond is
𝟏𝟏. 𝟒𝟒𝟒𝟒 × 𝟏𝟏𝟎𝟎−𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏 𝑪𝑪𝟐𝟐 /𝑵𝑵𝒎𝒎𝟐𝟐 . Calculate
9. If the air capacitor is charged to V
the dielectric constant and electric
volts and dielectric slab is
susceptibility of diamond given
introduced between the plates with
𝜺𝜺𝟎𝟎 = 𝟖𝟖. 𝟖𝟖𝟖𝟖 × 𝟏𝟏𝟎𝟎−𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏 𝑪𝑪𝟐𝟐 /𝑵𝑵𝒎𝒎𝟐𝟐
the battery still connected then how

***

SECTION –C
LONG QUESTIONS

1. Derive an expression for potential respectively. Find out the total

at a point on the axis of a dipole. electrostatic potential energy of the
system.
2. Define electrostatic potential at a
point. Derive expression for 5. Derive an expression for
potential at a point due to a point capacitance of a parallel plate
charge Q. capacitor.

3. Show that the work done is moving 6. Derive expression for capacity of a
a test charge ‘q’ in the electric field system of two capacitors of
due to a point charge Q is capacities 𝑪𝑪𝟏𝟏 and 𝑪𝑪𝟐𝟐 when they are
independent of the path along connected (i) in series (ii) in parallel
which the charge is moved.
7. Define Dielectric constant, electric
4. There charge 𝒒𝒒𝟏𝟏 , 𝒒𝒒𝟐𝟐 , 𝒒𝒒𝟑𝟑 are placed susceptibility and dielectric
at position vectors 𝒓𝒓 �⃗𝟐𝟐 , 𝒓𝒓
�⃗𝟏𝟏 , 𝒓𝒓 �⃗𝟑𝟑 strength.

***

//16//
 ANSWERS
Chapter -2
SECTION-A
A-I
IMCQ

1. (b) 13. (c)

2. (d) 14. (a)
3. (c) 15. (c)
4. (b) 16. (c)
5. (a) 17. (d)
6. (d) 18. (b)
7. (b) 19. (a)
8. (b) 20. (a)
9. (a) 21. (c)
10. (c) 22. (b)
11. (c) 23. (b)
12. (b)

***
A-II
FILL IN THE BLANKS.

1. 90 8. 10V
2. √2𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉 9. 0.5C
3. 0.5𝜇𝜇𝜇𝜇 10. Potential
4. 1500√2V 11. Circle
5. 1.6𝐾𝐾𝐾𝐾 12. 2V
13. 22.5 × 103 𝑉𝑉
6. – 8𝑉𝑉/𝑚𝑚
14. Zero
7. 1𝜇𝜇𝜇𝜇
***
//17//
 A-III
ONE WORD ANSWER

1. 1.92 × 10−18 𝐽𝐽 6. 𝐶𝐶𝑉𝑉 2

2. 9 × 109 𝐽𝐽 7. Increases
3. Energy 8. Infinite
4. 𝑀𝑀𝐿𝐿2 𝑇𝑇 −3 𝐴𝐴−1 9. 250V
5. 𝑍𝑍𝑍𝑍𝑍𝑍𝑍𝑍 10. V/9

***

SECTION-B
2 MARKS EACH ANSWER.
𝐶𝐶1 𝑉𝑉1 + 𝐶𝐶2 𝑉𝑉2
1. 𝑽𝑽 = ⇒ 2 − 4𝑥𝑥 = 6𝑥𝑥 ⇒ 10𝑥𝑥 = 2𝑚𝑚
𝐶𝐶1 +𝐶𝐶2

𝑥𝑥 = 0.2𝑚𝑚 = 20𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐
3 × 10−12 × 300 + 5 × 10−12 × 500
=
(3 + 5) × 10−12
𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘 4𝜋𝜋 3𝑟𝑟
4. = 3, 8 × 𝑅𝑅3 ⇒ 𝑅𝑅 = 2𝑟𝑟 𝑞𝑞 =
𝑟𝑟 3 𝐾𝐾
3400
= = 425𝑉𝑉
8 3𝑟𝑟
𝐾𝐾×8× 𝐾𝐾
𝑉𝑉 = = 12V
𝑄𝑄 = 𝐶𝐶1 𝑉𝑉 = 3 × 10−12 × 425 = 1275 𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 2𝑟𝑟

𝑉𝑉 104 𝑉𝑉
2. (i) since isolated charge remain 5. |𝐸𝐸 | = = 5 = 2 × 106
𝑙𝑙 𝑚𝑚
100
constant.
|𝐹𝐹 | = 𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 = 1.6 × 10−19 × 2 × 106
(ii) capacitance decreases as
𝐶𝐶 =
𝜀𝜀 0 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴
d increased here = 3.2 × 10−13 𝑁𝑁
𝐷𝐷
𝐾𝐾𝐾𝐾 1
𝑄𝑄 6. 𝑉𝑉 = = 9 × 109 , 𝑊𝑊 = 𝑞𝑞𝑞𝑞 = 2 ×
(iii) Potential = . So it decreases. 𝑟𝑟 2
𝑐𝑐
9×109
= 9 × 109 𝐽𝐽
2
4×10 −8 6×10 8
3. 𝑉𝑉 = 𝑘𝑘 � − 1 �=0
𝑥𝑥 �2 −𝑥𝑥� 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑
7. 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 ∇ 𝑉𝑉, 𝐸𝐸�⃗ = −∇𝑉𝑉
𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑

//18//
8. The stretching of dielectric atoms due (iii) Potential diff. constant
to displacement of charges in the (iv) E. Field constant
atoms under the action of applied
𝜀𝜀 1.46×10 −10
10. 𝐾𝐾 = = = 16.5
electric field to a dielectric is called 𝜀𝜀 0 8.85×10 −12

dielectric polorisation 𝑥𝑥𝑒𝑒 = 𝜀𝜀0 (𝐾𝐾 − 1)

9. (i) When dielectric present charge = 8.85 × 10−12 × (16.5−1 )

increases
= 1.37 × 10−10 𝐶𝐶 2 /𝑁𝑁𝑚𝑚2
(ii) capacity increases.

***
ANSWERS TO SUBJECTIVE QUESTION

1. 4.

𝑉𝑉 = 𝑉𝑉1 + 𝑉𝑉2
1 𝑞𝑞 1 𝑞𝑞
= − 𝑊𝑊
4𝜋𝜋𝜀𝜀0 𝐾𝐾 (𝑟𝑟 − 𝑙𝑙 ) 4𝜋𝜋𝜀𝜀0 𝐾𝐾 (𝑟𝑟 − 𝑙𝑙 )
1 𝑞𝑞 1 𝑞𝑞1 𝑞𝑞 2
= =0+
4𝜋𝜋𝜀𝜀0 𝐾𝐾 (𝑟𝑟 − 𝑙𝑙 2 )
2 4𝜋𝜋𝜀𝜀0 |���⃗
𝑟𝑟2 − 𝑟𝑟���⃗1 |
𝑙𝑙 ≪ 𝑟𝑟 so 1 𝑞𝑞1 𝑞𝑞2
+ � – � 𝑞𝑞
1 𝑃𝑃 4𝜋𝜋𝜀𝜀0 |���⃗ 𝑟𝑟1 | |���⃗
𝑟𝑟3 − ���⃗ 𝑟𝑟1 | 3
𝑟𝑟3 − ���⃗
𝑉𝑉 =
4𝜋𝜋𝜀𝜀0 𝐾𝐾 𝑟𝑟 2 1 𝑞𝑞1 𝑞𝑞2 𝑞𝑞1 𝑞𝑞3 𝑞𝑞2 𝑞𝑞3
= [ + + ]
1 𝑄𝑄
4𝜋𝜋𝜀𝜀0 𝑟𝑟12 𝑟𝑟13 𝑟𝑟23
2. Definition 𝑉𝑉 =
4𝜋𝜋𝜀𝜀 0 𝑟𝑟 𝜀𝜀 0 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴
5. Derivation 𝐶𝐶 =
𝑑𝑑
𝐵𝐵
3. 𝑊𝑊 = −𝑞𝑞 ∫𝐴𝐴 𝐸𝐸 . 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 show that it
𝐶𝐶1 𝐶𝐶2
depends on position of 𝐴𝐴 & 𝐵𝐵only. 6. 𝐶𝐶𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 =
𝐶𝐶1 +𝐶𝐶2

𝑅𝑅 𝑄𝑄 1 𝑄𝑄 1 𝐶𝐶11 = 𝐶𝐶1 + 𝐶𝐶2

= � − � not on intermediate
4𝜋𝜋𝜀𝜀 0 𝑟𝑟 𝐵𝐵 𝑟𝑟 𝐴𝐴
points taking any path. 7. Definition

***

//19//
 CHAPTER THREE

(CURRENT ELECTRICITY)
SECTION-A
A-I
MCQ

Choose the correct answer out of the four probables given at the end of each question

1. The length of a conductor s halved. 4. The masses of three wires of copper

Its conductance will be are in the ratio 1:3:5 and their
(a) halved lengths are in the ratio of 5:3:1. The
(b) unchaged ratio of their electrical resistances is
(c) doubled (a) 1:3:5
(d) quadrupled.
(b) 125:15:1
2. Five cells each of internal resistance
(c) 5:3:1
𝟎𝟎. 𝟐𝟐𝛀𝛀 and emf 𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑 are connected in
series with an external resistance of (d) 1:15:125
𝟓𝟓𝛀𝛀. The current through the
5. An electron charge e is revolving in
external resistance is
a circular orbit of radius 𝐫𝐫 around a
(a) 0.2𝐴𝐴 (b) 0.5𝐴𝐴
nucleus of charge 𝒛𝒛𝒛𝒛 with speed 𝒗𝒗.
15
(c) � � 𝐴𝐴 (d) 2.5 A The equivalent current is
26

(a) Zero
3. Three resistances of 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝛀𝛀, 𝟓𝟓𝛀𝛀, 𝟐𝟐𝛀𝛀
𝑍𝑍𝑍𝑍𝑍𝑍
are connected in parallel. Net (b)
2𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋
resistance will be
𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒
(a) more than 10Ω (c)
2𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋

(b) between 5Ω and 10Ω 𝑒𝑒2𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋

(d)
𝑣𝑣
(c) between 5Ω and 2Ω
(d) less than 2Ω

//20//
6. The equivalent resistance between 10. A wire of resistance 𝟐𝟐𝛀𝛀 is redrawn
A and B is . so that its length is quadrupled. The
resistance of the redrawn wire is
(a) 2Ω
(b) 8Ω
(c) 16Ω
9𝑅𝑅 14𝑅𝑅
(a) (b)
5 5 (d) 32Ω
16𝑅𝑅 18𝑅𝑅
(c) (d)
5 5
11. All the bulbs in the figure below are
7. The potential difference between A identical. Which bulb(s) leight(s)
and B is most brightly ?

(a) 18V
(b) 19V
(c) 20V
(d) 9V (a) 1 Only
(b) 2 only
8. For ohmic conductors the drift
(b) 3 and 4
speed 𝒗𝒗𝒅𝒅 and the electric field
(d) 1 and 5
applied across it are related as
12. A cell of emf E and internal
(a) 𝑣𝑣𝑑𝑑 ∝ √𝐸𝐸
resistance ′𝒓𝒓′ has an external
(b) 𝑣𝑣𝑑𝑑 ∝ 𝐸𝐸
3 resistance R connected across it. If
(c) 𝑣𝑣𝑑𝑑 ∝ 𝐸𝐸 2
the potential difference across the
(d) 𝑣𝑣𝑑𝑑 ∝ 𝐸𝐸 2
terminals of the cell is V then
9. The unit of resistivity is (a) 𝑟𝑟 = 𝑅𝑅
(a) Ohm / m3 𝐸𝐸
(b) 𝑟𝑟 = 𝑅𝑅 � �
𝑉𝑉
(b) ohm/m2
(c) 𝑟𝑟 = 𝑅𝑅 (𝐸𝐸 − 𝑉𝑉 )/𝑉𝑉
(c) ohm m
(d) 𝑟𝑟 = 𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅/𝐸𝐸
-1
(d) (ohm.m)

//21//
13. In the given circuit AB is a 15.
potentiometer wire of length 10m
and resistance 𝟏𝟏𝛀𝛀. The balancing
length for 2 Volt cell is 8m. The emf
of the battery E is

In the Wheatstone bridge circuit

shown above 𝒄𝒄 = 𝒅𝒅 and 𝒂𝒂 > 𝑏𝑏. The
current
(a) flows from B to D
(b) flows from D to B
(a) 2.75V
(c) is zero in the arm BD
(b) 13.75V
(d) none of the above
(c) 27.5 V
(d) 5.5V 16.

14. The metre bridge circuit shown

above is balanced when jockey J
divides wire AB into two parts AJ
and BJ in the ratio of 1:2. The
unknown resistance Q is:

In a metre bridge arrangement as

shown the null point is observed at
40cm. The resistance R is
(a) 1Ω
(b) 4.5Ω
(c) 5Ω
(d) 3.5Ω
(a) 1Ω (b) 2Ω 17. In potentiometer experiment, the
(c) 4Ω (d) 3Ω balance point with a cell is at the

//22//
 length of 240cm. On shunting the 20. In the figure the difference of
cell with a resistance of 2ohm, the potential between points 𝒙𝒙 and 𝒚𝒚 is :
balance point changes to 120cm.
Then the internal resistance of the
cell is
(a) 2ohm
(b) 1ohm
(c) 0.5ohm (a) 9.8V
(d) 4ohm (b) 9.2V
(c) 2.8V
18. In comparing emfs of two cells with
(d) 9.5V
the help of potentiometer, at the
balance point, the current flowing 21. In Fig. the equivalent resistance
through the wire is taken from. between points 𝑿𝑿 and Y is
(a) one of these cells
(b) both of these cells
(c) The battery in the main circuit.
(d) both the cells and battery in main

circuit.

19. The voltmeter in the given figure

has a resistance of 200ohm. The
(a) 11Ω
reading of voltmeter V is :
(b) 16Ω
(c) 14Ω
(d) 18Ω

22. In a potentiometer experiment, the

balancing length is 8m when the
two cells 𝑬𝑬𝟏𝟏 and 𝑬𝑬𝟐𝟐 are joined in
(a) 1.5V (b) 2V
series. When the two cell are
(c) 1V (d) 3V
connected opposition the balancing

//23//
 length is 4m. The ratio of the emfs potential difference between B and
of the two cells 𝑬𝑬𝟏𝟏 /𝑬𝑬𝟐𝟐 is: D will be Zero when the unknown
(a) 1:2 (b) 2:1 resistance X is
(c) 1:3 (d) 3:1 (a) 4Ω (b) 2Ω

23. (c) 3Ω (d) 8Ω

24. In the figure below the equivalent

resistance between A and B is :

(a) 4/5 .
(b) 9/5
In the above arrangement of
(c) 6/5
resistances shown in figure the
(d) 11/5

***

A-II

FILL IN THE BLANKS

1. Wheatstone bridge cannot be used voltage of the cell in the closed

for measurement of very _________ circuit is _______.
resistances.
3. Current in a conductor is
2. A cell of emf 1.5V and internal proportional to the ___________ at
resistance of 1ohm is connected to a the ends of the conductor.
resistance of 4ohm. The terminal

//24//
4. The value of internal resistance of
an ideal cell is______________.
5. Kirchhoff’s two laws for electrical
circuits are manifestations of law of
conservation of _____________.
6. Three 𝟒𝟒𝛀𝛀 resistors are connected in
the form of an equilateral triangle.
Total resistance between any two
corners is _______________.
7. The terminal potential difference of
a cell is greater than its emf when it
is ________________.
8. One of the best instruments for
accurate measurement of emf of cell
is _______________.
9. A resistance wire of R ohm is cut
into ten equal lengths. These ten
pieces are connected in parallel.
The resistance of these parallel
combination is ______________.
10. Five dry cells each of emf 1.5V are
connected in parallel. The emf of
the combination is _____________.
***
//25//
11. Post Office Box works on the
principle of ___________.
12. An electric bulb rated 500W and
100V in used in a circuit having a
200V supply. The resistance R That
must be put in series with the bulb
so that the bulb delivers 500w is
_____________.
13. Twelve identical wires each of
resistance R are connected to form
a cube. The equivalent resistance of
cube when current enters at one
corner and leaves at the opposite
corner is _____________.
14. Twelve wires each having resistance
R are joined to form a cube. The
equivalent resistance between the
corners of a face diagonal is ______.
15. Twelve wires each having resistance
R are joined to form a cube. The
equivalent resistance between the
corners of the same edge of the cube
is __________.
 A-III

ANSWER IN ONE WORD.

1. How does the drift speed of electron
change with rise in temperature ?
2. What is the efficiency of cell
delivering maximum power to a
load?
6. In which grouping of resistors the
same current flows through all the
conductors.
7. What is the cgs electromagnetic unit
of current

3. Write the dimensional formula of 8. Name a material whose

𝑪𝑪𝟐𝟐 𝑽𝑽𝟐𝟐 𝑹𝑹.
4. How does the resistivity of a
metallic conductor change with rise
in temperature.
5. In which grouping of resistors
different current may flow through
different conductors.
temperature coefficient of
resistance is zero.
9. What is the resistance of a unit
volume and unit length of a wire
equal to .
10. Which quantity represents the ratio
of Drift speed of electron and
applied electric field intensity.

***

//26//
 SECTION -B
EACH QUESTION CARRIES 2 MARKS
1.
Mains circuit contains six similar
bulbs connected in series. The bulb
A has a broken filament. Ideal
voltmeters are connected as shown.
What are the voltmeter readings ?
Justify
2. The value of resistances P, Q, R and
S of a wheat stone bridge are
16,24,20 and 30 ohms respectively.
Calculate the current passing
through the battery of negligible
internal resistance.
3. A constant voltage dc source is
connected as shown in the circuit
//27//
across a resistance of 500K𝛀𝛀 and
200K𝛀𝛀 what is the reading of the
voltmeter of resistance (200K𝛀𝛀)
when connected across the second
resistor as shown ?
4. If the balance point is obtained at
the 35th cm in a meter bridge,
calculate the ratio of resistance in
the left gap and right gap.
5. A circuit whose resistance is R is
connected to n similar cells. If the
current in the circuit is same,
whether the cells are connected in
series or in parallel, then find the
internal resistance r of each cell.
6. Two cells of emfs 𝑬𝑬𝟏𝟏 and 𝑬𝑬𝟐𝟐 and
negligible internal resistances are
connected with two variable
resisters as shown in the circuit.
 When the galvanometer shows no 9. A potentiometer circuit has been
deflection the value of the set up for finding internal
resistances are𝑹𝑹𝟏𝟏 and 𝑹𝑹𝟐𝟐 . Find out resistance of a given cell. Battery
the value of 𝑬𝑬𝟏𝟏 /𝑬𝑬𝟐𝟐 ? supplied is of e.m.f 2.0 V and
negligible internal resistance.
Potentiometer wire is 4 m long.
When the resistance R connected
across the given cell has values of
(i) infinity (ii) 9.5𝛀𝛀 , the balancing
lengths in the potentiometer wire
are found to be 3m and 2.85m

7. Four resistances are connected as respectively. Find the value of

shown in the circuit. Between
which two points does the
maximum resistance of
combination occur ?
internal resistance of the cell.
the 10. A potentiometer wire has length
4m and resistance 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝛀𝛀. What is the
valve of resistance that must be
connected in series with the wire
and an accumulator of e.m.f. 2V so
as to get a potential gradient 1mv
per cm.

8. Determine I in the circuit.

11. A potentiometer wire is 1000cm

long and a constant potential
difference is maintained across it.
Two cells are connected in series to
support one another and then in

//28//
 opposite direction. Balance points
are obtained at 500cm and 200cm
from the positive end of the wire in
two cases. Find the ratio of e.m.f s
of cells.
14. If the voltage across a bulb rated
12. A potentiometer wire is 100cm long
220V-100w drops by 3% of its
and constant potential difference is
rated value, then calculate the
maintained across it. Two cells are
percentage of the rated value by
connected in series to support one
which the power would decrease.
another and then in opposite
direction. Balance points are 15. Resistance of 100 cm long

obtained at 50cm and 10cm from potentiomenter wire is 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝛀𝛀.It is

the positive and of the wire in two connected to a bettery of 2 volt and

cases. Find out the ratio of e.m.fs of resistance R is in series. A source

cells. of 10mV gives null point at 40cm

length, then find out external
13. For the circuit shown below,
resistance R.
calculate the equivalent resistance
between A and B.

***

LONG QUESTIONS

1. Define drift speed of electron in a conductor change if temperature

conductor and establish it relation increases ?
with electric current.
3. Differentiate between emf and
2. What is an ohmic resistor. Compare potential difference. What is
the V-I characteristics of ohmic and internal resistance of a cell ?
non-ohmic restors. How can you
4. N cells each of emf E and internal
find conductance from these
resistance ‘r’ are connected in
graphs? How will the V-I graph of

//29//
 series. Find the effective emf and 7. Apply Kirchhoff’s laws to find
internal resistance. balance point condition in
Wheatstone bridge.
5. n cells each of emf E and internal
resistance ‘r’ are connected in 8. What is the principle of
parallel. Find the effective emf and Potentiometer? How is it used to
internal resistance compare emf’s of two cells.

6. State Kirchhoff’s laws and briefly 9. How is a potentiometer used to find

explain taking an example of a internal resistance of a cell. What is
circuit the advantage of using
potentiometer in experiments.

***

//30//
 ANSWERS
SECATION-1
A-I
MCQ

1. c 13. c
2. d 14. c
3. d 15. b
4. b 16. b
5. c 17. a
6. d 18. c
7. b 19. a
8. b 20. c
9. c 21. a
10. d 22. d
11. d 23. b
12. c 24. c

***

A-II

1. Law 12. 200hm

2. 1.2V Hint resistance of bulb = 1002 /500
3. Potential difference when connected to 200𝑉𝑉 = 20Ω an
4. Zero equal resistance must be put in series
5. Both charge and energy so that p.d. across it is 100V and bulb
6. 8/3 ohm delivers rated power
7. Being charged 𝟓𝟓
13. 𝑹𝑹
𝟔𝟔
8. Potentiometer 𝟑𝟑
14. R
9. R/100 ohm or 01R 𝟒𝟒
𝟕𝟕
10. 1.5V 15. R
𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏

11. Wheatstone bridge

//31//
 A-III
ANSWER IN ONE WORD

1. Decreases 6. Series
2. 50% 7. Abampere
3. 𝑀𝑀𝐿𝐿2 𝑇𝑇 −1 8. Manganin / constantan
4. Increases 9. Resistivity
5. Parallel 10. Mobility

***
SECTION –B
2 MARKS EACH.

1. A reading 220V B reading 0V Since 50 × 40

∴ 𝑅𝑅𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 = = 22.22Ω
no current flows through the circuit all 90

the voltage, drops across the bulb that 𝑉𝑉 10

∴ 𝑖𝑖 = = = 0.45𝐴𝐴
has a broken filaments i.e. reading of 𝑅𝑅𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 22.22
voltmeter 𝐴𝐴 = 220𝑉𝑉 and the reading
3. 300V
of voltmeter 𝐵𝐵 = 0𝑉𝑉
Effective resistance across
2. 0.45A 200×200
Voltmeter = = 100𝐾𝐾Ω
400
When a wheat stone bridge is balanced
Total resistances across do supply is
: − there is no current passing through
the galvanometer . So P and Q in = (500 + 100) = 600𝐾𝐾Ω
series and R and S in series.
= 600 × 103 Ω
(𝑃𝑃 + 𝑄𝑄)
|| 𝑅𝑅 + 𝑆𝑆
∴ 𝑅𝑅𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 = || (20 + 30) Current drawn from the supply is
16 + 24 || 40Ω
1800 3
= 𝐴𝐴
600 × 1000 1000

//32//
 Potential difference across voltmeter is 𝑅𝑅1 +𝑅𝑅2
6.
𝑅𝑅1

3 Potential difference across 𝑅𝑅1 = 𝑉𝑉1

𝑖𝑖 𝑅𝑅 = × 100 × 1000 = 300𝑉𝑉
1000
𝐸𝐸1
𝑉𝑉1 = � � . 𝑅𝑅1
4. 7:13 𝑅𝑅1 + 𝑅𝑅2
When bridge is balanced
We have 𝑉𝑉1 = 𝐸𝐸2
𝑝𝑝 35 35 7
= = = 𝐸𝐸1
𝑄𝑄 100 − 35 65 13 𝐸𝐸2 = � � . 𝑅𝑅1
𝑅𝑅1 + 𝑅𝑅2
∴ 7: 13
𝐸𝐸2 𝑅𝑅1
=
5. r = R 𝐸𝐸1 𝑅𝑅1 + 𝑅𝑅2

(i) In series combination : - 𝐸𝐸1 𝑅𝑅1 +𝑅𝑅2

Or =
𝐸𝐸2 𝑅𝑅1
Net e.m.f in series – nE
10×2 20 5
7. 𝑅𝑅𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 = = = Ω
10+2 12 3
Net int. resistance = nr 𝐴𝐴 𝐵𝐵

𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛 8 × 4 32 8
∴ 𝐼𝐼𝑠𝑠 = 𝑅𝑅𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 = = = Ω
𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛 + 𝑅𝑅 𝐵𝐵 𝐶𝐶 8 + 4 12 3

(ii) in parallel combination 8 × 4 32 8

𝑅𝑅𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 = = = Ω
𝐶𝐶 𝐷𝐷 8 + 4 12 3
Net e.m.f = E, net int. resistance =
10 × 2 20 5
r/n 𝑅𝑅𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 = = = Ω
𝐴𝐴 𝐷𝐷 10 + 2 12 3
𝐸𝐸
∴ 𝑖𝑖𝑝𝑝 = 𝑟𝑟 given 𝑖𝑖𝑠𝑠 = 𝑖𝑖𝑝𝑝
+𝑅𝑅 Max R across C.D, B.C
𝑛𝑛

𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛 𝐸𝐸 8. 2A
= 𝑟𝑟
𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛 +𝑅𝑅 +𝑅𝑅
𝑛𝑛
Take points A B C D .
Or 𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛 + 𝑅𝑅 = 𝑟𝑟 + 𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛

Or 𝑅𝑅 (1 − 𝑛𝑛) = 𝑟𝑟(1 − 𝑛𝑛)

𝑅𝑅 = 𝑟𝑟

𝑖𝑖𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 = 0

//33//
 1 𝑝𝑝 𝑅𝑅 2 10. 64Ω
�∴ = = = �bridge is balanced
2 𝑞𝑞 𝑆𝑆 4

Remove 5Ω

∴ (1 Ω + 2Ω)|| (2Ω + 4Ω) ϕ = 1mv / cm

pot. gradient

= 10−3 𝑉𝑉/10−2 𝑚𝑚

1 1 1 3 1 = 10−1 v/m
= + = =
𝑅𝑅𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 3 6 6 2
Find R to make 𝜙𝜙 = 10−1 v/m
𝑅𝑅𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 = 2Ω
𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 .𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝑉𝑉 𝐼𝐼×16 Ω
Sol :- 𝜙𝜙 = =
𝑙𝑙 4m
𝑉𝑉 4𝑉𝑉
∴ 𝑖𝑖 = = = (2 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴)
𝑅𝑅𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 2Ω = 4𝐼𝐼

9. 0.50Ω 1
= v/m
10

1 𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇 𝑒𝑒.𝑚𝑚 .𝑓𝑓.

