REVISION 1, DEC 2021 DATS CAA PREPARATION TEST PAPER 1 ALL IN ONE 3

FLIGHT DISPATCH: CAA PREPARATION TEST PAPER 1

Preparation Test 3 (PT3)

Purpose: This test contains nine parts/lesson. The purpose of this mastery test is to:
 To check the trainee competency and readiness to attempt the CAA Flight
Dispatch paper 1 Examination

References: Refer to the following materials during this test:

 Only the test items booklet for Preparation Test 3, PT3 and the answer
sheet.

Instructions: There are 100 multiple – choice questions.

 Answer all questions because each carry 1 mark.
 Time Allowed: 50 Minutes
 Remember to stay clear of any document that will be used against you as an
exhibit.
 If you need more plain sheets, just raise up your hand and someone will
attend to you.

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1-If the unit of measuring MAC is in percentage, what is the percentage of LEMAC?
A. 100 %
B. 25 %
C. 0 % =
D. 50 %

2-If the unit of measuring MAC is in percentage, what is the percentage of TEMAC?
A. 100 % =
B. 25 %
C. 0 %
D. 50 %

3-Stratiform clouds contain

A. small water droplets of rime ice hit the aircraft and freezes rapidly =
B. large water droplets of clear ice hit the aircraft and freezes slowly
C. no water droplets

4-Cumuliform clouds contain

A. small water droplets of rime ice hit the aircraft and freezes rapidly
B. large water droplets of clear ice hit the aircraft and freezes slowly =
C. no water droplets

5-A VFR flight while reporting to ATC should include details like
A. Departure aerodrome, alternate aerodrome, route, destination, altitude, true airspeed =
B. Departure aerodrome, destination alternate, true airspeed
C. No option is correct

6-Area control centers issue clearances for the purpose of

A. Achieving separation between IFR Flights
B. Providing flight information service
C. Providing advisory service
D. Achieving separation between controlled flights =

7-Whenever an ATIS is provided, the broadcast information shall be updated

A. At least every half an hour independently of any significant change
B. As prescribed by the MET Office
C. Immediately a significant change occurs

8-When are ATIS broadcasts updated?

A. Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values =
B. Every 30 minutes if weather conditions are below those for VFR; otherwise hourly
C. Only when weather conditions change enough to require a change in the active runway or
instrument approach in use
D. Only when the ceiling and/or visibility changes by a reportable value

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9-What is a controlled flight?

A. A flight under IFR and in accordance with AOC
B. A flight which is subjected to an ATC clearance
C. A flight in controlled airspace in IFR or VFR =

10-A controlled flight is:

A. Any flight in C, D or E class airspace.
B. Any flight in uncontrolled airspace.
C. Any flight which is subject to an ATC clearance. =
D. Any IFR flight.

11-An air traffic control unit

A. may not ask an aircraft to change its call sign
B. may not ask an aircraft to change its call sign after accepting flight plan
C. may ask an aircraft to change its call sign for safety reasons and to avoid confusion between similar
call signs. =

12-Who is authorized to change the aircraft radiotelephony call sign temporarily?

A. Pilot-in-Command
B. Operator
C. ATC unit =
D. Dispatcher

13-The request that is made from an aircraft to an ATC is called

A. --------advisory
B.
C.

14- If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot in command, he may:

A. Proceed according to the operational flight plan.
B. Request and obtain an amended clearance. =
C. Follow the given clearance.
D. Both A and C are correct.

15-A controlled flight zone is ---------

A. extending from the surface to a particular altitude
B.
C.

16-A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified upper limit is:
A. Control zone =
B. Advisory airspace
C. Control area
D. Air traffic zone

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17-A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the Earth to a specified upper limit is:
A. Air traffic zone.
B. Control area.
C. Control zone. =
D. Advisory airspace.

18-An airspace extending upwards from surface of the earth is….

A. Control area
B. Control zone =
C. ATZ
D. TMA

19-A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth is called a:
A. Control zone.
B. Control area. =
C. Control center.
D. Terminal control area.

20-A danger zone is a----------------

A.
B.
C.

21-What is a danger area?

