DATE: 05-05-2019 NEET 2019-QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PAGE: 1

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NEET 2019 (05-05-2019) QUESTIONS & ANSWERS

3. Match the following genes of the Lac

1. Respiratory Quotient (RQ) value of
operon with their respective products:
tripalmitin is:
(1) 0.07 (2) 0.09
(a) i gene (i) -galactosidase
(3) 0.9 (4) 0.7
i
(b) z gene (ii) Permease
ANSWER 4 (c) a gene (iii) Repressor
Hints : (d) y gene (iv) Transacetylase
Respiratory Quotient = Amount of Co2 released Select the correct option.
(RQ) Amount of O2 consumed
2(C51H998O6) + 145O2102CO2 +98H2O (a) (b) (c) (d)
Tripalmitin + Energy (1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
102 CO 2 (2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
RQ =  0.7
145O2 (3) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(4) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
2. A gene locus has two alleles A, a. If the ANSWER 1
frequency of dominant allele A is 0.4. Hints : In lac operon
then what will be the frequency of i gene –– repressor
homozygous dominant, heterozygous z gene –– - galactosidase
and homosygous recessive individuals in y gene –– Permease
the population ? a gene –– Transacetylase
(1) 0.16 (AA); 0.48 (Aa); 0.36 (aa)
(2) 0.16 (AA); 0.36 (Aa); 0.48 (aa) 4. Polyblend, a fine powder of recycled
(3) 0.36 (AA); 0.48 (Aa); 0.16 (aa) modified plastic, has proved to be a
(4) 0.16 (AA); 0.24 (Aa); 0.36 (aa) good material for :
ANSWER 1 (1) construction of roads
Hints : Frequency of dominant allele (say p) = (2) making tubes and pipes
0.4 (3) making plastic sacks
Frequency of recessive allele (say q) (4) use as a fertilizer
= 1 – 0.4 = 0.6 ANSWER 1
 Frequency of homozygous dominant
Hints : Polyblend is a fine powder of recycled
individuals (AA)
modified plastic waste. The mixture is
= p2 = (0.4)2 = 0.16
mixed with bitumen that is used to lay
Frequency of heterozygous individuals
roads.
(Aa)
= 2pq = 2(0.4)(0.6) = 0.48
5. In some plants, the female gamete
Frequency of homozygous recessive
develops into embryo without fertilization.
individuals (aa)
This phenomenon is known as :
= q2= (0.6)2 = 0.36
(1) Syngamy
DATE: 05-05-2019 NEET 2019-QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PAGE: 2

(2) Parthenogenesis Hints : Saprophytes - Decomposition of dead

(3) Autogamy organic materials
(4) Parthenocarpy Parasites - Grow on.in living
ANSWER 2 plants and animals
Lichens - Symbiotic association
Hints: The phenomenon in which female
of algae and fungi
gamete develops into embryo without
Mycorrhiza - Symbiotic association of
getting fused with male gamete
fungi with plant roots
(fertilisation) is called parthenogenesis
8. Which of the statements given below is
6. Which of the following ecological
not true about formation of Annual
pyramids is generally inverted ?
Rings in trees ?
(1) Pyramid of biomass in a forest
(1) Activity of cambium depends upon
(2) Pyramid of biomass in a sea
variation in climate.
(3) Pyramid of numbers in grassland
(2) Annual rings are not prominent in
(4) Pyramid of energy
trees of temperate region.
ANSWER 2 (3) Annual ring is a combination of
Hints : In an aquatic ecosystem, the pyramid of spring wood and autumn wood produced
biomass is generally inverted. in a year.
(4) Differential activity of cambium
causes light and dark bands of tissue -
early and late wood respectively.
ANSWER 2
Hints : Growth rings are formed by the seasonal
activity of cambium.In plants of
7. Match Column -1 with Column- II.
temperate regions,cambium is more
active in spring and less active in autumn
Column –I Column –II
seasons.Intemperate regions climatic
(a) Saprophyte (i) Symbiotic
conditions are not uniform throughout
association of
the year. However, in tropics climatic
fungi with
conditions are uniform throughout the
plant roots
year.
(b) Parasite (ii) Decomposition
of dead organic
9. Which of the following statements is
materials
incorrect ?
(c) Lichens (iii) Loving on
(1) Conidia are produced exogenously
living plants or
and ascospores endogenously.
animals
(2) Yeasts have filamentous bodies with
(d) Mycorrhiz (iv) Symbiotic
long thread-like hyphae.
association of
(3) Morels and truffles are edible
algae and fungi
delicacies.
Choose the correct answer from the
(4) Claviceps is a source of many
options given below:
alkaloids and LSD.
(a) (b) (c) (d) ANSWER 2
(1) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) Hints : Yeast is an unicellular sac fungus. It
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) lacks filamentous structure or hyphae.
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
10. Select the correct sequence of organs in
ANSWER 2 the alimentary canal of cockroach
starting from mouth:
DATE: 05-05-2019 NEET 2019-QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PAGE: 3

(1) Pharynx  Oesophagus  Gizzard (3) its embryo is immature.

 Ileum  Crop  Colon  Rectum (4) it has obligate association with
(2) Pharynx Oesophagus  Ileum  mycorrhizae.
Crop  Gizzard  Colon  Rectum ANSWER 4
(3) Pharynx  Oesophagus  Crop  Hints : Fungus associated with roots of Pinus
Gizzard  Ileum  Colon  Rectum increases minerals & water absorption
(4) Pharynx  Oesophagus  Gizzard for the plant by increasing surface area
 Crop  Ileum  Colon  Rectum and in turn fungus gets food from plant.
ANSWER 3 Therefore, mycorrhizal association is
obligatory for Pinus seed germination.
Hints : The correct sequence of organs in the
alimentary canal of cockroach starting from
14. Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) refers
mouth is:
to:
Pharynx Oesophagus  Crop (1) DNA polymorphism
Gizzard Ileum  Colon  Rectum (2) Novel DNA
sequences
11. Which of the following pair of organelles (3) Genes expressed as
does not contain DNA ? RNA
(1) Lysosomes and Vacuoles (4) Polypeptide
(2) Nuclear envelope and Mitochondria expression
(3) Mitochondria and Lysosomes
(4) Chloroplast and Vacuoles ANSWER 3
ANSWER 1 Hints : Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) are
DNA sequences (genes) that are
Hints: Lysosomes and Vacuoles do not have expressed as mRNA for protein
DNA. synthesis. These are used in human
Genome Project.
12. Which of the following statements is
correct ? 15. The Earth Summit held in Rio de Janeiro
(1) Cornea is convex, transparent layer in 1992 was called:
which is highly vascularised. (1) to assess threat posed to native
(2) Cornea consists of dense matrix of species by invasive weed species.
collagen and is the most sensitive (2) for immediate steps to discontinue
portion of the eye. use of CFCs that were damaging the
(3) Cornea is an external, transparent ozone layer.
and protective proteinacious covering (3) to reduce CO2 emissions and global
of the eye-ball. warming.
(4) Cornea consists of dense (4) for conservation of biodiversity and
connective tissue of elastin and can sustainable utilization of its benefits.
repair itself.
ANSWER 4
ANSWER 2
Hints : Earth Summit (Rio Summit)-1992,
Hints : Cornea consists of dense matrix of called upon all nations to take
collagen and corneal epithelium. It is the appropriate measures for conservation
most sensitive of eye. of biodiversity and sustainable
utilisation of its benefits.
13. Pinus seed cannot germinate and
establish without fungal association. This 16. Which of the following is a commercial
is because: blood cholesterol lowering agent ?
(1) it has very hard seed coat. (1) Streptokinase
(2) its seeds contain inhibitors that (2) Lipases
prevent germination. (3) Cyclosporin A
DATE: 05-05-2019 NEET 2019-QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PAGE: 4

(4) Statin the secondary or definitive nucleus

ANSWER 4 present in central cell.
Egg (n) +1st male gamete (n)  Zygote (2n)
Hints :
 Statin is obtained from a yeast Secondary nucleus + 2nd male gamete (n) 
(2n)
(central cell nuclei)
(Fungi) called Monascuspurpureus
 It acts by competitively inhibiting the PEN (3n)
enzyme responsible for synthesis of
20. Placentation, in which ovules develop on
cholesterol.
the inner wall of the ovary or in
peripheral part, is :
17. Which of the following muscular (1) Parietal (2) Free central
disorders is inherited ? (3) Basal (4) Axile
(1) Myasthenia gravis ' ANSWER 1
(2) Botulism Hints : In parietal placentation the ovules
(3) Tetany develop on the inner wall of ovary or in
(4) Muscular dystrophy peripheral part.
ANSWER 4 eg. Mustard, Argemone etc.
Hints: Progressive degeneration of skeletal
muscle mostly due to genetic disorder is 21. DNA precipitation out of a mixture of
muscular dystrophy where as tetany is biomolecules can be achieved by
muscular spasm due to low calcium in treatment with:
body fluid. Myasthenia gravis is an (1) Methanol at room temperature
antoimmume disorder leading to (2) Chilled chloroform
paralysis of skeletal muscles.Botulism is (3) Isopropanol
rare and dangerous type of food (4) Chilled ethanol
poisoning caused by bacterium ANSWER 4
Clostridium Botulinum. Hints: During the isolation of desired gene,
chilled ethanol is used for the
18. Concanavalin A is: precipitation of DNA
(1) a lectin (2) a pigment
(3) an alkaloid (4) an essential oil 22. The concept of "Omnis cellula-e cellula"
ANSWER 1 regarding cell division was first proposed by:
Hints : Concanavalin A is a secondary (1) Schleiden
metabolite e.g is lectin; it has the (2) Aristotle
property to agglutinates RBCs (3) RudolfVirchow
19. What is the fate of the male gametes (4) Theodore Schwann
discharged in the synergid ? ANSWER 3
(1) One fuses with the egg, other(s) Hints : Concept of “Omnis cellula-e cellula”
fuse(s) with synergid nucleus. regarding cell division was proposed by
(2) One fuses with the egg and other Rudolph Virchow.
fuses with central cell nuclei.
(3) One fuses with the egg, other(s) 23. Purines found both in DNA and RNA are:
degenerate(s) in the synergid. (1) Guanine and cytosine
(4) All fuse with the egg. (2) Cytosine and thymine
ANSWER 2 (3) Adenine and thymine
Hints : In flowering plants, out of the two male (4) Adenine and guanine
gametes discharged in synergids, one ANSWER 4
fuses with the egg and other fuses with Hints: Purines found both in DNA and
RNA are Adenine and guanine
DATE: 05-05-2019 NEET 2019-QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PAGE: 5

(3) Auxin and Ethylene

24. Which of the following sexually (4) Gibberellin and
transmitted diseases is not completely Cytokinin
curable ? ANSWER 3
(1) Genital herpes
(2) Chlamydiasis Hints : Plant hormone auxin induces flowering
(3) Gonorrhoea in pineapple. Ethylene also helps in
(4) Genital warts synchronization of flowering and fruit
set up in pineapple.
ANSWER 1
Hints : Genital herpes is caused by type-II 28. Which of the following protocols did aim
herpes simplex virus. At present there is for reducing mission of
no cure for type –II-herpes simplex virus chlorofluorocarbons into the atmosphere?
and therefore the disease caused, genital (1) Gothenburg Protocol
herpes. Other non-curable STIs are (2) Geneva Protocol
hepatitis-B and HIV. (3) Montreal Protocol
(4) Kyoto Protocol
25. Cells in G0 phase : ANSWER 3
(1) suspend the cell cycle
(2) terminate the cell Hints : To control the deleterious effect of the
cycle – stratospheric ozone depletion an
(3) exit the cell cycle international treaty was signed at
(4) enter the cell cycle Montreal, Canada in 1987.It is popularly
known as Montreal protocol.
ANSWER 3
Hints: Cell in G0 phase are said to exit cell cycle. 29. The frequency of recombination between
These are at quiescent stage and do not gene pairs on the same chromosome as a
proliferate unless called upon to do so. measure of the distance between genes
was explained by:
26. Which of the following is the most (1) Alfred Sturtevant
important cause for animals and plants (2) Sutton Boveri
being driven to extinction ? (3) T.H. Morgan
(1) Economic exploitation (4) Gregor J.Mendel
(2) Alien species invasion
ANSWER 1
(3) Habitat loss and fragmentation
(4) Drought and floods Hints : Alfred Sturtevant explained
chromosomal mapping on the basis of
ANSWER 3
recombination frequency which is
Hints : Habitat loss and fragmentation is the directly proportional to distance between
most important cause driving animals two genes on same chromosome.
and plants to extinction.
eg: Loss to tropical rainforest reducing 30. Thiobacillus is a group of bacteria
the forest cover from 14 % to 6 %. helpful in carrying out:
(1) Nitrification
27. It takes very long time for pineapple (2) Denitrification
plants to produce flowers. Which (3) Nitrogen fixation
combination of hormones can be applied (4) Chemoautotrophic fixation
to artificially induce flowering in
ANSWER 2
pineapple plants throughout the year to
increase yield? Hints: Thiobacillus denitrificans cause
(1) Gibberellin and Abscisic acid denitrificans i.e., conversion of oxides of
(2) Cytokinin and Abscisic nitrogen to free N2
acid 31. Consider the following statements :
DATE: 05-05-2019 NEET 2019-QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
(A) Coenzyme or metal ion that is
tightly bound to enzyme protein is
called prosthetic group.
(B) A complete catalytic active
enzyme with its bound prosthetic
group is called apoenzyme.
Select the correct option.
(1) Both (A) and (B) are false.
(2) (A) is false but (B) is true.
(3) Both (A) and (B) are true.
(4) (A) is true but (B) is false.
ANSWER 1 masculine development gynaecomastia
Hints: Coenzyme or metal ion that is tightly
bound to enzyme protein is called
prosthetic group. A complete catalytic
active enzyme with its bound prosthetic
group is called holoenzyme
32. Xylem translocates:
(1) Water, mineral salts and some
organic nitrogen only
(2) Water, mineral salts, some organic
nitrogen and hormones
(3) Water only
(4) Water and mineral salts only
ANSWER 2 name of mango is Mangiferaindica Linn.
Hints: Xylem is associated with tanslocation of
mainly water, mineral salts, some organic
nitrogen and hormones.
33. Tidal Volume and Expiratory Reserve
Volume of an athlete is 500 mL and 1000
mL respectively. What will be his
Expiratory Capacity if the Residual
Volume is 1200 mL
(1) 2200 mL
(2) 2700 mL
(3) 1500 mL
(4) 1700 mL
ANSWER 3 canal  Urethra
Hints : Tidal Volume = 500 ml
Expiratory Reserve Volume = 1000 ml
Expiratory Capacity = TV + ERV
= 500 + 1000
= 1500 ml
34. What is the genetic disorder in which an
individual has an overall masculine
PAGE: 6
development, gynaecomastia, and is
sterile ?
(1) Edward syndrome
(2) Down's syndrome
(3) Turner's syndrome
(4) Klinefelter's syndrome
ANSWER 4
Hints : Individuals with Klinefelter’s syndrome
have trisomy of sex chromosome as 44
+XXY (47). They show overall
and are sterile.
35. Select the correctly written scientific
name of Mango which was first
described by Carolus Linnaeus:
(1) Mangifera indica
(2) Mangifera Indica
(3) Mangifera indica Car. Linn.
(4) Mangifera indica Linn.
ANSWER 4
Hints : According to rules of binomial
nomenclature, correctly written scientific
36. Select the correct sequence for transport
of sperm cells in male reproductive
system.
(1) Seminiferous tubules  Vasa
efferentia Epididymis  Inguinal
canal  Urethra
(2) Testis  Epididymis  Vasa
efferentia  Vas deferens 
Ejaculatory duct  Inguinal canal
 Urethra  Urethral meatus
(3) Testis  Epididymis  Vasa
efferentia  Rete testis Inguinal
(4) Seminiferous tubules  Rete testis
 Vasa efferentia 
Epididymis  Vas deferens 
Ejaculatory duct  Urethra 
Urethral meatus
ANSWER 4
DATE: 05-05-2019 NEET 2019-QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
Hints: The correct sequence for transport
of sperm cells in male reproductive
system is Seminiferous tubules Rete
testisVasaefferentiaEpididymis
Vas deferensEjaculatory
ductUrethra Urethral meatus
37. , the weight of newborn ranges from 2 to
5 kg. 97% of the newborn with an
average weight between 3 to 3.3 kg
survive whereas 99% of the infants born
with weights from 2 to 2.5 kg or 4.5 to 5
kg die. Which type of selection process is
taking place ?
(1) Disruptive Selection
(2) Cyclical Selection
(3) Directional Selection
(4) Stabilising Selection
ANSWER 4 Hints : Heroin, commonly called smack and is
Hints: The given data shows stabilising
selection as most of the newborn having
average weight between 3 to 3.3 kg
survive and babies with less and more
weight have low survival rate.
38. Variations caused by mutation, as
proposed by Hugo de Vries, are :
(1) small and directional
(2) small and directionless
(3) random and directional
(4) random and directionless
ANSWER 4 (4) inflammation of bronchi and
Hints : According to Hugo de Vries,mutations
are random and directionless.
Devries believed mutation caused
speciation and hence called saltation
(single step large mutation).
39. Following statements describe the
characteristics of the enzyme Restriction
Endonuclease. Identify the incorrect
statement.
(1) The enzyme cuts the sugar-phosphate
backbone at specific sites on each strand.
(2) The enzyme recognizes a
specific palindromic nucleotide sequence
in the DNA
PAGE: 7
(3) The enzyme cuts DNA molecule at
identified position within the DNA.
(4) The enzyme binds DNA at specific
sites and cuts only one of the two strands.
ANSWER 4
Hints : Restriction enzymes cut DNA molecules
at a particular point by recognising a specific
sequence.Each restriction endonuclease
functions by inspecting the length of a DNA
sequence. Once it finds its specific recognition
sequence, it will bind to the DNA and cut each
of the two strands of the double helix at specific
points in their sugar phosphate backbone.
40. Drug called 'Heroin' is synthesized by:
(1) glycosylation of morphine
(2) nitration of morphine
(3) methylation of morphine
(4) acetylation of morphine
ANSWER 4
chemically diacetylmorphine which is
synthesized by acetylation of morphine.
41. Due to increasing air-borne allergens and
pollutants, many people in urban areas
are suffering from respiratory disorder
causing wheezing due to:
(1) proliferation of fibrous tissues and
damage of the alveolar walls.
(2) reduction in the secretion of
surfactants by pneumocytes.
(3) benign growth on mucous lining of
nasal cavity.
bronchioles.
ANSWER 4
Hints: Asthma is difficulty in breathing causing
wheezing due to inflammation of bronchi
and bronchioles. It can be due to
increasing air born allergens and
pollutants. Asthma is an allergic
condition. Many people in urban areas
are suffering from this respiratory
disorder.
DATE: 05-05-2019 NEET 2019-QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PAGE: 8

42. Which of the following statements is (2) Ovules develop into embryo sac
incorrect ? (3) Ovary develops into fruit
(1) Infective constituent in viruses is the (4) Zygote develops into embryo
protein coat. ANSWER 2
(2) Prions consist of abnormally folded
Hints : Following are the post-
proteins.
fertilisation changes.
(3) Viroids lack a protein coat.
(4) Viruses are obligate parasites  Ovule Seed
 OvaryFruit
ANSWER 1
 ZyfoteEmbryo
Hints : Infective constituent in viruses is either  Central cell Endosperm
DNA or RNA, not protein.
45. Under which of the following conditions
43. Match the column –I with Column –II will there be no change in the reading
Select the correct option. frame of following mRNA?
5' AACAGCGGUGCUAUU 3'
Column -I Column II (1) Insertion of A and G at 4th and 5th
(a) P-wave (i) Depolarization positions respectively
of ventricles (2) Deletion of GGU from 7th, 8th and 9th
positions
(3) Insertion of G at 5th position
(b) QRS complex (ii) Repolarization (4) Deletion of G from 5th position
of ventricles
ANSWER 2
(c) T –wave (iii) Coronary Hints :
ischemia
(d) Reduction in (iv) Depolarisation
the size of of atria
T-wave
(v) Repolarisation
of atria No change in reading frame pf m-RNA.

46. The correct sequence of phases of cell

(a) (b) (c) (d) cycle is :
(1) ii I v iii (1) S  G1  G2  M
(2) ii iii v iv (2) G1  S  G2  M
(3) iv I ii iii (3) M  G1  G2 S
(4) iv I ii v
(4) G1  G2  S  M
ANSWER 3
ANSWER 2
Hints : In ECG P –wave represents
Hints: The correct sequence of phases of
depolarisation of atria.QRS complex represents
cell cycle is
depolarisation of ventricles. T-wave represents
G1SG2M
repolarisation of ventricle i.e. return from
excited to normal state. Reduction in the size of
47. How does steroid hormone influence the
T-wave i.e if the T-wave represents insufficient
cellular activities ?
supply of oxygen i.e coronary ischaemia.
(1) Activating cyclic AMP located on the
cell membrane.
44. Which one of the following statements
(2) Using aquaporin channels as second
regarding post-fertilization development
messenger.
in flowering plants is incorrect ?
(3) Changing the permeability of the cell
(1) Central cell develops into endosperm
membrane.
DATE: 05-05-2019 NEET 2019-QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PAGE: 9

(4) Binding to DNA and forming a (1) Secretion of erythropoietin by

gene-hormone complex. Juxtaglomerular complex.
ANSWER 4 (2) Hydrostatic pressure during
glomerular filtration.
Hints: Steroid hormones directly enter
(3) Low levels of antidiuretic hormone.
into the cell and bind with intracellular
(4) Maintaining hyperosmolarity towards
receptor in nucleus to form hormone
inner medullary interstitium in the kidneys
receptor complex. Hormone receptor
complex interacts with the genome ANSWER 4
Hints: The proximity between loop of henle and
48. Conversion of glucose to glucose-6- vasa recta as well as counter current in
phosphate, the first irreversible reaction them help in maintaining an increasing
of glycolysis, is catalyzed by: osmolalrity towards the inner medullary
(1) Enolase interstitium. This mechanism help to
(2) Phosphofructokinase maintain a concentration gradient in
(3) Aldolase medullary interstitium so human urine is
(4) Hexokinase nearly four times concentrated than
ANSWER 4 initial filtrate formed.
Hints : Hexokinase catalyse the conversion of
52. Which one of the following equipments
Glucose to Glucose-6 phosphate. It is the
is essentially required for growing
first step of activation phase of
microbes on a large scale, for industrial
glycolysis.
production of enzymes ?
(1) Industrial oven
49. What is the direction of movement of
(2) Bioreactor
sugars in phloem ?
(3) BOD incubator
(1) Downward
(4) Sludge digester
(2) Bi-directional
(3) Non-multidirectional ANSWER 2
(4) Upward Hints: To produce enzyme in large
ANSWER 2 quantity equipment required are
bioreactors.Large scale production
Hints: The direction of movement of sugar in
involves use of bioreactors
phloem is bi-directional as it depends on
53. Select the correct option.
source-sink relationship which is variable
(1) Each rib is a flat thin bone and all the
in plants.
ribs are connected dorsally to the
50. Which of the following features of
thoracic vertebrae and ventrally to the
genetic code does allow bacteria to
sternum.
produce human insulin by recombinant
(2) There are seven pairs of
DNA technology ?
vertebrosternal, three pairs of
(1) Genetic code is nearly universal
vertebrochondral and two pairs of
(2) Genetic code is specific
vertebral ribs.
(3) Genetic code is not ambiguous
(3) 8th, 9th and 10th pairs of ribs articulate
(4) Genetic code is redundant
directly with the sternum.
ANSWER 1 (4) 11th and 12th pairs of ribs are
Hints: In recombinant DNA technology bacteria connected to the sternum with the help of
is able to produce human insulin because hyaline cartilage.
genetic code is nearly universal. ANSWER 2
Hints :
51. Which of the following factors is
 Vertebrosternal ribs are true ribs,
responsible for the formation of
concentrated urine ? dorsally they are attached to the
thoracis vertebrae and ventrally
DATE: 05-05-2019 NEET 2019-QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
connected to the sternum with the
help of hyaline cartilage. First seven
pairs of ribs are called true ribs.
 8th,9th and 10th pairs of ribs do not
articulate directly with the sternum
but join the seventh ribs with the help
of hyaline cartilage. These are
vertebrochondral or false ribs.
 Last 2 pairs (11& 12) of ribs are not
connected ventrally and are therefore,
called floating ribs.
 Only first seven pairs of ribs are
ventrally connected to the sternum.
54. Persistent nucellus in the seed is known
as :
(1) Hilum (2) Tegmen
(3) Chalaza (4) Perisperm
ANSWER 4
Hints: Persistent Nucellus is called perisperm
e.g.: Black pepper,Beet
55. Select the hormone-releasing Intra-
Uterine Devices.
(1) Progestasert, LNG-20
(2) Lippes Loop, Multiload 375
(3) Vaults, LNG-20
(4) Multiload 375, Progestasert
ANSWER 1
Hints : Progestasert and LNG-20 are hormone
releasing IUDs which make the uterus
unsuitable for implantation and the
cervix hostile to sperms.
56. Which of the following immune
responses is responsible for rejection of
kidney graft?
(1) Inflammatory immune response
(2) Cell-mediated immune response
(3) Auto-immune response
(4) Humoral immune response
ANSWER 2 (2) Annelida, Mollusca and Chordata
Hints : The body is able to differentiate self and
non self and the cell-mediated response
is responsible for graft rejection.
57. Which of these following methods is the
most suitable for disposal of nuclear
waste ?
PAGE: 10
(1) Dump the waste within rocks under
deep ocean
(2) Bury the waste within rocks deep
below the Earth's surface
(3) Shoot the waste into space
(4) Bury the waste under Antarctic ice-
cover
ANSWER 2
Hints : Storage of nuclear waste should be done
in suitably shielded containers and buried
within rocks deep below the earth’s
surface (500 m deep).
58. Select the incorrect statement.
(1) Inbreeding selects harmful recessive
genes that reduce fertility and
productivity.
(2) Inbreeding helps in accumulation of
superior genes and elimination of
undesirable genes.
(3) Inbreeding increases homozygosity.
(4) Inbreeding is essential to evolve
purelines in any animal.
ANSWER 1
Hints: Inbreeding exposes harmful recessive
helps in accumulation of superior genes
and elimination of less desirable
genes. Therefore this is selection at each
step, increase the productivity of inbred
population. Close and continued
inbreeding usually reduces fertility and
even productivity.
59. Consider following features:
(a) Organ system level of organisation
(b) Bilateral symmetry
(c) True coelomates with segmentation of
body
Select the correct option of animal
groups which possess all the above
characteristics.
(1) Arthropoda, Mollusca and Chordata
(3) Annelida, Arthropoda and Chordata
(4) Annelida, Arthropoda and Mollusca
ANSWER 3
Hints : True segmentation is present in
Annelida, Arthropoda and Chordata.
They also have organ system level of
DATE: 05-05-2019 NEET 2019-QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PAGE: 11

organisation, bilateral symmetry and are ANSWER 1

true coelomates.
Hints : Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein
crystals during a particular phase of their
60. Colostrum, the yellowish fluid, secreted
growth. These crystals contain a toxic
by mother during the initial days of
insecticidal protein. These protein exist
lactation is very essential to impart
as inactiveprotoxins but once an insect
immunity to the newborn infants because
ingest the inactive toxin, it is converted
it contains:
into an active form of toxin due to
(1) Macrophages
alkaline pH of the gut which solubilize
(2) Immunoglobulin A
the crystals. The activated toxin binds to
(3) Natural killer cells
the surface of midgutepithelial cells and
(4) Monocytes
create pores that cause cell swelling and
ANSWER 2 lysis and eventually causes death of
Hints : Colostrum, the yellowish fluid secreted insect.
by the mother during initial days of
lactation is very essential to important 63. Match the following hormones with the
immunity to the new born infant because respective disease:
it contains Immunoglobulin A. It will (a) Insulin (i) Addison's disease
impart naturally acquired passive (b) Thyroxin (ii) Diabetes insipidus
immunity to the newborn. (c) Corticoids (iii) Acromegaly
(d) Growth Hormone (iv) Goitre
61. Match the following organisms with the (v) Diabetes mellitus
products they produce: Select the correct option.
(a) Lactobacillus (i) Cheese (a) (b) (c) (d)
(b)Saccharomyces, cerevisiae(ii) Curd (1) (v) (iv) (i) (iii)
(c) Aspergillus niger (iii) Citric acid (2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(d) Acetobacter aceti (iv) Bread (3) (v) (i) (ii) (iii)
(v) Acetic Acid (4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
ANSWER 1
Select the correct option.
Hints :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
 Insulin deficiency leads to diabetes
(1) (iii) (iv) (v) (i)
(2) (ii) (i) (iii) (v) mellitus
(3) (ii) (iv) (v) (iii)  Hypersecretion or hyposecretion of
(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (v) thyroxine can be associated with
ANSWER 4 enlargement of thyroid gland called
goitre.
Hints: Microbes are used in production of
several household and industrial products–  Deficiency of corticoids (Glucocorticoid
Lactobacillus – Production of curd + mineralocorticoid) leads to Addison’s
Saccharomyces cerevisiae – Bread making disease
Aspergillus niger – Citric acid production  Growth hormone hypersecretion in adults
Acetobacteraceti – Acetic acid leads to Acromegal

62. What triggers activation of protoxin to

active Bt toxin of Bacillus thuringiensis
in boll worm ?
(1) Alkaline pH of gut
(2) Acidic pH of stomach
(3) Body temperature
(4) Moist surface of midgut
64. The ciliated epithelial cells are required
to move "particles or mucus in a specific
direction. In humans, these cells are
mainly present in:
(1) Eustachian tube and Salivary duct
(2) Bronchioles and Fallopian tubes*
(3) Bile duct and Bronchioles
DATE: 05-05-2019 NEET 2019-QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PAGE: 12

(4) Fallopian tubes and Pancreatic duct  Oral pills are either progestogens or
ANSWER 2 progestogen-estrogen combinations used
by the females.
Hints: Bronchioles and Fallopian tubes are
lined with ciliated epithelium to move  Emergency contraceptives includes
particles or mucus in a specific direction the administration of progestogens or
65. Match the hominids with their correct progestogen-estrogen combination or
brain size : IUDs within 72 hour of coitus.
(a) Homo habilis (i) 900 cc So, lactational amenorrhoea, oral pills
(b) Homo neanderthalensis and emergency contraceptives involve a
(ii) 1350 cc role of hormone.
(c) Homo erectus (iii) 650-800 cc
(d) Homo sapiens (iv) 1400 cc 68. Identify the correct pair representing the
Select the correct option. causative agent of typhoid fever and the
(a) (b) (c) (d) confirmatory test for typhoid.
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (1) Salmonella typhi I Anthrone test
(2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) (2) Salmonella typhi I Widal test
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) (3) Plasmodium vivax IUTI test
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (4) Streptococcus pneumoniae I Widal test
ANSWER 1 ANSWER 2
Hints: The correct match of hominids and Hints : Salmonella typhi is the causative agent.
their brain sizes are: Confirmatory test = Widal test, it’s based on
Homo habilis –– 650-800 cc antigen antibody reaction.
Homo neanderthalensis–– 1400
Homo erectus –– 900 cc 69. Which of the following pairs of gases is
Homo sapiens –– 1350 cc mainly responsible for green house effect?
66. Phloem in gymnosperms lacks : (1) Nitrogen and Sulphur dioxide
(1) Comp anion cells only (2) Carbon dioxide and Methane
(2) Both sieve tubes and companion cells (3) Ozone and Ammonia
(3) Albuminous cells and sieve cells (4) Oxygen and Nitrogen
(4) Sieve tubes only
ANSWER 2
ANSWER 2
Hints : Sol. Relative contribution of
Hints : Phloem in Gymnosperms lacks both various greenhouses gases to total
sieve tube and companion cells. global warming is
 CO2 = 60 %
67. Which of the following contraceptive
 CH4 = 20 %
methods do involve a role of hormone ?
(1) CuT, Pills, Emergency contraceptives  CFC = 14 %
(2) Pills, Emergency contraceptives,  N2O = 6 %
Barrier methods  Therefore, CO2and CH4 are the major
(3) Lactational amenorrhea, Pills, greenhouse gases.
Emergency contraceptives 70. In Antirrhinum (Snapdragon), a red
(4) Barrier method, Lactational flower was crossed with a white flower
amenorrhea, Pills and in Fj generation, pink flowers were
ANSWER 3 obtained. When pink flowers were selfed,
the F2 generation showed white, red and
Hints :  In lactational amenorrhoea, due to pink flowers. Choose the incorrect
high prolactin level, gonadotropin level statement from the following:
decreases.
(1) Ratio of F2 is 1/4 (Red): 2/4 (Pink);,
1/4 (White)
DATE: 05-05-2019 NEET 2019-QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
(2) Law of Segregation does not apply in
this experiment.
(3) This experiment does not follow the
Principle ofDominance.
(4) Pink colour in F1 is due to incomplete
dominance.
ANSWER 2 excoriation by the highly concentrated HCl.
Hints : Genes for flower colour in snapdragon
shows incomplete dominance which is an
exception of Mendel’s first principle i.e. Law of
dominance.
Whereas Law of segregation is
universally applicable.
71. Which of the following is true for Golden
rice ?
(1) It is drought tolerant, developed using
Agrobacterium vector.
(2) It has yellow grains, because of a
gene introduced from a primitive variety
of rice.
(3) It is Vitamin A enriched, with a gene
from daffodil.
(4) It is pest resistant, with a gene from
Bacillus thuringiensis.
ANSWER 3 75.
Hints : Golden rice is vitamin A enriched rice,
with a gene from daffodil and is rich in
carotene.
72. Which of the following glucose
transporters is insulin-dependent ?
(1) GLUTEI
(2) GLUT IV
(3) GLUT I
(4) GLUT II
ANSWER 2 
Hints : GLUT-IV is insulin dependent and is
responsible for majority of glucose transport into
muscle and adipose cells in anabolic conditions.
Whereas GLUT-I is insulin independent and is
widely distributed in different tissues.
73. Identify the cells whose secretion
protects the lining of gastro-intestinal
tract from various enzymes.
(1) Oxyntic Cells
(2) Duodenal Cells
(3) Chief Cells
PAGE: 13
(4) Goblet Cells
ANSWER 4
Hints : Goblet cells secrete mucus and
bicarbonates present in the gastric juice which
plays an important role in lubrication and
protection of the mucosal epithelium from
74. Which of the following statements is not
correct ?
(1) Lysosomes are membrane bound
structures.
(2) Lysosomes are formed by the process
of packaging in the endoplasmic
reticulum.
(3) Lysosomes have numerous hydrolytic
enzymes.
(4) The hydrolytic enzymes of lysosomes
are active under acidic pH.
ANSWER 2
Hints: Lysosomes bud off from trans face
of Golgi bodies.
Precursor of lysomomal enzymes are
synthesised by RER and then send to
Golgi bodies for further processing.
The shorter and longer arms of a
submetacentric chromosome are referred
to as :
(1) q-arm and p-arm respectively
(2) m-arm and n-arm respectively
(3) s-arm and 1-arm respectively
(4) p-arm and q-arm respectively
ANSWER 4
Hints :
 Sub metacentric chromosome is
Heterobrachial.
Short arm designated as ‘p’ arm
(p = petite i.e. short)
Long arm designated as ‘q’arm
76. From evolutionary point of view,
retention of the female gametophyte with
developing young embryo on the parent
sporophyte for some time, is first
observed in:
(1) Pteridophytes
(2) Gymnosperms
(3) Liverworts
(4) Mosses
DATE: 05-05-2019 NEET 2019-QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
ANSWER 1 chromosome much shorter than the other.
Hints : In pteridophyte, megaspore is retained
for some times in female gametophyte,
however the permanent retention is
required for seed formation in
Gymnosperms.
That’s why pteridophytes exhibit
precursor to seed habit only.
77. Grass leaves curl inwards during very
dry weather. Select the most appropriate
reason from the following:
(1) Shrinkage of air spaces in spongy
mesophyll
(2) Tyloses in vessels
(3) Closure of stomata
(4) Flaccidity of bulliform cells
ANSWER 4 (b) Non-elimination of excess
Hints : Bulliform cells become flaccid due to
water loss. This will make the leaves to
curl inward to minimise water loss.
78. What would be the heart rate of a person
if the cardiac output is 5 L, blood volume
in the ventricles at the end of diastole is
100 mL and at the end of ventricular
systole is 50 mL ?
(1) 100 beats per minute
(2) 125 beats per minute
(3) 50 beats per minute
(4) 75 beats per minute
ANSWER 1 body whereas, c and d are correct. As phosphate
Hints: Cardiac output stroke volume  Heart
rate
 Cardiac output = 5 L or 5000 ml
 Blood volume in ventricles at the end
if diastole = 100 ml
Bolood volume in ventricles at the end
of systole = 50 ml
Stroke volume =100 -50
= 50 ml
So,
5000ml = 50 ml Heart ratre
So, Heart rate = 100 beats per minute.
79. Select the incorrect statement.
(1) In domesticated fowls, sex of progeny
depends on the type of sperm rather than
egg.
(2) Human males have one of their sex-
PAGE: 14
(3) Male fruit fly is heterogametic.
(4) In male grasshoppers, 50% of sperms
have no sex-chromosome.
ANSWER 1
Hints: In birds female heterogamety is found
thus sex of progeny depends on the types
of egg rather than the type of sperm.
80. Use of an artificial kidney during
hemodialysis may result in:
(a) Nitrogenous waste build-up in the
body
potassium ions
(c) Reduced absorption of calcium ions
from gastro-intestinal tract
(d) Reduced RBC production
Which of the following options is the
most appropriate ?
(1) (c) and (d) are correct
(2) (a) and (d) are correct
(3) (a) and (b) are correct
(4) (b) and (c) are correct
ANSWER 1
Hints : a and b statements are incorrect because
dialysis eliminates urea and potassium from the
ions are eliminated during dialysis, along with
that calcium ions are also eliminated. So, there
will be reduced absorption of calcium ions from
gastrointestinal tract. RBC production will be
reduced, due to reduced erythropoietin hormone.
81. Select the correct group of biocontrol
agents.
(1) Oscillatoria, Rhizobium, Trichoderma
(2) Nostoc, Azospirillium, f
Nucleopolyhedrovirus
(3) Bacillus thuringiensis, Tobacco mosaic
virus, Aphids
(4) Trichoderma,
Baculovi7*us, Bacillus
thuringiensis
ANSWER 4
DATE: 05-05-2019 NEET 2019-QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PAGE: 15

Hints: FungsTrichoderma,Baculoviruses(NPV) Islets of langerhans constitutes the endocrine

and Bacillus thuringiensis are used portion of pancreas. Brunner’s glands are found
as biocontrol agents. is submucosa of duodenum.
Rhizobium, Nostoc, Azospirillum and
Oscillatoria are used as biofertilisers, 84. Which part of the brain is responsible for
whereas TMV is a pathogen and aphids thermoregulation ?
are pests that harm crop plants. (1) Corpus callosum
(2) Medulla oblongata
82. Extrusion of second polar body from egg (3) Cerebrum
nucleus occurs : (4) Hypothalamus
(1) before entry of sperm into ovum ANSWER 4
(2) simultaneously with first cleavage
Hints : Hypothalamus in the thermoregulatory
(3) after entry of sperm but before
centre of our brain. It is responsible for
fertilization
maintaining constant body temperature.
(4) after fertilization
ANSWER 3 85. Which of the following can be used as a
Hints : Extrusion of second polar body from egg biocontrol agent in the treatment of plant
nucleus occurs after entry of sperm but disease ?
before fertilization. (1) Anabaena
The entry of sperm into the ovum (2) Lactobacillus
induces completion of the meiotic (3) Trichoderma
division of the secondary oocyte. (4) Chlorella
Entry of sperm causes breakdown of ANSWER 3
metaphase promoting factor(MRF) and
Hints :Fungus Trichoderma is a biological
turns on anaphase promoting complex
control agent being developed for use in the
(APC)
treatment of plant diseases.
83. Match the following structures with their
86. What map unit (Centimorgan) is adopted
respective location in organs:
in the construction of genetic maps ?
(a) Crypts of (i) Pancreas (1) A unit of distance between genes on
Lieberkuhn chromosomes, representing 1% cross
(b) Glisson's (ii) Duodenum over.
Capsule (2) A unit of distance between genes on
chromosomes, representing 50%
(c) Islets of (iii) Small cross over.
Langerhans intestine (3) A unit of distance between two
(d) Brunner's (iv) Liver expressed genes, representing 10%
Glands cross over.
(4) A unit of distance between two
Select the correct option from the
expressed genes, representing 100%
following:
cross over.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
ANSWER 1
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
Hints: 1 map unit represent 1 % cross over. Map
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
unit is used to measure genetic distance.
(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) This genetic distance is based on average
(4) (ii) (iv) (i) (lii) number of cross over frequency
87. Match the following organisms with their
ANSWER 1
respective characteristics:
Hints : Crypts of Lieberkuhn are present in small (a) Pila (i) Flame cells
intestine. Glisson’s capsule is present in liver. (b) Bombyx (ii) Comb plates
DATE: 05-05-2019 NEET 2019-QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PAGE: 16

(c) Pleurobrachia, (iii) Radula 90. a method of in situ conservation of

(d) Taenia (iv) Malpighian biodiversity ?
tubules (1) Botanical Garden
Select the correct option from the (2) Sacred Grove
following: (3) Biosphere Reserve
(a) (b) (c) (d) (4) Wildlife Sanctuary
(i) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) ANSWER 1
(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
Hints: Botanical garden-ex-situ conservation
(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(off-site conservation) i.e. living plants
(4) (hi) (iv) (ii) (i)
(flora) are conserved in human managed
ANSWER 4 system
Hints : (a) Pila is Mollusc. The mouth contains a 91. The method used to remove temporary
file –line rasping organ for feeding called hardness of water is:
radula. (1) Ion-exchange method
(b) Bombyx is an Arthropod. In Bombyx (2) Synthetic resins method
excretion takes place through mapighan (3) Calgoh's method
tubules. (4) Clark's method
(c) Pleurobrachia is Ctenophore. The ANSWER 4
body bears eight external rows of ciliated
Hints : Clark’s method is used to remove
comb plates, which help in locomotion.
temporary hardness of water, in which
(d) Taenia is platyhelminth specialised
bicarbonates of calcium and magnesium are
cells called flame cells helps in
reached with slaked lime Ca(OH)2
osmoregulation and excretion
Ca(HCO3)2 + Ca(OH)22CaCO3 + 2H2O
88. Which of the following statements Mg(HCO)3 + 2Ca(OH)22CaCO3 +
regarding mitochondria is incorrect ? Mg(OH)2 + 2H2O
(1) Inner membrane is convoluted with
infoldings. 92. Which one is malachite from the
(2) Mitochondrial matrix contains single following?
circular DNA molecule and'ribpsomes. (1) Fe3O4
(3) Outer membrane is permeable to (2) CuCO3. Cu (OH)2
monomers of carbohydrates, fats and (3) CuFeS2
proteins. (4) Cu(OH)2
(4) Enzymes of electron transport are ANSWER 2
embedded in outer membrane. Hints : Malachite: CuCO3.Cu(OH)2(Green
ANSWER 4 colour)
Hints: In mitochondria, enzymes for electron
transport are present in the inner 93. Which of the following is incorrect
membrane statement?
89. What is the site of perception of (1) GeX4 (X = F, Cl, Br, I) is more stable
photoperiod necessary for induction of than GeX2
flowering in plants ? (2) SnF4 is ionic in nature
(1) Shoot apex (3) PbF4 is covalent in nature
(2) Leaves (4) SiCl4 is easily hydrolysed
(3) Lateral buds ANSWER 3
(4) Pulvinus Hints : PbF4 and SnF4 are ionic nature.
ANSWER 2
Hints : During flowering, photoperiodic stimulus 94. The structure of intermediate A in the
is perceived by leaves of plants. following reaction is
DATE: 05-05-2019 NEET 2019-QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PAGE: 17

(1) Zn / Hcl
(2) Hg2+ / H= , H2O
(3) Na / liquid NH3
(4) H2, Pd / C, quinoline
ANSWER 4
Hints :

(1)

96. What is the correct electronic

configuration of the central atom in K4
(2) [Fe(CN)6] based on crystal field theory ?
(1) e3 t23
(2) e4 t22
(3) t2g4 eg2
(4) t2g6 e0g

ANSWER 4
Hints : K4[Fe(CN)6]
(3) Fe ground state : [Ar]3d64s2
Fe2+: 3d64s0

(4)
ANSWER 4
Hints :
97. If the rate constant for a first order
reaction is k, the time (t) required for the
completion of 99% of the reaction is
given by :
(1) t = 4.606/k
(2) t = 2.303/k
(3) t = 0.693/k
(4) t = 6.909 /k

ANSWER 1
Hints : First order rate constant is given as,
95. The most suitable reagent for the 2.303 [A ]
following conversion, is : k  log 0
t [ A]t
99% completed reaction,
DATE: 05-05-2019 NEET 2019-QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PAGE: 18

2.303 100 Hints : In aqueous solution, electron donating

k log inductive effect, solvation effect (H-bonding)
t 1
2.303 and steric hindrance all together affect basic
= log102 strength of substituted amines
t
Basic character:
2.303
k 2 log10 (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2> (CH3)3N
t 2 1 3
2.303 4.606
t 2
k k
4.606
t=
k

98. Which of the following series of

transitions in the spectrum of hydrogen
atom falls in visible region?
(1) Paschen series
(2) Brackett series
(3) Lyman series
(4) Balmer series

ANSWER 4
Hints : In H-spectrum, Balmer series transitions
fall in visible region.

99. In which case change in entropy is

negative?
(1) sublimation of solid to gas
(2) 2H(g)  H2(g)
(3) Evaporation of water
(4) Expansion of a gas at constant
temperature
ANSWER 2
Hints :
 H 2O( ) H 2O(v), S  0
 Expansion of gas at constant
temperature,S> 0
 Sublimation of solid to gas,S > 0
 2H(g)H2(g),S < 0 ( ng< 0)

100. The correct order of the basic strength of

methyl substituted amines in aqueous
solution is :
(1) (CH3)3 N > (CH3)2 NH > CH3NH2
(2) CH3NH2 > (CH3)2 NH > (CH3)3N
(3) (CH3)2 NH > CH3NH2 > (CH3)3N
(4) (CH3)3 N > CH3NH2> (CH3)2 NH

ANSWER 3
DATE: 05-05-2019 NEET 2019-QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PAGE: 19

101. Which will make basic buffer? an ideal gas under the same conditions.
(1) 100 mL of 0.1 M HCl + 200 mL of The correct option about the gas and its
0.1 M NH4OH compressibility factor (Z) is :
(2) 100 mL of 0.1 M HCl + 100 mL of (1) Z < 1 and attractive forces are
0.1 M NaOH dominant
(3) 50 mL of 0.1 M NaOH + 25 mL of (2) Z < 1 and repulsive forces are
0.1 M CH3COOH dominant
(4) 100 mL of 0.1 M CH3COOH + 100 (3) Z > 1 and attractive forces are
mL of 0.1 M NaOH dominant
ANSWER 1 (4) Z > 1 and repulsive forces are
dominant
Hints :
ANSWER 1
Hints :
Vreal
 Compressibility factor (Z) =
Videal

Vreal<Videal; Hece Z < 1

 If Z < 1, attractive forces are
dominant among gaseous molecules
and liquefaction of gas will e easy.

104. Which of the following is an amphoteric

hydroxide?
(1) Mg(OH)2
(2) Be(OH)2
(3) Sr(OH)2
(4) Ca(OH)2
ANSWER 2
Hints : Be(OH)2 amphoteric in nature, since it
can react both with acid and base
Be(OH)2 +2HClBeCl2 +2H2O
Be(OH)2 + 2NaOHNa2[Be(OH)4]

105. For the second period elements the

correct increasing order of first ionization
enthalpy is :
(1) Li < B < Be < C < N < O < F < Ne i
(2) Li < Be < B < C < O < N < F < Ne
(3) Li < Be < B < C < N < O < F < Ne
(4) Li < B < Be < C < O < N < F < Ne
102. The biodegradable polymer is :
(1) nylon-6 ANSWER 4
(2) Buna-S Hints : ‘Be’ and ‘N’ have comparatively more
(3) nylon-6, 6 stable valence sub-shell than ‘B’ and ‘O’.
(4) nulon 2-nulon 6  Correct order of first ionisation
ANSWER 4 enthalpy is:
Hints : Nylon-2-Nylon 6 Li < B < Be < C < O < N < F < Ne

103. A gas at 350 K and 15 bar has molar 106. The major product of the following
volume 20 percent smaller than that for reaction is :
DATE: 05-05-2019 NEET 2019-QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PAGE: 20

(1) 11  bonds and 2 bonds

(2) 13  bonds and no  bond
(3) 10  bonds and 3  bonds
(4) 8  bonds and 5  bonds
ANSWER 3
Hints :

(1)
Number of bonds= 10
and number of  bonds = 3

108. Which mixture of the solutions will lead

(2)
to the formation of negatively charged
colloidal [AgI]I – sol. ?
(1) 50 mL of 2M AgNO3 + 50 mL of l.5
M KI
(2) 50 mL of 0.1M AgNO3 + 50 mL of
(3) 0.1M KI
(3) 50 mL of 1 M AgN03 + 50 mL of 1.5
M KI
(4) 50 mL of lM AgNO3 + 50 rnL of 2M
KI
ANSWER 3, 4
Hints : Generally, charge present on the colloid
(4)
is due to adsorption of common ion from
ANSWER 4 dispersion medium. Millimole of Kl is maximum
Hints : in option (2) (50  2 = 100) so act as solvent and
anion I– is adsorbed by the colloid Agl formed
AgNO3
D.P  KI
D.M 
 Agl
Negatively  KNO3
(excess ) ch arg ed
colloid

109. The mixture that forms maximum boiling

azeotrope is :
(1) Acetone + Carbon disulphide
(2) Heptane + Octane
(3) Water + Nitric acid
(4) Ethanol + Water
ANSWER 3
Hints : Solutions showing negative deviation
from Raoult’s law form maximum boiling
azeotrope
Water and Nitric acid forms maximum
boiling azeotrope

110. For the chemical reaction

107. The number of sigma () and pi ()
bonds in pent-2-en-4-yne is: N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)
DATE: 05-05-2019 NEET 2019-QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PAGE: 21

the correct option is : (b) Haber process : Ammonia

d [ N 2 ] 1 d [ NH 3 ] (c) Contact process : Sulphuric acid
(1)   (d) Deacon’s process Chlorine
dt 2 dt
d[H 2 ] d [ NH 3 ]
(2) 3 2 113. Conjugate base for Bronsted acids H2O
dt dt
and HF are :
1 d[H 2 ] 1 d [ NH 3 ]
(3)   (1) OH- and F-, respectively
3 dt 2 dt (2) H3O+ and H2F+, respectively
d[ N2 ] d [ NH 3 ] (3) OH- and H2F+, respectively
(4)  2
dt dt (4) H3O+ and F-, respectively
ANSWER 1 ANSWER 1
Hints : N2 + 3H2 2NH3 Hints :
Rate of reaction is given as
d[ N2 ] 1 d[H 2 ] 1 d [ NH 3 ]
  
dt 3 dt 2 dt

111. 4d, 5p, 5f and 6p orbitals are arranged in HF on loss of H ion becomes F is the
the order of decreasing energy. The conjugate base of HF
correct option is: Example:
F H 3O 
(1) 6p>5f>4d>5p HF
ACID  H 2O Conjugate  Conjugate
(2) 5f>6p>4d>5p base acid
(3) 5f>6p>5p>4d
(4) 6p>5f>5p>4d
114. The compound that is mot difficult to
ANSWER 3 protonate is:
Hints : (n + 1) values for, 4d =4 + 2 = 6
5p = 5 + 1 = 6
5f = 5 + 3 = 8 (1)
6p=6+1=7
 Correct order of energy would be
(2)
5f > 6p > 5p > 4d

112. Match the following : (3)

(a) Pure nitrogen (i) Chlorine
(b) Haber process (ii) Sulphuric acid
(c) Contact process (iii) Ammonia (4)
(d) Deacon’s process (iv) sodium azide
or Barium azide ANSWER 2
Hints : Due to involvement of lone pair of
Which of the following is the correct electrons in resonance in phenol, it will have
option? positive charge (partial), hence incoming proton
will not be able to attack easily.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) 115. For the cell reaction
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) 2Fe3+ (aq) + 2I– (aq)  2Fe2+ (aq) +
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) I2(aq)
(4) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) 
Ecell = 0.24 V at 298 K. The standard
ANSWER 2 Gibbs energy (rGӨ) of the cell reaction
is
Hints : (a) Pure nitrogen : Sodium azide or
Barium azide
DATE: 05-05-2019 NEET 2019-QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PAGE: 22

[Given that Faraday constant F = 96500 119. Under isothermal condition, a gas at 300
C mol–1] K expands from 0.1 L to 0.25 L against a
(1) 46.32 kJ mol–1 constant external pressure of 2 bar. The
(2) 23.16 kJ mol–1 work done by the gas is [Given that 1 L
(3) – 46.32 kJ mol–1 bar = 100 J]
(4) – 23.16 kJ mol–1 (1) 25 J (2) 30 J
ANSWER 3 (3) – 30 J (4) 5 kJ
Hints : G = – nF Ecell ANSWER 3
= – 2  96500 0.24 J mol –4 Hints :  Wirr = –PextV
= – 46320 j mol–1 = – 2 bar (0.25 – 0.1) L
= – 46.32 kJ mol–1 = – 0.30 L –bar
= – 0.30 100 J
116. For an ideal solution, the correct option = – 30 J
is
(1) mix H = 0 at constant T and P 120. Which is the correct thermal stability
(2) mix G = 0 at constant T and P order for H2E (E = O, S, Se, Te and Po)?
(3) mix S = 0 at constant T and P (1) H2Po < H2Te < H2Se < H2S < H2O
(4) mix V  0 at constant T and P (2) H2Se < H2Te < H2Po < H2O < H2S
(3) H2S < H2O < H2Se < H2Te < H2Po
ANSWER 1
(4) H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te < H2Po
Hints : For ideal solution,
ANSWER 1
mix H = 0
mix S > 0 Hints : On going down the group thermal
mix G < 0 stability or H2E decreases because H-E bond
energy decreases
mix V =0
 Order of stability would be :-
117. The number of moles of hydrogen H2Po < H2Te < H2Se<H2S < H2O
molecules required to produce 20 moles
of ammonia through Haber’s process is 121. The non-essential amino acid among the
(1) 30 (2) 40 following is
(3) 10 (4) 20 (1) Alanine (2) Lysine
(3) Valine (4) Leucine
ANSWER 1
ANSWER 1
Hints : Haber’s process
N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) Hints : Alanine
20 moles need to be produced
122. The manganate and permanganate ions
2 moles of NH23 moles of H2 are tetrahedral, due to
3  20
Hence 20 moles of NH2 = 30 (1) The -bonding involves overlap of p-
2 orbitals of oxygen with p-orbitals of
moles of H2. manganese
(2) The -bonding involves overlap of d-
118. Which of the following diatomic orbitals of oxygen with d-orbitals of
molecule species has only  bonds manganese
according to Molecular Orbital Theory? (3) The -bonding involves overlap of p-
(1) C2 (2) Be2 orbitals of oxygen with d-orbitals of
(3) O2 (d) N2 manganese
ANSWER 1 (4) There is no -bonding
Hints : MO configuration C2 is: ANSWER 3
1s2,*1s2,2s2,*2s2,2p 2x =2p 2y Hints :
DATE: 05-05-2019 NEET 2019-QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PAGE: 23

123. Among the following, the one that is not

a green house gas is
(1) Ozone
(2) Sulphur dioxide ANSWER 3
(3) Nitrous oxide Hints : The correct structure is
(4) Methane
ANSWER 2
Hints : Fact
SO2 (g) is not a greenhouse gas.
Tribromooctaoxide.
124. pH of a saturated solution of Ca(OH)2 is
9. The solubility product (Ksp) of 126. Enzymes that utilize ATP in phosphate
Ca(OH2) is transfer require an alkaline earth metal
(1) 0.125  10–15 (M) as the cofactor. M is
(2) 0.5  10–10 (1) Ca
(3) 0.5  10–15 (2) Sr
(4) 0.25  10–10 (3) Be
(4) Mg
ANSWER 3
ANSWER 4
Hints : Ca(OH )2 Ca 2  2OH  Hints : All enzymes that utilize ATP in
pH + 9 Hence PoH = 14 – 9 = 5 phosphate transfer require magnesium
[OH–] =10–5 M (Mg) as the co-factor.
10 5
Hence [Ca2+] = 
2 127. For a cell involving on electron Ecell =
Thus Ksp = [ca ][OH-]2
2+
0.59 V at 298 K, the equilibrium constant
 105  5 2
 
for the cell reaction is
=   10 2.303 RT
 2  [Given that = 0.059 V at T = 298 K]
F
= 0.5  10–15 (1) 1.0  1010 (2) 1.0  1030
(3) 1.0  102 (4) 1.0  105
125. The correct structure of
tribromooctaoxide is ANSWER 1
0.059
Hints : Ecell =Ecell – log Q (i)
n
(At equilibrium, Q = Keq and Ecell = 0)
DATE: 05-05-2019 NEET 2019-QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PAGE: 24

0.059 (3) Three equatorial P – Cl bonds make

0 = Ecell – log Keq (from equation (i))
1 an angle of 120 with each other
E cell (4) Two axial P – Cl bonds make an
0.59
log Keq=   10 angle of 180 with each other
0.059 0.059
Keq = 1010 = 1  1010 ANSWER 2
Hints :
128. Among the following, the reaction that
proceeds through an electrophilic
substitution, is

(3) True
Axial bond: 240 pm
Equatorial bond: 202 pm
ANSWER 4 (4) False
Hints : Due to longer and hence weaker axial
bonds, PCl5 is a reactive molecule.

130. Which of the following reactions are

disproportionation reaction?
(a) 2Cu+  Cu2+ + Cu0
(b) 3MnO42– + 4H+  2MnO4– + MnO2
+ 2H2O

(c) 2KMnO4   K2MnO4 + MnO2 +
O2
(d) 2MnO4– + 3Mn2+ + 2H2O  5MnO2
+ 4H
Select the correct option from the
following
(1) (a), (c) and (d)
(2) (a) and (d) only
(3) (a) and (b) only
(4) (a), (b) and (c)
ANSWER 3
Hints :

129. Identify the incorrect statement related to

PCl5 from the following
(1) Axial P – Cl bonds are longer than
equatorial P – Cl bonds
(2) PCl5 molecule is non-reactive
DATE: 05-05-2019 NEET 2019-QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PAGE: 25

132. Match the Xenon compounds in

Column-I with its structure in Column-II
and assign the correct code

Column-I Column-II
(1) XeF4 (i) Pyramidal
131. An alkene “A” on reaction with O3 and (2) XeF6 (ii) Square planar
Zn – H2O gives propanone and ethanal in (3) XeOF4 (iii) Distorted
equimolar ratio. Addition of HCl to octahedral
alkene “A” gives “B” as the major (4) XeO3 (iv) Square
product. The structure of product “B”
pyramidal
is
CH3
Code
|
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(1) H3C – CH2 – C – CH3
| (1) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
Cl (2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
CH3 (4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
|
(2) H3C – CH – CH ANSWER 4
| | Hints :
Cl CH3

CH3
|
(3) Cl – CH2 – CH2 – CH
|
CH3

CH2Cl
|
(4) H3C – CH2 – CH – CH3
ANSWER 1
Hints :
DATE: 05-05-2019 NEET 2019-QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PAGE: 26

3
=6
4
18
=
4
9
=
2
 So formula of compound will be
C 9 A6  C9 A12
2
C C9 A12  C3 A4

135. Among the following, the narrow

spectrum antibiotic is
(1) Amoxycillin
(2) Chloramphenicol
(3) Penicillin G
(4) Ampicillin
ANSWER 3
Hints : Penicillin G
133. Which of the following species is not
stable?
136. In the circuits shown below, the readings
(1) [Sn(OH)6]2– (2) [SiCl6]2–
of the voltmeters and the ammeters will
(3) [SiF6]2– (4) [GeCl6]2–
be
ANSWER 2
Hints :
 Due to presence of d-orbital in Si,Ge
and Sn they form species like SiF62–
,[GeCl6]2–,
 SiCl62– does not exist because six
large chloride ions cannot be (1) V1 = V2 and i1 = i2
accommodated around Si4+ due to (2) V2 > V1 and i1 > i2
limitation of its size. (3) V2 > V1 and i1 = i2
(4) V1 = V2 and i1 > i2
ANSWER 1
134. A compound is formed by cation C and
anion A. The anions form hexagonal Hints : For ideal voltmeter, resistance is infinite
close packet (hcp) lattice and the and for the ideal ammeter, resistance is zero.
cations occupy 75% of octahedral voids. 10
V1  i1  10   10  10 volt
The formula of the compound is 10
(1) C3A4 (2) C4A3 10
(3) C2A3 (4) C3A2 V2  i2  10   10  10 volt
10
ANSWER 1 V1 = V2
Hints : 10 V
i1  i2  =1A
 Anions(A) are in hcp,so number of 10 
aninos (A) = 6
Cations (C) are in 75% O.V., so 137. Two similar thin equi-convex lenses, of
number of cations (C) focal length f each, are kept coaxially in
contact with each other such that the
focal length of the combination is F1.
DATE: 05-05-2019 NEET 2019-QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PAGE: 27

When the space between the two lenses (2) Change according to the smallest
is filled with glycerin (which has the force QR
same refractive index ( = 1.5) as that of (3) Increase
glass) then the equivalent focal length is (4) Decrease
F2. The ratio F1 : F2 will be
ANSWER 1
(1) 2 : 3
(2) 3 : 4 Hints :
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 2
ANSWER 4

Hints :

As forces are forming closed loop in

same order
So, F net  0
dv
m 0
dt
 v = constant

139. In which of the following devices, the

eddy current effect is not used?
(1) Electromagnet
(2) Electric heater
1 1 1 2 (3) Induction furnace
Equivalent focal length in air   
F1 f f f (4) Magnetic breaking in train
When glycerin is filled inside, glycerin lens ANSWER 2
behaves like a diverging lens of focal length (–f) Hints : Electric heater does not involve Eddy
1

1

1 1
 currents. It uses Joule’s heating effect.
F2 f f f
1 140. A cylindrical conductor of radius R is
 carrying a constant current. The plot of
f the magnitude of the magnetic field, B
F1 1 with the distance, d, from the centre of

F2 2 the conductor, is correctly represented by
the figure
138. A particle moving with velocity V is
acted by three shown by the vector
triangle PQR. The velocity of the
particle will

(1) Remain constant

DATE: 05-05-2019 NEET 2019-QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PAGE: 28

141. A hollow metal sphere of radius R is

uniformly charged. The electric field due
to the sphere at a distance r from the
centre
(1) Zero as r increases for r < R,
increases as r increases for r > R
(2) Decreases as r increases for r < R and
for r > R
(3) Increases as r increases for r < R and
for r > R
(4) Zero as r increases for r < R,
decreases as r increases for r > R
ANSWER 4
Hints :

ANSWER 1
Hints : Charge Q will be distributed over the
surface of hollow metal sphere.
(i) For r < R (inside)
q
By Gauss law,  E in . dS  en  0
0
 Ein = 0 ( qen  0)
(ii) For r > R (outside)

Inside (d < R)
Magnetic field inside conductor
 i
B= 0 2d
2 R
or B = Kd. ...(i)
Straight line passing through
origin
At surface (d =R)
 i
B= 0 .... (ii)
2 R
qen
Maximum at surface
Outside (d > R) E 0 . dS 
0
 i Here, qen = Q ( qen  Q)
B= 0
2 d Q
1  E0 4 r 2 
or B (Hyperbolic) 0
d 1
 E0 
r2
DATE: 05-05-2019 NEET 2019-QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PAGE: 29

1 2 1 2 3 2
142. The speed of a swimmer in still water is Initial KE = mv  I   mv
2 2 4
20 m/s. The speed of river water is 10 3
m/s and is flowing due east. If he is  100  (20  102 ) 2  3 J
4
standing on the south bank and wishes to
|KE| = 3 J
cross the river along the shortest path, the
angle at which he should make his
145. Average velocity of a particle executing
strokes w.r.t north is given by
SHM in one complete vibration is
(1) 60 west
(2) 45 west A2
(1) (2) Zero
(3) 30 west 2
(4) 0 A
(3) (4) A
ANSWER 3 2
Hints : VSR = 20 m/s ANSWER 2
VRG = 10 m/s Hints : In one complete vibration, displacement
is zero. So, average velocity in one
complete vibration
Displacement y f  yi
  0
Timeinterval T

146. A body weighs 200 N on the surface of

the earth. How much will it weigh half
V SR  V SR  V RG way down to the centre of the earth?
| V RG | (1) 250 N (2) 100 N
sin   (3) 150 N (4) 200 N
| V SR |
ANSWER 2
10
sin   Hints :
20
1
sin  
2
 = 30 west.
o

143. Which colour of the light has the longest

wavelength?
(1) Green (2) Violet
(3) Red (4) Blue Acceleration due to gravity at a depth d
ANSWER 3 from surface of earth
 d
Hints : Red has the longest wavelength among g '  g 1   ....(1)
the given options.  R
Where g = acceleration due to gravity at
144. A disc of radius 2m and mass 100 kg earth’s surface
rolls on a horizontal floor. Its centre of Multiplying by mass ‘m’ on both sides of
mass has speed of 20 cm/s. How much (1)
work is needed to stop it?  d  R
(1) 2J (2) 1J mg '  mg 1   d  
 R  2
(3) 3J (4) 30 kJ
 R  200
ANSWER 3  200 1    100 N
 2R  2
Hints : Work required = change in kinetic energy
Final KE = 0
DATE: 05-05-2019 NEET 2019-QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PAGE: 30

147. A solid cylinder of mass 2 kg and radius (1) 3.4 eV, –6.8 eV
4 cm is rotating about its axis at the rate (2) 3.4 eV, 3.4 eV
of 3 rpm. The torque required to stop (3) –3.4 eV, –3.4 eV
after 2 revolution is (4) –3.4 eV, –6.8 eV
(1) 12 × 10–4 Nm ANSWER 1
(2) 2 × 106 Nm Hints : In Bohr’s model of H atom
(3) 2 × 10–6 Nm |U|
(4) 2 × 10–3 Nm  K .E.  | TE | 
2
ANSWER 3  K.E. = 3.4 eV
Hints : Work energy theorem. U = –6.8 eV
W  I  2f  i2   = 2 revolution
1
2 151. Two particles A and B are moving in
= 2  2 = 42 rad uniform circular motion in concentric
2 circles of radii r A and rB with speed  A
Wi  3  rad/s
60 and  B respectively. Their time period of
     mr 2  02  i2 
1 1 rotation is the same. The ratio of angular
2 2 speed of A to that of B will be
(1) rB : rA (2) 1 : 1
 2 
2 (3) rA : rB (4)  A :  B
  2   4  102   3 
1 1

  
2 2  60 
ANSWER 2
4 2
Hints :
  = 2  10–6 Nm

148. An electron is accelerated through a

potential different of 10,000 V. Its de
Broglie wavelength is, (nearly):
(me = 9 × 10–31 kg)
(1) 12.2 × 10–14 m (2) 12.2 nm
(3) 12.2 × 10–13 m (4) 12.2 × 10–12 m
ANSWER 4 TA = TB = T
2
Hints : For an electron accelerated through a A 
potential V TA
12.27 12.27  1010 2
 Å= B 
V 10000 TB
= 12.27  10 m
–12
 A TB T
  1
B TA T
149. -particle consists of
(1) 2 electrons and 4 protons only 152. In a double slit experiment, when light of
(2) 2 protons only wavelength 400 nm was used, the
(3) 2 protons and 2 neutrons only angular width of the first minima formed
(4) 2 electrons, 2 protons and 2 neutrons on a screen placed 1m away, was found
ANSWER 3 to be 0.2º. What will be the angular width
Hints : -particle is nucleus of Helium which has two of the first minima, if the entire
protons and two neutrons. experimental apparatus is immersed in
water? (water = 4/3)
150. The total energy of an electron in an (1) 0.05º (2) 0.1º
atom in an orbit is –3.4 eV. Its kinetic (3) 0.266º (4) 0.15º
and potential energies are, respectively
DATE: 05-05-2019 NEET 2019-QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PAGE: 31

ANSWER 4 elastic in nature. After the collision the

fraction of energy lost by the colliding
Hints :
body A is
 4 5
Sol. In air angular fringe width  0  (1) (2)
D 9 9
Angular fringe width in water 1 8
(3) (4)
  9 9
w   0
D  ANSWER 4
0.2 Hints : Fractional loss of KE of ccolliding body
  0.15 KE 4(m1m2 )
4 
  KE (m1  m2 )2
3
4(4m)2m

(4m  2m)2
153. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 32m2 8
 
20 F being charged by a voltage source 36m 2 9
whose potential is changing at the rate of
3 V/s. The conducting current through 156. A small hole of area of cross-section 2
the connecting wires, and this mm2 is present near the bottom of a fully
displacement current through the plates filled open tank of height 2m. Taking g =
of the capacitor, would be, respectively 10 m/s2, the rate of flow of water
(1) 60 A, zero (2) zero, zero through the open hole would be nearly
(3) zero, 60 A (4) 60 A, 60 A (1) 2.23 × 10–6 m3/s (2) 6.4 × 10–6 m3/s
ANSWER 4 (3) 12.6 × 10–6 m3/s (4) 8.9 × 10–6 m3/s
Hints : Capacitance C = 20 F ANSWER 3
= 20  10–6F Hints :
Rate of change of potential  dV   3v / s
 dt 
q =CV
 dq  dV
 C
 dt  dt
ic = 20  10–63 Rate of flow liquid
= 60  10–6 A Q  au  a 2gh
= 60 A
 2  106 m2  2  10  2 m/s
As we know that id= ic=60 A
= 2  2  3.14  10–6 m3/s
154. In which of the following processes, heat = 12.56  10–6 m3/s
is neither absorbed nor released by a = 12.6  10–6 m3/s
system?
(1) isobaric (2) isochoric 157. Increase in temperature of a gas filled in
(3) isothermal (4) adiabatic a container would lead to
(1) decrease in its pressure
ANSWER 4
(2) decrease in intermolecular distance
Hints : In adiabatic process, there is no exchange (3) increase in its mass
of heat. (4) increase in its kinetic energy
ANSWER 4
155. Body A of mass 4 m moving with speed
u collides with another body B of mass Hints : Increase in temperature would lead to the
2m, at rest. The collision is head on and increase in kinetic energy of gas
DATE: 05-05-2019 NEET 2019-QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PAGE: 32

(assuming far as to be ideal) as

F
U  nRT
2
158. Two point charges A and B, having
charges +Q and –Q respectively, are
placed at certain distance apart and force
acting between them is F. If 25% charge
of A is transferred to B, then force
between the charges becomes
16F 4F
(1) (2)
9 3
9F
(3) F (4)
16
ANSWER 4
Hints :

kQ 2
F 
r2
If 25% of charge of A transferred to B
Q 3Q
then q A  Q   and
A 4
Q 3Q
qB   Q  
4 4

kq A qB
F1 
r2
2
 3Q 
k 
F1   2 
4
r
9 kQ
F1 
16 r 2
9F
F1 
16
DATE: 05-05-2019 NEET 2019-QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PAGE: 33

159. A 800 turn coil of effective area 0.05 m2 (1) W m K–1 (2) W m–1 K–1
is kept perpendicular to a magnetic field (3) J m K–1 (4) J m–1 K–1
5 × 10–5 T. When the plane of the coil is ANSWER 2
rotated by 90º around any of its coplanar
Hints : The heat current related to difference of
axis in 0.1 s, the emf induced in the coil
temperature across the length I of a conductor of
will be
area A is
(1) 2 × 10–3 V (2) 0.02 V
dH KA
(3) 2 V (4) 0.2 V  T (K = coefficient of
dt
ANSWER 2
thermal conductivity)
Hints : Magnetic field B = 5  10–5T dH
Number of turns in coil N = 800  K 
A dt T
Area of coil A = 0.05 m2
Unit of K = Wm–1 K–1
Time taken to rotate t = 0.1 s
Initial angle 1 = 0o
162. At a point A on the earth’s surface the
Final angle 2 = 90o
angle of dip,  = +25º. At a point B on
Change in magnetic flux  the earth’s surface the angle of dip,  =
= NBA cos 90o – BA cos 0o –25º. We can interpret that
= –NBA
(1) A is located in the northern
= –800  5  10–5  0.05 hemisphere and B is located in the
= –2  10–3 Weber southern hemisphere.
 ()2  103 Wb (2) A and B are both located in the
e   0.02 V
t 0.1s southern hemisphere
(3) A and B are both located in the
160. A soap bubble, having radius of 1 mm, is northern hemisphere
blown from a detergent solution having a (4) A is located in the southern
surface tension of 2.5 × 10–2 N/m. The hemisphere and B is located in the
pressure inside the bubble equals at a northern hemisphere
point Z0 below the free surface of water ANSWER 1
in a container. Taking g = 10 m/s2, Hints : Angle of dip is the angle between earth’s
density of water = 103 kg/m3, the value resultant magnetic field from horizontal. Dip is
of Z0 is zero at equator and positive in northern
(1) 1 cm (2) 0.5 cm hemisphere.
(3) 100 cm (4) 10 cm
ANSWER 1
4T
Hints : Excess pressure = , Guage pressure
R
=  gZ0
4T
P0   P0   gZ 0 In southern hemisphere dip angle is
R considered as negative.
4T
Z0 
R  g 163. A block of mass 10 kg is in contact
against the inner wall of a hollow
4  2.5 102
Z0  m cylindrical drum of radius 1m. The
103 1000 10 coefficient of friction between the block
Z0  1cm and the inner wall of the cylinder is 0.1.
The minimum angular velocity needed
161. The unit of thermal conductivity is for the cylinder to keep the block
stationary when the cylinder to keep the
DATE: 05-05-2019 NEET 2019-QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PAGE: 34

block stationary when the cylinder is

vertical and rotating about its axis, will
be (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 10 rad/s
(2) 10  rad/s
(3) 10 rad/s
10
(4) rad/s
2
ANSWER 1
Hints :

u2
(Stopping distance) x1 
2 g sin 60o
u2
(Stopping distance) x2 
2 g sin 30o
x1 sin 30o 1 2
For equilibrium of the block limiting     1: 3
2 3
o
x2 sin 60
friction
fL  mg
 N  mg 165. The work done to raise a mass m from
 mr2  mg the surface of the earth to a height h,
which is equal to the radius of the earth,
g
 is
r 1 3
(1) mgR (2) mgR
g 2 2
min 
r (3) mgR (4) 2 mgR
ANSWER 1
10
min   10 rad/s Hints :
0.1  1

164. When an object is shot from the bottom

of a long smooth inclined plane kept at
an angle 60º with horizontal, it can travel
a distance x1 along the plane. But when
the inclination is decreased to 30º and the Initial potential energy at earths surface
same object is shot with the same GMm
is U i =
velocity, it can travel x2 distance. Then R
x1 : x2 will be Final potential energy at height h = R
(1) 1 : 3 (2) 1 : 2 3 GMm
Uf =
2R
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 2 :1
As work done = Change in PE
ANSWER 1  W = Uf – Ui
Hints : GMm gR 2 m mgR
   ( GM =
2R 2R 2
gR2)
DATE: 05-05-2019 NEET 2019-QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PAGE: 35

166. The radius of the circle, the period of ANSWER 2

revolution, initial position and sense of
Hints :
revolution are indicate in the figure

At i = ic, refracted ray grazes with the

surface.
So angle of refraction is 90o.
y-projection of the radius vector of
rotating particle P is 168. Pick the wrong answer in the context
 3t  with rainbow.
(1) y  t   3cos   , where y in m (1) An observer can see a rainbow when
 2 
his front is towards the sun
 t 
(2) y  t   3cos   , where y in m (2) Rainbow is a combined effect of
2 dispersion
(3) y  t   3cos 2t , where y in m (3) When the light rays undergo two
internal reflections in a water drop, a
 t 
(4) y  t   4sin   , where y in m secondary rainbow is formed.
2 (4) The order of colours is reversed in the
secondary rainbow
ANSWER 2
ANSWER 1
Hints : At t = 0, y displacement is maximum, so
equation will be cosine function. Hints : Rainbow can’t be observed when
observer faces towards sun.

169. The displacement of a particle executing

simple harmonic motion is given by
y = A0 + A sint + B cos t
Then the amplitude of its oscillation is
given by
A02   A  B
2
(1)
T=4s
2 2  (2) A + B
   rad / s
T 4 2 (3) A0  A2  B2
y = a cos t
(4) A2  B2

y  3cos t
2 ANSWER 4
167. In total internal reflection when the angle
Hints :
of incidence is equal to the critical angle
for the pair of media in contact, what will
be the angle of refraction?
(1) equal to angle of incidence
(2) 90º
(3) 180º
(4) 0º
DATE: 05-05-2019 NEET 2019-QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PAGE: 36

y  A0  A sin t  B sin t The tension is maximum at the lowest

Equate SHM position of mass, so the chance of breaking is
y  A0  A sin t  B sin t maximum.
Resultant amplitude
R A2  B2  2 AB cos90
= A2  B2
172. When a block of mass M is suspended by
a long wire of length L, the length of the
170. A copper rod of 88 cm and an aluminium wire becomes (L + l). The elastic
rod of unknown in length have their potential energy stored in the extended
increase in length independent of wire is
increase in temperature. The length of 1 1
(1) Mgl (2) MgL
aluminium rod is (Cu = 1.7 × 10–5 K–1 2 2
and  Al = 2.2 × 10–5 K–1) (3) Mgl (4) MgL
(1) 88 cm (2) 68 cm ANSWER 1
(3) 6.8 cm (4) 113.9 cm
ANSWER 2 Hints :
Hints : CuLCu = AlLAl
1.7  10–5  88 cm = 2.2  10–5  LAl
1.7  88
LAl   68 cm
2.2

171. A mass m is attached to a thin wire and

whirled in a vertical circle. The wire is
most likely to break when
(1) the mass is at the lowest point
(2) inclined at an angle of 60º from
vertical
1
(3) the mass is at the highest point U  ( work doneby gravity )
(4) the wire is horizontal 2
1
ANSWER 1 U  Mgl
2
Hints :

173.

mu 2
T  mg 
I
mu 2
T  mg 
I
The correct Boolean operation
represented by the circuit diagram is
DATE: 05-05-2019 NEET 2019-QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PAGE: 37

(1) NAND
(2) NOR
(3) AND
(4) OR
ANSWER 1
Hints : From the given logic circuit LED will
glow, when voltage across LED is high.

Truth Table

This is out put of NAND gate.

DATE: 05-05-2019 NEET 2019-QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PAGE: 38

174. Two parallel infinite line charges with

linear charge densities +  C/m and – 
C/m are placed at a distance of 2R in free
space. What is the electric field mid-way
between the two line charges?

(1) N /C
 0 R

(2) N /C
2 0 R
(3) Zero
2
(4) N /C
 0 R
ANSWER 1 (1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1
Hints : (3) 4 : 9 (4) 9 : 4
ANSWER 4
Hints : (i) All bulbs are glowing

Electric field due to line charge (1)

 R R 2R
E1  i N /C Req   
2 0 R 3 3 3
2
E 3E 2
Electric field due to line charge (2) Power ( Pi )   ....(1)
 Req 2R
E2  i N /C
2 0 R (ii) Two from section A and one from
section B are glowing.
E net  E1  E 2
 
 i i
2 0 R 2 0 R

 i N/C
 0 R

175. Six similar bulbs are connected as shown R 3R

in the figure with a DC source of emf E, Req  R
and sero internal resistance. The ratio of 2 2
power consumption by the bulbs when (i) 2E 2
Power ( Pf )  ....(2)
all are glowing and (ii) in the situation 3R
when two from section A and one from Pi 2
3E 3R
section B are glowing, will be  9:4
Pf 2R

176. In an experiment, the percentage of error

occurred in the measurement of physical
quantities, A, B, C and D are 1%, 2%,
DATE: 05-05-2019 NEET 2019-QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PAGE: 39

3% and 4% respectively. Then the

maximum percentage of error in the 1

1
10 y 2 
 W   (20  10 y )dy   20 y   25 J
A2 B1/ 2
measurement X, where X = 1/ 3 3 , will 0  2  0
C D
be 179. Ionized hydrogen atoms and -particles
(1) – 10% (2) 10% with same momenta enters perpendicular
3 to a constant magnetic field B. The
(3)   % (4) 16%
 13  ratio of their radii of their paths r H : r
ANSWER 4 will be
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 1 : 4
Hints : Given (3) 2 :1 (4) 1 : 2
1
2
A B2
x 1 Hints : rH 
p
eB
C 3 D3
p
% error r 
, 2eB
x A 1 B 1 C D p
100  2 100  100   100  3  100
rH
x A 2 B 3 C D
 eB
r p
1 1 2eB
= 2  1% +  2%+  3% + 3  4%
2 3 2
1
= 2 % +1% + 1%+ 12%
= 16 %

177. Which of the following acts as a circuit

protection device? ANSWER 3
(1) Switch (2) Fuse
(3) Conductor (4) Inductor
180. For a p-type semiconductor, which of the
ANSWER 2 following statements is true?
Hints : Fuse wire has less melting point so when (1) Holes are the majority carriers and
excess current flows, due to heat produced in it, pentavalent atoms are the dopants
it melts. (2) Electrons are the majority carriers
and pentavalent atoms are the dopants
178. A force F = 20 + 10y acts on a particle in (3) Electrons are the majority carriers
y-direction where F is in Newton and y and trivalent atoms are the dopants
in meter. Work done by this force (4) Holes are the majority carriers and
to move the particle from y = 0 to y = 1 trivalent atoms are the dopants
m is ANSWER 4
(1) 25 J (2) 20 J
(3) 30 J (4) 5 J Hints : In p-type semiconductor, an intrinsic
semiconductor is doped with trivalent impurities,
ANSWER 1 that creates deficiencies of valence electrons
Hints : Work done by variable force is called holes which are majority charge carriers.
yf

W   Fdy
yi

Here, yi = 0, yf = 1 m