Or 𝐼𝐼 = =
40 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟

2 1
= =
16 + 𝑅𝑅 40
To Find r
80 = 16 + 𝑅𝑅
𝑟𝑟 =?
𝑅𝑅 = 64Ω
𝑙𝑙1
𝑟𝑟 = 𝑅𝑅 � − 1�
𝑙𝑙2 11. 7:3

3
𝑟𝑟 = 9.5 � − 1�
2.85

0.15
= 9.5 × = 0.50Ω
2.85
𝐸𝐸1 + 𝐸𝐸2 = ϕ × 500

//34//
 E1 − E2 = ϕ × 200 6 3
𝑥𝑥 = =
4 2
(same polarity balancing)
13. 5Ω
𝐸𝐸1 + 𝐸𝐸2 5
=
𝐸𝐸1 − 𝐸𝐸2 2

𝐸𝐸1
= 𝑥𝑥 =?
𝐸𝐸2

𝐸𝐸1 𝑅𝑅∥ = (3Ω + 7Ω = 10Ω) ∥ 10Ω

+ 1 𝑥𝑥 + 1 5
𝐸𝐸2
= =
𝐸𝐸1 𝑥𝑥 − 1 2 10 × 10
−1
𝐸𝐸2 𝑅𝑅∥ = � � ∥ 10Ω
20
2𝑥𝑥 + 2 = 5𝑥𝑥 − 5
10Ω ∥ 10Ω
7
𝑥𝑥 =
3

12. 3:2

1 1 1 10
+ = ⇒ 𝑅𝑅𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 = = 5Ω
10 10 𝑅𝑅𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 2

14. 6%
𝑃𝑃 = 𝑉𝑉 2 \𝑅𝑅
𝐸𝐸1 + 𝐸𝐸2 = 𝜙𝜙 × 50
Δ𝑝𝑝 Δ𝑉𝑉 Δ𝑅𝑅
=2 + →0
𝐸𝐸1 − 𝐸𝐸2 = 𝜙𝜙 × 10 𝑝𝑝 𝑉𝑉 𝑅𝑅

𝐸𝐸1 + 𝐸𝐸2 50 Δ𝑉𝑉

= =5 =2
𝐸𝐸1 − 𝐸𝐸2 10 𝑉𝑉

𝐸𝐸1 Δ𝑝𝑝 Δ𝑉𝑉

+1 𝑥𝑥 + 1 ∴ × 100 % = 2 × 100%
𝐸𝐸2 𝑝𝑝 𝑉𝑉
=5=
𝐸𝐸1 𝑥𝑥 − 1
−1
𝐸𝐸2 = 2 × 3% = 6%

5𝑥𝑥 − 5 = 𝑥𝑥 + 1

4𝑥𝑥 = 6

//35//
15. 790Ω 𝐸𝐸 𝑟𝑟
10𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 = × 𝑙𝑙
(𝑅𝑅 + 𝑟𝑟)𝐿𝐿

𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸
𝑅𝑅 + 𝑟𝑟 =
𝐿𝐿 × 10 × 10−3

2 × 10Ω × 40 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐
𝜖𝜖 = 2𝑉𝑉 =
100𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 × 10−2
𝜀𝜀
𝐼𝐼 = 𝑅𝑅 + 𝑟𝑟 = 800
𝑅𝑅 + 𝑟𝑟

𝑅𝑅 = 800 − 10 = 790Ω

***

//36//
 CHAPTER FOUR
(MAGNETIC EFFECT OF CURRENT)
A-I
MCQ
Choose the correct answer from the multiple choices.
1. The dimension of magnetic 5. The magnitude of the magnetic field
induction is induction at a point due to a current
(a) [𝑀𝑀𝐿𝐿0 𝑇𝑇 −2 𝐴𝐴−1 ] element is given by
(b)[𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑇𝑇 −2 𝐴𝐴] (a) Coulomb’s law
(c) [𝑀𝑀𝐿𝐿2 𝑇𝑇 −1 𝐴𝐴−1 ] (b) Biot Savart’s law
(d) [𝑀𝑀2 𝐿𝐿 𝑇𝑇 −1 𝐴𝐴] (c) Gauss’s law
(d) Lenz’s law
2. Which of the following motion
cannot be deflected by the magnetic 6. Magnetic induction of the centre of
field ? a circular coils carrying current is
𝜇𝜇 0 𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁
(a) Electron (b)Proton (a)
2𝜋𝜋
(c) Positron (d) Neutron 𝜇𝜇 0 𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁
(b)
2𝑟𝑟
𝑾𝑾𝑾𝑾𝑾𝑾𝑾𝑾𝑾𝑾 𝜇𝜇 0 𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁
3. � � is the unit of (c)
𝒂𝒂𝒂𝒂𝒂𝒂𝒂𝒂𝒂𝒂𝒂𝒂 .𝒎𝒎𝒎𝒎𝒎𝒎𝒎𝒎𝒎𝒎 4𝜋𝜋
𝜇𝜇 0 𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁
(a) Magnetic flux (d)
4𝑟𝑟
(b) Magnetic moment 7. Which of the following represent
(c)Magnetic induction mathematical form of Ampere’s
(d) Magnetic permeability circuital law ?
𝐼𝐼
4. If ‘r’ is the radius of a circular coil, (a) ∮ 𝐵𝐵 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 =
𝜇𝜇 0
��⃗) at the
then magnetic induction (𝑩𝑩 𝜇𝜇 0
(b)∮ 𝐵𝐵 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 =
𝐼𝐼
centre of the coil.
(c)∮ 𝐵𝐵. 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 = 𝜇𝜇0 𝐼𝐼
�⃗ ∝ 1
(a) 𝐵𝐵 �⃗ ∝
(b)𝐵𝐵
1
𝑟𝑟 𝑟𝑟 2
(d) ∮ 𝐵𝐵. 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 = 𝜇𝜇0 𝐼𝐼 2
�⃗ ∝ 𝑟𝑟
(c) 𝐵𝐵 �⃗ ∝ 𝑟𝑟 2
(d) 𝐵𝐵

//37//
8. Magnetic field intensity at any point 12. Force acting on a current carrying
near a long straight conductor is conductor in the presence of
𝜇𝜇 0 𝐼𝐼 2𝜋𝜋
(a) 2 (b) magnetic field is
𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋 𝜇𝜇 0 𝑟𝑟
𝜇𝜇 0 𝐼𝐼 𝜇𝜇 0 𝐼𝐼 �⃗�
(a) 𝐼𝐼�𝑖𝑖⃗ × 𝐵𝐵 �⃗ × 𝑙𝑙⃗�
(b) 𝐼𝐼 �𝐵𝐵
(c) (d)
2𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋 4𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋
(c) 𝐼𝐼 �𝑙𝑙⃗. 𝐵𝐵
�⃗� (d) 𝑙𝑙⃗�𝐼𝐼. 𝐵𝐵
�⃗�
9. Two thin long parallel wires are
13. An electron of mass ‘m’ charge ‘e’
separated by a distance (r) and
enters into a uniform magnetic field
carrying current I ampere each.
region of induction B and is found
The magnitude of the force per unit
to describe a circle of radius ‘r’.
length exerted by one wire due to
The magnetic field induction B is
the other is :
𝜇𝜇 0 𝐼𝐼 2 𝜇𝜇 0 𝐼𝐼
given by
(a) (b) 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚
𝑟𝑟 2 2𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋
(a)
𝑟𝑟
𝜇𝜇 0 𝐼𝐼 𝜇𝜇 0 𝐼𝐼 2
(c) (d)
4𝜋𝜋𝑟𝑟 2 2𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚
(b)
𝑒𝑒
10. Force acting on a moving charge in
𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚
a uniform magnetic field is (c)
𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒
�⃗�
(a) 𝑞𝑞 �𝑣𝑣⃗ × 𝐵𝐵
𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒
�⃗ × 𝑣𝑣⃗�
(b) 𝑞𝑞 �𝐵𝐵 (d)
𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚

�⃗
(c) 𝑞𝑞 𝐵𝐵 14. Time period of revolution of a

(d) 𝑞𝑞𝑣𝑣⃗ charged particle is

2𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋 𝑞𝑞𝑞𝑞
(a) (b)
𝑞𝑞𝑞𝑞 2𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋
11. Radius of the path of an electron
𝐵𝐵 𝑞𝑞
projected in to a magnetic fields (c) (d)
2𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋 2𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋

perpendicular to the direction of

15. Frequency of revolution of charged
the field is
𝑞𝑞𝑞𝑞 𝑞𝑞𝑞𝑞
particle is
(a) (b) 𝑞𝑞𝑞𝑞 𝑞𝑞𝑞𝑞𝑞𝑞
𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚
(a) (b)
𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 2𝜋𝜋 2𝜋𝜋
(c) (d)
𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣 𝑞𝑞𝑞𝑞
𝑞𝑞𝑞𝑞 𝑞𝑞𝑞𝑞
(c) (d)
2𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋 2𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋

//38//
16. In the moving coil galvanometer, 20. The flux density in air at a point
the deflection 𝜽𝜽 of the coil is related 0.06m from a long straight wire
to the electric current by the carrying a current of 9 A is
relation. (a) 9 × 10−5 𝑇𝑇
(a)𝑖𝑖 ∝ 𝜃𝜃 (b)𝑖𝑖 ∝ 𝜃𝜃 2 (b) 3 × 10−5 𝑇𝑇
1
(c)𝑖𝑖 ∝ (d) 𝑖𝑖 ∝ √𝜃𝜃 (c) 3 × 105 𝑇𝑇
𝜃𝜃
(d) 3 × 10−4 𝑇𝑇
17. A circular coil A has radius ‘a’ and
the current flowing through it is ‘I’. 21. A circular coil of wire consisting of
𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐
Another circular coil has radius 100 turns, each of radius cm
𝟕𝟕
‘2a’ and if ‘2I’ is the current carries a current of 0.4A . The
flowing through it, then the magnitude of the magnetic field at
magnetic fields at the centre of the the centre of the coil is .
circular coils are in the ratio of : (a) 4 × 10−4 𝑇𝑇
(a) 2:1 (b) 1:1 (b) 4 × 10−3 𝑇𝑇
(c)8 × 10−4 𝑇𝑇
(c) 4:1 (d) 1:2
(d)8 × 10−3 𝑇𝑇
18. The magnetic field at a distance ‘r’
from a long straight wire carrying 22. A long straight wire carries a

current I is 0.4 tesla. The magnetic current of 25 A . The magnitude of

field at a distance 4r is the field B at a point 20 cm from

(a) 0.8 tesla (b) 0.4 tesla the wire is

(c) 0.2 tesla (d) 0.1 tesla (a) 2.5 × 103 𝑇𝑇

(b)2.5 × 10−4 𝑇𝑇
19. The strength of the magnetic field
(c)2.5 × 10−3 𝑇𝑇
at a point distance ‘r’ near a long
(d)2.5 × 10−5 𝑇𝑇
straight current carrying wire is B .
𝒓𝒓 23. The magnitude of magnetic force
The field at a distance will be.
𝟐𝟐
𝐵𝐵
per unit length on a wire carrying
(a) 4𝐵𝐵 (b)
4 current of 4A and making an angle
𝐵𝐵
(c)2𝐵𝐵 (d)
2

//39//
 of 𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑° with the direction of a radius of curvature while moving
uniform magnetic field of 0.15T is inside the magnetic field is
(a) 0.6 𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁 −1 (a) 1:2 (b) 1: √2
(b) 0.3 𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁−1 (c) 1:1 (d) 1:4
(c)0.5 𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁−1
27. Tow particles x and y having equal
(d) 0.8 𝑁𝑁𝑚𝑚−1
charges, after being accelerated
24. A 2 cm wire carrying a current of through the same P.D. enter a
5A is placed inside a solenoid region of uniform magnetic field
perpendicular to its axis. The and describe circular paths of
magnetic field inside the solenoid is radius 𝑹𝑹𝟏𝟏 and 𝑹𝑹𝟐𝟐 respectively. The
given to be 0.2T. The magnitude of ratio of their masses are
force on the wire is 𝑅𝑅1 𝑹𝑹 𝟐𝟐
(a) (b) � 𝟏𝟏�
𝑹𝑹𝟐𝟐 𝑹𝑹𝟐𝟐
(a) 0.002 𝑇𝑇
𝑹𝑹𝟐𝟐 𝑹𝑹 𝟐𝟐
(b)0.02𝑇𝑇 (c) (d) � 𝟐𝟐�
𝑹𝑹𝟏𝟏 𝑹𝑹𝟏𝟏

(c)0.2𝑇𝑇
28. A proton is moving under the
(d)0.4𝑇𝑇
influence of a perpendicular
25. A proton and an 𝜶𝜶 particle, after magnetic field B and possesses
being accelerated through same energy (E). What will be energy of
P.D. enter uniform magnetic field. the proton (𝑬𝑬′ ) if the magnetic field
The direction of magnetic field is increased to 𝟒𝟒𝟒𝟒 while it is
perpendicular to the velocities. The compelled to move in the circular
ratio of radio of curvature of their path of same radius ?
trajectories are 𝑬𝑬′ 𝑬𝑬′
(a) = 𝟐𝟐 (b) = 𝟒𝟒
𝑬𝑬 𝑬𝑬
(a) 1:2 (b) 2:1
𝑬𝑬′ 𝑬𝑬′
(c) = 𝟖𝟖 (d) = 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏
(c) 1: √2 (d) √2 ∶ 1 𝑬𝑬 𝑬𝑬

29. The resistance of a galvanometer is

26. An electron and a proton possessing
49.9 ohm and the maximum current
equal moment are injected to a
which can be passed through it is
region at right angles to a uniform
0.001 A. What resistance must be
magnetic field. The ratio of their

//40//
 connected to it in the order to velocity of 𝟐𝟐 × 𝟏𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟔𝟔 m/s enters a
convert it in to an ammeter of range magnetic field of intensity
0.5 𝑨𝑨̇ ? 𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐 𝑾𝑾𝑾𝑾 𝒎𝒎−𝟐𝟐 at right angle to it .
(a) 0.001 ohm The magnitude of the force acting
(b) .01 ohm on proton is
(c) 0.1ohmn (a) 6.4 × 10−12 𝑁𝑁
(d) 1 ohm (b) 6.4 × 10−11 𝑁𝑁
30. The resistance of a galvanometer is (c) 6.4 × 10−10 𝑁𝑁
99 ohm and the maximum current (d) 3.2 × 10−11 𝑁𝑁
which can be passed through it is
32. A closely flat circular coil of 25
0.001 A. What resistance must be
turns of wire has diameter 0.2m
connected to it in the order to
𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑
and carries a current of 𝑨𝑨. The
convert it in to a voltmeter of range 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏

5V ? flux density at the centre of the coil

(a) 4951Ω (b) 4950Ω is
(c) 4901 Ω (d) 4900 ohm. (a) 5 × 10−5 𝑇𝑇
(b) 5 × 10−4 𝑇𝑇
31. A proton, which carries a charge of
(c) 2.5 × 10−5 𝑇𝑇
−𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏
𝟏𝟏. 𝟔𝟔 × 𝟏𝟏𝟎𝟎 C, moving with a
(d) 2.5 × 10−4 𝑇𝑇

***
A-II
FILL IN THE BLANKS

1. Force acting on a charge at rest in a 3. SI Unit of magnetic field intensity is

uniform magnetic field is _____. ___.

2. Two straight conductors carrying 4. 1 tesla is equal to _____ gauss.

current along same direction ____
each other.

//41//
5. Maxwell is the product of gauss and 14. Two free parallel wires carrying
___. current in opposite direction
________ each other.
6. Magnetic field intensity due to a
solenoid is _____ 15. An electron move with a uniform
velocity ‘v’ and enters a region of
7. Galvanometer can be converted into
uniform magnetic field B. if v and B
an ammeter by connecting a _____
are parallel to each other then the
resistance in parallel.
electron will move in ____
8. A voltmeter is a _________
16. An electron moves with a uniform
resistance instrument.
�⃗ and enters a region
velocity 𝒗𝒗 of
9. Magnetic flux is the dot product of uniform magnetic field B. if v and B
__________ and area vector. are orthogonal to each other then
the electron will move in ____.
10. Lorentz force is the combined effect
of _______ and _______ field on a 17. The resistance of an ideal ammeter
moving charged particle. is ___.

11. 1 Weber is equal to ______ Maxwell. 18. The resistance of an ideal voltmeter
is ___
12. An ammeter is a _____ resistance
instrument. 19. If a strong magnetic field is applied
to a stationary electron, then
13. Amperes circuital law relates
electron ___
_______ to _________.
20. SI Unit of magnetic flux is ____.

***

//42//
 A-III
ANSWER THE QUESTIONS IN ONE WORD.
1. Write the CGS and SI unit of the plane of a coil in the moving coil
magnetic flux. galvanometer ?

2. Write the relation between Maxwell 6. An ∝-particle is moving parallel to a

and gauss. magnetic field . How much force acts
on the particle ?
3. Write the CGS and SI unit of
magnetic field intensity 7. What is the nature of force between
two parallel conductor carrying
4. Write the relation between weber
currents in the same directions ?
and Maxwell

5. What is the angle between the

magnetic induction and normal to

***
A-IV
ANSWER THE QUESTIONS IN ONE SENTENCES.

1. Write Biot-Savart’s law in vector 5. How do you define current

form. sensitivity of a galvanometer ?

2. Write an expression for the 6. What is meant by voltage sensitivity

strength of magnetic field, at the of a galvanometer ?
center of a circular coil carrying
7. How would you convert a
current.
galvanometer in to an ammeter ?
3. What is Lorentz force ?
8. How would you convert a
4. State Flaming’s left rand rule/ galvanometer in to a voltmeter ?

//43//
9. How is an ammeter connected in an 14. Find an expression for the force
electric circuit ? acting an a charge ‘q’ moving with
�⃗ at an angle 𝜽𝜽 with
velocity 𝒗𝒗
10. How is an voltmeter connected in
��⃗.
magnetic induction 𝑩𝑩
an electric circuit ?
15. State the expression for magnetic
11. Define magnetic flux .
induction ��⃗
𝑩𝑩 at a distance s from a
12. Why concave shaped magnet is
straight conductor carrying current
used in moving coil galvanometer ?
I.
13. What is the force when a current
16. Write the expression for the torque
carrying conductor is placed in a
acting on a rectangular current
magnetic field?
carrying coil in an uniform
magnetic field.

***
A-E
SECTION B
2 MARKS EACH
1. Distinguish between ammeter and 7. What is current sensitivity of a
voltmeter galvanometer and obtain an
expression for the same ?
2. Why the magnet in a galvanometer
has concave pole-pieces ? 8. What is voltage sensitivity of a
moving coil galvanometer and
3. Find the relation between weber and
obtain an expression for the same ?
Maxwell.
9. Explain how would you convert a
4. State Fleming’s left hand rule.
galvanometer into an ammeter.
5. State Amperes circuital law.
10. What is Lorentz force ?
6. State Biot-Savart’s law

//44//
11. How is a galvanometer converted in 12. Give two merits and demerits of a
to an voltmeter ? moving coil galvanometer.

***
A-F
SECTION –C
LONG TYPE
1. State and explain Biot- savarts law. 3. Obtain an expression for the torque
Using this obtain an expression for acting on a rectangular coil carrying
the magnetic field intensity at the current in a uniform magnetic field.
centre of a circular coil carrying
4. Describe the principle construction
current.
and working of a moving charge
2. State Biot-savart’s law and derive an galvanometer.
expression for magnetic induction at
5. State amperes circuital law and
axial point due to a circular coil
explain it. Find magnetic field
carrying current.
intensity due to a long straight
conductor.

***

//45//
 ANSWERS
A-I
MCQ
1. a 17. b
2. d 18. d
3. d 19. c
4. a 20. b
5. b 21. c
6. b 22. d
7. c 23. b
8. c 24. b
9. d 25. c
10. a 26. c
11. d 27. b
12. a 28. d
13. c 29. c
14. a 30. c
15. c 31. b
16. a 32. b

***
A-II
FILL IN THE BLANKS
1. Zero 5. 𝐶𝐶𝑚𝑚2

2. Attract 6. 𝐵𝐵 = 𝜇𝜇0 𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛

3. Tesla 7. Low

4. 104 8. High

//46//
9. Magnetic induction 15. In same direction

10. Electric and magnetic 16. Circular path

11. 108 17. Zero

12. Low 18. \∞

13. Magnetic field to electric current 19. Remains stationary

14. Repel 20. Weber

***
A-III
ONE WORD ANSWER

1. Maxwell, weber 4. 1 weber = 108 maxwell

2. 1 Maxwell = 1 gauss 𝑐𝑐𝑚𝑚2 5. 𝜃𝜃 = 0
3. Gauss, tesla 6. 𝐹𝐹⃗ = 𝑞𝑞 �𝑣𝑣⃗ × 𝐵𝐵
�⃗� = 0 ∴ 𝜃𝜃 = 0

***
A-IV
ANSWER FOR ONE SENTENCE QUESTION.
𝐼𝐼 �𝑑𝑑𝑙𝑙⃗×𝑟𝑟⃗�
�⃗ = 𝜇𝜇 0
1. 𝑑𝑑𝐵𝐵
7. A small resistance in parallel
4𝜋𝜋 𝑟𝑟 3

𝜇𝜇 0 𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁
8. A high resistance in series
2. 𝐵𝐵 =
2𝑟𝑟
9. Ammeter is connected in series in an
3. 𝐹𝐹⃗ = 𝑞𝑞 𝐸𝐸�⃗ + 𝑞𝑞(𝑣𝑣⃗ × 𝐵𝐵
�⃗) electric circuit

4. Statement 10. Voltmeter is connected in parallel in

𝐶𝐶 an electric circuit
5. Current sensitivity = 𝐾𝐾 =
𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛
�⃗. 𝐴𝐴⃗
11. 𝜙𝜙 = 𝐵𝐵
6. Statement

//47//
 𝜇𝜇 0 𝐼𝐼
12. To produce redial field. 15. 𝐵𝐵 =
2𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋

13. 𝐹𝐹⃗ = 𝐼𝐼 (𝑙𝑙⃗ × 𝐵𝐵

�⃗)
16. 𝜁𝜁 = NIBA cos 𝜃𝜃

14. 𝐹𝐹⃗ = 𝑞𝑞 �𝑣𝑣⃗ × 𝐵𝐵

�⃗�

***
A-V

1. Ammeter Voltmeter 𝜃𝜃 𝐶𝐶
7. Deflection for unit current =
𝐼𝐼 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵
(i) Current (i) Measures
measuring potential 8. Deflection for unit potential
(ii) Its diff. 𝜃𝜃 𝐶𝐶
difference =
resistance (ii) Resistance 𝑉𝑉 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵
is low high
(iii) Made by (iii) Made by 9. Connecting low resistance in parallel
connecting connecting to a galvanometer as a shunt S.
the low high
resistance resistance in 𝐼𝐼𝐼𝐼
𝑆𝑆 = × 𝐺𝐺
in shunt to series to 𝐼𝐼 −𝐼𝐼𝐼𝐼
galvanome galvanomete
ter r. 10. 𝐹𝐹⃗𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 = 𝐹𝐹⃗𝑒𝑒 + 𝐹𝐹⃗𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 = 𝑞𝑞(𝐸𝐸�⃗ + 𝑣𝑣⃗ × 𝐵𝐵
�⃗)
(iv) Used in (iv) Connected in
series to a parallel to 11. By connecting high resistance R in
cct devices.
𝑉𝑉
series with galvanometer. 𝑅𝑅 = − 𝐺𝐺
2. To get radial magnetic field. 𝐼𝐼𝐼𝐼

1 𝐽𝐽𝐽𝐽𝐽𝐽𝐽𝐽𝐽𝐽 12. Merits :-

3. 1 weber =
1𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴
(i) Very sensitive so low currents
107 𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 can be detected .
= = 108 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀
1
� � 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 (ii) High accuracy .
10
Demerits: -
4. Statement
(i) Only dc
5. Statement
(ii) Not portable
6. Statement
***

//48//
 A- VI

LONG TYPE

1. Statement, Brief explanation with which produces deflection

�⃗
diagram and direction of 𝐵𝐵 proportional to the current
𝜇𝜇0 𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛 construction, working.
𝐵𝐵𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 =
2𝑟𝑟 5. Statement
𝜇𝜇 0 𝐼𝐼𝑅𝑅 2
2. As above 𝐵𝐵𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 = 3 Explanation
2(𝑥𝑥 2 +𝑅𝑅 2 )2
𝜇𝜇0 𝐼𝐼
3. |Torque|= 𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛 𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆 𝜃𝜃 𝐵𝐵 =
2𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋
4. Principle : A current loop placed in a
magnetic field experience torque

***

//49//
 CHAPTER FIVE
A-I
MCQ

1. When the distance between two 5. The sure test of magnetism is

magnetic poles is doubled, the force (a) attraction
between the poles (b) repulsion
(a) became double (c) both of these
(b) becomes halved (d) none of these
(c) becomes 4 times
6. A uniform magnetic field is
(d) decreases to 1/4th
represented by a set of lines of force
2. The value of permeability in air is which are
(a) 10−7 𝑁𝑁𝐴𝐴−2 (a) parallel
(b) 4𝜋𝜋 × 10−9 𝑁𝑁𝐴𝐴−2 (b) convergent
(c) 4𝜋𝜋 × 10−7 𝑁𝑁𝐴𝐴−2 (c) both of these
(d) 10−9 𝑁𝑁𝐴𝐴−2 (d) None of these

3. Iron is used as a core in 7. The unit of pole strength is

transformer became (a) henry (b) tesla
(c) ampere- meter (d) weber
(a) it is strong enough
(b) It has high density 8. Dimension of pole strength is
(c) It has high permeability (a) 𝑀𝑀0 𝐿𝐿0 𝑇𝑇 1 𝐴𝐴1
(d) None of these. (b) 𝑀𝑀0 𝐿𝐿1 𝑇𝑇 −1 𝐴𝐴0

4. For a diamagnetic substance (c) 𝑀𝑀0 𝐿𝐿1 𝑇𝑇 0 𝐴𝐴1

(a) 𝑥𝑥 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 + 𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣 (d) 𝑀𝑀1 𝐿𝐿−1 𝑇𝑇 0 𝐴𝐴0

(b) 𝑥𝑥 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 – 𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣 9. The unit of magnetic moment is

(a) Ampere meter
(c) 𝑥𝑥 = 0
(b) henery
(d) 𝑥𝑥 = 1 (c) tesla
(d) ampere meter2

//50//
10. Dimensions of magnetic moment 15. Angle dip is maximum near
are (a) equator
(a) 𝑀𝑀0 𝐿𝐿0 𝑇𝑇 2 𝐴𝐴−1 (b) 45° latitude
(b) 𝑀𝑀0 𝐿𝐿1 𝑇𝑇 0 𝐴𝐴−2 (c) pole
(c) 𝑀𝑀0 𝐿𝐿1 𝑇𝑇 2 𝐴𝐴1 (d) none of above
(d) 𝑀𝑀0 𝐿𝐿2 𝑇𝑇 0 𝐴𝐴1
16. A diamagnetic material in a
magnetic field moves
11. Which of the following represents
(a) perpendicular to the magnetic field
the unit of magnetic field intensity?
(b) from weaker part to the stronger
(a) tesla
part
(b) Weber
(c) from stronger part to the weaker
(c) Henry
part
(d) coulomb
(d) in none of the above directions.
12. The magnetic moment of a magnet
17. A magnet with magnetic moment M
of magnetic length (𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐)and pole
is given. It is bent into a
strength (m) is
semicircular form. Its new
(a) 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚/2 (b) ml/4
magnitude moment will be
(c) 2lm (d) 4lm
(a) 𝑀𝑀/𝜋𝜋 (b) M/2
2𝑀𝑀
13. Above Curie point, a ferromagnetic (c) M (d)
𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝
substance becomes
18. At a certain place an earth
(a) Diamagnetic 𝟏𝟏
𝑩𝑩𝑯𝑯 = 𝑩𝑩𝒗𝒗 . the dip angle is
(b) Paramagnetic √𝟑𝟑

(c) Ferromagnetic (a) 60° (b) 30°

(d) Non-magnetic (c) 45° (d) 90°

14. The unit of permeability is 19. Which of the following relation is

correct in magnetism ?
(a) 𝑁𝑁𝐴𝐴−2 (a) 𝐼𝐼2 = 𝑉𝑉 2 + 𝐻𝐻2
(b) 𝑁𝑁 −2 𝐴𝐴2 (b) 𝑉𝑉 = 𝐼𝐼 2 + 𝐻𝐻2
(c) 𝑁𝑁 2 𝐴𝐴−2 (c) 𝐼𝐼 = 𝑉𝑉 + 𝐻𝐻
−1 −1
(d) 𝑁𝑁 𝐴𝐴 (d) 𝑉𝑉 2 = 𝐼𝐼 + 𝐻𝐻

//51//
20. A bar magnet of magnetic moment (d) Tangents to the magnetic line
(M) is cut into two parts of equal gives direction of magnetic field.
lengths. The magnetic moment and
23. Angle of dip is 90° at
pole strength of either part will be
(a) Equator (b) Poles
𝑀𝑀 𝑚𝑚 𝑚𝑚
(a) , (b) 𝑀𝑀,
2 2 2 (c) at both (d) none of these
𝑀𝑀
(c) , 𝑚𝑚 (d) 𝑀𝑀, 𝑚𝑚
2 24. Two wires of same length are shape

21. If number of turns, area and into a square and a circle. If they

current through a coil are gives by carry same current the ratio of

n, A and I respectively then the magnetic moments will be

magnetic moment is given by (a) 2:𝝅𝝅 (b) 𝝅𝝅: 𝟐𝟐

(a) 𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛 (b) 𝑛𝑛2 𝐼𝐼𝐼𝐼 (c) 𝝅𝝅: 𝟒𝟒 (d) 𝟒𝟒: 𝝅𝝅

(c) 𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝐴𝐴2 (d) 𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛/√𝐴𝐴 25. If a magnetic substance is kept in a

22. Which of the following statement is magnetic field then which of the

not correct about the magnetic following substance is thrown out ?

field? (a) Para magnetic

(b) ferromagnetic
(a) Magnetic line of force do not cut
(c) diamagnetic
each other
(d) anti- ferromagnetic
(b) Inside the magnet, the lines of
26. Dipole moment of a revolving
force 90 from north pole to south
electron is
pole of the magnet. 𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒
(a) (b) evr
2
(c) The magnetic lines form a closed 𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑟𝑟 2
(c) 𝑒𝑒𝑣𝑣 2 𝑟𝑟 (d)
2
loop.

