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NEUTRON NEET

SANGHARSH General Instructions

NEET SERIES
SNS - 02
DURATION: 30 MINUTES Chapter wise Test

Syllabus

Subject : Botany

Chapter : Cell Cycle and Cell Division

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 Botany
Q1. An anther has 1200 pollen grains. How many pollen mother cells (PMCs) must have been
there to produce them.
(a) 400
(b) 300
(c) 1200
(d) 250

Q2. Mitosis and meiosis take place respectively in

(a) meristem and gametangia
(b) gametangia and meristem
(c) permanent tissues and secretory tissues
(d) secretory tissues and permanent tissues

Q3. A diploid plant cell with 20 chromosome that has just completed the S phase of its cell cycle
than it has:
(a) 20 chromosomes and 2C DNA
(b) 40 chromosomes and 4C DNA
(c) 10 chromosomes and 2C DNA
(d) 20 chromosomes and 4C DNA

Q4. To produce 10 seeds how many meiosis will be needed and how many pollen grains will
be wasted
(a) 13 and 2
(b) 2 and 14
(c) 10 and 10
(d) None of the above

Q5. Restoration of nucleocytoplasmic ratio is performed in: -

(a) G1 phase
(b) G2 phase
(c) S phase
(d) M phase

Q6. Which of the following options gives the correct sequence of events during mitosis?
(a) Condensation → Nuclear membrane disassembly →Crossing over → Segregation →
Telophase
(b) Condensation → Nuclear membrane disassembly → Arrangement at equator →
Centromere division → Segregation → Telophase
(c) Condensation → Crossing over → Nuclear membrane disassembly → Segregation →
Telophase
(d) Condensation → Arrangement at equator → Centromere division → Segregation →
Telophase

Q7. How many equational divisions are necessary in a cell of onion root tip to form 128 cells?
(a) 64
(b) 128
(c) 7
(d) None of the above

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Q8. How many chromosomes shall be present in a diploid cell at mitotic anaphase if its egg cell
has 10 chromosomes?
(a) 10
(b) 40
(c) 30
(d) 20

Q9. Identify the meiotic stage in which the homologous chromosomes separate while the sister
chromatids remain associated at their centromeres:
(a) Metaphase I
(b) Metaphase II
(c) Anaphase I
(d) Anaphase II

Q10. You are given 13 meiotic divisions. From these division how many seed you can form? How
many pollen grains can be wasted
(a) No of seed -13, No. of wasted pollen grain- 13
(b) No. of seed- 10, No. of wasted pollen grain- 2
(c) No. of seed – 2, No. of wasted pollen grain- 10
(d) No. of seed- 52, No. of wasted pollen grain- 52

Q11. The products of mitosis are-

(a) One nucleus containing twice as much DNA as the parent nucleus
(b) Two genetically identical cells
(c) Four nuclei containing half as much DNA as the parent nucleus
(d) Two genetically identical nuclei

Q12. During meiosis, the sister chromatids separate during-

(a) Anaphase II
(b) Anaphase I
(c) S phase
(d) Synapsis

Q13. Meiosis ensures the production of ________ phase in the life cycle of sexually reproducing
organisms, whereas fertilization restores the ________ phase.
(a) haploid; diploid
(b) haploid; haploid
(c) diploid; haploid
(d) diploid; diploid

Q14. Which of the following is not true for sister chromatids?

(a) They arise by replication during S phase
(b) They segregate from each other during each mitotic anaphase
(c) They usually contain identical versions of the same genetic information
(d) They segregate from each other during meiosis I

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Q15. What happens in S- phase?
(a) DNA replication
(b) In animal cell, replication of centriole
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Separation of replicated DNA

Q16. Diplotene can lasts for months or years in-

(a) Oocytes of all vertebrates
(b) Oocytes of all invertebrates
(c) Oocytes of some vertebrates
(d) Spermatocytes of all vertebrates

Q17. In the cell cycle, mitosis occurs between -

(a) G1 and S phase
(b) S and G2 phase
(c) S and G1 phase
(d) G2 and G1 phase

Q18. Compaction of chromosomes continues and it is followed by the synapsis stage during cell
division in
A. Antherozoid mother cells in mosses
B. Meristematic tissues of plants
C. Sperm mother cells in ferns
D. Spore mother cells in Conifers
E. Embryonic stage of higher plants
(a A, C and D
(b) C and D
(c) D only
(d) All are correct, except B

Q19. At the completion of meiosis I, each human cell contains

(a) 23 chromosomes, 46 chromatids
(b) 46 chromosomes, 46 chromatids
(c) 46 chromosomes, 92 chromatids
(d) 23 chromosomes, 23 chromatids

Q20. The stage between two meiotic divisions is called interkinesis and
(a) Is long lived
(b) Is followed by prophase I
(c) Is generally short lived and followed by prophase II
(d) Involves duplication of genes and centrioles.

