REVISION 1, DEC 2021 DATS CAA PREPARATION TEST PAPER 1 ALL IN ONE 4

FLIGHT DISPATCH: CAA PREPARATION TEST PAPER 1

Preparation Test 4 (PT4)

Purpose: This test contains nine parts/lesson. The purpose of this mastery test is to:
 To check the trainee competency and readiness to attempt the CAA Flight
Dispatch paper 1 Examination

References: Refer to the following materials during this test:

 Only the test items booklet for Preparation Test 4, PT4 and the answer
sheet.

Instructions: There are 100 multiple – choice questions.

 Answer all questions because each carry 1 mark.
 Time Allowed: 50 Minutes
 Remember to stay clear of any document that will be used against you as an
exhibit.
 If you need more plain sheets, just raise up your hand and someone will
attend to you.

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1. An aeroplane that has positive static stability:

A. can be dynamically stable, neutral, or unstable.
B. is never dynamically stable.
C. is always dynamically unstable
D. is always dynamically stable. =

2. Hypertension is:
A. elevated arterial blood pressure =
B. a high state of stress
C. a pre- cursor to the onset of a heart attack
D. a cause of a gout

3. The loading limitation shall include:

A. all limiting mass, centre of gravity position and floor loading
B. all limiting mass centre of gravity position, mass distribution and floor loading
C. all the options are correct =
D. all limiting mass and centre of gravity

4. The angle of climb is proportional to:

A. all options are correct
B. the angle of attack of the wing
C. the amount by which the thrust exceeds the drag
D. the amount by which the lift exceeds the weight =

5. What are ICAO defined instrument approaches?

A. Non – precision and CAT 1/11/111 precision =
B. Instrument precision and CAT 11/111
C. Precision in general
D. Precision CAT 1/11/111

6. An attention gaining mechanism is required in information processing since:

A. It is required to pass information from the working to the long term memory =
B. All option are correct
C. The memory cannot assimilate all the stimuli around us
D. the processing capacity and working are limited

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7. The take off alternate has to be within which of the following distances from the aerodrome of
departure:
A. For an aeroplane with three or more engines, a distant equivalent to a flight time of two hours at the
one engine inoperative engine cruise
B. For an aeroplane with three or more engines, a distance equivalent to a flight time of four hours at
the one engine inoperative engine cruise speed
C. For an aeroplane with two engines, a distance equivalent to a flight time of 30 minutes at the one
engine inoperative engine cruise speed
D. For and aeroplane with two engines a distance equivalent to a flight time of two hours at the one
engine inoperative engine cruise speed =

8. An alternate airport for departure is required:

A. when destination weather is marginal VFR(ceiling less than 3000 feet and visibility less than 5sm)
B. when destination weather is marginal VFR ( ceiling less than 1000feet and visibility less than 2sm)
C. when the weather forecast at the ETD is for landing minimums only at the departure airport
D. If weather conditions are below authorized landing minimums at departure airport =

9. Which factor has the effect of increasing V1 speeds?

A. Dry cold air
B. High takeoff gross weight =
C. Low temperature
D. Slush or standing water on the runway

10. Donating blood by an operating flight deck crew member is:

A. Permitted subject to at least 12 hours elapsing before one’s next flight
B. Permitted subject to at least 24 hours elapsing before one’s next flight =
C. Not permitted for aircrew who are actively flying
D. Only permitted within 12 hours of one’s next flight when cleared by a qualified aviation doctor

11. Who is responsible for furnishing the PIC while in flight, by appropriate means with information
which may be necessary for the safe conduct of the flight:
A. Flight dispatcher =
B. Flight Engineer
C. Director of Operations
D. Second in command or co-pilot

12. The Mean Aerodynamic Chord (MAC) for a given wing of any plan form is:
A. the average chord of the actual aeroplane
B. the chord of a large rectangular wing
C. the chord of a rectangular wing with some moment lift =
D. the wing area divided by the wing span

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13. The manual for aircraft performance planning and aircraft loading and handling shall be:
A. Specific to the aircraft category and group
B. Specific for the aircraft type and variant =
C. Specific to the aircraft type
D. Specific to the aircraft category