***

//52//
 A-II
FILL IN THE BLANKS

1. The value of angle of dip at pole is 7. Line joining the place of zero dip is
__________ called __________.
2. The value of angle of dip at equator
8. Lines joining the place of equal dip
is ____________
are called ___________.
3. Magnetic pole strength in SI units is
9. Lines joining the place of equal
equal to __________ times the pole
horizontal intensity are called ____.
strength in cgs units.
10. Lines joining the place of zero
4. The pole strength per unit area in a
declination are called ____.
measure of __________.
11. The Earth’s magnetic field always
5. Susceptibility of a _______
has a horizontal component except
substance is negative.
at the _________.
6. The Earth’s magnetic field always
12. A region can be magnetically
has a vertical component except at
screened by surrounding the
_________.
desired region by a
_________material.

***

//53//
 SECTION –B

2 MARKS EACH QUESTION:

1. Define intensity of magnetization. needle at its centre is not deflected.

What conclusion can be drawn
How is it related to magnetic field
regarding the orientation of coil.
intensity H.
4. Define susceptibility. How is it
2. State any two property of magnetic
related to magnetic permeability
lines of induction.
5. Distinguish between paramagnetic
3. On passing a current through a
and ferromagnetic substances
vertical circular coil, a compass

***

//54//
 ANSWERS
Chapter – 5
A-I

MCQ

1. d 14. a
2. c 15. c
3. c 16. a
4. b 17. d
5. b 18. a
6. a 19. a
7. c 20. c
8. c 21. a
9. d 22. b
10. d 23. b
11. a 24. c
12. c 25. c
13. b 26. a

***
A-II

FILL IN THE BLANKS

1. 90° 7. Aclinic
2. Zero 8. Isoclinic
3. 10 9. Isodynatnic
4. Intensity of magnetization 10. Agonic
5. Diamagnetic 11. Magnetic poles of earth.
6. Magnetic equator 12. Ferromagnetic

//55//
 SECTION – B
2 MARKS
𝑀𝑀
1. 𝐼𝐼 = ,
𝑉𝑉

𝐼𝐼 = 𝑋𝑋𝑚𝑚 𝐻𝐻 𝑋𝑋𝑚𝑚 = Succeptibility 5. Ferromagnetic Paqramagnetic

2. Any two properties 1. Strongly 1. Acquire

(i) Closed curves magnetiised in feeble
the direction of magnetic
(ii) Two lines never intersect
field when
(iii) Crowded near high B 2. 𝜇𝜇 is much placed in
greater than 1 magnetic
3. The plane of the coil in perpendicular 3. Susceptibility field.
to magnetic meridian. The magnetic is large and 2. 𝜇𝜇 is slightly
field 𝐵𝐵𝐹𝐹 produced by the coil and the +ve are then I.
4. At curie temp 3. Susceptibili
horizontal component of Earth’s
ferromagnetic ty is small
magnetic field 𝐵𝐵𝐻𝐻 will be alone the substance and +ve
same direction when coil is in vertical become 4. At Curie
paramagnetic temperature
plane. Hence no additional torque will
paramagnet
develop and needle will be ic substance
undeflected. become
diamagnetic
4. 𝜇𝜇 = 1 + 4𝜋𝜋𝑋𝑋𝑚𝑚

***

//56//
 CHAPTER SIX
(ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION)

A-I
MCQ

Choose the tight answer out of the four probable given.

1. For magnetic flux (∅𝒎𝒎 ) which is 4. The magnitude of induced emf in a

correct ? coil depends on
(a) ∅m = �B⃗ × �A⃗ (i) The amount of magnetic flux

(b) ∅m = B �⃗
�⃗/A linked

�⃗. 𝐴𝐴⃗ (ii) The change in magnetic flux

(c) ∅m = 𝐵𝐵
linked.
(d) ∅m = �A⃗ × �B⃗
(iii) The rate of change of magnetic
2. The magnetic flux linked with a flux linked
closed circuit depends on the (iv) The rate of change of electric
number of turns of coil (N) as flux linked.
follows.
5. Lenz’s law obeys the principles of
(a) directly on N
conservation of
(b) inversely on N
(i) Momentum
(c) directly on 𝑁𝑁 2
(ii) Energy
(d) inversely on 𝑁𝑁 2
(iii) Angular momentum
3. The direction of induced current is (iv) Charge
governed by
6. A straight conductor of length (l)
(i) Faraday’s first law of e.m.
�⃗) at right
moves with velocity (𝒗𝒗
induction.
(ii) Faraday’s second law of e.m. angles to a magnetic field of
induction. ��⃗) the magnitude
induction (𝑩𝑩 of
(iii) Lenz’s law
induced emf is
(iv) Laplaces rules
(i) 𝑙𝑙 𝑣𝑣 𝐵𝐵 sin 𝜃𝜃

//57//
 (ii) 𝑙𝑙 𝑣𝑣 𝐵𝐵 11. Electrical energy is converted to
(iii) 𝑙𝑙 𝑣𝑣 𝐵𝐵 cos 𝜃𝜃 mechanical energy in presence of a
𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 magnetic field in a
(iv) cos 𝜃𝜃
𝑣𝑣
(i) motor (ii) inductor
7. Henry is the unit for measurement (iii) generator (iv) galvanometer
of
(i) Self – inductance only 12. Mutual inductance between two
(ii) Mutual –inductance only
closed circuits depends on the
(iii) Both self and mutual
inductance following factors of the coils.
(iv) Induced emf. (i) number of turns in both the
coils only
8. The self-inductance of an inductor
(ii) area of cross- section of the
depends on the number of turns of
coils only
the coil (N) as follows.
(iii) permeability of the cores of the
(i) Directly as N
coils and permeability of the
(ii) Directly as 𝑁𝑁 2
separating medium.
(iii) Inversely as N
(iv) All the above factors.
(iv) Inversely as 𝑁𝑁 2
13. The self inductance of a coil
9. For the self- inductance (L). Which
depends on its length (𝒍𝒍) and area
of the following in correct ?
of cross-section (A) as follows.
𝜇𝜇 2 𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁
(i) 𝐿𝐿 =
𝑙𝑙 (i) directly as 𝑙𝑙 and inversely as 𝐴𝐴
𝜇𝜇 𝑁𝑁 2 𝐴𝐴2
(ii) 𝑙𝑙 = (ii) directly as 𝐴𝐴 and inversely as 𝑙𝑙
𝑙𝑙
𝜇𝜇𝜇𝜇 𝐴𝐴2
(iii) 𝑙𝑙 = (iii) directly as 𝑙𝑙 and directly as 𝐴𝐴
𝑙𝑙
𝜇𝜇 𝑁𝑁 2 𝐴𝐴
(iv) 𝑙𝑙 = (iv) inversely as 𝑙𝑙 and inversely as 𝐴𝐴
𝑙𝑙

10. Mechanical energy is converted to 14. A high resistance is connected in

electrical energy in presence of a series in a motor to reduce the

magnetic field in current at

(i) motor (ii) inductor (i) start (ii) stop

(iii) generator (iv) galvanometer (iii) all instants (iv) desired speed

//58//
15. An alternating current is that for 20. The power factor of R,L,C circuit at
which resonance is
(a) Only the magnitude varies (a) 0
continuously. (b) 1.0
(b) Only the direction reverses (c) greater than one
periodically. (d) greater than zero but less than one.
(c) Both magnitude varies
continuously and direction 21. The phase difference between I and
reverses periodically. e (𝒆𝒆𝒆𝒆𝒆𝒆) in an a.c circuit containing

(d) None of these pure resistance is

(a) zero
16. The ammeter that measure a.c 𝜋𝜋
(b)
actually masers 2

(a) 𝐼𝐼𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 (b) 𝐼𝐼0 (c)

–𝜋𝜋
2
(c) 𝐼𝐼 (d) √2 𝐼𝐼0 𝜋𝜋
(d)
3
17. The power factor of an a.c. circuit
containing pure resistance is 22. The phase difference between I and

(a) 0 (b) 0.5 e in an a.c. circuit containing pure

(c) 1.0 (d) 2.0 inductor or capacitor is

𝜋𝜋
(a) 0 (b)
4
18. The power factor of an a.c. circuit
𝜋𝜋 𝜋𝜋
(c) (d)
containing pure inductor or 2 3

capacitor is 23. In and a.c. circuit, the phase

(a) 0 (b) 0.5 𝝅𝝅
difference between I and e is . The
𝟒𝟒
(c) 1.0 (d) 2.0
circuit contains.
19. The power factor of an a.c. circuit (a) a pure resistance
containing R,L,C in series is (b) a pure inductance
(a) 0 (c) a pure capacitance
(b) 1.0 (d) resistance, inductance and
(c) greater than one capacitance
(d) greater than zero but less than one.

//59//
24. A pure inductor in a.c. circuit 29. Which of the following is more
(a) Stores energy in its electrostatic suitable for making core of a
field. transformer ?
(b) Stores energy in its magnetic
(a) Steel (b) soft iron
field.
(c) does not store energy (c) copper (d) brass
(d) dissipates energy
30. The core of a transformer is
25. A pure capacitor in an a.c. circuit laminated to reduce
(a) Stores energy in its electrostatic (a) copper loss
field.
(b) eddy current loss
(b) Stores energy in its magnetic
field. (c) hysteresis loss
(c) does not store energy (d) leakage loss
(d) dissipates energy
31. The primary and secondary coils of
26. The impedance (𝒁𝒁) and admittance
a transformer have 500 and 2500
(𝒀𝒀) in SI units respectively
(a) Ohm, mho turns respectively . If the primary is
(b) mho, Ohm connected to 220 volt a.c, the
(c) ohm, ohm voltage developed across the
(d) mho, mho
secondary is
27. The gain in voltage is the loss of (a) 220 V
current in a (b) 4.4 V
(a) resistor
(b) inductor (c) 1100 V
(c) capacitor (d) Zero
(d) transformer.
𝟏𝟏
32. A circuit has an inductance of
𝝅𝝅
28. The voltage applied across a
henry and resistance 2100 ohm. A
primary of a transformer is 220 volt
supply of 50 cycle a.c. is connected
d.c. If the turn ratio is 10, the
across it. The reactance is
voltage developed across secondary
(a) 50 Ω (b) 100 Ω
is
(c) 2102.4Ω (c) 100𝜋𝜋 Ω
(a) Zero (b) 22 volt
(c) 220 volt (d) 2200 volt

//60//
 A-II
FILL IN THE BLANKS

1. Magnetic flux is a ____quantity 12. The opposition offered by

inductance and capacitance in an
2. Induced emf = _____ × Resistance
a.c. circuit is known as ____
3. ____ is known as electrical inertia
13. Reciprocal of impedance is called
4. Eddy current is analogous to ____ ____
in mechanics
14. ____ circuit is called oscillating
5. Due to eddy current, loss of circuit.
____takes place
15. Frequency of LC circuit is 𝒇𝒇=____
𝑳𝑳
6. Dimension of is _____
𝑹𝑹 16. The average value of a.c. over a

7. Dimension of LC is ____ complete cycle is ____

8. A coil of self-inductance 0.6 H 17. Power consumption in a purely

carries a current of 2A. Energy inductive or purely capacitive

stored in the coil is ____. circuit is _____

9. The expression for mutual 18. An inductor blocks ____

inductance of two long co-axical 19. In a L,C,R, series circuit, if

solenoids having radii 𝒓𝒓𝟏𝟏 & inductive reactance becomes equal
𝒓𝒓𝟐𝟐 (𝒓𝒓𝟐𝟐 > 𝒓𝒓𝟏𝟏 ) and different number to the capacitive reactance, the
of turns (𝑵𝑵𝟏𝟏 𝒂𝒂𝒂𝒂𝒂𝒂 𝑵𝑵𝟐𝟐 ) placed in air frequency becomes ____
is ____.
20. Expression for impedance in a
10. In India frequency of a.c. is ____ series L,C,R Circuit is ____

11. Equivalent d.c. of 𝑰𝑰 = 𝑰𝑰𝟎𝟎 𝐬𝐬𝐬𝐬𝐬𝐬 𝝎𝝎 𝒕𝒕 is 21. The current and voltage in an a.c.
____ circuit are given by

𝒊𝒊 = 𝟑𝟑. 𝟓𝟓 𝐬𝐬𝐬𝐬𝐬𝐬(𝟔𝟔𝟔𝟔𝟔𝟔 𝒕𝒕 + 𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑°) 𝑨𝑨𝑨𝑨𝑨𝑨.

//61//
 𝑽𝑽 = 𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐 𝐬𝐬𝐬𝐬𝐬𝐬(𝟔𝟔𝟔𝟔𝟔𝟔 𝒕𝒕 − 𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑°) 𝒗𝒗𝒗𝒗𝒗𝒗𝒗𝒗 23. A coil of number of turns N, area A
is rotated at a constant angular
Time period is _____ sec and phase
speed 𝝎𝝎, in a uniform magnetic
difference between current and
field B and connected to a resistor
voltage is ____ radian.
� is____.
R. The expression for 𝑷𝑷
22. Average power consumed per cycle
24. The equation of an a.c. voltage is
for ac voltage 𝑬𝑬𝟎𝟎 𝐬𝐬𝐬𝐬𝐬𝐬 𝝎𝝎𝝎𝝎 in a
𝑽𝑽 = 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏√𝟐𝟐 𝐬𝐬𝐬𝐬𝐬𝐬(𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏) The root-
resistive circuit of resistance R
mean-square value is ____ and
____.
frequency is ____

***
SECTION-B
EACH QUESTION CARRIES 2 MARKS

1. An alternating source of emf having voltage, the rms voltage and

frequency 𝟓𝟓𝟓𝟓 𝑯𝑯𝒛𝒛 is applied to a frequency of ac voltage.
capacitor of capacitance 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏.
5. The efficiency of a step-up
What is the capacitive reactance
transformer is 90% . If 220 V is
2. A generator is marked “220V, applied to the primary having
50𝑯𝑯𝒛𝒛 ”. What is the instantaneous resistance 𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝛀𝛀. What are the input
emf (e) power, output power and power
loss.
3. The current through a 1 H inductor
varies sinusiidally with an 6. (a) Does the induced emf in a coil
amplitude of 5A and frequency depend on
50𝑯𝑯𝒛𝒛 . What is the magnitude of the
(i) number of turns in the coil ?
voltage developed across it.
(ii) resistance of the coil ?
4. The instantaneous emf applied Justify .
across an a.c. circuit is 𝒆𝒆 =
𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐 𝐬𝐬𝐬𝐬𝐬𝐬 𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐 . What are the peak

//62//
7. Does current induced in the coil
depend on resistance ? (Write Yes
∆\∅
𝑵𝑵 ∆𝒕𝒕𝒎𝒎
or No) . How much if Yes, I𝒊𝒊 =
𝑹𝑹
8. A wire 1m long along north – south
direction is released to fall freely. Is
any emf induced across its ends?
14. A
9. A coil is placed at rest in a non-
uniform magnetic field. State if
induced emf is produced in it. Give
the reason.
13. A wheel has to metallic spokes, each
0.5 m long is rotated with 120
rev/min normal to a magnetic field
of 0.4 gauss. Calculate the induced
emf between the axle and rim of the
wheel.
28 turn coil with average
diameter of 0.02m is placed ⊥𝒓𝒓 to a
magnetic field of 8000 T. if the field
changes to 3000 T in 4 sec, what will
be the induced emf. ?

10. A bar magnet falls through a closed
ring conducting. What will be the
acceleration of magnet give reasons
for your answer. What will be the
direction of current in the coil.
11. A closed loop of wire is made to
move from positive towards
negative plates of a capacitor. Will
there be induced emf produced ?
Justify your answer.
12. Two identical loops one of copper
and the other of aluminum, are
rotated with the same angular
speed inside a uniform magnetic
field. Compare the induced emfs
and current produced in them.
15. A circular loop of wire of radius 4
cm carries a current of 80A.
Calculate the energy density at the
centre of the loop.
16. Current in a circuit falls from 5A to
0A in 0.1 sec. if induced emf
developed be 200 volt, what will be
the self inductance of the circuit ?
17. A pair of adjacent coils have a
mutual inductance of 1.5H. If
current in one coil changes from 0
to 20A in 0.5 sec. What is the
change n magnetic flux linked with
the other coil.
18. If rate of change of current of 3A/s
induces an emf of 30 millivolt in a

//63//
 solenoid calculate the self 0.5 microweber what is the self-
inductance of it. inductance of it.

19. A coil has 1000 turns. When a 20. Why does a metallic piece becomes
current of 2.5A is passed through very hot when it is surrounded by a
it. If magnetic flux linked with it is coil carrying high frequency a.c.

***
SECTION-C
LONG QUESTION

1. State Lenz’s laws. Justify that it conductors. A conducting bar ‘ef’

obeys conservation of enrgy. placed on the U shaped conductor
and moves at constant speed �𝒗𝒗⃗
2. Two parallel conductors ‘ab’ and
parallel to conductors ab and cd.
‘cd’ joined at one end by conductor
Find out magnitude and sense of
ac forming a U shape. They are
induced emf in the conductor
located in a uniform magnetic field
frame.
of induction B which in
perpendicular to the plane of the

***

//64//
 ANSWERS
A-I

1. a 17. c
2. a 18. a
3. c 19. d
4. c 20. b
5. b 21. a
6. b 22. c
7. c 23. d
8. d 24. b
9. b 25. a
10. c 26. a
11. a 27. d
12. d 28. a
13. ba 29. b
14. a 30. b
15. c 31. c
16. a 32. b

***
A-II

FILL IN THE BLANKS.

1. Scalar 7. T2
2. Induced current 8. 2J
3. Self inductance 𝜋𝜋 0 𝑁𝑁1 𝑁𝑁2 𝜋𝜋𝑟𝑟12
9.
2
4. Friction
10. 50𝐻𝐻𝑧𝑧
5. Energy 𝐼𝐼0
11.
6. Time √2

//65//
12. Reactance 1
19.
2𝜋𝜋 √𝐿𝐿𝐿𝐿
13. Admittance
1 2
14. LC 20. �𝑅𝑅2 + �𝜔𝜔𝜔𝜔 − �
𝜔𝜔𝜔𝜔
1 𝜋𝜋
15. 21. .01,
2𝜋𝜋 √𝐿𝐿𝐿𝐿 3

16. Zero 22. 𝐸𝐸02 /2𝑅𝑅

17. Zero (𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁 )2
23.
2𝑅𝑅
18. Ac
24. 100V, 50𝐻𝐻𝑧𝑧

***
SECTION-B
2 MARKS EACH QUESTION

1 1 1
1. 𝑋𝑋𝑐𝑐 = = = = 8. No, there is no change in magnetic
𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤 2𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋 2𝜋𝜋×50×10×10 −6
1000 flux due to H or V of the earth.
𝑜𝑜ℎ𝑚𝑚
𝜋𝜋
9. No induced emf is produced because
2. 𝑒𝑒 = 𝐸𝐸0 sin 2𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋 = there is no rate of change of magnetic
220√2 sin 100𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋 = 311 sin 100𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋 flux in it.
𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑
3. �𝐿𝐿 � = 1571.4𝑣𝑣 10. The acceleration of the magnet will be
𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑
less then ‘g’ because the current
4. 200𝑉𝑉, 141.4𝑉𝑉, 100𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻
induced in the coil will produce a
5. 2420W,2178W, 242W magnetic field that will oppose the
free fall.
𝑑𝑑∅
6. Yes as induced emf = 𝑁𝑁
𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑
11. No, becase rate of change of electric
No as ∅ deso not depend on R flux does not produce induced emf.
𝑑𝑑∅
−𝑁𝑁 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑
7. Yes because induced current =
𝑅𝑅

//66//
12. Induced emf’s will be the same in 4𝜋𝜋 × 10−7 × (80)2
=
∆∅𝑚𝑚 8 × (0.04)2
both the loops �∵ 𝑒𝑒 = − �=
∆𝑡𝑡
= 0.628 𝑗𝑗𝑗𝑗𝑗𝑗𝑗𝑗/𝑚𝑚3
𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 sin 𝜔𝜔𝜔𝜔 ∅𝑚𝑚 = 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 cos 𝜔𝜔𝜔𝜔
∆𝐼𝐼
16. 𝑒𝑒 = −𝐿𝐿
Induced current will be different ∆𝑡𝑡

𝑒𝑒
∵ 𝑖𝑖 = R is less for cu so that ‘I’ will ⇒ 𝐿𝐿 =
𝑒𝑒
= −
200
= 40 × 0.1 =
𝑅𝑅 −∆𝐼𝐼 0−5
� 0.1 �
∆𝑡𝑡
be more in it.
4 𝐻𝐻 (H for Henry)
120×2𝜋𝜋 𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟
13. 𝜔𝜔 = 𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 = 4𝜋𝜋
60 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 𝑠𝑠 17. (∅𝑚𝑚 )2 = 𝑀𝑀 𝐼𝐼1

𝑙𝑙 = 0.5 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚, B= 0.4 × 10−4 Tesla ⇒ ∆∅𝑚𝑚 2 = 𝑀𝑀 ∆𝐼𝐼1

2𝜋𝜋 2π 1
Time period = = sec. = 1.5 (20 − 0) = 30 𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤.
ω 4π 2

−∆∅𝑚𝑚 −∆(𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵) ∆𝐼𝐼

Induced emf 𝑒𝑒 = = = 18. 𝑒𝑒 = −𝐿𝐿 = −𝐿𝐿 .3
∆𝑡𝑡 𝑇𝑇 ∆𝑡𝑡
∆𝐴𝐴
−𝐵𝐵
𝑇𝑇 30 × 10−3
⇒ |𝐿𝐿| = 𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣
3 𝐴𝐴/𝑠𝑠
𝜋𝜋𝑙𝑙 2
= −𝐵𝐵 = −6.28 × 10−15 𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉 = 10 × 10−3 𝐻𝐻
1
� �
2 = 10 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚

14. Induced emf ∆∅𝑚𝑚 ∆𝐼𝐼

19. 𝑒𝑒 = −𝑁𝑁 = −𝐿𝐿
∆𝑡𝑡 ∆𝑡𝑡
∆∅𝑚𝑚 ∆(𝐵𝐵 𝐴𝐴 cos 0)
𝑒𝑒 = −𝑁𝑁 = −𝑁𝑁 ⇒ 𝑁𝑁 ∆∅𝑚𝑚 = 𝐿𝐿 ∆𝐼𝐼
∆𝑡𝑡 ∆𝑡𝑡

𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁 −28×𝜋𝜋 (0.02)2 𝑁𝑁∆∅𝑚𝑚 100×�0.5×10 −6 −0�

= ∆𝐵𝐵 = × ⇒ 𝐿𝐿 = = =
4 4 ∆𝐼𝐼 (2.5−0)

(8000 − 3000) = 0.2 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚

11 𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑡𝑡 numerically.
20. Reason – the magnetic flux lined with
15. Magnetic induction at the centre of a the metallic piece changes by a large
𝜇𝜇 0 𝐼𝐼
circular current carrying loop =B= amount. Heavy eddy currents are
2𝑟𝑟
induced in the metallic piece. These
𝐵𝐵 2
1 𝜇𝜇02 𝐼𝐼 2 2
𝜋𝜋0 𝐼𝐼 currents cause the heating
𝑢𝑢𝑚𝑚 = = =
2𝜇𝜇0 2𝜇𝜇0 4𝑟𝑟 2 8𝑟𝑟 2

//67//
 CHAPTER SEVEN
ALTERNATIVE CURRENT

A-I
MCQ

1. A voltage 𝑬𝑬 = 𝟔𝟔𝟔𝟔 𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏 is 4. A 100𝛀𝛀 iron is connected to a 220

applied across a 𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝛀𝛀 resistance. An volt, 50 cycle wall plug. The r.m.s
A.C ammeter in series with value of current is
resistance will read ? (a) 22 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 (b) 220 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴
(a) 3𝐴𝐴 (b) 2.12𝐴𝐴 (c) 2.2 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 (d) 100 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴
1
(c) 𝐴𝐴 (d) 3.12 𝐴𝐴
3 5. A 100 Hz a.c is flowing in a 14 mH
coil. The reactance of the coil is
2. An A.C ammeter reads 10 A in an
(a) 88Ω
AC circuit . The peak value of
current is: (b) 14Ω
10 20 (c) 1.4Ω
(a) 𝐴𝐴 (b) 𝐴𝐴
√2 𝜋𝜋
(d) 8.8Ω
(c) 5𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋 (d) 10√2𝐴𝐴
6. A capacitor of 𝟏𝟏𝛍𝛍𝛍𝛍 is connected to a
3. The effective value of alternating
source of AC having 𝑬𝑬 𝒎𝒎𝒎𝒎 given by
current is 5A. The current passes
equation 𝑬𝑬 = 𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐√𝟐𝟐 𝒄𝒄𝒄𝒄𝒄𝒄 𝟓𝟓𝟓𝟓 𝒕𝒕. The
through 12𝛀𝛀 resistor. The
r.ms value of current through the
maximum potential difference
capacitor is
across the resistor is
(a) 1 amp
(a) 60 𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣
(b) 0.001 amp
60
(b) 𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣
√2
(c) 0.01A
(c) 60√2 𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣
(d) 10 amp
(d) 12√2 𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣

//68//
7. In a circuit containing an 11. A 100 Hz alternating current is
inductance of zero resistance the flowing in a coil of inductance 7mH.
current leads the applied a.c The reactance of the coil is
voltages by a phase angle. (a) 7 Ω (b) 100 Ω
(a) 90° (b) −90° (c) 44Ω (d) 4.4Ω
(c) 0°𝐶𝐶 (d) 180°
12. An A.C voltage 𝑬𝑬 = 𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐√𝟐𝟐
8. The average power dissipated in a
𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏 𝒕𝒕 is connected in a circuit
pure capacitive a.c circuit is
1
containing an a.c. ammeter and a
2
(a) 𝐶𝐶𝑉𝑉
2 capacitor of capacitance 𝟏𝟏 𝝁𝝁 𝑭𝑭 . The
2
(b) 𝐶𝐶𝑉𝑉 reading of the ammeter is :
1 2
(c) . 𝐶𝐶𝑉𝑉 (a) 2A (b) 0.02A
4

(d) 𝑧𝑧𝑧𝑧𝑧𝑧𝑧𝑧 (c) 20A (d) 40A

9. Energy needed to establish an 13. If 𝑬𝑬 represents the peak value of

alternating current I in a circuit of voltage in an ac current the rms
self induction L is value of voltage will be.
𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝐸𝐸 𝐸𝐸
(a) 𝐿𝐿 (a)
𝜋𝜋
(b)
2𝜋𝜋
𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑
𝐸𝐸 𝐸𝐸
(b)𝑧𝑧𝑧𝑧𝑧𝑧𝑧𝑧 (c) (d)
√2 2
1 2
(c) 𝐿𝐿𝐼𝐼
2
14. An alternating current cannot be
1 2
(d) 𝐼𝐼 𝐿𝐿 measured by D.C ammeter because
2

𝟏𝟏 (a) A.C changes direction.

