A320 Systems Oral Guide V4

2022
A320 SYSTEMS ORAL GUIDE
Lawrence Itani
April 19, 2022 VERSION 4

2 A320 SYSTEMS ORAL GUIDE
ACKNOWLEDGMENT
THE QUESTIONS WITHIN THIS
GUIDE HAVE BEEN GATHERED
FROM EXPERIENCED PILOTS
THROUGH THEIR A320 TYPE
RATING, PC CHECKS, LINE
TRAINING. ALL ANSWERS
HAVE BEEN REFERENCED TO
THE A320 FCOM (CEO) YOUR
AIRCRAFT MAY DIFFER FROM
MSN TO MSN, SO KINDLY
ALWAYS REFER TO YOUR
COMPANY’S CURRENT
UPDATED FCOM. MISTAKES
TYPO ERRORS ARE VERY
LIKELY TO BE PRESENT, IF
FOUND KINDLY DO CORRECT
ME.
GOOD LUCK WITH YOUR

CHECKRIDE AND ALWAYS
HAVE A SAFE FLIGHT
li.avtraining@gmail.com
A320 SYSTEMS ORAL QUESTIONS V4 | PREPARED BY LAWRENCE

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WINDSHIELD WIPER PANEL

DSC-30
Q: When is the rain repellent inhibited?
A: It is inhibited when the aircraft is on the ground
and the engines are stopped
Q: What does the RAIN RPLNT pb do when pressed?

A: A timer applies a measured amount of liquid to
the respective windshield window (left or right)
LIMITATIONS
Q: What is the maximum wipers operating speed?
A: 230 kt
CALLS PANEL
DSC-23 MECH pb
Pressed (and held):
 COCKPIT CALL lights up blue on the
external power panel in the nose L/G
bay
 An external horn sounds
Released:
 COCKPIT CALL remains lighted
 The ground mechanic can extinguish
it by pressing the RESET button on the
Q: What happens in the Cabin when you press external power panel
 The external horn stops sounding
the (GUARDED) EMER pb-sw?
A:
 2 Pink lights flash on all Area Call Panels
 EMERGENCY CALL appears on all AIPs
(Attendant Indication Panels)
 A High-Low chime sounds 3 times on all

Q: What happens when the FAs initiate an
loudspeakers
emergency call?
A:
 The ON light flashes in white, and the
CALL light flashes in amber.
 The ATT lights flash on all ACPs
 3 buzzers will sound in the cockpit
(inhibited during take-off and landing)
The cabin call system will reset when the cabin

crewmember hangs up the handset.

OXYGEN PANEL
MASK MAN ON pb
The guard keeps this button in the AUTO position.
DSC-35
- AUTO:
The mask doors open automatically when the cabin
altitude exceeds 14000 ft
- Pressed:
The mask doors open
Q: What does the PASSENGER SYS ON light mean?

A: This light comes on in white, when the control
for the oxygen mask door is activated and remains
on until the TMR RESET pb is pressed.
Q: What happens during the pre-flight when you

push to extinguish the CREW SUPPLY OFF light?
Q: When do the mask automatically deploy? A: The valve will open, and supply low pressure
A: When cabin pressure altitude exceeds 14,000ft oxygen to the masks (normal position in flight)
(+250, -750 ft)
Q: What would you notice on the ECAM
Q: What method is used to supply passenger cabin DOOR/OXY page when CREW SUPPLY pb is
supplemental oxygen? pressed?
A: Chemical generators produce the oxygen, for A: CKPT OXY turns from amber to white
about 15 minutes
Q: When amber half frame box appears on ECAM
DOOR page, what does that mean?
Q: What indication would you have of the crew A: On ground if oxygen pressure is <1000 psi.
oxygen cylinder thermal discharge?
A: The green disk (OXY overboard discharge (neo aircraft)
indicator) on the lower left side of the FWD On ground, an amber half frame appears when
fuselage would be missing oxygen pressure is <800 PSI
Q: Above what cabin altitude will the crew oxygen

masks provide 100% oxygen regardless of the (In this case, the flight crew must refer to
position of the N/100% selector? LIMITATIONS to check if the remaining quantity is
A: The mask provides the flight crew with a not below the MINIMUM)
mixture of air and oxygen. This mixture changes
with cabin altitude. The higher the cabin altitude,
the more oxygen the mask provides, until the
mask supplies 100% oxygen.
OXY PRESSURE INDICATION (DSC-35-20-20 P 7/8)

 It is in green when the pressure is ≥ 600 psi
 It pulses in green when the pressure is < 600 psi
 It is in amber when the pressure is < 300 psi
OXY PRESSURE INDICATION (neo aircraft)

 It is in green when the pressure is ≥ 500 PSI
 It pulses in green when the pressure is < 500 PSI (the DOOR/OXY SD page is automatically displayed
 It is in amber when the pressure is < 200 PSI

RECORDER PANEL
DSC-31
DFDR RECORDS LAST 25 HOURS

CVR RECORDS LAST 2 HOURS
Q: When do the CVR and DFDR normally operate in Q: What does the CVR records?
AUTO? A: Record ACP’s and Cockpit area microphone, PA
A: announcement if PA reception is selected on at
 On the ground, during the first 5 minutes least one ACP
after the aircraft electrical network is
energized Q: How do you erase the RCDR tape?
 On ground with one engine running A: When pressed for 2 s, the CVR ERASE function
erases the CVR full recording, if:
 In Flight
 On ground, it automatically stops 5 minutes - The aircraft is on the ground, and
after second engine shuts down - The parking brake is on.
GPWS PANEL
DSC-34
FAULT LIGHT
Q: What does an Amber FAULT light on the
TERR pb indicate on the GPWS panel?
A: If the Terrain Avoidance Display or

Terrain Clearance Floor predictive mode
fails and TERR is not shown on the ND
Q: Pressing the SYS pb does what? FAULT LIGHT

A: Inhibits All basic GPWS alerts (Mode 1 to 5), the
predictive mode TERR will not be affected Q: What does an Amber FAULT light on the
SYS pb indicate on the GPWS panel?
Q: What does LDG FLAP 3 ON light indicate?
A: If the basic GPWS mode 1 to 5 malfunction.
A: Flap mode is inhibited when FLAPS CONF 3 is
selected. In this case, LDG MEMO displays "FLAPS ... Note: If ILS 1 fails, only GPWS mode 5 is lost.
3" instead of “CONF ... FULL” The "NAV GPWS FAULT" ECAM warning does
not trigger.
Q: What does FLAP MODE OFF light indicate?
On ground, the GPWS FAULT light turns on.
A: MODE 4 “Too Low Flaps” is inhibited when
landing less than Flap 3 In flight, the GPWS FAULT light does not turn
on, while GPWS modes 1 to 4 are operative.