14. On the retina of the eye, the rod cells are:

A. Sensitive to much lower light levels than the cone cells =
B. concentrated in the fovea
C. Highly sensitive to colour changes particularly those at the blue end of the spectrum
D. Highly sensitive to colour changes particularly those at the red end of the spectrum

15. Which of the following statement defines a flight release?

A. Both options are correct
B. None of the options is correct
C. A preparation identifying the type of operation with the permitting weight limitations, fuel
requirement, weather conditions at departure, en-route, destination, and alternate airport for safe
operation =
D. A flight prepared for departure with qualified crew and considering baggage weight and balance,
flight plan, departure weather contingency plans and security brief

16. Which procedure produces the minimum fuel consumption for a given leg of the cruise flight?
A. Increase speed for a headwind =
B. decrease altitude for a headwind, decrease altitude for a tailwind
C. increase altitude for a headwind, decrease altitude for a tailwind
D. increase speed for tailwind

17. A national air carrier flight (engage with international flight) lands at an intermediate airport at
1105Z. The latest time that it may depart without being re-dispatched is:
A. 0005Z
B. 1705Z =
C. 2005Z
D. 2305Z

18. Maximum range performance of a turbojet aircraft is obtained by which procedure as aircraft
weight reduces?
A. Increasing altitude or decreasing speed =
B. increasing speed or decreasing altitude
C. increasing speed or altitude
D. decreasing speed or increasing altitude

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19. At the alternate aerodrome, the commander of a turbojet engine aeroplane should have a fuel
quantity (final reserve) sufficient for flying during:
A. 30 minutes at holding flight speed at 1500ft =
B. 30 minutes at cruising speed
C. 45 minutes at cruising speed
D. 45 minutes at holding flight speed at 1500ft

20. Are flights BE permitted to deviate from their filed flight plan route?
A. No, it is not approved by the civil aviation authority
B. No even if Ops Manual denotes what types of route are permitted to be used during flight
C. Flights may deviate from these routes to avoid weather or per ATC requests =
D. No, the PIC must continue as filed even in weather significantly different from the filed

21. Decision Altitude (DA) is referenced to:

A. runway threshold elevation
B. mean sea level =
C. aerodrome elevation
D. standard level

22. All aeroplanes with a certificated take-off mass in excess of 27,000kg are required to have fited
which type of light data recorder?
A. Type IIa
B. Type II =
C. Type III
D. Type l

23. After a disturbance in pitch, an aircraft continues to oscillate at constant amplitude. It is:
A. longitudinally neutrally stable =
B. laterally unstable
C. laterally neutrally unstable
D. longitudinally unstable

24. A severe cold can cause problems with blocked sinuses and cars. This condition is commonly
known as a
A. otic barotrauma
B. flu
C. barotrauma =
D. sinotic barotraumas

25. The most important restriction to the operation of turbo jet and turboprop engine is
A. Limiting compressor speed
B. Limiting exhaust gas temperature =
C. Limiting torque
D. Limiting speed

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26. DA is?
A. A specified altitude in the precision approach to a runway at which a missed approach must be
initiated if the required visual reference to continue the approach has not been established
B. None of the options is correct
C. Both options are correct =
D. Decision altitude is referenced to mean sea level

27. One of the main functions of flaps during approach and landing is to:
A. permit a touchdown at a higher indicated airspeed
B. decrease lift, thus enable a steeper than normal approach to be made
C. increase lift, thus enabling a steeper than normal approach to be made
D. increase the angle of decent without increasing airspeed =

28. Longitudinal stability is created by the fact that the:

A. wing surface is greater than the horizontal tail surface
B. centre of gravity is located in front of the leading edge of the wing
C. aeroplane possesses a large trim speed range
D. centre of gravity is located front of the neutral point of the aeroplane =

29. Oxygen should be used after rapid decompression in an emergency descent until what altitude?
A. 15,000ft
B. 13,000ft =
C. 10,000ft
D. 14,000ft

30. Under normal operating conditions, the maximum cabin altitude of a typical jet transport aircraft
will be maintained between:
A. sea level and 13,000ft
B. sea level and 10,000ft
C. sea level and 8000ft =
D. sea level and 15,000ft