10. A circuit has an inductions of 𝑯𝑯
𝝅𝝅
(b) A.C. cannot pass through D.C
and a resistance of 2000 ohm. A 50
ammeter
cycle a.c is applied to it. The
(c) Average value of current for
impendence of the circuit is
complete cycle is zero .
(a) 200 Ω
(d) D.C ammeter will be damaged.
(b) 2000 Ω
(c) 2002.5Ω
(d) 202.5Ω

//69//
15. A coil has a resistance of 𝟖𝟖𝛀𝛀 and The angular frequency of input
inductive reactance of 𝟔𝟔𝛀𝛀. The A.C is
(a) 500 (b) 5 × 104
impedance of coil is (c)5000 (d) 4000
(a) 10 Ω
17. The primary coil of transformer
(b) 8Ω has 500 turns and secondary has
(c) 6Ω 5000 turns. The primary in
(d) 14Ω connected to AC supply 20V, 50 Hz.
The secondary, will have output of.
16. In A.C circuit containing (a) 200V, 500Hz
inductance and capacitance in
series. The current is found to be (b) 200 V 50 Hz
maximum when value of induction
(c) 2V, 50 Hz
is 0.5 H and capacitance is 𝟖𝟖𝟖𝟖𝟖𝟖.
(d) 2V 5Hz

***
A-II
FILL IN THE BLANKS

1. A choke coil works on the principle 5. If an a.c. of 50Hz is flowing through

of _____
2. The rms value of A.C. voltage
whose peak value is 100V is ____
volt.
3. A choke coil has _____inductance
and low resistance
4. In a given L,C,R, circuit the angle
of lag between emf and circuit
current will be ____
a conducting wire the current
becomes zero ____ times in one
second.
6. A coil of inductance 10mH and
capacitance 100𝝁𝝁𝝁𝝁 form a resonant
circuit. The resonant frequency of
the circuit is ___Hz.
7. In an A.C. circuit, the potential
difference across a capacitance ___
𝝅𝝅
the current by
𝟐𝟐

//70//
8. A pure inductive coil has _____ 14. A transformer works on the
resistance. principle of _____ induction

9. With increase in frequency of an ac 15. A capacitor stores energy in its ____

supply the inductive reactance ____ field.

10. The ratio of the mean value over 16. An inductor stores energy in its____
half cycle to the rms value of an A.C field.
is ____
17. The phenomenon of _____ is used
11. AC ammeters work on the principle while tuning a radio.
of___ effect of electric current.
18. For a purely resistive circuit the
12. The power factor in an ac circuit in power factor is _____
the ratio of resistance to ____.
19. The energy stored in an inductor L
13. The power factor of a pure carrying current I is ____.
inductive circuit is ____
20. In a series LCR circuit at resonance
the impedance of the circuit is ____.

***
A-III

ANSWER IN ONE WORD/ SENTENCE

1. What is the mean value of an A.C 4. What is the magnitude of inductive

over one complete cycle. reactance for direct current.

2. Write the relation between peak 5. What is the magnitude of capacitive

value 𝑽𝑽𝟎𝟎 and rms value 𝑽𝑽𝒓𝒓𝒓𝒓𝒓𝒓 of reactance for direct current.
alternating voltage.
6. How many times the direction of
3. Give two examples of circuits in alternating current changes in one
which wattles current will flow. complete cycle ?

//71//
7. What is the value of impedance in 9. Name an element that blocks dc but
series LCR circuit at resonance. bypasses ac.

8. If 𝑬𝑬𝒓𝒓𝒓𝒓𝒓𝒓 is the rms value of 10. What is the frequency of ac mains

alternating voltage what is its peak in India.
to peak value?

***

SECTION -B

EACH QUESTION CARRIES 2 MARKS.

1. Define rms and peak value of
alternating voltage and state the
relation between them.
2. Why is ac more dangerous than dc
of the same voltage.
3. Ac cannot be measured by moving
coil galvanometer why ?
4. A bulb and a solenoid are connected
in series to an a.c source. If a soft –
iron core is inserted inside the
solenoid what will be its effect on
the intensity of light giving out by
the bulb.
5. Write the expression for pure
inductive reactance in an ac circuit
and explain how it depends on the
frequency of a.c. What is its unit.
6. Write the expression for pure
capacitive reactance in an ac circuit
and explain how it depends on the
frequency of a.c. What is its unit.
7. Why a capacitor blocks dc ?
8. In order to reduce the current in ac
circuit, an inductor is more suitable
than a resistor . Why ?
9. What is meant by resonance in a
series LCR circuit
10. What is Wattles current?
11. A transformer works with a c
supply but not with dc why ?
12. Why laminated core is used in
transformer ?

//72//
13. What is hysteresis loss in 16. Draw graphs to show variation of
transformer . How it is minimized ? 𝑿𝑿𝑳𝑳 with 𝒇𝒇 and with L.

14. What is iron loss and copper loss in 17. Draw graphs to show variants on of
transformer ? how are they 𝑿𝑿𝒄𝒄 with 𝒇𝒇 and with C.
reduced.
18. Plot a graph showing variation of
15. In a transformer 𝑵𝑵𝟏𝟏 = 𝟓𝟓𝟓𝟓, 𝑵𝑵𝟐𝟐 = impedance of a series LCR circuit
𝟓𝟓𝟓𝟓𝟓𝟓, 𝑰𝑰𝟏𝟏 = 𝟓𝟓𝟓𝟓, 𝟓𝟓𝟓𝟓𝟓𝟓𝟓𝟓 then find out with frequency. On what factors the
magnitude and frequency of resonant frequency depend.
current 𝑰𝑰𝟐𝟐 in secondary coil.

***
SECTION-C

LONG QUESTION

1. What do you mean by root mean 3. Draw impedance triangle of a series

square value of ac. Obta#in an LCR circuit and find out the
expression for it. impedance and current in the
circuit when 𝑿𝑿𝑳𝑳 > 𝑿𝑿𝑪𝑪
2. Describe the construction and
theory of working of a transformer.

***

//73//
 ANSWERS
A-I
MCQ
1. b. 10. c.
2. d. 11. d.
3. c. 12. b.
4. c. 13. c
5. d. 14. c.
6. c 15. a
7. b. 16. a
8. d. 17. b
9.

***
A-II

FILL IN THE BLANKS

1. Wattles current 11. Heating

2. 50√2 12. Impedance

3. High 13. Zero

1 14. Mutual
𝜔𝜔𝜔𝜔 −𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤
−1
4. tan
𝑅𝑅
15. Electrostatic
5. 100
16. Magnetic
500
6.
𝜋𝜋 17. Resonance
7. Bgs 18. One
8. Zero 1
19. 𝐿𝐿𝐼𝐼 2
2
9. Increases
20. R
10. 2√2: 𝜋𝜋

//74//
 A-III

1. Zero 6. Two times

2. 𝑉𝑉𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 = .637 𝑉𝑉0 7. R
3. Pure inductive 8. 2√2 𝐸𝐸𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟
pure capacitive 9. Capacitor
4. Zero 10. 50𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻
5. Infinity

***
SECTION– B
1
1. Defn. 𝑉𝑉𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉 = √2 𝑉𝑉𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 7. 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝑓𝑓 = 0, 𝑋𝑋𝑐𝑐 = →∞
2𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋

2. Max value of alternative emf = √2 8. If resistor used a part of electrical

times rms value A 220V ac means its energy is lost in the form of heat if
rms value of ac volt is 220v. Sop peak inductor is used, there is no energy
value = √2 × 220 = 311.13𝑉𝑉 loss in the form of heat because the
power factor of inductive component
3. Ac does not show magnetic effect.
is zero
Average deflecting couple is zero .
𝑃𝑃� = 𝐼𝐼𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 𝑉𝑉𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 × 𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓
4. Intensity of the light of the bulb will
decrease. Introducing soft iron core in = 𝐼𝐼𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 × 𝑉𝑉𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 × cos ∅
solenoid its inductance increases. So
∅ = phase difference
inductive reactance WL increases. So
net impedance of circuit increase. In L, ∅ = 90° so cos ∅ = 0
Current in circuit will decrease.
9. In series LCR when voltage and
5. 𝑋𝑋𝐿𝐿 = 2𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋 𝑋𝑋𝐿𝐿 ∝ 𝑓𝑓, 𝑜𝑜ℎ𝑚𝑚 current are in same phase, the

1 1
impedance of circuit is minimum and
6. 𝑋𝑋𝐶𝐶 = 𝑋𝑋𝑐𝑐 ∝ , 𝑜𝑜ℎ𝑚𝑚
2𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋 𝑓𝑓 the circuit current in maximum – The

//75//
 situation is called resonance. It occurs Reduced by taking thick coils in
1
at frequency 𝑓𝑓 = transformer
2𝜋𝜋 √𝐿𝐿𝐿𝐿

𝐼𝐼1 𝑁𝑁2 5 500 5×50

10. In ac circuit when average consumed 15. = = ⇒ 𝐼𝐼2 = = 0.5𝐴𝐴
𝐼𝐼2 𝑁𝑁1 𝐼𝐼2 50 500

power is zero the current is called frequency remains same 50Hz

wattles.
16.
𝑃𝑃� = 𝑉𝑉𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 𝐼𝐼𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 cos ∅ ∅ is phase diff.
between emf z current in pure
inductive z pure capacitive circuits
𝜋𝜋
∅=
2

11. Principle of transformer – natural

induction 17.

12. To reduce energy loss due to eddy

current

13. Magnitisation of iron core during one

half and damagnetistion in next half
of ac takes place core retains magnetic
18.
energy – hysteresis loss. Minimized
by soft iron core which has thin
hysteresis loop.

14. Iron Loss – Eddy currents set up in

core – heat minized by taking
laminated core.
1
𝑓𝑓𝑟𝑟 depends on L and C 𝑓𝑓𝑟𝑟 =
Copper loss - heat loss due to 2𝜋𝜋 √𝐿𝐿𝐿𝐿

resistance of transformer coils

//76//
 SECTION –C
HINTS TO ANSWER

𝐼𝐼0
1. 𝐼𝐼𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 = 𝑍𝑍 2 = 𝑅𝑅2 + (𝑥𝑥2 − 𝑥𝑥𝑐𝑐 )2 tan ∅
√2 𝑥𝑥2 − 𝑥𝑥𝑐𝑐
=
𝑉𝑉2 𝐼𝐼1 𝑁𝑁2
𝑅𝑅
2. = =
𝑉𝑉1 𝐼𝐼2 𝑁𝑁1
𝑍𝑍 = �𝑅𝑅2 + (𝑥𝑥𝐿𝐿 − 𝑥𝑥𝐶𝐶 )2

3. 𝐸𝐸0 𝐸𝐸0
𝐼𝐼0 = 𝐼𝐼 = sin(𝜔𝜔𝜔𝜔 − ∅)
𝑍𝑍 𝑍𝑍

***

//77//
 CHAPTER EIGHT
ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES
A-I
MCQ
1. Electromagnetic waves are 5. Reflection of radio waves takes
(a)longitudinal wave place from
(b) transverse wave (a) stratosphere
(c)may be longitudinal or transverse (b) troposphere
(d) none of these
(c)ionosphere
2. Electromagnetic waves travel with (d) mesosphere
velocity of
(a) 3 × 1010 𝑚𝑚/𝑠𝑠 6. The process of mixing sound wave
with carriers waves is called
(b)3 × 106 𝑚𝑚/𝑠𝑠
(a) modulation
(c)3 × 108 m/s (b) demodulation
(d)332m/s (c) amplification

3. In an electromagnetic wave the (d) rectification

electric and magnetic fields are
7. Which of the following waves are
(a) parallel to each other used for sterilizing foods and
utensils ?
(b) perpendicular to each other
(a) microwave
(c)inclined at acute angle (b) X-ray
(d) inclined at obtuse angle (c)𝛾𝛾-ray

4. Which of the following does not (d) ultraviolet wave.

support the wave nature of light ?
8. Bolometers are used to detect the
(a) interference following waves.
(a) microwave
(b) diffraction
(b) X-ray
(c)polarization
(c)𝛾𝛾-ray
(d) photoelectric effect (d) infrared ray.

//78//
9. The frequency of electromagnetic velocity of waves is given by the
wave used for radio transmission as relation.
𝐵𝐵
compared to that of visible region (a) 𝑉𝑉 =
𝐸𝐸
is: 𝐸𝐸
(b)𝑉𝑉 =
𝐵𝐵
(a)larger
(c)𝑉𝑉 = 𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸
(b)smaller
(c)may be larger or smaller (d)𝑉𝑉 = √𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸

(d)same 14. The wave that cause sunburn is

(a)radio wave
10. An electromagnetic wave of
(b) infrared
wavelength 𝟓𝟓 × 𝟏𝟏𝟎𝟎−𝟓𝟓 𝒄𝒄𝒄𝒄 lies in the
(c)ultraviolet
region.
(d) visible
(a) Gamma ray
15. Which ray is used in radio therapy?
(b) ultraviolet
(a) infrared
(c) visible
(b) ultraviolet
(d) infra red
(c) 𝛾𝛾-ray
11. Which wave would you prefer for
(d) X-ray
transmission of radio signals ?
(a)infrared wave 16. Which wave has high penetrating
power ?
(b) waves longer than infrared
(a) infrared
(c)waves shorter than infra red
(b) ultraviolet
(d) X-rays
(c )microwave
12. Which of the following waves are (d) X-ray
used for radio communication?
17. Velocity of electromagnetic wave is
(a) long waves
(b) micro waves (a) 𝜇𝜇0 𝜀𝜀0
(c) ultraviolet rays 1
(b)
(d) standard broadcasting waves 𝜇𝜇 0 𝜀𝜀 0

13. If value of electric field intensity is (c)�𝜇𝜇0 𝜀𝜀0

E and the value of magnetic field 1
(d)
�𝜇𝜇 0 𝜀𝜀 0
intensity is B then the value of

//79//
18. Frequency of long waves are Then amplitude of the electric field
(a) 105 𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻 part of the wave is.
(b)103 𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻 (a) 126 𝑉𝑉𝑚𝑚−1
(c)50 𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻 (b)12.6 𝑉𝑉𝑚𝑚−1
(d)10−3 𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻 (c)1260 𝑉𝑉𝑚𝑚−1
(d)1.26 𝑉𝑉𝑚𝑚−1
19. Which of the following waves are
existing in A.C. power lines ? 23. The electric field part of an
(a) X-ray electromagnetic wave in vacuum is
(b) 𝛾𝛾rays
𝑵𝑵 𝒓𝒓𝒓𝒓𝒓𝒓
(c) long waves 𝑬𝑬 = �𝟑𝟑 𝒄𝒄𝒄𝒄𝒄𝒄 ��𝟏𝟏. 𝟖𝟖 � 𝒚𝒚 + 𝝅𝝅
𝑪𝑪 𝒎𝒎
(d) infrared rays 𝒓𝒓𝒓𝒓𝒓𝒓
× 𝟏𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟖𝟖 𝒕𝒕�� 𝒊𝒊̂
𝒔𝒔
20. If frequency of an electromagnetic
wave is 50 MHz, then its The wavelength of wave is

wavelength is (a) 18𝑚𝑚

(a)12m (b) 6m (b)12𝑚𝑚

(c)120m (d) 60m (c)9𝑚𝑚

(d)6𝑚𝑚
21. If electric field amplitude of an
electromagnetic wave is 𝑬𝑬𝟎𝟎 = 24. The order of energy in the visible

𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏 N/C then its magnetic field radiation is

amplitude is (a) 103 𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 (b)100 𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒

(a) 4 × 10−6 𝑇𝑇 (c)10−3 𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 (d)10−6 𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒

(b)4 × 10−7 𝑇𝑇
25. If 𝝀𝝀𝒎𝒎 𝑻𝑻 = 𝟎𝟎. 𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐 𝒄𝒄𝒄𝒄 𝑲𝑲, the
−8
(c)4 × 10 𝑇𝑇
characteristic temperature of the
(d)4 × 10−9 𝑇𝑇
5800 𝑨𝑨̇ is
22. The amplitude of the magnetic field (a) 2500 𝐾𝐾
part of a harmonic electromagnetic (b)5000 𝐾𝐾
wave in vacuum is 𝑩𝑩𝟎𝟎 = 𝟒𝟒𝟒𝟒𝟒𝟒 𝒏𝒏𝒏𝒏. (c)1000 𝐾𝐾
(d) 500 𝐾𝐾

//80//
26. Wavelength of 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏 𝒎𝒎 belongs to with it has an amplitude of
(a) visible radiation 𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑 𝑽𝑽𝒎𝒎−𝟏𝟏 . The ratio of amplitude to
(b) infrared rays frequency of oscillation of the
(c) microwaves magnetic field is
(d) radio waves (a) 1018 (b)104
(c)10−4 (d)10−18
27. A wave has a wavelength of 0.003
mm and electric field associated

***
A-II

FILL IN THE BLANKS

1. Ozonosphere absorbs ______ rays. 4. The colour of visible light depends

on its ____
2. If in an electromagnetic wave the
electric vector is along x – direction, 5. The waves having frequency of the
magnetic vector is along y – order of mega hertz are called as
direction then the direction of ____
propagation of wave is along ____
6. ____ em. waves are used for
3. The electromagnetic wave is a ____ treatment of cancer.
wave
7. In television signal we use ____e.m.
wave.

***

//81//
 A-III

WRITE ANSWER IN ONE WORD / SENTENCE.

1. Write wavelength range of visible 4. What is the order of the wavelength

light. of X rays

2. Which of the following has the 5. Which waves are used as signals
lowest frequency microwaves, through fog and why ?
ultraviolet rays and x-rays ?
6. Dim red light is used in film
3. Arrange the following e.m. waves in developing room why ?
ascending order of their
7. Optical and radio telescopes are
wavelength.
used in earth but X-ray telescopes
Microwaves, Gamma rays, are in space, why ?
Radio waves, Ultraviolet rays

***

//82//
 ANSWERS
A-I

1. b. 18. c.

2. c. 19. c.

3. b. 𝑐𝑐 3×108
20. b.�∵⋋= = = 6𝑚𝑚�
𝑓𝑓 50×106

4. d.
𝐸𝐸0 120
21. b.�∵ 𝐵𝐵0 = = = 4 × 10−7 𝑇𝑇�
𝐶𝐶 3×108
5. c.
22. a.(∵ 𝐸𝐸0 = 𝐶𝐶𝐵𝐵0 = 3 × 108 × 420 ×
6. a.
10−9=126 𝑉𝑉𝑚𝑚−1
7. d.
𝑐𝑐 2𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋 2𝜋𝜋×3×108
23. d.�∵ ⋋= = = = 6𝑚𝑚�
𝑓𝑓 𝜔𝜔 𝜋𝜋×108
8. d.
𝐸𝐸 = 𝐸𝐸0 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 (𝑘𝑘 𝑦𝑦 + 𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤)
9. b.
ℎ𝑐𝑐 6.62×10−34 ×3×108
10. c. 24. b.�∵ 𝐸𝐸 = = =
⋋ 6620 ×10−8

1.6×10−19×1
11. b.

0.29 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 𝐾𝐾 0.29

12. b. 25. b.�∵ 𝑇𝑇 = = =
5800 𝐴𝐴° 5800 ×10−8

13. b. 5000𝐾𝐾

14. c. 26. d.

15. d. 𝐶𝐶 3×108
27. d.(𝑓𝑓 = = = 1011 𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻, 𝐵𝐵0 =
⋋ 3×10−3
16. d. 𝐸𝐸0 30
= = 10−7 𝑇𝑇)
𝐶𝐶 3×108

17. d.

***
//83//
 A-II
FILL IN THE BLANKS
1. Ultraviolet 5. Radios waves
2. Z-direction 6. Gamma
3. Transverse 7. Radio waves
4. Wavelength

A-III

1. 400nm to 800nm 6. The energy of photons of red light is

less therefore it does not affect the
2. Microwaves
films.
3. Gamma, UV, MW, radiowaves
7. Visible rays and radio waves are not
4. 1𝐴𝐴0 to 100 𝐴𝐴0 absorbed by atmosphere of Earth
while x –rays are absorbed. Therefore
5. Infrared because its wavelength is
X-ray telescope can be used only in
greater and hence scattering is least.
space where there is no atmosphere to
absorb.

***

//84//
 CHAPTER NINE
RAY OPTICS
Chose the correct answer out of the four probables.

1. The focal length of a lens of power 5 5. A well cut diamond appears bright
diopter is due to
(a) 25 cm (a) refection
(b) 10 cm (b) scattering
(c) 2.5 cm (c) total interned reflection
(d) 20cm. (d) None of these

2. The minimum distance between an 6. Critical angle of light passing from

object and its real image is glass to air is maximum for
(a) 2f (a) red (b) green
(b) 5f (c) yellow (d) violet
(c) 4f 7. Inside water an air bubble beavers
(d)f/2 like a
(a) Convex laws
3. Power of a lens of focal length 10cm
(b) concave laws
is
(c) glass plate
(a) 0.1D
(d) none of these
(b) 10D
(c) 0.01D 8. The speed of light in air is 𝟑𝟑 × 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟖𝟖
(d) 1D m/s .What will be its speed in
diamond whose refractive indux is
4. A thin convex lens and thin concave
2.4
less each of focal length 20cm. are
𝑚𝑚
(a) 3 × 108
place in canted The effective focal 𝑆𝑆
𝑚𝑚
length of the combination is (b) 332
𝑆𝑆
(a) 80cm (b) 10cm 𝑚𝑚
(c) 7.2 × 108
𝑆𝑆
(c) 20cm (d) ∞ 𝑚𝑚
(d) 1.25 × 108
𝑆𝑆

//85//
9. In optical fibres which of the 14. Which of the following is an
following principles is used.
expression for magnifying power of
(a) scattering
a simple microscope ?
(b) refection
𝐷𝐷 𝑓𝑓
(c) total internal reflection (a) (b)
𝑓𝑓 𝐷𝐷

(d) none of these 𝐷𝐷 𝑓𝑓

(c) 1 + (d) 1 +
𝑓𝑓 𝐷𝐷
10. It is possible to observe total
internal reflections when a ray 15. The least distance of distinct vision
is
travels from. (a) 15 cm (b) 10 cm
(a) air into water (c) 25 cm (d) 35 cm
(b) air into glass
(c) water into glass 16. The magnification of a telescope is

(d) glass into water (a) 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 + 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓

(b) 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 × 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓
11. Refractive index of glass is greatest 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓
for (c)
𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓
(a) violet colour 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓
(d)
(b) red colour 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓

(c) yellow coloru 17. At sunrise and sun set, the sun
(d) green colour appears red because

12. The image formed by a simple (a) the sun is coldest at these times
microscope is (b) the sun is hottest at these times
(a) real and erect
(c) of scattering of light
(b) real and inverted
(d) of the effect of reflection
(c) virtual and erect
(d) virtual and inverted. 18. When a beam of red light is
reflected by a prism at minimum
13. The image formed by a compound
deviation the angle of incidence is
microscope is
(a) smaller then angle of emergence.
(a) real and invited
(b) greater than angle of emergence.
(b) virtual and inverted
(c) Equal to angle of emergence.
(c) virtual and erect
(d) None of these
(d) real and erect.

//86//
19. A ray of light falls as a prism of 22. Mirages are formed in a desert due
𝝁𝝁 = √𝟐𝟐 with angle of prism as 60° to
and suffers minimum diviation. The (a) interference
angle of incidence for the ray is (b) diffraction
(a) 90° (c) dispersion
(b) 45° (d) total internal reflection.
(c) 60°
23. What is the focal length of a double
(d) 30°
convex lens for which radius of
20. Blue colour of the sky is due to curvature of each suface is 40cm
(a) Red light is absorbed (𝝁𝝁 = 𝟏𝟏. 𝟓𝟓)
(b) Blue light is scattered (a) 50cm (b) 40cm
(c) Blue light is absorbed (c) -30cm (d) -40cm
(d) It is the natural colour
24. A convex lens is dipped in a liquid
21. In absence of the atmosphere, sky of refractive index same as that of
will appear the material of the lens . The lenses
(a) red behaves as
(b) blue (a) convergent lens
(c) dark (b) divergent lens
(d) white (c) glass plate
(d) prism

***

//87//
 A-II
FILL IN THE BLANKS
1. The phenomenon of deviation in the which the optical signal can be
path of light ray while entering transmitted from one place to other
form one optical medium to the place by a zig-zag path
other optical medium is called is___________.
_______
8. The distance of pole from first
2. The ratio of sine angle of incidence principle focus is called ____
to the sine of angle of refraction is
9. The ratio of angle of vision
called as _______
subtended by image to that
3. If the path of light ray after subtended by object when object is
multiple refractions is reversed then kept at least distance of distinct
it retraces the path from which it vision is called _____ of microscope.
came. This phenomenon is
10. In a compound microscope the lens
called______
towards the object is called ____
4. The angle of incidence and the lens towards the eye is
corresponding to which the angle of called ____.
refraction becomes 90° is called as
11. ____ is an optical instrument with
____
the help of which the fare distant
5. The illusion of water in desert is object are seen.
called ____
12. With the help of ____ the
6. In cold countries at the port the astronomical bodies are seen.
ship appears to be inverted in air.
13. With the help of ____ the far distant
This illusion is called as _____
objects situated on earth are seen.
7. The device which is based on the
total internal reflection through

***
//88//
 A-III
ANSWER IN ONE WORD / ONE SENTENCE
1. Which property remain unchanged 11. The power of a lens is more in
in the phenomenon of refractions of water or in air ?

light? 12. What is focal length and power of a

rectangular slab of glass ?
2. Which property get changed in the
13. Write the unit of Dispersive power.
phenomenon of refraction of light ?
14. Why sky is seen blue ?
3. What are the conditions of total
internal reflection ? 15. When the light ray inside the prism
is parallel ot the base of prism ?
4. On which phenomenon optical fibre
is depend ? 16. Which microscope is used as
reading lens?
5. When the value of relative
17. The length of which telescope is
refractive index is less than one and
more reflective or refractive
more than one?
telescope.
6. If a concave mirror and convex lens
is dipped in water, what will be the 18. What is the nature of image in a
changes in their focal lengths? simple microscope ?