The 5 basic GPWS modes (DSC-34-SURV-40-10 P 1/2) Q: What are the predictive functions (EGPWS) of
GPWS based on?
1- (Mode 1) Excessive rate of descent “SINK RATE” A: The enhanced functions are based on a
worldwide terrain database and of the modelling of
2- (Mode 2) Excessive terrain closure rate the climb performance capability of the aircraft
“TERRAIN TERRAIN”
Q: What do they provide more over the normal
3- (Mode 3) Altitude loss after take-off or go-around GPWS 5 basic functions?
“DON’T SINK” A:
- Terrain Awareness Display (TAD) which
4- (Mode 4) Terrain clearance not sufficient, if not in
predicts the terrain conflict and displays the
LDG CONF “TOO LOW GEAR - TOO LOW FLAPS”
terrain on the ND
5- (Mode 5) Excessive descent below the glide slope - Terrain Clearance Floor (TCF) which
“GLIDE SLOPE” improves the low TERR warning during LDG
Q: Do Pilots ever use the EMER GEN TEST pb? EMERGENCY ELECTRICAL PANEL
A: NO, Maintenance function only DSC-24
Q: What is the function of the MAN ON pb?

A:
 AUTO – RAT will automatically extend if AC
BUS 1 & 2 are not powered and Airspeed >
100 kt
 Pressed – Extend the RAT at anytime
Q: Is there another way to deploy the RAT?

A: Yes, from the RAT MAN ON on the HYD panel
FAULT LIGHT
Q: What does the RED FAULT light on the RAT & EMER
GEN pb indicate?
A: If the EMER GEN is not supplying power when AC

Q: What powers the EMER GEN? (DSC-24-10-30-30 P BUS 1 & 2 are not powered, also during the RAT
4/10) extension (about 8s)
A: If both AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 are lost and the
aircraft speed is above 100 kt, the Ram Air Turbine
(RAT) extends automatically.
This powers the blue hydraulic system, which
drives the emergency generator by means of a
hydraulic motor.

Q: What buses are powered by the EMERGENCY

Q: What happens when you push the GEN 1 LINE GENERATOR?
pb? A:
A: 1. AC & DC ESS BUS
 GEN 1 Line contactors open 2. AC & DC ESS SHED BUS
 The AC BUS 1 is powered from GEN 2 3. ESS TR
through BUS TIE contactors
 GEN 1 supplies One fuel pump in each wing Q: What does SMOKE light in the GEN 1 LINE pb
Inner Tank indicates?
A: The amber light comes on when smoke is
This permit removing AC power from all buses detected in the avionics ventilation duct.
during the AVIONICS SMOKE ECAM procedure
without removing power from the fuel pumps.
Q: Will be there any other indications of Avionics

Smoke?
A: Yes, ECAM Warning and an amber FAULT lights
in the BLOWER & EXTRACT pbs on the
VENTILATION panel
When GEN 1 LINE pb is pressed to the OFF position,

as you can see GEN 2 is now supplying AC bus 1
EMERGENCY EVACUATION
Q: What is the function of the CAPT and CAPT & PURS
PANEL DSC-23
switch?
A:
- CAPT and PURS: The alert may either be
activated from the cockpit or the cabin.
- CAPT: The alert may only be activated from the
cockpit.
If one of the cabins CMD pb is pressed, only the cockpit
horn sounds for 3 s
Q: If CAPT & PURS switch was set to CAPT and CMD pb

was pressed in the cabin, what indications do we have?
A: Only the cockpit horn sounds for 3s

FLIGHT CONTROL PANEL

DSC-27
FAULT LIGHT FAULT LIGHT

Q: What does an amber FAULT light on the ELAC pb Q: What does an amber FAULT light on the SEC or
indicate? FAC pb indicate?
A: A: When a failure is detected

- When a failure is detected
- During ELAC power-up test (eight seconds)
Q: What does ELAC stand for? Q: What backup ELAC 2?

A: Elevator Aileron Computer A: ELAC 1, if both ELACs fails, SEC 2 will back up.
Q: How many ELACs on the A320? And what do Q: What is the computer and priority for the
they control? Ailerons?
A: 2 ELACs. Normal aileron, elevator, and stabilizer A: ELAC 1 -> ELAC 2
control.
Q: What is the computer and priority for the
Q: What are the functions of the ELAC? ELEVATOR and STABILIZER?
A: A: ELAC 2 -> ELAC 1 -> SEC 2 -> SEC 1
 Normal, Alternate and Direct pitch
 Normal and Direct roll Q: What does SEC stand for?
 Abnormal Attitude A: Spoiler Elevator Computer
 Aileron droop
 Acquisition of AP orders Q: How many SECs are installed?
A: 3 SECs
Q: Under NORMAL LAW, what does ELAC 1
control? Q: What functions are performed by the SECs?
A: A:
 Primary – Aileron control (roll)  Normal, Direct roll (by controlling the spoilers)
 Standby – Elevator / Stabilizer control  Alternate, Direct pitch (SEC 1 and SEC 2 only)
(backs up ELAC 2)  Speed brakes and ground spoilers
 Provides 5° Aileron droop  Abnormal Attitude
Q: Under NORMAL LAW, what does ELAC 2 Q: What is the sole purpose of SEC 3?
control? A: Spoiler Control
A:
 Primary – Elevator / Stabilizer (pitch)
 Standby – Aileron control (backs up ELAC 1)
 Provides 5° Aileron droop

Q: What does FAC stand for? Q: When does the Stabilizer Trim goes to Zero?
A: Flight Augmentation Computer A: Following Nosewheel Touchdown and Pitch <
2.5° for more than 5s
Q: Under NORMAL LAW, what functions do the
FACs provide? Q: How are the flight control surface controlled and
A: The aircraft has two flight augmentation actuated?
computers (FACs) that perform four main functions: A: Electrically controlled and hydraulically activated
• Yaw function Q: When is AUTOMATIC Pitch Trim Available?