31. How long is a flight release valid if the flight stops at an intermediate point?
A. 3 hours for domestic and 24 hours for flag (international) flights
B. 24 hours for domestic and 48 hours for flag (international) flights
C. 3 months
D. One hour for domestic flights, six hours for flag (international) flights =

32. For a category I precision approach, the decision height cannot be lower than
A. 200ft =
B. 150ft
C. 250ft
D. 100ft

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33. The aspect ratio of the wing:

A. is the ratio between the tip chord and the wing span
B. is the ratio between the wing span and the root chord
C. is the ratio between the wing span and the mean geometric chord =
D. is the ratio between chord and root chord

34. Which of the following statement regarding drag is true:

A. The formation of waves on the aircraft will effectively increase the drag on the aircraft
B. Boundary layer separation drag is a transonic phenomenon which build up and then delay
supersonic speed =
C. The formation of shockwaves on the aircraft will effectively reduce the drag on the aircraft
D. Once the aircraft passes through the sound barrier drag reduces to a value below that of the
subsonic speed.

35. What indicates that a compressor stall has developed and become steady
A. Strong vibrations and loud roar =
B. Power with severe reduction in airspeed
C. Occasional loud “bang”
D. Complete loss of power with severe reduction in airspeed

36. What action should be taken by the pilot in command of transport category airplane if the airborne
weather radar becomes inoperative en-route on an IFR flight for which weather reports indicate
possible thunderstorms.
A. proceeds in accordance with the approved instructions and procedures specified in the operations
manual for such an event =
B. Return to the departure airport if the thunderstorms have not been encountered and there is enough
fuel remaining
C. Request for radar vectors from ATC to nearest airport and land

37. Which speed symbol indicate the maximum operating limit speed for an aircraft
A. VMo/MMo =
B. VLE
C. MLO
D. VLO/MLO

38. The pilot in command of an airplane en route determine that icing conditions can be expected that
might adversely affect safety of the flight. Which actions is appropriate?
A. The flight may be continue to the original destination airport provided all anti-icing and deicing
equipment is operational and is used.
B. The flight may continue to the original destination airport after climbing to a higher altitude
C. The pilot in command shall not continue flight into the icing conditions =
D. The flight may continue to the original destination airport but at a lower altitude.

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39. In case of an engine failure which is recognized at or above V1

A. A height of 50ft must be reached within the take-off distance
B. The take-off should be rejected if the speed is still below VR
C. The take-off must be continuing =
D. The take-off must be rejected if the speed is still below VLOF

40. No person shall act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers by night unless he
has carried out, in an aircraft of the same class and category not less than:
A. Three take-offs and landings within six months of the flight
B. Five take-offs and landings within three months of the flight
C. Five take-offs and landings within six months of the flight
D. Three take-off and landings within 90 days preceding the flight =

41. Which equipment requirement must be met by air carrier that elects to use a dual inertial
Navigation System (INS) on proposed flight?
A. A dual VOCTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS
B. The dual system must consist of two operative INS units
C. Only one INS is required to be operative if a Doppler Radar is substituted for the other INS =
D. ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS

42. One of the main functions of flaps during approach and landing is for:
A. Permit a touchdown at a higher indicated airspeed
B. Decrease lift, thus enabling a steeper than normal approach to be made
C. Increase the angle of descent without increasing air speed =
D. Increase lift, thus enabling a steeper than normal approach to be made

43. What does the Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) consist of?
A. One light projector with two colours yellow and green
B. One light projector with two colours red and white
C. Row of four lights parallel to the runway, white and green
D. Row of four lights perpendicular to the runway; red and white =

44. Who make sure that the air transportation of an item of dangerous goods is not prohibited?
A. The loader
B. The shipper when completing the shipper’s declaration for dangerous goods
C. The captain, always using the list of prohibited aircraft items
D. The operator =

45. Which colour on a tri-colour VASI is “on course” indicated?

A. Green =
B. Amber
C. Yellow
D. Red

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46. To act as pilot in command of an aircraft, you must have either a logbook endorsement showing
the satisfactory completion of a flight review or the pilot proficiency check within the preceding
A. 6 calendar months =
B. 24 calender months
C. 12 calender months
D. 36 calender months