7. Can a lens be used in that medium 19. What is the nature of final image

from which it is made of ? formed in compound microscope ?

8. If an object is kept at focus of a 20. If the focal length of eye lens of a

microscope is decreased then what
concave lens where its image will will be the effect on its
formed ? magnification?

9. The power of which lens be 21. If the focal length of objective lens
positive? of microscope and telescope is

10. The power of which lens is increased then what will be the
negative? effect in their magnifications ?

***

//89//
 SECTION –B
2 MARKS QUESTION

1. A concave lens and a convex lens 9. Why the focal length of the
of same focal length is kept in objective of a compound
contact. What will be the focal microscope should be small ?
length and power of the
10. What is angle of minimum
combination ?
deviation. Draw i-D curve for a
2. What do you mean by prism.
magnification ? write its formula
11. Calculate the critical angle when
3. Draw ray diagram of image refractive index = 𝟐𝟐
formation when an object is placed
12. Find the critical angle of incidence
at focus of a convex lens.
𝟑𝟑
at the glass �𝒏𝒏𝒈𝒈 = � and water
𝟐𝟐
4. A glass prism causes dispersion 𝟒𝟒
�𝒏𝒏𝝎𝝎 = � interface.
while a glass plate does not why ? 𝟑𝟑

5. Sun appears red during the sunrise 13. Velocity of light in a medium is

and sunset, why ? 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏 × 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟖𝟖 𝒎𝒎/𝒔𝒔. Calculate the

refractive index of the medium.
6. Why does the light rays disperse
through prism ? 14. Find the effective power and focal
length of two lens of focal lengths
7. What do you mean by angular
20cm and -100cm when placed in
dispersion ? Derive and expression
contact in air. What is the nature of
for it. On “What factors does it
combined lens.
depends?
15. A virtual erect and two times
8. How the magnifying power of an
magnified image is formed on the
astronomical telescope is increased
same side of the lens as the object.
?
The image is formed 15cm behind

//90//
 the object . What type of lens is
used and find its focal length.
16. Light rays are converging to a point
O which is 10cm from point L. A
convex lens of focal length 30cm is
placed at L. Find the position of
image.
𝟑𝟑 𝟒𝟒
17. Given 𝝁𝝁𝒈𝒈 = , 𝝁𝝁𝒘𝒘 =
𝟐𝟐 𝟑𝟑
glass lens of focal length 15cm is
placed in water find its focal length
is water.
1. With a neat ray diagram discuss the
working of a compound microscope.
Derive expression for its magnifying
power.
2. With a neat ray diagram show the
refraction of light ray when incident
on a prism of angle A. Derive the
relation to show relation between
refractive index of material of
prism and angle of
deviation
18. An object is placed at a distance of
20cm from a convex lens of focal
length 10cm. Find the position and
nature of image.
19. An object in placed 20cm away
from a concave lens of focal length
15cm . Find the position and nature
of image.
if a convex
20. The distance between an object and
it real image is 60cm. Determine the
nature and focal length of lens if the
image is two times the size of object.
***
SECTION –C
LONG QUESTION
3. Derive thin lens formula using a
convex lens.
4. Derive expression for lens makers
formula for a converging lens.
5. What is total internal reflection .
Define critical angle and find its
relation with refractive index of the
medium.
minimum
***
//91//
 ANSWERS
A-I
MCQ

1. d 13. c
2. c 14. c
3. b 15. c
4. d 16. c
5. c 17. c
6. a 18. c
7. b 19. b
8. d 20. b
9. c 21. c
10. d 22. d
11. a 23. b
12. c 24. c

A-II

FILL IN THE BLANKS

1. refraction of light 8. focal length

2. refractive index 9. magnifying power
3. principle of reversibility 10. objective lens, eyepiece
4. critical angel 11. telescope
5. desert mirage 12. astronomical telescope
6. cold mirage 13. terrestrial telescope
7. optical fibre

***

//92//
 A-III
IN ONE WORD / SENTENCE
1. frequency 11. Air

2. velocity, wavelength and amplitude 12. f=infinity

1 1
3. (i) Angles of incidence should be 13. = = = 0, Power is zero
𝑓𝑓 ∞
more than critical angles.
14. It has no unit.
(ii) lights ray must enter form denser
medium to rarer medium. 15. Sky is seen blue due to scattering of
light
4. Total internal reflection.
16. At angle of minimum deviation
5. Refractive index of rarer medium with
respect to denser medium is less than 17. Simple microscope

one and refractive index of denser
medium with respect to rarer medium
is more than one.
6. The focal length of concave mirror
will remain unchanged and that of
18. The length of refractive telescope is
more.
19. Erect and larger than object.
20. Virtual, inverted and larger than

convex lens will increase object.

7. No. 21. Its magnification will increase.

8. Image will be formed between focus 22. Magnifications of microscope will

and optical centre of the lens decrease and that of telescope will get
increased.
9. Convex lens.

10. Concave lens

***

//93//
 SECTION –B
1 1 1
1. = + refracting faces of glass plate are
𝐹𝐹 𝑓𝑓1 𝑓𝑓2
parallel, so A=0. Hence, there is
𝑓𝑓1 = −𝑓𝑓 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑓𝑓2 = 𝑓𝑓 neither dispersion nor deviation. All

1 1 1 the emergent rays are parallel to

∴ = − + =0
𝐹𝐹 𝑓𝑓 𝑓𝑓 incident ray and do not split into
colours.
𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝐹𝐹 = 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 and power
5. Sunlight has to travel through the
100 100
𝑝𝑝 = = =0 longer distance at the time of sunset
𝑓𝑓 ∞
and sunrise meanwhile almost all the
2. The ratio of size of image to size of coloured light waves get scattered
object is defined as magnifications, its except red as it wavelength is more. It
1 𝑣𝑣
formula is 𝑚𝑚 = = is unable to scatter due to atmospheric
0 𝑢𝑢

molecules. Therefore; only red light

3. The image formed at infinity. Image is
rays reach our eyes and sun appears
real and inverted.
red.

6. White light consists of continuous

range of wavelength. Refractive index
of prism material is different for
different colours and given by Cauchy
realtion.

𝜇𝜇 = 𝑎𝑎 + 𝑏𝑏/𝜆𝜆 + 𝑐𝑐/𝜆𝜆𝜆𝜆
4. When white light passes through a
prism , it splits up into it constituent Where a.b and c are constants. For
colors because refractive index of small angle of prism, the angle of
glass is different for different colours. deviation is given by
The angular dispersion is �𝜇𝜇𝑦𝑦 − 𝜇𝜇𝑅𝑅 �
𝛿𝛿 = (𝜇𝜇 − 1)𝐴𝐴 ⇒ 𝛿𝛿 ∝ 𝜇𝜇
A and angular deviation is (𝜇𝜇 − 1) A
where A is angle of Prism. The Now,

//94//
 𝜆𝜆𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 > 𝜆𝜆𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣 𝑚𝑚 = −𝑓𝑓0 /𝑓𝑓𝑒𝑒

∴ 𝜇𝜇𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 > 𝜇𝜇𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣 Hence for greater magnifying power

of the value 𝑓𝑓0 , i.e. focal length of eye
∴ 𝛿𝛿𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 > 𝛿𝛿𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣
lens should be small.
𝑖𝑖. 𝑒𝑒, the red colour is deviated less
9. The magnifying power of a compound
than the violet colour. Other colours
microscope is given by 𝑚𝑚 =
are deviated by intermediate angles.
𝑣𝑣 1+𝑑𝑑
So, different colours of white light get � 0� � �
𝑢𝑢 0 𝑓𝑓𝑒𝑒

dispersed on refraction through prism.

7. The angle dispersion is defined as
difference between angle
deviations for any two colurs. If angle
of deviations for red and violet
colours are 𝛿𝛿𝑟𝑟 and 𝛿𝛿𝑣𝑣 respectively
then, Angular dispersion 𝜃𝜃 = 𝛿𝛿𝑣𝑣 − 𝛿𝛿𝑟𝑟
∴ 𝛿𝛿𝑣𝑣 = 𝐴𝐴(𝜇𝜇𝑣𝑣 − 1), 𝛿𝛿𝑟𝑟 = 𝐴𝐴(𝜇𝜇𝑟𝑟 − 1)
𝜃𝜃 = 𝐴𝐴(𝜇𝜇𝑣𝑣 − 1) − 𝐴𝐴 (𝜇𝜇𝑟𝑟 − 1)
Or = 𝜃𝜃 = 𝐴𝐴 (𝜇𝜇𝑣𝑣 − 𝜇𝜇𝑟𝑟 )
This is the required expression for
angular dispersion 𝜃𝜃 depends on :
1. Angle of prism (A) : with increase
in A, 𝜃𝜃 increase.
For greater magnifying power 𝑈𝑈0
should be smaller, but the object
of should be placed out of the
10. It has been found by the experiments
that the value of angle of deviation
depends of the angle of incidence. As
the value of angle of incidence is
increased, the value of angle of
deviation decrease. For a particular
value of angle of incidence the angle
of deviation becomes minimum,
further if the value of angle of
incidence is increased, then the value
of angle of deviation increases. The
minimum value of angle of deviation
is called angle of minimum deviation.

2. Material of prism : when increase 1 1

11. Since = = , 𝑐𝑐 = 30°
𝑛𝑛 2
in ‘𝜇𝜇’ 𝜃𝜃 also increases.
12. 𝑛𝑛𝑔𝑔 > 𝑛𝑛𝑤𝑤 so incidence is from glass
8. The magnifying power of an
medium, where angle of incidence is
astronomical telescope is given by

//95//
 C and L of refraction in water medium 16.
=90°

𝑛𝑛𝑔𝑔 𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆 𝐶𝐶 = 𝑛𝑛𝑤𝑤 sin 90°

𝑛𝑛𝑤𝑤 4 × 2 8
sin 𝑐𝑐 = = =
𝑛𝑛𝑔𝑔 3 × 3 9
𝑢𝑢 = +10𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐
−18
⇒ 𝑐𝑐 = sin = 62.74° 𝑓𝑓 = +30𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐
9
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 4
𝑐𝑐 3×10 8 = − ⇒ = + = + =
13. 𝑛𝑛 = = =2 𝑓𝑓 𝑣𝑣 𝑢𝑢 𝑣𝑣 𝑓𝑓 𝑢𝑢 30 10 30
𝑣𝑣 1.5×10 8
𝑣𝑣 = 7.5𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐
1 1
14. 𝑓𝑓1 = 20𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 𝑓𝑓2 = −100𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 = + 3 1 1
𝐹𝐹 𝑓𝑓1 (𝜇𝜇 𝑔𝑔 −1) −1
𝑓𝑓𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎
1 1 1 4 1
17. = 𝜇𝜇 𝑔𝑔 = 2
3 = 9
2
= 2
1 =4
𝑓𝑓𝑎𝑎 � −1� −1
= − = = 𝜇𝜇 𝑚𝑚 � 24 −1� 8 8
𝑓𝑓2 20 100 100 25
3

100 100
𝐹𝐹 = 25𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 powr = = = 4𝐷𝐷 𝑓𝑓𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 = 𝑓𝑓𝑤𝑤 = 4 × 𝑓𝑓𝑎𝑎 = 4 × 15𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐
𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 25
= 60𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐
Combined lens with 𝐹𝐹 = 25𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 𝑃𝑃 =
4𝐷𝐷 behave an converging lens. 18. 𝑢𝑢 = −20𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 𝑣𝑣 = ? 𝑓𝑓 = +10𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐

15. Virtual, erect, magnified, same side as 1 1 1

= −
𝑓𝑓 𝑣𝑣 𝑢𝑢
object image only in 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 lens
𝑣𝑣 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
𝑚𝑚 = 2 = ⇒ 𝑣𝑣 = 24 = − ⇒ = − =
𝑢𝑢 10 𝑣𝑣 −20 𝑣𝑣 10 20 20

𝑣𝑣 = 20𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐.
𝑣𝑣 = −𝑢𝑢 − 15 ⇒ 2𝑢𝑢 = −𝑢𝑢 − 15 𝑢𝑢
= 5𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 𝑣𝑣 = −10𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 𝑣𝑣 20
𝑚𝑚 = = =1
𝑢𝑢 20
1 1 1 1 1 1 1
= − = − = −
𝑓𝑓 𝑣𝑣 𝑢𝑢 10 −5 5 10 Image formed at 20cm on other side
1 of lens. It is real inverted and of same
= ⇒ 𝑓𝑓 = 10𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐
10 size of object.

19. 𝑢𝑢 = −20𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐

//96//
𝑓𝑓 = −15𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 20. Lens – convex which produce real
image given |𝑢𝑢| + |𝑣𝑣| = 60𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐, 𝑣𝑣 =
𝑣𝑣 = ?
2𝑢𝑢
1 1 1 1 1 1
= − ⇒− = − So 3𝑢𝑢 = 60 |𝑢𝑢| = 20𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐
𝑓𝑓 𝑣𝑣 𝑢𝑢 15 𝑣𝑣 −20

1 1 1 −7 𝑢𝑢 = −20𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐
⇒ = − − =
𝑣𝑣 5 20 60
𝑣𝑣 = 40𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐
−60 𝑣𝑣 3
𝑣𝑣 = 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 = 𝑚𝑚 = = < 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 3
7 𝑢𝑢 7 = − = − = + =
𝑓𝑓 𝑣𝑣 𝑢𝑢 40 −20 40 20 40

𝑣𝑣 = −𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣 meand image is on same 𝑓𝑓 =

40
𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐
3
side as object so it is virtual, m<1so it
is diminished and erect.

***

//97//
 CHAPTER TEN
(WAVE OPTICS)
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQ)
1. Two sources of waves are called 4. Which of the following is the
coherent if condition of bright fringes?
(a) Both waves same amplitude of 𝜆𝜆
(a) 𝑋𝑋 = 2𝑛𝑛.
2
vibration. 𝜆𝜆
(b) 𝑋𝑋 = (2𝑛𝑛 + 1)
(b) Both produce waves of same wave 2
𝜆𝜆
length. (c) 𝑋𝑋 = 2𝑛𝑛.
3

(c) Both produce waves of same 𝜆𝜆

(d) 𝑋𝑋 = (2𝑛𝑛 + 1)
3
wavelength and having a constant
phase difference. 5. Which of the following is the

(d) Both produce waves having same condition of dark fringes?

𝜆𝜆
velocity. (a) 𝑋𝑋 = 2𝑛𝑛.
2
𝜆𝜆
2. In Young’s double slit experiment, (b) 𝑋𝑋 = 2𝑛𝑛.
3

the separation between the slits is 𝜆𝜆

(c) 𝑋𝑋 = (2𝑛𝑛 + 1)
3
waved. Thus the fringe with 𝜆𝜆
(d) 𝑋𝑋 = (2𝑛𝑛 + 1)
(a) Remains same 2

(b) Becomes double 6. Which of the following does not

(c) Is halved support the wave native of light?
(d) Is quadrupled (a) Interference

3. The phenomenon of interference (b) Diffraction

can take place (c) Polarisation

(a) In all waves (d) Photoelectric effect

(b) In transverse wave only 7. Light has the following wave

(c) In longitudinal wave only property
(d) In standing waves only. (a) Transverse
(b) Longitudinal

//98//
 (c) Either transverse or longitudinal 12. The amplitude ratio of the
(d) None of the above. superimposing waves 2:1. The ratio
of maximum and minimum
8. In Young’s double slit experiment,
intensities is
the separation between the slits is
(a) 1:1
halved and the distance between the
(b) 2:1
screen and slits is doubled, the
(c) 4:1
fringes width is
(d) 9:1
(a) Unchanged
(b) Halved 13. In Young’s experiment the ratio of
(c) Doubled maximum and minimum intensities
(d) Quadrupled in the fringes system is 9:1. The ratio
of amplitude of coherent sources is
9. When viewed in white light, soap
(a) 9:1
bubble shows colour because of
(b) 3:1
(a) Interference
(c) 2:1
(b) Scattering
(d) 1:1
(c) Diffraction
(d) Dispersion 14. A light ray is inclined to the wave
front at an angle.
10. In Young’s double slit experiment,
(a) 0
the fringes width is
𝜋𝜋
(b)
2
𝜆𝜆𝜆𝜆 𝑑𝑑
(a) (b) (c) Acute angle
𝐷𝐷 𝜆𝜆𝜆𝜆
𝐷𝐷 𝜆𝜆𝜆𝜆 (d) Obtuse angle.
(c) (d)
𝜆𝜆𝜆𝜆 𝑑𝑑

15. A beam of light coming parallel to

11. Phase difference between two points
itself from infinity has a wave front
on a wave front is
which is
(a) 2𝜋𝜋
(a) Spherical (b) Cylindrical
(b) 𝜋𝜋
𝜋𝜋 (c) Plane (d) None of these
(c)
2

(d) 0

//99//
16. Two waves have their intensities in 20. The phenomenon of interference
the ratio 25:9. The ratio of intestines follows
of maxima and minima is (a) Conservation of momentous
(a) 64:4 (b) 34:16 (b) Conservation of momentous and
images
(c) 25:9 (d) 8:2
(c) Conservation of images
(d) Quentin native of light
17. Transverse nature of light is
depicted by 21. In Young’s double slit experiment
(a) Polorisation the distance between the slits is
(b) Reflection gradually increased. The width of
(c) Interference the fringes width.
(d) Diffraction (a) Increase
(b) Decreases
18. In Young’s double slit experiment,
(c) Remains the same
the maximum intensity is 𝑰𝑰𝟎𝟎 . Which
(d) None of the above.
one slit is closed, the intensity
becomes. 22. In Young’s double slit experiment,
𝐼𝐼0 𝐼𝐼
(a) (b) 0 if a thin glass plate is placed in the
2 8
𝐼𝐼0 path of one of the interfering beams
(c) (d) 𝐼𝐼0
4
then
19. In Young’s double slit experiment (a) Fringe width decreases
the wave length of light 𝝀𝝀 = 𝟒𝟒 × (b) Fringe width increases
𝟏𝟏𝟎𝟎−𝟕𝟕 𝒎𝒎 and separation between the (c) Fringe pattern is shifted
slits is 𝒅𝒅 = 𝟎𝟎. 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏. If the fringe (d) Fringe pattern is unfitted
width is 4mm, the separation
23. In a biprism arrangement is air is
between the slits and the screen is
immersed completely in a liquid.
(a) 100 mm
The fringes width
(b) 1m
(a) Remains same
(c) 106 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐
(b) Increases
(d) 10Å
(c) Decreases
(d) None of the above

//100//
24. The penetration of light into the 25. In Young’s experiment fringe width
region of geometrical shot on is was found to be 4mm. The whole
apparatus is immersed in volts of
called 𝟒𝟒
refraction index � �. The fringe
𝟑𝟑
(a) Polarization
width becomes.
(b) Interference (a) 0.25mm
(c) Diffraction (b) 0.30mm
(d) Refraction (c) 0.40mm
(d) 0.53mm

***
A-II
Fill in the blanks

1. In young’s double slit experiment 5. In Young’s double slit

the intensity of the central bright experiment, the green light is
spot is _______ times the replaced by red light then the
individual intensities of the fringe width will _______
interfering waves .
6. The source of plane wavefront is
2. Two waves having same at_____
wavelength and amplitude but
7. Interference of two beams of
having constant phase difference
white light produce _____
with time are known as ______.
fringes.
3. A plane wavefront is produced if
8. _____ is the locus of the particles
the source is at _______.
of medium that are in same
4. The shape of wavefront coming medium of vibration.
from a point source of light is
9. _____ of wave does not change
____
when a light wave moves from
one medium to another.

//101//
 10. _____ is the separation between 14. In Young’s double slit
two consecutive bright or experiment the separation
consecutive dark fringes. between the slits is gradually
decreased. The fringe width
11. A ray of light is _____ to the
_____.
wavefront.
15. The distance between the slits
12. For constructive interference the
and screen in Young’s double slit
phase difference between the two
experiment is gradually
interfering becomes has to be
increased. Then the fringe width
____ where 𝒏𝒏 = 𝟎𝟎, 𝟏𝟏, 𝟐𝟐, 𝟑𝟑 … ….
____.
13. Transverse nature of light can be
proved by ______ of light

***
A-III
Answer in one word/sentence :

1. Write the relation between phase 5. Can interference be produced by

differences 𝜹𝜹 path difference ∆𝒙𝒙. light of candle?

2. What is the phase difference 6. Which phenomenon establishes the

between two point in the same transverse nature of light.
wavefront ?
7. If the path difference is quarter
3. Which phenomenon of light favours wavelength what is the phase
the wave nature of light? difference.

4. Which phenomenon of light shows 8. What is the path difference between

that light bends at the corners of an two interfering beams if destructive
obstacle. interference is observed at a point?

//102//
9. Which phenomenon of light is the 10. In Young’s double slit experiment
interference between secondary the central maxima has an intensity
wavelets from the same wavefront? of 𝑰𝑰𝟎𝟎 . What is the intensity of central
maxima if one of the slits is closed. ?

***
SECTION-B
2 marks each Question
1. In Young’s double slit experiment 4. The intensity of two superposing
the slit separation is 1mm and the waves are 𝟒𝟒𝑰𝑰𝟎𝟎 and 𝑰𝑰𝟎𝟎 . The intensity
screen is the distance D=1m. of the bright fringe is 𝟕𝟕𝑰𝑰𝟎𝟎 . Find out
Monochromatic light of wavelength the phase difference between the two
5000Å is used. Find out the distance superposing waves.
of the third dark fringe from the
5. Determine waves angle of
central bright fringe.
polorisation glass medium of light
2. In Young’s double slit experiment waves from air to glass. Refractive
d=0.8mm and D=1.0m. The second index of glass = 1.5.
dark fringe is at a distance of 1mm
6. What glass is the path difference
from the central bright fringe. What
between two particles in the medium
is the fringe width.
that differ in phase by 60º.
3. In Young’s double slit experiment if
7. The fringe width obtained in a
separation between slits is reduced
Young’s double slit experiment is
to fifty percent and the distance
0.25cm. If the apparatus in
between the slits and screen is
immersed in a liquid of refractive
increased to two hundred percent
index 4/3, find out the fringe width.
find out the relation between new
fringe width 𝒘𝒘 width original fringe 8. Distinguish between interference
width 𝒘𝒘𝟎𝟎 and diffraction.

***

//103//
 SECTION – C
Long Questions

1. What is meant by interference of 3. What is polarization of light? What

light . Describe Young’s double slit is a plane polarized light state and
experiment and derive expression briefly explain Brewster’s Law.
for fringes width.
4. What do you understand by
2. What are coherent source ? How are diffraction of light. Explain
they obtained in Young’s double slit diffraction due to a single slit.
experiment ? Write four conditions
for sustained interference of light.