A. An airspace of defined dimensions above the land areas or territorial waters of a State within which
flight of aircraft is prohibited.
B. An airspace of defined dimensions within which activities dangerous to the flight of aircraft may
exist at specified times. =
C. A NOTAM activated airspace where the general flight rules are disregarded.
D. An airspace of defined dimensions within which air traffic control service is provided to IFR flights
and to VFR flights in accordance with the airspace classification.

22-The space on the aircraft which is separated by numbers of -------- is called

A. Datum
B. Station
C.

23-A location in the aeroplane which is identified by a number designating its distance from the datum
is known as:
A. Index
B. Moment
C. Station =
D. MAC

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24-In mass and balance the index is gotten from

A. moment divided by weight
B. a fixed for airplane type
C.

25-In mass and balance calculations the " index" is:

A. an imaginary vertical plane or line from which all measurements are taken
B. the range of moments the centre of gravity (cg) can have without making the aeroplane unsafe to fly
C. a location in the aeroplane identified by a number
D. the moment divided by a constant =

26-In mass and balance terms, what is an index?

A. A mass divided by a moment
B. A moment divided by a mass
C. A moment divided by a constant =
D. A cut down version of a force

27-Operating mass of an airplane is -------

A.
B.
C.

28-The operating mass of an aircraft is:

A. The empty mass plus crew, crew baggage and catering
B. The empty mass plus the trip fuel mass
C. The dry operating mass plus the take-off fuel mass =
D. The empty mass plus the take-off fuel mass

29-The Operating Mass:

A. is the lower of the structural mass and the performance limited mass
B. is the higher of the structural mass and the performance limited mass
C. is the actual mass of the aircraft on take-off
D. is the dry operating mass and the fuel load =

30-When an aircraft is taxing before clearing to the threshold, what the ATC gives the pilot is called.
A. ATC advisory =
B. ATC authorization
C. ATC request
D. ATC clearance

31- Thunderstorm formation requires:

A) Unstable lapse rate
B) Lifting actions
C) High moisture
D) All answers are correct =

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32-What conditions are necessary for the formation of a thunderstorm?

A) Frontal activity cumulus clouds and sufficient moisture
B) Cumulus clouds unbalance of static electricity and turbulence
C) Sufficient heat moisture and electricity
D) Initial lifting action unstable air and sufficient moisture =

33-What are the requirements for the formation of a thunderstorm?

A) Sufficient water vapor and a lifting action
B) A cumulus cloud with sufficient moisture
C) A cumulus cloud with sufficient moisture and an inverted lapse rate
D) Sufficient moisture an unstable lapse rate and lifting action =

34-Clouds, fog or dew will always form when:

A) Water vapor condenses
B) Relative humidity exceeds 100% =
C) Water vapor is present
D) The dew point is higher than the temperature

34-Clouds fog or dew will always form when:

A) The temperature and dew point are equal
B) Water vapor condenses
C) The dew point is higher than the temperature =
D) Relative humidity exceeds 100 percent

35-What does the word “CANCEL” mean?

A) Wait and I will call you.
B) A change has been made to your last clearance. =
C) Annul the previously transmitted clearance.
D) Consider that transmission as not sent.

36-What is the meaning of the phrase "VERIFY"?

A) I hereby indicate the separation between two portions of the message.
B) Check and confirm with the originator.
C) No, or permission not granted or that is not correct. =
D) Repeat all or the following part of your last transmission.

37-What is the meaning of the phrase "ACKNOWLEDGE"?

A. I have received all of your last transmission.
B. Repeat all or the following part of your last transmission.
C. Let me know that you have received and understood this message. =
D. My transmission is ended and I expect a response from you.

38-How does the height of the tropopause normally vary with latitude in the northern hemisphere?
A) It remains constant throughout the year.
B) It remains constant from north to south.
C) It increases from south to north.
D) It decreases from equator to pole. =

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39-Which statement is true concerning the tropopause from the equator to the poles?
A) The tropopause height decreases, the tropopause temperature increases. =
B) The tropopause height decreases, the tropopause temperature decreases.
C) The tropopause height increases, the tropopause temperature increases.
D) The tropopause height increases, the tropopause temperature decreases.

40-One of the characteristic of the tropopause is?

A) Abrupt change in temperature laps rate =
B) Abrupt change in visibility
C) Abrupt change in wind direction
D) Abrupt change in type of cloud

41-Which feature is associated with the tropopause?