- Yaw damping and turn coordination A: In flight under NORMAL LAW with Bank Angle <
- Rudder trim 33° with or without AP engaged
- Rudder travel limitation
Q: If the active Elevator fails, what occurs?
• Flight envelope function A: The damped one becomes active, and the failed
- PFD speed scale management jack is automatic switched to damping mode. Damp
▪Minimum/maximum speed computation Mode: The jack follows surface movement.
(VSW, VLS, VFE, VFE next, VLE VMO/MMO
▪Manoeuvring speed computation Q: How Roll Control is normally achieved?
(Green dot speed, S speed, F speed) A: 1 Aileron and 4 Spoilers on each wing
- Alpha-floor protection
Q: What items will degrade if we lose ELAC 1 and
• Low-Energy Aural Alert function SEC 2?
• Windshear detection function A: Nothing, ELAC 2 and SEC 1 will back them up
Q: If both FACs fail, is rudder available? Q: In ALTERNATE LAW, when does the Aircraft go to
A: YES, by Rudder pedals FLARE MODE?
A: When the Pilot selects Landing Gear Down
Q: If Both FACs fail, is maximum rudder deflection
available? Q: How Many motors in the Vertical Stabilizer?
A: YES, after Slats extension. A: 3 Motors
Q: When do we get CONFIG 1+F?

Q: In case of an Elevator Fault (Left or Right), what A: In TAKE OFF and GO-AROUND (Speed <210kts)
happen to the Speed brake?
A: Speed brake extension is inhibited
Q: What happen to spoilers if electric is lost?

A: Spoilers retract to Zero
Q: When do the Ailerons go to the damping mode?

A: If Both ELACs Fail or in the event of BLUE and
GREEN hydraulic low pressure

ADIRS PANEL DSC-34
Q: What info does the Q: What info does the IR

ADR supplies? Supplies?
A: A:
1. Altitude 1. Heading
2. Airspeed 2. Attitude
3. Mach 3. Angular rate
4. Overspeed 4. Flight path vector
warning 5. Acceleration
5. Angle of Attack 6. Ground Speed
6. Temperature 7. Aircraft Position
8. Track
Q: What would be missing on the CPT’s PFD if IR1 failed

or was turned OFF?
A: Attitude and Navigation Information
Q: What action would recover the attitude and

FAULT LIGHT navigation information?
A: Selecting CAPT 3 on EIS switching panel ATT HDG
Q: What does a STEADY amber ADR FAULT light selector
indicate?
A: A fault is detected in the AIR DATA reference part
Q: What does the amber ON BAT light indicate?

FAULT LIGHT A: The ON BAT light comes on in amber when the a/c
battery supplies at least one ADIRU, also come on for few
Q: What does a STEADY amber IR FAULT light seconds
Q: Whenat dothewe beginning of a ATT
need to select complete
and what IRS must
alignment
be
indicate? (self-test).
A: The respective IR is lost done after selecting it?
A: IR ALIGNMENT
Note: IN ATT
When the aircraft MODE:
is on Weand
ground canif select
at leastATT
oneifADIRU
the
Q: What does a FLASHING amber IR FAULT light IRsupplied
system by loses its batteries:
ability toAnnavigate (indicated
is aircraft external horn soundsby The
indicate?
FLASHING
ADIRU andFAULT
AVNCSlight)
lightAfter
comesselecting
on amberATTon (a/c
themust stay
EXTERNAL
A: The IR lost its position, the ATT and HDG
information may be recovered in ATT Mode (check level with
POWER constant speed for 30sec), the HDG must be
panel.
QRH procedure) entered through the MCDU and has to be reset about
Q: With
every 10 the loss of ADR 1, what would be lost on the
minutes)
CPT’s PFD?
A: Airspeed and Altitude
Q: What would restore the lost ALTITUDE and AIRSPEED

information?
In ATT mode, IR 1(2)(3) only provides attitude and A: Selecting CAPT 3 on the EIS switching panel AIR DATA
heading data (if entered by the flight crew). The selector
navigation data are not available. The heading must
be entered through the MCDU and must be reset
frequently (about every 10 min).

Q: If the RWY TURN OFF, LAND, and NOSE EXTERIOR LIGHTING PANEL
switches are all in the ON position, which lights DSC-33
automatically extinguish after T/O?
A:
1. NOSE light
2. RWY TURN OFF light
extinguish when LDG GEAR is retracted
Q: Why do we have 2 positions for the NAV &

LOGO switch?
A: We have 2 sets of navigation lights (2 bulbs) on
each wing and in the APU tail cone
Q: What position should the STROBE switch
Q: When does the LOGO light illuminate when the during pre-flight?
switch is in 2 or 1 position? A: AUTO
A: Main LDG gear strut compressed or when flaps
or slats extended Q: When do the strobes flash in AUTO?
A: When the main landing gear is not compressed
Q: The APU generator can supply 100%