***

//104//
 ANSWER KEY
SECTION –A
A-I
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQ)

1. c 14. b
2. b 15. c
3. a 16. a
4. a 17. a
5. d 18. c
6. d 19. b
7. a 20. c
8. d 21. b
9. a 22. c
10. d 23. c
11. d 24. c
12. d 25. b
13. c

***

A-II
FILL IN THE BLANKS
1. 4 9. Frequency
2. Coherent 10. Fringe width
3. Infinity 11. Parallel
4. Spherical wavefrong 12. 2𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛
5. Increase 13. Polarization
6. Infinity 14. Increases
7. Coloured 15. Increases.
8. Wavefront

//105//
 A-III
ONE WORD
2𝜋𝜋
1. 𝑆𝑆 = ∆𝑥𝑥 6. Polorization
𝜆𝜆
𝜋𝜋
2. Zero 7.
2
𝜆𝜆
3. Interference/diffraction 8. (2𝑛𝑛 ± 1)
2
4. Diffraction 9. Diffraction
5. No, not coherent
10. 𝐼𝐼0 /4

***
SECTION-B
2 MARKS

1. 𝑦𝑦 = (2𝑛𝑛 + 1)
𝜆𝜆 𝐷𝐷 1 𝜋𝜋 𝜋𝜋
2 𝑑𝑑 cos 𝜙𝜙 = = cos ⇒ 𝜙𝜙 =
2 3 3
Here 𝑛𝑛 = 2 for 3rd dark fringe 𝑛𝑛 2 1.5
5. 𝜃𝜃𝑝𝑝 = tan−1 = tan−1 = 57°
𝑛𝑛 1 1
𝜆𝜆 𝐷𝐷 5 1𝑚𝑚
So 𝑦𝑦 = 5 = × 5000Å ×
2 𝑑𝑑 2 10 −3 𝑚𝑚 𝜋𝜋
6. 60° = 𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 = phase diff. path diff
3
−3
= 1.25 × 10 𝑚𝑚 𝜆𝜆 𝜋𝜋 𝜋𝜋
= × =
2𝜋𝜋 3 6
3𝜆𝜆 𝐷𝐷
2. 𝑦𝑦 = = 1𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 fro second dark 𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤 .25𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 .75
2 𝑑𝑑 7. 𝑤𝑤𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 = = = =
4
𝜇𝜇 4
𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷 2 3
fringe. Fringe width = = 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚
𝑑𝑑 3
.1875𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐
2
Ans. 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚
3
8. Interference Diffraction
𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷 2𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷 4𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷 1. Superposition 1. Superposition
3. 𝑤𝑤0 = 𝑤𝑤 = = = 4𝑤𝑤0 between two between
𝑑𝑑 𝑑𝑑/2 𝑑𝑑
waves from secondary
4. 𝐼𝐼 = 𝑎𝑎12 + 𝑎𝑎22 + 2𝑎𝑎, 𝑎𝑎2 cos 𝜙𝜙 = 7𝐼𝐼0 two coherent wavelets of
sources. same wave
2. Fringe width is front.
𝑎𝑎12 = 4𝐼𝐼0 , 𝑎𝑎22 = 𝐼𝐼0 , 𝑎𝑎1 𝑎𝑎2 = �4 𝐼𝐼0𝑣𝑣 𝐼𝐼0 uniform. 2. Fringes have
= 2𝐼𝐼0 different
widths.
So 7𝐼𝐼0 = 4𝐼𝐼0 + 𝐼𝐼0 + 2.2𝐼𝐼0 cos 𝜙𝜙

//106//
 CHAPTER ELEVEN
Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation
A-I
MCQ
Chose the correct answer out of the four probables.
1. A particle is dropped from a height (b) electrons can be emitted but all
H. The de-Broglie wavelength of the with an energy, 𝐸𝐸0
particle as a function of height is (c) electrons can be emitted with any
proportional to energy, with a maximum of
(a) 𝐻𝐻 𝐸𝐸0 − 𝜙𝜙 (𝜙𝜙 is the work function).
(b) 𝐻𝐻1/2 (d) electrons can be emitted with any
(c) 𝐻𝐻0 energy, with a maximum of 𝐸𝐸0
(d) 𝐻𝐻−1/2
4. A charge q contains n electrons each
of mass m. This charge is
2. The wavelength of a photon needed
accelerated under a potential
to remove a proton from a nucleus difference V. The speed acquired by
which is bound to the nucleus with 1 the charge is .
MeV energy is nearly. 2𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒
(a) �
𝑚𝑚
(a) 1.2 𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛
2𝑞𝑞𝑞𝑞
(b) 1.2 × 10−3 𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛 (b) �
𝑚𝑚
−6
(c) 1.2 × 10 𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛
2𝑒𝑒
1 (c) �
(d) 1.2 × 10 𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚

3. Consider a beam of electrons (each 2𝑞𝑞

(d) �
𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚
electron with energy 𝑬𝑬𝟎𝟎 ) incident on
a metal surface kept in an evacuated 5. A photon with energy E is
chamber. Then characterized by wavelength given
by
(a) no electrons will be emitted as
𝐸𝐸𝑐𝑐 2
(a) 𝐸𝐸/ℎ𝑐𝑐 2 (b)
only photons can emit electrons. ℎ
ℎ𝑐𝑐
(c) 𝐸𝐸/ℎ𝑐𝑐 (d)
𝐸𝐸

//107//
6. The photoelectric effect is described 10. Work function of a metal is :
as the emission of electrons from the (a) minimum energy required to free
surface of a metal when : an electron from surface against
(a) it is heated to a high temperature Coulomb’s forces.
(b)electrons of suitable velocity (b) minimum energy required to free a
impinge on it nucleon
(c)light of suitable wavelength falls (c) minimum energy required to eject
on it an electron from electronic orbit
(d)it is placed in a strong magnetic (d)minimum energy to ionize an atom
field.
11. Photoelectrons emitted from a
7. Photoelectric effect was discovered metallic surface are those which are:
by : (a) present inside the nucleus
(a) Hertz (b) are orbiting very near to nucleus
(b) Einstein (c) are generated by the decay of
(c) Hallwachs neutrons within the nucleus
(d) Millikan (d) free to move within inter atomic
spacing
8. Photoelectric effect supports:
(a)Newton’s corpuscular nature of 12. In photoelectric effect:
light (a) light energy is converted into
(b) Huygen’s wave theory of light heat energy.
(b) light energy is converted into
(c)Maxwell’s electromagnetic theory
electric energy.
of light (c) light energy is converted into
(d) Plank’s quantum theory of light sound energy.
(d) electric energy is converted into
9. The phenomenon of photoelectric light energy.
effect was explained by: 13. The momentum of a photon of
(a) Planck wavelength 𝝀𝝀 is
(b)Maxwell (a) ℎ𝜆𝜆 (b) ℎ/𝜆𝜆
(c) Einstein (c) 𝜆𝜆/ℎ (d) ℎ/𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐
(d) Bohr

//108//
14. Einstein’s photoelectric equation is : electrons are emitted from the
1
(a) ℎ𝑣𝑣 = ℎ𝑣𝑣0 + 𝑚𝑚𝑣𝑣 2 metallic surface with a kinetic
2
1 energy. It is possible to say that:
(b) ℎ𝑣𝑣0 = ℎ𝑣𝑣 + 𝑚𝑚𝑣𝑣 2
2
1 (a)all ejected electrons have same
(c) ℎ𝑣𝑣 = 𝑚𝑚𝑣𝑣 2
2
kinetic energy equal to ℎ𝑣𝑣 − ℎ𝑣𝑣0
(d) 2ℎ𝑣𝑣 = ℎ𝑣𝑣0 + 𝑚𝑚𝑣𝑣 2
(b)the ejected electrons have a
15. The photoelectric effect is based on
distribution of kinetic energy from
the law of conservation of:
zero to (ℎ𝑣𝑣 − ℎ𝑣𝑣0 )
(a) energy
(b) mass (c) the most energetic electrons have
(c) liner momentum kinetic energy equal to ℎ𝑣𝑣
(d) angular momentum
(d) all ejected electrons have kinetic
16. The unit of Planck’s constant 𝒉𝒉 is energy ℎ𝑣𝑣0
that of :
(a) work 19. Einstein’s photoelectric equation
(b) energy states that:
(c) liner momentum 𝑬𝑬𝒌𝒌 = 𝒉𝒉𝒉𝒉 − 𝑾𝑾,
(d) angular momentum In this equation 𝑬𝑬𝒌𝒌 refers to :
(a)kinetic energy of all ejected
17. For light of wavelength 5000 Å the electrons
photon energy is nearly 2.5eV. For (b)mean kinetic energy of emitted
X-rays of wavelength 1 Å, the electrons
(c)minimum kinetic energy of
photon energy will be close to:
emitted electrons
(a) 2.5 / 5000 𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 (d)maximum kinetic energy of
(b) 2.5/(5000)2 𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 emitted electrons

(c)2.5 × 5000 𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 20. The rest mass of a photon of

(d) 2.5 × (5000)2 𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 wavelength 𝝀𝝀 is :
ℎ
18. In photoelectric effect, when photons (a) 𝑧𝑧𝑧𝑧𝑧𝑧𝑧𝑧 (b)
𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐
ℎ ℎ𝑐𝑐
of energy 𝒉𝒉𝒉𝒉 fall on a photosensitive (c) (d)
𝜆𝜆 𝜆𝜆
surface (work function 𝒉𝒉𝒗𝒗𝟎𝟎 )

//109//
21. The dynamic mass of a photon of 25. Sodium surface is illuminated by
wavelength 𝝀𝝀 is : ultraviolet and visible radiation
ℎ successively and the stopping
(a) 𝑧𝑧𝑧𝑧𝑧𝑧𝑧𝑧 (b)
𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐
ℎ ℎ𝑐𝑐 potential determined. This stopping
(c) (d)
𝜆𝜆 𝜆𝜆
potential is:
22. In photoelectric effect, the number (a) equal in both cases.
of photoelectrons emitted is (b) more with ultraviolet light
proportional to: (c) more with visible light
(a) intensity of incident beam (d) varies randomly
(b) frequency of incident beam
26. 𝑿𝑿-ray are used to irradiate sodium
(c) velocity of incident beam
and copper surfaces in two separate
(d) work function of photocathode
experiments and stopping potential
23. The threshold frequency of determined. This stopping potential
potassium is 𝟑𝟑 × 𝟏𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏 𝑯𝑯𝑯𝑯. The work is :
function is : (a) equal in both cases.
(a) 1.0 × 10−19 𝐽𝐽 (b) greater for sodium

(b) 2 × 10−19 𝐽𝐽 (c) greater for copper

(c) 4 × 10−19 𝐽𝐽 (d) infinite in both cases

(d) 0.5 × 10−19 𝐽𝐽 27. A photo-sensitive material would

24. The threshold wavelength for emit electrons if excited by photons

photoelectric emission from a beyond a threshold. To cross the

material is 5200 𝑨𝑨° . Photoelectrons threshold you would increase:

will be emitted when this material is (a) intensity of light

illuminated wit h monochromatic (b) wavelength of light

radiation from a : (c) frequency of light

(a) 50 watt infrared lamp (d) the voltage applied to light source

(b) 1000 watt infrared lamp 28. The strength of a photoelectric

(c) 1 watt ultraviolet lamp current depends upon:
(d) 1 watt infrared lamp (a) frequency of incident radiation

//110//
 (b) intensity of incident radiation
(c) angle of incident radiation
(d)distance between anode
cathode.
29. Photoelectrons are being obtained
by irradiating zinc by a radiation of
3100 𝑨𝑨̇. In order to increase the
kinetic energy of ejected
photoelectrons:
(a) the intensity of radiation should
be increased
(b)the wavelength of radiation should
be increased.
(c) the wavelength of radiation should
be decreased.
(d) both wavelength and intensity of
radiation should be increased.
30. A photo cell is illuminated by a small
bright source placed 1 m away .
When the same source of light is
placed 0.5m away, the electrons
emitted by the photo cathode would.
(a) increase by a factor of 4
(b) decrease by a factor of 4
(c) decrease by a factor of 2
(d) increase by a factor of 2
31. The frequency and the intensity of a
beam of light falling on the surface
of photoelectric material
increased by a factor of two. This
will.
and (a)increase the maximum kinetic
energy of the photoelectrons, as
well as the photoelectric current by
a factor of two.
(b)increase the maximum kinetic
energy of the photoelectrons and
would increase the photoelectric
current by a factor of two.
(c)increase the maximum kinetic
energy of the photoelectrons by a
factor of two and will have no
effect on the magnitude of the
photoelectric current produced.
(d)not produce any effect on the
kinetic energy of the emitted
electrons but will increase the
photoelectric current by a factor of
two.
32. A photoelectric cell is illuminated by
a point source of light 1 m away. The
plate emits electrons having
stopping potential V. Then:
(a) 𝑉𝑉 decreases as distance increase
(b) V increase as distance increase
(c) V is independent of distance (r)
(d)V becomes zero when distance
increase of decreases
are
//111//
33. In a photoelectric experiment, the 36. The work-function for a metal is
stopping- potential for the incident 3eV. To emit a photoelectron of
light of wavelength 4000 Å is 2 volt. energy 2 eV from the surface of this
If the wavelength be changed to metal, the wavelength of the incident
3000 Å. The stopping – potential will light should be.
be. (a) 6187 Å
(a) 2volt (b) 4125 Å
(b) less than 2 volt (c) 12375 Å
(c) zero (d) 2875Å
(d) more than 2 volt
37. Ultraviolet radiation of 6.2 eV falls
34. In photoelectric effect, the work- on an aluminium surface (work-
function of a metal is 3.5 eV. The funct ion 4.2 eV) . The kinetic energy
emitted electrons can be stopped by (in joule) of the fastest electron
applying a potential of – 𝟏𝟏. 𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐: emitted is approximately :
(a) the energy of the incident photons (a)3 × 10−21 (b) 3 × 10−19
is 4.7 eV
(c) 3 × 10−17 (d) 3 × 10−15
(b) the energy of the incident photons
is 2.3 eV 38. The work-function of a photoelectric
materials is 3.3 eV. Its threshold
(c) if higher-frequency photons be
used, the photoelectric current frequency will be.
will rise (a) 8 × 1014 𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻 (b) 5 × 1033 𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻
(d) When the energy of photons is (c) 8 × 1010 𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻 (d) 4 × 1011 𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻
3.5 eV, the photoelectric current
will be maximum. 39. The work-function of a substance is
4.0 eV. The longest wavelength of
35. Photoelectric cell:
(a) converts electricity into light light that can cause photoelectrons

(b) converts light into electricity emission from the substance is

(c) stores light approximately.

(d) stores electricity (a) 540 nm (b) 400 nm

(c) 310 nm (d) 220 nm

//112//
40. According to Einstein’s (higher than the threshold frequency
photoelectric equation, the graph 𝒗𝒗𝟎𝟎 ) is proportional to:
between the kinetic energy (𝑬𝑬𝒌𝒌 ) of (a) threshold frequency 𝑣𝑣0
photoelectrons ejected and the (b) intensity of light
frequency (v) of incident radiation (c) frequency of light
is: (d) 𝑣𝑣 − 𝑣𝑣0

43. A 0.66 mg ball is moving with a

speed of 100 m/s. The associated
wave length will be (𝒉𝒉 = 𝟔𝟔. 𝟔𝟔 ×
𝟏𝟏𝟎𝟎−𝟑𝟑𝟒𝟒 is
(a) 6.6 × 10−34 𝑚𝑚
(b) 1.0 × 10−29 𝑚𝑚
(c) 1.0 × 10−32 𝑚𝑚
(d) 6.6 × 10−32 𝑚𝑚

44. The de Broglie wavelength of an

41. The work-function of a surface of a
electron accelerated through a p.d. V
photosensitive material is 6.2 eV.
is directly proportional to 𝑽𝑽𝒏𝒏 . Then
The wavelength of incident radiation
n must be equal to 𝒏𝒏 =
for which the stopping potential is
(a) 1 (b) −1
5V lies in.
(c) 0.5 (d) −0.5
(a) ultraviolet region
(b) visible region 45. For a given kinetic energy which of

(c) infrared region the following has smallest de Broglie

(d) X-ray region wavelength.

(a) electron (b) proton
42. The number of photoelectrons
(c) deuteron (d) 𝜶𝜶 −particle
emitted for light of frequency v

***

//113//

FILL IN THE BLANKS
1. Photoelectric effect can
explained by _________ theory of
light.
2. The minimum frequency of incident
light for photoelectric effect is
known as ____
3. Ratio between K.E of photon to
frequency of light is equal to ____
4. The application of photoelectric
effect is _____
5. The energy of a photon is ____
6. Photoelectric effect is an ____
process.
7. Threshold frequency is ____ for
different metals.
8. S.I. Unit of work function is ___
9. Stopping potential depends on ___
of incident light.
10. Photoelectric current depends on
___ of the incident light.
A-II
be 11. The rest mass of photon is always
___
12. Energy of photon = ___ × speed of
light .
13. De-Brogli’s wave length depends on
_______ and _______ of a particle
14. Increasing the work function of a
metal, the K.E. of Photoelectrons
___
15. Wavelength of an electromagnetic
radiations ___ to the wavelength of
its photon.
16. Photons are electrically ____
17. ______ waves can travel faster than
light
18. The frequency of a photon remain
the ___ in different media.
19. Matter waves are associated with
material particles only if they are in
_____.
***
//114//
 A-III
ANSWER IN ONE WORD / SENTENCE
1. What are matter waves ? 6. What is the name given to
frequency below which no
2. What is meant by work function of
photoelectrons are emitted.
a metal
7. Photoelectric effect depicts which
3. What is photoelectric effect ?
nature of light?
4. How does photocurrent very with
8. What is name of a light quanta?
the frequency of incident light ?
9. What is the rest mass of photon?
5. How is stopping potential related to
maximum kinetic energy of 10. Write the relation between do
photoelectrons? Broglie wavelength and momentum
of a particle .

***
SECTION –B
2 MARKS QUESTION

1. What are matter waves. What is its 4. Find de Broglie wavelength of

De-Broglie wavelength ? electrons which are accelerated by
1000V
2. What is meant by wave particle
duality ? 5. Calculate the wavelength of a
photon of energy 10eV .
3. Write Einstein’s photoelectric
equation and justify that there is a 6. The work function of silver is
threshold frequency below which 𝟓𝟓. 𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐 × 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏−𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏 J. Calculate its
photoemission does not occur. threshold wavelength.

//115//
7. Define stopping potential and (i) Intercept on frequency axis
threshold frequency in (ii) Intercept on stopping
photoelectric effect. potential axis
(iii) The slope of the graph
8. Why the wave nature of matter is
not observed in daily life. 11. How does the kinetic energy and
photocurrent change with
9. Write two uses of photocell.
frequency of incident light.
10. Draw graph showing dependence of
12. How does the kinetic energy and
stopping potential on frequency of
photocurrent change with intensity
incident light. In the graph what are
of incident light.
the

***
SECTION –C
LONG QUESTIONS

1. What is photoelectric effect. State 4. In photoelectric effect with the help

the Laws of photoelectric emission of graph explain effect of collector
potential on photocurrent (i) at
2. Write the Einstein photoelectric
different intensities (ii) at different
equation and explain the laws of
frequencies.
photoelectric effect on the basis of
it. 5. What is matter wave ? Write de
Broglie relation. Explain why
3. Describe briefly the experimental
matter wave is not observed for a
set up of photoelectric effect.
body of mass 10kg.
Explain what is stopping potential
and how it changes with frequency
of incident light.

***
//116//
 ANSWERS
A-1

1. d 24. c
2. b 25. b
3. c 26. b
4. a 27. c
5. d 28. b
6. c 29. c
7. a 30. a
8. d 31. a
9. c 32. c
10. a 33. d
11. d 34. a
12. b 35. b
13. b 36. d
14. a 37. b
15. a 38. a
16. d 39. c
17. c 40. d
18. b 41. a
19. d 42. b
20. a 43. b
21. b 44. d
22. a 45. d
23. b

***

//117//
 A-II
Fill in the blanks
1. quantum theory 11. Zero
2. threshold frequency 12. Momentum of photon
3. Planck constant 13. Momentum, kinetic energy
4. Solar cell 14. Decreases
5. Hv 15. Equal
6. Instantaneous 16. Natural
7. Different 17. Matter
8. J 18. Same
9. Frequency 19. Motion
10. Intensity

***
A-III

1. A moving material particle is ⇒ only when 𝑣𝑣 > 𝑣𝑣0 the equation is

associated with a wave called matter meaningful so when 𝑣𝑣 > 𝑣𝑣0 no
wave. emission.

De Broglie wavelength =⋋= 4. ⋋𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 =

12.3 𝐴𝐴°
=
12.3𝐴𝐴°
√𝑣𝑣 √1000
ℎ=𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 𝑘𝑘 ′ 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠
𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 𝑝𝑝 ℎ𝑐𝑐 ℎ𝑐𝑐
5. 𝐸𝐸𝑝𝑝ℎ𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 = ⇒ 𝜆𝜆𝑝𝑝ℎ𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 =
𝜆𝜆 𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸
2. Wave particle duality refers to the fact
that matters and radiation exhibit both ℎ𝑐𝑐 6.6 × 10−34 × 3 × 1068
= =
𝐸𝐸 10 × 1.6 × 10−19
particle and wave characters.
= 1242𝐴𝐴°
1 2
3. 𝑚𝑚𝑣𝑣𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 = ℎ𝑣𝑣 − ℎ𝑣𝑣0 = ℎ(𝑣𝑣 − 𝑣𝑣0 )
2 6. 𝑊𝑊 = 𝜙𝜙0 = 5.26 × 1019 𝐽𝐽.
2
Since m is +ve, 𝑣𝑣𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 is the always ℎ𝑐𝑐
𝜙𝜙0 = ℎ𝑣𝑣0 = = 5.26 × 10−19 J
𝜆𝜆 0
LHS is +ve .

//118//
 ℎ𝑐𝑐 9. (i) solar cell (ii) burglar alarm.
𝜆𝜆0 =
5.26 × 106−19
6.6 × 10−13 × 3 × 108 10.
= = 3764𝐴𝐴°
5.26 × 10−19

7. Stopping potential is the potential

difference applied across the
electrodes of photocell to just stop
11. K.E. ∝ 𝑣𝑣 − 𝑣𝑣0
photo emission.
Photocurrent independent of 𝑣𝑣
Threshold frequency is the minimum
frequency of incident light below 12. K.E. independent of intensity
which no photoemission takes place. photocurrent ∝ intensity.

ℎ ℎ 1
8. 𝜆𝜆𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 = = 𝜆𝜆 ∝ , for large m,
𝑝𝑝 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 𝑚𝑚

𝜆𝜆 is very small.

***

//119//
 CHAPTER TWELVE
ATOMS
A-I
MCQ
1. The nuclear model of atom was 4. If the electron in a hydrogen atom
proposed by jumps from an energy level 𝒏𝒏𝟏𝟏 = 𝟑𝟑
to an orbit with level 𝒏𝒏𝒇𝒇 = 𝟐𝟐, the
(a) J.J. Thomosn
emitted radiation has a wavelength
(b) E. Rutherford given by
36
(c) Niel Bohr (a) 𝜆𝜆 =
5𝑅𝑅
(d) Somerfield 5𝑅𝑅
(b)𝜆𝜆 =
36
2. The ratio of the energies of the 6
(c) 𝜆𝜆 =
𝑅𝑅
hydrogen atom in its first to second 𝑅𝑅
(d) 𝜆𝜆 =
excited state is 6

1
(a) 5. The ratio of the radio of the first
4
three Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom
4
(b)
9 is
1 1
9 (a) 1: :
(c) 2 3
4
(b) 1: 2: 3
(d) 4 (c) 1:4:9

3. The speed of an electron in the orbit (d) 1:8:27

of the hydrogen atom in the ground 6. Which series of hydrogen atom lie
state is : in the infrared region.
(a) c (a) Lyman
𝑐𝑐
(b) (b) Balmer
2
𝑐𝑐
(c) (c) Brackett, Paschen and P fund
10
𝑐𝑐 (d) all the above
(d)
137

//120//
7. The difference in angular 11. According to Bohrs postulates
momentum associated with the which of the following quantities
electron in the two successive orbits take discrete values.
of hydrogen atom is (a) Kinetic energy
ℎ (b) momentum
(a)
𝜋𝜋
ℎ (c) potential energy
(b)
2𝜋𝜋
(d) angular momentum
ℎ
(c)
2
12. Electrons in the atom are held in
ℎ
(d) (𝑛𝑛 − 1)
2𝜋𝜋 the atom by
(a) coulomb forces
8. The ionization potential of
(b) nuclear forces
hydrogen atom is 13.6ev . The
(c) van der waal’s forces
energy required to remove an
(d) Gravitational forces
electron from the second orbit of
hydrogen is 13. The radius of the first Bohr orbit of
(a) 3.4ev electron in hydrogen atom is :
(b) 6.8ev (𝒆𝒆 = 𝟏𝟏. 𝟔𝟔 × 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏−𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏 𝒄𝒄), 𝒎𝒎 = 𝟗𝟗. 𝟏𝟏 ×
(c) 13.6ev 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏−𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑 𝒌𝒌𝒌𝒌 h= 𝟔𝟔. 𝟔𝟔 × 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏−𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑 𝑱𝑱 − 𝒔𝒔)
(d) 27.2ev (a) 5.3Å

9. According to classical theory the (b) .53Å

proposed path of an electron in (c) 53Å

Rutherford atom model will be (d) .53 mm

(a) Circular 14. In which region of electromagnetic

(b) straight line
spectrum does the lyman series of
(c) parabolic
(d) spiral hydrogen atom lie.
(a) Ultraviolet
10. The radius of the atom is of the
(b) infrared
order of
(c) Visible
(a) 10−6 𝑚𝑚 (b) 10−8 𝑚𝑚
(d) x-ray
(c) 10−10 𝑚𝑚 (d) 10−12 𝑚𝑚

//121//
15. The ∝ −ray scattering experiment 19. The energy required to raise an
due to Rutherford electron from first Bohr orbit to
(a) Established the existence of second Bohr orbit in hydrogen atom
nucleus is
(b) Led to the discovery of electrons (a) 3.4𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 (b) −3.4𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒
(c) Explained the hydrogen spectrum (c) −10.2𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 (d) +10.2𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒
(d) Led to the discovery of neutrons. 𝟏𝟏
20. Give = 𝟔𝟔𝟔𝟔𝟔𝟔Å the series limit of
𝑹𝑹
16. The Rydberg constant for an atom Balmer series is
is
(a) 912 Å
8 −1
(a) 1.097 × 10 𝑚𝑚
(b) 3648Å
7 −1
(b) 1.097 × 10 𝑚𝑚
(c) 1824𝐴𝐴°
(c) 1.097 × 106 𝑚𝑚−1
(d) 27.36Å
(d) 1.097 × 105 𝑚𝑚−1
21. In Bohr’s model the atomic radius
17. Atomic hydrogen is excited to the
of first orbit is 𝒓𝒓𝟎𝟎 . Then the radius
nth energy level. The maximum
of the third orbit is
number of spectral lines it can emit
𝑟𝑟0
while returning to the ground state (a) (b) 𝑟𝑟0
9
is (c) 9𝑟𝑟0 (d) 3𝑟𝑟0
1
(a) 𝑛𝑛(𝑛𝑛 − 1) 22. The longest wavelength of Lyman
2
1
(b) 𝑛𝑛(𝑛𝑛 + 1) series is
2

(c) 𝑛𝑛(𝑛𝑛 − 1) (a) 1216Å

(d) 𝑛𝑛(𝑛𝑛 + 1) (b) 1824Å

(c) 6536Å
18. If n is principal quantum number
(d) 8208Å
the energy of hydrogen atom is
13.6𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 23. The series limit of lyman series is
(a)
𝑛𝑛
−13.6𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 (a) 1216𝐴𝐴°
(b)
𝑛𝑛
(b) 1824𝐴𝐴°
13.6𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒
(c) – (c) 6536𝐴𝐴°
𝑛𝑛 2

–𝑛𝑛 2 (d) 912𝐴𝐴°

(d) 𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒
13.6

//122//
24. Paschen series of hydrogen atom is 27. If the electron in a hydrogen atom
observed when electron jumps from jumps from an orbit with level
higher orbit to the orbit of number. 𝒏𝒏𝒊𝒊 = 𝟑𝟑 to an orbit with level
(a) 3 (b) 4 𝒏𝒏𝒇𝒇 = 𝟐𝟐, the frequency of the emitted
(c) 2 (d)5 radiations
36𝑐𝑐 𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶
25. Brackett series of hydrogen atom is (a) 𝑣𝑣 = (b) 𝑣𝑣 =
5𝑅𝑅 6
5𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅 6𝐶𝐶
observed when electron jumps from (c) 𝑣𝑣 = (d) 𝑣𝑣 =
36 𝑅𝑅
higher orbit to the orbit of number.
28. The angular momentum of electron
(a) 3
is nth orbit is given by
(b) 4 m 𝑛𝑛ℎ
(a) nh (b)
2𝜋𝜋
(c) 2
ℎ 𝑛𝑛 2 ℎ
(d)5 (c) (d)
2𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋 2𝜋𝜋

29. As the quantum number increases,

26. What is deduced from the fact that
the difference of energy between
when alpha particles are fired at a
consecutive energy levels.
fine gold leaf it is found that most of
(a) remains the same
them pass through with little or no
(b) decrease
deflection ?
(c) increases
(a) Alpha particles have high
(d) first decreases then increase
penetrating power
(b) Alpha particles are positively 30. The number of times the electron
charged goes round the first bohr orbit of
(c) Gold atoms are nearly all empty hydrogen in one second is
space (a) 6.57 × 105
(d) Alpha particles cause gold atoms (b) 6.57 × 1015
to disintegrate (c) 6.57 × 1010
(d) 6.57 × 1013

***

//123//
 A-II
FILL IN THE BLANKS
1. Rutherford’s model suggest atom 9. In a Bohr orbit the ratio of
should exhibit ____ spectrum magnetic moment and angular
momentum of an electron is _____
2. The lowest energy state of the atom
is also known as ____state 10. The ratio of wavelength of series
limit of Balmer series to that of
3. The time for which an electron can
Lyman-series is ____
remain in the excited state in nearly
____ s. 11. The ratio of largest and shortest
wavelength limits of Lyman series
4. The ratio of kinetic energy of
of H spectrum is ____
electron in nth orbit to the total
energy in that orbit in H-atom is 12. If an electron of a given hydrogen
______. atom goes from energy level
𝒏𝒏 = 𝟑𝟑 𝒕𝒕𝒕𝒕 𝒏𝒏 = 𝟏𝟏, the maximum
5. The minimum energy required to
number of photons emitted is ___.
excite a hydrogen atom from it
ground state is ____ 13. The value of the principal quantum
number n is equal to ____ for the
6. The total energy of an electron in
second excited state.
the atom is always ____
14. The only series of H-atom for which
7. Rutherford’s ∝ −𝒑𝒑𝒑𝒑𝒑𝒑𝒑𝒑𝒑𝒑𝒑𝒑𝒑𝒑𝒑𝒑
the spectral lines lies in the visible
scattering experiment proves the
region is ____ series.
existence of ____ charged nucleus.
15. The potential energy of an electron
8. A classical atom based on ___
is an atom has to be ___than the
model is doomed to collapse.
kinetic energy.

***

//124//
 A-III
ONE WORD ANSWER

1. What was discovered in the 6. What is the kinetic energy of

Rutherford’s ∝ −𝒓𝒓𝒓𝒓𝒓𝒓 scattering electron of H-atom in the ground
experiment? state ?