47. What is the landing distance require when on a wet runway as opposed to the normal dry
length required?
A. 110%
B. 130%
C. 120%
D. 115% =

48. DA is
A. Decision altitude is reference to mean sea level
B. A specified altitude in the precision approach to a Runway at which a missed approach must be
initiated if the approach has not been established
C. Both options are correct =
D. None of the option is correct

49. Following an emergency, how soon should dispatchers and pilots file a report
A. Within 10 days =
B. As soon as possible, but not later than 3 days following the event
C. Within 7 days
D. Within 48 hours

50. The information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders shall be used only for
determining
A. Possible causes of accidents or incidents =
B. Who was responsible for any accident or incident
C. Evidence for use in civil penalty of certificate action
D. All options are correct

51. Anthropometric data is used in the design of aircraft and flight decks. Data is taken from:
A. All options are correct
B. A general cross section of the public
C. A selected cross – section of the public
D. A specified population =

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52. If the airworthiness documents do not specify a correction for landing on a wet runway; the
landing distance must be increased by:
A. 15% =
B. 10%
C. 25%
D. 20%

53. A piece of equipment on your public transport airplane fails while you are still parked. The
reference document you use to decide on the procedure to follow is:
A. The operation manual’s chapter “Abnormal and Emergency procedures”
B. The NCAR
C. The minimum equipment list =
D. The flight manual.

54. Which airplanes are required to be equipped with a ground proximity warning glide slope
deviation alerting system?
A. Large turbine-powered airplanes only =
B. Passenger-carrying turbine-powered airplane only
C. All multi-engine powered airplane.
D. All turbine – powered airplane

55. On the arrival at an aerodrome the lowest height altitude at which the pilot in command of a
turbojet or large aircraft shall enter the traffic pattern until further descend is required for landing is?
A. 1500ft AGL =
B. 1500ft AMSL
C. 500ft AMSL
D. 1000ft AGL

56. Rotation about the lateral axis is known as:

A. All options are wrong
B. Rolling and is controlled with ailerons
C. Pitching and controlled with the elevator =
D. Yawing and is controlled with the ailerons

57. After an accident, the operator of an airplane equipped with a flight recorder must keep the
original recordings for a minimum period of:
A. 60 days =
B. 90 days
C. 45 days
D. 30 days

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58. A green landing gear warning light indicates that the landing gear is:
A. Unsafe
B. In transit
C. Up and locked
D. Down and locked =

59. The pilot in command shall prior to undertaking an IFR flight, obtain a weather forecast for
the destination and alternate aerodrome for duration of at least:
A. The ETA plus 2 hours in both aerodromes
B. One hour before and one after the ETA at both aerodrome =
C. The ETA plus 11/2 hours in both aerodromes
D. The fuel endurance of the aircraft

60. Where in the NCAR would you find details of flight Crew duty Rest period set out:
A. part 8 Schedule 11 =
B. Part 2
C. Part 7
D. ICAO Annex 1

61. What restriction applies to a cargo bin in a passenger compartment? The bin:
A. Must withstand the load factor required of passenger seats, multiplied 1.15 using the combined
weight of the bin and the maximum weight of the cargo that may be carried in the bin =
B. Must be constructed of flame-retardant material and fully enclosed
C. Must withstand the load factor required of passenger seats multiplied by 2.15. using the combine
weight of the bin and the maximum weight of the cargo that may be carried in the bin.
D. May have an open top if it places in

62. The aircraft is pressurized by:

A. Controlling the amount of bleed air off the engines
B. Controlling the amount of bleed air in the engine
C. Controlling the rate that air flow out of the cabin
D. Controlling the rate that air flow into the cabin =

63. In flight planning preparation, which of the following is not correct?

A. The PIC signing the operational flight plan shall have access to the applicable flight planning
information
B. The operational flight plan shall include the routing and fuel calculations with respects to the
metrological and other factors expected to complete the flight to the destination only =
C. All approved flight planning software, systems and/or procedures should be specified in Ops Specs
D. The flight planning data is legal to use in the dispatch of a commercial air flight