APU PB SW DSC-49 electrical load to what altitude?
A: 39800 ft
Q: What does the Green AVAIL light on the
Q: The APU can supply bleed air to what
APU START pb indicate?
altitude?
A: The APU is started and can supply bleed A: Up to 22500 feet
air and electrical power to the aircraft
systems. The AVAIL light comes on when N is Q: What would normally cause an APU shut
above 95 %. down?
A: List some failures:
Q: With the APU green AVAIL light ON and - FIRE (on GROUND ONLY)
- No Acceleration
the EXT PWR green AVAIL light on, which
- Low OIL pressure
system is powering the aircraft? - Air Inlet Flap not open
A: APU - DC power lost (BAT OFF when
aircraft on batteries only)
Q: What does the blue ON light illuminates
in the APU START sw indicate? (DSC-49-20 P Q: During the cool down cycle, can you still
4/10) use the APU?
A: It indicates that an automatic APU start A: YES, if you want to change your mind and
sequence has begun. want to interrupt the shutdown cycle for
continued APU operation, you can select the
APU MASTER SW pb back to ON as long as
the APU AVAIL memo is in view.
If the aircraft was using APU bleed air, the
Q: What does and amber Q: What does an amber
APU keeps running for a cooling period of 60
FAULT light on the APU FAULT light on the APU
to 120 s.
MASTER SW pb indicates? BLEED pb mean?
A: Indicates that an A: APU leak

automatic APU shutdown
has occurred

Q: When will the (FASTEN SEAT BELT & NO SIGNS PANEL

SMOKING) signs illuminate with the respective DSC-33
switches set to AUTO?
A: When either LDG GEAR or FLAPS/SLATS are
extended
If Cabin ALT goes above 11300ft (± 350ft), the cabin
lights and all cabin signs, except the NO PORTABLE
ELEC DEVICE (if installed), come on regardless of
switches position
Q: When will the EXIT MARKERS and Proximity

Emergency Escape Path Marking automatically
illuminate?
A: With the EMER EXIT LT selector at ARM:
 Normal Aircraft Electrical power fails, or
 DC SHED ESS BUS is lost
Q: When will the EXIT signs automatically

illuminate?
Note: The LIGHT EMER pb on the Purser panel
Q: When will the Overhead Emergency come on can turn on the emergency lighting regardless of
automatically?
the position of the EMER EXIT LT sw.
Q: What lights illuminate when the EMER EXIT LT
 AC BUS 1 fails switch is placed to ON?
A:
 Overhead emergency lights
Q: What is the power source of the overhead  EXIT signs
emergency light and EXIT signs?
 Proximity marking system
A:
 DC ESS SHED BUS
 If DC ESS SHED BUS fails, batteries inside the Q: What occurs when the EMER EXIT LT switch is
light fixtures power them for 12min placed to OFF?
A:
Q: Why do we keep NO SMOKING sign in AUTO?  All lights OFF
A: To allow charge of the emergency batteries from  Amber EMER EXIT LT-OFF light comes on
DC SHED ESS BUS with LDG GEAR UP
INTEGRAL LIGHTING
CONTROL PANEL DSC-33 Q: What flight deck lighting is available if normal
electrical power is lost?
A:
 CM1 Instrument Panel
 Right-hand dome light (provided DOME switch
set in DIM or BRT)
 Standby Compass

Q: Is the ENG anti-ice part of the normal ANTI ICE PANEL

pneumatic system? DSC-30
A: NO, it is an independent air bleed from HP
compressor
Q: What should you do if there is significant ENG

vibration due to ice?
A: Follow the ABN QRH ENG
Q: With ENG Anti-Ice ON, is your descent affected?

A: YES, because Idle Thrust is increased.
When an engine anti-ice valve is open, the N1 limit
is automatically reduced and, if necessary, the idle
N1 is automatically increased for both engines in
order to provide the required pressure.
Q: Can you use the Wing Anti-Ice on the ground?

A: No
Q: What happens if you turn ON the switch on the

ground?
A: The Wing Anti-Ice valves open for 30 s only test
sequence
Q: What part of the Wing are heated?
A: The three Outboard slats (3-4-5) Q: What does the amber Q: What does the amber
FAULT light on the ENG ANTI FAULT light on the WING
Q: When do the Wing Anti-Ice valves automatically ICE pb indicate? ANTI ICE pb indicate?
close?
A: A: Pushbutton – Valve A:
 On Landing Disagreement  Pushbutton – Valve
 Bleed leak detected disagreement
The amber FAULT light comes  Low Pressure is
 Loss of electrical power on briefly as valve transits detected
Q: In What position do the Wing and ENG Anti-Ice
valves fail if electrical power is lost? Q: With the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pb in AUTO,
A: when will the probes and windows heated?
 WING – valves CLOSE A:
 ENG – valves OPEN  In Flight, or
DSC-30-30-10 P 1/4  On the ground (except TAT probes) provided
The valve automatically closes if air is unavailable
one ENG is running
(engine not running). If electrical power fails, the
valves open. NOTE: Windshield & Pitot heat operate LOW
(ground) and NORMAL (flight)
DSC-30-40-10 P 1/2 Q: What does the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pb do in

Windshield heating operates at low power on the ground and at the ON position? When do we normally do that?
normal power in flight. The changeover is automatic. A: Light comes on blue. Probes and windows are
Only one heating level exists for the windows.
heated permanently
TAT probes only heated in flight
DSC-30-50-10 P 1/2
On the ground, the TAT probes are not heated, and pitot heating
operates at a low level (the changeover to normal power in flight is Q: Can you use the APU bleed for Wing Anti-Ice?
automatic). A: No due to limitations of the APU

CABIN PRESS PANEL DSC-21 FAULT LIGHT

Q: What does an amber
FAULT light on the MODE SEL
pb indicate?
A: Light comes on only when

both automatic systems are
faulty
Q: The LDG ELEV selector is in the AUTO position, Q: How many controllers are in the pressurization
what is the data source for pressurization system?
schedule? A: 2, only one operates at a time. They Swap roles 70s
A: The pressurization system uses the FMGS data after each LDG or if the Operating System Fails
to construct and optimized pressure schedule
Q: When out of the AUTO position, what is Q: How do you manually switch between controllers?
different? A: Switching the MODE SEL pb to MAN, for at least 10s,
A: The pressurization uses the LDG ELEV selected the returning it to AUTO
with the LDG ELEV knob (-2000 ft / +14 000 ft)
Q: How many motors does the OUTFLOW valve have?
Q: What does the Aircraft in case of residual
A: 3 – Either of 2 for the automatic mode and 1 for the
pressure after landing?
manual mode. The 3 motors are DC powered. The
A: The RPCU automatically depressurizes the
aircraft in case of abnormal residual pressure on manual motor is powered by DC Bat.
ground. It automatically opens the outflow valve,
when: Q: Can the Pilot control the OUTFLOW valve?
A: YES, by selecting MAN on the MODE SEL and use the
- The outflow valve is not fully open, and MAN V/S CTL switch
- Both CPCs are failed, or manual mode is
selected, and
- The aircraft is on ground, and Q: What does the DITCHING pb do?
- All engines are shutdown, or all ADIRS A: Closes ALL valves below the flotation line
indicate an airspeed below 100 kt.
Q: Which Valves are below the Flotation line?
Q: What protects the airframe from excessive A:
cabin differential pressure? 1. Emergency RAM AIR inlet
A: Two independent pneumatic safety valves
2. OUTFLOW valve (only if in AUTO mode)
prevent cabin pressure from going too high (8.6
PSI above ambient) or too low (1 PSI below 3. Pack Flow Control valves
ambient). 4. Avionics ventilation Inlet & Extract valves
They are located on the rear pressure bulkhead, Q: Will the DITCHING pb always close the OUTFLOW
above the flotation line valve?
A: NO, the OUTFLOW valve will not close if it is under
Q: What is the ABORT mode in auto cabin
MANUAL control
pressurization and what does it do?
A: If the aircraft does not climb after take-off, the
abort mode prevents the cabin altitude from
climbing. Cabin pressure is set back to the take-off
altitude +0.1 PSI.