Q21. If at the end of meiosis, the 4 daughter cells have 4 chromosomes. How many
chromosomes were there in the mother cell?
(a) 8
(b) 16
(c) 2
(d) 4

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Q22. Select the correct option.

Column – I Column – II
A. Synapsis aligns homologues chromosomes (i) Anaphase – II
B. Synthesis of RNA and protein (ii) Zygotene
C. Action of enzyme recombinase (iii) G₂- phase
D. Centromeres do not separate but chromatids move (iv) Anaphase – I
towards opposite poles
(v) Pachytene

(a) A – (i), B – (ii), C – (iv), D – (iv)

(b) A – (ii), B – (iii), C – (iv), D – (v)
(c) A – (ii), B – (i), C – (iii), D – (iv)
(d) A – (ii), B – (iii), C – (v), D – (iv)

Q23. Identify A, B, C and D in the below mitosis diagram.

(a) A–Transition to Metaphase, B–Metaphase, C–Early Prophase, D–Late Prophase

(b) A–Late Prophase, B–Transition to Metaphase, C–Metaphase, D–Early Prophase
(c) A–Early Prophase, B–Late Prophase, C–Transition to Metaphase, D–Metaphase
(d) A–Metaphase, B–Early Prophase, C–Late Prophase, D–Transition to Metaphase

Q24. Number of meiotic divisions required to produce 100 microspores (pollens) in an

angiosperm is
(a) 125
(b) 100
(c) 50
(d) 25

Q25. Events of telophase are

(a) Chromosomes cluster at opposite spindle poles and their identity is lost as discrete
elements.
(b) Nuclear envelope assembles around the chromosome cluster.
(c) Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER reforms
(d) All the above

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Q26. Furrow formation does not occur in plant cell during cytokinesis because of
(a) Extensible cell wall
(b) Inextensible cell wall
(c) Extensible plasma membrane
(d) Inextensible plasma membrane

Q27. During which phase of cell cycle, amount of DNA in a cell remains at 4C level if the initial
amount is denoted as 2C?
(a) G0 and G1
(b) G1 and S
(c) Only G2
(d) G2 and M

Q28. Meiosis is significant because it

(a) Increases genetic variability
(b) Helps in the conservation of specific chromosome number
(c) Is important for evolution
(d) All of these

Q29. Statement I: Cytokinesis in plants occur by cell plate method

Statement II: Cell plate grows centrifugally in plant cells.
(a) Both I and II are true
(b) Only I is true
(c) Only II is true
(d) Both I and II are false

Q30. Which statement is correct for meiosis?

(a) Meiosis I is reduction division
(b) Meiosis II is reduction division
(c) Meiosis I and II are both reduction divisions
(d) Meiosis I and II both are not reduction divisions

Q31. In human there are 23 bivalents in metaphase I, what will be the number of chromosomes
in daughter cells after meiosis -I and meiosis-II
(a) 46 and 46
(b) 92 and 46
(c) 23 and 23
(d) 46 and 23

Q32. Which specific protein is formed in G2 phase

(a) Histone
(b) DNA polymerase
(c) Scaffold proteins
(d) Tubulin

Q33. Tetrad is made of

(a) Four non-homologous chromatids
(b) Four non-homologous chromosomes
(c) Four homologous chromosomes with four chromatids
(d) Two homologous chromosomes and each with two chromatids

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Q34. Assertion: Meiosis produces four genetically dissimilar cells.
Reason: Crossing over or gene exchange takes place in meiosis.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true
(b) If the assertion is true but reason is false.
(c) If the reason is true but the assertion is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are false.

Q35. Assertion: Mitosis maintains the genetic similarity of somatic cells.

Reason: Chromosomes do not undergo crossing over.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true
(b) If the assertion is true but reason is false
(c) If the reason is true but the assertion is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are false.

Q36. Assertion: DNA synthesis occurs in G1 and G2 periods of cell cycle.

Reason: During G1 and G2 phase the DNA contents become double.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true
(b) If the assertion is true but reason is false
(c) If the reason is true but the assertion is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are false.

Q37. Statement I: A bivalent consists of four chromatids.

Statement II: Divisions of centromere do not occur during anaphase I stage of meiosis.
(a) Both I and II are true
(b) Only I is true
(c) Only II is true
(d) Both I and II are false

Q38. Assertion: Meiotic division results in the production of haploid cells.

