Mcqs Final For Prints 0

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CHAPTER # 01
1. ............... deals with the study of the structure of an organism and the relationships of its parts.
a) Physiology
b) Anatomy
c) Histology
d) Embryology
2. Word anatomy is derived from
a) Latin word
b) Italian word
c) Greek word
d) None of these
3. ...........Is used to describe the study of body parts visible to the naked eye
a) Cytology
b) Histology
c) Gross anatomy
d) Physiology
4. Study of tissues is called
a) Histology
b) Cytology
c) Embryology
d) Pathological anatomy
5. Study of cell is called
a) Histology
b) Cytology
c) Embryology
6. Study of diseased body structure is called
a) Histology
b) Cytology
c) Embryology
7. ................ is the branch of anatomy which deals with the study of embryo.
a) Histology
b) Cytology
c) Embryology
8. ..............deals with the study of structure of different organs and body parts of human.
a) Human anatomy
b) Histology
c) Cytology
d) embryology
9. .............. helps in understanding congenital deformities and defects.
a) histology
b) cytology
c) embryology
d) pathological anatomy
10. ..............is the branch of anatomy that deals with the study of any specific part of the body.
a) Systemic anatomy
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b) Regional anatomy
c) Embryology
d) Cytology
11. ..............is the branch of anatomy that deals with the study of any system of body is called systemic
anatomy.
a) Systemic anatomy
b) Regional anatomy
c) Embryology
d) Cytology
12. .............Is the branch of anatomy that deals with the study of diagnosis of disease.
a) Cross- section anatomy
b) Applied anatomy
c) Regional anatomy
d) Systemic anatomy
13. .........is the branch of anatomy that deals with the study of cross-sectional part of human body.
a) Cross- section anatomy
b) Applied anatomy
c) Regional anatomy
d) Systemic anatomy
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CHAPTER # 02
14. The part of body which is present in front or near to abdomen is called
a) Ventral/ Posterior
b) Dorsal/ Posterior
c) Ventral/ anterior
d) Dorsal / anterior
15. The part of body which present near to back side is called
a) Ventral/ Posterior
b) Dorsal/ Posterior
c) Ventral/ anterior
d) Dorsal / anterior
16. The part of body which is present towards upper side is called
a) Inferior
b) Anterior
c) Posterior
d) Superior
17. The part of body which is present towards lower side is called
a) Inferior
b) Anterior
c) Posterior
d) Superior
18. The line which divides the body into two equal , right and left parts is called
a) Lateral
b) Medial
c) Medial line
d) Deep
19. The parts of the body that are present near to the medial line is called
a) Lateral
b) Medial
c) Medial line
d) Deep
20. The parts of body which are present away from the medial line.
a) Lateral
b) Medial
c) Medial line
d) Deep
21. Any part which is away from the surface is called
a) Lateral
b) Medial
c) Medial line
d) Deep
22. Any part which is near from the surface is called
a) Deep
b) Superficial
c) Proximal
d) Distal
23. It is the part which is present nearer to the reference point.
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a) Deep
b) Superficial
c) Proximal
d) Distal
24. It is the part which is present away to the reference point.
a) Deep
b) Superficial
c) Proximal
d) Distal
25. It is the part of body that present near to the medial line and towards the lower side.
a) Ipsilateral
b) Contralateral
c) Inferomedial
d) None of these
26. Two parts of body that present at the same side of body.
a) Ipsilateral
b) Contralateral
c) Inferomedial
d) None of these
27. Two body organs which are present opposite to each other is called
a) Ipsilateral
b) Contralateral
c) Inferomedial
d) None of these
28. Bending movement in which angle between two bones decreases
a) Flexion
b) Extension
c) Abduction
d) Adduction
29. Extending movement in which angle or distance between two bones increases.
a) Flexion
b) Extension
c) Abduction
d) Adduction
30. Movement of limb away from the medial line.
a) Flexion
b) Extension
c) Abduction
d) Adduction
31. Movement of limb towards the medial line.
a) Flexion
b) Extension
c) Abduction
d) Adduction
32. Movement of forearm in which position that palm facing downward.
a) Inversion
b) Eversion
c) Supination
d) pronation
33. Movement of forearm in which position that palm facing upward.
a) Inversion
b) Eversion
c) Supination
d) pronation
34. Movement of sole of foot towards the medial line.
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a) Inversion
b) Eversion
c) Supination
d) pronation
35. Movement of sole of foot away from the medial line.
a) Inversion
b) Eversion
c) Supination
d) pronation
36. Movement of bones towards the upper side is called
a) Planter flexion
b) Depression
c) Dorsiflexion
d) Elevation
37. Movement of bones towards the lower side is called
a) Planter flexion
b) Depression
c) Dorsiflexion
d) Elevation
38. Movement of the sole of foot in which angle or distance between foot and leg increase.
a) Planter flexion
b) Depression
c) Dorsiflexion
d) Elevation
39. If the distance between leg and foot is decreased is called
a) Planter flexion
b) Depression
c) Dorsiflexion
d) Elevation
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CHAPTER#03
40. Which one of the following is a part of skull?

a) Humerus
b) Radius
c) Parietal bone
d) Ulna
e) Tibia
41. Which one of the following is a facial bone?
a) Nasal bone
b) Maxilla
c) Zygomatic bone
d) All of these
42. Which one of the following is not a part of upper limb?
a) Arm
b) Fore arm
c) Tibia
d) Hand
43. .......... starts from scapula and ended to elbow joint.
a) Arm
b) Fore arm
c) Hand
d) Tibia
44. .................... is long bone in upper limb.
a) Radius
b) Ulna
c) Humerus
d) Fibula
45. ................. opposite to the radius.
a) Tibia
b) Fibula
c) Humerus
d) Ulna
46. In start of hand there are 8 little bones which are called
a) Metacarpals
b) Carpals
c) Phalanges
d) None of these
47. How many metacarpals are present in hands
a) 14
b) 5
c) 8
d) None of these
48. How many phalanges are present in hands.
a) 14
b) 5
c) 8
d) None of these
49. ..............Is start from pelvic girdle to knee.
a) Tibia
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b) Fibula
c) Femur
d) Radius
50. .........Is attached to the nearest to medial line.
a) Fibula
b) Tibia
c) Both A & B
d) None of these
51. ............. is away from medial line.
a) Fibula
b) Tibia
c) Both A & B
d) None of these
52. ...............is large bone and bear whole of the weight.
a) Fibula
b) Tibia
c) Both A & B
d) None of these
53. ...........is small it is attach to muscles.
a) Fibula
b) Tibia
c) Both A & B
d) None of these
54. ............ also called knee cap.
a) Fibula
b) Tibia
c) Patella
d) None of these
55. ..............connects femur and tibia its bone is somewhat like triangular shape or sesamoid bone.
a) Fibula
b) Tibia
c) Patella
d) None of these
56. There are 14 phalanges in
a) Hands
b) Foot
c) Both a & b
d) None of these
57. There are.............bones in vertebral column.
a) 44
b) 22
c) 25
d) 33
58. Bones of vertebral column are classified in.........different regions.
a) 6
b) 4
c) 5
d) 3
59. There are......... bones in cervical region
a) 5
b) 7
c) 4
d) 12
60. There are ......... bones in thoracic region
a) 5
8
b) 7
c) 4
d) 12
61. There are ......bones in lumbar region.
a) 5
b) 7
c) 4
d) 12
62. Number of bones in sacrum region is
a) 5
b) 7
c) 4
d) 12
63. Number of bones in coccyx region is
a) 5
b) 7
c) 4
d) 12
64. Coxal bone consists of
a) 2 parts
b) 3 parts
c) 4 parts
d) None of these
65. Digestive system consist of long muscular tube called
a) Gastrointestinal tract
b) Alementary canal
c) Both a & b
d) None of these
66. Which one of the following is not an accessory organ of digestive system
a) Pacrease
b) Liver
c) Gall bladder
d) Stomach
67. Which one of the following is not a gland of oral cavity
a) Parotid gland
b) Submandibular gland
c) Sublingual gland
d) Adrenal gland
68. Length of pharynx ranges from
a) 2-3inches
b) 7-8inches
c) 5-6inches
d) 1-2 inches
69. Pharynx consists of
a) 2 parts
b) 3 parts
c) 5 parts
d) 4 parts
70. Length of esophagus is
a) 20cm
b) 15cm
c) 25cm
d) 12cm
71. ...............lies in median plate in thorax, infront of the vertebral column, behind the trachea.
a) Pharynx
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b) Bronchioles
c) Oral cavity
d) Esophagus
72. ..........starts from pharynx and end in stomach.
a) larynx
b) Bronchioles
c) Oral cavity
d) Esophagus
73. ..........like a muscular bag that connects above to the lower end of esophagus and below the duodenum.
a) liver
b) Oral cavity
c) Esophagus
d) stomach
74. Length of stomach is
a) 8inches
b) 15inches
c) 10inches
d) 14inches
75. .............extends from the stomach to ileocaecal junction.
a) Oral cavity
b) Small intestine
c) Large intestine
d) Esophagus
76. The length of the small intestine is about......... in male.
a) 7.1
b) 6.2
c) 6.9
d) 5
77. The length of the small intestine is about ………. in female.
a) 7.1
b) 6.2
c) 6.9
d) 5
78. Small intestine is divided into........ Parts.
a) 4
b) 2
c) 1
d) 3
79. The length of the deudenum is about
a) 2.5-3.8m
b) 2.5
c) 2-4m
d) None of these
80. The length of the jejunum is about
a) 2.5-3.8m
b) 2.5m
c) 2-4m
d) None of these
81. the length of the ileum is about
a) 2.5-3.8m
b) 2.5
c) 2-4m
d) None of these
82. Mucous membrane of small intestine has microscopic finger like projection called..
a) Duodenum
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b) Jejunum
c) Ileum
d) Villi
83. Length of large intestine is about
a) 2.5m
b) 6m
c) 1.5m
d) 3m
84. Which one of the following is not a part of large intestine.
a) Cecum
b) Colon
c) Rectum
d) Ileum
85. .........is upper prominent part of windpipe and opens into the trachea.
a) Larynx
b) Pharynx
c) Nose
d) None of these
86. .........Attached to the top of the thyroid cartilage &it helps to close off the larynx during swallowing.
a) Pharynx
b) Bronchioles
c) Trachea
d) Epiglottis
87. ......lies inside the larynx.
a) brochioles
b) Pharynx
c) Nasal cavity
d) Vocal cords
88. Length of trachea is about.
a) 6cm
b) 5cm
c) 10cm
89. ........ are formed by the bifurcation of the trachea at the level of 5 thvertebrae.
a) Pharynx
b) Larynx
c) Bronchi
d) None of these
90. ........divide into alveoli.
a) Pharynx
b) Larynx
c) Bronchioles
d) None of these
91. Millions of......... are present in respiratory system and these are in close contact with capillaries,where blood
comes into almost in direct contact with air.
a) Pharynx
b) alveoli
c) Larynx
d) Bronchioles
92. ..........is basic structural & functional unit of kidney.
a) Neuron
b) Alveoli
c) Nephron
d) Both a & c
93. .........are pair of excretory organs situated on the posterior abdominal wall , on each side of the vertebral
column behind the peritoneum.
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a) Heart
b) Stomach
c) Small intestine
d) Kidney
94. ........are located mainly in the lumbar region.
a) Heart
b) Lungs
c) kidney
d) Esophagus
95. The outer zone of kidney is called
a) Medulla
b) Cortex
c) Pyramid
d) Both a & b
96. The inner zone kidney is called
a) Medulla
b) Cortex
c) Pyramid
d) Both a & b
97. .........contain straight collecting tubes.
a) Medulla
b) cortex
c) Pyramid
d) Both a & b
98. .........is the basic structural and functional unit of the kidney capable of forming urine.
a) Neuron
b) Alveoli
c) Nephron
d) Both a & c
99. Number of nephrons inBoth kidney is about.
a) 6 million
b) 5million
c) 1million
d) 2.4million
100. Which one of the following is not a part of nephron.
a) Bowmans capsule
b) Glomerulus
c) Distal convulated tubules
d) ureter
101. .......... Convey the urine from from kidney to bladder.
a) Urethra
b) Ureters
c) Both a & b
d) None of these
102. Weight of heart is about .....in male
a) 400g
b) 600g
c) 250g
d) 300g
103. Weight of heart is about......in female.
a) 250g
b) 300g
c) 600g
d) 400g
104. .......lies in the thorax,behind the sternum and between two lungs.
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a) Pharynx
b) Larynx
c) Heart
d) None of these
105. Which one of the following layer provide outer covering to the heart
a) Myocardium
b) Endocardium
c) Epicardium
d) None of these
106. .......is tough double layered membrane which covers the heart,between them fluid is present to lubricate
the heart.
a) Pericardium
b) Endocardium
c) Myocardium
d) Both a & c
107. There are............chambers of heart.
a) 3
b) 2
c) 4
d) 1
108. Tricuspid valve is present between
a) the left atrium and left ventricle
b) the right atrium and right ventricle
c) right ventricle and pulmonary artery
d) left ventricle and aorta
109. Bicuspid valve is present between
110. Aortic valve is present between
111. Pulmonary valve is present between
112. Which one the following is semilunar valve
a) bicuspid valve
b) tricuspid valve
c) aortic valve
d) none of these
113. ..........is largest artery
a) Capillaries
b) Aorta
c) Arterioles
d) None of these
114. ............distribute oxygenated blood to all parts of body.
a) Veins
b) Venules
c) Aorta
d) None of these
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115. .........connect arteries with capillaries.

a) Venules
b) Veins
c) Aorta
d) Arterioles
116. ............ is diffuse networks of blood vessels which connects arterioles with the venules.
a) Arteries
b) Veins
c) Capillaries
d) None of these
117. ..........carry deoxygenated blood towards the heart.
a) Arteries
b) Arterioles
c) veins
d) none of these
118. ........is a narrow fibromuscular that conducts urine & semen from the bladder.
a) Seminal vesicle
b) Prostate gland
c) Urethra
d) scrotum
119. ......mass made up of highly coiled tubes that store the spermatozoa.
a) Epidydimis
b) Scrotum
c) Seminal vesicle
d) None of these
120. ..........are the female gonads.
a) Uterine tubes
b) Uterus
c) Ovaries
d) None of these
121. Weight of ovary is about
a) 3g
b) 4-8g
c) 10g
d) None of these
122. ..........protects & provide nutrients to a fertilized ovum.
a) uterine tube
b) uterus
c) ovaries
d) none of these
123. .............deals with body function.
a) Anatomy
b) Physiology
c) Histology
d) Embryology
124. Physiology is a combination of two......words.
a) Italian
b) Greek
c) Latin
d) None of these
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CHAPTER# 02
125. Cell consists of.............. of water.

a) 25-50%
b) 20-25%
c) 90%
d) 65-80%
126. Thickness of cell membrane is
a) 6-7nm
b) 8-10nm
c) 5nm
d) 4nm
127. ............is lipid bilayer in nature in which carbohydrates are sandwich and proteins are also emended in it.
a) Cytoplasm
b) Nucleus
c) Microtubules
d) Cell membrane
128. Some carbohydrates in .............are helpful for binding of hormones. (Insulin)
a) Cytoplasm
b) Nucleus
c) Microtubules
d) Cell membrane
129. Water soluble substances are transported by attaching to the cell membrane_________
a) Phospholipids
b) Lipids
c) Proteins
d) Both a & b
130. ........... is the zone of cytoplasm near to the nucleus.
a) Ectoplasm
b) Endoplasm
c) Both a & b
d) None of these
131. ..........is synthesized by ribosome.
a) Lipids
b) Carbohydrates
c) Proteins
d) Both a & b
132. ............play a major role in glycogen metabolism.
a) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
b) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
c) Both a & b
d) Nucleus
133. ..........helps in detoxification of various toxins and alcohol.
a) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
b) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
c) Both a & b
134. Nucleus Which one of the following is a non-membranous organelle
a) Mitochondria
b) Golgi apparatus
c) Ribosomes
d) Both a & b
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135. There are........ Types of ribosomes are depending upon its functions.
a) Three
b) Two
c) Four
d) None of these
136. Formation of Messenger RNA from DNA is called as
a) transcription
b) translation
c) both a & b
d) none of these
137. ..........is responsible for packaging and lysosomes formation.
a) Ribosomes
b) Endoplasmic reticulum
c) Nucleus
d) Golgi apparatus
138. .......... modifies N-oligosaccharides.
a) Ribosomes
c) Nucleus
d) Golgi apparatus
139. Which one of the following organelle is called power house of the cell.
a) Ribosomes
c) mitochondria
d) Golgi apparatus
140. .........controls the cell division.
a) Ribosomes
c) Nucleus
d) Golgi apparatus
141. ......... is a control center of cell.
a) Ribosomes
c) Nucleus
d) Golgi apparatus
142. ......... made by Nucleus membrane, Nucleus plasma, Chromosomes andNucleolus.
a) Ribosomes
c) Nucleus
d) Golgi apparatus
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143. ......... is characterized by the presence of relatively few cells but a large amount of inter cellular substance
a) Epithelium
b) Connective tissue
c) Muscular tissue
d) Nervous tissue
144. Fibroblast, histiocytes, plasma cells, mast cells and fat cells constitute the common types of
a) Epithelium
c) Muscular tissue
d) Nervous tissue
145. Which one of the following is not a type of connective tissue fibers
a) Collagenous fibers
b) Reticular fibers
c) Elastic fibers
d) Fibroblast
146. Ground substances of connective tissues are composed of
a) Proteoglycans
b) Water
c) Glycoproteins
d) All of these
147. ...........group of tissues is found covering the body and lining cavities and tubes.
a) Epithelium
c) Muscular tissue
d) Nervous tissue
148. ...........consists of a single layer of identical cells.
a) Stratified epithelium
b) Simple epithelium
c) Both a & b
d) None of these
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149. Bone is a type of

a) Epithelium
c) Muscular tissue
d) Nervous tissue
150. ..............components of bone matrix is responsible for hardness of bone tissue and constitutes about 65% of
the dry weight of the bone.
a) Organic components
b) Inorganic components
c) Both a & b
d) None of these
151. In............ which the bone substance is in the form of slender Spicules and traveculae separated from each
other by numerous interconnecting cavities.
a) Spongy bone
b) Compact bone
c) Both a & b
d) None of these
152. In long bones the ends (epiphyses) are composed of............ covered by a thin shell of compact bone.
a) Spongy bone
b) Compact bone
c) Both a & b
d) None of these
153. In long bones the shaft (diaphysis) consists almost entirely of
a) Spongy bone
b) Compact bone
c) Both a & b
d) None of these
154. Which one of the following is not a long bone?
a) Femur
b) Tibia
c) Carpals
d) Fibula
155. Which one of the following is an example of flat bones?
a) Femur
b) Tibia
c) Carpals
d) Ribs
156. ..........consist of a core of spongy bone completely covered by a layer of compact bone.
a) Long bones
b) Short bones
c) Both a & b
d) None of these
157. Which one of the following is an example of sesamoid bones?
a) Tibia
b) Carpals
c) Ribs
d) Patella
158. Bone matrix is arranged as layers or lamellae ranging from...... in thickness.
a) 3 to 7 µm
b) 2-3 µm
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c) 1 µm
d) 8-10 µm
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159. There are.............types of joints.

a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five
160. Which one of the following immovable joints have fibrous tissue between the bones.
a) Fibrous joints
b) Cavitated joints
c) Cartilaginous joints
d) None of these
161. Which one of the following joints has Pad of fibro cartilage between the ends of the bones?
a) Fibrous joints
b) Cavitated joints
c) Cartilaginous joints
d) None of these
162. Which one of the following is an example of hinge joints.
a) Elbow
b) knee
c) ankle
d) all of these
163. Which one of the following is an example of gliding joints?
a) Joints between tarsals bones
b) Shoulder joints
c) Atlas joints
d) None of these
164. Which one of the following joints allows Movement around one axis.
a) Hinge joints
b) Gliding joints
c) Ball & socket joints
d) Pivot joints
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165. ......is a fluid containing white blood cells, which bathes the tissues and drains through the lymphatic system
into the bloodstream?
a) Plasma
b) Serum
c) Lymph
d) None of these
166. .........flow serves as an important route for intestinal fat absorption.
a) Plasma
b) Serum
c) Lymph
d) None of these
167. Which one of the following contain a lower percentage of proteins.
a) Plasma
b) Lymph
c) Both a & b
d) None of these
168. ............ serve as an important function in the absorption of fats and other nutrients.
a) Plasma
b) Serum
c) Lacteals
d) None of these
169. Which one of the following is a function of lymph nodes.
a) Filtration
b) Phagocytosis
c) Hematopoiesis
d) All of these
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CHAPTER#03
170. Which one of the following is a non cellular part of blood

a) RBC’s
b) WBC’s
c) Platelets
d) Plasma
171. Cellular part of blood consists of...........
a) 55%
b) 66%
c) 10%
d) 45%
172. Percentage of plasma consist of solid part
a) 9%
b) 91%
c) 1%
d) 50%
173. Which one of the following is an example of plasma protein?
a) Urea
b) Uric acid
c) Creatinine
d) Albumin
174. Which one of the following is an example of non-nitrogenous substance?
a) Glucose
b) Galactose
c) Triglyceroids
d) All of these
175. Life span of red blood cells is
a) 80days
b) 90days
c) 120days
d) 30days
176. Erythrocytes are
a) Nucleated
b) Non nucleated
c) Both a & b
d) None of these
177. RBC’s count decrease during
a) Evening
b) Sleep
c) Early morning
d) None of these
178. Amount of globin present in hemoglobin is
a) 100%
b) 96%
c) 94%
d) 98%
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179. Which hemoglobin is necessary for hemoglobin synthesis?

