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THE SIVAKASI LIONS MATRICULATION HR. SEC. SCHOOL, SIVAKASI

NEET MOCK TEST 1 NEET 2020-2021

CLASS-12

Full Portion Test - 01

Time : 3 hrs. Max. Marks : 720

INSTRUCTIONS
• Physics (180 marks) : Question No. 1 to 45 are of 4 marks each.

• Chemistry (180 marks) : Question No. 46 to 90 are of 4 marks each.

• Biology (360 marks) : Question No. 91 to 180 are of 4 marks each.

• Negative Marking : One fourth (¼) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect
response of each question.

PHYSICS
(c) in the ratio of the difference in the square
1. Force F is given in terms of time t and distance x
by F = A sin Ct + B cos Dx. Then, dimensions roots of the integers, i.e., 1, ( 2 - 1 ) ,

of
A
and
C
are
( 3 - 2 ), ( 4 - 3 ) ,
B D (d) in the ratio of the reciprocals of the square
(a) [M0 L0 T0], [M0 L0 T–1]
1 1 1
(b) [M L T–2], [M0 L–1 T0] roots of the integers, i.e., ,
, .... ,
(c) [M0 L0 T0], [M0 L T–1] 1 2 3
(d) [M0 L1 T–1], [M0 L0 T0] 3. A particle undergoes simple harmonic motion
2. A particle is dropped from rest from a large having time period T. The time taken in 3/8th
height.Assume g to be constant throughout the oscillation is
motion. The time taken by it to fall through 3 5
successive distances of 1 m each will be (a) T (b) T
8 8
(a) all equal, being equal to 2 / g second
5 7
(b) in the ratio of the square roots of the (c) T (d) T
12 12
integers 1, 2, 3, .....

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4. When current in a coil changes from 5 A to 2 A distance covered by its fall to ground is
in 0.1 s, average voltage of 50 V is produced. maximum when the angle q is equal to
The self - inductance of the coil is : (a) 0º (b) 30º
(a) 6 H (b) 0.67 H (c) 45º (d) 90º
(c) 3 H (d) 1.67 H 10. A 25 cm long solenoid has radius 2 cm and 500
5. The table given below represents the truth table total number of turns. It carries a current of 15
for which of the following combinations of logic A. If it is equivalent to a magnet of the same
gates? r
A B Y size and magnetization M (magnetic moment/
uur
0 0 1 volume), then M is :
0 1 0 (a) 30000p Am–1 (b) 3p Am–1
(c) 30000 Am –1 (d) 300 Am–1
1 0 1
11. ABC is an equilateral triangle. Charges +q are
1 1 0 placed at each corner as shown in fig. The electric
(a) A intensity at centre O will be
B Y +q A

A
(b) Y r
B
O
A r r
(c) Y
B +q +q
B C
(d) None of these
6. The work function of aluminium is 4.2 eV. If two 1 q 1 q
(a) (b) 4 p Î 2
photons each of energy 3.5 eV strike an electron 4 p Îo r o r
of aluminium, then emission of electron will
(a) depend upon the density of the surface 1 3q
(c) (d) zero
(b) possible 4 p Îo r 2
(c) not possible 12. The figure shows the path of a positively
(d) None of these charged particle 1 through a rectangular region
7. A doubly ionised Li atom is excited from its of uniform electric field as shown in the figure.
ground state(n = 1) to n = 3 state. The What is the direction of electric field and the
wavelengths of the spectral lines are given by direction of particles 2, 3 and 4 ?
l32, l31 and l21. The ratio l32/l31 and l21/l31
are, respectively Top
(a) 8.1, 0.67 (b) 8.1, 1.2 2– +3
(c) 6.4, 1.2 (d) 6.4, 0.67 1+ –4
8. Two wires A and B of the same material, having Down
radii in the ratio 1 : 2 and carry currents in the (a) Top, down, top, down
ratio 4 : 1. The ratio of drift speed of electrons in (b) Top, down, down, top
A and B is (c) Down, top, top, down
(a) 16 : 1 (b) 1 : 16 (d) Down; top, down, down
(c) 1 : 4 (d) 4 : 1 13. A circular disc A of radius r is made from an iron
9. A stone is thrown with a velocity u making an plate of thickness t and another circular disc B
angle q with the horizontal. The horizontal of radius 4r is made from an iron plate of

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thickness t/4. The relation between the moments (a) 312.5 × 10–3 cm (b) 312.5 × 10–3 m
of inertia IA and IB is (c) 312.5 × 10–3 m (d) 312 m
(a) IA > IB (b) IA = IB 20. The heat radiated per unit area in 1 hour by a
(c) IA < IB furnace whose temperature is 3000 K is (s = 5.7 ×
(d) depends on the actual value of t and r 10–8 W m–2 K–4)
14. Einstein’s work on photoelectric effect provided (a) 1.7 × 1010 J (b) 1.1 × 1012 J
support for the equation (c) 2.8 × 108 J (d) 4.6 × 106 J
(a) E = hn (b) E = mc2 21. A gun fires two bullets at 60º and 30º with
-Rhc 1 horizontal. The bullets strike at some horizontal
(c) E= (d) mv 2
K.E. = distance. The ratio of maximum height for the
2 2
n two bullets is in the ratio of
15. A metallic bar is heated from 0ºC to 100ºC. The (a) 2 : 1 (b) 3 : 1
coeficient of linear expansion is 10–5 K–1. What (c) 4 : 1 (d) 1 : 1
will be the percentage increase in length? 22. A generator has an e.m.f. of 440 Volt and internal
(a) 0.01% (b) 0.1% resistance of 400 Ohm. Its terminals are
(c) 1% (d) 10% connected to a load of 4000 Ohm the voltage
16. A rough vertical board has an acceleration a across the load is
along the horizontal so that a block of mass M (a) 220 volt (b) 440 volt
pressing against it does not fall. The coefficient (c) 200 volt (d) 400 volt
of friction between block and the board is 23. Electric field inside a copper wire of length 10
a
a g metres, resistance 2 ohm connected to a 10 volt
(a) > (b) < battery is
g a
M (a) 1 Vm –l (b) 0.5 Vm–l
(c) 10 Vm –l (d) 5 Vm–l
a g
(c) = (d) > 24. A large number of liquid drops each of radius r
g a
coalesce to from a single drop of radius R. The
17. What should be the minimum value of refractive energy released in the process is converted into
index of the material of the prism for the kinetic energy of the big drop so formed. The
reflections to take place as shown in the figure? speed of the big drop is (given, surface tension
45º of liquid T, density r)
(a) 1.7 (b) 1.4
T æ1 1 ö 2T æ 1 1 ö
- -
r çè r R ÷ø r çè r R ÷ø
(c) 1.2 (d) 2.7 (a) (b)
18. Plates of area A are arranged as shown. The
distance between each plate is d, the net 4T æ 1 1 ö 6T æ 1 1 ö
ç - ÷ -
r çè r R ÷ø
capacitance is (c) (d)
b r èr Rø
e0 A 7e 0 A 25. The path difference between the two waves :
(a) (b)
d d æ 2 px ö
y1 = a1 sin ç wt - ÷
6e 0 A 5e 0 A è l ø
(c) (d)
d d a