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64. After decompression and descent, there will be enough supplementary oxygen available for
flight crew for all flight time above
A. 15,000ft
B. 13,000ft =
C. 25,000ft
D. 14,000ft

65. The maximum number of hours that a flight crew member for an international flight using two
pilots and additional flight crew member may fly during 90 consecutive days is:
A. 300 hours =
B. 350 hours
C. 275 hours
D. 250 hours

66. The Mach Number is:

A. All options are correct
B. The ratio of the aircraft’s IAS to speed of sound at the same atmospheric conditions
C. The ratio of the aircraft’s TAS to the speed of sound at sea level
D. The ratio of the aircraft’s TAS to speed of sound at the same atmospheric conditions =

67. Rule based behaviors are stored in the:

A. Short memory
B. Long term memory =
C. Episodic memory
D. Semantic memory

68. How long is a Flight Release validify the flight stops at an intermediate point?
A. One hour for domestic flights; six hours for flag (international) flights =
B. 3 months
C. 3 hours for domestic and 24 hours for flag (international) flights
D. 24 hours for domestic and 48 hours for flag (international) flights

69. Which airplanes are required to be equipped with a ground proximity warning glide slope
deviation alerting system?
A. Large turbine-powered airplanes only =
B. Passenger-carrying turbine-powered airplanes only
C. Small turbine - powered airplane only.
D. All turbine-powered airplanes

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70. An airline operates a flight in VFR over – the – top conditions. What radio navigation
equipment is required to be a dual installation?
A. VOR and DME
B. VOR and ILS
C. VOR =
D. DME

71. If a flight plan has been filed prior to departure and the departure of the aircraft is delayed and
the ATC is not informed, the flight plan will be cancelled before:
A. Climb, cruise, descent, and landing
B. Descent, approach, landing, and taxi operations, irrespective of altitudes AMSL
C. Taxi, takeoff, landing and all other operations conducted below 10,000 feet AMSL, excluding
cruise flight
D. Taxi, takeoff, landing and all other operations conducted below 10,000 feet AMSL, including
cruise flight =

72. A Pilot start to complain of severe earache as he descends, what is the possible cause:
A. A synoptic barotrauma
B. A blocked middle ear =
C. A blocked outer ear
D. A blocked inner ear

73. One of the requirements for dynamic stability is:

A. A small C.G range
B. Effective elevator. =
C. A large deflection range of the stabilizer trim
D. Positive static stability

74. An over stressed pilot may show the following symptoms:

1. Mental blocks, confusion, and channelized attention.
2. Resignation, frustration, rage
3. Deterioration in motion coordination
4. High pitch voice and fast speaking
A. 1,2,3, and 4 are false
B. 1,2,3 and 4 are correct =
C. 1,2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
D. 1 and 3 are correct, 2 and 4 are false

75. What information from the passenger manifest must the pilot in command of a domestic air
carrier operator carry to the destination airport?
A. Cargo and passenger distribution
B. Names of passengers =
C. Passenger distribution
D. The maximum allowable weight for that flight

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76. The severity of noise induced hearing loss (NIHL)is determined by:
A. The duration of high noise levels experienced
B. The volume of noise experienced
C. None of the option is correct
D. The volume and duration of the noise experienced =

77. DH is used in a:
A. Centered approach
B. Uncentred approach
C. precision approach =
D. Non precision approach

78. From above FL200, day and night flight visibility and distance from cloud must be:
A. 5km visibility, horizontally 1.8km and 1500 feet vertically
B. 8km visibility, horizontally 1.5km and 1000 feet vertically =
C. 8mk visibility, horizontally 2000 feet and 500 feet vertically
D. 5km visibility, horizontally 1.5km and 1000 feet vertically

79. Where is the list maintained for routes that require special navigation equipment?
A. International Flight information Manual
B. Airport Operations Manual
C. Airline operations specification =
D. Airplane Flight Manual

80. A pilot is detailed to fly on his 60th birthday. What must the operator ensure?
A. A birthday cake is part of the crew rations of for the flight
B. he is the only crew member over 60
C. That the must have passed the extended age medical examination and his licence is correctly
endorsed
D. That he is the only pilot who is 60 or over =

81. During which segment will the W.A.T limit apply for take off
A. 1st segment
B. 2nd segment =
C. 3rd segment

82. What effect would change in ambient temperature or air density have on gas turbine-engine
performance?
A. As air density decreases, thrust increases
B. As temperature increase, thrust increases
C. As temperature increases, thrust decreases =

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83. What effect, if any high ambient temperature has upon the thrust output of a turbine engine?
A. Thrust will be reduced due to decrease in air density =
B. Thrust will remain the same, but turbine temperature will be higher
C. Thrust will be higher because more heat energy is extracted from the hotter air

84. For which of these aircraft is the ‘clearway” for a particular runway considered in computing takeoff
weight limitation?
A. Passenger-carrying transport aircraft
B. U.S certified air carrier airplanes
C. Turbine-engine-power transport airplanes =

85. What effective runway length is required for a turbojet-powered airplane at the destination airport if
the runways are forecast to be wet or slippery at the ETA?
A. 70 percent of the actual runway available
B. 150 percent of the runway length required for a dry runway
C. 115 percent of the runway length required for a dry runway =

86. When computing the takeoff data, what is the percentage of the effective headwind component which
may be applied to the still air” data?
A. Not more than 100 percent
B. Not more than 50 percent =
C. Not more than 25 percent

87. When computing the takeoff data, what is percentage of the effective tailwind component which
may be applied to the still air” data?
A. Not less than 150 percent =
B. Not more than 100 percent
C. Not more than 50 percent

88. The body’s internal biological clocks take longer to adjust to local time when flying:
A. West
B. North
C. East =

89. A blocked Eustachian tubes

A. Can cause severe pain in the descent =
B. Normally only cause severe pain during the climb
C. Can cause problems with balancing the pressures the inner ear and the outside air

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90. Decompression sickness is cause by

A. Nitrogen bubbles coming out of solution in the blood to form bubbles in the body tissues =
B. The pressure of carbon monoxide from leaking exhausts
C. Over breathing, thereby exceeding the breathing rate needed to maintain the correct amount of
carbon-dioxide in the blood

91. If an eustachian tube is blocked, what would it cause

A. severe pain during climb =
B. severe pain during straight and level.
C. it will affect the balancing of air pressure between the inner and middle ear

92. The permanent denial of flying license will be the result of a pilot suffering from;
A. Anxiety and phobic states
B. Depression
C. Schizophrenia and manic depression =

93. The amount of stress experience with a task is dependent on,

A. The actual demand of the task and the flight dispatcher’s perception of his ability
B. The perceived demands of the task and the flight dispatcher’s actual ability
C. The perceived demands of the task and the flight dispatcher’s perception of his ability =

94. If an aircraft with a gross weight of 3000 pounds were subjected to a total load of 9000 pounds in
flight, the load factor will be
A. 2Gs
B. 3Gs =
C. 9 Gs

95. The best way in which to overcome hyperventilation is to

A. Increase stress and activity levels
B. Breath normally =
C. Declare emergency landing

96. Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions

A. Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain =
B. Excessive carbon dioxide in the blood stream
C. Limited oxygen reaching the heart muscles

97. What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight?
A. Look only at far away dim lights
B. Scan slowly to permit off center viewing =
C. Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds

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98. A pilot is more subject to Spatial disorientation when

A. Ignoring or overcoming the sensations of muscles and inner ear
B. Eyes are moved often in the process of cross – checking the flight instruments.
C. Body sensations are used to interpret flight attitudes =

99. Following an emergency, how soon should dispatchers and pilots file a report
A. Within 10 days =
B. As soon as possible, but not later than 3 days following the event
C. Within 7 days
D. Within 48 hours

100. Longitudinal stability is created by the fact that the:

A. wing surface is greater than the horizontal tail surface
B. centre of gravity is in front of the leading edge of the wing
C. aeroplane possesses a large trim speed range
D. centre of gravity is located front of the neutral point the aeroplane =

END

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