a) Vitamin B12
b) Vitamin E
c) Vitamin D
d) Vitamin A
180. Average volume of blood is
a) 6L
b) 5L
c) 10L
d) 11L
181. Normal pH of blood is
a) 7
b) 8
c) 7.4
d) 9
182. Heme is a
a) Protein part
b) Non-protein part
c) Both a & b
d) None of these
183. Hb in RBC’s combines with……… form carbhemoglobin
a) O2
b) N2
c) CO2
d) Ca
184. Which one of the following is non-nucleated cells present in blood
a) Erythrocytes
b) Thrombocytes
c) Both a & b
d) Leukocytes
185. Blood containing……….. is of purple reddish in color
a) O2
b) CO2
c) N2
d) None of these
186. Factors needed for erythropoesis
a) Proteins
b) Hormones
c) Vitamin B12
d) All of these
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187. ............. defined as the decreased level of Hb% in the blood below the reference level for the age and sex of
the individual.
a) Hemorrhage
b) Anemia
c) Pulse
d) None of these
188. Peptic ulcer is an example of
a) Acute hemorrhagic anemia
b) Post hemorrhagic anemia
c) Both a & b
d) None of these
189. Which one of the following type of anemia may be due to disturbance of proliferation and maturation of
RBC,s.
a) Aplastic anemia
b) Iron deficiency anemia
c) Anemia due to renal failure
d) Anemia due to endocrine disorders
190. Which one of the following drugs may cause aplastic anemia
a) Chloramphenicol
b) Sulphonamide
c) Chlorpheniramine
d) All of these
191. Megaloblastic anemia may caused due to
a) lack of vit B12
b) deficiency of folic acid.
c) Both a & b
d) None of these
192. ..........is the type of anemia in which there is atrophy of gastric mucosa.
a) Hemorrhagic anemia
b) Sickle cell anemia
c) Pernicious anemia
d) None of these
193. ........... is a type of anemia there is early rupturing of the red blood cells and release of hemoglobin.
a) Megaloblastic anemia
b) Hemorrhagic anemia
c) Pernicious anemia
d) Hemolytic anemia
194. Which one of the following is not an Intracorpuscular abnormalities
a) Hereditary spherocytosis
b) Sickle cell anemia.
c) Thalassemia.
d) Erythroblastosis fetalis.
24
195. The rate at which this settling of RBCs occurs is known as......
a) Sedimentation
b) Erythrocytes sedimentation rate
c) Both a & b
d) None of these
196. Decreased viscosity of RBC,s causes
a) Decrease in ESR
b) no effect
c) increase in ESR
d) none of these
197. Which one of the following factor may cause increase in ESR
a) Increase in cholesterol
b) Increase in alpha-globulin
c) Increase in fibrinogen
d) All of these
198. In old age ESR
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) No effect
d) None of these
199. Which one of the following pathological conditions causes decrease in ESR
a) Severe trauma
b) burns
c) Septicemia
d) Cardiac failure
25
200. .........are developing from red bone marrow, have conspicuous granules in their cytoplasm.
a) Granular leukocytes
b) AGranular leukocytes
c) Both a & b
d) None of these
201. .........develop from the lymphoid tissue,cytoplasmic granules are not seen
a) Granular leukocytes
b) AGranular leukocytes
c) Both a & b
d) None of these
202. Which one of the following plays a role in defense mechanism of body
a) Platelets
b) Leukocytes
c) RBC’S
d) Both a & b
203. Which one of the following is granulocyte?
a) Neutrophills
b) Monocytes
c) Basophiles
d) Both a & c
204. Which one of the following is agranulocytes
a) Neutrophills
b) Monocytes
c) Basophiles
d) Both a & b
205. Average WBC’s present in the body is
a) 7000/mm3
b) 8000/mm3
c) 9000/mm3
d) 10,000/mm3
206. Life span of monocytes
a) 2hours
b) 1hour
c) 3hour
d) 10-12hours
207. Lymphocytes and plasma cells are produced in
a) Spleen
b) Thymus
c) Tonsils
d) All of these
26
208. Platelets are

a) Regular shape
b) Irregular shape
c) Concave shape
d) None of these
209. Life span of platelets is
a) 2-3 days
b) 6-10 days
c) 4-9 days
d) 8 days
210. Platelets normal count in blood is between
a) 100,000/cumm
b) 150,000 to 300,000/cumm
c) 50,000/cumm
d) None of these
211. Which one of the following is a first step in hemostasis
a) Clotting of blood.
b) Platelet aggregation
c) Platelet adhesion
d) None of these
212. Which one of the following is an Indications for Platelets Transfusion
a) Thrombocytopenia
b) Platelets count below 40,000.
c) Platelet dysfunction
d) All of these
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213. Prothrombin helps in

a) Fightening againt disease
b) Giving red color to blood
c) Hormone regulations
d) Blood clotting
214. Fibrinogen helps in
a) fighting against diseases
b) giving red color to blood
c) blood clotting
d) hormones regulations
215. Essential element for blood clotting is
a) chloride
b) calcium
c) sulphate
d) phosphate
216. Which of the following is a co factor?
a) XII
b) X
c) VIII
d) VII
217. Coagulation factor III is
a) Fibrinogen
b) Fibrin
c) Thromboplastin
d) Antihemophilic factor
218. Coagulation factor XII is
a) Fibrinogen
b) Staurt power factor
c) FSF
d) Hageman factor
219. Which one of the following is vitamin k dependent factor
a) II
b) VII
c) IX
d) All of these
220. Which one of the following factor prevent coagulation?
a) Addition of thrombin
b) Addition of calcium chloride
c) Warmth
d) Addition of heparin
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221. The universal donor for ABO Blood system are type
a) A
b) B
c) O
d) AB
222. If blood group of a person is A then antibodies present in that person blood is
a) Anti-A- antibodies
b) Anti-B-antibodies
c) Anti-AB- antibodies
d) None of these
223. Clumping of cells is known as
a) Clotting
b) Agglutination
c) Mutation
d) None of these
224. Person having antigen B on the surface of RBC’s has
a) Blood group B
b) Blood group A
c) Blood group AB
d) Blood group O
225. People have blood group O can receive blood from who?
a) A,B AND O
b) A
c) B
d) O
226. These are foreign substances which can elicit an immunological response
a) Antibodies
b) Agglutinins
c) Antigens
d) Agglutinogen
227. ........... refers to the combination of different genes
a) Phenotype
b) Genotype
c) Both a & b
d) None of these
228. Genotype OA or AA produces
a) Agglutinogen A
b) Agglutinogen B
c) Agglutinogen A and B
d) NO Agglutinogen
29
CHAPTER#04
229. ______ is the ability of cell to undergo depolarization.

a) Contractibility
b) Refractory period
c) Conductivity
d) Rhythmicity
230. Cardiac muscle fibers don’t contract if the stimulus is:
a) Normal
b) Above threshold
c) Sub threshold
d) Both a & c
231. Cardiac muscles contract in the presence of:
a) Ca++
b) ATP
c) N2
d) Both a & b
232. There are _____ stages of cardiac cycle:
a) 7
b) 4
c) 8
d) 10
233. Cardiac cycle occurs in______:
a) 0.303sec
b) 0.8sec
c) 0.495sec
d) None of these
234. Heart sounds can be heard discovered by:
a) Wigger
b) Lenic
c) Frank starling
d) None of these
235. “LUB” sound peaks at _____ phase of cardiac cycle:
a) Protodiastole
b) Atrial systole
c) Maximum ejection period
d) Reduced ejection period
236. Second heart sound produced due to closure of ______ valves:
a) Semilunar
b) A-V valve
c) Aortic & pulmonary
d) Both a & c
237. When there is excessive turbulence of blood flow in the heart chamber which heart sound is produced:
a) First
b) Second
c) Murmur
d) None of these
238. _______ is caused by potentials generated when ventricles depolarized prior to contraction:
a) P wave
b) QRS complex
c) T wave
30
d) None of these
239. T wave represents:
a) Atrial depolarization
b) Ventricle depolarization
c) Ventricle repolarization
d) None of these
240. Voltage generated by T wave is:
a) 0.1-0.3 mV
b) 0.2-0.3 mV
c) 1 mV
d) None of these
241. Duration of QT interval is:
a) 0.08-0.10sec
b) 0.12-0.20sec
c) 0.32sec
d) 0.40-0.43sec
242. Normal blood pressure in elderly age is:
a) 80-90mmHg
b) 140-150mmHg
c) 110-120mmHg
d) 90-110mmHg
243. Light exercise ______ the diastolic blood pressure:
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Normal
d) None of these
244. ________ is the volume of blood pumped per unit time by R ventricle & L ventricle:
a) Stroke volume
b) Heart rate
c) Cardiac output
d) Both a & c
245. Which one of the following factor affecting stroke volume:
a) Heart size
b) Contractibility
c) Preload
d) All of these
246. The number of contraction of cardiac ventricles per unit time is called:
a) Cardiac output
b) Pulse rate
c) Stroke volume
d) Heart rate
247. In hypertension stages systolic B.P is:
a) 120-139mmHg
b) 140-159mmHg
c) 160 or higher
d) Both b & c
248. Complete loss of blood is called:
a) Desanguination
b) Ischemia
c) Exsanguinations
d) Infraction
249. Diameter of capillaries are:
a) 18mm
b) 5µm
c) 30mm
31
d) None of these
250. Tunica externa is made up of:
a) Smooth muscles
b) Endothelial muscles
c) Elastin & Collagen
d) None of these
251. Which one of the following layer consist of smooth muscles:
a) Tunica externa
b) Tunica media
c) Tunica interna
d) None of these
32
CHAPTER#05
252. Which one of the following structure is associated with lower respiratory tract:
a) Larynx
b) Pharynx
c) Trachea
d) Both a & c
253. Which one of the following is expiratory muscle:
a) External intercostals
b) Internal itercostals
c) Pectoralis minor
d) Diaphragm
254. Which one of the following are inspiratory principal muscles:
a) Pectoralis minor
b) Diaphragm
c) External intercostals
d) Both b & c
255. Which one of the following is accessory muscle:
a) Pectoralis minor
b) Diaphragm
c) External intercostals
d) Internal intercostals
256. During exhalation, diaphragm:
a) Contract
b) Relaxes
c) Both a & b
d) None of these
257. During _______ rib cage gets smaller as rib muscles relax:
a) Inhalation
b) Exhalation
c) Both a & b
d) None of these
258. There is ______ intra thoracic pressure during inspiration:
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Both a&b
d) None of these
259. Vital capacity of lungs is:
a) 1100ml
b) 3000ml
c) 3500ml
d) 4600ml
260. ______ is the volume of air still remaining in lungs after a forceful expiration:
a) Tidal volume
b) Residual volume
c) Vital capacity
d) Inspiratory capacity
261. _______ is very useful test for diagnosis of Emphysema & Asthma:
a) MRV
33
b) ERV
c) FEV1
d) RV
262. In athletes & swimmers vital capacity is_____:
a) Decrease
b) Increase
c) Both a & b
d) None of these
263. Functional residual capacity is equal to:
a) TV+IRV+ERV
b) TV+ Respiratory volume
c) TV+IRV+ERV+RV
d) ERV+RV
264. Normal rate of respiration in one minute is:
a) 15
b) 10
c) 12
d) 09
265. Value of inspiratory reserve volume is:
a) 4.6L
b) 3.5L
c) 5.8L
d) 3L
266. PO2 of venous blood entering the capillary is an average:
a) 23mmHg
b) 104mmHg
c) 40mmHg
d) 64mmHg
267. PCO2 in alveolus is:
a) 45mmHg
b) 104mmHg
c) 40mmHg
d) 64mmHg
268. Which one of the following is an example of effectors of respiratory control system:
a) Brain stem
b) Pulmonary receptors
c) Diaphragm
d) Cortex
269. Which one of the following CO2 has more potent effect on chemo sensitive area:
a) CSF
b) Blood
c) ECF
d) All of these
270. Which one of the following effect primarily the rate of respiration:
a) CO2
b) H+
c) HCO3
d) None of these
271. ________ center is situated in lower pons:
a) Pneumotaxic
b) Apneustic
c) Both a & b
d) None of these
272. ________ provides powerful expiratory force during expiration:
a) Pneumotaxic
34
b) Apneustic
c) DRGN
d) VRGN
273. Stimulation of ________ area of brain prolongs the period of inspiration:
a) Pneumotaxic
b) Apneustic
c) DRGN
d) VRGN
274. When ramp signals are weak in dorsal inspiratory areas then inspiration last as long as________:
a) 0.5sec
b) 5sec
c) 3sec
d) 2sec
275. Dorsal respiratory group of neurons is located in ______ portion of medulla oblongata:
a) Lateral
b) Dorsal
c) Ventral
d) Ventro-lateral
276. _______ of CO2 transported in plasma in bicarbonate form:
a) 7%
b) 23%
c) 97%
d) 70%
277. Percentage of O2 by being dissolved in plasma:
a) 97%
b) 7%
c) 23%
d) 3%
278. The ______ surface area lower the diffusion of gases:
a) Greater
b) Smaller
c) Moderate
d) Both a&c
279. Diffusion of O2 through respiratory membrane is _____ rapid as nitrogen:
a) Same
b) Trice
c) Twice
d) None of these
280. If greater the thickness of respiratory membrane then diffusion of gases would be:
a) Higher
b) Lower
c) Normal
d) Both a & c
281. All neurons are inspiratory type in _______ group:
a) Ventral
b) Dorsal
c) Both a & b
d) Dorsal
282. Combination of hemoglobin with CO2 is _______ reaction:
a) Irreversible
b) Reversible
c) Both a & b
d) None of these
283. Deoxygenated blood contains total ______ of CO2:
a) 1.4ml
35
b) 0.3ml
c) 4ml
d) 2.7ml
284. RBCs contains ______ of water:
a) 70%
b) 65%
c) 30%
d) 90%
36
CHAPTER#06
285. Which one of the following is the largest body organ:

a) Heart
b) Liver
c) Skin
d) Lungs
286. Which one the following is not present in epidermis:
a) Sebaceous glands
b) Adipose tissues
c) Both a & b
d) None of these
287. _________ is called true skin
a) Epidermis
b) Hypodermis
c) Conium
d) Both a & b
288. Dermis is a sheet of connective tissue that supports the______:
a) Hypodermis
b) Epidermis
c) Both a & b
d) None of these
289. ___________ is thicker than epidermis:
a) Dermis
b) Hypodermis
c) Both a & b
d) None of these
290. The mechanical strength of skin is in_____:
a) Hypodermis
b) Epidermis
c) Dermis
d) All of these
291. Basic structure of ______ is a dense network of criss-crossing proteins fibers embedded in a mass of firm
jelly:
a) Epidermis
b) Hypodermis
c) Dermis
d) None of these
292. The________ layer of the skin contains an acid mantile layer which limits the amount of substances entering
through the skin that effect the body to a minor degree:
a) Dermis
b) Hypodermis
c) Epidermis
d) None of these
293. The skin produces_______ in the presence of sunlight:
a) Vit E
b) Vit A
c) Vit C
d) Vit D
294. The___________ glands excretes oil to lubricate and maintain the health of the skin:
a) Sweet
37
b) Sebaceous
c) Endocrine
d) All of these
295. Some_______ or more of this transfer of heat occur through skin:
a) 20%
b) 30%
c) 80%
d) 10%
296. _________ By the skin is controlled by a negative-feedback loop:
a) Heat gain
b) Heat loss
c) Both a & b
d) All of these
38
CHAPTER#07
297. Bile salts & ________ inhibit bacterial growth in small intestine:
a) IgM
b) IgG
c) IgA
d) None of these
298. Gall bladder store bile enter it by the way of ________ ducts:
a) Hepatic
b) Pancreatic
c) Cystic
d) Both a & c
299. Concentration of bile salts in gall bladder is:
a) 0.1mg/dl
b) 1.1gm/dl
c) 0.6gm/dl
d) 6mg/dl
300. Which one of the following enzyme is involved in carbohydrates digestion?
a) Elastase
b) Trypsin
c) Amylase
d) Lipase
301. Nature of pancreatic juice is:
a) Acidic
b) Alkaline
c) Neutral
d) Both a & c
302. Parietal cells are present in which region of gastric glands:
a) Isthmus
b) Neck
c) Pit
d) Base
303. From micelles monoglycerides enter the mucosal cells by:
a) Active transport
b) Osmosis
c) Simple diffusion
d) Passive diffusion
304. If the substrate is wax then which one of the following is end product:
a) Fatty acid, cholesterol
b) Fatty acid, Monohydric alcohol
c) Alcohol, Phosphate
d) β-monoglycerides
305. Most of the fat digestion occur in the presence of:
a) Mouth
b) Stomach
c) Small intestine
d) Large intestine
306. Digestion of peptones occur in the presence of:
a) Peptidases
39
b) Amylases
c) Lipases
d) Trypsin
307. Pepsin works best if the pH of medium is _______:
a) 7
b) 3
c) 8.2
d) 5
308. Which one of the following is incorrect regarding the secretion of pancreas:
a) Contains Elastases
b) Involves in protein digestion
c) Contain SO4
d) Contain bilirubin
309. Which one of the following is not the movement of small intestine:
a) Propulsive
b) Peristalsis
c) Segment contraction
d) Haustration
310. How much time is required for the passage of chyme from pylorus to illeocecal valve:
a) 45-48h
b) 8-10sec
c) 1h
d) 5h
311. When food enter the stomach vegal tone causes the ______ in muscular tone:
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Normalize
d) No effect
312. Which one of the following is outermost layer of GIT:
a) Sub mucosa
b) Mucosa
c) Muscularis
d) Adventitia
313. Which one of the following is involuntary stage of swallowing:
a) Buccal stage
b) Oral stage
c) Esophageal stage
d) None of these
314. In which stage of swallowing gravity plays an important role:
a) Buccal stage
b) Pharyngeal stage
c) Esophageal stage
d) None of these
40
CHAPTER#08
315. Chemical nature of urine is

a) Alkaline
b) Acidic
c) Both a & b
d) None of these
316. When (ADH) is present in…………. concentrations, the kidneys excrete a small volume of concentrated
urine.
a) Low
b) High
c) Both a & b
d) None of these
317. The formation of urine that is concentrated is termed as
a) hypo-osmotic to plasma
b) isotonic to plasma
c) hyperosmotic to plasma
d) all of these
318. Kidneys are located in
a) Thoracic region
b) Cervical region
c) Lumbar region
d) Sacral region
319. Which one of the following option is correct according to the length and width of kidney?
a) 15cm long, 5cm broad
b) 12cm long, 6cm broad
c) 10cm long, 5cm broad
d) 15cm long, 3cm broad
320. Weight of kidney in females is
a) 150gm
b) 169gm
c) 125gm
d) 135gm
321. Inner zone of kidney is called
a) Cortex
b) Pyramid
c) Medulla
d) Papilla
322. ……………… are the nephrons whose glomeruli lie deep in the renal cortex near the medulla.
a) Cortical nephrons
b) Juxtamedullary nephrons
c) Both a & b
d) None of these
323. Because of high pressure in……………….. causing filtration of a large portion of plasma out of the
glomerulus and into the Bowman's capsule.
a) Renal tubules
b) Ureter
c) Bowmans capsule
d) Glomerulus
41
324. substances are secreted from plasma directly through the epithelial cells lining the tubulesinto
the…………...
a) cappilaries
b) interstitium
c) tubular lumen
d) all of these
325. mean pH of urine is
a) 7
b) 8
c) 6
d) 4
326. ……………..contains straight collecting tubules.
a) Cortex
b) Pyramid
c) Medulla
d) Papilla
327. Which one of the following is an organic constituents of urine
a) Sodium
b) Chloride
c) Sulphate
d) Creatinine
328. Which one of the following is an abnormal constituents of urine
a) Bilirubin
b) Urochromogen
c) Porphyrin
d) All of these
329. Which one of the following ions follows secondary active secretory transport
a) Na ions
b) Ca ions
c) H ions
d) All of these
330. Weight of kidney in females is
a) 150gm
b) 169gm
c) 125gm
d) 135gm
331. When it is necessary to rid the body of excess water, the kidneys excrete urine with a………….. solute
concentration.
a) Low
b) High
c) Both a & b
d) None of these
332. When there is Decreased reabsorption of water in late distal tubule, cortical collecting tubule and In
collecting ducts then………. Urine is produced
a) conentrated
b) dilute
c) both a & b
d) none of these
42
CHAPTER#09
333. Ability of muscle tissues to be stretched is called:

a) Elasticity
b) Excitability
c) Extensibility
d) Both a & b
334. Ability of muscle tissue to receive & respond to stimuli is called:
a) Elasticity
b) Excitability
c) Extensibility
d) Contractibility
335. __________ tissues enables the body to maintain posture:
a) Connective tissues
b) Nervous tissues
c) Muscle tissue
d) Both b & c
336. Body produced heat by muscle contraction:
a) 60%
b) 70%
c) 90%
d) 80%
337. Which one of the muscle cell has mechanical connection of cells in parallel & can function independently:
a) Cardiac muscle
b) Smooth muscle
c) Skeleton muscle
d) Both b & c
338. Pressure neurons is an example of
a) Interneuron
b) Afferent neuron
c) Efferent neuron
d) Both a & c
339. Examples of neurons without axons are:
a) Amacrine cell in retina
b) Posterior spinal root ganglia
c) Brain & Spinal cord
d) None of these
340. Type of neurons has only one process which functionally an axon:
a) Bipolar neurons
b) Pseudounipolar neurons
c) Multipolar neurons
d) Unipolar neurons
341. _________ integrates incoming signals & generates outgoing signals:
a) Axon
b) Cell body
c) Dendrites
d) Both a & c
342. Axons along their course show side branching called:
a) Axon terminalis
43
b) Axon Collaterals
c) Terminal buttons
d) Node of ranvier
343. Axon emerges from cell body at the region termed as_______:
a) Axon terminalis
b) Axon Collaterals
c) Axon hillock
d) Both a & b
344. Nerve cell body is destroyed in:
a) Viral infection
b) Anoxia
c) Toxins
d) All of these
44
CHAPTER#10
345. Which one of the following is an example of monoamines?