19. A plane wave of wavelength 6250 Å is incident æ 2px ö

and y 2 = a 2 sin ç wt - + f ÷ will be
normally on a slit of width 2 × 10–2 cm. The width è l ø
of the principal maximum on a screen distant 50
cm will be 2p 2p æ pö
(a) f (b) çf - ÷
l l è 2ø

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2p æ pö E
l E
(c) f (d) çf + ÷
2p l è 2ø
(a) (b)
26. The diagram shows the energy levels for an
electron in a certain atom. Which transition q
q
shown represents the emission of a photon
with the most energy? E E
(c) (d)
n=4
n =3
q q
n =2
31. The r.m.s. velocity of oxygen molecule at 16ºC is
474 m/sec. The r.m.s. velocity in m/s of hydrogen
molecule at 127ºC is
n =1
I II III IV (a) 1603 (b) 1896
(a) IV (b) III (c) 2230.59 (d) 2730
(c) II (d) I 32. When the rms voltages VL, VC and VR are
measured respectively across the inductor L, the
27. During an adiabatic compression, 830 J of work capacitor C and the resistor R in a series LCR
is done on 2 moles of a diatomic ideal gas to circuit connected to an AC source, it is found
reduce its volume by 50%. The change in its that the ratio VL : VC : VR = 1 : 2 : 3. If the rms
temperature is nearly: (R = 8.3 JK–1 mol–1)
voltage of the AC sources is 100 V, the VR is
(a) 40 K (b) 33 K close to:
(c) 20 K (d) 14 K (a) 50 V (b) 70 V
28. A body of mass 10 kg and velocity 10 m/s (c) 90 V (d) 100 V
collides with a stationary body of mass 5 kg.
33. The oscillating electric and magnetic field vectors
After collision both bodies stick to each other,
of electromagnetic wave are oriented along
velocity of the bodies after collision will be
(a) the same direction and in phase
3 18 (b) the same direction but have a phase
(a) m/s (b) m/s
10 3 difference of 90º
(c) mutually perpendicular directions and are
9 20 in phase
(b) m/s (d) m/s
20 3 (d) mutually perpendicular directions but has
29. Two particles of mass m1 and m2 (m1 > m2) a phase difference of 90º
attract each other with a force inversely 34. The gravitational field in a region is given by
proportional to the square of the distance ®
between them. If the particles are initially held g = 5N / kgiˆ + 12N / kgjˆ . The change in the
at rest and then released, the centre of mass will gravitational potential energy of a particle of
(a) move towards m1 (b) move towards m2 mass 1 kg when it is taken from the origin to a
(c) remain at rest (d) Nothing can be said point (7 m, – 3 m) is:
30. Which of the following graphs represent the (a) 71 J (b) 13 58J
variation of thermo emf (E) of a thermocouple
with temperature q of hot junction (the cold (c) – 71 J (d) 1 J
junction being kept at 0ºC)

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35. The counting rate observed from a radioactive 41. In a transistor
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source at (a) both emitter and collector have same length
t = 0 was 1600 counts s–1, and t = 8 s, it was (b) length of emitter is greater than that of
100 counts s–1. The counting rate observed as collector
counts s–1 at t = 6 s will be (c) length of collector is greater than that of
(a) 250 (b) 400 emitter
(c) 300 (d) 200 (d) any one of emitter and collector can have
36. At 0ºK which of the following properties of a greater length
gas will be zero? 42. A brass scale of a barometer gives correct
(a) Kinetic energy (b) Potential energy reading at 0°C. aBrass = 0.00002/°C. The
(c) Vibrational energy (d) Density barometer reads 75 cm at 27°C. The atmospheric
37. A galvanometer coil has a resistance of 15W and pressure at 0°C is
gives full scale deflection for a current of 4 mA. (a) 74.20 cm (b) 74.62 cm
To convert it to an ammeter of range 0 to 6 A (c) 74.92 cm (d) 75.04 cm
(a) 10 mW resistance is to be conncected in 43. The total length of a sonometer wire between
parallel to the galvanometer fixed ends is 110 cm. Two bridges are placed to
(b) 10 mW resistance is to be connected in divide the length of wire in ratio 6 : 3 : 2. The
series with the galvanometer tension in the wire is 400 N and the mass per unit
(c) 0.1 W resistance is to be connected in length is 0.01 kg/m. What is the minimum
parallel to the galvanometer common frequency with which three parts can
(d) 0.1 W resistance is to be connected in series vibrate?
with the galvanometer (a) 1100 Hz (b) 1000 Hz
38. A uniform rod of mass m, length l , area of cross- (c) 166 Hz (d) 100 Hz
section A has Young’s modulus Y. If it is hanged 44. For the velocity time graph shown in the figure
vertically, elongation under its own weight will be below the distance covered by the body in the
mgl 2mgl last two seconds of its motion is what fraction
(a) (b) of the total distance travelled by it in all the seven
2AY AY seconds?
mg l mgY 1
(c) (d) (a)
AY Al 2
39. The magnifying power of a telescope is 9. When 10
it is adjusted for parallel rays, the distance 1 8 B C
(b)
between the objective and the eye piece is found 4 ­ 6
to be 20 cm. The focal length of lenses are velocity 4
2 ms–1
(a) 18 cm, 2 cm (b) 11 cm, 9 cm (c) 2 A D
(c) 10 cm, 10 cm (d) 15 cm, 5 cm 3
40. If two soap bubbles of different radii are 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
1 Time (s)
connected by a tube. Then (d)
3
(a) air flows from the smaller bubble to the
45. An object undergoing SHM takes 0.5 s to travel
bigger
from one point of zero velocity to the next such
(b) air flows from bigger bubble to the smaller
point. The distance between those points is 50
bubble till the sizes are interchanged
cm. The period, frequency and amplitude of the
(c) air flows from the bigger bubble to the
motion is
smaller bubble till the sizes become equal
(a) 1s, 1Hz, 25 cm (b) 2s, 1Hz, 50 cm
(d) there is no flow of air.
(c) 1s, 2Hz, 25 cm (d) 2s, 2Hz, 50 cm