AIR PANEL
DSC-21 DSC-36
Q: What monitors and controls the pneumatic

system?
FAULT LIGHT
Q: What causes the amber FAULT light on the ENG BLEED
A: 2 BMC (Bleed Monitoring Computer). Each BMC
pb indicate?
receives info about bleed pressure, temperature,
A:
and valve position. Each system is designed to:
 Bleed valve is not closed during ENG start
 Select the compressor stage to use as a
source of air  Bleed valve is not closed with APU bleed ON
 Regulate the bleed air temperature  Overpressure downstream of the bleed valve
 Regulate the bleed air pressure  Overheat of the bleed air
 Leak (wing or pylon on the related side)
Q: If one BMC fails, can the other take over?
A: YES, they are interconnected
If BMC 1 fails, ENG BLEED LEAK warning for ENG1 FAULT LIGHT
and APU BLEED LEAK warning are lost Q: What does the amber FAULT light on the PACK pb
indicate?
Q: On the ECAM Bleed page, how do you tell if GND A:
HP air supply is connected?  Pack Outlet overheat, or
A: The GND unit TEMP and PRESS are indicated on  Compressor Outlet overheat, or
the ECAM BLEED PRECOOLER #1  Valve position disagrees with selected position
NOTE: FAULT light appears during pre-flight as no bleed
air is supplied
Q: What are the 2 functions of the ENG bleed valves? FAULT LIGHT
A: Q: What does the Amber HOT AIR FAULT light indicate??
 Pressure regulation
A: Duct overheat is detected (The HOT AIR and TRIM AIR
 Shut-off valves valves will close automatically)
Q: When HI flow rate is automatically selected Q: How many ACSC (Air-Conditioning system controllers) are
regardless of the Pack flow knob position? there?
A: A: 2 ACSC to monitor the TEMP of the 3 zones (Cockpit, FWD &
 In Single-pack operation, AFT Cabin)
 When the APU is supplying Bleed air
Q: How many lanes on each ACSC? And how do they operate?
NOTE: The system delivers NORMAL flow (100%) A: 2 Lanes (1 active, 1 standby). If BOTH lanes fail the related
even if the LO is selected, when the temperature pack is lost, and the associated HOT AIR pressure-regulating
demand cannot be satisfied valve and associated TRIM AIR valves close

Q: What is the RAM AIR pb used for? Q: What causes the Pack Flow Control valve to
A: automatically close?
 Smoke removal A:
 Ventilation of Cockpit and Cabin if both PACKS  Upstream pressure below minimum
fail  Compressor outlet overheat
 ENG Start sequence
Q: When will the RAM AIR valve open if selected on?  ENG FIRE pb on the related side is pressed
A:  DITCHING pb is selected
 ΔP is less than 1psi
 Ditching is not selected Q: If an ACM (Air cycle machine) fails, what occurs?
A: The affected PACK may be operated in heat exchanger
- If Δp ≥ 1 PSI: The outflow valve control remains cooling mode
normal. No emergency ram air flows in
- If Δp < 1 PSI: The outflow valve opens to about Q: What happens to the Pack Flow control valves during
50 % when under automatic control. It does not ENG start (Normal ENG start using APU)?
automatically open when it is under manual A: Close when ENG Mode selector is IGN, and re-opens
control. Emergency ram airflow is directly when set to NORM or 30 secs after engine start
supplied to the mixer unit.
Q: What logic controls the X-BLEED valve when the
DSC-21-10-30 P 3/4
switch is in AUTO?
During take-off, the ram air inlet flap closes when take-off
power is set, and the main landing gear struts are A:
compressed. - The X-BLEED valve is OPEN when APU bleed
valve is OPEN
During landing, it closes as soon as the main landing gear - The X-BLEED valve is CLOSED when APU bleed
struts are compressed, as long as speed is at or above 70 kt. valve is CLOSED
It opens 20 s after the speed drops below 70 kt. - The X-BLEED valve is CLOSED in case of a Wing,
Q: What is the function of the HOT AIR pb? Pylon or APU leak (except during ENG start)
A: It controls the HOT AIR pressure-regulating valve
which controls the flow of hot air to the Trim Air valves. Q: How many motors drives the X-BLEED valve?
This Hot Air is mixed with the pack-conditioned air for A: 2 Electrical motors
zone temperature control
Q: After ENG start with the APU BLEED pb ON, what
Q: When will the HOT AIR valve close?
A: source is supplying bleed air to the packs?
 No Air A: APU BLEED, it has priority over the ENGs bleed
 Both lanes of one ACSC fail
 Duct overheat, or
 The Cockpit trim air valve fails, or
 Both Cabin trim air valves fail