a) Glutamate
b) Glycine
c) Gaba
d) Dopamine
346. Which one of the following is an example of neuropeptides?
a) Dopamine
b) Norepinephrine
c) Endorphin
d) Glutamate
347. The………….is a clear colourless transparent tissue fluid present in the cerebral ventricles, spinal canal and
subarachnoid space.
a) Plasma
b) Serum
c) cerebro spinal fluid
d) gastric fluid
348. ……………. Is not involved in muscle actioning?
a) Dopamine
b) Serotonin
c) Gaba
d) All of these
349. Which one of the following is an example of polypeptide?
a) Dopamine
b) Norepinephrine
c) Endorphin
d) gastrin
350. Which one of the following is an example of Excitatory amino acids?
a) Glutamate
b) Glycine
c) Aspartate
d) Both a & c
351. Neurotransmitters are released by…………. into the synaptic cleft that excite or inhibit the post synaptic
neuron.
a) Postsynaptic terminal
b) the presynaptic terminal
c) both a & b
d) none of these
352. Which one of the following system accelerates heart?
a) Parasympathetic system
b) Sympathetic system
c) Somatic system
d) None of these
353. Which one of the following system involved in constriction of bronchioles?
a) Parasympathetic system
b) Sympathetic system
c) Somatic system
45
d) None of these
354. ……………… cranial nerves involved in wrist and elbow movement.
a) C5
b) C2
c) C6-7
d) C4-6
355. Lumber nerve (L5) Involved in
a) Knee extension
b) Foot motion
c) Knee flexion
d) Sympathetic tone
356. How many spinal nerves are present in peripheral nervous system?
a) 12
b) 24
c) 31
d) 62
357. …………… nerves arise from thoracic and lumbar region.
a) Parasympathetic nerves
b) Sympathetic nerves
c) Both a & b
d) None of these
358. Which one of the the following is an example of autonomic nerves?
a) Sympathetic nerves
b) Parasympathetic nerves
c) Somatic nerves
d) Both a & b
359. Thalamus is a part of………….
a) Fore brain
b) Mid brain
c) Hind brain
d) None of these
360. ……………controls breathing
a) Medulla oblongata
b) Cerebrum
c) Pons
d) Both a & c
361. …………….. is involved in speech recognition.
a) Frontal lobe
b) Temporal lobe
c) Parietal lobe
d) Occipital lobe
46
CHAPTER#11
362. Taste receptors are called

a) Taste buds
b) Gustatory receptors
c) Olfactory receptors
d) Taste pores
363. The muscle responsible for the change of shape of the lens is the
a) Arrector pili muscle
b) Orbicularis oculi
c) Ciliary muscles
d) Superior rectus muscles
364. The layer that contains the photoreceptors is
a) Iris
b) Retina
c) Sclera
d) Cornea
365. The area containing the highest concentration of cones is the
a) Fovea centralis
b) Optic disc
c) Macula lutea
d) Iris
366. The jelly like substance behind the lens of eye is the
a) Aqueous humor
b) Cellular body
c) Ciliary body
d) Vitreous humor
367. Which of the following belongs to the middle ear?
a) Cochlea
b) Ossicles
c) Ampullae
d) Vestibule
368. The sclera does all of the following except
a) Allow light to enter eye
b) Protect the eye
c) Maintain eye shape
d) None of these
369. Which is not a purpose of the secretions of the lacrimal gland?
a) Cleanse the eye
b) Provide oils
c) Kill bacteria
d) None of these
370. Which taste buds detect bitter taste?
a) Curcumvillate
b) Filiform
c) Fungiform
d) Foliate papillae
371. The nose and the tongue are both for ____ reception.
47
a) Electrical
b) Vibratory
c) Chemical
d) None of these
372. The eye contains
a) Mechanoreceptors
b) Photoreceptors
c) Chemoreceptors
d) Proprioceptors
373. The nose & taste buds contain
a) Mechanoreceptors
b) Photoreceptors
c) Chemoreceptors
d) Proprioceptors
374. Taste buds are located primarily on the
a) Upper palate
b) Tongue
c) Gums
d) Turbinate of nose
375. The layers of the eyeball are
a) Sclera
b) Choroid
c) Retina
d) All of above
376. The anterior cavity between the cornea and the lens is filled with a fluid a watery solution called
a) Aqueous
b) Vitreous
c) Optic
d) Sense
377. The retina contains an oval yellow area with a depression in which there are only cones called
a) Optic nerve
b) Fovea centralis
c) Pupil
d) None of these
378. The fovea centralis is responsible for
a) Glaucoma
b) Accommodation
c) Blindness
d) Acute vision
379. The ear functions for
a) Balance
b) Hearing
c) Both balance & hearing
d) None of these
380. The auditory canal in the ear is lined with fine hairs and sweat glands that secrete
a) Aqueous humor
b) Ear wax
c) Cochlear fluid
d) Eustachian fluid
381. The small bones located in the middle ear , known collectively as the ossicles, include
a) Tympanum,oval and round window
b) Pinna, vestibule and Eustachian
c) Malleus, incus, and stapes
d) None of these
382. Macula
48
a) A highly sensitive structure in the central portion of the retina

b) Lines the inner surface of the eyelids
c) The second major humor of the eye
d) None of these
383. Colorful part of eye is known as
a) iris
b) cornea
c) pupil
d) eyeball
384. Cells that detect change are known as
a) white blood cell
b) sensory cells
c) eukaryotic cells
d) stem cells
49
CHAPTER#12
385. Organic substances secreted into blood stream to control the metabolic & biological activities called
a) Neurotransmitters
b) Enzymes
c) Hormones
d) Both a & b
386. Endocrine gland secretes
a) Local hormones
b) Classical hormones
c) Both a & b
d) None of these
387. Which one of the following is the hormone of posterior pituitary?
a) Thyroid stimulating hormone
b) ADH
c) Growth hormone
d) Both a & b
388. Which one of the following is the hormone of anterior pituitary?
a) Thyroid stimulating hormone
b) ADH
c) Growth hormone
d) Both a & c
389. Which one of the following is the hormone of adrenal gland?
a) T3
b) T4
c) Calcitonin
d) Cortisol hormone
390. Which one of the following is an amino acid derivative?
a) Growth hormone
b) Oxytocin
c) Dopamine
d) Both a & b
391. Which one of the following is protein hormone?
a) GH
b) Oxytocin
c) Dopamine
d) Both a & b
392. Which one of the following is polypeptide containing 8 amino acids
a) GH
b) OT
c) Insulin
d) None of these
393. Testosterone contain

a) 18 carbon atoms
b) Both a &b
c) 19 carbon atom
d) None of these
394. Insulin is produced by
a) alpha- cells
50
b) beta cells
c) both a & b
d) none of these
395. Receptors of thyroid hormone are situated in
a) cytoplasm
b) cell membrane
c) nucleus
d) both a & c
396. Receptors of protein hormone are situated in
a) cytoplasm
b) cell membrane
c) nucleus
d) both a & b
397. Receptors of steroid hormone are situated in
a) cytoplasm
b) cell membrane
c) nucleus
d) both b & c
398. ……….. raises the blood pressure by bringing about…….. of arterioles
a) GH, constriction
b) GH, dilatation
c) Oxytocin, constriction
d) Vasopressin, constriction
399. Estrogen contain
a) 18 carbon atoms
b) Both a & c
c) 19 carbon atoms
d) None of these
400. Glucagon is secreted by the…………………. Of the islets of Langerhans of the pancreas:
a) α-cells
b) β-cells
c) γ-cells
d) Both a & b
INTRODUCTION TO BIOCHEMISTRY
1. The study of chemical or metabolic processes which take place in the cells is called:
A. Biochemistry B. Metabolism C. Anabolism D. Catabolism
2. The basis of all forms of life is called:

A. Cell membrane B. Cytoplasm C. Protoplasm D. Cytosol
3. The disease caused by deficiency of vitamins D is called:

A. Rickets B. Pellagra C. Beriberi D. Scurvy
4. Which deficiency in the body caused Beriberi disease:

A. Vitamin B-2 B. Vitamin B-complex C. Vitamin B-1 D. Vitamin A
5. Which deficiency in the body caused Scurvy disease:

A. Vitamin K B. Vitamin B12 C. Vitamin C D. Vitamin E
6. The disease caused by deficiency of vitamins B-3 is called:

A. Rickets B. Pellagra C. Beriberi D. Scurvy
7. Which deficiency in the body caused Pernicious anemia:

A. Vitamin B-12 B. Vitamin K C. Vitamin B-5 D. Vitamin A
CARBOHYDRATES
8. The polyhydroxy aldehydes or ketones is called:

A. Carbohydrates B. Aldose C. Polyhydrates D. Ketones
9. The literally meanings of carbohydrate is:

A. Hydrocarbons B. Polyhydrates C. Sugar D. Hydrated Carbon
10.Carbohydrates also called:

A. Glucose B. Sucrose C. Sugar D. Ketones
11.The general formula of carbohydrate is:

A. C (H2O) n B. Cn (H2O) C. Cn (H2O) n D. C (H2O)
12.The carbohydrates which contain also in addition to carbon are:

A. Nitrogen B. phosphorous C. Sulphur D. All of these
13.In general carbohydrates are white solids, sparingly soluble in:

A. Organic liquids B. Inorganic liquids C. Water D. All of these
14.The general formula of Aldehyde functional group is:

A. –CHO B. –CO– C. CH=O– D. None of These
15.The general formula of ketone functional group is:
A. –CHO B. –CO– C. CH=O– D. Only A & B
16.The carbohydrates contain two major functional group:

A. –CHO B. –CO– C. =CH– D. Only A & B
17.Carbohydrates are the natural compounds and their basic source is:
A. Animals B. Plants C. Microorganism D. All of These
18.The chief source of carbohydrates is:

A. Cereals B. Wheat C. Meats D. Milk
19.Starch is the abundant in:

A. Cereals B. Wheats C. Meats D. Milk
20.The second most abundant natural polymer:

A. Cellulose B. Starch C. Glycogen D. Cereals
21.On hydrolyzed the simplest form of carbohydrate is:

A. Polysaccharides B. Monosaccharides C. Disaccharides D. Oligosaccharides
22.Which type of fruits is a good source of carbohydrates :

A. Sweet fruits B. Non-sweet fruits C. Only A & B D. None of These
23.The 2nd most occurring substance in nature:

A. Carbohydrates B. Water C. Oxygen D. Eggs
24.The carbohydrates are prepared by the plants by the process of:

A. Respiration B. Photosynthesis C. Glycolysis D. Milk
25.Carbohydrates are the macronutrients, give what percentage our daily calories:
A. 95% B. 55% C. 80% D. 70%
26.The 1g of carbohydrates give:

A. 4.0 Calories B. 4.6 Calories C. 9.1 Calories D. 6.1 Calories
27.The process of oxidation of carbohydrates is called:

A. Respiration B. Photosynthesis C. Glycolysis D. Only A & C
28.Which Carbohydrates are absorbed directly by the small intestine into blood stream:
29.The carbohydrates form the which major role in the living body:
A. Construction of body organs B. Assist in body’s absorption of calcium
C. Helps in lowering cholesterol level D. All of These
30.The carbohydrates having one sugar molecule and cannot hydrolyze to smaller units:
31.The carbohydrates having 3-10 sugar molecule and give 3-10 monosaccharide on hydrolysis :
A. Respiration B. Photosynthesis C. Glycolysis D. Milk
32.Which carbohydrate also called grape sugar:

A. Sucrose B. Maltose C. Glucose D. Grapes
33.The Normal blood glucose level of human in fasting:

A. 8-50mg B. 80-100mg C. 90-100mg D. 60-100mg
34.Another name of Glucose is:

A. Dextrose B. Sugar C. Fructose D. None of these
35.Which chemical formula is same as Fructose :

A. Glucose B. Ribose C. Erythrose D. Glucoheptose
36.The most common source of fructose is:

A. Maltose B. Sucrose C. Lactose D. Galactose
37.The pure honey contain finest form of :

A. Glucose B. Galactose C. Fructose D. Maltose
38.The source of energy for spermatozoa is:

A. Glucose B. Galactose C. Fructose D. ATP
39.The linkage formed within two molecules of Carbohydrates is :

A. Amino linkage B. Glycosidic linkage C. Fatty linkage D. None of these
40.Which of the following is combination of two Monosaccharides:

A. Maltose B. Glucose C. Galactose D. Ribose
41.The combination of two molecules form Sucrose:

A. Glucose + Fructose B. Glucose + Galactose
C. Glucose + Glucose D. Galactose + Galactose
42.The combination of two molecules form Maltose:

43.The combination of two molecules form Lactose:

44.Which of the following is table sugar:
A. Glucose B. Sucrose C. Fructose D. Maltose
45.Which of the following is milk sugar:

A. Glucose B. Maltose C. Fructose D. Lactose
46.Which of the following is fruit sugar:

A. Glucose B. Galactose C. Fructose D. Maltose
47.Which of the following is homopolysaccharides:

A. Starch B. Glycogen C. Cellulose D. Only A & B
48.Which of the following carbohydrate present in Liver and Muscles:

A. Starch B. Glycogen C. Cellulose D. Only A & B
LIPIDS
49.The lipids are organic substances occurring in:

A. Plants B. Animals C. Insects D. Both A & B
50.The lipids are soluble in which solvents:

A. Water B. Organic solvents C. Inorganic solvents D. Polar solvents
51.The primary building blocks of Lipids are:

A. Fatty acids B. Glycerol C. Sphingosine & Sterols D. All of these
52.The lipids store more energy due to:

A. Higher proportion of C-H bonds B. Very high proportion of oxygen
C. Very low proportion of oxygen D. Both A & C
53.Which of the following is type of simple lipids:

A. Fats Oil B. Waxes C. Sterols D. Only A & B
54.The specific gravity of water is:

A. 1.0 B. 2.0 C. 3.0 D. 4.0
55.The specific gravity of Fats & Oils is:

A. 2.5 B. 8.0 C. 0.8 D. 0.25
56.The 1g of dietary lipids give:

57.The fat in liquid state at room temperature is called:

A. Oil B. Waxes C. Triglycerides D. Only A & B
58.Which of the following are esters of fatty acids with glycerol:
A. Fats & Oils B. Oils C. Waxes D. Sterols
59.Which of the following are esters of fatty acids with long chain monohydric alcohols:
A. Oils B. Waxes C. Fats D. Cholesterol
60.Which of the following are large source of waxes in nature:

A. Honey bee B. Animal Fur C. Insects Exoskeleton D. Whale
61.Butyric acid is example of which fatty acids:

A. Saturated B. Semi-Saturated C. Unsaturated D. None of these
62.Which of the following secretion of human skin secret waxes that helps skin to be moist and
flexible:
A. Sebum B. Sweat glands C. Epidermis cells D. Only A & B
63.Which of the following type of Lipids are esters of fatty acids containing groups in addition to an
alcohol and fatty acids:
A. Simple Lipids B. Compound Lipids C. Complex Lipids D. Only B & C
64.The Glycolipids are also called:

A. Lipoprotein B. Glycosphingolipids C. Triglycerides D. Phospholipids
65.Which of the following are fatty acids, glycerol, steroids, sterols, fatty aldehyde, lipid soluble
vitamins, ketones:
A. Simple Lipids B. Compound Lipids C. Complex Lipids D. Derived Lipids
66.Which of the following are examples of Unsaturated fatty acids:

A. Oleic acid B. Archidonic acid C. Butyric acid D. Only A & B
67.On hydrolyzed the simplest form of Lipids is:

A. Oils B. Fatty acid C. Fats D. Cholesterol
68.Which of the following is a characteristics of saturated fatty acids:

A. Contain Double Bonds B. Contain Single Bond C. Contain No bonds D. None of these
69.The fats containing saturated fatty acids have which physical property at room temperature:
A. Liquid B. Solids C. Semi-Solid D. Semi-lipid
70.The fats in plants are mostly:

A. Saturated B. Semi-Saturated C. Unsaturated D. Solid
71.The fats containing unsaturated fatty acids have which physical property at room temperature:
A. Liquid B. Solids C. Semi-Solid D. Semi-lipid
72.The lipids that contain one or more –OH groups and no carbonyl and carboxyl groups are called:
A. Oils B. Waxes C. Fats D. Sterols
73.Cholesterol, ergosterol, bile acids, male and female sex hormones and the hormones of adrenal
cortex are examples of:
A. Proteins B. Sterols C. Fats D. None of These
74.The most abundant animal sterol is:

A. Cholesterol B. Steroids C. Estrogen D. Progesterone
75.In which animal cells cholesterol is most abundant:

A. Nerves B. Skin C. Adrenal Gland D. Testosterone
76.The Normal plasma level ranges of cholesterol in human body:

A. 15 to 20mg/dl B. 120 to 400mg/dl C. 100 to 150mg/dl D. 150 to 220mg/dl
77.Which of the following are functions of Lipids:

A. Source of energy B. Carrier of fat soluble vitamins C. Good reservoirs and insulation
D. All of these
PROTEINS
78.The bond present in protein molecule is called:

A. Glycosidic bond B. Peptide bond C. Triglycerides D. None of These
79.The protein molecules are polymers of:

A. Fatty acids B. Amino acids C. Amino groups D. Only B & C
80.The name protein derived from Greek ―protos which means:

A. First B. Supremes C. Prime D. All of These
81.The Amino Acids have two characteristics functional groups:

A. –NH2 B. –CO– C. –COOH D. Only A & C
82.The no. of amino acid which have been found to occur in all proteins:
A. 22 B. 23 C. 21 D. 20
83.The formation of the amino acid determine by which type of group:

A. –NH2 B. –R C. –COOH D. –CO
84.The simplest form of protein is called:

A. Glycine B. Alanine C. Lysine D. None of these
85.Other than mammalian muscles cells which contain 20% proteins:

A. Cows B. Cereals C. Beans, nuts, pulses D. Only A & B
86.A group of substances called biocatalyst of the body:
A. Metabolism B. Steroids C. Enzymes D. None of These
87.Which regulate the chemicals and other process in the body are also protein in nature:
A. Enzymes B. Neurotransmitter C. Hormone D. Only A & B
88.What type of bonding present in primary structure of protein:

A. H bonding B. Covalent bonding C. Coordinate Covalent bonding D. None of These
89.Myoglobin is example of which type of protein structure:

A. Primary B. Secondary C. Tertiary D. Quaternary
90.Hemoglobin, Collagen are examples of which type of protein structures:

A. Primary B. Secondary C. Tertiary D. Quaternary
91.The 1g of dietary protein give:

92.An essential part in the formation of protoplasm which is the essence of all forms of life:
A. Proteins B. Glycolipids C. Lipids D. Glycoproteins
93.The nitrogenous wastes produced by protein are:

A. Urea B. Ammonia C. Water D. Only A & B
94.Protein regulate the which following respiratory pathways at different points:

A. Urea Cycle B. Glycolysis C. Krebs Cycle D. All of these
95.Which type of protein stored in egg:

A. Albumin B. Lysine C. Alanine D. Casein
96.Which type of protein stored in milk:

A. Albumin B. Lysine C. Alanine D. Casein
97.Which of the following is function of Casein protein:

A. Bind vitamin & hormones B. Present in cell membrane
C. Mediate the cellular action D. All of these
98.Most proteins are involved in contractility of cilia and flagella:

A. Tubulin B. Cilian C. Flagelin D. Dyne
99.Which type of protein present in Spindle fibers:

A. Tubulin B. Actin C. Dyne D. Spindlin
100. Which type of protein present in Muscles fibers:

A. Actin B. Myosin C. Only A & B D. Casein
101. Muscles proteins have a role in contraction of muscle fibers e.g Antarctic fish contain which
type of proteins which protect their blood from freezing:
A. Albumin B. Freeze C. Antifreeze D. Actin
102. The following factor which help in blood clotting:

A. Thrombin B. Fibrinogen C. Hemoglobin D. Both A & B
103. The proteins present in blood plasma act as a colloidal particles and exert and osmotic
pressure:
A. 15-30mmHg B. 25-30mmHg C. 20-30mmHg D. 10-30mmHg
104. Which type of protein present in hereditary transmission of the cell:

A. Nucleoproteins B. Glycolipids C. Lipoprotein D. Glycoproteins
105. Legume, ovalbumin and lactalbumin are examples of which type of protein:
A. Albumin B. Globulin C. Globin D. Prolamine
106. The water-soluble proteins and occur in both plant and animal kingdoms:
A. Albumin B. Globin C. Globulin D. Serum
107. Which type of protein are rich in the amino acid proline but deficient in lysine:
A. Gliadin of wheat B. Zein of maize C. Dyne in cilia D. Only A & B
108. The association of DNA and histones gives rise to complexes called:
A. Nucleosomes B. Polysome C. Nucleosides D. Nucleoproteins
109. Which of the following proteins are present only in animals:

A. Globulins B. Albumins C. Albuminoids D. Prolamine
110. Which of the following proteins are attached or conjugated to some non – protein groups
which are called prosthetic groups:
A. Nucleoproteins B. Metalloproteins C. Chromoproteins D. All of these
AMINO ACIDS
111. Amino acids with non-polar aliphatic side chains are:

A. Glycine B. Alanine C. Valine D. All of these
112. Amino acids with aromatic side chains are:

A. Phenylalanine B. Tyrosine C. Tryptophan D. All of these
113. Side chain containing hydroxyl (-OH) group are:

A. Serine B. Threonine C. Valise D. Only A & B
114. Amino acids with basic side chains are:

A. Glutamic acid B. Methionine C. Serine D. Arginine
115. Amino acids with side chains containing sulfur (S) atom are:
A. Cysteine B. Aspartic acid C. Lysine D. All of these
116. Who many numbers of naturally occurring amino acids are known today:
A. 250 B. 300 C. 350 D. 400
117. Who many numbers of amino acids are called primary, standard or normal amino acids:
A. 100 B. 40 C. 25 D. 20
118. Name of amino acids which do not take part in protein synthesis but many of them play
important role in the body:
A. Citrulline B. Argininosuccinic acid C. All of these D. Ornithine
119. β-alanine take part in the molecule of a vitamin namely:

A. Citric acid B. Ascorbic Acid C. Pantothenic acid D. All of these
120. Which of the following are examples of Neurotransmitter:

A. GABA B. L- Dopa C. γ – Amino- Butyric Acid D. All of these
121. Which of the following are functions of amino acids:

A. Hormone biosynthesis B. N2 metabolism
C. Tolerance of certain environmental stresses e.g.
Proline stores under salt stress condition in plants D. All of these
NUCLEIC ACIDS
122. Nucleic acids were first demonstrated in the nuclei of which type of cells in 1869:
A. Somatic Cells B. Nerve Cells C. Pus Cells D. Muscles Cells
123. Later Nucleic acids were demonstrated in the nuclei of which type of cells in 1872:
A. Mitochondria B. Flagella Head C. Sperm Head D. Cuticle
124. Which of the following are examples of Purines:

A. A & G B. G & C C. C & T D. T & U
125. Which of the following are examples of Pyrimidines:

A. A, G & C B. G, T & C C. U, C & T D. A, T & U
126. The combination of a Nitrogen Base and 5-Carbon Sugar is:

A. Nucleoside B. Nucleotide C. Phospholipids D. All of these
127. The basic types of RNA are:

A. Messenger or mRNA B. Transfer or tRNA C. Ribosomal or rRNA D. All of these
128. Which type of RNA encodes the amino acid sequence of one or more polypeptides specified
by a gene or set of genes:
129. Which type of RNA read the information coded in the mRNA and transfer the appropriate
amino acids to a growing polypeptide chain during protein synthesis:
130. Which type of RNA are constituents of ribosomes that synthesize proteins:
131. In 1953 who hypothesized that the DNA molecule is a double helix:
A. Watson and Crick B. Robert Fleming C. Edward Jenner D. Louis Vuitton
HORMONES
132. The science concerned with the structures and functions of the endocrine glands and the
diagnosis and treatment of the disorders of the endocrine system:
A. Psychology B. Endocrinology C. Enzymology D. Physiology
133. Which of the following are functions of Hormones:

A. Transportation & Metabolism B. Development & Growth C. Reproduction D. All of these
134. Acetyl choline, secretin and Cholecystokinin are examples of which type of Hormones:
A. Local Hormones B. General Hormones C. Both A & B D. None of these
135. Those hormones which affect all the cells of the body are:
A. Growth Hormone B. Thyroid Hormone C. Secretin D. Both A & B
136. Some hormones affect only on target cells because they have specific receptors:
A. ACTH B. Estrogen C. Progesterone D. All of these
137. Which of the following Hormones are peptides in nature:

A. ADH & Oxytocin B. Insulin, Glucagon & somatostatin C. Calcitonin & GH D. All of these
138. Which of the following Hormones are Glycoproteins in nature:

A. TSH B. LH C. Erythropoietin D. All of these
139. Which of the following Hormones are steroids in nature:

A. Estrogen and Progesterone & Testosterone B. Aldosterone, cortisol & adrenal androgens
C. Cholesterol derivatives D. All of these
140. Which of the following Hormones are Amino acids in nature:
A. T3 B. T4 C. Both A & B D. None of these

141. Which of the following Hormones are Amines in nature:
A. Acetylcholine B. Epinephrine & Nor-epinephrine C. Melatonin D. All of these
142. Another name of GH hormone:

A. Somatotropin B. somatotropic hormone C. STH D. All of these
143. Which of the following are functions of Growth Hormones:

A. Protein metabolism B. Carbohydrate metabolism C. fat metabolism D. All of these
144. Which of the following is diabetogenic hormone:

A. Oxytocin B. STH C. Insulin D. Progesterone
145. GH increase the retention of which ions in the body:

A. P & Ca++ B. Na+ & Cl ‾ C. K+ & Mg++ D. All of these
146. GH increase the growth of viscera organs:

A. Liver B. Kidneys C. Intestine D. All of these
147. Which hormone play essential role at the time of child delivery:
A. GH B. Progesterone C. Oxytocin D. LH
148. The oxytocin hormone play important role in:

A. Movement of uterus B. Milk ejection C. Inhibit ADH D. All of these
149. The oxytocin hormone contain no. of Amino acids:

A. 6 B. 7 C. 8 D. 9
150. The Insulin hormone is secreted by beta cells of the islets of Langerhans of:
A. Skin B. Liver C. Pancreas D. Kidneys
151. The Insulin hormone contain no. of Amino acids:

A. 26 B. 31 C. 51 D. 41
152. A small protein which acts to lower the blood glucose level:
A. GH B. Progesterone C. Oxytocin D. Insulin
153. A small protein which acts to increase the blood glucose level:
A. Thyroxin B. Growth Hormone C. Glucagon D. All of these
154. The Testosterone hormone contain no. of Carbon atoms:

A. 16 B. 17 C. 18 D. 19
155. In adults testosterone is secreted by which type cells of the testes:

A. Interstitial Cells B. Leydig cells C. Scrotum Cells D. Seminal vehicle
156. The pattern of Pubic in man is:
A. Convex B. Bi-Convex C. Concave D. Bi-Concave
157. The pattern of Pubic in female is:

A. Convex B. Bi-Convex C. Concave D. Bi-Concave
158. Which of the following Hormone are responsible for aggressive moods, active attitudes:
A. Growth Hormone B. Testosterone C. Estrogen D. Progesterone
159. Which of the following Hormone increases the number of RBCs (15- 20%):
A. Growth Hormone B. Testosterone C. Estrogen D. Progesterone
160. The naturally occurring estrogen are:

A. 17- β - estradiol B. Estrone C. Estriol D. All of these
161. The Estrogen hormone contain no. of Carbon atoms:

A. 16 B. 17 C. 18 D. 19
162. Which hormone play essential role to neutralize the acidic pH of the vagina:
A. Estrogen B. Progesterone C. Oxytocin D. LH
163. The hormone play important role in changes the simple cuboidal epithelium to stratified
epithelium, which is more resistant to trauma and infection:
164. Which of the following Hormone is used in creams, soaps, and oils for cosmetic purposes:
165. The hormone is responsible for the proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle:
A. Estrogen B. Progesterone C. Oxytocin D. FSH
166. The hormone is responsible for increase the blood clotting factor:
167. Which hormone is essential for prepares the uterus for implantation of the fertilized ovum:
A. Prolactin B. Progesterone C. Oxytocin D. LH
168. Which hormone decrease the secretion of estrogen during pregnancy:

169. Which hormone make the mammary glands secretary in nature:

170. Which hormone stop the mechanism of ovulation during pregnancy:

ENZYMES
171. The chemical which is used to boost up reaction not itself used in that reactions:
A. Enzyme B. Active Site C. Catalyst D. Co-factor
172. The molecule on which enzyme can act:
A. Enzyme B. Prosthetic Group C. Substrate D. Non-protein part
173. Small amount of enzymes can catalyzed large amount which Biological molecules:
A. Substrates B. Active Sites C. Co-factor D. None of these
174. The velocity of the enzymatic reaction increases as the concentration of the substrates
increases up to certain maximum. But after certain period of time it will:
A. Increase B. Decrease C. Constant D. None of these
175. The pH of Trypsin enzymes:

A. 7.57 B. 8.57 C. 9.57 D. 4.57
176. Which of the following organ secret Trypsin:

A. Liver B. Pancreas C. Gallbladder D. Stomach
177. The pH of Pepsin enzymes:

A. 3-4 B. 1-2 C. 2-3 D. 4-5
178. The optimum temperature at which enzyme efficiency is maximum:

A. 36°C B. 37°C C. 39°C D. 50°C
179. The binding takes place between the substrate molecules and a place over the enzyme:
A. Enzyme B. Prosthetic Group C. Substrate D. Non-protein part
180. The enzyme with apoenzyme and their non-protein part is called:
A. Apoenzyme B. Holoenzyme C. Co-factor D. Prosthetic Group
181. The cofactors and coenzymes that are very tightly bound with the enzyme protein:
A. Apoenzyme B. Co-Enzymes C. Co-factor D. Prosthetic Group
182. Which of the following enzymes bring about a transfer of functional group such as acyl:
A. Transaminases B. Transpeptidases C. Transacylases D. Transmethylases
183. Which enzyme catalyze hydrolysis in addition with water:

A. Deamidases B. Protease C. Carbohydrases D. All of these
184. The enzymes catalyze the addition of NH3, H2O OR CO2 to double bonds or removal of
these groups leaving behind double bonds:
A. Hydrolases B. Leases C. Isomerases D. Ligases
185. The enzymes catalyze condensation reaction joining two molecules by forming C-O,C-S,C-N,
& C-C bonds along with energy releasing hydrolysis:
A. Hydrolases B. Leases C. Isomerases D. Ligases
186. The rate of reaction is directly proportional to the concentration of:

A. Enzymes B. Substrates C. Active Sites D. Only A & B
187. The optimum temperature at which enzyme work:

A. 36°C B. 37°C C. 39°C D. 50°C
188. The enzyme DNA polymerase work best at:

A. 56°C B. 97°C C. 80°C D. 90°C
189. The pH of salivary amylase enzymes:

A. 2.4- 4.9 B. 5.4- 8.9 C. 6.4- 6.9 D. 9.4- 10.9
190. Which of the following are functions of Enzymes:

A. Lower Activation Energy B. Blood clotting & Sweetener
C. Alcoholic Beverages & Meat tenderizing D. All of these
VITAMINS
191. Which of the following are used in minute amount aids in maintaining the normal metabolic
activities of the tissues:
A. Enzymes B. Vitamins C. ATP D. Hormones
192. Which of the following are not destroyed in the digestive processes and absorbed as such:
A. Disaccharides B. Vitamins C. Enzymes D. Pepsin
193. Which of the following are examples of water soluble vitamins:

A. Vitamin - C B. Vitamin - B complex C. Vitamin A D. Only A & B
194. Which of the following are examples of heat affected vitamins:

A. Vitamin - B1 B. Vitamin - B3 C. Vitamin - B2 D. Only A & B
195. Which of the following are examples of heat unaffected vitamins:

A. Pyridoxine & Folic Acid B. Biotin & Riboflavin C. Cobalamin D. All of these
VITAMIN A
196. Which of the following involved in the maintenance of normal visual process of eye:
A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin D C. Vitamin E D. Vitamin K
197. The precursor or/provitamin "A" obtained from plants is known as:
A. carotene B. Carotenoid C. Retinol D. Only A & B
198. The oxidation of Retinol convert into Retinal and further oxidation changes into:
A. Can’t be oxidize B. Destroy the molecule C. Retinoic Acid D. Carotenoid
199. Vitamin A is quite heat stable but it is destroyed at high temperatures in the presence of:
A. CO2 B. O2 C. Both A & B D. None of these
200. Which of the following are Good source of Vitamin A:

A. Halibut, Shark and Cod B. Egg yolk, Butter, Cheese
C. Milk, Kidney & Muscles D. All of these
201. Vitamin A not occur in:

A. Ayurveda oils B. Liver oils C. Seed oils D. Vegetable oils
202. Which of the following vitamin combines with protein opsin to form rhodopsin which is
essential for rod vision in dim light:
203. Which of the following is essential for the normal growth and Development of bones and
teeth. In some way it is construction of bones and teeth and also rates the process of
mineralization:
204. Which of the following vitamin trap organic peroxide free radicals within its structure at low
02 concentration as compared to Vitamin E (acts at high 02 concentration):
205. Which of the following Vitamin binds to transcription regulatory protein that controls gene
expression:
206. Which of the following Vitamin Promote healthy skin and helps to regulate the skins process
of shedding dead cells and fight with bacteria:
207. Vitamin A is used in the synthesis of:

A. Mucopolysaccharide B. Gluco-corticoids C. Protein D. All of these
208. Which of the following disease is Night blindness due to disturbance in visual cycle:
A. Nyctalopia B. Xerophthalmia C. Keratomalacia D. All of these
209. Xerophthalmia means:

A. Dry cornea B. Absence of tears C. Irritation to blinking D. All of these
210. Keratomalacia disease caused by with the deficiency of:

211. Which vitamin deficiency causes the disturbance in menstrual cycle:
212. Digospermia means:

A. Low sperm count B. High sperm count C. Double sperm count D. Half sperm count
213. Which of the following symptoms caused by deficiency of Vitamin A:

A. Stone formation in urinary tract B. Oral cavity & respiratory passage
C. Delayed Dentition D. All of these
VITAMIN D
214. The Vitamin D is a fat soluble vitamin. Its deficiency cause rickets in children and in adults:
A. Adult Rickets B. Osteoclastic C. Osteomalacia D. Only A & C
215. Which of the following vitamin have anti-ricketic property:

A. Ergosterol B. Calciferol C. Both A & B D. Only A
216. Which of the following may occur when serum Ca++ level falls to 1 mg%:
A. Tetany B. Delayed teething C. Malformed D. Osteomalacia
VITAMIN E
217. Which of the following are functions of vitamin E:

A. Antioxidant B. Synthesis of DNA C. Boost fertility D. All of these
VITAMIN K
218. Which of the following is source of vitamin K1 :

A. Plant B. Bacterial C. Synthetic D. All of these
219. Which of the following Vitamin used as blood clotting factor:

220. Which of the following are drugs having anti-vitamin K activity:

A. Heparin B. Warfarin C. Dicumerol D. All of these
VITAMIN C
221. Which of the following is anti scorbutic vitamin:

A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin D C. Vitamin C D. Vitamin K
222. Another name of Vitamin C is:

A. Citric Acid B. Ascorbic Acid C. Lactic Acid D. All of these
223. Which of the following vitamin is not produced in the body:

A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin D C. Vitamin C D. Vitamin K
224. The chief source of Vitamin C is:
A. Guava B. Mango C. Apple D. Liver
VITAMIN B1
225. Which of the following are functions of Vitamin B1:

A. Act as carboxylase B. Act as Transketolase C. Conversion of Fat D. All of these
INTRODUCTION TO BIOTECHNOLOGY
226. The application of biological organisms, systems, or processes to the manufacturing and
service industries:
A. Biochemistry B. Biotechnology C. Biology D. Human biology
227. Which of the following are examples of techniques used to determine the genetic disease:
A. Nucleic acid hybridization B. polymerase chain reaction C. ELISA. D. All of these
INTRODUCTION TO GENETIC ENGINEERING
228. The process of synthesis of RNA from the DNA with the same sequence of nucleotides as
DNA is:
A. Transcription B. Translation C. Both A & B D. None of these
229. Which of the following translation occurs:

A. 5” to 3” B. 3” to 5” C. Both of A & B D. All of these
230. The process of translating the nucleotide sequence mRNA into amino acid sequence of the
protein:
A. Transcription B. Translation C. Both A & B D. None of these
2
CHAPTER#01 & 02
“INTRODUCTION & SCOPE OF

MICROBIOLOGY”
“BACTERIA”
1. Bacterial flagella is made up of ____________ b) Gram -ve bacteria
a) Microtubules c) Both a & b
b) Flagellin d) None of these
c) Spinin 9. Which one of the following is bacilli
d) Tubuline bacteria?
2. Surface appendage of bacteria meant for a) Treponema palidium
attachement for cell-cell conjugation b) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
is____________ c) Salmonella typhae
a) Pili d) None of these
b) Flagella 10. Spirilum volutan is a ____________
c) Sipinae a) Vibrio bacteria
d) Cilia b) Spirochetes
3. Extra chromosomal,circular double c) Spirilla
stranded, self replicating DNA molecules d) None of these
in bacteria is called ____________ 11. Which one of the following bacteria have
a) Cosmid higher lipid content?
b) Plasmid a) Gram+ ve bacteria
c) Phagimid b) Gram –ve bacteria
d) None of these c) None of these
4. Bacterial chromosome is ____________ d) Both of these
a) Single stranded & circular 12. Which one of the following bacteria lacks
b) Double stranded & circular cell wall?
c) Single stranded & linear a) Cyanobacteria
d) None of these b) Mycoplasma
5. Differential staining of bacteria on gram c) Spirochetes
staining is due to ____________ d) None of these
a) Difference in cell structure of gram +ve & 13. The cocci which mostly occur in single or
gram –ve bacteria pairs called ____________
b) Difference in cell wall layer component of a) Streptococci
gram +ve & gram –ve bacteria b) Diplococci
c) Difference in mode of nutrition c) Tetracocci
d) None of above d) None of these
6. Gram –ve organism is ____________ 14. Which one of the following structure
a) Streptococci protects the bacteria from phagocytosis?
b) Bacillus anthrax a) Cell wall
c) Clostridium b) Cytoplasm
d) None of these c) Capsule
7. When gram +ve bacteria are stained they d) Plasmids
give ____________ 15. In ____________ Robert Hook gave deception
a) Pink color of microscope.
b) Dark purple color a) 1556
c) Black color b) 1665
d) None of these c) 1565
8. On the basis of gram staining technique d) 1656
which form of bacteria doesn’t have 16. In ____________ tiny microorganisms are
techoic acid? called as animalcules.
a) Gram +ve bacteria a) 1647
3
b) 1674 26. Periplasmic space is present in ____________

c) 1764 a) Gram (+) bacteria
d) 1746 b) Gram (-) bacteria
17. Vulnerable area of body is ____________ c) Both of these
a) Ear d) None of these
b) Eye 27. ____________ bacteria do not form capsule.
c) Throat a) Bacilli
d) Nose b) Cocci
18. Microbiology is ____________ c) Spiral
a) Dynamic d) All of these
b) Exploding 28. Ribosomes are bodies of ____________
c) Revolutionary a) RNA & protein
d) All of above b) DNA & protein
19. The ____________ needs knowledge of c) DNA & RNA
microbiology to fight disease. d) All of these
a) Biologists 29. ____________ are associated with the
b) Geologists synthesis of protein.
c) Physician a) Volutin
d) Dermatologists b) Magnetosome
20. The ____________ frequently uses c) Chromosome
information about microorganism in his d) Inclusion bodies
search for oil. 30. Cell membrane contains approximately
a) Biologists ____________ proteins.
b) Geologists a) 40%
c) Physician b) 50%
d) Dermatologists c) 60%
21. The bacteria were discovered in d) 70%
____________ 31. Cell membrane contains approximately
a) 1672 ____________ lipids.
b) 1673 a) 40%
c) 1674 b) 50%
d) 1675 c) 60%
22. In ____________ Frederick Muller named d) 70%
them Bacilli. 32. ____________ is any change from general
a) 1673 state of good health.
b) 1773 a) Infection
c) 1783 b) Disease
d) 1763 c) Both of these
23. The general appearance of an individual d) None of these
cell as seen under bright field compound 33. If symbiosis is beneficial to both the body
microscope is known as ____________ & the microorganisms, then relationship
a) Cellular physiology is called ____________
b) Cellular morphology a) Parasitism
c) Cellular bacteriology b) Mutualism
d) Cellular microbiology c) Commensalis
24. The length of cylindrical bacteria is d) None of these
____________ 34. The symbiosis is beneficial only to the
a) 0.2 -20 micro meter microorganisms, relationship is called
b) 0.5-20 micro meter ____________
c) 0.2-25 micro meter a) Parasitism
d) 0.5-25 micro meter b) Mutualism
25. The important component of bacterial c) Commensalism
cell wall is ____________ d) None of these
a) Teichoic acid 35. Pneumococci & species of Mycoplasma
b) Peptidoglycan are present in ____________
c) Polysaccharides a) Oral cavity
d) Dextrin b) Upper respiratory tract
4
c) Lower respiratory tract d) None of these

d) Small & large intestine 37. Lactobacilli is an example of ____________
36. The symbiotic relationship b/w host & a) Virulent
parasite is called ____________ b) A virulent
a) Parasitism c) Moderately virulent
b) Mutualism d) Opportunistic
c) Commensalism
e)
CHAPTER#03
CULTURE MEDIA
38. Which one of the following is the 45. Which one of the following media need
classification of media on the basis of low O2 Extra nutrients?
chemical composition. a) Selective media
a) Solid media b) Basal media
b) Semi-synthetic media c) Anaerobic media
c) Basal media d) None of these
d) Selective media 46. In streak plate method plates are
39. Agar is used for which type of media? incubates at________
a) Solid media a) 38ᵒC
b) Liquid media b) 39ᵒC
c) Semi-solid media c) 37ᵒC
d) Both a & c d) 34ᵒC
40. Chemical composition of which media is 47. Gram staining differentiates the bacteria
not known? by detecting________
a) Synthetic media a) Plasmid
b) Semi-synthetic media b) Nucleotide
c) Natural media c) Peptidoglycan
d) None of thee d) None of these
41. On the basis of chemical composition 48. In gram staining procedure stain is
enriched media is___________ washed with___________
a) Semi-synthetic media a) Gelatin violet
b) Natural media b) Lougol’s iodine
c) Synthetic media c) Safranine
d) None of these d) Neutral red
42. On the basis of physical state nutrient 49. A____________ consists of a population of
broth is__________ cells derived from a single cell?
a) Solid media a) Culture
b) Liquid media b) Pure culture
c) Semi-solid media c) Bacteria culture
d) None of these d) All of above
43. On the basis of functional use EMB 50. Very small amount of specimen can be
is_________ spread over the agar is limitation
a) Differential media of_________
b) Basal media a) Streak plate technique
c) Selective media b) Pour plate technique
d) Anaerobic media c) Spread plate technique
44. Which one of the following media is d) Serial dilution technique
prepared by using 0.2-0.5% agar? 51. Minimal amount equipment is required
a) Solid media to___________
b) Semi-solid media a) Streak plate technique
c) Both a & b b) Pour plate technique
d) None of these c) Spread plate technique
d) Serial dilution technique
5
52. Special equipment, micromanipulator is b) Staphylococci

used to________ c) Neisseria species
a) Spread plate method d) All of above
b) Serial dilution technique 55. _________ is used in DNA & RNA synthesis:
c) Single cell isolation technique a) Sulfur
d) All of above b) Phosphate
53. To encourage the growth of ___________ c) Ammonium phosphate
blood sugar heated before solidification: d) Sodium chloride
a) Streptococci 56. ____________ maintains a stable internal
b) Staphylococci environment in the cytoplasm:
c) Neisseria species a) Sulfur
d) All of above b) Phosphate
54. ___________ are cultivated on mannitol salt c) Ammonium phosphate
agar? d) Sodium chloride
a) Streptococci
CHAPTER#04
VIRUSES
57. Viruses are ___________ parasites which d) None of these
means that they only replicate only inside 63. Capsid of herpes viruses is made up of
a living host cell: ____________ capsomeres
a) Aerobic intracellular a) 162
b) Anaerobic extracellular b) 252
c) Obligate intracellular c) 126
d) Facultative extracellular d) 621
58. In the late____________ botanists had been 64. Capsid of adenoviruses which cause some
trying to find the cause of tobacco mosaic common cold is made up of___________
disease: capsomeres:
a) 1400s a) 162
b) 1700s b) 252
c) 1800s c) 126
d) 1900s d) 621
59. Viruses of rabies and tobacco mosaic
have__________ 65. In some viruses as ___________viruses, the
a) Helical symmetry envelope contains functional projection
b) Icosahedral symmetry known as spike:
c) Complex symmetry a) Influenza and measles
d) None of these b) Polio and measles
60. Herpes simplex and polio viruses c) Polio influenza
have____________ d) Rabies and tobacco mosaic
a) Helical symmetry 66. A completely assembled viruses outside
b) Icosahedral symmetry its host is known as___________
c) Complex symmetry a) Virion
d) None of these b) Viroids
61. The icosahedrons a polyhedron c) Prions
with_______ triangular faces and ________ d) Both a & b
corners 67. The genome replication of most DNA
a) 20,12, viruses takes place in the cell’s____________
b) 12,20 a) Cytoplasm
c) Both a & b b) Nucleus
d) None of these c) Ribosome
62. Some bacteriophages have__________ d) Protoplasm
a) Helical symmetry 68. The genome replication of most RNA
b) Icosahedral symmetry viruses takes place in the cell’s__________
c) Complex symmetry a) Cytoplasm
6
b) Nucleus a) 86
c) Ribosome b) 87
d) Protoplasm c) 88
69. In___________ Andre Lwoff, Robert Horne d) 89
and Paul Tournier the first to develop a 78. Currently (2009) ___________ species of
means of virus classification, based on the virus have been defined:
Linnaean hierarchical system: a) 2288
a) 1952 b) 2828
b) 1962 c) 2882
c) 1972 d) 2282
d) 1982 79. Herpes virus is an example of
70. __________ are tailed dsDNA (group I) ________________?
bacteriophages: a) ds DNA virus
a) Caudovirales b) ss DNA virus
b) Herpesvirales c) ds RNA virus
c) Mononegavirales d) ss RNA virus
d) Nidovirales 80. Pox virus is an example of_______________?
71. ___________ includes non-segmented (˗) a) ds DNA virus
strand ssRNA (Group V) plants and b) ss DNA virus
animal viruses: c) ds RNA virus
a) Caudovirales d) ss RNA virus
b) Herpesvirales 81. Parvovirus is an example of_________?
c) Mononegavirales a) ds DNA virus
d) Nidovirales b) ss DNA virus
72. _____________ contains large eukaryotic c) ds RNA virus
dsDNA viruses: d) ss RNA virus
a) Caudovirales 82. Reoviruse is an example of_____________?
b) Herpesvirales a) ds DNA virus
c) Mononegavirales b) ss DNA virus
d) Nidovirales c) ds RNA virus
73. ____________ is composed of (+) srand ssRNA d) ss RNA virus
(Group IV) viruses with vertebrate hosts: 83. Retrovirus is an example of_____________?
a) Caudovirales a) ds DNA-RT virus
b) Herpesvirales b) ss DNA virus
c) Mononegavirales c) ss RNA-RT virus
d) Nidovirales d) ds RNA virus
74. __________ contains monopartite ssRNA 84. Hepadnaviruses is an example
viruses that infect plants: of___________?
a) Mononegavirales a) ds DNA-RT virus
b) Nidovirales b) ss DNA virus
c) Picornavirales c) ss RNA-RT virus
d) Tymovirales d) ds RNA virus
75. ____________contains small (+) strand ssRNA 85. __________ is a family of viruses that include
viruses that infect a variety of plant, well-known viruses like Hepatitis A virus,
insect and animal hosts: enteroviruses, rhinoviruses, polioviruses,
a) Mononegavirales and foot and mouth viruses:
b) Nidovirales a) Parvoviruses
c) Picornavirales b) Picornaviruses
d) Tymovirales c) Reoviruses
76. Currently (2009) ___________ orders of virus d) Retroviruses
have been defined: 86. Reverse transcriptase, the key enzyme
a) 6 that ______________ use to translate their
b) 8 RNA into DNA:
c) 10 a) Parvoviruses
d) 12 b) Picornaviruses
77. Currently (2009) ___________ families of c) Reoviruses
virus have been defined: d) Retroviruses
7
87. Symptoms of AIDS are___________ except: 88. Lethargy, runny nose, diarrhea, are the
a) Encephalitis symptoms of___________
b) Pneumocystis a) AIDS
c) Esophagitis b) Influenza
d) Systemic fever c) Measles
d) Smallpox
CHAPTER#05
FUNGI
89. About ____________ fungal species have been 96. ___________ species of Ascomycetes are to be
described. found.
a) 1,000
a) 60,000 b) 10,000
b) 70,000 c) 65,000
c) 80,000 d) 30,000
d) 90,000 97. ____________ species of Basidiomycetes are
90. Rhizopus stolonifer is very common to be found
member of ____________ a) 1,000
a) Zygomycetes b) 1,000
b) Ascomycetes c) 65,000
c) Basidiomycetes d) 30,000
d) Glomeromycetes 98. Fungi are primarily ____________ organisms
91. ____________ commonly known as the sac a) Marine
fungi b) Terrestrial
a) Zygomycetes c) Fresh water
b) Ascomycetes d) All of above
c) Basidiomycetes 99. ____________ are associations b/w roots of
d) Glomeromycetes vascular plants & fungi
92. ____________ commonly known as the club a) Lichens
fungi. b) Mycorrhizae
a) Zygomycetes c) Cyanobacteria
b) Ascomycetes d) None of above
c) Basidiomycetes 100.___________ are associations of fungi &
d) Glomeromycetes either algae
93. The simplest of the true fungi belong to a) Lichens
the division ____________ b) Mycorrhizae
a) Zygomycota c) Cyanobacteria
b) Ascomycota d) None of above
c) Basidiomycota 101.Yeast is a ____________ fungus
d) Chytridiomycota a) Unicellular
94. ____________ species of Chytrids are to be b) Multicellular
found. c) Extracellular
a) 1,000 d) None of above
b) 1,0000 102.Yeast cells are ____________ than bacteria in
c) 65,000 size.
d) 30,000 a) Smaller
95. ____________ species of Zygomycetes are to b) Larger
be found c) Bigger
a) 1,000 d) None of above
b) 10,000 103.About ____________ species of yeast has
c) 65,000 been described.
d) 30,000 a) 1500
b) 1600
8
c) 1700 d) All of above