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49. In the extraction of Cu, the metal is formed in the
CHEMISTRY bessemer converter due to the reaction :
(a) Cu2S + 2Cu2O ¾¾ ® 6Cu + SO2
46. Fluorine is more electronegative than either
(b) Cu2S ¾¾ ® 2Cu + S
boron or phosphorus. What conclusion can be
drawn from the fact that BF3 has no dipole (c) Fe + Cu2O ¾¾ ® 2Cu + FeO
moment but PF3 does ? (d) 2Cu2O ¾¾ ® 4Cu + O2
50. An example of electrophilic substitution reaction
(a) BF3 is not spherically symmetrical but PF3 is
is
spherically symmetrical.
(a) Chlorination of methane
(b) BF3 molecule must be linear (b) Conversion of methyl chloride to methyl
(c) The atomic radius of P is larger than that of B alcohol
(d) The BF3 molecule must be planar triangular (c) Nitration of benzene
(d) Formation of ethylene from ethyl alcohol.
47. Sulphur dioxide and oxygen were allowed to 51. Which of the following molecules is most
diffuse through a porous partition. 20 dm3 of suitable to disperse benzene in water ?
SO2 diffuses through the porous partition in 60
seconds. The volume of O2 in dm 3 which O
(a) – +
diffuses under the similar condition in 30 O Na
seconds will be (atomic mass of sulphur = 32 u): + – O
(a) 7.09 (b) 14.1 (b) Na O – +
O Na
(c) 10.0 (d) 28.2 O

CH2 – CH = CH2
48. (c)
CH3

On mercuration-demercuration produces the

major product:
(d) Cl
CH2 – CH – CH3
(a) 52. Ozone hole refers to
OH
(a) Increase in concentration of ozone
(b) Hole in ozone layer
CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – OH (c) Reduction in thickness of ozone layer in
(b) troposphere
(d) Reduction in thickness of ozone layer in
stratsophere
53. Which of the following does not represent the
CH2 – CH – CH3
(c) correct order of the properties indicated
OH OH (a) Ni2+ > Cr2+ > Fe2+ > Mn2+ (size)
(b) Sc > Ti > Cr > Mn (size)
(c) Mn2+ > Ni2+ < Co2+ < Fe2+
CH2 – COOH (unpaired electron)
(d) (d) Fe2+ > Co2+ > Ni2+ > Cu2+
(unpaired electron)

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54. Match the columns 59. The major organic product in the reaction,
Column - I Column - II CH3 — O — CH(CH3)2 + HI ® Product is
2Cl / UV light (a) ICH2OCH(CH3)2
(A) C2H6¾¾¾¾¾¾ ® (p) Finkelstein
(b) CH 3 O C(CH 3 ) 2
C2H5Cl reaction |
(B) C6H5NH2 (q) Free radical I
substitution (c) CH3I + (CH3)2CHOH
NaNO 2 + HCl/Cu 2Cl 2
¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾ ® (d) CH3OH + (CH3)2CHI
273- 278K
60. The rate constant of a zero order reaction is 2.0 ×
C6H5Cl 10–2 mol L–1 s–1. If the concentration of the
(C) CH3Cl + NaI ¾¾ (r) Swarts reactant after 25 seconds is 0.5 M. What is the
®
CH3I + NaCl reaction initial concentration ?
(a) 0.5 M (b) 1.25 M
(D) CH3 – Br + AgF ¾¾® (s) Sandmeyer’s (c) 12.5 M (d) 1.0 M
CH3F + AgBr reaction 61. The correct order of solubility in water for He,
Ne, Ar, Kr, Xe is
(a) A – (q), B – (s), C – (p), D – (r) (a) He > Ne > Ar > Kr > Xe
(b) A – (q), B – (r), C – (p), D – (s)
(b) Xe > Kr > Ar > Ne > He
(c) A – (r), B – (p), C – (s), D – (q)
(c) Ne > Ar > Kr > He > Xe
(d) A – (s), B – (r), C – (p), D – (q)
55. The electrons, identified by quantum numbers n (d) Ar > Ne > He > Kr > Xe
and l (i) n = 4, l = 1 (ii) n = 4, l = 0 (iii) n = 3, l = 2 62. The de Broglie wavelength of a car of mass 1000
(iv) n = 3, l = 1 can be placed in order of increasing kg and velocity 36 km/hr is :
energy, from the lowest to highest, as (a) 6.626 × l0–34 m
(a) (iv) < (ii) < (iii) < (i) (b) 6.626 × 10–38 m
(b) (ii) < (iv) < (i) < (iii) (c) 6.626 × 10–31 m
(c) (i) < (iii) < (ii) < (iv) (d) 6.626 × 10– 30 m
(d) (iii) < (i) < (iv) < (ii) 63. The correct IUPAC name for
56. In an adiabatic process, no transfer of heat takes
place between system and surroundings. Choose
the correct option for free expansion of an ideal
gas under adiabatic condition from the
following.
(a) q = 0, DT ¹ 0, w = 0
(b) q ¹ 0, DT = 0, w = 0 (a) 5-methyl -4-(1'-2'-demethylpropyl) heptane
(c) q = 0, DT = 0, w = 0 (b) 3-methyl-4-(1',2'-dimethylpropyl) heptane
(d) q = 0, DT < 0, w ¹ 0 (c) 2,3,5-trimethyl-4-propylheptane
57. In which of the following cases, the stability of (d) 4-propyl-2,3,5-trimethylpeptane
two oxidation states is correctly represented 64. Which of the following shows iso-structural
(a) Ti3+ > Ti4+ (b) Mn2+ > Mn3+ species?
2+
(c) Fe > Fe 3+ (d) Cu+ > Cu2+ (a) NH +4 and NH 2-
58. Which is not the disproportionation reaction ?
(a) 3H 3PO 2 ¾¾ ® 2H 3 PO 2 + PH 3 (b) CH 3- and CH 3+
(b) HCHO + OH - ¾¾ ® HCOO - + CH 3OH SO 42 - , PO34- and [BF4 ]-
(c)
(c) NH 4 NO 3 ¾¾ ® N 2 O + 2H 2 O
(d) 3Cl2 + 6OH - ¾¾ ® 5Cl - + ClO 3- + 3H 2 O (d) NH 4+ and NH 3

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65. When dihydroxyacetone reacts with HIO4, the balloon. It will burst when pressure is (assuming
product is/are : isothermal condition)
(a) HCHO (b) HCOOH (a) > 0.5 atm (b) < 0.5 atm
(c) HCHO and HCOOH (d) HCHO and CO2 (c) = 0.5 atm (d) ³ 0.5 atm
66. Consider the reactions 71. Which one of the following complexes will have
(A) H2O2 + 2HI ® I2 + 2H2O four different isomers ?
(B) HOCl + H2O2 ® H3O+ + Cl– + O2 (a) [Co (en ) 2 Cl 2 ]Cl
Which of the following statements is correct (b) [ Co ( en )( NH 3 )Cl 2 ]Cl
about H2O2 with reference to these reactions?
Hydrogen peroxide is ______ . (c) [Co(PPh 3 ) 2 Cl2 ]Cl
(a) an oxidising agent in both (A) and (B) (d) [Co (en )3 ]Cl 3
(b) an oxidising agent in (A) and reducing agent 72. Solubility product of a salt AB is 1 × 10–8 in a
in (B) solution in which the concentration of A+ ions
(c) a reducing agent in (A) and oxidising agent is 10–3 M. The salt will precipitate when the
in (B) concentration of B– ions is kept
(d) a reducing agent in both (A) and (B) (a) between 10–8 M to 10–7 M
67. A certain compound (X) when treated with (b) between 10–7 M to 10–8 M
copper sulphate solution yields a brown (c) > 10–5 M
precipitate. On adding hypo solution, the (d) < 10–8 M
precipitate turns white. The compound is 73. Sucrose in water is dextro-rotatory, [a]D= + 66.4º.
(a) K2CO3 (b) KI When boiled with dilute HCl, the solution
(c) KBr (d) K3PO4 becomes leavo-rotatory, [a]D= –20º. In this
68. Consider the following reactions: process the sucrose molecule breaks into
(i) H +(aq) + OH–(aq) ® H2O(l), (a) L-glucose + D-fructose
DH = – X1 kJ mol–1 (b) L-glucose + L-fructose
1 (c) D-glucose + D-fructose
(ii) H2(g) + O2(g) ® H2O(l),
2 (d) D-glucose + L-fructose
DH = – X2 kJ mol–1 74. Select correct statement(s).
(iii) CO2(g) + H2(g) ® CO(g) + H2O, (a) Cyanamide ion (CN22–) is isoelectronic with
CO2 and has the same linear structure
DH = – X3 kJ mol–1 (b) Mg2C3 reacts with water to form propyne
5 (c) CaC2 has NaCl type lattice
(iv) C 2 H 2(g) + O 2(g) ® 2CO2(g) + H2O(l),
2 (d) All of the above
DH = + 4X4 kJ mol–1 75. Which of the following statement is not true
Enthalpy of formation of H2O (l) is about secondary structure of protein ?
(a) + X3 kJ mol– 1 (b) – X4 kJ mol– 1 (a) The alpha helix, beta pleated sheet and beta
(c) + X1 kJ mol – 1 (d) – X2 kJ mol– 1 turns are examples of secondary structure
69. Which of the following possesses a sp-carbon of protein.
in its structure ? (b) The ability of peptide bonds to form
(a) CH2 = CCI – CH = CH2 intramolecular hydrogen bonds is
(b) CCl2 = CCl2 important to secondary structure.
(c) CH2 = C = CH2 (c) The steric influence of amino acid residues
(d) CH2 = CH – CH = CH2. is important to secondary structure.
70. A balloon has maximum capacity of 20 L. At one (d) The hydrophilic/ hydrophobic character of
atmospheric pressure 10 L of air is filled in the amino acid residues is important to
secondary structure.