2. What is the order of the size of an 7. Name a spectral series of H-altom

atom ? that lies in infrared region ?

3. What is the name given to the
amount of energy needed to be
given from outside to bring an
electron from its ground state H-
atom to outside ?
4. What is the ground state energy of
H-atom ?
5. What does electron volt measure ?
8. How does the kinetic energy of an
electron is Bohr atom change on
increasing the radius of the orbit ?
9. How does the potential energy of
stationary Bohr orbit change on
increasing the radius of the orbit ?
10. When an orbital electron of an
atom jumps from a higher orbit to
lower orbit name the particle it
emits.

***

//125//
 SECTION –B
Answer briefly
EACH QUESTION CARRIES 2 MARKS
1. The wavelength of first line of find out the radius of the third
Balmer series of Hydrogen atom in orbit.
6560Å. Find out the wavelength of 7. Compare the shortest wavelengths
the second line of the series. of Brackett and Balmr series of H-
2. Write any two shortcomings of atom.
Bohr’s theory 8. Draw the energy level diagram
3. Write a Bohr postulate which showing Paschen series of H-atom.
depicts quantization of a physical 9. Explain why the Balmer lines are
quantity of electron not usually seen in absorption
4. What was the limitation of spectra of hydrogen atom while
Rutherford model of atom. Lyman lines are seen.
5. Write two salient observation of 10. In hydrogen atom, the electron is
∝ −𝒓𝒓𝒓𝒓𝒓𝒓 scattering experiment. revolving in an orbit of 2.12A°.
6. The radius of electrons’ second What is its angular momentum ?
stationary orbit in Bohr’s atom is r.

***
SECTION –C
LONG QUESTION

1. Describe briefly the ∝ −𝒑𝒑𝒑𝒑𝒑𝒑𝒑𝒑𝒑𝒑𝒑𝒑𝒑𝒑𝒑𝒑 Derive expression for radius and

scattering experiment of total energy of the electron in H-
Rutherford. What is the atom.
significance of the results of the 3. Explain hydrogen spectra using
experiment. Bohr’s theory.
2. State Bohr’s postulates

***

//126//
 ANSWERS
A-I

1. c 16. b
2. c 17. a
3. d 18. c
4. a 19. d
5. c 20. b
6. c 21. c
7. b 22. a
8. a 23. d
9. d 24. a
10. c 25. b
11. d 26. c
12. a 27. c
13. b 28. b
14. a 29. b
15. a 30. b

***
A-II
FILL IN THE BLANKS
1. Continuous 9. e/2m
2. Ground 10. 4:1
3. 10−18 11. 4:3
4. −1 12. 3
5. 10.2ev 13. Three
6. 𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛 14. Balmer
7. Positively 15. More
8. Rutherford’s

//127//
 A-III
ONE WORD ANSWER
1. Nucleus 6. +13.6ev
2. 10−10 𝑚𝑚 7. Paschen / Brackett/ pfund
3. Rydberg 8. Decreases
4. -13.6ev 9. Increases
5. Energy 10. Photon

***
SECTION –B
1 1 1 𝑅𝑅5 (ii) central positive nucleus with most
1. = 𝑅𝑅 � 2 − 2 � =
⋋𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏 1 3 36
mass.
36
⇒ ⋋𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏 1 = = 6461𝐴𝐴°
5𝑅𝑅 6. 𝑟𝑟𝑛𝑛 = 𝑛𝑛2 𝑎𝑎0
1 1 1 3𝑅𝑅 𝑅𝑅
= 𝑅𝑅 � 2 − 2 � = 𝑟𝑟2 = 4𝑎𝑎0 = 9. = 2.25𝑅𝑅
⋋𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏 2𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛 2 4 16 4
16 16 6561 × 5 7.
1 1 1
= 𝑅𝑅 � 2 − � ⋋𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏 =
25
⇒ ⋋𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏 2 = = × ⋋𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏 5 ∞ 𝑅𝑅
3𝑅𝑅 3 36
20 1 1 1 4
= × 6561𝐴𝐴° = 𝑅𝑅 � 2 − � ⋋𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏 =
27 ⋋𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏 2 ∞ 𝑅𝑅
= 4860𝐴𝐴°
⋋𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏 25
2. (i) could not explain fine structure of Ratio = =
⋋𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏 4

spectral line 8. D

(ii) Could not explain splitting of

spectral lines in magnetic field

3. 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 = 𝑛𝑛ℎ/2𝜋𝜋

4. Unstable accelerated electron will lose

energy and will spiral into nucleus.

5. (i) atom is empty

//128//
9. At room temperature practically all corresponding to Balmer lines are not
atoms are in ground state when observed.
external radiation is supplied electron
10. Since 𝑟𝑟𝑛𝑛 = 𝑛𝑛2 𝑟𝑟, 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑟𝑟1 = .53𝐴𝐴°
from n=1 state go to higher state
𝑟𝑟𝑛𝑛 2.12𝐴𝐴°
orbits so radiation corresponding to Here = − 4 ⇒ 𝑛𝑛2 =, 𝑛𝑛 = 2
𝑟𝑟1 .53𝐴𝐴°
Lyman series are absorbed . Only a
negligible fraction of atom are in state So angular momentum of electron in
ℎ
n=2 at room temperature. So radiation 2nd orbit 2.
2𝜋𝜋

***

//129//
 CHAPTER THIRTEEN
NUCLEUS
A-I
MCQ

1. The ‘nucleon’ is the name used for 5. The ratio of the radii of the nuclei
𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏
(a) All light nuclei 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝑨𝑨𝒍𝒍 and 𝟓𝟓𝟐𝟐𝑻𝑻 is approximately
(b) Hydrogen nuclei only (a) 6:10
(c) Neutron only (b) 13:52
(d) Protons and Neutrons both (c) 40:177
(d)14:73
2. The atomic number of a nucleus is
equal to the number of 6. Consider the following nuclear
(a) Electrons it contains reaction
(b) Protons it contains 𝟒𝟒 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏
𝟐𝟐𝑯𝑯𝑯𝑯 + 𝟓𝟓𝑩𝑩 ⟶ 𝟕𝟕𝑵𝑵 + ( )
(c) Neutrons it contains
The particle represented by the
(d) Nucleons it contains
parenthesis is
𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐 (a) Proton
3. The difference between 𝟗𝟗𝟗𝟗𝑼𝑼 and
𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐 (b) Deuteron
𝟗𝟗𝟗𝟗𝑼𝑼 atoms is that
(c) Neutron
(a) 𝑈𝑈 238 contains 3 more protons
(b) 𝑈𝑈 238 contains 3 more protons and (d) Electron
3 more electrons
7. If A is the mass number of a
(c) 𝑈𝑈 238 contains 3 more neutrons and
3 more electrons nucleus then its volume V is found
(d) 𝑈𝑈 238 contains 3 more neutrons to vary as
1

4. In the nucleus of 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏 𝑵𝑵𝑵𝑵 𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐

, the (a) 𝑉𝑉 ∝ 𝐴𝐴3
1
number of protons, neutrons and (b) 𝑉𝑉 ∝ 𝐴𝐴2
electrons is respectively . (c) 𝑉𝑉 ∝ 𝐴𝐴
(a) 11,12,0 (b) 23,12,11 (d) 𝑉𝑉 ∝ 𝐴𝐴3
(c) 12,11,0 (d) 23,11,12

//130//
 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏
8. Of the following atoms 𝟔𝟔𝑪𝑪 , 𝟕𝟕𝑵𝑵 , 12. The nuclei 𝟔𝟔𝑪𝑪 and 𝟕𝟕𝑵𝑵 can be
𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏 𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐
𝟖𝟖𝟖𝟖𝑹𝑹𝒂𝒂 , 𝟕𝟕𝑵𝑵 , 𝟖𝟖𝑶𝑶 , 𝟖𝟖𝟖𝟖𝑹𝑹𝒏𝒏 a pair described as
of isobar is (a) istones
14 13 (b) Isobors
(a) 6𝐶𝐶 , 7𝑁𝑁
13 14 (c) isotopes of carbon
(b) 7𝑁𝑁 , 7𝑁𝑁
14 14 (d) Isotopes of nitrogen.
(c) 6𝐶𝐶 , 7𝑁𝑁
14 16
(d) 6𝐶𝐶 , 8𝑂𝑂 13. Two elements are said to be isobars
if their
𝑪𝑪𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏 𝑵𝑵𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏
9. Of the following atoms 𝟔𝟔 , 𝟕𝟕 , (a) Z- numbers are equal and A-
𝑹𝑹𝒂𝒂𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐 𝑵𝑵𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏 𝑶𝑶𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏 𝑹𝑹𝒏𝒏𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐
𝟖𝟖𝟖𝟖 , 𝟕𝟕 , 𝟖𝟖 , 𝟖𝟖𝟖𝟖 a pair numbers are equal
of istone is (b) Z- numbers are equal but A-
14 13
(a) 6𝐶𝐶 , 7𝑁𝑁 numbers are unequal
13 14
(b) 7𝑁𝑁 , 7𝑁𝑁 (c) Z- numbers are unequal but A-
14 14 numbers are equal
(c) 6𝐶𝐶 , 7𝑁𝑁
14 16 (d) Both Z and A number are unequal
(d) 6𝐶𝐶 , 8𝑂𝑂

𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏 14. Two elements are said to be

10. Of the following atoms 𝟔𝟔𝑪𝑪 , 𝟕𝟕𝑵𝑵 ,
isotopes if their
𝑹𝑹𝒂𝒂𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐 𝑵𝑵𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏 𝑶𝑶𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏 𝑹𝑹𝒏𝒏𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐
𝟖𝟖𝟖𝟖 , 𝟕𝟕 , 𝟖𝟖 , 𝟖𝟖𝟖𝟖 a pair
(a) Both Z and a numbers equal
of isotope is
(b) Z- numbers are equal but A-
𝐶𝐶 14 𝑁𝑁 13
(a) 6 ,7 numbers are unequal
𝑁𝑁 13 𝑁𝑁 14
(b) 7 ,7 (c) Z- numbers are unequal but A-
𝐶𝐶 14 𝑁𝑁 14
(c) 6 ,7 numbers are equal
14 16
(d) 6𝐶𝐶 , 8𝑂𝑂 (d) Both Z and A number are unequal

11. The density of nucleus is of the 15. Isotopes have

order of (a) Same physical and chemical
(a) 103 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘/𝑚𝑚3 properties
(b) 1012 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘/𝑚𝑚3 (b) Different physical and chemical
(c) 1017 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘/𝑚𝑚3 properties
(d) 10627 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘/𝑚𝑚3

//131//
 (c) Same physical but different 19. Neutron was discovered by
chemical properties. (a) Rutherford
(d) Different physical but same (b) Chadwick
chemical properties (c) Hahn and Strassman
(d) Milikan
16. Isobars have
(a) Same physical but different 20. Proton was discovered by
chemical properties. (a) Rutherford
(b) Chadwick
(b) Same chemical but different
(c) Hahn and Strassman
physical properties.
(d) Becquerrel.
(c) Same physical and chemical
𝑨𝑨
properties 21. A nucleus represented by 𝒁𝒁𝑿𝑿 has
(d) Different physical but same (a) Z neutrons and A-Z protons
chemical properties (b) Z protons and (A-Z) neutrons
(c) Z protons and A neutrons
17. Two elements are said to be isotones
(d) A protons and Z-A neutrons
if their
(a) Z and A numbers are equal 22. If the nuclear radius of 𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝑨𝑨𝑨𝑨 is 3.6
(b) Z and A numbers as well as (A-Z) fermi ; the approximate radius of
number are unequal 𝟔𝟔𝟔𝟔𝑪𝑪𝑪𝑪 in fermi is
(c) Z numbers are unequal but A (a) 2.4
numbers are equal (b) 1.2
(d) Z and A numbers are unequal but (c) 4.8
(A-Z) numbers are equal (d) 3.6

18. Which of the following can be 23. The radius of germanium (Ge)
added to the nucleus of an atom nuclide is measured to be twice the
without changing its chemical 𝟗𝟗
radius of 𝑩𝑩𝑩𝑩. The number of
properties. 𝟒𝟒
nucleons in Ge are
(a) electron (b) neutron
(a) 72 (b) 73
(c) positron (d) ∝ − particle
(c) 74 (d) 75

//132//
24. The volume occupied by an atom is 28. If Alpha, Beta, Gamma rays carry
greater than the volume of the some momentum, which has the
nucleus by a factor of about longest wavelength.
(a) 101 (a) Alpha rays
(b) 105 (b) Beta rays
(c) 1010 (c) Gamma Rays
(d) 1015 (d) None all have same wavelength

25. Nuclear fusion in possible 29. If the binding energy per nucleon of
(a) Only between light nuclei a nuclide is high then
(b) Only between heavy nuclei (a) it should be abundantly available
(c) Between both light and heavy in nature
nuclei (b) it will decay instantly
(d) Only between nuclei which are (c) it will have a large disintegration
stable against beta delay constant
(d) it has a small half life
26. Of the following the good
moderator is 𝟔𝟔
30. in the nuclear reaction 𝑪𝑪 ⟶
𝟒𝟒
(a) Cadmium
𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏
𝑵𝑵 + 𝑿𝑿 the particle X is
(b) Graphite 𝟕𝟕
(c) Helium (a) and electron
(d) ordinary water (b) a proton
(c) a neutron
27. The reaction responsible for the
(d) 𝛄𝛄-ray photon
production of light energy from the
sun is 31. One requires an energy 𝑬𝑬𝒏𝒏 to
(a) Fission remove a nucleon from nucleus and
(b) Fusion an Energy Ee to remove an electron
(c) Explosion from an atom. Then
(d) Combustion (a) 𝐸𝐸𝑛𝑛 = 𝐸𝐸𝑒𝑒 (b) 𝐸𝐸𝑛𝑛 > 𝐸𝐸𝑒𝑒
(c) 𝐸𝐸𝑛𝑛 > 𝐸𝐸𝑒𝑒 (d) 𝐸𝐸𝑛𝑛 ≥ 𝐸𝐸𝑒𝑒

//133//
32. The mean binding energy per 36. The binding energy of nucleus is a
nucleon in the nucleus of an atom is measure of its
nearly (a) mass
(a) 8eV (b) stability
(b) 8 Kev (c) charge
(c) 8MeV (d) momentum
(d) 9GeV
37. The antiparticle of electron is
33. One atomic mass unit is the mass of (a) Positron
(a) One atom (b) 𝛼𝛼- Particle
(b) One proton (c) 𝛽𝛽- particle
(c) One neutron (d) Proton
12
(d) One twelfth of mass of 𝐶𝐶 atom 𝑨𝑨
6 38. For a nucleus 𝑿𝑿 if mas deflect is
𝒁𝒁
34. Mass of 1a.m.u is equivalent to ∆𝒎𝒎 then packing fraction is
energy of ∆𝑚𝑚
(a)
𝑍𝑍
(a) 0.931 MeV
∆𝑚𝑚
(b) 9.31 MeV (b)
𝐴𝐴

(c) 931MeV ∆𝑚𝑚

(c)
(d) 93.1 Mev 𝐴𝐴−𝑍𝑍

∆𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚
35. The Binding energy per nucleon is (d)
𝐴𝐴

maximum for
𝑨𝑨
56 39. A radioactive elements 𝑿𝑿 emits
(a) 𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹 𝒁𝒁
26
an 𝜶𝜶- Particle and changes into
92
(b) 𝐾𝐾𝐾𝐾 𝐴𝐴
(a)𝛾𝛾𝑧𝑧−2
36
141 (b) 𝛾𝛾 𝑍𝑍𝐴𝐴−4
(c) 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵
56
𝐴𝐴−4
(c) 𝛾𝛾𝑧𝑧−2
235
(d) 𝑈𝑈
92 𝐴𝐴
(d) 𝛾𝛾𝑧𝑧+2

//134//
40. Gamma rays are 45. The atomic number and mass
(a) Singly ionized gas atoms number of a nucleus remain
(b) Helium nuclei unchanged when it emits.
(c) Fast moving electrons
(a) an alpha particle
(d) Electromagnetic waves
(b) a beta particle
41. Electric and magnetic fields cannot (c) a gamma particle
deflect (d) a neutron
(a) Alpha rays
46. In Beta decay the z-number and A-
(b) Beta rays
number of a decaying nucleus
(c) Gamma rays
changes respectively to
(d) Positrons
(a) Z and A+1
42. Ionising power is maximum for (b) (Z+1) and A
(a) Alpha particle (c) Z and A
(b) Beta particle (d) (Z-1) and A+1
(c) Gamma particle
47. The half life period and mean life
(d) Neutrons
period of a radioactive element are
43. The penetrating power is maximum denoted respectively by Th the Tm.
for Then
(a) Alpha particle (a) 𝑇𝑇ℎ = 𝑇𝑇𝑚𝑚 (b) 𝑇𝑇ℎ < 𝑇𝑇𝑚𝑚
(b) Beta particle (c) 𝑇𝑇ℎ > 𝑇𝑇𝑚𝑚 (d) 𝑇𝑇ℎ ≥ 𝑇𝑇𝑚𝑚
(c) Gamma particle
(d) Positrons 48. The half life of a radioactive radon
is 3.8 days. The time at the end of
44. In a radioactive disintegration beta
which 1/20 th of the radon sample
emission is always accompanied by
will remain undecayed is (given
emission of
𝒍𝒍𝒍𝒍 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏 =. 𝟒𝟒𝟒𝟒𝟒𝟒𝟒𝟒)
(a) gamma particle
(a) 1.6 days
(b) alpha particle
(b) 16.4 days
(c) positron
(c) 20 days
(d) neutron
(d) 3.8 × 20 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑

//135//
49. Half life of Radium is 52. After a time equal to four half lives,
𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏 𝒚𝒚𝒚𝒚𝒚𝒚𝒚𝒚𝒚𝒚. Fraction of sample of the amount of radioactive material
radium that is present after 4800 undecayed is
years is (a) 6.25%
1 1 (b) 12.50%
(a) (b)
8 16
7 15 (c) 25.0%
(c) (d)
8 16
(d) 50.0%
50. When the radioactive isotope
𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐 53. The decay constant of a radioactive
𝑹𝑹𝑹𝑹 decays in series by the
𝟖𝟖𝟖𝟖 element is defined as the reciprocal
emission of 3 alpha particles and a
of the time interval after which the
beta particle, the isotope finally
number of atoms of the radioactive
formed is
element falls to nearly
229
(a) 𝑋𝑋 (a) 50% of its original number
89
(b) 36.8% of its original number
222
(b) 𝑋𝑋 (c) 63.2% of its original number
56
(d) 75% of its Original number
216
(c) 𝑋𝑋
83
54. The activity of a given sample of
215
(d) 𝑋𝑋 radioactive material is reduced to
83
𝟏𝟏
of its initial value in 25 days . The
51. The radioactivity of an element 𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑

𝟏𝟏 half life in days is

becomes 𝒕𝒕𝒕𝒕 of its original value in
𝟔𝟔𝟔𝟔 25
(a)
60 seconds. Then the half life period 32
25
is (b)
4

(a) 5s (c) 5
(b) 10s (d) 10
(c) 20s 𝟑𝟑
55. � �th of a radioactive sample decays
𝟒𝟒
(d) 30s
in 10 days . The half life in days is
(a) 5 (b) 10
20
(c) 15 (d)
3

//136//
56. The number of disintegrations per 58. Half life of a radioactive sample
second of a radioactive sample is depends on
also called (a) Temperature
(a) half life (b) pressure
(c) amount of element present before
(b) mean life
decay
(c) disintegration constant (d) none of the above
(d) activity 𝟒𝟒
59. The equation 𝟒𝟒𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏 𝑯𝑯 ⟶ 𝑯𝑯𝑯𝑯 +
𝟐𝟐
57. The energy released in a typical
𝟐𝟐𝟎𝟎 𝒆𝒆 + 𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐 + 𝒆𝒆𝒆𝒆𝒆𝒆𝒆𝒆𝒆𝒆𝒆𝒆 is an example
fusion reaction is +𝟏𝟏
(a) 50 MeV of
(b) 200 MeV (a) fission
(c) 25 MeV (b) Fusion
(d) 100 MeV (c) 𝛽𝛽 decay
(d) 𝛼𝛼 − 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑

***
A-II

FILL IN THE BLANKS

𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑 4. The yield of 𝑼𝑼𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐 from any natural

1. The number of neutrons in 𝒄𝒄𝒄𝒄 is
𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏
uranium sample is not greater than
______
_________ percent.
𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐 𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐
2. The substances 𝑼𝑼 and 𝑼𝑼
𝟗𝟗𝟗𝟗 𝟗𝟗𝟗𝟗 5. The average energy released per
are _______ 𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐
fission of 𝑼𝑼 is approximately
𝟗𝟗𝟗𝟗
3. The average binding energy per _________ MeV.
nucleon for the nuclei lying in the
6. The size of nucleus varies as
middle of the periodic table is
_________ power of mass numbers
nearly _________

//137//
7. The source of stellar energy is
__________ process.
8. In a nuclear reactor heavy water is
used as _________
9. If M is atomic mass, A is mass
number, then (𝑴𝑴 − 𝑨𝑨)/𝑨𝑨 is called
___________.
10. The more readily fissionable isotope
is uranium has an atomic mass of
___________
11. If the decay constant of
radioactive sample is 𝟐𝟐 × 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏−𝟔𝟔 per
second, the everage life of the
sample is ___________ Sec.
12. If the fraction of total amount of
radioactive element that will decay
ONE WORD ANSWER
1. What is the other name given to
rate of disintegration
2. What constant is rate of integration
per atom.
in 20 hours is 15/16; the half life
period of the element is _______
hrs.
13. In a sample of radioactive element
the number of nucleons initially was
𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏 × 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟔𝟔 . The number of
remaining nucleons after three half
life periods is ____________.
14. Neither mass nor charge of a
nucleus change by the emission of
_____________ ray.
a
15. In 6hrs the activity of a radioactive
substance is reduced from 1024 to
128. Its half life is ____________
hrs.
16. Mean life of a radioactive sample
=__________× half life of sample.
***
A-III
3. What is the decay constant of a
stable element
4. What is the maximum energy of 𝜶𝜶-
paticles.
//138//
5. How does the activity of a 8. Which energy is 𝟗𝟗𝟗𝟗𝟗𝟗 × ∆𝒎𝒎 MeV
radioactive substance change with where ∆𝒎𝒎 is mass defect in amu?
time ?
9. In which reaction a heavy nuclei is
6. Which is heavier a neutron or a split into two lighter ones.
proton
10. Name a uncontrolled chain
7. Name a short range force reaction.

***
SECTION -B
2 MARKS EACH QUESTION

1. States the reason why heavy water 7. Why is the ionizing power of 𝜶𝜶-
is generally used as moderator in a particles greater than that of 𝒓𝒓
nuclear reactor. rays.

2. State two properties of nuclear 8. A nucleus X initially at rest

force undergoes alpha decay according
to the equation .
3. Two nuclei have mass numbers in
the ratio of 1:2 what is the ratio of 𝑨𝑨 𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐
𝑿𝑿 ⟶ 𝒀𝒀 + 𝜶𝜶
their nuclear densities. 𝟗𝟗𝟗𝟗 𝒁𝒁

Find the values of A and Z

4. Two nuclei have mass numbers in
the ratio 1:8 What is the ratio of 9. There are 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟔𝟔 radioactive nuclei is
their nuclear radii ? given sample its half life is 20s .
How many nuclei will remain after
5. Two nuclei have mass number in
10s.
the ratio of 27:125. What is the
ratio of their nuclear radii. 10. The half life of radium is 1600yrs.
What fraction of a sample of
6. Define the activity of a given
radium will be disintegrated after
radioactive substance. Write its SI
6400 yrs.
unit.