d) 1800 111.____________ parasites can grow only on the
104.The process of fermentation is very host cell.
important in __________ a) Obligate
a) Wine b) Facultative
b) Beer c) Both of above
c) Bread making d) None of above
d) All of above 112.____________ fungi are found in the rumen
105.___________ is used in baking & fermenting of cattle
alcoholic beverages. a) Obligate
a) Candida albicans b) Anaerobic
b) Zygosaccharomyces c) Both of above
c) Saccharomyces cerevisiae d) None of above
d) All of above 113.Asexual reproduction in molds include
106.Yeasts are able to grow in foods with a ____________
____________ a) Spores
a) Low pH b) Conidia
b) High pH c) Fragmentation
c) Neutral pH d) All of above
d) None of above 114.Members of Oomycota are collectively
107.Molds are ____________ fungi. known as ____________
a) Unicellular a) Oomycetes
b) Multicellular b) Slime molds
c) Extracellular c) Water molds
d) None of above d) Both a & c
108.____________ hyphae are called coenocytic 115.Saprolegnia & Achlya are ____________
hyphae. a) Parasites
a) Septate b) Saprotrophs
b) Non septate c) Decomposers
c) Dimorphic d) None of above
d) None of above 116.___________ live on the gills of fish.
109.____________ hyphae are composed of an a) Parasites
outer cell wall & inner lumen. b) Saprotrophs
a) Septate c) Decomposers
b) Non septate d) None of above
c) Dimorphic 117.Downy mildew is a disease of foliage
d) None of above caused by ____________
110.The cell wall of fungi is composed of a) Oomycetes
____________ b) Acrasiomysetes
a) Lignin c) Cellular slime molds
b) Chitin d) Acellular slime molds
c) Cellulose
e)
CHAPTER#06
MICROBIOLOGY OF WATER
118.Ground water originates from ____________ b) Deep sand and rock
a) Lakes c) Both of above
b) Streams d) None of above
c) Deep wells 120.Ground water may become
d) Shallow wells contaminated when it flows along the
119.Ground water is free of bacteria due to ____________
____________ a) Rivers
a) Filtering action of soil b) Streams
9
c) Channels 130.In Saltwater Microbiology, the

d) None of above concentration of salt is ____________
121.Surface water is found in ____________ a) Higher
a) Lakes b) Lower
b) Streams c) Minimum
c) Shallow wells d) None of above
d) All of above 131.In Saltwater Microbiology,____________
122.Possible sources of microbial bacteria abound near the surface
contamination of a body of water are a) Lipophilic
____________ except b) Halophilic
a) Rain water c) Hydrophilic
b) Farm animals d) Hydrophobic
c) Industrial waste 132.The rapid growth & multiplication of
d) Deep sand & soil dinoflagellates can turn the water
123.Contamination of drinking water with a ____________
type of Escherichia coli known as a) Red
____________can be fatal. b) Blue
a) O137:H7 c) Green
b) O147:H7 d) Purple
c) O157:H7 133.____________ causes life threatening
d) O167:H7 diarrhea in humans.
124.The region of a water body near the a) Vibrio cholera
shoreline is ____________ b) Spirillum volutan
a) Warmer c) Salmonella typhae
b) Shallow d) Streptococcus pyogenes
c) Well lighted 134.In pre-Christian times the storage of
d) All of above drinking water in jugs made of ____________
125.As the water deepens, temperatures a) Metals
become ____________ b) Copper
a) Colder c) Chromium
b) Warmer d) Aluminium
c) Moderate 135.Chemicals such as ____________ has been a
d) None of above popular means of killing bacteria
126.As the water deepens, oxygen a) Iodine
concentration & light in the water b) Flourine
____________ c) Chlorine
a) Decreases d) Bromine
b) Increases 136.Ascariasis is a ____________ disease.
c) Moderate a) Viral
d) None of above b) Fungal
127.Purple & green sulfur bacteria can grow c) Bacterial
in the ____________ of oxygen. d) Parasitic
a) Presence 137.The microbial flora of ____________ is
b) Absence transient and variable.
c) Both of above a) Air
d) None of above b) Soil
128.At the bottom of fresh water there is c) Water
____________ d) None of above
a) Littoral Zone 138.Organisms are sprayed by ____________
b) Limnitic Zone from the human respiratory tract
c) Benthic Zone a) Coughing
d) None of above b) Sneezing
129.___________ thrive in Benthic Zone. c) Both of above
a) Green sulfur bacteria d) None of above
b) Photosynthetic bacteria 139.The degree of microbial contamination
c) Methane producing bacteria of indoor is influenced by factors such as
d) All of above ____________
10
a) Crowding c) Hemolytic streptococci

b) Ventilation rates d) All of above
c) Nature of activity of the individuals 141.____________ people lack access to safe
occupying quarters water & ____________ children die each day.
d) All of above a) 1.1million, 4500
140.___________ have been isolated from the b) 1.1billion, 4500
dust of Sanitoria c) 1.2million, 4500
a) Tubercle bacilli d) 1.2billion, 4500
b) Diphtheria bacilli
CHAPTER#07
MICROBIOLOGY OF AIR
142.Algae, protozoa, yeasts, molds and b) Influenza
bacteria have been isolated from the air c) Common cold
____________ the surface of earth. d) Histoplasmosis
a) Near 149.Systemic Mycosis is ____________ disease.
b) Away a) Viral
c) Both of above b) Fungal
d) None of above c) Bacterial
143.The viable bacteria and fungi occur at an d) None of above
altitude of ____________ in air masses all the 150.____________ radiation has great potential
way across the North Atlantic value for reducing the microbial flora of
a) 3,000 m air.
b) 4,000 m a) Infrared
c) 5,000 m b) Ultraviolet
d) 6,000 m c) Electron beam processing
144.Alternaria, Botrytis, Cladosporium & d) All of above
Penicillium are ____________ 151.Chemical agents like ____________ are
a) Viral species effective in reducing the microbial flora
b) Fungal species a) Lactic acid
c) Bacterial species b) Formaldehyde
d) None of above c) Triethylene glycol
145.Pullularia is ____________ like fungus in d) All of above
water, air and soil 152.A new kind of technology for controlling
a) Mold the microbial flora in closed spaces is
b) Yeast known as ____________
c) Both of above a) Filtration
d) None of above b) Laminer-Airflow system
146.___________ is the most abundant over land c) Setting-plate Technique
as well as sea. d) Sieve & slit-type Samplers
a) Pullularia 153.____________ is used in laminar airflow
b) Alternaria system.
c) Cladosporium a) Air filter
d) All of above b) Membrane filter
147.All of them are bacterial disease except c) HEPA filter
a) Small pox d) All of above
b) Meningitis 154.HEPA stands for ____________
c) Diphtheria a) High Efficiency Particulate Air
d) Pneumonia b) High Effectivity Particulate Air
148.All of them are viral disease except c) High Electronic Particulate Air
a) Measles d) High Economic Particulate Air
CHAPTER#08
11
MICROBIOLOGY OF SOIL
155.The region of earth's crust where 163.Fungi are active in decomposition of
____________ and biology meet is called soil ____________ of plant tissue
a) Zoology a) Cellulose and lignin
b) Geology b) Chitin and cellulose
c) Mycology c) Both of above
d) Physiology d) None of above
156.The dominant mineral particles are 164.___________ are generally not found in large
compounds of ____________ numbers except in soils of vineyards and
a) Iron orchards.
b) Silicon a) Algae
c) Aluminum b) Molds
d) All of above c) Yeasts
157.Mineral constituents of soil range in size d) None of above
from small particles ____________ to large 165.___________ fix nitrogen in paddy soils used
pebbles and gravel. for cultivation of rice.
a) 0.2mm or lesser a) Algae
b) 0.02mm or lesser b) Molds
c) 0.002mm or lesser c) Yeasts
d) 0.0002mm or lesser d) None of above
158.Organic soil having very less ____________ 166.____________ do not ingest all bacteria, they
solids maintain some equilibrium of the
a) Organic bacterial flora of the soil
b) Inorganic a) Parasites
c) Both of above b) Protozoa
d) None of above c) Both of above
159.Organic soil having much of ____________ d) None of above
materials 167.In the ____________ cycle, microorganisms
a) Organic transform plant and animal residues into
b) Inorganic carbon dioxide and the soil organic
c) Both of above matter known as humus
d) None of above a) Sulphur
160.The amount of water depends upon the b) Carbon
____________ c) Nitrogen
a) Soil composition d) None of above
b) Amount of precipitation 168.The atmosphere is approximately
c) Drainage and the living population of soil ____________ nitrogen gas
d) All of above a) 50%
161.Gaseous phase of soil consists of b) 60%
____________ except c) 70%
a) Oxygen d) 80%
b) Nitrogen 169.Clostridium pasteurianum is ____________
c) Hydrogen bacteria
d) Carbon dioxide a) Rod like
162.___________ population is highest in both b) Spherical
number (as several! billions/gm) and c) Spiral shaped
variety than all the other groups of d) Comma shaped
microbes 170.Azote means nitrogen in ____________
a) Viral a) Latin
b) Fungal b) Greek
c) Bacterial c) French
d) All of above d) Russian
171.Rhizo means root in ____________
12
a) Latin 173.Nitrobacter bacteria convert ____________

b) Greek a) Nitrites to nitrates
c) French b) Nitrates to nitrites
d) Russian c) Ammonia to nitrites
172.Nitrosomonas bacteria convert d) Ammonia to nitrates
____________ 174.___________ is the reduced form of sulphur
a) Nitrites to nitrates a) SO2
b) Nitrates to nitrites b) SO3
c) Ammonia to nitrites c) H2S
d) Ammonia to nitrates d) None of above
CHAPTER#09
STERILIZATION
175.___________is the process of killing or 181.Glass wares like flasks, test tubes,
removing bacteria and all other forms of pipettes can be sterilized by ____________
living organisms and their spores from a) Dry heat sterilization
preparation or articles b) Moist heat sterilization
a) Filtration c) Both of above
b) Sterilization d) None of above
c) Vaccination 182.The simplest method of dry heat
d) Immunization sterilization is ____________
176.Physical methods of sterilization include a) Flaming
all except b) Hot Air Oven
a) Gaseous sterilization c) Incineration
b) Dry heat sterilization d) None of above
c) Moist heat sterilization 183.Forceps, blades, knives, needles, wire
d) Sterilization by radiations loops, metal spatulas are sterilized by
177.Sterilization by disinfectants is one of ____________
the ____________ a) Flaming
a) Physical method b) Hot Air Oven
b) Chemical method c) Incineration
c) Mechanical method d) None of above
d) All of above 184.Thermo labile substances and ointments
178.The standard setting for a hot air oven is can not be sterilized by ____________
atleast two hours at ____________ a) Dry heat sterilization
a) 160oC b) Moist heat sterilization
b) 170oC c) Both of above
c) 180oC d) None of above
d) 190oC 185.Moist heat sterilization include
179.Fixed oils, liquid paraffin, petroleum and ____________
powders are sterilized by ____________ a) Autoclaving
a) Dry heat sterilization b) Tyndallization
b) Moist heat sterilization c) Heating with bactericide & boiling water
c) Both of above d) All of above
d) None of above 186.Which one of the following is not
180.Volatile preparations or substances and suitable for surgical dressings?
surgical dressing can not be sterilized by a) Moist heat sterilization
____________ b) Dry heat sterilization
a) Dry heat sterilization c) Both a & b
b) Moist heat sterilization d) None of these
c) Both of above 187.Which one of the following method is not
d) None of above used in dry heat sterilization?
a) Autoclaving
13
b) Tyndallization a) Autoclave
c) Subatomic particles b) Hot Air Oven
d) All of these c) Both of above
188.Which one of the following method can’t d) None of above
be used for sterilization of thermolabile 193.The sealed containers are heated at
substances? ____________ for 30 minutes in water bath
a) Dry heat sterilization a) 100oC
b) Autoclaving b) 200oC
c) Tyndallization c) 300oC
d) All of these d) 400oC
189.Which one of the following can be 194.Sterilization by radiation is also known
commonly used as a bactericide in moist as ____________ sterilization.
heat sterilization method? a) Hot
a) Benzalkonium chloride b) Cooled
b) Chlorocresol c) Both of above
c) Both a & b d) None of above
d) None of these 195.The vital structures of cells such as
190.By using hot air oven glassware are ____________are destroyed by radiations
plugged with ____________ which kill the microbes.
a) Absorbent cotton a) Glycoproteins
b) Non-absorbent cotton b) Nucleoproteins
c) Both a & b c) Cyclicproteins
d) None of these d) None of above
191.___________is a process used for the 196.___________ are very penetrating and are
solutions which would be denatured by commonly used for sterilization of
heat. disposable medical equipment, such as
a) Moist heat sterilization syringes, needles, cannulas and IV sets.
b) Dry heat sterilization a) X-Rays
c) Both a & b b) Gamma rays
d) Filtration c) Electron beams
192.____________ is used for sterilization by d) Subatomic particles
steam under pressure
e)
CHAPTER#10
FERMENTATION
197.The chemical process of fermentation is 199.The bacterium Streptococcus lactis
a type of ____________ respiration because it practices fermentation by using ____________
does not use oxygen as final electron to accept the electrons and proton from
acceptor. NADH.
a) Aerobic a) Lactic acid
b) Anaerobic b) Picric acid
c) Both of above c) Pyruvic acid
d) None of above d) Ethyl alcohol
198.In the fermentation of glucose by certain 200.The fermentation chemistry in yeasts
bacteria and viruses an intermediately such as Saccharomyces, the pyruvic acid
accepts the electrons and proton from is first converted to ____________
NADH formed in reaction of ____________ a) Ethanol
a) Glycolysis b) Lactic acid
b) Glucogenesis c) Acetaldehyde
c) Glucogenolysis d) Carbon dioxide
d) Gluconeogenesis
14
201..______________ use an on-off technology and c) Both of above

provide a much higher dosing rate d) None of above
a) X-Rays 207. Microbial enzymes include ____________
b) Gamma rays except
c) Electron beams a) Lipase
d) Subatomic particles b) Lactase
202.____________ is a fermentation product of c) Protease
Acetobator species d) Hydrolase
a) Pickles 208. All antibiotic fermentation are ____________
b) Vinegar a) Primary metabolites
c) Swiss cheese b) Secondary metabolites
d) Meat proteins c) Both of above
203.Swiss cheese develops its flavor partly d) None of above
from the ____________ of fermentation its 209. Ethanol, citric acid, glutamic acid, lysine
holes from fermentation gases are ____________
a) Citric acid a) Primary metabolites
b) Picric acid b) Secondary metabolites
c) Pyruvic acid c) Both of above
d) Propionic acid d) None of above
204.Pickles & sauerkraut are sour because 210. Insulin, HBV, interferon are ____________
bacteria ferment the carbohydrates in a) Primary metabolites
____________respectively b) Secondary metabolites
a) Cabbage & Cucumbers c) Recombinant products
b) Cucumbers & Cabbage d) Biotransformations
c) Both of above 211. Phenyl acetyl carbinol is an example of
d) None of above ____________
205.Fermentation is useful not only to the a) Primary metabolites
____________ but also a consumers enjoy the b) Secondary metabolites
products of fermentation c) Recombinant products
a) Yeast d) Biotransformations
b) Bacteria 212.Fermentation is a unique process
c) Microorganisms because an organic molecule ____________
d) All of above the electrons.
206. In the pharmaceuticals & biotechnology a) Donates
industry the microbial cells or biomass as b) Accepts
the product include ____________ c) Transfer
a) Single cell protein d) Exchange
b) Double cell protein
CHAPTER#11
IMMUNOLOGY
213.What is the major function of the B-Cells? 215.. Disease in which a person’s immune
a) Produce Antibodies system attacks the person’s own normal
b) To kill viruses tissue are called ____________
c) To kill people a) Secondary immune diseases
d) None of these b) Antigen shifting diseases
214.True or False? The Job of the immune c) Autoimmune diseases
system is to defend against d) Primary immune diseases
pathogens,viruses and disease 216.True or False? An Autoimmune disease is
a) True when the body reacts to its own tissue
b) False and mistakenly identifies them as foreign.
c) None of these a) True
b) False
15
c) None of these c) Plasma cells

217.Multiple Choice. _______ is what your body d) Macrophages
produces when your having a allergic 226.Opsonization refers to ____________
reaction. a) Coating of microorganisms or other
a) Adrenaline particles by antibody and/or
b) Histamine complement
c) Insulin b) Agglutination of red blood cells
d) None of the above c) Antibody mediated viral inactivation
218.The inflammatory response includes all d) None of these
of the following except 227.Naturally acquired active immunity
a) Vessel constriction would be most likely acquired through
b) Temperature increase which of the following processes?
c) Increased blood flow a) Vaccination
d) Phagocyte attack b) Drinking colostrums
219.Which one of the following components c) Natural birth
of the vertebrate immune response d) Infection with disease causing organism
occurs first upon invasion by virus or followed by recovery
bacterium? 228.Which of the following convey the
a) Activation of killer T lymphocytes longest lasting immunity to an infectious
b) Activation of B lymphocytes agent?
c) The inflammatory response a) Naturally acquired passive immunity
d) Mobilization of complement proteins b) Artificially acquired passive immunity
220.The maturation of T cells and the c) Naturally acquired active immunity
production of particular T cell receptors d) All of these
occurs in the ____________ 229.A living microbe with reduced virulence
a) Thyroid gland that is used for vaccination is considered
b) Thymus gland a) A toxoid
c) All of these b) Dormant
d) None of these c) Virulent
221.Chemically an antigen may be ___________ d) Attenuated
a) Lipid 230.___________ are the cornerstone of immune
b) Proteins system.
c) Polysaccharides a) Macrophages
d) All of these b) Lymphocytes
222.Chemically an antibody may be c) Memory cells
____________ d) Suppressor cells
a) Lipid 231.___________ is also known as non specific
b) Proteins immunity
c) Polysaccharides a) Active immunity
d) All of these b) Passive immunity
223.The antigens aggregated are called c) Natural immunity
____________ d) Acquired immunity
a) Flocculates 232.The ability to stimulate cells of the
b) Aggregares immune system is called ____________
c) Agglutinins a) Epitope
d) Agglutinates b) Tolerance
224.The antibodies that cause agglutination c) Reactivity
of cells are called ____________ d) Immunogenicity
a) Flocculates 233.The ability to react with products of the
b) Aggregares immune system is called ____________
c) Agglutinins a) Epitope
d) Agglutinates b) Tolerance
225.What type of B cell remains dormant in c) Reactivity
the body, but can respond rapidly if the d) Immunogenicity
same antigen appears again? 234.____________ are the antigens found in
a) Memory cells unrelated species
b) T cells a) Autoantigens
16
b) Alloantigens 241.Widal Test is used against ____________

c) Heterophiles a) Vibrio cholera
d) Thermophiles b) Salmonella typhi
235.Antibody mediated immunity is called as c) Spirillum volutan
____________ d) Staphylococcus aureus
a) Humoral immunity 242.___________ is used for the diagnosis of
b) Cell mediated immunity anthrax
c) Natural active immunity a) TPA Test
d) Natural passive immunity b) Ascoli Test
236.In monoclonal antibodies ____________ c) COOMB’S TEST
regions of each immunoglobulin molecule d) T. PALLIDUM CFT
are same 243.WASSERMAN TEST is used for the
a) Fixed diagnosis of ____________
b) Constant a) Typhus
c) Variable b) Syphilis
d) None of above c) Leprosy
237.___________ plays a major role in allergic d) All of above
reactions by sensitizing cells to certain 244.There are ____________ types of
antigens precipitation reactions
a) IgA a) 2
b) IgE b) 3
c) IgM c) 4
d) IgG d) 5
238.__________ provides resistance in the 245.Agar-diffusion method is type of
respiratory & GIT. ____________
a) IgA a) Precipitation test
b) IgE b) Agglutination test
c) IgM c) Complement fixation test
d) IgG d) None of above
239.Lyme disease is caused by ____________ 246.Slide agglutination test is type of
a) Bordetella pertussis ____________
b) Borrelia burgdorferi a) Precipitation test
c) Mycobacterium bovis b) Agglutination test
d) Clostridium perfringens c) Complement fixation test
240.Widal Test is ____________ for diagnosis of d) None of above
different diseases 247.Weil-Felix Test is type of ____________
a) Precipitation test a) Precipitation test
b) Agglutination test b) Agglutination test
c) Complement fixation test c) Complement fixation test
d) None of above d) None of above
CHAPTER#12
VACCINES
248.Vaccines are based on the concept" of b) Chickenpox
variolation originating in China, in which c) Both of above
a person is deliberately infected with a d) None of above
weak form of ____________ 250.Vaccination was eventually banned in
a) Smallpox England in ____________
b) Chickenpox a) 1838
c) Both of above b) 1848
d) None of above c) 1938
249.Jenner realized that milkmaids who had d) 1948
contact with cowpox did not get ____________ 251.Vaccines can be ____________
a) Smallpox a) Prophylactic
17
b) Therapeutic c) Both of above