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76. Vapour pressure of benzene at 30°C is 121.8 mm. (b) ClCH2COOH > HCOOH > CH3COOH HBK
When 15 g of a non volatile solute is dissolved > C2H5 COOH
in 250 g of benzene its vapour pressure (c) CH3COOH > HCOOH > ClCH2COOH
decreased to 120.2 mm. The molecular weight of > C2H5COOH
the solute (Mo. wt. of solvent = 78) (d) C2H5COOH > CH3COOH > HCOOH
(a) 356.2 (b) 456.8 > ClCH2COOH
(c) 530.1 (d) 656.7 82. Penicillin is :
77. In nitrogen family, the H-M-H bond angle in the (a) analgesic (b) antipyretic
hydrides gradually becomes closer to 90º on (c) antimalarial (d) antibiotic
going from N to Sb. This shows that gradually 83. Decomposition of H2O2 follows a first order
(a) Th e basic str ength of the hydrides reaction. In fifty minutes the concentration of
increases H2O2 decreases from 0.5 to 0.125 M in one such
(b) Almost pure p-orbitals are used for M-H decomposition. When the concentration of
bonding H2O2 reaches 0.05 M, the rate of formation of
(c) The bond energies of M-H bonds increase O2 will be:
(d) The bond pairs of electrons become nearer (a) 2.66 L min–1 at STP
to the central atom (b) 1.34 × 10–2 mol min–1
(c) 6.96 × 10–2 mol min–1
78. For reaction aA ® xP , when [A] = 2.2 mM, the
(d) 6.93 × 10–4 mol min–1
rate was found to be 2.4 mMs–1 . On reducing
84. Which of the following reactions can produce
concentration of A to half, the rate changes to 0.6
aniline as main product?
mMs–1. The order of reaction with respect to A is :
(a) C6H5NO2 + Zn/KOH
(a) 1.5 (b) 2.0
(b) C6H5NO2 + Zn/NH4Cl
(c) 2.5 (d) 3.0
(c) C6H5NO2 + LiAlH4
79. The tendency of BF3, BCl3 and BBr3 to behave (d) C6H5NO2 + Zn/HCl
as Lewis acid decreases in the sequence:
85. What is the standard reduction potential (E°) for
(a) BCl3 > BF3 > BBr 3 Fe3+ ® Fe ?
(b) BBr3 > BCl3 > BF3 Given that :
(c) BBr3 > BF3 > BCl3
Fe2+ + 2e– ® Fe; E° = – 0.47V
(d) BF3 > BCl3 > BBr 3 Fe 2 + / Fe
80. If ‘a’ stands for the edge length of the cubic Fe3+ +e– ® Fe2+; E°Fe3+ / Fe2 + = + 0.77V
systems : simple cubic, body centred cubic and
face centred cubic, then the ratio of radii of the (a) – 0.057 V (b) + 0.057 V
spheres in these systems will be respectively, (c) + 0.30 V (d) – 0.30 V
86. Which does not exist ?
1 3 1 1 1 (a) [SiCl6]2– (b) [GeF6]2–
(a) a: a: a (b) a : 3a : a
2 4 2 2 2 2 (c) [CCl6] 2– (d) [SnCl6]2–
87. In which case, van’t Hoff factor i remains
1 3 3 unchanged ?
(c) a: a: a (d) 1a : 3a : 2a
2 2 2 (a) PtCl4 reacts with aq. KCl
81. Which of the following is correct order of (b) aq. ZnCl2 reacts with aq. NH3
acidity? (c) aq. FeCl3 reacts with aq. K4[Fe(CN)]6
(a) HCOOH > CH3COOH > ClCH2COOH (d) KMnO4 reduced to MnO2 in alkaline
> C2H5 COOH medium

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88. The unit of equivalent conductivity is B, C and D are : HBK
(a) S cm–2
(b) ohm cm2 (g equivalent)
(c) ohm cm
(d) ohm -1cm2 (g equivalent)–1
89. Perlon is
(a) Terylene (b) Rubber
(c) Nylon – 6 (d) Polyester
90. Tertiary nitro compounds do not tautomerise
because
(a) there is no double bond
(b) there is no a-hydrogen
(c) oxygen is more electronegative than (a) A : n B : n C : 2n D : n
hydrogen (b) A : n B : n C : 2n D : 2n
(d) all of the above (c) A : 2n B : n C : 2n D : n
(d) A : n B : n C : n D : n
BIOLOGY 95. Connecting link between glycolysis and Krebs
91. Choose correct option w.r.t origin and position cycle is/before entering Krebs cycle pyruvate is
of meristem reponsible for the regeneration of changed to
parts removed by the grazing herbivores. (a) oxaloacetate
(b) phosphoenol pyruvate
Origin Position (c) pyruvate
(a) Secondary Lateral (d) acetyl CoA
(b) Primary Apical 96. Differentiation of shoot is controlled by
(a) high gibberellin : cytokinin ratio
(c) Secondary Apical
(b) high auxin : cytokinin ratio
(d) Primary Intercalated (c) high cytokinin : auxin ratio
92. Which of the following changes occur in (d) high gibberellin : auxin ratio
diaphragm and intercostal muscles when 97. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the
expiration of air takes place? correct option from the codes given below.
(a) External intercostal when muscles relax and Column-I Column-II
diaphragm contracts A. Disintegration of (i) Anaphase
(b) External intercostal muscles contract and nuclear membrane
diaphragm relaxes B. Appearance of (ii) Prophase
(c) External intercostal muscles and diaphragm nucleolus
relax C. Division of (iii) Telophase
(d) External intercostal muscles and diaphragm centromere
contract D. Replication of DNA (iv) S-phase
93. Which one of the following is a long day plant? (a) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv)
(a) Bajra (b) Soyabean
(b) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)
(c) Tobacco (d) Wheat
(c) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iv)
94. Life cycle of Ulothrix is shown in the diagram.
The correct ploidy levels at the four stages A, (d) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i)

TEAM BRING IT
98. The enzyme used for joining two DNA fragments
HBK
is called:
(a) ligase
(b) restriction endonuclease
(c) DNA polymerase
(d) gyrase
99. Thorn is a modification of
(a) stem (b) leaf
(c) stipule (d) root
100. Dry indehiscent single-seeded fruit formed from
bicarpellary syncarpous inferior ovary is
(a) Caryopsis (b) Cypsela
(c) Berry (d) Cremocarp
101. DDT residues are rapidly passed through food
chain causing biomagnification because DDT is
(a) moderately toxic 104. Female gametophyte of angiosperms is
(b) non-toxic to aquatic animals represented by
(c) water soluble (a) Ovule
(d) lipo soluble (b) Megaspore mother cell
102. Deep black soil is productive due to high (c) Embryo sac
proportion of (d) Nucellus
(a) sand and zinc (b) gravel and calcium 105. Given below are the diagrammatic representation
(c) clay and humus (d) silt and earthworm of position of floral parts on thalamus, condition
103. The diagram below is a model demonstrating the of ovary and example. Find the correctly matched
mass flow hypothesis of translocation. combination?
Position of Condition Example
floral parts of ovary
on thalamus

(a) G Cucumber

What are the structures represented by W, X, Y

and Z and what is the direction of flow of solution (b) G– Brinjal
along W ?
phloem xylem roots leaves direction of
flow along W
(a) W X Y Z from Z to Y
(b) W X Z Y from Y to Z
(c) X W Z Y from Z to Y (c) G Plum
(d) X W Z Y from Y to Z

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 (c) net secondary productivity
HBK
(d) gross secondary productivity
113. Consider the following statements concerning
(d) G Rose food chains :
(i) Removal of 80% tigers from an area resulted
106. Today, concentration of green house gases is in greatly increased growth of vegetation
high because of (ii) Removal of most of the carnivores resulted
(a) Use of refrigerator in an increased population of deers
(b) Increased combustion of oil and coal (iii) The length of food chains is generally
(c) Deforestation limited to 3-4 trophic levels due to energy
(d) All the above loss
107. Cross between AaBB and aaBB will form (iv) The length of food chains may vary from 2
(a) 1 AaBB : 1aaBB (b) All AaBB to 8 trophic levels
(c) 3 AaBB : 1 aaBB (d) 1 AaBB : 3 aaBB Which two of the above statements are correct?
108. Which of the following is the most stable (a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (iii) and (iv)
ecosystem? (c) (i) and (iv) (d) (i) and (ii)
(a) Forest (b) Desert 114. Cabbage is a biennial plant which produces
(c) Mountain (d) Ocean flowers in second year of growth. In an attempt
109. Parthenocarpic tomato fruits can be produced by to make it flower in a single year, four potted
(a) treating the plants with low concentrations plants (I, II, III and IV) of cabbage were subjected
of gibberellic acid and auxins to different temperatures for several days as
(b) raising the plants from vernalized seeds given in the table.
(c) treating the plants with phenylmercuric Potted plant Temperature
acetate I 5°C
(d) removing androecium of flowers before
II 20°C
pollen grains are released
110. A gene pair hides the effect of another gene. III 30°C
The phenomenon is IV 25°C
(a) epistasis (b) dominance Which potted plant will show flowering?
(c) mutation (d) None of the above (a) I (b) II
111. What would happen if in a gene encoding a (c) III (d) IV
polypeptide of 50 amino acids, 25th codon (UAU) 115. Binomial nomenclature was introduced by
is mutated to UAA? (a) Carolus Linnaeus
(a) A polypeptide of 24 amino acids will be (b) Charles Darwin
formed. (c) Bentham and Hooker
(b) Two polypeptides of 24 and 25 amino acids (d) Aristotle
will be formed 116. Pteridophytes differ from mosses/bryophytes in
(c) A polypeptide of 49 amino acids will be possessing
formed (a) independent gametophyte
(d) A polypeptide of 25 amino acids will be (b) well developed vascular system
formed (c) archegonia structure
112. The rate at which light energy is converted to (d) flagellate spermatozoids
the chemical energy of organic molecules in the 117. It is important that certain free ribosomes bind to
ecosystem’s is the outer surface of the endoplasmic reticulum
(a) net primary productivity (ER) in order to complete their protein synthesis
(b) gross primary productivity because

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Lions MHSS - NEET
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 HBK
(a) The ER membrane will break down without 125. Monascus purpureus is a yeast used
the presence of numerous ribosomes. commercially in the production of :
(b) It allows for the synthesis of certain proteins (a) ethanol
to be completed in the cytosol. (b) streptokinase for removing clots from the
(c) It prevents the possibility that the synthesis blood vessels.
of certain proteins, such as lysosomal (c) Citric acid
hydrolases, would go to completion in the (d) blood cholesterol lowering statins
cytoplasm 126. Gel electrophoresis is used for
(d) Mitochondrial ribosomes must transcribe (a) cutting of DNA into fragments
proteins encoded for by mitochondrial DNA (b) separation of DNA fragments according to
in this manner. their size
118. Mycorrhiza is (c) construction of recombinant DNA by
(a) a symbiotic association of plant roots and joining with cloning vectors
certain fungi. (d) isolation of DNA molecule
(b) an association of algae with fungi. 127. DNA or RNA segment tagged with a radioactive
(c) a fungus parasitising root system of higher molecule is called
plants. (a) Vector (b) Probe
(d) an association of Rhizobium with the roots (c) Clone (d) Plasmid
of leguminous plants. 128. Which of the following is considered a hot-spot
119. Laminaria (kelp) and Fucus (rock weed) are the of biodiversity in India ?
examples of (a) Indo-Gangetic Plain (b) Eastern Ghats
(a) red algae (b) brown algae (c) Aravalli Hills (d) Western Ghats
(c) green algae (d) golden brown 129. Which of these organisms are protected by
algae people of 'Bishnoi' community of Rajasthan?
120. The outer layer of vacuole is called (a) Prosopis cineraria
(a) cell wall (b) tonoplast (b) Black buck
(c) plasmalayer (d) leucoplast (c) Bhojpatra
121. A narrow layer of thin walled cells found between (d) Both (a) and (b).
phloem/bark and wood of a dicot is 130. The movement of mineral ions into plant root
(a) cork cambium (b) vascular cambium cells as a result of diffusion is called
(c) endodermis (d) pericycle (a) osmosis
122. Which of the following statements is true? (b) active absorption
(a) Vessels are multicellular with narrow lumen. (c) passive absorption
(b) Tracheids are multicellular with narrow (d) endocytosis
lumen. 131. The rate of transpiration in plants is dependent
(c) Vessels are unicellular with wide lumen. upon
(d) Tracheids are unicellular with wide lumen. (a) temperature and soil
123. The linking of antibiotic resistance gene with (b) light and temperature
the plasmid vector became possible with (c) wind, temperature and light
(a) DNA ligase (b) Endonucleases (d) light, temperature, atmospheric humidity
(c) DNA polymerase (d) Exonucleases and wind
124. Which one of the following is not included 132. Stomata open and close due to
under in-situ conservation ? (a) circadian rhythm
(a) Botanical garden (b) Biosphere reserve (b) genetic clock
(c) National park (d) Sanctuary (c) pressure of gases inside the leaves
(d) turgor pressure of guard cells

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Lions MHSS - NEETIT
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 HBK
133. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the (a) A – Cocci, B – Bacilli, C – Spirilla, D – Vibrio
correct answer from the codes given below. (b) A – Bacilli, B – Cocci, C – Spirilla, D – Vibrio
Column-I Column-II
(c) A – Spirilla, B – Bacilli, C – Cocci, D – Vibrio
A. Trichoderma (i) Nitrification
B. Streptomyces (ii) Biocontrol agent (d) A – Spirilla, B – Vibrio, C – Cocci, D – Bacilli
C. Nitrosomonas (iii) Lactic acid 140. Match the source gland with respective
D. Lactobacillus (iv) Source of hormone as well as the function correctly.
antibiotic
(a) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i) Source gland Hormone Function
(b) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii) (a) Anterior Oxytocin Contraction of
(c) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv)
pituitary uterus muscles
(d) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iii)
134. The term ‘keel’ is used for special type of during child
(a) sepals (b) petals birth
(c) stamens (d) carpels (b) Posterior Vasopressin Stimulates
135. Chemiosmotic hypothesis given by Peter pituitary reabsorption
Mitchell proposes the mechanism of of water in the
(a) synthesis of ATP
(b) synthesis of FADH2 distal tubules
(c) synthesis of NADH in the nephron
(d) synthesis of NADPH (c) Corpus Estrogen Supports
136. Which ion is essential for muscle contraction? luteum pregnancy
(a) Na+ (b) K+ (d) Thyroid Thyroxine Regulates
(c) Ca 2+ (d) Cl– blood calcium
137. Which one of the following organs in the human level
body is most affected due to shortage of oxygen?
(a) Intestine (b) Skin 141. The given diagram shows microsporangium of
(c) Kidney (d) Brain a mature anther. Identify A, B and C.
138. A cricket player is fast chasing a ball in the field.
Which one of the following groups of bones is
directly contributing in this movement?
(a) Femur, malleus, tibia, metatarsals
(b) Pelvis, ulna, patella, tarsals
(c) Sternum, femur, tibia, fibula
(d) Tarsals, femur, metatarsals, tibia
139. Choose the correct names of the different bacteria
according to their shapes. (a) A-Middle layer, B-Endothecium, C-
Tapetum
(b) A-Endothecium, B-Tapetum, C-Middle layer
(c) A-Endothecium, B-Middle layer, C-
Tapetum
(d) A-Tapetum, B-Middle layer, C-
Endothecium

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142. In the chemistry of vision in mammals, the HBK
(iii) Awareness about contraception and STDs.
photosensitive substance is called (iv) Equal opportunities to male and female child.
(a) sclerotin (b) retinol (v) Ban on aminocentesis.
(c) rhodopsin (d) melanin (vi) Encouraging myths and misconceptions.
143. Vaccine against polio viruses is an example of (a) All of these
(a) auto-immunization (b) (i), (ii), (iv) & (vi)
(b) passive immunization (c) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) & (v)
(c) active immunization (d) (ii) and (v)
(d) simple immunization 149. Foetal ejection reflex in human female is induced by
144. Egg is liberated from ovary in (a) release oxytocin from pituitary
(a) secondary oocyte stage
(b) fully developed foetus and placenta
(b) primary oocyte stage
(c) differentiation of mammary glands
(c) oogonial stage
(d) mature ovum stage (d) pressure exerted by amniotic fluid
145. Animals that can tolerate a narrow range of 150. Natality is the characteristic of a population
salinity are which means
(a) stenohaline (b) euryhaline (a) the total number of individuals present per
(c) anadromous (d) catadromous unit area at a given time
146. The most important component of the oral (b) the increase in number of individuals in a
contraceptive pills is population under given environmental
(a) Progesterone conditions
(b) Growth hormone (c) loss of individuals due to death in a
(c) Thyroxine population under given environmental
(d) Luteinizing hormone conditions
147. The following graph of relative concentrations (d) the movement of individuals into and out
of the four hormones present in the blood of population
plasma of a woman during her menstrual cycle. 151. In human female the blastocyst
Identify the hormones. (a) Forms placenta even before implantation
(b) Gets implanted into uterus 3 days after
ovulation
(c) Gets nutrition from uterine endometrial
secretion only after implantation
(d) Gets implanted in endometrium by the
trophoblast cells
152. Choose the wrong statement regarding urine
formation
(a) Filtration is non-selective process
performed by glomerulus
A B C D (b) The glomerular capillary blood pressure
(a) FSH Progesterone LH Oestrogen causes filtration of blood through three
(b) LH Progesterone FSH Oestrogen layers
(c) FSH Oestrogen LH Progesterone (c) GFR in a healthy individual is approximately
(d) LH Oestrogen FSH Progesterone 125 ml/min
148. Reproductive health in society can be improved (d) The ascending limb of the Henle's loop is
by – permeable to water but allows transport of
(i) Introduction of sex education in schools. electrolytes actively or passively
(ii) Increased medical assistance.

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153. Which one of the following is an exotic Indian (c) red muscle fibres only
HBK
fish ? (d) both white and red muscle fibres
(a) Catla catla 162. Mast cells are associated with
(b) Heteropneustes fossilis (a) exocrine glands
(c) Cyprinus carpio (b) endocrine glands
(d) Labeo rohita (c) areolar connective tissue
154. Which of the following primate is the closest (d) neural tissue
relative of humans? 163. Which of the following is incorrect match of
(a) Rhesus monkey (b) Orangutan animal group/life style/structure/function?
(c) Gorilla (d) Gibbon Animal Lifestyle Structure/
155. Adaptive radiation refers to group functions
(a) evolution of different species from a (a) Sponges Sessile Amoebocytes/
common ancestor filter carry
(b) migration of members of a species to feeders food and wastes
different geographical areas Spicules/support
(c) power of adaptation in an individual to a and protection
variety of environments spongin / support
(d) adaptations due to geographical isolation. (b) Cnidarians Free Gastrovascular
156. What was the most significant trend in evolution floating or cavity/digestion
of modern man (Homo sapiens) from his attached Cnidocytes/
ancestors ? protection and
(a) Upright posture food getting
(b) Shortening of jaws (c) Flatworms Free living Flame cells/
(c) Binocular vision or parasite excretion
(d) Increasing brain capacity Tegument/
157. Which of the following is a viral disease of protection
poultry birds? (d) Molluscs Terrestrial, Radula/feeding
(a) Anthrax (b) Ranikhet marine, mantle/motility
(c) Coccidiosis (d) None of these fresh water inhabitants
158. Select the incorrect statement from the following. 164. Man, in the life cycle of Plasmodium, is
(a) Apiculture provides generating additional (a) primary host (b) secondary host
income industry for the farmers. (c) intermediate host (d) None of these
(b) Bee keeping is labour intensive process. 165. The most active phagocytic white blood cells are
(c) Bee venom is used to cure certain diseases (a) neutrophils and monocytes
like gout and arthritis. (b) neutrophils and eosinophils
(d) Honey is used as laxative, antiseptic and (c) lymphocytes and macrophages
sedative. (d) eosinophils and lymphocytes
159. Classification of Porifera is based on 166. Human insulin is being commercially produced
(a) branching (b) spicules from a transgenic species of
(c) reproduction (d) symmetry (a) Escherichia (b) Mycobacterium
160. The kind of epithelium which forms the inner (c) Rhizobium (d) Saccharomyces
walls of blood vessels is 167. Obstacle to large scale transplantation of organs is
(a) cuboidal epithelium (a) insufficiency of organ donors
(b) columnar epithelium (b) immunological rejection of foreign bodies
(c) ciliated columnar epithelium (c) religious or ethnic considerations
(d) squamous epithelium (d) lack of effective surgical techniques
161. Myoglobin is present in 168. Which one of the following is an Indian
(a) all muscle fibres medicinal plant ?
(b) white muscle fibres only

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TEAMLions BRING
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IT Mock Test - 01
 HBK
(a) Saccharum officinarum 175. The function of rennin is
(b) Rauwolfia serpentina (a) vasodilation
(c) Oryza sativa (b) reduce blood pressure
(d) Solanum melongena (c) degradation of angiotensinogen
169. Which of the following bacteria carry out oxygenic (d) None of the above
photosynthesis by means of a photosynthetic 176. Heart is covered by
apparatus similar to the eukaryotes? (a) Peritoneum (b) Pleural membrane
(a) Purple sulphur bacteria (c) Pericardium (d) Visceral membrane
(b) Green sulphur bacteria 177. Which of the following is incorrect?
(c) Cyanobacteria (a) Iodine is needed for thyroxine formation.
(d) More than one option is correct (b) Calcium regulates the excitibility of nerve
170. It is commonly said that ladies are protected from fibres.
heart attacks in reproductive period i.e., from (c) Potassium plays an important role in the
puberty to menopause because: regulation of acid base balance in cell.
(a) Level of HDL is high due to oestrogen (d) Phosphorus helps to maintain the osmotic
production pressure of the body fluids.
(b) Level of HDL remains lower during this 178. Diagram represents one cardiac cycle lasting
period 0.8 s and to the possible answers that follow it.
(c) Level of LDL and HDL remain in balance
= contraction
(d) Level of LDL is high due to oestrogen
= relaxation
production
171. Dolly sheep was obtained by – 0.0 0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4 0.5 0.6 0.7 0.8
time (second)
(a) Cloning the udder cell (somatic cell) fused ATRIA
with enucleated oocyte
(b) Cloning of gametes VENTRICLES

(c) Tissue culture period period

(d) None of the above X Y
172. Which of the following forms the basis of DNA Which answer describes the events that occur
finger printing? during period X ?
(a) The relative proportions of purines and (a) atrial diastole and ventricular systole
pyrimidines in DNA. (b) atrial diastole and ventricular diastole
(b) Satellite DNA occurring as highly repeated (c) atrial systole and ventricular systole
short DNA segments. (d) atrial systole and ventricular diastole
(c) The relative difference in the DNA 179. Diabetes insipidus is a condition in which a per-
occurrence in blood, skin and saliva. son is unable to produce sufficient levels of the
(d) The relative amount of DNA in the ridges hormone ADH. The hormone increases the per-
and grooves of the fingerprints. meability to water of the second (distal) convo-
173. Which one of the following correctly represents luted tubule and collecting duct in the kidney
the normal adult human dental formula ? nephrons.
3 1 3 1 2 1 3 3 What is produced as a result?
(a) , , , (b) , , , (a) large volumes of concentrated urine
3 1 2 1 2 1 2 3
(b) large volumes of dilute urine
2 1 2 3 3 1 3 3 (c) small volumes of concentrated urine
(c) , , , (d) , , ,
2 1 2 3 3 1 3 3 (d) small volumes of dilute urine
174. Toxic substances are detoxified in human body in 180. Dark purplish gland lying on the left side of
(a) kidney (b) lungs abdomen is called :
(c) liver (d) stomach (a) liver (b) spleen
(c) gall bladder (d) appendix

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