ELECTRICAL PANEL DSC-24
COMMERCIAL pb
All aircraft commercial electrical
loads are supplied:
‐ Cabin and cargo lights
‐ Water and toilet system
‐ Drain mast ice protection
‐ Galley
‐ Passenger entertainment system FAULT LIGHT FAULT LIGHT
Q: What does the amber FAULT Q: What does the amber FAULT
light on the GALY & CAB pb light on the BAT pb indicate?
Q: How does the GALLEY pb works in AUTO? indicate?
A: The battery charge limiter is in
A: Main & Secondary Galley, (in-seat power
A: The load of any generator is fault
supply and IFE if installed) are supplied. more than 100% of rated output
The Main galley and (in-seat and IFE) are
automatically shed:
 IN FLIGHT: When only one generator is
FAULT LIGHT
Q: What does a FAULT on the ENG GEN pb or the APU GEN FAULT indicate?
operating A:
 ON GND: When only one ENG GEN is  The associated GCU (Generator control unit) trips it
 Opening of the Line contactor (except if the GEN pb sw is selected OFF)
operating (All galleys are available when
the APU GEN or EXT PWR is supplying
power) Q: Will the batteries completely drain if you leave the BAT
switches in AUTO after AC power is removed?
Q: When galley SHED is displayed on A: NO. Battery cut-off logic prevents from completely
ECAM? discharge when ACFT is on GND and unpowered.
A:
Q: How is the BATERY BUS normally powered?
 The GALLEY pb-sw is OFF, or
A: Powered via DC BUS 1 through a DC TIE contactor
 IN FLIGHT, only one GEN is operating, or
 ON GND, the aircraft is being supplied by Q: When is it normal to see the ENG GEN FAULT light
one ENG GEN only illuminate?
A: Prior to engine start
Q: What is the significance of the Green
Collared C/Bs in the flight deck? Q: When is the APU GEN FAULT light inhibited?
A: A:
 GREEN: Monitored by ECAM  APU speed too low
 RED: example WTB (Wing tip brake)  APU GEN line contactor opens after EXT PWR or ENG
DON’T RESET GEN takes over
 BLACK: Not Monitored by ECAM
Q: How will the BAT check be accomplished?
 Select ECAM ELEC page
Q: What is the priority for ELEC power?
 Switch BAT 1 & 2 OFF, then ON
A: (GEARB) GEN - EXTERNAL – APU – RAT - BAT
 Check charging current below 60 A and decreasing
within 10s

Q: Which BUSSES are normally supplied by TR 1? Q: What does IDG stand for?
A: DC BUS 1 – DC BAT BUS – DC ESS BUS A: Integrated Drive Generator
Q: Which BUSSES are normally supplied by TR 2? Q: What is the function of the IDG?
A: DC BUS 2 A: Converts variable ENG speed to constant speed for
optimum GEN operation
Q: What will happen if we have a failure of one TR?
A: Q: What precautions must you take when disconnecting
- The other TR automatically replaces the faulty one an IDG?
- The ESS TR supplies the DC ESS BUS  Do not disconnect when the ENG is not operating
or wind milling
Q: If TR 1 and TR 2 where lost, what buses will be un-  Do not hold pb longer than 3s
powered? NOTE: Only MAINTANANCE can reconnect the IDG on GND
A:
- DC BUS 1 -DC BUS 2 - DC BAT BUS will be unpowered
- DC ESS BUS will be powered by the ESS TR
FAULT LIGHT
Q: What does an IDG FAULT light indicate? When is inhibited?
Q: AC ESS BUS is normally supplied by? A:
A: AC BUS 1  IDG Oil outlet overheats (above 180°C), or
 IDG oil pressure is low (inhibited at low ENG speed: N2
Q: What happens if AC BUS 1 fails? <14%)
Light is inhibited when IDG is disconnected
A: An automatic thermal disconnection of the IDG will occur if the
- AC BUS 2 can supply AC ESS BUS, and the ESS TR can temperature reaches 200 °C
supply the DC ESS BUS, both via the AC ESS FEED pb.
This is done automatically with the AC ESS FEED Auto
Q: What is the purpose of the STAT INV? What powers it?
Switching.
A: To provide AC power to a part of the ACC ESS bus from
- DC BUS 2 supplies DC BUS 1 and DC BAT BUS
the BAT 1 if only BATs are supplying electrical power to the
automatically after 5 s.
aircraft
Q: What is the function of the ACC ESS FEED pb in the

Q: When is the STAT INV activated?
NORMAL position? When do we need to push it?
A: When the aircraft is only powered by the BATs
A: If AC BUS 1 is lost AC BUS 2 automatically feed the ACC
 SPEED <50kts BAT 1 & 2 pb-sw must be in AUTO
ESS BUS. Only when asked by a checklist
 SPEED >50kts regardless of the pb-sw position
Q: What does the ACC ESS FEED pb White ALTN light

indicate?
A: The AC ESS BUS is supplied by AC BUS 2 (manually
selected). FAULT light comes on when ACC ESS BUS is not
powered

Q: What happens when AC BUS 1 AND AC BUS 2 are lost Q: Do we have to push BUS TIE pb to keep AC BUS 1 & 2
speed is above 100kts? powered?
A: RAT extends automatically. This powers the blue A: NO, it’s an automatic function
hydraulic system, which drives the emergency generator
by means of a hydraulic motor (5KVA) Q: What is the function of the BUS TIE pb in the AUTO
position?
Q: In EMERG CONFIG and the EMERG GEN failed, can we A: The BTCs automatically OPEN or CLOSE to maintain
start the APU in flight? power supply to both AC BUS 1 & 2
A: NO, only on GND and SPD <100kts (only then the BATs - One contactor is closed, when:
will be connected to the DC BAT BUS)  One ENG GEN supplies the associated AC BUS, and
 The APU GEN, or EXT PWR supplies the other side
Q: if RAT stalls, or if the aircraft is on the ground with - Both contactors are closed during:
speed below 100 kts what happens?  Single-engine ops, or
A:  Operation on the APU GEN, or
- Emergency generation network automatically  EXT PWR supply
transfers to the batteries and STAT INV
- AC ESS SHED, and DC ESS SHED, both are shed Q: If the battery switches are at AUTO, when will batteries
be connected to the DC BAT BUS?
Q: What happens below 100 & 50 kts when EMERG GEN A: The batteries are connected to the DC BAT BUS in the
power the aircraft? following cases:
 <100kts DC BAT BUS is automatically connected to (a) APU starting (MASTER SW at ON & N less than 95%).
the BATTs Note: The connection is limited to 3 mins when the
 <50kts AC ESS BUS is automatically shed, leading emergency generator is running.
to the loss of all Displays unit (b) Battery voltage below 26.5 V (battery charge). The
charging cycle ends when battery charge current goes
below 4 Amps.
–On ground, immediately
–In flight, after a time delay of 30 minutes.
(c) Loss of AC BUS 1 and 2 when below 100 knots (EMER
GEN not supplying).
Short answer:
- APU Start
- BAT charging (less than 26.5 V)
- AC BUS 1 & 2 not powered and SPD <100kts