Reason: Synapsis occurs during zygotene of meiosis.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true
(b) If the assertion is true but reason is false
(c) If the reason is true but the assertion is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are false.

Q39. Assertion: Morphology of chromosome is studied in metaphase stage.

Reason: Condensation of chromosome is completed in this stage and can be easily
visualized under microscope
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true
(b) If the assertion is true but reason is false
(c) If the reason is true but the assertion is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are false.

Q40. Assertion: Meiosis is also known as reduction division.

Reason: Meiosis reduces the number of chromosomes in daughter cells.
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true
(b) If the assertion is true but reason is false
(c) If the reason is true but the assertion is false.
(d) If both the assertion and reason are false.

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Q41. Match items of Column – I with Column – II

Column – I Column - II
(A) G1 – phase (i) Cells proliferates when needed
(B) S – phase (ii) Protein synthesis for mitosis
(C) G2 – phase (iii) DNA synthesis
(D) G0 – phase (iv) Most organelle duplicate

(a) (A) – (i); (B) – (iv); (C) – (iii); (D) – (ii)

(b) (A) – (i); (B) – (ii); (C) – (iii); (D) – (iv)
(c) (A) – (iv); (B) – (iii); (C) – (ii); (D) – (i)
(d) (A) – (iv); (B) – (ii); (C) – (iii); (D) – (i)

Q42. How many meiotic divisions are required to produce 200 seeds?
(a) 50
(b) 100
(c) 250
(d) 800

Q43. Identify the phase of mitotic cell division from the given diagram.

(a) prophase
(b) Metaphase
(c) Anaphase
(d) Telophase

Q44. Which of the following is not true for anaphase?

(a) Golgi body and ER are reformed
(b) Spindle poles move farther apart.
(c) Chromosomes move to opposite poles.
(d) Centromeres split and chromatid separate.

Q45. Find the mismatched pair.

(a) Maintenance of genetic stability – Mitosis
(b) Pachytene – Crossing over
(c) Syncytium – Due to failure of cytokinesis after karyokinesis
(d) Meiosis – II – reduction division

Q46. Statement I: Meiosis – II resembles a normal mitosis.

Statement II: Meiosis ensures the production of haploid phase in the life cycle of sexually
reproducing organisms.
(a) Statement I is incorrect
(b) Statement II is incorrect

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 (c) Both I and II are correct
(d) Both I and II are incorrect

Q47. ________ marks the site where crossing over had occurred.
(a) Diakinesis
(b) Synapsis
(c) Chiasmata
(d) Leptotene

Q48. Meiosis involves two sequential cycles of _____ divisions, but only a single cycle of _____
(a) nuclear; cell division
(b) cell; nuclear division
(c) nuclear; RNA synthesis
(d) nuclear; DNA replication

Q49. At anaphase I, each chromosome has _______ chromatids.

(a) two
(b) one
(c) four
(d) three

Q50. If mitotically dividing diploid cell has initial amount of DNA as 5 Pg in G1 stage, that is
distributed among its 8 chromosomes then which of the following assumption is correct?
(a) G2 phase- 16 chromatids with 10 Pg DNA
(b) Late prophase – 4 chromatids with 10 Pg DNA
(c) Anaphase - 16 chromatids with 10 Pg DNA
(d) S stage – 4 chromatids with 2.5 Pg DNA

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 Answer Key

S1. Ans. (b)

S2. Ans. (a)

S3. Ans. (d)

S4. Ans. (a)

S5. Ans. (d)

S6. Ans. (b)

S7. Ans. (c)

S8. Ans. (b)

S9. Ans. (c)

S10. Ans. (b)

S11. Ans. (b)

S12. Ans. (a)

S13. Ans. (a)

S14. Ans. (d)

S15. Ans. (c)

S16. Ans. (c)

S17. Ans. (d)

S18. Ans. (c)

S19. Ans. (a)

S20. Ans. (c)

S21. Ans. (a)

S22. Ans. (d)

S23. Ans. (c)

S24. Ans. (d)

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S25. Ans. (d)

S26. Ans. (b)

S27. Ans. (c)

S28. Ans. (d)

S29. Ans. (a)

S30. Ans. (a)

S31. Ans. (c)

S32. Ans. (d)

S33. Ans. (d)

S34. Ans. (a)

S35. Ans. (a)

S36. Ans. (d)

S37. Ans. (a)

S38. Ans. (a)

S39. Ans. (a)

S40. Ans. (a)

S41. Ans. (c)

S42. Ans. (c)

S43. Ans. (c)

S44. Ans. (a)

S45. Ans. (d)

S46. Ans. (c)

S47. Ans. (c)

S48. Ans. (d)

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S49. Ans. (a)

S50. Ans. (c)

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