c) Both of above d) None of above
d) None of above 255.___________ are the vaccines that contain
252.Bacterial vaccines include ____________ microbial fraction produced by genetic
a) BCG engineering
b) MMR a) Marker vaccines
c) Polio b) Vectored vaccines
d) Yellow fever c) 3rd generation vaccines
253.Varicella vaccine is for ____________ d) Heterologous vaccines
a) Smallpox 256.____________ are genetically engineered
b) Chicken pox vaccines which involve the removal or
c) Yellow fever mutation of virulence gene of the
d) All of above pathogen
254.__________vaccine produced from capsule a) Marker vaccines
polysaccharide molecule b) Vectored vaccines
a) Haemophilus influenza c) Gene deleted vaccines
b) Haemophilus meningitis d) Heterologous vaccines
CHAPTER#13
ANTISERA PREPARATION
257.Antisera are preparations containing a) Rabies antiserum
antibodies introduced into the body of b) Leptospira antiserum
patient to provide ____________ c) Specific Antisera
a) Active immunity d) Non specific Antisera
b) Passive immunity 264.____________ routes are used for injection in
c) Natural immunity antibacterial sera
d) Artificial immunity a) I/V
258.Antisera are used ____________ b) I/M
a) Prophylactically c) Both of above
b) Therapeutically d) None of above
c) Both of above 265.Leptospira antiserum is an example of
d) None of above ____________
259.Normal human imrnunoglobulins are a) Antiviral sera
____________ b) Antibacterial sera
a) Specific Antisera c) Specific Antisera
b) Non specific Antisera d) Non specific Antisera
c) Both of above 266.Serum is the component that does
d) None of above contain ____________
260.Globulin consists of three distinct a) Red blood cells
components except ____________ b) White blood cells
a) IgA c) Clotting factor
b) IgE d) All of above
c) IgG 267.Blood clotting means ____________
d) IgM a) Coagulation
261.Gas gangrene is ____________ infection. b) Flocculation
a) Viral c) Precipitation
b) Fungal d) Agglutination
c) Bacterial 268.Antiserum is blood serum containing
d) All of above ____________
262.__________ is the microorganisms that a) Polyclonal antibodies
produce gas in tissues. b) Monoclonal antibodies
a) Bordetella pertussis c) Both of above
b) Borrelia burgdorferi d) None of above
c) Mycobacterium bovis 269.Rabies antiserum is given ____________
d) Clostridium perfringens a) IV
263.____________ is prepared in horses b) IM
18
c) IP
d) SC
Chapter # 1.
INTRODUCTION TO PHARMACOGNOSY
1. The word "Pharmacognosy" is derived from the
a) Greek words
b) Latin words
c) English words
d) Persian words
2. Pharmakon means
a) Study
b) Knowledge
c) Drug
d) Crude
3. The term Pharmacognosy was used for the first time by
a) The American physician Schmidt in 1811
b) The Greek physician Schmidt in 1811
c) The Indian physician Schmidt in 1811
d) The Austrian physician Schmidt in 1811
4. The word Pharmacognosy was used by Seydler in
a) 1615
b) 1715
c) 1815
d) 1915
5. Pharmacognosy deals with
a) Dosage form
b) Unprepared natural drugs
c) Only with tablets
d) All
6. Gnosis means
a) Study
b) Knowledge
c) Drug
d) Crude
7. Pharmakon & gnosis are
a) Greek words
b) Latin words
c) English words
d) Persian words
8. Pharmacognosy deals with……………….properties of natural drugs.
a) Physical
b) Biochemical
c) Biological
d) All
9. Branch of pharmacy that deals with natural drugs and their constitute is called
a) Pharmaceutics
b) Pharmacognosy
c) clinical pharmacy
d) pharmacology
10. The Greek word pharmakon means
a) Pharmacy
b) Drug
c) Knowledge
d) to obtain
11. the word pharmacognosy was used by scientist named …………… in 1815
a) Schmidt
b) Seydler
c) Tswetboth
d) a and b
12. The unrefined form of drugs obtain from organic or inorganic sources are termed as
a) Natural drug
b) Medicine
c) crude drug
d) both a and c
Chapter # 2
CRUDE DRUGS
1. Ways to classify crude drugs are
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) none
2. Gum acacia is
a) Organized drug
b) un-organized drug
c) crude drug
d) both a & c
3. The drugs obtained directly from part of plants are
a) Organized drug
c) both
d) none
4. Minerals are
a) Organized drug
c) order
d) family
5. Aloe is
a) Waxes
b) Gums
c) dried juice
d) dried latex
6. Crude drug is
a) Refined substance
b) Un-refined substance
c) Dosage form
d) None
7. In morphological method, crude drugs are classified according to
a) Their Part used of crude drug
b) Their therapeutic effect of crude drugs
c) Their natural relationship & distinguish characteristics
d) Their principal constituents
8. In taxonomical method, crude drugs are classified according to
9. In pharmacological method, crude drugs are classified according to
10. In chemical method, crude drugs are classified according to
11. Chemical constituent of bromelain is
a) Resins
b) Alkaloids
c) Protein
d) Carbohydrate
12. Chemical constituent of hyoscyamus is
a) Resins
b) Alkaloids
c) Protein
d) Carbohydrate
13. Chemical constituent of asafeotida is
a) Resins
b) Alkaloids
c) Protein
d) Carbohydrate
14. Chemical constituent of agar is
a) Resins
b) Alkaloids
c) Protein
d) Carbohydrate
15. Chemical constituent of gelatin is
a) Resins
b) Alkaloids
c) Protein
d) Carbohydrate
16. Tannins is principle constituent of
a) Aloe
b) black catechu
c) papain
d) agar
17. Volatile oils is principle constituent of
a) Digitalis
b) bromelain
c) hyoscyamus
d) clove
18. Ginger contains
a) Resins
b) glycosides
c) alkaloids
d) protein
19. Pharmacological class of cinnamon bark is
a) Purgative
b) Anticancer
c) Cardio-tonic
d) Anti-spasmodic
20. Pharmacological class of castor oil is
a) Purgative
b) Anticancer
c) Cardio-tonic
d) Anti-spasmodic
21. Pharmacological class of belladonna is
a) Purgative
b) Anticancer
c) Cardio-tonic
d) Anti-spasmodic
22. Pharmacological class of strophanthus is
a) Purgative
b) Anticancer
c) Cardio-tonic
d) Anti-spasmodic
23. Glycerrhiza is
a) Expectorant
b) purgative
c) astringent
d) cardio tonic
24. Antispasmodic drug is
a) Aloe
b) catechu
c) digitalis
d) hyoscyamus
25. Tolu balsam is
a) Expectorant
b) anticancer
c) antispasmodic
d) cardio tonic
26. Genetales is
a) Phylum
b) Order
c) Family
d) Genus
e) Specie
27. Rhodophyta is
a) Phylum
b) Order
c) Family
d) Genus
e) Specie
28. Ephedraceae is
a) Phylum
b) Order
c) Family
d) Genus
e) Specie
29. Prunus is
a) Phylum
b) Order
c) Family
d) Genus
e) Specie
30. Sinica is
a) Phylum
b) Order
c) Family
d) Genus
e) Specie
31. Genetales is
a) Phylum
b) Order
c) Family
d) Genus
e) Specie
32. Ephedra is
a) Phylum
b) genus
c) species
d) family
33. Rosales are
a) Order
b) Genus
c) Species
d) drug
34. Cartilagineum is
a) Phylum
b) Drug
c) Species
d) family
35. Almond is
a) Phylum
b) Genus
c) Species
d) drug
36. Ipecac is
a) Unorganized drug
b) Organized drug
c) Crude drug
d) Both a & c
e) Both b & c
37. Part used of saffron is
a) Root
b) Flowering part
c) Leaves
d) Seeds
38. Part used of digitalis is
a) Root
b) Flowering part
c) Leaves
d) Seeds
39. Part used of bitter almond is
a) Root
b) Flowering part
c) Leaves
d) Seeds
40. Part used of rhubarb is
a) Root
b) Flowering part
c) Leaves
d) Seeds
41. Nux vomica is
a) Unorganized drug
b) Organized drug
c) Crude drug
d) Both a & c
e) Both b & c
42. Tragacanth is
a) Unorganized drug
b) Organized drug
c) Crude drug
d) Both a & c
e) Both b & c
43. Asafeotida is
a) Unorganized drug
b) Organized drug
c) Crude drug
d) Both a & c
e) Both b & c
44. capsicum is
a) Unorganized drug
b) Organized drug
c) Crude drug
d) Both a & c
e) Both b & c
45. The drugs which are prepared from plants by incision, drying or
extraction are called
a) Organized drug
b) Un-organized drug
c) Both
d) None
46. The drugs which contain cellular tissues are called
a) Organized drug
b) Un-organized drug
c) Both
d) None
47. Crude drugs having definite cellular tissues are termed as
a) Natural drugs
b) unorganized drugs
c) organized drugs
d) crude drugs
48. Example of the drug obtain from plant after physical process is
a) Digitalis
b) Papain
c) Rhubarb
d) ipecac
49. In book “Pharmacognosy by Wallis”, natural drugs are arranged
according to
a) Pharmacologically
b) chemically
c) taxonomically
d) morphologically
50. Oil obtained from almond is an example of
a) Volatile oil
b) Fixed oil
c) crude oil
d) none
51. Seeds of following drugs are used Except
a) Nux vomica
b) Strophanthus
c) bitter almond
d) fennel
52. Which of the following drug is use as dried juice
a) Aloe
b) Opium
c) Asafeotida
d) benzoin
53. Arranging natural drugs in phylum, order, family, genus and
species is …………. Method
a) Pharmacological
b) Chemical
c) Taxonomical
d) morphological
54. Rosaceae is family of drug
a) Ephedra
b) Almond
c) Agar
d) All
55. Taxonomical method includes all of the following categories except
a) Phylum
b) Family
c) Genus
d) Species
e) ranks
56. Taxonomical method of classification of crude drugs is based on
a) Part used
b) Action
c) Natural relationship
d) Chemical constituents
57. Pharmacological classification of crude drugs is based on
a) Part used
b) Action
58. Chemical classification of crude drugs is based on
a) Part used
b) Action
59. Morphological classification of crude drugs is based on
a) Part used
b) Action
60. Castor oil is used as
a) Purgative
b) Anti Cancer
c) Anti Spasmodic
d) Astringent
61. Drug used as anti spasmodic is
a) Aloe
b) Belladona
c) castor oil
d) digitalis
62. Digitalis and strophanthus are both use as
a) Purgative
b) Anti Cancer
c) Anti Spasmodic
d) cardiotonic
63. Drugs with astringent activity is (are)
a) Aloe
b) tannic acid
c) castor oil
d) digitalis
64. Chemically, digitalis, aloe and senna are
a) carbohydrates
b) proteins
c) glycosides
d) alkaloid
Chapter # 3
TERMINOLOGIES
1. Acaulescent
a) Main stem
b) stem less
c) needle shaped
d) smooth
2. Basifixed
a) Attached by base
b) attached by back
c) attached by middle
d) none
3. Vaginate
a) Without hairs
b) congested
c) abnormal growth
d) surrounded by sheath
4. Habit
a) Overall appearance of plant
b) triangular in shape
c) a dry dehiscent fruit
d) none
5. Reproductive structure found in plants.
a) Pulp
b) flower
c) fruit
d) root
6. A small embryonic plant enclosed in a covering is called
a) Flower
b) Root
c) seed
d) fruit
7. The leaves and flowers are on
a) Root
b) Stem
c) Wood
d) bulb
8. Bark is
a) A layer formed by dead cells
b) a layer formed by living cells
c) edible part of fruit
d) seed bearing part of plant
9. Onion is
a) Wood
b) Root
c) Bulb
d) rhizome
10. The basal portion of a pistil where female germ cells develop into seed
after germination is called
a) Glans
b) Ovary
c) dentate
d) xylem
11. Poly means
a) One
b) Two
c) Many
d) all of these
12. A substance secreted from plant is called
a) Gall
b) Gland
c) Exudate
d) deltoid
13. The part of plant which attach the plant to ground is called
a) Stem
b) Root
c) Fruit
d) seed
14. The hard fibrous material that forms the main substance of the plant is called
a) Bark
b) Bulb
c) Wood
d) leaflet
15. Capillary
a) very slender
b) triangular
c) one segment
d) none
16. Acerose
a) Main stems
b) stem less
c) needle shaped
d) smooth
17. Acicular
a) Main stem
b) stem less
c) needle shaped
d) smooth
18. Acute
a) Tapering to a sharp pointed apex
b) Tapering to a sharp pointed base
c) Both
d) None
19. Angular
a) Having sharp angles stem
b) Rounded stem
c) Smooth
d) Covered with sheet
20. Basal
a) At or near the top
b) At or near the base
c) At or near the back
d) At or near the apex
21. Capillary
a) Very hard
b) Very long
c) Very slender
d) Very coarse
22. Deltoid
a) Square shape
b) Round shape
c) Triangular shape
d) Curved shape
23. Dense
a) Congested
b) Long
c) With Sharp
d) With sheet
24. An abnormal growth on plant is called
a) Exudate
b) Gall
c) Dentate
d) Glans
25. Dense means
a) Spread
b) Triangular
c) Congested
d) Gland
26. Leaflet is
a) One segment of compound leaf
b) Two segment of compound leaf
c) Three segment of compound leaf
d) Four segment of compound leaf
27. An underground stem capable of producing new stems or plants at its nodes
a) Root
b) Fruit
c) Rhizome
d) Branch
28. Xylem is
a) the food-conducting tissue of vascular plants
b) the water-conducting tissue of vascular plants
c) the food & water-conducting tissue of vascular plants
d) none
29. Flattened structures of a higher plant, typically green and blade-like, that are
attached to a stem are called
a) Fruits
b) Roots
c) Leaves
d) Flowers
30. ………….grow up into the air and towards the light
a) Fruits
b) Roots
c) Leaves
d) Flowers
e) Stems
31. The leaves and flowers are on the
a) Fruits
b) Roots
c) Stem
d) Rhizome
32. …………is the reproductive structure found in plants
a) Fruits
b) Roots
c) Leaves
d) Flowers
e) Stems
33. …………..is the seed-bearing part of a plant
a) Fruits
b) Roots
c) Leaves
d) Flowers
e) Stems
34. The part of a plant which attaches it to the ground
a) Fruits
b) Roots
c) Leaves
d) Flowers
e) Stems
35. The protective outer layer of a tree trunk that is formed by layers of
living cells above the wood is called
a) Bark
b) Roots
c) Leaves
d) Flowers
e) Stems
36. The hard fibrous material that forms the main substance of the plant is called
a) Bark
b) Roots
c) Wood
d) Flowers
e) Stems
Chapter # 4
EVALUATION OF CRUDE DRUGS
1. Organoleptic evaluation refers to evaluate crude drugs by
a) Chemical test
b) physical test
c) organ’s sense
d) chromatography
2. Nodules are
a) Colour
b) odour
c) fracture
d) external marking
3. The average number of stomata per square millimeter of epidermis is called
a) Annulation
b) stomatal number
c) wrinkles number
d) all
4. Capsicum taste is
a) Sweet
b) bland
c) pungent
d) none
5. Physical constant is
a) IR
b) Elasticity
c) chemical constituent
d) all
6. For Mucilage, which physical constant is determined
a) Swelling factor
b) Viscosity
c) Elasticity
d) M.P
7. NMR stands for………Nuclear Magnetic Resonance …….
8. TLC stands for……….Thin Layer Chromatography………..
9. HPLC stands for……...High Pressure Liquid Chromatography
10. Gas liquid chromatography is used to determine
a) M.P
b) Dose
c) ash value
d) chemical constiuents
11. Chemical tests are used to determine
a) Quality
b) Quantity
c) purity
d) all
12. Biological assay is carried out on
a) Intact animal
b) animal preparation
c) micro-organism
d) all
13. Types of biological assay are
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
14. In quantal biological assay, there is
a) All or none response
b) response increased with dose
c) both
d) none
15. The temperature at which solids melt to liquid is called
a) M.P
b) B.P
c) Elasticity
d) swelling factor
Chapter # 5
ENZYMES
1. Enzymes are
a) Organic catalyst
b) Inorganic catalyst
c) Bothe a & b
d) None
2. All the chemicals that contain mainly……….are called organic substances.
a) Oxygen
b) Carbon
c) Sulphur
d) Nitrogen
3. Catalyst are
a) Specific in nature & in-organic substance
b) Non-specific in nature & in-organic substance
c) Specific in nature & organic substance
d) Non-specific in nature & organic substance
4. The velocity of the enzymatic reaction increases as the concentration of………. Up
to certain maximum
a) The substrates increases c) The substrates decreases
b) The substrates keep constant d) All
5. Renin curdles…………..of milk
a) Lipids c) Carbohydrate
b) Protein d) All
6. It is an enzyme that acts on the substrates and remove their hydrogen molecule.
a) Dehydrogenase c) Oxidases
b) Hydrolases d ) Ligases
7. Trypsin acts at
a) 8.57
b) 9.75
c) 10.75
d) 11.75
8. Trypsin is secreted by
a) Brain
b) Kidney
c) Pancreas
d) Liver
9. Pepsin acts at
a) 1-2
b) 3-4
c) 5
d) 6
10. Enzyme inactivates at
a) 30 C
b) 40 C
c) 50 C
d) 60 C
11. Optimum temperature for enzyme is
a) 20-30 C
b) 30-35 C
c) 35-40 C
d) None
12. Source of bromelein is
a) Digitalis lanata
b) Solanun toberosum
c) Anans comosus
d) Oriza sativa
13. Molecular weight of Bromelein is
a) 2600mmol
b) 2700mmol
c) 2800mmol
d) 2900mmol
14. Lipase
a) Hydrolyzing the cellulose
b) Hydrolyzing the fat
c) Hydrolyzing the protein
d) Hydrolyzing the arginine
15. Ureases acts on
a) Arginine
b) Urea
c) Ammonia
d) Co2
16. Deoxyribonucleases acts on
a) RNA
b) DNA
c) Both
d) None
17. Maltase converts maltose to
a) Golucose
b) Fructose
c) Cellulose
d) All
18. The enzyme acts on protein is
a) Lipase
b) Pepsin
c) Urease
d) Cellulose
19. Oxidation is catalyzed by
a) Oxidase
b) Reductase
c) Dehydrogenase
d) Ligase
20. It is an enzyme that promotes or boost up the speed of the reactions in which
new bonds are formed with the cleavage of ATP (Adenosine Tri Phosphate.)
a) Oxidase
b) Reductase
c) Dehydrogenase
d) Ligase
Chapter # 6
HYPERSENSITIVITY
1. Undesirable reactions produced by the normal immune system is called
a) Sensitivity c) hypersensitivity
b) Hyposensitivity d) both b & c
2. Antigen is
a) Antibody producing agent c) Lipids producing agent
b) Carbohydrate producing agent d) All
3. Dyspnea is
a) constipation c) shortness of breath
b) hives d) urticarial
4. Smoke is
a) Ingestant allergen c) contactant allergen
b) Inhalant allergen d) injactant allergen
5. Pollen is
a) The cells of flowering plants
b) the epidermis of flowering plants
c) The root of flowering plants
d) none
6. Allergic rhinitis is also called
a) Yellow fever c) Nasal decongestion
b) Hay fever d) Typhoid
7. The allergic attack due to bad environment is termed as
a) Environmental Allergy c) non-seasonal allergy
b) Seasonal allergy d) pollen allergy
8. Mediator of immune complex disease is
a) IgE c) IgG
b) IgM d) T-cells
9. Rhinorea is
a) Runny nose c) hemolysis
b) Swelling of the lungs d) skin rash
10. Immunotherapy involves the injections of allergen extracts to…………the person.
a) Sensitize
b) Desensitize
c) Compromise
d) all
11. General approaches to the treatment of allergic diseases
a) Avoidance
b) Pharmacotherapy
c) Immunotherapy
d) all
12. Enzyme immunoassay (EIA), is a biochemical technique used mainly
in immunology to detect the presence of an in a sample.
a) Antibody
b) antigen
c) both
d) none
13. RAST has recently become more useful in the diagnosis and
management of allergies.
a) Gold
b) Food
c) pollens
d) dust
14. In intradermal test.…………of allergen solution is injected into the
dermis or epidermis.
a) 0.1 ml
b) 0.2 ml
c) 0.3ml
d) 0.4ml
15. Dermatologists apply patch tests in patients with dermatitis, to find out
whether their skin condition may be caused by a………..allergy.
a) Ingestant
b) Injectant
c) Inhalant
d) contact
16. Scratch test begins with a method, which involves the placing a
drop of the allergen on the skin.
a) Prick
b) Puncture
c) Scratch
d) all
17. Skin test is
a) Patch test
b) ELISA
c) RAST
d) all
18. A………..allergy test means that a person has a specific allergic
antibody to the substance tested.
a) Positive
b) Negative
c) partial negative
d) all
19. By using following tools the severity of allergy can be diagnose.
a) Temperature
b) pulse rate
c) cardiac output
d) all
20. Inflammatory mediator s
a) Histamine
b) aspirin
c) salicylic acid
d) alcohol
21. The second time any given allergen enters the body, it becomes
attached to the newly-formed………..IgE antibodies.
a) B shaped
b) T shaped
c) Y shaped
d) all
22. When an allergen first enters the body, the B lymphocytes produce an antibody called……..
a) Immunoglobulin E
b) immunoglobulin G
c) immunoglobulin M
d) none
23. The IgE antibodies attach to……...
a) β cells
b) mast cells
c) 5HT1 receptors
d) none
24. In type 1 diabetes mellitus, T cells initiate the destruction of the beta
cells of the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas.
a) sucrose-producing c)insulin-producing
b) glucose-producing d) glycogen-producing
25. The most common example of cell-mediated hypersensitivity to
external antigens is……
a) Ataxia
b) Diplopia
c) contact dermatitis
d) all
26. Because it takes a day or two for the T cells to stimulate following exposure
to the antigen, these responses are called……………….. hypersensitivities.
a) Antigen-antibody complex c) antibody mediated
b) Delayed type d) immediate
27. Injectable allergen are
a) Sting of insect c) pollen
b) injections of medicine d) both a & b
28. ………..is the most common cause of seasonal allergic rhinitis.
a) Food
b) Smoke
c) Pollen
d) all
29. Inhalant allergen are dispersed in
a) Water
b) Food
c) Air
d) all
30. The……….the foreign substance that provokes a reaction.
a) Antibody
b) Allergen
c) hormone
d) none
31. Undesirable reactions produced by the normal immune system is called
a) Sensitivity
b) Hypersensitivity
c) Hyposensitivity
d) both b & c
32. The term allergy was first defined by Von Pirquet in
a) 1606 c) 1706
b) 1806 d) 1906
33. Allergy is…………………hypersensitivity.
a) Type I c) Type II
b) Type II d) Type IV
34. Antigen is
a) Antibody producing agent
b) Lipids producing agent
c) Carbohydrate producing agent
d) All
35. Swelling of the nasal mucosa is
a) Asthma c) cough
b) allergic rhinitis d) COPD
36. Dyspnea is
a) constipation c) shortness of breath
b) hives d) urticarial
37. Smoke is
a) Ingestant allergen c) contactant allergen
b) Inhalant allergen d) injactant allergen
38. Pollen is
a) The cells of flowering plants c) the epidermis of flowering plants
b) The root of flowering plants d) none
39. Pollen is the most common cause of seasonal allergic rhinitis
a) TB c) AIDS
b) Allergic rhinitis d) Asthma
40. Allergic rhinitis is also called
a) Yellow fever c) Nasal decongestion
b) Hay fever d) Typhoid
41. The allergic attack due to bad environment is termed as
a) Environmental Allergy c) non-seasonal allergy
b) Seasonal allergy d) pollen allergy
42. Food allergy is caused by
a) Wheat, soyabean & milk c) tree nuts, shell fish & banana
b) Wheat, egg & apple d) all
43. Animal allergy is due to
a) Dander,skin c) both a & b
b) Saliva, urine d) none
44. According to Gell and Robin Coombs, types of hypersensitivity are
a) 1 c) 3
b) 2 d) 4
45. Mediator of immune complex disease is
a) IgE
b) IgG
c) IgM
d) T-cells
46. Immune complex disease mediator is
a) IgE c) IgM
b) IgG d)all
47. Chronic transplant rejection is…………….type hypersensitivity.
a) I c) III
b) II d) IV
48. Rhinorea is
a) Runny nose c) hemolysis
b) Swelling of the lungs d) skin rash
49. Myasthenia gravis is
a) Weakness of the immune system c) weakness of respiratory system
b) Weakness of the skeletal muscles d) weakness of hepatic system
50. Nystagmus is
a) Uncontrolled movement of nose c) uncontrolled movement of hands
b) Uncontrolled movement of ear d) uncontrolled movement of eye
Chapter # 7
CHROMATOGRAPHY
1- In chromatography, mixtures of compounds are separated on basis of relative ………