A) Absence of wind and turbulent conditions
B) Absolute upper limit of cloud formation
C) Abrupt change in temperature lapse rate =
D) Constant height above the earth

42-The decision making in emergency situations requires firstly:

A) The whole crew to focus on the problem.
B) Speed of reaction.
C) Informing ATC thoroughly about the situation.
D) Distribution of tasks and crew coordination. =

43-Thunderstorms in exceptional circumstances can occur in a warm front if

a) the cold air is convectively unstable
b) the cold air is convectively stable
c) the warm air is convectively stable
d) the warm air is convectively unstable =

44-What are the meteorological prerequisites, at low level, for thunderstorms formed by lifting
processes, over land?
a) Low temperatures, low humidity
b) High temperatures, high humidity =
c) Subsidence, inversion
d) High air pressure (> 1013 hPa), high temperatures

45-Which of the following meteorological phenomenon indicates upper level instability which may
lead to thunderstorm development?
a) Red cirrus
b) Halo
c) AC lenticularis
d) AC castellanus =

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46-What are the requirements for the formation of a thunderstorm?

a) An adequate supply of moisture, conditional instability and a lifting action =
b) A cumulus cloud with sufficient moisture associated with an inversion
c) Water vapour and high pressure
d) A stratocumulus cloud with sufficient moisture

47-Why are indications about the height of the tropopause not essential for flight documentation in the
tropics?
a) The tropopause is generally well above the flight level actually flown =
b) The temperatures of the tropical tropopause are always very cold and therefore not important
c) Tropopause information are of no value
d) The meteorological services are unable to provide such a chart

48-Going from the equator to the north pole, the altitude of the tropopause
a) decreases and its temperature decreases
b) decreases and its temperature increases =
c) increases and its temperature increases
d) increases and its temperature decreases

49-The troposphere is the

a) boundary between the stratosphere and the mesosphere
b) part of the atmosphere below the tropopause =
c) part of the atmosphere above the stratosphere
d) boundary between the mesosphere and thermosphere

50-The tropopause is a level at which

a) temperature ceases to fall with increasing height =
b) vertical currents are strongest
c) water vapour content is greatest
d) pressure remains constant

51-The tropopause is lower

a) south of the equator than north of it
b) over the North Pole than over the equator =
c) over the equator than over the South Pole
d) in summer than winter in moderate latitudes

52-The height and the temperature of the tropopause are respectively in the order of
a) 8 km and - 75°C over the poles
b) 16 km and -40°C over the poles
c) 16 km and -75°C over the equator =
d) 8 km and -40°C over the equator

53-In the mid-latitudes the stratosphere extends on an average from

a) 85 to more than 200 km
b) 50 to 85 km
c) 11 to 50 km =
d) 0 to 11 km

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54-The layer of the Earth´s atmosphere which most concerns aviators is called the:
a) Tropopause
b) Troposphere =
c) Equatorial zone
d) Stratosphere

55-The percentage concentration of gases in the atmosphere is constant from the surface of the earth to
a certain altitude with the exception of:
a) Hydrogen
b) Water vapour =
c) Oxygen
d) Nitrogen

56-Define the tropopause:

a) That area where the temperature change does not exceed two-thirds of one degree Celsius per
thousand foot increase in altitude over a range of 6000 feet =
b) A relatively thin layer, or boundary zone, which separates the lower atmosphere from the
tropopause
c) That area where the temperature change does not exceed two-thirds of one degree Celsius per
thousand foot increase in altitude independent of latitude
d) A relatively thick layer or boundary zone below the troposphere

57-What is the average temperature of the tropical tropopause?

a) -40°C
b) -56,5°C
c) -65°C
d) -75°C =

58-Which layer of the atmosphere contains more than 90 % of the total amount of water vapour?
a) Higher stratosphere
b) Ionosphere
c) Troposphere =
d) Lower stratosphere

59-At a certain position, the temperature on the 300 hPa chart is -48°C; according to the tropopause
chart, the tropopause is at FL 330. What is the most likely temperature at FL 350?
a) -50°C
b) -54°C =
c) -58°C
d) -56,5°C

60-What is the most likely temperature at the tropical tropopause?

a) -55°C
b) -35°C
c) -25°C
d) -75°C =

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61-The 0° isotherm is forecast to be at FL 50. At what FL would you expect a temperature of -6° C?
a) FL 100
b) FL 80 =
c) FL 20
d) FL 110

62-In the lower part of the stratosphere the temperature

a) increases with altitude
b) is almost constant =
c) increases at first and decreases afterward
d) decreases with altitude

63-Which is true of the temperature at the tropopause?

a) It is higher in polar regions than in equatorial regions =
b) There is no significant difference
c) It is highest in middle latitudes
d) I t is higher in equatorial regions than in polar region

64-How does temperature vary with increasing altitude in the ICAO standard atmosphere below the
tropopause?
a) Increases
b) Decreases =
c) At first it increases and higher up it decreases
d) Remains constant

65-To avoid wrong decisions by the pilot, an aircraft system should at least be able to
a) tolerate the deviation
b) correct the deviation
c) report its malfunction =
d) report the deviation

66-Which of the following statements is correct regarding decision making?

a) Deciding means imposing one's point of view
b) Deciding means applying an automatic procedure
c) Deciding means choosing between alternatives =
d) Deciding means being able to come up with original solutions

67-Which problem may be overlooked in the process of making a decision?

a) The captain's superior knowledge, justified by his/her status
b) Preparing decisions promotes the appearance of inflexibilities
c) Preparing decisions often leads to strategies of minimum commitment
d) Owing to great haste, bypassing analysis of the current actual situation in order to apply the
decision prepared beforehand =

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68-Decision-making results in:

A. an objective choice concerning applicable solutions for a given end
B. a subjective choice concerning applicable solutions
C. a choice always based on the experience of the PIC
D. a choice between different solutions for achieving a goal =

69-When an aircraft arrived at the destination aerodrome who is the first person to be notify?
A. ATC
B. Departure aerodrome
C. Arrival aerodrome
D.

70-What is the meaning of the phrase "ROGER"?

A. I have received all of your last transmission. =
B. I understand your message and will comply with it.
C. My transmission is ended and I expect a response from you.
D. Permission for proposed action granted.

71-What signal shall be used by an emergency aircraft on radio?

A. SOS
B. Emergency
C. Distress
D. MAYDAY =

72-When an aircraft has an urgent message shall say?

A. MAYDAY
B. PANPAN =
C. XXX
D. SOS

73-Which one is the urgency signal code?

A. SOS
B. PANPAN =
C. MAYDAY
D. Parachute flare red light

74-An aircraft in distress shall send the following signal by radiotelephony:

A. PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN
B. DETRESFA, DETRESFA, DETRESFA
C. MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY =
D. URGENCY, URGENCY, URGENCY

75-Which distress signal is used in a distress condition, requiring immediate assistance?

A. MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY. =
B. PANPAN, PANPAN, PANPAN.
C. DECLARING EMERGENCY.
D. HELP ME.

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76-The phrase, with which a radiotelephony distress message is being started, is:
A. MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY. =
B. PANPAN, PANPAN, PANPAN.
C. EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY.
D. HELP, HELP, HELP.

77-The two types of emergency messages are----

A. MAYDAY AND PAN PAN =
B. DISTRESS AND URGENCY
C. URGENCY AND MAYDAY
D. DISTRESS AND PAN PAN

78-How do you write 122.5 in radiotelephony?

A. WUN TOO TOO DAYSEEMAL FIFE =
B. ONE TWO TWO DECIMAL FIVE
C. WUN TWO TWO DECIMAL FIFE
D.

79-Location of the tropopause is of importance to the pilot because it signifies-----

A. Height of the thermal wind
B. Absence of Jetstream and strong winds
C.

80-The best type of arousal (stress) for maximum performance is

A. Optimal
B. Moderate =
C. High
D. Low

81-On the readability scale what does READABILITY 3 mean?