FUEL PANEL
DSC-28
FAULT LIGHT FAULT LIGHT FAULT LIGHT

Q: What does an amber FAULT light on Q: What does an amber FAULT light on Q: What does an amber FAULT light
the CTR TK L(R) XFR PB-SW indicate? the FUEL PUMP pb-sw indicate? on the MODE SEL pb-sw indicate?
A: if the associated wing tank overflows A: Fuel delivery pressure drops A: When center tank has more than
250 kg of fuel and the left or right
wing tank has less than 5 000 kg and
the MODE SEL pb-sw is at AUTO.
Q: How many Fuel pumps are installed?

A:
- The system has 4 main fuel pumps, 2 in each inner tanks Center Tank MODE SEL pb-sw
- 1 APU pump to provide fuel to the APU when the tank - Auto: Control of center tank transfer
pumps are off valves is automatic:
 They open if the associated inner tank is
Q: What is the normal in-flight management scheme? not full.
A:  They automatically stop 5 min after
The inner tanks feed fuel to the engines. The tanks empty in center tank low level is reached.
the following sequence:
1. The center tank: Fuel transfers into the inner tanks. - MAN: Flight crew manually controls the
2. The inner tanks: Each inner tank empties down to 750 kg. center tank transfer valves with the CTR
3. The outer tanks: Fuel transfers into the inner tanks. TK XFR pushbutton switches.
Q: What feeds the APU if all pumps are off?

A: A special fuel pump supplies fuel for APU start up when CTR TK L(R) XFR PB-SW
fuel feed pressure is low. (Due to loss of tank pumps or loss - On: The transfer valve opens if MAN
of normal AC electrical supply). This pump normally runs off mode is selected on the MODE SEL pb-
the AC ESS SHED, but runs off the AC STAT INV BUS if the AC sw. The transfer valve is automatically
ESS SHED fails controlled when AUTO mode is selected.
- OFF: The transfer valve is closed.

Q: When do the Main tanks Outer Cell drain into the Q: What does the REFUEL message on the ECAM
Inner tanks? indicate?
A: When the Inner tank fuel reaches about 750kg A: The door of the refuel control panel on the
fuselage or wing is open
Q: If only One Inner tank reaches 750kg, what
happens to the other transfer valve?
A: All 4 Transfer valves open Q: What does Amber Half Boxed ECAM FOB
indicates?
Q: Once opened to transfer fuel, how are the Fuel A: Both transfer valves fail to open when the inner
Transfer valves closed? tank is at low level
A: They will automatically close at the next
refuelling operation Q: How is the IDG cooled?
A: By Fuel from the HP fuel line goes through the
Q: If the Wing tank pumps fail, is suction feeding IDG heat exchanger to the fuel return valve and
available? back to the Outer fuel tank.
A: Yes, SUCTION VALVES closed by pumps pressure
in normal operation, they allow engines to be fed Q: If outer tank is already full, what will happen to
by gravity if the inner tank pumps fail the IDG return fuel?
A: If outer tank is already full, the fuel spills to inner
Q: Why does the Fuel system keeps fuel in the Outer tank through a spill pipe
Tanks and drain them last?
A: To reduce wing bending and flutter Q: Explain Fuel Tank Inerting System DSC-28-10-90
P 1/2
A: To reduce the flammability in the CTR TK, the
Fuel Tank Inerting System produces an oxygen-
depleted air that goes in the CTR TK to replace the
ambient air.

HYDRULIC PANEL DSC-24
FAULT LIGHT
FAULT LIGHT
FAULT LIGHT Q: What does an amber FAULT light on
Q: What does an amber FAULT light on
the BLUE or YELLOW ELEC PUMP pb-sw
Q: What does an amber FAULT light on the PTU pb-sw indicate? indicate?
the HYD ENG PUMP pb-sw indicate? A: A:
A:  Green or Yellow reservoir  Pump pressure is low
 Pump pressure is low overheats  Reservoir overheats
 Reservoir overheats  Green or Yellow reservoir has  Low air pressure in the
 Low air pressure in the low air pressure reservoir
reservoir  Green or Yellow reservoir has  Low level in the reservoir
 Low level in the reservoir a low fluid level  Pump overheats
Q: If the ACCU PRESS indicator is low, what should Q: What is the normal system hydraulic pressure?
you do? A: 3000 PSI ± 200
A: Obtain ground clearance, then turn ON the
YELLOW ELEC PUMP to recharge the brake Q: What occurs when you press the RAT MAN ON
accumulator pb?
A: The RAT extends providing pressure to the BLUE
HYD system
Q: What is the function of the Hydraulic priority
valves? Q: Does the RAT automatically deploy with the loss
A: Priority valves cut off hydraulic power to heavy of BLUE pressure?
load users if hydraulic pressure in a system gets low A: NO, it must be deployed manually by the RAT
MAN ON pb
Q: What is the purpose of the Hand pump?
A: To provide YELLOW hydraulic pressure for Cargo Q: How many Hydraulic pumps are in the GREEN
door operation system?
A: 1 engine driven pump
Q: When does the BLUE ELEC PUMP operates when
set to AUTO? Q: How many Hydraulic pumps are in the BLUE
A: If AC power is available, it operates: system?
- In Flight A: 1 Electric pump, RAT
- On Ground if one ENG is running, or
- If the BLUE PUMP OVRD pb on the Q: How many hydraulic pumps are in the YELLOW
maintenance panel was pushed system?
A: 1 engine driven pump, 1 electric pump, 1 hand
Q: When is the BLUE PUMP inhibited? pump
A: On Ground with BOTH ENGs shutdown
Q: With the switch set to OFF, when does the
YELLOW electric pump comes on automatically? And
what does it power?
A: When the Cargo door lever is set to OPEN or
CLOSE, this inhibits the operation of yellow system
functions except Alternate Braking and REV ENG #2

Q: When does the PTU operate with the pb in AUTO?