a) Humidity
b) solubility
c) polarity
d) absorption
2- if mixtures of compounds are separated in the form rings, then it is ………
a) radial chromatography
b) circular chromatography
c) ascending chromatography
d) both a and b
3- In ………….. Chromatography solvent tends to move downward.
a) Descending
b) circular
c) ascending
d) both a and c
4- in radial chromatography, components of mixture will separate in the form of
a) circles
b) spots
c) arch
d) both a and b
5- Stationary phase use in paper chromatography is ………
a) Paper
b) activated charcoal
c) talc
d) silica gel
6- Stationary phase use in thin layer chromatography is ………
a) Paper
c) talc
d) silica gel
7- Stationary phase use in column chromatography is ……
a) Paper
c) talc
d) silica gel
8- Base line is ……..
a) Edge of paper
b) line appear after chromatography
c) line drawn at distance from edge of paper
d) line of solvent front
9- Rf stands for?
a) Resistance factor
b) retention factor
c) relative factor
d) rotator factor
10- In circular chromatography, sample is applied ……
a) In the Center
b) base line
c) across the center
d) none
11- In radial chromatography, sample is applied ……
a) In the Center
b) base line
c) across the center
d) none
Chapter # 8
EXTRACTION
1- Procedure that involves separation of different compounds on basis

of relative solubility.
a) Extraction
b) miscibility
c) decantation
d) filtration
2- Material that left behind after extraction is termed as ………………
a) Marc
b) Menstrum
c) Trash
d) Solute
3- Liquid that is use for extraction procedure is termed as…………
a) Marc
b) Menstrum
c) Trash
d) Solute
4- For extraction it is important to ………………

a) Reduce particle size
b) create vacuum
c) perform at high temperature
d) none
5- Technique in which hot menstrum is poured on crude drug is ………………
a) Decoction
b) percolation
c) Digestion
d) infusion
6- Technique in which drug is covered in pouch and menstrum
is gently heated is known as……….
a) Decoction
b) percolation
c) Digestion
d) Maceration
7- Infusion procedure is carried out in ……..
a) Percolator
b) soxhelt apparatus
c) infusion pot
d) beaker
8- In continuous hot extraction, ………… is used
a) Percolator
b) soxhelt apparatus
c) infusion pot
d) beaker
9- For soft nature drug ……..process is used.
a) Decoction
b) percolation
c) Digestion
d) infusion
10- If the drug is not heat stable which method should not be used?
a) Decoction
b) percolation
c) Maceration
d) All
11- For extraction of ………..drugs, marc is not pressed
a) Organized
b) unorganized
c) a and b
d) None
12- shelf life of extract prepared from infusion is
a) 12 hours
b) 24 hours
c) 12 days
d) 7 days
13- The extract obtained after percolation is known as ……..
a) Extract
b) percolator
c) sublimate
d) none
14- advantage of reducing drug size in percolation is …………
a) to increase the surface area
b) uniform packing
c) menstrum move slowly
d) all
15- Entrapment of air can be minimized by ………..in percolation
a) imbibition
b) packing
c) size reduction
d) all
16- if Alcohol is use as menstrum ……… percolator is use
a) open
b) closed
17- In percolator, tap is open after ……. Hours to obtain percolate.
a) 12 hours
b) 24 hours
c) 48 hours
d) 4 hours
18- In double maceration, menstrum is divided into ……parts, while in triple
maceration, menstrum is divided into ……parts.
a) 2 , 3
b) 3, 2
c) 2, 4
d) 5,2
19- In infusion, menstrum is warm at …………… °C
a) 200°C
b) 200-250°C
c) 200-300°C
d) 150-200°C
20- In decoction…………… is use as menstrum
a) Water
b) alcohol
c) acetone
d) all
21- In maceration, drug is suspended in menstrum for…….. days
a) 2 to 14 days
b) 7 days
c) 2 to 10 days
d) all
22- The basic aim of multiple maceration is ………
a) To remove the remaining API in to menstrum
b) To increase surface area
c) To make drug soluble
d) None
23- The process in which drug is boiled with water for certain period of time is termed as…..
a) Decoction
b) percolation
c) Digestion
d) infusion
24- The process in which drug is powdered and cover in pouch and then
dipped in menstrum for 2 to 14 days is termed as
a) Decoction
b) percolation
c) Digestion
d) Maceration
25- The process in which drug is powdered and packed into the column
and allow menstrum to pass through the column is known as….
a) Decoction
b) percolation
c) Digestion
d) Maceration
26- If the maceration procedure is gently heated, the process is known as….
a) Decoction
b) percolation
c) Digestion
d) Maceration
27- Moistening of crude drug is known as…..
a) Imbibition
b) size reduction
c) extraction
d) Maceration
28- Entrapment of air can be minimized by…..
a) size reduction
b) imbibitions
c) percolation
d) all
29- open percolator are used for ………. menstrum
a) Volatile
b) non volatile
c) polar
d) non polar
Chapter # 9
Poisonous Plants
1- Plant causing oral toxicity belongs to family

a) Araceae
b) amaryllideacea
c) leguminoseae
d) berberidiaceae
2- Plant toxic to Gastric irritant belongs to family
a) Araceae
b) amaryllideacea
c) leguminoseae
d) berberidiaceae
3- Loss of voice is reported by plant…..
a) Arisaema triphyllum
b) colcasia esculanata
c) narcissus tazeeta
d) both a and b
4- Narcissus tazeeta is found mostly in ……
a) Punjab
b) Gilgit
c) Sindh
d) All
5- Toxic compound causing Mouth or oral toxicity is
a) Lycorine
b) calcium oxalate
c) Atropine
d) Abrin
6- Which of the following plant is toxic to Gastric mucosa
b) crinum asiatcum
c) narcissus tazeeta
d) both b and c
7- Compound toxic to gstric mucosa is ………
a) Lycorine
b) calcium oxalate
c) Atropine
d) Abrin
8- Which of the following plant is irritant to gastric mucosa
a) Aseculus indica
b) Arisaema triphyllum
c) podophyllum emodii
d) a and c
9- Toxic component present in Aseculus indica is
a) Lycorine
b) calcium oxalate
c) saponin alkaloid
d) Abrin
10- Family of podophyllum emodii is
a) Araceae
b) amaryllideacea
c) leguminoseae
d) berberidiaceae
11- Toxic component present in podophyllum emodii is
a) Lycorine
b) podophyllin
c) Atropine
d) Abrin
12- Dryness of mouth is cause by plants of family
a) Leguminoceae
b) solanaceae
c) berberidiaceae
d) Araceae
13- Toxic component “Hyoscine” is present in
a) Atropa belladonna
b) Datura stramonium
c) Arisaema triphyllum
d) both a and b
14- Datura stramonium is found at …………………. Altitude
a) 5000-6000ft
b) 5000-9000ft
c) 6000-10000ft
d) 5000- 10000ft
15- Plant causing eyesight weakness is ….
a) Atropa belladonna
b) Datura stramonium
d) both a and b
16- Conium maculatum cause toxicity by ………
a) Causing CNS disturbance
b) Causing dryness of mouth
c) Increasing GIT motility
d) Causing CVS disturbance
17- Ventricular tachycardia is main symptom of toxicity by …….
a) Digitalis purpura
b) nerium indicum
c) digitalis lanata
d) All
18- Which of the following plant cause CVS disturbance
a) nerium indicum
b) cannabis sativa
c) cicuta virosa
d) both b and c
19- toxic component present in Digitalis purpura is
a) digoxin
b) gitatoxin
c) karabin
d) a and b
20- family of nerium indicum is
a) scropulariaceae
b) apocynaceae
c) cannabinaceae
d) solanaceae
21- plants of digitalis are found in
a) Hazara and azad Kashmir
b) chitral and Azad Kashmir
c) muree and azad Kashmir
22- Coniine and pseudo conhydrine is toxic component found in
a) Conium maculatum
b) nerium indicum
c) cannabis sativa
d) cicuta virosa
23- Karabin is toxic component of plant
a) Conium maculatum
b) nerium indicum
c) cannabis sativa
d) cicuta virosa
24- Which of following plant CNS disturbance
a) cannabis sativa
b) cicuta virosa
c) Conium maculatum
d) a and b
25- following plants are cyanogenetic Except
a) prunus amygdalus
b) manihot esulenta
c) cicuta virosa
d) none
26- amygdalin is present in
a) prunus amygdalus
b) manihot esulenta
c) both
d) none
27- liver damage is cause by the toxicity of following plant
a) cicuta virosa
b) manihot esulenta
c) nerium indicum
d) all
28- Convulsion is common symptoms of
a) Causing CNS disturbance
b) Causing dryness of mouth
c) Cyanogenetic plant
d) Causing CVS disturbance
29- Family of manihot esulenta is
a) Rosaceae
b) euphorbiaceae
c) berberideacea
d) solanaceae
30- All of following cause GIT toxicity Except
a) Aseculus indica
b) nerium indicum
c) podophyllum emodii
d) Arisaema triphyllum
31- All of the following plants are irritant to gastro enteric system EXCEPT
a) Aseculus indica
b) podophyllum emodii
d) Abrus pectoricus
32- All of the following plants are toxic to Gastric mucosa EXCEPT
b) narcissus tazeeta
c) amaryllis vittae
d) crinum asiatcum
Chapter # 10
1- Glycosides on hydrolysis yield a sugar component called
a) Glycogen
b) A-glycogen.
c) sugar part
d) all
2- Senna is an example of ……… class
a) Anthra-quinone Glycosides
b) Cardio tonic Glycosides
c) Saponin Glycoside
d) None
3- Which of following is Cardio tonic Glycosides
a) Senna
b) Aloe
c) rhubarb
d) Digitalis
4- Cassia acutifolia is known as
a) Alexandrian Senna
b) Tinnevelly Senna
c) emodian senna
d) none
5- Sennosides are chemical constituent of
a) Cassia
b) Senna
c) glycyrrhiza
d) both a and b
6- Tinnevelly Senna is name of senna obtained from
a) Cassia acutifolia
b) Cassia angustifolia
c) both a and b
d) none
7- Which of the following use as anti gout
a) Cassia
b) aloe
c) digitalis
d) senna
8- Family of aloe is
a) Liliaceae
b) Leguminosae
c) Scrophulariaceae
d) none
9- Active constituent of aloe is
a) Sennosides
b) Aloin
c) Barbaloin
d) both b and c
10- To collect dried juice of aloe, leaves are cut
a) In “s” shape
b) “v” shape
c) square
d) triangle
11- Which of the following is use of aloe
a) Cardio tonic
b) hair tonic
c) expectorant
d) flavoring agent
12- Glycyrrhiza glabra is obtained from ……….. year old plant
a) 2-3 year
b) 3 year
c) 3-4 year
d) 4 year
13- The leaves of digitalis are collected from September to November in……….
a) Evening
b) afternoon
c) morning
d) mid noon
14- Leaves of ………. Are packed in desiccant.
a) Aloe
b) digitalis
c) nerium indicum
d) senna
15- Mature fruit of ………are collected in June and July
a) Aloe
b) digitalis
c) strophanthus
d) senna
16- Gitaloxin is active constituent of ……..
a) Aloe
b) digitalis
c) strophanthus
d) Glycyrrhiza glabra
17- Glycyrrhizic acid is chemical constituent of……..
a) Aloe
b) digitalis
c) strophanthus
18- Apocynaceae is family of ……
a) Aloe
b) digitalis
c) strophanthus
19- Kombic acid is chemical constituent of……..
a) Aloe
b) digitalis
c) strophanthus
20- Arrow poison is word use for
a) Aloe
b) digitalis
c) nerium indicum
d) senna
21- Leaves of ………… are dried at 60 centigrade
a) Aloe
b) digitalis
c) nerium indicum
d) senna
22- ……….are naturally occurring, nitrogen containing compound
a) Alkaloids
b) carbohydrates
c) glycosides
d) fixed oil
23- Cinchona bark is example of …… alkaloid
a) Pyridine-piperidine
b) Tropane alkaloids
c) Quinoline alkaloids
d) Indole alkaloids
24- Coffee is an example of ………. Alkaloid
a) Indole alkaloids
b) Alkaloidal amine
c) Purine alkaloids
d) Steroidal alkaloids
25- Chota chandan is common name for …….
a) Rauwolfia
b) Coffee
c) Cinchona bark
d) Catharanthus
26- Rattanjot is common name for …….
a) Rauwolfia
b) Coffee
c) Cinchona bark
d) Catharanthus
27- Kuchla, Poison nut, Vomit nut is common name for …….
a) Cinchona bark
b) Catharanthus
c) nux vomica
d) coffee
28- Khurasani-ajvayan is common name for …….
a) Hyoscyamus
b) Coffee
c) nux vomica
d) Belladonna
29- Death herb is common name for …….
a) Hyoscyamus
b) Coffee
c) Belladonna
d) cinchona bark
30- Hyoscyamine is active constituents of……….
a) Belladonna
b) Hyoscyamus
c) Cinchona bark
d) a and b
31- Which of the following is use as anti neoplastic
a) Cinchona bark
b) Catharanthus
c) nux vomica
d) coffee
32- Family of Rauwolfia serpentine is
a) Liliaceae
b) Apocynaceae
c) Papaveraceae
d) Loganiaceae
33- Ajmaline is active constituent of
a) Belladonna
b) Hyoscyamus
c) Cinchona bark
d) rauwolfia
34- Morphine is active constituent of
a) Belladonna
b) Ephedra
c) Opium
d) cinchona bark
35- Codeine is use as
a) Expectorant
b) sedatives
c) anti tussive
d) none
36- Which of the following is use of cinchona bark
a) Dyspepsia
b) Antimalarial
c) Analgesic
d) all
37- Family of belladonna is
a) Papaveraceae
b) Loganiaceae
c) Solanaceae
d) none
38- Scopolamine is active constituent of
a) Belladonna
b) Hyoscyamus
c) Cinchona bark
d) rauwolfia
39- Family of cinchona is
a) Liliaceae
b) Apocynaceae
c) Rubiaceae
d) solanaceae
40- Which of the following is bitter tonic
a) Cinchona bark
b) Catharanthus
c) nux vomica
d) coffee
41- Papaverin obtain from opium is use as
a) Vasodilator
b) muscle relaxant
c) pain killer
d) sedative
42- Opium is obtained from ……
a) Un ripe capsule
b) ripe capsule
c) unripe fruit
d) ripe fruit
43- Narcotine, Thebaine, noscapine, Papaverine are active constituents of
a) Catharanthus
b) nux vomica
c) coffee
d) opium
44- Oil that doesn’t leave the stain is known as
a) Fixed oil
b) volatile oil
c) essential oil
d) b and c
45- Volatile oils contains
a) Terpenes
b) polysaccharides
c) proteins
d) none
46- Foeniculum vulgare” is biological origin of
a) Fennel
b) clove
c) caraway
d) cinnamon
47- All of the followings are active constituents of fennel Except
a) Fenchone
b) Phellandrene
c) Chavicol
d) Limonene
48- Which of the following is active constituent of caraway
a) Fenchone
b) Phellandrene
c) Chavicol
d) Limonene
49- Zira is common name of
a) Fennel
b) clove
c) caraway
d) cinnamon
50- Zira is obtained from
a) dried ripe food of Carum carvi
b) dried ripe food of papver somniferum
c) dried ripe food of Mentha piperita”
d) none
51- Carvone, is active constituent of ……
a) Fennel
b) clove
c) caraway
d) cinnamon
52- Family of Mentha piperita” is …….
a) Labiateae
b) Umbelliferae
c) Liliaceae
d) solanaceae
53- All of followings are active constituents of paper mint EXCEPT
a) Menthone
b) Jasmine
c) Limonene
d) carvone
54- Biological source of Cinnamon is
a) Cinnamomum zeylanicum
b) Cinnamomum carium
c) Cinnamomum vulgare
d) All
55- Family of cinnamon is
a) Lauraceae
b) Umbelliferae
c) liliaceae
d) solanaceae
56- All of followings are active constituents of cinnamon EXCEPT
a) Eugenol
b) Pinene
c) Phellandrene
d) limonene
57- Cinnamon is use as
a) Antiseptic
b) astringent
c) stimulant
d) b and c
58- Cardamom is commonly known as…..
a) Zeera
b) Ilayachi
c) sounf
d) dar chini
59- Cardamom is use for
a) Stomachic
b) ulcer
c) infection
d) all
60- Eugenia caryophyllus is biological origin of
a) Cardamom
b) clove
c) curcuma
d) fennel
61- Myrtaceae is family of ….
a) Cardamom
b) clove
c) curcuma
d) fennel
62- Clove is mostly use in
a) Surgical procedure
b) bitter tonic
c) dental procedure
d) stomachic
63- Curcuma longa is biological origin of
a) Cardamom
b) clove
c) curcuma
d) fennel
64- Active constituent of curcuma is
a) Phellandrene
b) limonene
c) Curcumin
d) Jasmine
65- All are following uses of curcuma EXCEPT
a) Anti Inflammatory
b) Use in Jaundice
c) Use in Gall Stones
d) stomachic
66- ……… are solid or semisolid plant exudates formed in schizogenous cavities.
a) Resins
b) volatile oil
c) fixed oil
d) turpentine
67- Resins in combination of esters of benzoic acid or cinnamic acid are
a) Balsam
b) Oleoresin
c) gum resins
d) all
68- When resin occurs with volatile oils the mixture is called
a) Balsam
b) Oleoresin
c) gum resins
d) oleo gum resins
69- When resins are found in combination with gums………..
a) Balsam
b) Oleoresin
c) gum resins
d) oleo gum resins
70- Resins associated with gums and volatile oils both is ……..
a) Balsam
b) Oleoresin
c) gum resins
d) oleo gum resin
71- Myroxylon balsamum is biological source of
a) Myrrh
b) Ipomoea
c) Asafeotida
d) Tolu balsam
72- Styrax benzoin is biological source of
a) Sumatra Benzoin
b) Ipomoea
c) Asafeotida
d) Tolu balsam
73- Luban is common name of
a) Sumatra Benzoin
b) Ipomoea
c) Asafeotida
d) Tolu balsam
74- Compound benzoin tincture is obatained from
a) Sumatra Benzoin
b) Ipomoea
c) Asafeotida
d) Tolu balsam
75- Bitter apple, Bitter cucumber, Bitter gourd, Korh tuma is common name of
a) Sumatra Benzoin
b) Ipomoea
c) Asafeotida
d) colocynth
76- Active constituent of colocynth is
a) Cucurbitacin-E
b) Balsamic acid
c) Benzoin acid
d) Cinnamic acid
77- Colocynth is medically use as
a) Bitter tonic
b) anti-cancer
c) cathartic
d) b and c
78- Food of god is common name of ….
a) Sumatra Benzoin
b) Ipomoea
c) Asafeotida
d) Tolu balsam
79- Ferulic acid and Umbelliferone are active constituents of
a) Sumatra Benzoin
b) Ipomoea
c) Asafeotida
d) Tolu balsam
80- Which of following is use of Asafeotida
a) Epilepsy
b) Cathartic
c) Laxative
d) in cosmetic
81- Adrak is common name of
a) Garlic
b) Ginger
c) Asafeotida
d) all
82- Active constituent in Ginger is
a) Shogaols
b) Gingediols
c) benzoic acid
d) a and b
83- The pungency of ginger is due to……..
a) Shogaols
b) Gingediols
c) Gingerol
d) all
84- Dehydration of Gingerol produces …..
a) Shogaols
b) Gingediols
c) Gingerol
d) all
85- Volatile oil present in Ginger is
a) Gingediols
b) Zingerone
c) Gingerol
d) all
Carbohydrates
86- Carbohydrates are
a) Poly-hydroxy aldehyde
b) Poly-hydroxy ketone
c) Mono hydroxyl aldehyde
d) Both a & b
87-Carbohydrates are widely distributed in
a) Animals
b) Plants
c) Micobes
d) All
1. Gum acacia obtained from
a) Acacia arabica
b) Acacia senegal
c) Both
d) Only a
2. Acacia tree height is
a) 5meter
b) 6meter
c) 7meter
d) 8meter
3. Flume cells of acacia are converted to gum by the attack of
a) Mycobacterial tuberculosis
b) Bacterium acacia
c) Niesseria gonorrhea
d) All
4. Gum acacia is used as
a) As emulsifying agent
b) As binder
c) As demulcent
d) All
5. Astragallus gummifer gives
a) Agar
b) Acacia
c) Tragacanth
d) All
6. Astragallus gummifer height is
a) 1meter
b) 2meter
c) 3meter
d) 4meter
7. Chemical constituent of tragacanthI is
a) Bassorin
b) Arabin
c) Gelatin
d) All
8. Tragacanth is used as
a) As emulsifying agent
b) As binder
c) As demulcent
d) All
9. Agar is also known as
a) Austria agar
b) Japan agar
c) Indian agar
d) None
10. Zea mays is source of
a) Starch
b) Agar
c) Acacia
d) Tragacanth
11. Catechu is obtained from
a) Acacia Arabica
b) Acacia Senegal
c) Acacia catechu
d) All
12. Catechu is used in
a) Digestion
b) Cough
c) Diaarhea
d) All
13. Nut gall botanical source is
a) Quercus infectoria
b) Gelidium cartiligenium
c) Acacia Arabica
d) All
14. Sphingolipid is chemical constituent of
a) Quercus infectoria
b) Gelidium cartiligenium
c) Acacia Arabica
d) Prunus amygdallus
2
CHAPTER#01 & 02
PHARMACY
&
DRUG
1. Which of the following is the semi-synthesized 6. Which one of the following is prescripton drug?
drug…………..? a) Laxatves
a) Insulin b) Oral contraceptves
b) Vaccine c) Benzodiazepines
c) Amoxicillin d) None of these
d) Thyroxin 7. Which one of the following is not a synthetc
2. Acetylsalicylic Acid is the chemical name of drug
………………….. a) Paracetamol
a) Panadol b) Aspirin
b) Ciprofloxacin c) ceftriaxone
c) Paracetamol d) Ciprofloxacin
d) Aspirin 8. ………………is the secton of any industry where
3. Thyroxin is obtained from ……………………. the quality of raw material and fnished product
a) Plant source are properly checked.
b) Animal source a) Administraton
c) Microbial source b) Ware house
d) All of these c) Quality control department
4. The word, “pharmacon” mean …………….. d) None of these
a) To take 9. …………….is the amount of drug in the dosage
b) Changing form or a unit of the dosage form.
c) Medicine a) Dose
d) None of these b) dosage
5. According to ………………………..Pharmacy is a c) strength
profession dedicated for the appropriate use of d) none of these
medicaton, devices and services to achieve 10. Insulin is obtained from ………… source.
optmal therapeutc out comes. a) Animal
a) American college of pharmacy b) Plant
b) American Pharmacist associaton c) Microbial
c) General medical council d) Both a & c
d) Royal pharmaceutcal society
CHAPTER#03
BOOKS IN PHARMACY
11. Which of the following is non-ofcial book? supervision of American Pharmaceutcal
a) Britsh Pharmacopeia Associaton.
b) United States Natonal ormulary a) 1898
c) Remington Pharmaceutcal Sciences b) 1988
c) 1888
d) Internatonal Pharmacopeia d) 1998
12. __________In the frst Natonal ormulary of 13. …………….. is the ofcial book that has been
United States was published under the written, published and compiled by the WHO.
3
a) BP 16. In 1903 ……………. is specially made for medical