A. Readable but with difficulty. =
B. No problem to understand.
C. Loud and clear.
D. Unreadable.

82-An amber landing gear warning light indicates that the landing gear is
A-Unsafe
B-In transit
C-Up and lock =
D-Down and lock

83-An amber landing gear warning light indicates that the landing gear is
A-Unsafe
B-In transit
C-Up and lock =
D-Down and lock

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84-Where in the NCAR will you find detailed of flight crew duty rest period set out?
A) part 8 =
B) Part 2
C) Part 7
D) ICAO Annex 1

85-In which part of ICAO annex talk about crew rest?

A) 6 =
B) 2
C) 11
D) 10

86-An attention gaining mechanism is required in information processing since:

A. It is required to pass information from the working to the long term memory =
B. All option are correct
C. The memory cannot assimilate all the stimuli around us
D. the processing capacity and working are limited

87-Which of the following statement defines a flight release?

A. Both options are correct
B. None of the options is correct
C. A preparation identifying the type of operation with the permitting weight limitations, fuel
requirement, weather conditions at departure, en-route destination and alternate airport for safe
operation =
D. A flight prepared for departure with qualified crew and considering baggage weight and balance,
flight plan, departure weather contingency plans and security brief

88-Which of the following statement regarding drag is true:

a. The formation of waves on the aircraft will effectively increase the drag on the aircraft
b. Boundary layer separation drag is a transonic phenomena which build up and then delay supersonic
speed =
c. The formation of shockwaves on the aircraft will effectively reduce the drag on the aircraft
d. Once the aircraft passes through the sound barrier drag reduces to a value below that of the subsonic
speed

89-If a flight plan has been filed prior to departure and the departure of the aircraft is delayed and the
ATC is not informed, the flight plan will be cancelled after:
a. Climb, cruise, descent and landing
b. Descent, approach, landing, and taxi operations, irrespective of altitudes AMSL
c. Taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 10,000 feet AMSL, excluding
cruise flight
d. Taxi, takeoff, landing and all other operations conducted below 10,000 feet AMSL, including cruise
flight =

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90-at high subsonic or transonic speeds the most important type of drag to be considered is:
A-Induced drag
B-form drag
C-interference drag =

91-A Pilot start to complain of severe earache as he descends, what is the possible cause:
a. A sinotic barotrauma
b. A blocked middle ear =
c. A blocked outer ear
d. A blocked inner ear

92-A pilot is detailed to fly on his 60th birthday. What must the operator ensure?
a. A birthday cake is part of the crew rations of for the flight
b. he is the only crew member over 60
c. That he must have passed the extended age medical examination and his licence is correctly
endorsed =
d. That he is the only pilot who is 60 or over

93-Which of the following statements is true about holder of a CPL?

A-The holder of a CPL can fly an aircraft 12500Ibs as PIC
B-The CPL holder can only fly an aircraft 5700kg as PIC
C-Both responses above are correct =

94-If an aerodrome and runway conditions are hazard to safe operations who is responsible for
restricting or suspending all commercial air transport operations to such aerodrome and runway until
those conditions are corrected:
A-FAAN
B-NCAA =
C-PIC or AOC holder

95-A PIC shall allow a flight to continue toward any aerodrome of intended landing where commercial
air transport operations have been restricted or suspended if?
A-Permission is given to him by Air Traffic Controller
B-The PIC is instrument rated
C-There is no safer alternative =

96-What action is required prior to take-off if snow is adhering to the wings of an air carrier airplane?
A-Turn on wing deice prior to takeoff
B-Assure that the snow is removed =
C-Add 15 knots to the normal VR speed

97-The oxygen requirements for occupants of pressurized airplane operated at altitudes above 24,000ft
MSL is dependent upon the airplane ability to descend safely to an altitude of:
A-10,000 feet MSL in 4 minutes
B-15,000 feet MSL in 4 minutes =
C-12,000 feet MSL at a minimum rate of 2500ft/min

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98-According to NCAR the rule for emergency locator transmitter (ELT) says
A-ELTs carried in an airplane shall operate on both both 406 MHz and 121.5 MHz =
B-Must be use within 1 month
C-All airplane most have a Nigerian registration code for ELT

99-Maximum indicated Airspeed below 10,000ft

A-250 =
B-230
C-200

100-Circuit height at any Airfield is

A-1000 feet above airfield elevation
B-1000 feet for reciprocating aircraft, 1500 feet for turbine power
C-1000 feet above airfield elevation, unless the AIP specifies something different =

END

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