***

//139//
 SECTION –C
LONG QUESTION

1. Draw the Binding Energy curve 5. What is a nuclear reactor ?

and describe its salient features. Briefly explain the nuclear
reaction involved.
2. Distinguish between controlled
and uncontrolled chain reaction 6. State the laws of radioactivity.
giving example.
Define half life, mean life and
3. How is energy generated in sun? decay constant Establish relation
between the three.
4. State four important properties
of (i) 𝜶𝜶 − 𝒓𝒓𝒓𝒓𝒓𝒓𝒓𝒓 (ii) 𝜷𝜷 rays (iii)
𝒓𝒓 𝒓𝒓𝒓𝒓𝒓𝒓𝒓𝒓

***

//140//
 ANSWERS
A-I

1. d 31. c
2. b 32. c
3. d 33. d
4. a 34. c
5. a 35. a
6. c 36. b
7. c 37. a
8. c 38. b
9. d 39. c
10. b 40. d
11. c 41. c
12. a 42. a
13. c 43. c
14. b 44. a
15. d 45. c
16. a 46. b
17. d 47. b
18. b 48. b
19. b 49. a
20. a 50. c
21. b 51. b
22. c 52. a
23. a 53. b
24. d 54. c
25. a 55. a
26. b 56. d
27. b 57. c
28. d 58. d
29. a 59. b
30. a
***

//141//
 A-II
FILL IN THE BLANKS

1. 20 10. 235
2. Isotopes 11. 5 × 105
3. 8.5 MeV 12. 5
4. 0.7 13. 2 × 106
5. 200 14. Gamma
1
6. 15. 2
3

7. Fusion 16. 1.44

8. Moderator
9. Packing fraction

***
A-III

1- Activity 6- Neutron
2- Decay 7- Nuclear / weak
3- Zero 8- Binding
4- 11 MeV 9- Fission
5- Decreases 10- Fusion

***
SECTION –B

1. Neutrons produced during fisson get moderator. But it absorbs neutrons at

slowed down if they collide with a fast rate via reaction.
nucleus of same mass. As ordinary
𝑛𝑛 + 𝑝𝑝 ⟶d+r
water contains hydrogen atoms
Whose mass nearly equal to that of D is deuteron . To overcome this
neutrons. Os it can be used as difficulty heavy water is used which

//142//
 has negligible cross section for 6. rate of disintegrations Becquerel.
neutron absorption.
7. Because 𝛼𝛼 −particles are heavy
2. Any two pros – (i) charge particles and their sped is
independent (ii) attractive, short range comparatively small, so they collide
(iii) strongest force, saturated forces. more frequently with atoms of the
medium and ionize them.
3. Nuclear density
4
𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 8. 𝛼𝛼 is 𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻 so A = 228+4=232 mass no.
𝑓𝑓 = = 2
𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉 4 3
𝜋𝜋𝑅𝑅 conservation
3

𝑚𝑚 = 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑎𝑎 𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛 𝑍𝑍 = 92 − 2 = 90 charge conservation

𝐴𝐴 = 𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁. 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛 9. No. of nuclei left after n half lives in

1
𝑁𝑁 = 𝑁𝑁0 .
𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 1 2𝑛𝑛
= �𝑅𝑅 = 𝑅𝑅0 𝐴𝐴3 �
4 3
𝜋𝜋𝑅𝑅 𝐴𝐴 𝑁𝑁0 =intial numbrs
3 0
𝑚𝑚 Here number of half lifes = 𝑛𝑛 =
10
=
= 20
4 3
𝜋𝜋𝑅𝑅
3 0 1
and 𝑁𝑁0 = 106
2

𝑓𝑓 is independent of A (mass numbers)

1 6
106
so ratios of density will be 1:1 𝑁𝑁 = 𝑉𝑉 × 10 = = 7 × 105
2 2
√2
1
4. 𝑅𝑅 = 𝑅𝑅0 𝐴𝐴3 10. The no. of half lives :
6400
=4
1600
1 1
𝑅𝑅1 : 𝑅𝑅2 = �𝑅𝑅0 13 � ∶ 𝑅𝑅0 83 = 1: 2 𝑁𝑁 1 𝑛𝑛 1 4 1
Then =� � =� � =
𝑁𝑁0 2 2 16
1 1
𝑅𝑅1 𝐴𝐴1 3 27 3 3
5. =� � =� � = ratio is 3:5 Fraction of atom disintegrated =
𝑅𝑅2 𝐴𝐴2 125 5
1 15
1− =
16 16

***

//143//
 CHAPTER FOURTEEN
(SEMICONDUCTOR ELECTRONICS)
SECTION –A
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQ)
1. In a semiconductor 5. The impurity atoms with which pure
(a)there are no free electrons at 0 K silicon may be doped to make it a p-

(b)there are no free electrons at any type semiconductor are those of

temperature (a) phosphorus

(c)the number of free electrons (b) boron

increases with pressure (c) antimony

(d)the number of free electrons is more (d) nitrogen

than that in a conductor
6. The electrical conductivity of pure
2. Let nh and ne be the number of holes
germanium can be increased by
and conduction electrons in an
intrinsic semiconductor. Then (a) increasing the temperature
(b) doping acceptor impurities
(a) nh > ne (b) nh = ne
(c) doping donor impurities
(c) nh < ne (d) nh ≠ ne
(d) All of the above
3. A n-type semiconductor is
7. The resistivity of a semiconductor at
(a) positively charged
room temperature is in between
(b) negatively charged
(a) 10−2 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡10−5 Ω 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐
(c) uncharged
(b) 10−3 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 106 Ω 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐
(d)uncharged at OK but charged at
(c) 106 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 108 Ω 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐
higher temperatures
(d) 1010 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 1012 Ω 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐
4. Electric conduction in a
8. Number of electrons in the valence
semiconductor takes place due to
shell of a pure semiconductor is
(a) electrons only
(b) holes only (a)1 (b)2
(c) both electrons and holes (c)3 (d)4
(d) neither electrons nor holes

//144//
9. In a semiconductor, the forbidden 13.Temperature coefficient of resistance
energy gap between the valence band of semiconductor is
and the conduction band is of the
(a) zero
order of
(b) constant
(a) 1 MeV
(c) positive
(b) 0.1 Mev .
(d) negative
(c) 1 eV
(d) 5 eV 14.In a p-type semiconductor, the
acceptor valence band is
10.The forbidden energy gap for
germanium crystal at 0 K is (a) close to the valence band of the
(a) 0.071 eV. host crystal
(b) 0.71 eV (b) close to conduction band of the
(c) 2.57 eV host crystal
(d) 6.57 eV (c) below the conduction band of the
host crystal
11.In an insulator, the forbidden energy
(d) above the conduction band of the
gap between the valence band and
host crystal
conduction band is of the order of
(a) 1 MeV 15. In an n-type semiconductor, donor
valence band is
(b) 0.1 MeV
(c) 1 eV (a) above the conduction band of the
(d) 5 eV host crystal
(b) close to the valence band of the
12. What is the resistivity of a pure
host crystal
semiconductor at absolute zero ?
(c) close to the conduction band of the
(a) Zero
host crystal
(b) Infinity
(d) below the valence band of the host
(c) Same as that of conductors at room
crystal
temperature
(d) Same as that of insulators at room
temperature

//145//
16. The PIV of a full wave rectifiex 20.One serious drawback of semi-
whose input is 𝑬𝑬𝟎𝟎 𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔 𝝎𝝎𝝎𝝎 conductor devices is
𝐸𝐸0 (a)they do not last for long time.
(a)
√2
(b)they are costly
(b) 𝐸𝐸0
(c)they cannot be used with high
(c) √2 𝐸𝐸0
voltage.
(d) 2𝐸𝐸0
(d)they pollute the environment.
17. P type semiconductor is obtained by
21. When an impurity is doped into an
doping silicon with intrinsic semiconductor, the
(a) Indium conductivity of the semiconductor
(b) Arsenic (a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) Gold
(c) remains the same
(d) Silver (d) becomes zero

18. In semiconductors, at room 22. The resistance of the p-n junction

temperature diode with forward biasing few
(a) the conduction band is completely (a) nano ohms
empty (b) ohm
(b) the valence band is partially (c) kilo-ohm
empty and the conduction band is (d) meg ohm
partially filled
23.If a small amount of antimony is
(c) the valence band is completely
added to germanium crystal
filled and the conduction band is
(a) it becomes a p-type semiconductor
partially filled
(b) the antimony becomes an acceptor
(d) the valence band is completely
atom
filled
(c) there will be more free electrons
19. At absolute zero, Si acts as than holes in the semiconductor
(a) non-metal (d) its -resistance is increased
(b) metal
(c) insulator
(d) None of these

//146//
24.By increasing the temperature, the
specific resistance of a conductor
and a semiconductor
(a) increases for both
(b) decreases for both
(c) increases, decreases
(d) decreases, increases
25.A strip of copper and another of
germanium are cooled from room
temperature to 80K. The resistance
of
(a) each of these decreases
(b) copper strip increases and that of
germanium decreases
(c) copper strip decreases and that of
germanium increases
(d) each of these increases
26. The resistance of 𝒑𝒑 − 𝒏𝒏 junction
diode with reverse biasing is of the
order of
(a) nano ohms
(b) ohm
(c) kilo-ohm
(d) meg ohm
27. A semiconductor device is connected
in a series -circuit with a battery
and a resistance. A current is found
to pass through the circuit. If the
polarity of the battery is reversed,
//147//
the current drops to almost zero.
The device may be a/an
(a) intrinsic semiconductor
(b) p-type semiconductor
(c) n-type semiconductor
(d) p-n junction diode
28. If the two ends of a p-n junction are
joined by a wire
(a) there will not be a steady current in
the circuit
(b) there will be a steady current from
the n-side to the p side
(c) there will be a steady current from
the p-side to the n side
(d) there may or may not be a current
depending upon the resistance of
the connecting wire
29. The magnitude of potential barrier
for Ge diode is
(a) 0.7V
(b) 0.1V
(c) 0.3.V
(d) 0.6V
30.The value of 𝜶𝜶
(a) is always less than 1
(b) is always greater than 1
(c) may be less or greater than 1
(d) None of the above.
31. In a transistor the value of 𝜷𝜷 is 100. 35. For the transistor to act properly
The value of 𝜶𝜶 is the emitter and collector junctions
(a) .01 have to be biased respectively as
(b) 0.1 (a) ‘forward’ and ‘forward’
(c) 0.99 (b) ‘reverse’ and reverse
(d) 1 (c) ‘forward’ and reverse
(d) ‘reverse’ and ‘forward’
32. A transistor 𝒏𝒏𝒏𝒏𝒏𝒏 or 𝒑𝒑𝒑𝒑𝒑𝒑 cannot be
used as 36.Reverse bias applied to a junction
(a) a rectifier diode
(b) amplifier (a)increases the minority carrier
(c) modulator current
(d) oscillator (b) lowers the potential barrier
(c) raises the potential barrier
33. The correct relation between ‘𝜶𝜶’
(d)increases the majority carrier
and ‘𝜷𝜷’ in a transistor is
current
𝛽𝛽
(a) 𝛼𝛼 =
1−𝛽𝛽
37.In forward biasing of the p-n
𝛽𝛽
(b) 𝛼𝛼 =
1+𝛽𝛽 junction
1−𝛽𝛽
(c) 𝛼𝛼 = (a) the positive terminal of the battery
𝛽𝛽
1+𝛽𝛽
is connected to p-side and the
(d) 𝛼𝛼 =
1−𝛽𝛽 depletion region becomes thick

34. The phase difference between input (b) the positive terminal of the battery

voltage and output is connected to n-side and the

𝜋𝜋 depletion region becomes thin
(a)
2
(c) the positive terminal of the battery
(b)𝜋𝜋
is connected to n-side and the
3𝜋𝜋
(c)
2 depletion region becomes thick
(d) 2𝜋𝜋 (d) the positive terminal of the battery
is connected to p-side and the
depletion region becomes thin

//148//
38. When p-n junction diode is forward
biased then
(a)both the depletion region and
barrier height are reduced
(b)the depletion region is widened
and barrier height is reduced
(c) the depletion region is reduced and
42. Centre tapped fullwave rectifier
barrier height is increased
(d)both the depletion region and
41. In the middle of the depletion layer
of a reverse- biased p-n junction, the
(a) electric field is zero
(b) potential is maximum
(c) electric field is maximum
(d) potential is zero
uses
(a) four diodes (b) six diodes

barrier height are increased (c) two diodes (d) one diode

39.The cause of the potential barrier in 43.The average value of output direct

a p-n junction diode is current in a half wave rectifier is

(a) depletion of positive charges near (a)

the junction (b)

(b) concentration of positive charges (c)

near the junction (d)

(c) depletion of negative charges near 44.The average value of output direct

the junction current in a full wave rectifier is

(d)concentration of positive and (a)

negative charges near the junction (b)

(c)
40.The ratio of forward biased to
(d)
reverse biased resistance for p-n
45. In a half wave rectifier, the r.m.s.
junction diode is value of the a.c. component of the
(a) 10-1:1 wave is
(a) equal to d.c. value
(b) 10-2:1
(b) more than d.c. value
(c) 104 : 1 (c) less than d.c. value
(d) 10-4 : 1 (d) zero

***

//149//
 A-II
FILL IN THE BLANKS
1. A single junction diode is used in 12. The output current in a full wave
_______wave rectifier circuit. rectifier is _____dc.

2. The minority charge carries in 𝒑𝒑 13. All logic gates have _____output.
type semiconductors are _____.
14. For_______ gate all the inputs have
3. The reception is noisy in case of to be 1 to get 1 as output.
_____ modulation .
15. In ______ gate the logic operation is
4. Space waves propagate that of addition .
through_____.
16. _____ is a universal gate.
5. The carrier to transmit video signal
17. The majority charge carriers in 𝒑𝒑
in TV is ____ modulated.
type semiconductor is_____.
6. The highest energy level occupied by
18. The ripple factor of a full wave
an electron at zero Kelvin is called
rectifier is _____
____.
19. The maximum rectification
7. The conductivity of intrinsic
efficiency of a half wave rectifier is
semiconductors____ with increases
_____
in temperature .
20. The valency of an impurity element
8. Electron vacancies are called____
added to germanium crystal to
9. In any circuit using NPN transistor prepare one n-type semiconductor is
the emitter junction is ____ biased. ____.

10. In most circuits using NPN
transistor the collector junction is
_____ biased.
11. The output of a _____ wave rectifier
contains more a.c. than d.c.
21. A_____ circuit is designed to convert
ac to unidirectional current.
22. _____ gate has only one input.
23. The emitter of a bipolar transistor is
_______ doped.

***

//150//
 A-III
WRITE THE ANSWER IN ONE WORD/SENTENCE :
1. How does the energy gap in the
intrinsic semiconductor varies on
introducing a penta valent impurity
in it?
2. Whose drift velocity is greater holes
or electrons.
3. On increasing the reverse bias in P -
N junction diode how does the
width of depletion layer vary?
4. In which bias the resistance of P - N
junction diode is very high?
5. A transistor is used as an amplifier
in common emitter mode rather
that in common base mode why?

***
SECTION-B
2 MARKS EACH QUESTION
1. What do you understand by 6. What is difference between
intrinsic and extrinsic transformer and transistor?
semiconductors?
7. Draw symbol of NAND and NOR
2. Calculate the reverse resistance of a gate.
junction diode for which the reverse
8. What is Universal gate? Why they
current increase from 𝟐𝟐𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎 to
are called so ?
𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏 when the reverse voltage is
increases from 2V to 10V. 9. Write down the truth tables of 2
input NAND and NOR gates.
3. Explain the meaning of word
“Transistor”. 10. Draw the circuit diagram of half
wave rectifier.
4. Why the base is designed thin in
comparison to emitter and collector 11. What is meant by valence band and
in a transistor'? conduction band.

5. Draw symbols of P - N - P and N -- 12. What is doping? Why it is

P - N transistors. necessary?

//151//
13. What is meant by forbidden energy
gap and Fermi level.
14. Explain the following terms with
reference to a P - N junction :
1. Depletion layer
a. 2.Potential barrier.
15. What is P - N diode? Explain the
formation of depletion layer in it.
16. In a P - N junction diode if the
potential is changed by 0.12 volt
then current changes by 1 .5 mA.
Find out dynamic resistance of
diode.
17. The current gain of a transistor in
CB mode is 0.987. What will be its
current gain in CE mode?
18. Mention two advantages of full
wave rectifier in comparison to a
half wave rectifier.
19. For a transistor 𝜷𝜷 = 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏. 𝑰𝑰𝒃𝒃 =
𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏. Find
(i) 𝑰𝑰𝑪𝑪 and (ii) 𝑰𝑰𝒆𝒆
20. Write down the Truth tables of
2input OR and AND gates.
21. Draw the output characteristics of a
npn tranistor in CE connection.

***
SECTION-C
LONG QUESTION
1. With a neat circuit diagram explain of a npn transistor in common
V-I characteristic of a PN junction emitter configuration.
diode.
3. With a neat circuit diagram explain
2. With a neat circuit diagram explain the working of a centre tapped full
the input and output characteristics wave rectified using 𝒑𝒑𝒑𝒑 junction
diodes.

***

//152//
 ANSWER KEY

SECTION –A
A-I
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQ)
1. a 24. c
2. b 25. c
3. c 26. c
4. c 27. d
5. b 28. a
6. d 29. c
7. b 30. a
8. d 31. c
9. c 32. a
10. b 33. b
11. d 34. b
12. b 35. c
13. d 36. c
14. a 37. d
15. c 38. a
16. d 39. d
17. a 40. d
18. b 41. c
19. c 42. a
20. c 43. a
21. a 44. d
22. b 45. b
23. c

***

//153//
 A-II
FILL IN THE BLANKS
1. half 13. one
2. electrons 14. and
3. amplitude 15. or
4. troposphere 16. nand or nor
5. amplitude 17. holes
6. fermi 18. 0.48
7. increase 19. 40.6%
8. holes 20. 5
9. forward 21. rectifier
10. reverse 22. not
11. half 23. heavily
12. pulsating

***

A-III

ONE WORD
1. The energy gap decreases 4. Reverse bias
2. The drift velocity of electrons is great 5. Because in common emitter amplifier
than that of holes the voltage gain and power gain is
3. The width of depletion layer increases. more

***

//154//
 SECTION-B
2 MARKS
1. Intrinsic semiconductors; charge carriers more from emitter to
collector.
Pure semiconductors are called
intrinsic semiconductors example 5. P-N_P Transistor N-P-N Transistor
germanium and silicon. The number of
electrons and holes are equal in it.

Extrinsic semiconductors

The semiconductors containing

6. The transformer changes alternating
impurities of pentabvalent of trivalent
voltage but the power remains same.
substances are called extrinsic
Amplifier increases power of
semiconductors. The electron density
alternating voltage.
is not equal to hole density
7.
(10—2)𝑉𝑉 8
2. 𝑟𝑟 = (100−20)𝜇𝜇𝜇𝜇 = × 106 ohm =
10

105 ohm

3. Transistor is short form of

transformation of resistance. The low Symbol of NAND gate
resistance of forward biased function is
transformed to high resistance of
reverse biased junction. Therefore it is
called as transistor.
Symbol of NOR gate
4. A thin and lightly doped base region
will contain a smaller number of 8. Nor and NAND gates are called as
majority charge carriers. This will universal gates because by the
reduce the recombination rate of combination of these gates other gates
electrons and holes when majority can be formed.

//155//
9. NAND 𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶 − energy band next to VB lowest
unfilled band.
Input Output
12. The process of introducing the
A B A (NAND) B impurities in a pure semiconductor is
0 0 1 called doping To from N- type and P-
0 1 1 type semiconductors dopping is
1 0 1 necessary.
1 1 0
13. The region between VB & CB which
is devoid of permissible energy level.
NOR
14. 1. Uncovered charge. The positive

Input Output immobile ions present on N- region

and negative immobile ions

A B A (NOR) B present in P –region near the

0 0 1 junction are called uncovered

0 1 0 charge.

1 0 0 2. Depletion layer : The layer on

1 1 0 either side of P-N Junction which
does not contain any charge carrier

10. (neither positive charge carrier nor

negative charge carrier) is called
depletion layer

2. Potential barrier : The potential

difference developed across the
11. 𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉 − group of energy levels of depletion layer is called the
valence electrons forming the potential barrier.
band.
15. When P- type semiconductor by
some special techniques as etching or

//156//
 sandwiching, then the junction formed 𝐼𝐼𝑐𝑐
𝛽𝛽 = → 𝐼𝐼𝑐𝑐 = 𝛽𝛽𝐼𝐼𝐵𝐵 = 100 × 100𝜇𝜇𝜇𝜇
is called P-N diode. Hence it is called 𝐼𝐼𝑏𝑏

P-N junction diode. When P-N = 10−2 𝐴𝐴

junction diode is made, then free 𝐼𝐼𝑐𝑐 10−2 𝐴𝐴

𝐼𝐼𝑒𝑒 = = × 101 = 1.01 × 10−2 𝐴𝐴
electrons present in N- type get 𝛼𝛼 100
diffused across the boundary into P-
20. OR gate
type and few number of holes diffuse
into N- type from P-type. Thus a thin Input Output
A B
film (less than 103 cm) at the junction
0 0 0
becomes free from holes and 0 1 1
electrons. This thin film is called 1 0 1
depletion layer. 1 1 1

16. Given : ∆𝑉𝑉 = 0.12 𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣. ∆ 𝐼𝐼 =

AND gate
1.5𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 = 1.5 × 10−3 𝐴𝐴
Input Output
Formula : 𝑟𝑟𝑑𝑑 = ∆𝑉𝑉∆𝑑𝑑 A B
0 0 0
Or 𝑟𝑟𝑑𝑑 = 0.121 5 × 10−3 0 1 0
1 0 0
= 0.121.5 × 103 = 80 𝑜𝑜ℎ𝑚𝑚
1 1 1
17. Given : 𝛼𝛼 = 0.987
21.
Formula :𝛽𝛽 = 𝛼𝛼1 − 𝛼𝛼

𝛽𝛽 = 0.9871 − 0.987 = 75.93

18. More efficiency

Ripple is low.

𝛽𝛽 100
19. 𝛼𝛼 = =
𝛽𝛽 +1 101

//157//
 CHAPTER FIFTEEN
(COMMUNICATION SYSTEM)
SECTION –A
A-I
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQ)
1. The waves that propagate through 4. The frequency range used for T.V.
troposphere is transmission is
(a) ground waves (a) 30-300 MHz
(b) Space wave (b) 30-300 GHz
(c) sky wave (c) 30-300 KHz
(d) around waves. (d) 30-300 Hz

2. Sound wave are not directly 5. The periodic time of communication

transmitted after converting them satellite is
into electric signals because . (a) 1year
(a)They propagates with speed of (b) 1 day
sound (c) 12 hours
(b)Their frequency does not remain (d) 12 minuets
constant
6. T.V. Signals are reflected by
(c)For their transmission very high
(a) Mesosphere
antenna is needed.
(b) Ionosphere
(d)Their energy is very high
(c) Troposphere
3. The superimposing of audio waves (d) None of the above
with carrier wave is called.
7. The short wave band of radio waves
(a) Transmission
are transmitted through
(b) Reception
(a) Sky wave propagation
(c) Modulation
(b) Ground wave propagation
(d) Defection
(c) Artificial satellite

//158//
 (d) Direct sending from transmitter to 12. The bandwidth in AM transmission
receiver. is
(a) 5 KHz
8. The size of the antenna is of the
(b) 100 KHz
order of
(c) 1 MHz
(a) 𝜆𝜆
(d) 10KHz
(b) 10𝜆𝜆
(c) 102 𝜆𝜆 13. Satellite communication takes place
(d) 10−2 𝜆𝜆 in frequency range
(a) 5 KHz to 1500 KHz
9. The audio carrier in case of TV
(b) 340 khz to 440 KHz
transmission is
(c) 2000khz to 2500 KHz
(a) AM
(d) above 2500 KHz
(b) FM
(c) Phase modulated 14. The waves which get reflected from
(d) Not modulated ionosphere is
(a) ground wave
10. The frequency range of sky waves is
(b) sky wave
(a) 1 to 2 MHz
(c) space wave
(b) 2 to 30 MHz
(d) line of sight waves
(c) 3 to 30 MHz
(d) 30 to 300 Hz 15. In case of TV communication video
signal is
11. The height of a geostationary
(a) Frequency modulated
satellite is
(a) 300 km (b) Amplitude Modulated
(b) 6400km (c) Phase modulated
(c) 36000km (d) Not modulated
(d) 42400km

***
//159//
 A- II
FILL IN THE BLANKS
1. The range of audio signals is ______ 7. Satellite communication takes place
in the in the frequency band of
2. The frequency of carrier waves is of
______ to ______
order of _________
8. Carrier waves are wave of _____
3. The order of frequency of radio
frequency
waves which can be transmitted by
total internal reflection through 9. In terms of wavelength 𝝀𝝀, the
ionosphere is ____________ minimum size of antenna is______-

4. The band width of AM waves is 10. The reception is noisy in case of

_________ _____ modulation

5. The band width of FM transmission 11. _____ modulation is preferred for

_____________ high fidelity radio reception.

6. Channel width of TV broadcast is 12. The operating frequency of

____________ communication satellites lies in the
__________region of e.m. spectrum.

***
A-III
WRITE THE ANSWER IN ONE WORD/ SENTENCE
1. What is modulation ? 5. Define critical frequency for sky
waves.
2. Define modulation index in AM.
6. What is skip distance
3. Define modulation index in FM.
7. Give are reason for necessity of
4. What type of modulation is used in
modulation.
audio and video transmission of TV
signals.

***

//160//
 SECTION-B
COMMUNICATION SYSTEM VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTION :
2 MARKS EACH

1. What is importance of modulation 6. Write any two reasons for necessity

index? of modulation

2. Which device is used to transmit the 7. Distinguish between sky wave

T.V. signals upto long distances ? propagation and space wave
propagation.
3. What is modulation ?
8. Differentiate AM and FM (Any two
4. F.M signals are less sensitive as
points)
compared to AM signals. Why ?
9. What is the role of satellite in
5. Write limitation of frequency
communication?
modulation.

***

SECTION – C
LONG QUESTION
1. What is modulation ? Explain need 3. What are limitations of amplitude
of modulation modulation ?

2. Explain AM and FM. 4. Write advantage and disadvantage

of frequency modulation ?

//161//
 ANSWER KEY
SECTION –A
A-I
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQ)
1. b 9. b
2. c 10. c
3. c 11. c
4. a 12. d
5. b 13. a
6. d 14. b
7. a 15. b
8. a

***
A-II
FILL IN THE BLANKS
1. 20Hz to 20000 Hz 7. 3.7GHz to 6.5GHz
2. MHZ 8. High
3. 30-300MHz 9. 𝜆𝜆/4
4. 10kHz 10. Amplitude
5. 200 kHz 11. Frequency
6. 6MHz 12. Microwave

***

//162//
 A-III
WRITE THE ANSWER IN ONE WORD / SENTENCES
1. 6
2 7
3 8
4 9
5 10

***

SECTION-B
2 MARKS QUESTIONS

1. The modulation index determines the form of variation (change) in

strength and quality of the transmitted frequency in the AM the noise get
signals if the modulation index is amplitude modulated. Hence the
small the amount of variation in the amplitude carrier wave varies . That is
carrier amplitude will be small. why the FM signals are less sensitive
as compared to AM signals.
2. Communication satellites are used
transmit the T.V signals upto long 5. 1. Area of reception of FM is much
distances. smaller.

3. Modulation is process in which the 2. About 10 times wider channel is

signal of low frequency (audio signals) required by FM.
are superimposed over a signal of high
3. FM receives and transmitters are
frequency (carrier signals)
very complex and costly.
4. In FM transmission the information
(message) in the carrier waves is in the

***

//163//
 SECTION-C
LONG QUESTIONS ANSWER:
1. Modulation
Modulation is a process in which the
signal of low frequency (audio signals)
superimposed over a signals of high
frequency (carrier signal) . Such that
same properties of carrier wave like
amplitude frequency or phase varies in
accordance with the instantaneous value
of audio signals.
Need of Modulation
Modulation is necessary for a low
frequency signal when it is to be sent to
2. The equation of carrier wave is given
a distant place so that the information
may not die out in the way itself as well
as for proper identification of a signal
and to keep the height of antenna small
also.
For the transmission of electromagnetic
waves the length of antenna should be
of order of wavelength of the
transmitted waves. Since, 𝜆𝜆 = 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐
therefore the required length of antenna
for the audible range should be equal to
3 × 10820,000 = 1.5 × 104 𝑚𝑚 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 3 ×
10820 = 1.5 × 107 .
This length of antenna is not possible in
practical. Now if the waves of 300kHz
or more than it are to be transmitted
then the required length of antenna will
be 3 × 1083,00,000 = 100 𝑚𝑚 or less
than it. The antenna of the size can be
constructed easily. Hence to transmit
the audio signals they are superimposed
with the radio waves of frequency of
order of Mega Hertz. These waves are
called carrier waves and this process is
called modualtin.
as
𝑒𝑒𝑐𝑐 = 𝐸𝐸𝑐𝑐 𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶 (𝜔𝜔𝑒𝑒 𝑡𝑡 + 𝜃𝜃)
Where 𝑒𝑒𝑐𝑐 is instantaneous value of
carrier signal. 𝐸𝐸𝑐𝑐 is amplitude of
carrier wave. 𝜔𝜔𝑒𝑒 is angular frequency
and 𝜃𝜃 is phase angle. Thus , there are
three types of modulation
corresponding to 𝐸𝐸𝑐𝑐 𝑚𝑚𝑒𝑒 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝜃𝜃.
1. Amplitude modulation
When an audio frequency
(modulating) signal is
superimposed that the amplitude of
modulated wave is liner function of

//164//
 instantaneous value of modulating 3. In Amplitude modulation the
signal, then this type of modulation fidelity of reception is less.
is called as amplitude modulation.
The range of audio signal is20 Hz
2. Frequency modulation to20 kHz . Hence the bandwidth
must be 40 kHz. But the
Frequency modulation is that
disturbance created by the nearby
modulation in which the frequency
radio station should be taken into
of carrier wave varies in
account and hence the bandwidth
accordance with the instantaneous
is kept only of about 20 kHz.
value of modulating signal. In this
modulation the amplitude and 4. It s transmission range is low. Due
phase of modulating signals are to less power it is not possible to
equal to that of carrier. Wave. transmit the signals up to long
distance inspite of these
3. The information (disadvantages) of
limitations the AM is mostly used
amplitude modulation are as follows.
for the transmission of audio
1. Efficiency of Amplitude signals.
modulation is smaller.
4. Advantages
An modulation the message
1. Frequency modulation is
signals are contained in side
inherently and practically free
bands, but not contained in the
from the effects of noise
carrier wave. It is found that in
amplitude modulation only one 2. In frequency modulation, noise
third power is contained inside can further be decreased by
bands. Remaining power is increasing the diviation8
contained in carrier wave. Hence
3. FM receiver can further be
efficiency decreases.
improved with the help of limiters
2. Amplitude modulation is more to remove amplitude changes, if
likely to suffer from noise any which controls the noise level

//165//
 4. In FM it is possible to operate 2. Area of reception for FM is much
many independent transmitters on smaller.
same frequency without
3. FM receivers and transmitters are
interference.
very complicated and costly.
Disadvantages
1. About 10 times wider channel is
required by FM.

-----x------

//166//