b) USP practtoners and dispensing pharmacists.
c) IP a) Britsh Naton ormulary
d) UN b) Internatonal Pharmacopoeia
14. …………………. is the most abundantly used c) Britsh Pharmacopoeia Codex
pharmacopoeia because of their up to date d) United States Pharmacopoeia
monograph regarding the drug. 17. In………….. the right of UN was given to united
a) United state pharmacopoeia state Pharmaceutcal Conventon.
b) Britsh Pharmacopoeia a) 1980
c) Internatonal pharmacopoeia b) 1888
d) Britsh natonal formulary c) 1974
15. BN is written compiled and published under the d) 1903
co supervision of 18. Which one of the following is ofcial book?
a) GMC (General Medical Council) a) Remington Pharmaceutcal sciences
b) American college of pharmacy b) Merck Index
c) Royal pharmaceutcal society c) Natonal Formulary
d) Both a & c d) Tutorial pharmacy
CHAPTER#04
HISTORY OF PHARMACY
19. Which of the following use music for the a) Jabir bin Hayan
treatment of psychological problems? b) Al-Bironi
a) Al-Kandi c) Abu Ali Sena
b) Ibn-Al-Nafs d) Ibn-Zuhar
c) Abu Ali Sina 25. Depression is ……………………type of disease.
d) Ibn – Zuhar a) Medical
20. ……………wrote about the pulse rate for the frst b) Surgical
tme. c) Psychiatric
a) Abu Ali Sena d) Sexually transmitted
b) Al-Bironi 26. Who invented more than 20 laboratory
c) Ibn-Zuhar equipment?
d) Ibn-Al-Nafis a) Jabir bin Hayan
21. “Al-Saddana il Tibb” was written by ……………... b) Al-Bironi
a) Al-Bironi c) Abu Ali Sena
b) Ibn-Zuhar d) Ibn-Zuhar
c) Abu Ali Sena 27. Who invented Aqua-regia
d) None of these a) Jabir bin Hayan
22. “The cannon of medicine” is the book of b) Al-Bironi
…………………. c) Abu Ali Sena
a) Jabir bin hayan d) Ibn-Zuhar
b) Ibn Zuhar 28. Al-Saddana fl tbb has descripton of more
c) Abu Ali Sena than………….. drugs.
d) None of these a) 420
23. Jabir bin Hayan was born in ………………. b) 620
a) Turkey c) 720
b) Afghanistan d) 920
c) Iraq 29. Al beruni was born in ……………….
d) Iran a) Uzbekistan
24. Who described the purifcaton process of gold? b) Afghanistan
4
c) Spain 32. …………….was that frst person who describe the

d) khwarizm use of inhaled anesthetcs.
30. Who frstly describe the procedure of diagnosis. a) Jabir bin Hayan
a) Jabir bin Hayan b) Al-Bironi
b) Al-Bironi c) Abu Ali Sena
c) Abu Ali Sena d) Ibn-Zuhar
d) Ibn-Zuhar 33. Who describes how to make perfumes.
31. Abu ali sena was the person who frstly describe a) Jabir bin Hayan
a) steam distllaton b) Al-Bironi
b) simple distllaton c) Al-kindi
c) vacuum distllaton d) Ibn-Zuhar
d) fractonal distllaton
CHAPTER#05
SURFACE TENSION
VISCOSITY
34. Surface tension decreases with the ………….. in c) Both a & b
intermolecular forces. d) Irregularity has no efect on viscosity
a) Increase
b) Decrease 36. Viscosity increases with the ……………….in
c) Both a & b temperature.
d) None of these a) Increase
35. More irregular the liquid molecules b) Decrease
shape…………….would be the viscosity of liquid. c) Both a & b
a) Lesser d) Temperature has no efect
b) Greater
IONIZATION
37. Word atom is derived from……….word. b) Aristotle
a) Unani c) Robert hook
b) Italian d) J.J Thomson
c) Greek 40. ………… is weakly basic drug.
d) Latn a) Aspirin
38. When an atom gains an electron from the other b) Procaine
atom………….. is produced. c) Both a & b
a) Caton d) None of these
b) Anion 41. Proton carry ………………charge.
c) Both a & b a) Negatve
d) None of these b) Positie
39. ……………conducted the famous discharge tube c) No
experiment. d) All of these
a) Gregor Mendel
pH
5
42. ………………..can be defned as negatve log of H 46. Phenolphthalein is an example of

ion concentraton. a) Redox indicators
a) Viscosity b) Precipitaton indicators
b) Surface tension c) Acid-base indicators
c) POH d) None of these
d) pH 47. Example of redox indicator is
43. pH Of a soluton is measured by………………… a) Phenolphthalein
methods. b) KMno4
a) By using pH meter c) K2CrO4
b) By using pH Paper d) Methyl orange
c) By using indicators 48. PH of blood is ……
d) All of these a) 1.5-6
44. If pH rises from 7 then the compound is called b) 3-4.5
a) Acid c) 7.3-7.4
b) Neutral d) 6-7
c) Base 49. …………. Is an electronic instrument used for
d) None of these measuring the PH of a liquid or semi-solid.
45. If the PH is between 9 & 14 then compound a) PH indicators
would be called strongly ……………….. b) PH meter
a) Acidic c) Viscometer
b) Basic d) None of these
c) Both a & b
d) None of these
ISOTONIC SOLUTION
50. Solutons with …………….then body fluids 52. …………….is widely used as isotonicity modifers.
commonly called hypotonic soluton. a) Dextrose
a) High osmotc pressure b) HCL
b) Lower osmotc pressure c) Sodium chloride
c) Equal osmotc pressure to body fluids d) Both a & c
d) None of these 53. ………….is also used i.v for patents who can’t take
51. …………….soluton added to body’s system cause fluids orally.
shrinkage of body tssues. a) Bufers
a) Isotonic b) Viscosity
b) Hypotonic c) Emulsifying agents
c) Hypertonic d) Normal saline
d) None of these
CHAPTER#06
DOSAGE FORM
54. ……………… is the administraton of drug or 55. Which one of the following is not an actve
medicine to the living system for their desired ingredient?
acton in body. a) Aspirin
a) Dosage form b) Insulin
b) Drug deliiery system c) Digoxin
c) Dispensing d) Starch
d) None of these 56. Which one of the following opton is incorrect
related to excipients?
6
a) To increase the stability of the product 63. Which one of the following can be used as
b) To increase the palatability lubricants
c) To increase elegance of the preparaton a) magnesium stearate
d) They haie pharmacological actiity b) talc
57. Base may be of……….. in nature. c) acacia
a) Liquid d) both a & b
b) Solid 64. When surfactants are placed in two phases of
c) Semi-solid diferent polarites the polar part moves towards
d) Both b & c a) Low polarity phase
58. Which one of the following can be used as b) high polarity phase
suppository base c) both a & b
a) Soft parafn d) none of these
b) Liquid parafn 65. Spans is an example of
c) Wool fat a) catonic surfactants
d) Theobroma oil b) non-ionic surfactants
59. ………..are the inert substances which are c) Anionic surfactants
specially added to increase the bulk of a drug. d) None of these
a) Binders 66. Which one of the following is an example of
b) Surfactants natural suspending agents.
c) Glidants a) Carbopols
d) Diluents b) Polyox
60. Starch can be used as c) Methyl cellulose
a) Diluents d) ieegum
b) glidants 67. Which one of the following can be used as an
c) Disintegrants ant-oxidant?
d) All of these a) Ascorbic acid
61. Kaolin can be used as b) Edetate
a) Diluents disodium
b) glidants c) Tocopherols
c) Disintegrants d) Both a & c
d) All of these 68. Mannitol is used as
62. Liquid glucose can be used as a) Suspending agent
a) binders b) Emulsifng agent
b) glidants c) Sweetening agent
c) Disintegrants d) None of these
d) All of these
TYPES OF DOSAGE FORM

69. Magmas are…………. dosage form
a) Solid
b) Semi-solid
c) Liquid
d) None of these
7
LIQUID DOSAGE FORM

SOLUTION
70. ………..is the liquid porton of a soluton in which 71. Penicillin V, have………… stability in aqueous
another substance (e.g. salt) is dissolved to form soluton.
a soluton a) Sufcient
a) Solute b) Insufficient
b) Solient c) Moderate
c) Both a & b d) None of these
d) None of these
SYRUPS
72. Simple syrup according to BP is b) 0.1%-0.2%
a) 85%w/v c) 0.1%-0.3%
b) 90%w/v d) 0.1%-0.6%
c) 66.7%w/i 76. Percolaton method is employed for the
d) 60%w/v preparaton of
73. Which one of the following syrup is employed in a) Syrups
therapeutcs b) Ointments
a) Simple syrup c) Tinctures
b) lavored syrup d) Both a & c
c) Medicated syrup 77. Syrup should store at a temperature not
d) Both a & b exceeding
74. Sucrose may be replaced by other sugars or a) 25°C
substances such as b) 20°C
a) Glycerin c) 30°C
b) Propylene glycol d) 40°C
c) Sorbitol 78. Sucrose retards
d) All of these a) Reducton
75. Sodium benzoate is used as preservatves with b) Oxidaton
their efectve concentraton are c) Precipitaton
a) 0.1%-0.4% d) Both a & c
ELIXIRS
79. ………………… required diluton before use or 81. Digoxin elixir contain …………alcohol.
administraton. a) 20%
a) Syrups b) 25%
b) Ointment c) 5%
c) Elixirs d) 10%
d) Creams 82. Which one of the following statement is
80. Elixirs containing more than ………… of alcohol are incorrect related to elixirs?
self preserving. a) Low proporton sugar
a) 2-5% b) Alcohol is necessary component
b) 6% c) More sweet then syrup
c) 5-8% d) Less viscous than syrup
d) 10-12%
8
TINCTURES
83. Which one of the following dosage form is used b) Elixirs
as internally & topically? c) Tinctures
a) Syrups d) Suspensions
b) Elixirs 85. Tinctures contain ………….alcohol.
c) Tinctures a) 10%
d) Ointments b) 15-80%
84. Maceraton is employed for the preparaton of c) 5%
a) Syrups d) 90%
SUSPENSIONS
86. Suspension partcles range falls b/w 88. Which one of the following is available as
a) 1.0nm-0.5nm reconsttuted suspension?
b) 0.5-10µm a) Ampicillin
c) 1.0nm b) Amoxicillin
d) 10-15µm c) Tetracycline
87. Which one of the following is a property of good d) All of these
suspension 89. Which one of the following can’t be stored for a
a) Shouldn’t re-disperse long tme.
b) Preparaton can’t be poured a) Syrups
c) Must contain gritty partcles b) Elixirs
d) Shouldn’t form cake c) Extemporaneous suspension
d) Tinctures
EMULSIONS
90. In emulsion external phase also called a) Dry gum
a) Dispersed phase b) Wet gum
b) Contnuous phase c) Both a & b
c) Dispersion medium d) None of these
d) Both b & c 94. Which one of the following method is also called
91. Vanishing cream is an example of contnental method
a) w/o emulsion a) English method
b) o/w emulsion b) Wet gum method
c) w/o/w emulsion c) Dry gum method
d) o/w/o emulsion d) orbes bottle method
92. which one of the following is dispersed phase in 95. In which method proporton of oil, water & gum
w/o emulsion for primary emulsion is 4:4:2
a) water a) Dry gum method
b) oil b) Wet gum method
c) both a & b c) Bottle method
d) none of these d) None of these
93. In which method emulsifying agent is added into 96. Separaton of internal phase from emulsion is
oil before additon of water. called
9
a) Coalescence c) Cracking
b) Creaming d) locculaton
LINIMENTS
AEROSOLS
INHALATIONS
97. In liniments hydro alcoholic vehicle is employed c) Mountng cup
when d) Spring
a) Massage desired 100. Which one of the following actuator is used for
b) Counter-irritant acton desired Semi-solid products
c) Rubifacient desired a) Spray
d) Both b & c b) oam
98. …………………is used to attach the valve properly c) Specially designed
to the container in aerosols d) Solid
a) Stem 101. A widely used instruments capable of producing
b) Gasket fne partcles for inhalaton is called
c) Mountng cup a) Humidifer
d) Spring b) Vaporizer
99. ………………… is used to hold gasket in plate. c) Nebulizer
a) Stem d) None of these
b) Housing
INJECTIONS/PARENTERAL PREPARATION
102. Which one of the following statement is b) Absorbed
incorrect related to parental? c) Inactiated
a) Sterile d) Both a & b
b) Pyrogen free 105. Which one of the following is strictly prohibited
c) Contain fibers in parental
d) Aqueous vehicles are employed a) Stabilizers
103. Which one of the following route has rapid onset b) Bufers
of acton in emergency situaton? c) Antmicrobial agents
a) I.M d) Coloring agents
b) S.C 106. ………………… is employed as a mult dose
c) I.V container.
d) I.D a) Ampoule
104. Parentral route is preferred when drug is …….. in b) Vial
GIT: c) Both a & b
a) Actvated d) None of these
10
SOLID DOSAGE FORM

POWDERS, GRANULES, TABLETS
107. When added to water the acids and base react to 115. Brufen is an example of
liberate a) Compressed tablets
a) CO2 b) Multple Compressed Tablets
b) N2 c) ilm Coated Tablets
c) O2 d) Sugar coated tablets
d) None of these 116. ………are coated which makes the tablet to pass
108. Granules are prepared from powdered the stomach as such and breaks in alkaline
substances, the partcles of which are made to medium of intestnes.
aggregate by additons of a) ilm Coated Tablets
a) Solvents b) Sugar coated tablets
b) binding agents c) Enteric coated tablets
c) glidants d) Buccal/Sublingual Tablets
d) both a & b 117. ………..types of tablets contain those drugs which
109. porton of powder is placed on a small piece of are destroyed, inactvated or not absorbed in the
paper which is then folded in GIT.
a) Bulk powders a) ilm Coated Tablets
b) Diiided powders b) Sugar coated tablets
c) Both a & b c) Enteric coated tablets
d) None of these d) Buccal/Sublingual Tablets
110. …………are dispensed in sifter type containers or 118. Dicloran is an example of
pressure aerosols. a) ilm Coated Tablets
a) Divided powders b) Sugar coated tablets
b) External use c) Enteric coated tablets
c) Dustng powders d) Sustained release tablets
d) Both b & c 119. Which one the following method can’t be used in
111. Which one of the following is an example of bulk preparaton of tablets
powders according to mode of dispensing? a) Direct compression
a) ORS b) Dry granulaton/ Slugging
b) Analgesics c) Bottle method
c) Laxaties d) Wet granulaton
d) Both a & b 120. inishing and coloring is a ………….. step in
112. Tablets are Intended for………….. route of coatng.
administraton. a) irst
a) Oral b) Second
b) Buccal c) Third
c) Vaginal d) Fourth
d) All of these 121. Which one of the following can be used for flm
113. Compressed tablets are the tablets that are coatng
made up of a) Cellulose acetate phthalate
a) Double compression b) Polyvinyl acetate phthalate
b) Single compression c) Carbowax
c) Both a & b d) None of these
d) All of these 122. Compression Coatng is also called
114. A Tablet within a tablet is an example of a) press coatng
a) Compressed tablets b) dry coatng
b) Multple Compressed Tablets c) Air Suspension Coatng
c) ilm Coated Tablets d) Both a & b
d) Sugar coated tablets
11
CAPSULE & SUPPOSITORIES

123. ………… are easier to swallow. c) 3g
a) Laminated Coatng d) None of these
b) Dip Coatng 126. ……………..are meant for introducton into ear.
c) Gel caps a) Nasal suppositories
d) None of these b) Aural suppositories
124. Capsules cannot be used for …… preparaton c) Rectal suppositories
a) Aqueous d) None of these
b) Alcoholic 127. ……………… is obtained from the roasted seed of
c) Both a & b theobroma cocoa.
d) None of these a) Glycero-gelatn base
125. Rectal suppositories are available b) carbowaxes
in………….weight in children c) Fatty or oleaginous bases
a) 1g d) None of these
b) 2g
OINTMENTS
PASTES
128. Lanolin is an example of b) usion method
a) Absorpton Bases c) Bottle method
b) Oleaginous bases d) Both a & b
c) Emulsion bases 130. Lessar`s paste has …………. property
d) All of these a) Ant viral
129. ………….. method is used for preparaton of b) Ant cancer
ointments c) Antseptc
a) Trituraton method d) None of these
PHYSICAL PHARMACY
131. ………….. drugs that taken together produce a a) All the best
greater efect then the some of their individual b) Get well soon
efects. c) You Take
a) Contraindicaton d) Medicines
b) Overdose 134. Superscripton is always written at …………………of
c) Drug antagonism prescripton.
d) Drug Synergy a) Top right
132. An interacton between two or more drugs in b) Top left
which one drug blocks or reverse the efect of c) Bottom right
another drug is called …………. d) Bottom left
a) Drug Synergy 135. What the components of package?
b) Drug antagonism a) Container
c) Overdose b) Closure
d) contraindicaton c) Carton & Box
133. What is the meaning of Rx? d) All of these
12
136. Suitable packing is important for ………….. of c) 1/100

product. d) 100
a) Purity 146. One tea spoon of liquid is almost equal to
b) Potency ……………...
c) Stability a) 5 milliliters
d) All of these b) 10 milliliters
137. Product placed in which of the following? c) 7 milliliters
a) Closure d) 3 milliliters
b) Carton 147. The force on the object due to gravity is
c) Container ………………...
d) Box a) Weight
138. Number of milliliter of liquid in every 100ml of b) Mass
soluton is defned as ………….. c) Volume
a) Weight in volume d) Radius
b) Weight in weight 148. 10% soluton of NaCl soluton is an example of
c) Volume in iolume ……………...
d) None of these a) Weight in Volume
139. The unit of Density is ……………. b) Volume in Volume
a) Kg/m3 c) Weight in Weight
b) Kg d) None of these
c) liter 149. “qid” means …………….
d) inches a) Once a day
140. ahrenheit scale contains ………………… number of b) Twice a day
division between freezing & boiling point. c) Thrice a day
a) 150 d) Four tmes a day
b) 150 150. Which of the following process is used to remove
c) 90 fat form milk to produced skimmed milk?
d) 180 a) Crystallizaton
141. Mass divided by volume is defned as b) Centrifugaton
………………... c) Calcinatons
a) Volume d) Adsorpton
b) Density 151. ………………. procedure is used to remove water
c) Percentage content from fnal product.
d) All of these a) Decantaton
142. The boiling point f water on ahrenheit scale is b) Deliquescence
……………. c) Desiccaton
a) 100 d) Distllaton
b) 150 152. Materials absorb water from air enough to form
c) 180 soluton is called …………….
d) 212 a) Hygroscopic
143. Number of grams in 100ml of soluton is defned b) Deliquescent
as ……………... c) Both a & b
a) Weight by Volume d) None of these
b) Volume by Volume 153. The process used to separate out impurites from
c) Weight by Weight soluble porton of soluton is called ………………..
d) None of these a) Absorpton
144. One hectogram is equal to …………... b) Crystallizaton
a) 10gm c) Distllaton
b) 0.001gm d) Decantaton
c) 100gm 154. ……………….. is the process by which components
d) 100mg in a mixture are separated according to diferent
145. Prefx “cent” means ………………. tmes the basic boiling points.
unit. a) Simple distllaton
a) 1/1000 b) Fractonal distllaton
b) 1000 c) Stream distllaton
13
d) Vacuum distllaton b) Soluton

155. Spontaneous loss of water from hydrated salt is c) Solute
called ……………... d) all of these
a) Elutriaton 161. Heatng the solid untl it melts is the process
b) Vaporizaton called ………………….
c) Efflorescence a) Elutriaton
d) usion b) Fusion
156. Conversion of a substance from the liquid phase c) Igniton
into gaseous phase is called………. d) Vaporizaton
a) Igniton 162. Heatng up liquid untl it release vapor is called
b) Sublimaton ……………………...
c) Vaporizaton a) Evaporaton
d) Distllaton b) Exsiccaton
157. Separaton of diferent chemical substance on c) Boiling
the basis of their volatlites is called d) all of these
…………………….. 163. The process in which we use mortar & pestle to
a) Decantaton reduce the size of partcles is ………………….
b) Vaporizaton a) Trituraton
c) Centrifugaton b) Comminuton
d) Distllaton c) Lyophilizaton
158. Solids are separated from liquid by rotaton is d) Levigaton
called ……………. 164. The process of grinding & mixing an insoluble
a) Decantaton substance to a fne powder when wet is
b) Vaporizaton …………………..
c) Centrifugaton a) Sublimaton
d) Distllaton b) Leiigaton
159. Accumulaton of O2 on the surface of iron is the c) Lyophilizaton
example of ………………... d) Trituraton
a) Physical adsorpton 165. reeze drying is another name of …………………...
b) Chemical adsorpton a) usion
c) Absorpton b) Lyophilizaton
d) none of these c) Trituraton
160. Substance that dissolved in another substance is d) Sublimaton
called …………………...
a) Solient

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40. Which one of the following is a part of skull?

115. .........connect arteries with capillaries.

125. Cell consists of.............. of water.

149. Bone is a type of

159. There are.............types of joints.

170. Which one of the following is a non cellular part of blood

179. Which hemoglobin is necessary for hemoglobin synthesis?

208. Platelets are

213. Prothrombin helps in

229. ______ is the ability of cell to undergo depolarization.

285. Which one of the following is the largest body organ:

315. Chemical nature of urine is

333. Ability of muscle tissues to be stretched is called:

345. Which one of the following is an example of monoamines?

362. Taste receptors are called

a) A highly sensitive structure in the central portion of the retina

393. Testosterone contain

2. The basis of all forms of life is called:

3. The disease caused by deficiency of vitamins D is called:

4. Which deficiency in the body caused Beriberi disease:

5. Which deficiency in the body caused Scurvy disease:

6. The disease caused by deficiency of vitamins B-3 is called:

7. Which deficiency in the body caused Pernicious anemia:

8. The polyhydroxy aldehydes or ketones is called:

9. The literally meanings of carbohydrate is:

10.Carbohydrates also called:

11.The general formula of carbohydrate is:

12.The carbohydrates which contain also in addition to carbon are:

13.In general carbohydrates are white solids, sparingly soluble in:

14.The general formula of Aldehyde functional group is:

16.The carbohydrates contain two major functional group:

18.The chief source of carbohydrates is:

19.Starch is the abundant in:

20.The second most abundant natural polymer:

21.On hydrolyzed the simplest form of carbohydrate is:

22.Which type of fruits is a good source of carbohydrates :

23.The 2nd most occurring substance in nature:

24.The carbohydrates are prepared by the plants by the process of:

26.The 1g of carbohydrates give:

27.The process of oxidation of carbohydrates is called:

32.Which carbohydrate also called grape sugar:

33.The Normal blood glucose level of human in fasting:

34.Another name of Glucose is:

35.Which chemical formula is same as Fructose :

36.The most common source of fructose is:

37.The pure honey contain finest form of :

38.The source of energy for spermatozoa is:

39.The linkage formed within two molecules of Carbohydrates is :

40.Which of the following is combination of two Monosaccharides:

41.The combination of two molecules form Sucrose:

42.The combination of two molecules form Maltose:

43.The combination of two molecules form Lactose:

45.Which of the following is milk sugar:

46.Which of the following is fruit sugar:

47.Which of the following is homopolysaccharides:

48.Which of the following carbohydrate present in Liver and Muscles:

49.The lipids are organic substances occurring in:

50.The lipids are soluble in which solvents:

51.The primary building blocks of Lipids are:

52.The lipids store more energy due to:

53.Which of the following is type of simple lipids:

54.The specific gravity of water is: