REVISION 1, DEC 2021 DATS CAA PREPARATION TEST AIR LAW REGULATION AND OPS PROC 2

FLIGHT DISPATCH: AIR LAW, REGULATION & OPS PROC 2

Preparation Test 2 (PT2)

Purpose: This test contains nine parts/lesson. The purpose of this mastery test is to:
 To check the trainee competency and readiness to attempt the CAA Flight
Dispatch paper 1 Examination

References: Refer to the following materials during this test:

 Only the test items booklet for Preparation Test 2, PT2 and the answer
sheet.

Instructions: There are 100 multiple – choice questions.

 Answer all questions because each carry 1 mark.
 Time Allowed: 90 Minutes
 Remember to stay clear of any document that will be used against you as an
exhibit.
 If you need more plain sheets, just raise up your hand and someone will
attend to you.

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1-Under part 8 of CAR’S an AOC holder shall relieve the flight operation officer from all duties for;
a. For 39 consecutive hour during any 7 consecutive day period
b. For 8 consecutive hours in any consecutive day period=
c. For 24 hours during any 7 consecutive day period

2-The authority will consider a flight crew member to be on continuous duty aloft unless he or she
receives a rest of
a. 10 consecutive hours on the ground
b. 9 consecutive hours on the ground=
c. 8 consecutive hours on the ground

3-Who is responsible for designing a qualified person to exercise the functions and the responsibility for
operation control of each flight in commercial transport?
a. The director of operation
b. the managing director
c. AOC holder=

4-To be eligible for the practice test for the renewal of a category ii authorization, what recent instrument
approach experience is required?
a. Within the previous 6 month ,six ILS approaches three of which may be flown to category I DH by
use of an approach coupler=
b. Within the previous 6 month , six ILS approach flown by use of an approach coupler to the category
1 DH
c. within the previous 12 calendar month, tree ILS approach flown by use of an approach coupler to
the category ii DH

5-What instrument flight time may be logged by a second –in-command of an aircraft requiring two
pilots?
a. All of the time the second-in-command is controlling the airplane solely by reference to flight
instruments=
b. One half the time is on an IFR plan
c. One half the time the airplane is in actual conditions

6-Which is one of the requirement that must be met by a require pilot flight crew member in re-
establishing recency of experience
a. At least one takeoff must be made with a stimulated failure of the most critical engine
b. At least one full stop landing must be made=
c. At least one precision approach must be made to the lowest minimums authorized for the certificate
holder

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7-Category ii ILS operation below 1600RVR and a 150-foot DH may be approved after the pilot in
command has
a. Logged 90 hour’s flight time, 10 takeoffs and landing in make and model airplane and there category
ii ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR condition with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the
sixth preceding month, in operations under 14CFR parts 91 and 121.
b. Made at least six category ii approach in actual IFR conditions with 100 foot DH within the
preceding 12 calendar months
c. Logged 100 hours’ flight time in make and model airplane under 14 CFR part 121 and there category
ii ILS approach in actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the
sixth preceding month.=

8-Which takeoff computation must not exceed the length of the runway plus the length of the stopway
for a turbine-engine-powered small transport category airplane?
a. Take off distance
b. Accelerate stop distance =
c. Accelerate climb distance

9-The maximum numbers of hours a pilot may fly in 7 consecutive days as the pilot in command in a
two-pilot crew for an air carrier is
a. 35 hours
b. 32 hours
c. 30 hours =
10-When computing the takeoff data, what is the percentage of the effective headwind component which
may be applied to the “still air” data?
a. Not more than 100percent
b. Not more than 50percent=
c. Not more than25percent

11-When computing the takeoff data, what is percentage of the effective tailwind component which may
be applied to the “still air” data?
a. not less than 150percent=
b. not more than 100percent
c. not more than 50percent

12-Which of the following normally requires the pilot in command to hold a type rating?
a. any turbojet-powered airplane=
b. any airplane which has a gross weight of 6, 000 pounds or more
c. Any multiengine airplane which is operated under interstate commerce.

13-A certificate holder is notified that a person specially authorized to carry a deadly weapon is to be
aboard an aircraft, except in an emergency, how long before loading the flight should the air carrier be
notified?
a. Notification not required , if the certificate holder has a security co-ordinator
b. A minimum of 1 hour=
c. A minimum of 2 hours

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14-What restriction applied to a cargo bin in a passenger compartment? The bin

a. May have an open top if placed in front of the passenger and the cargo is secured by a cargo net
b. Must with stand the load factor required of the passenger seat, multiplied by 1.15 using the combined
weight of the bin and the maximum weight of the cargo that may be carried in the bin=
c. Must be constructed of flame retardant material and fully enclosed

15-How many portable battery-powered mega phones required on an air carrier airplane with a seating
capacity of 150passengers on a trip segment when 75passengers are carried?
a. Two, one located near or accessible to the flight crew, and one located near the center of the
passenger cabin
b. Two one at the most rearward and in the center of the passenger cabin
c. Two, one at the forward end, and the other at the rearward location of the passenger cabin=

16-How many portable battery-powered mega phones are required on an air carrier airplane with a
seating capacity of 100 passengers on a trip segment when 45passengers are carried?
a. Two, one at the forward end, and the other at the most rearward location of the passenger cabin.=
b. Two, one at the most rearward and one at the center of the passenger cabin.
c. Two, one located near or accessible to the flight crew, and one located near the center passenger
cabin

17-A crew member interphone is required on which plane?

a. a large airplane
b. a turbojet airplane
c. an airplane with more than 19 passenger seats=

18-each air carrier flight deck crew member on flight deck duty must be provided with an oxygen mask
that can be rapidly place on his face when operating at flight attitudes
a. Of FL260
b. Of FL250
c. Above FL250=

19-If either pilot of an airplane leaves the duty station while flying at FL410, the other pilot
a. And the engineer shall put on their oxygen mask and breathe oxygen
b. Shall put on the oxygen mask and breathe oxygen=
c. Must have a quick-donning type oxygen available

20-What is the passenger oxygen supply requirement for a flight, in turbine powered aircraft, with a
cabin pressure attitude in excess of 15,000 feet? Enough oxygen for

a. Each passenger for the entire flight above 15,000 feet cabin attitude=
b. 30 percent of passenger
c. 10 percent of the passenger for 30 minutes

21-Life preservers required for underwater operation are stored

a. Within easy reach for passengers
b. Under occupants seat
c. Within easy reach of each seated occupant=

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22-The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency shall be
assigned by the
a. Pilot in command
b. Air carrier’s chief pilot
c. Certificate holder=

23-If it becomes necessary to shut down one engine on a domestic air carrier three-engine turbojet
airplane, the pilot in command
a. Must land in suitable airport, in point of time, at which safe landing can be made
b. May continue to the plan destination of approved by the company aircraft dispatcher
c. May continue to the planned destination if this is considered as safe as landing at nearest suitable
airport.=

24-In the event of an engine emergency, the use of cockpit check procedure by the flight crew is
a. Encourage; it helps to ensure that all items on the procedure are accomplished
b. Required by regulations to prevent reliance upon memorized procedure =
c. Required by the NCAA as a double-check after the memorized procedure has been accomplished

25-If an air carrier airplane’s airborne radar is inoperative and thunderstorms are forecast along the
proposed route of flight, an airplane may be dispatched only.
a. When able to climb and descend VFR and maintain VFR or enroute
b. In VFR conditions
c. In day VFR conditions=

26-Which airplanes are required to be equipped with a ground proximity warning glide slope deviation
alerting system?
a. All turbine powered airplanes
b. Passenger carrying turbine powered airplane only
c. Large turbine powered airplane only =

27-What action should be taken by the pilot in command of a transport category airplane if the airborne
weather radar becomes in operative en route on IFR flight for which weather reports indicates possible
thunderstorms?
a. Request radar vector from ATC to the nearest suitable airport and land
b. Proceed in accordance with the approved instructions and procedures specified in the operations
manual for such event=
c. Return to the departure airport if the thunderstorms have not been encountered, and there is enough
fuel remaining.

28-Information recorded during normal operation of a cockpit voice recorder in a large pressurized
airplane with four reciprocating engine
a. May all be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes=
b. May be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing
c. May all be erased, as the voice recorder is not required on an aircraft with reciprocating engines

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29-Who must the crew of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane be able to communicate with, under
normal conditions, along the entire route (in either direction) of flight?
a. ATC
b. Any FSS
c. Appropriate dispatch office =

30-Routes that require a flight navigator are listed in the

a. Airplane flight manual;
b. International flight information manual
c. Air carrier’s operations specifications=

31-Where is a list maintained for routes that require special navigation equipment?
a. Air carrier’s operations specifications=
b. International flight information manual
c. Airplane flight manual

32-The lowest ILS category II minimums are

a. DH 50 feet and RVR 1,200 feet
b. DH 100 feet and RVR 1,200 feet=
c. DH 150 feet and RVR 1,500 feet

33-Identify REIL
a. Amber lights for the first 2,000 feet of runway
b. Green lights at the threshold and red lights laterally at each side
c. Synchronized flashing lights laterally at each side of the runway threshold=

34-For a pilot to return for currency for IFR operations, he or she must complete an instrument
competency check with the authority for
a. 12 calendar months following that check =
b. 24 calendar months following that check
c. 6 calendar months following that check

35-The document showing the distribution of the load, centre of gravity, take-off and landing weights
and compliance with maximum operating weight limitation and performance analysis is?
a. Dispatch release
b. Load manifest=
c. An operational flight plan

36-On arrival at an aerodrome the lowest height altitude at which the pilot in command of a turbojet or
large aircraft shall enter the traffic pattern until further descend is required for landing is?
a. 100ft AGL
b. 1500ft AGL=
c. 1500ft AMSL

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37-If an aerodrome and runway conditions are hazard to safe operations who is responsible for restricting
or suspending all commercial air transport operations to such aerodrome and runway until those
conditions are corrected
a. FAAN
b. NCAA=
c. PIC or a AOC holder

38-A PIC shall allow a flight to continue toward any aerodrome of intended landing where commercial
air transport operations have been restricted or suspended if?
a. Permission is given to him by Air traffic Controller
b. The PIC is instrument rated
c. There is no safer alternative =

39-What action is required prior to takeoff if snow is adhering to the wings of an air carrier airplane?
a. Turn on wing de-ice prior to takeoff
b. Assure that the snow is removed=
c. Add 15knots to the normal VR speed

40-An alternate airport for the airport of takeoff is required

a. If weather conditions are below authorized landing minimum=
b. When no destination alternative airport is available
c. When destination weather is marginal VRF (Ceiling less than 3,000 feet and visibility less than 5
SM)

41-When a departure alternate is required for a three-engine air carrier flight, it must be located at a
distance not greater than
a. 2 hours from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative=
b. 1 hour from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative
c. 2 hours from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air

42-Following the stoppage of an engine’s rotation in flight, the pilot in command must, as soon as
practicable, first report the occurrence to the
a. Appropriate ground radio station=
b. Nearest air carrier district office
c. Operations manager (or director of operations)

43-An alternate airport is not required for a commercial air carrier turbojet-powered airplane on an IFR
flight,, if
a. A fuel reserve for 30 minutes, plus 15 percent of the total flight time, is carried aboard the airplane
b. Enough fuel is aboard the airplane
c. Enough fuel is aboard the airplane to fly to the destination and thereafter to fly for at least 2 hours
at normal cruising fuel consumption=

44-The reserve fuel supply for a domestic air carrier flight is

a. 30 minutes of holding fuel consumption 1,500 feet above the destination of alternate airport
b. 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the most distant alternate
airport=
c. 45 minutes of holding fuel consumption 1,500 feet above the destination of alternate airport

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45-The pilot in command of an airplane en route determine that icing conditions can be expected that
might adversely affect safety of the flight . Which action is appropriate?
a. The pilot in command and the company dispatcher must jointly decide whether or not the flight may
continue to the original destination airport
b. The pilot in command shall not continue flight into the icing conditions=
c. The flight may continue to the original destination airport, provided all anti-icing and deicing
equipment is operational and is used

46-The oxygen requirements for occupant of pressurized airplane operated at altitude above 24,000 feet
MSL is dependent upon the airplane ability to descend safely to an attitude of
a. 10,000 feet MSL in 4 minutes
b. 15,000 feet MSL in 4 minutes=
c. 12,000 feet MSL at a minimum rate of 2,500 ft/min

47-The greatest source of incapacitation in flight is

a. Heart attack
b. Angina
c. Acute gastro-enteritis=

48-A PIC shall allow a flight to continue toward any aerodrome of intended landing where commercial
air transport operations have been restricted or suspended if?
a. Permission is given to him by air traffic controller
b. The PIC is instrument rated
c. There is no safer alternative=

49- The "Age 60 Rule" Of Aviation regulation applies to

A- Any Required Pilot Crewmember.=
B- Any Flight Crewmember.
C- The Pilot in Command Only.

50- If A Flight Crewmember Completes A Required Annual Flight Check In December 1987 And The
Required Annual Recurrent Flight Check In January 1989, The Latter Check Is Considered To Have
Been Taken In
A-November 1988.
B-December 1988.=
C-January 1989.

51. The Pilot In Command Has Emergency Authority To Exclude Any And All Persons From
Admittance To The Flight Deck Except
A-An NCAA Inspector Doing Enroute Checks.
B-In The Interest Of Safety. =
C-Except Persons Who Have Authorization from the Certificate Holder and the NCAA and or the
Ministry.

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52- When A Pilot's Flight Time Consists Of 80 Hours' Pilot in Command in a particular Type
Airplane, How Does This Affect The Minimums for the Destination Airport?
A-Has No Effect on Destination But Alternate Minimums Are No Less Than 300feet and 1/2 Mile.
B-Minimums Are Decreased By 100 Feet and 1/2 Mile.
C-Minimums Are Increased By 100 Feet and 1/2 Mile.=

53- Which Is A Requirement Governing the Carriage of Cargo, On A Scheduled Passenger Flight?
A-Cargo Must Be Carried In An Approved Rack, Bin, Or Compartment.
B-Cargo Not Stowed in an Approved Bin Must Be Secured by a Safety Belt or Approved Tie down
Device. =
C-All Cargo Carried In The Passenger Compartment Must Be Caged And Stowed Ahead Of The
Foremost Seated Passenger.

54. Which Requirement Applies When Oxygen Is Stored In Liquid Form?

A-Smoking Is Not Permitted Within 50 Feet Of Stored Liquid Oxygen.
B-Liquefied Oxygen Is A Hazardous Material And Must Be Kept In An Isolated Storage Facility.
C- The Equipment Used To Store Liquid Oxygen Must Be Covered In The Certificate Holder's
Approved Maintenance Program.=

55. Which Aircraft Must Be Equipped With An Approved Public Address and Crewmember
Interphone System?
A. All Turbine "Engine" Powered Aircraft Having A Seating Configuration Of More Than 19 Seats.
B- Aircraft Having A Passenger Seating Configuration, Excluding Any Pilot Seat, Of More Than 19
Seats.=
C- Multiengine Aircraft Having a Passenger Seating Configuration of 10 Seats or More.

56-In Which Airplanes Is A Ground Proximity Warning System Required?

A-All Airplanes Having a Passenger Seating Configuration, Excluding Any Pilot Seat, Of 10 Seats or
More.
B-Turbine Powered Airplanes Having a Passenger Seating Configuration, Excluding Any Pilot Seat,
Of 10 Seats or More. =
C-Turbine-Powered Aircraft Having a Passenger Seating Configuration, Including Any Pilot Seat, Of
10 Seats or More.

57-In which airplanes is a Class A TAWS warning system required?

A-Turbine-powered aircraft having a passenger seating configuration, including any pilot seat, of 10
seats or more.
B-Turbine-powered airplanes having a passenger seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of 10
seats or more.=
C-All airplanes having a passenger seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of 10 seats or more.

58-In Which Aircraft, Or Under What Conditions, Is Airborne Thunderstorm Detection Equipment
Required?
A-Large Turbine-Powered Aircraft Having A Passenger Seating Configuration Of 19 Seats Or More
Being Operated By A Commuter Air Carrier.
B-Any Aircraft Having A Passenger Seating Configuration Of 19 Seats Or More That Is Engaged In
Passenger Carrying Operations Under IFR Or At Night.
C-Small Aircraft Having A Passenger Seating Configuration Of 10 Seats Or More, Excluding Any
Pilot Seat, That Are Engaged In Passenger-Carrying Operations.=

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59-In Which Aircraft, Or Under What Conditions, Is Airborne Thunderstorm Detection Equipment
Required?
A-Large Multiengine Turbine-Powered Aircraft Having a Passenger Seating Configuration of 19
Seats or More Being Operated By a Commuter Air Carrier.
B-Any Aircraft Having A Passenger Seating Configuration Of 19 Seats Or More That Is Engaged In
Passenger Carrying Operations Under IFR Or At Night.
C-Small Aircraft Having a Passenger Seating Configuration Of 10 Seats Or More, Excluding Any
Pilot Seat, That Are Engaged In Passenger-Carrying Operations.=

60-What information must the PIC of a commercial Air operator carry to the destination airport?
A-cargo and passenger distribution information
B-copy of the flight plan=
C-names of all crewmembers and designated PIC.

61-which in-flight condition are required by an air carrier to conduct a day , over-the-top flight below
the specified IFR minimum enroute altitude?
A-the flight must remain clear of cloud by at least 1000feet vertically and 1000 feet horizontally and
have at least 3 mile flight visibility.
B-the flight must be conducted 1000feet above an overcast or broken cloud layer, any higher
broken/overcast cloud cover is a minimum of 1000feet above the IFR MEA, and have at least 5miles
flight visibility.=
C-the height of any overcast or broken layer must be at least 500feet above the IFR MEA.

62-what is the maximum indicated airspeed a reciprocating –engine-powered airplane may be operated
within class B airspeed?
A-180 knots
B-230 knots
C-250 knots=

63-at what maximum indicated airspeed may a reciprocating-engine-powered airplane be operated

within class D airspace?
A-156 knots
B-180 knots
C-200 knots=

64-what restriction must be observed regarding the carrying of cargo in the passenger compartment of
an airplane operated under regulation?
A-All cargo must be separated from the passengers by a partition capable of withstanding certain load
stresses.
B-All cargo must be carried in a suitable flame resistant bin and the bin must be secured to the floor
structure of the airplane.
C-Cargo may be carried aft of a divider if properly secured by a safety belt or other tied down devices
to withstand certain load stresses.=

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65-an airplane operated by a commercial operator flying over uninhabited terrain must carry which
emergency equipment?
A-A signal mirror and colored smoke flares.
B-Survival kit for each passenger.
C-An approved survival-type emergency locator transmitter.=

66-during a commercial air carrier flight, who is responsible for obtaining information on
meteorological conditions?
A-aircraft dispatcher=
B-pilot in command
C-Director of operations or flight follower.

67-what is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be from the departure airport
for a two-engine airplane?
A-1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with both engines operating.
B-1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine operating.=
C-2 hours at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine operating.

68-if a four-engine air carrier airplane is dispatched from an airport that is below landing minimums,
what is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be located from the departure
airport?
A-Not more than 2 hours at cruise speed with one engine inoperative.
B-Not more than 2 hours at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine inoperative=
C-Not more than 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine inoperative.

69-when is a commercial air carrier, operating under IFR, required to list an alternate airport for each
destination airport?
A-When the forecast weather indicate s the ceiling will be less than 1000 feet and visibility less than 2
miles at the estimated time of arrival.
B-On all flights, an alternate is required regardless of existing or forecast weather conditions at the
destination.=
C-When flight is schedule for than more than 6 hours en route.

70-when a departure alternate is required for a three-engine air carrier flight, it must be located at a
distance not greater than
A-2 hours from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine not
functioning.=
B-1 hour from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative.
C-2 hours from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air.

71-the minimum weather condition that must exist for an airport to be listed as an alternate in the
dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight are
A-those listed in the NOAA IAP charts for the alternate airport, at the time the flight is expected to
arrive.
B-those specified in the certificate holder’s operations specifications for that airport, when the flight
arrives.=
C-those listed on the NOAA IAP Charts for the alternate airport, from 1 hour before or after the ETA
for that flight.

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72-an alternate airport is not required to dispatched a commercial air carrier airplane for a flight of less
than 6 hours when the visibility for at least 1 hour before and 1 hour after the ETA at the destination
airport is forecast to be
A-2 miles or greater.
B-At least 3 miles, or 2miles more than the lowest applicable minimum.=
C-3 miles.

73-the pilot in command of an airplane en route determines that icing conditions can be expected that
might adversely affect safety of the flight .which action is appropriate?
A-the PIC may continue to the original destination airport, after climbing to a higher altitude.
B-the PIC shall not continue flight into the icing condition=
C-the flight may continue to the original destination airport, provided all anti-icing and deicing
equipment is operational and is used.

74-an applicant who is scheduled for a practical test for an airline transport pilot certificate, in an
approved flight simulator, is
A-Required to have at least a current third-class medical certificate.
B-is not require to have a medical certificate.=
C-required to have a first-class medical certificate.

75-when a type rating is to be added to an airline transport pilot certificate and the practical test is
scheduled in an approved flight training device and/or approved flight simulator, applicant is
A-Required to have at least a third-class medical certificate.
B-Is not require to have a medical certificate.=
C-Required to have a first-class medical certificate

76-When a type rating is to be added to an airline transport pilot certificate and the practical test is
scheduled in an approved flight simulator and an aircraft, the applicant needs
A) a second-class medical certificate.
B) at least a current third-class medical certificate=
C) a first-class medical certificate.

77-An applicant who is scheduled for a practical test for an airline transport pilot certificate, in an
aircraft, needs
A- a second-class medical certificate.
B- at least a current third-class medical certificate=
C- a first-class medical certificate.

78-when a temporary replacement is received for an airman’s medical certificate, for what maximum
time is the document valid?
A-30 days
B-60 days=
C-90 days

79-within the past 6 months, a pilot has accomplished: two approaches in a helicopter. Two
approaches in an airplane. Two approaches in a glider. What additional instrument experience must
the pilot obtain prior to acting as second in command on an IFR flight by regulation?

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A-four approaches in an aircraft approved training device, flight simulator (that is representative of the
aircraft category), holding, intercepting and tracking courses using the navigation systems.=
B-passes an instrument proficiency check in any category A/C, approved simulator or training device.
C-Holding intercepting and tracking courses (using the navigation systems) in an aircraft, approved
simulator or approved flight training device.

80-to be eligible for the practical test for the renewal of a category II authorization; what recent
instrument approach experience is required?
A-within the previous 6months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the category I DH
by use of an approach coupler.=
B-within the previous 6months, six ILS approaches, flown by the use of approach coupler to the
category I DH.
C-within the previous 12months, Three ILS approaches, flown by the use of an approach coupler to
the category II DH.

81-How Much Supplemental Oxygen for Emergency Descent Must a Pressurized Turbine-Powered
Air Transport Airplane Carry for Each Flight Crewmember on Flight Deck Duty When Operating At
Flight Altitudes above 10,000 Feet?
A- Minimum of 2 Hours’ Supply. =
B- Sufficient For the Duration of the Flight above 8,000 Feet Cabin Pressure Altitude.
C- Sufficient For the Duration of the Flight at 10,000 Feet Flight Altitude, Not To Exceed 1 Hour and
50 Minutes.

82. What Is the Minimum Number of Acceptable Oxygen-Dispensing Units for First-Aid Treatment
Of Occupants Who Might Require Undiluted Oxygen for Physiological Reasons?
A -Two.=
B -Four.
C- Three.

83-The Supplemental Oxygen Requirements for Passengers When a Flight Is Operated At FL 250 Is
Dependent upon the Airplane’s Ability to Make an Emergency Descent to a Flight Altitude of Feet
A-10,000 Feet within 4 Minutes.
B-14,000Feet within 4 Minutes.=
C-12,000 Feet Within 4 Minutes Or At A Minimum Rate Of 2,500 Ft/Min, Whichever Is Quicker.

84. For The Purpose Of Testing the Flight Recorder System,

A-A Minimum Of 1 Hour Of The Oldest Recorded Data Must Be Erased To Get A Valid Test.
B-A Total of 1 Hour of the Oldest Recorded Data Accumulated At the Time of Testing May Be
Erased.=
C-A Total Of No More Than 1 Hour Of Recorded Data May Be Erased.

85. Which Aircraft Must Be Equipped With an Approved Public Address and Crewmember
Interphone System?
A-All Turbine "Engine" Powered Aircraft Having A Seating Configuration Of More Than 19 Seats.
B-Aircraft Having A Passenger Seating Configuration, Excluding Any Pilot Seat, Of More Than 19
Seats.=
C-Multiengine Aircraft Having a Passenger Seating Configuration of 10 Seats or More.

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86-What Is the Highest Flight Level That Operations May Be Conducted Without the Pilot At The
Controls Wearing and Using Oxygen Mask, While the Other Pilot Is Away From the Duty Station?
A-FL 240
B-FL 250=
C-Above FL 250

87- For what purpose may cockpit voice recorders and flight data recorders not be used?
A-Determining causes of accidents and occurrences under investigation by the regulatory authority.
B-Determining any certificate action, or civil penalty, arising out of an accident or occurrence.=
C-Identifying procedures that may have been conducive to any accident, or occurrence resulting in
Investigation.

88-How long is cockpit voice recorder and flight data recorder kept, in the event of an accident or
Occurrence resulting in terminating the flight?
A-60 days.=
B-90 days.
C-30 days.

89-A Passenger Briefing By a Crewmember Shall Be Given, Instructing Passengers on the Necessity
of Using Oxygen In the Event of Cabin Depressurization, Prior To Flights Conducted Above
A-FL 200.
B-FL 240.
C-FL 250.=

90-In What Altitude Structure Is a Transponder Required When Operating In Controlled Airspace
A-Above 12,500ft MSL, Excluding the Airspace At and Below 2500ft AGL
B-Above 10,000ft MSL, Excluding the Airspace At and Below 2500ft AGL=
C-Above 14,500ft MSL, Excluding the Airspace At and Below 2500ft AGL

91-The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency shall be
assigned by the
A-Pilot in command.
B-Air carrier’s chief pilot.
C-Certificate holder.=

92-What action shall the pilot in command take if it becomes necessary to shut down one of the two
engines on an air carrier airplane?
A-Land at the airport which the pilot considers to be as safe as the nearest suitable airport in point of
time.=
B-Land at the nearest suitable airport in point of time at which a safe landing can be made.
C-Land at the nearest suitable airport, including military, that has a crash and rescue unit.

93- If a Flight Engineer Becomes Incapacitated During Flight, Who May Perform the
Flight Engineer's Duties?
A- The Second in Command Only.
B- Any Flight Crewmember, If Qualified.=
C- Either Pilot, If They Have a Flight Engineer Certificate.

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 REVISION 1, DEC 2021 DATS CAA PREPARATION TEST AIR LAW REGULATION AND OPS PROC 2

94-A dispatch release for commercial air carrier must contain or have attached to it.
A-Minimum fuel supply and weather information for the complete flight.=
B-Trip number and weight and balance data.
C-Weather information for the complete flight and a crew list.

95-What information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a commercial or
domestic air carrier flight?
A-Departure airport, intermediates stops, destinations, alternate airport and trip number.=
B-Names of all passengers on board and minimum fuel supply.
C-Cargo load, weight and balance data, and identification number of the aircraft.

96-A turbine-engine-powered commercial air carrier airplane is released to an airport which has no
available alternate. What is the required fuel reserve?
A-2 hours at normal cruise speed in a no wind condition fuel consumption.
B-2 hours at normal cruise fuel consumption=
C-30 minutes, plus 10 percent of the total flight time.

97-What information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a commercial or
domestic air carrier flight?
A-Type of operation (e.g IFR, VFR), Trip number.=
B-Total fuel supply and minimum fuel required on board the airplane.
C-Passenger manifest, company or organization name, and cargo weight.

98. When proceeding to the alternate airport, which minimums apply?

A-The IFR alternate minimums section in front of the AIP IAP book.
B-2000-3 for at least 1 hour before until 1 hour after the ETA.
C-The actual minimums shown on the IAP chart for the airport.=

99. Where Are the Routes Listed That Require Special Navigation Equipment or a flight Navigator.
A- Certificate Holder's Operations Specifications.=
B- International Aeronautical Information Manual.
C- International Notices to Airmen.

100-Routes that require a flight navigator are listed in the

A- Certificate holder's, Operations Specifications.=
B- International Notices to Airmen.
C- International Aeronautical Information Manual

END

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