A: When the differential pressure between GREEN and
YELLOW systems is more than 500 PSI
Note: The PTU is inhibited during the first engine start
and automatically tested during the second engine
start.
Q: When is the PTU inhibited?
A: PTU is inhibited when:
- The yellow electrical pump is operated to close the
cargo door and is kept inhibited 40 seconds after
the end of cargo door operation.
- The aircraft is on the ground with one engine
running and the parking brake ON.
- The aircraft is on the ground with one engine
running, the parking brake OFF and the nosewheel
steering deactivated.
- The PTU pushbutton is OFF
Q: If the ECAM actions lead you to turn OFF the PTU

for a reservoir overheat, will the FAULT light go out?
A: The light goes out when the crew selects OFF,
except during an overheat. (The light stays on as long
as the overheat lasts
Q: If the FAULT light on the PTU pb is ON, are there any

other indications on the HYD panel?
A: YES, also a FAULT light illuminated in the respective
ENG PUMP pb
Q: Does the PTU transfer Hydraulic fluid?

A: NO
Q: Name several items that run from ONLY the GREEN

system?
A:
1. Landing Gear
2. Norm Brakes
3. REV ENG #1
Q: Name several items that run from only the YELLOW

system?
A:
1. Alternate Brake
2. Brake Accumulator
3. Cargo doors
4. REV ENG #2
5. Yaw Damp #2

ENGINE AND APU FIRE PANEL

DSC-26
Q: Where the ENG Fire loops are installed? Q: List the actions that occur when an ENG FIRE pb is
A: pressed?
 Pylon nacelle A:
 Engine core 1. Silences the aural fire warning
 Fan section
2. Arms the fire extinguisher squibs
Q: What happens if BOTH fire loops fail? 3. Closes the low-pressure fuel valve
A: If failure of BOTH loops occurs within 5s of each 4. Closes the HYD fire shut-off valve
other (flame effect), a FIRE WARNING appears 5. Close the ENG bleed valve
6. Closes the PACK flow control valve
Q: What does Amber DISH light mean? 7. Cuts off the FADEC power supply
A: The fire extinguisher bottle has lost pressure 8. Deactivates the IDG
Q: How many fire extinguishers are provided for
each ENG? Q: What occurs when you press the TEST pb on the
A: 2 ENG FIRE panel?
A:
- CRC sounds
- MASTER WARN lights flash (2)
- ENG FIRE warning appears on ECAM
- On the FIRE panel:
 The ENG FIRE pb lights up red (2)
 SQUIB lights come on white if discharge
supplies are available
 The DISCH lights come on amber.
- On the ENG MASTER panel (pedestal):
 FIRE lights come on red
Notes:
“SQUIB” comes on white when the flight crew releases the
ENG 1(2) FIRE pb to help the flight crew identify the AGENT
pb-sw to be activated.
“DISCH” comes on amber when the corresponding fire

extinguisher bottle has lost pressure.
The FIRE lights do not illuminate in case of Engine Fire

Detection Loop A fault on the Engine 1 or Engine Fire
Detection Loop B fault on the Engine 2.

Q: How many fire extinguishers are provided for the

APU?
A: 1 Notes:
The automatic shutdown of the APU on ground may occur
if the flight crew performs this test for more than 3
Q: List of action that occur when the APU FIRE pb is
seconds.
pressed?
A: If the fire test is performed on ground with only batteries
1. Shuts down the APU to supply the electrical network, both of the following
2. Silences the aural warning apply:
3. Arms the APU FIRE extinguisher squib
4. Closes the low-pressure fuel valve and - The SQUIB light and DISCH light come on, without
5. Shuts off the APU fuel pump ECAM warnings.
6. Closes the APU BLEED valve and X FEED valve - The red APU FIRE pb-sw light partially comes on,
7. Deactivates the APU GEN as one of the sets of bulbs is not electrically
Q: What occurs when you press the APU FIRE TEST

pb?
A:
- CRC sounds
- The MASTER WARN light flash
EXTERNAL POWER PANEL
- APU FIRE warning appears on ECAM
- On the FIRE panel:
 The APU FIRE pb lights up red
 The SQUIB light comes on white if
discharge supplies are available
 The DISCH light comes on amber
Notes:
 The red APU FIRE light comes on and an external
warning horn sounds when the system detects an
APU fire.
 The APU fire extinguisher discharges

automatically 3 s after the appearance of the fire
warning.
 The light goes out when the fire has been

extinguished.

Q: What are the primary differences between a MANUAL and a

ENG PANEL NORMAL AUTOMATIC start?
DSC-70 A:
 AUTOMATIC start interruption and Auto-Crank are not available
during MAN start
 In MAN start, the FADEC will only abort the start if on Ground
and EGT limit exceeded before N2=50% (725°C)
Q: What is the FADEC authority during a MANUAL start?

A: FADEC has a limited authority:
 Opening and Closing of the Start valve (if ENG MODE is set to
IGN/START and MAN START switch is pressed)
 HP Fuel valve
 Operating and cutting of BOTH Igniters
Q: Will the start valve then automatically close?

A: YES, at 50% N2
Q: When a MAN ENG start is recommended?

A:
After aborting a start because of:
 Engine Stall
 Engine EGT overlimit
 Low start air pressure
When expecting a start abort, because of:
 Degraded bleed performance, due to hot conditions or
high altitudes airfields
 An ENG with a reduced EGT margin, in hot conditions
or high altitudes airfields
 Marginal performance of external pneumatic power
 Intermittent ECAM ENG 1(2) IGN A(B) FAULT alert,
during the first start of the day

VENTILATION CONTROL PANEL

DSC-21
S
Q: What is the function of the Cabin Fans? When do
we select them OFF?
A: 2 Cabin Fans are installed to recycle cabin air into FAULT LIGHT FAULT LIGHT
the mixing unit and back saving fuel, we select OFF Q: What does an amber FAULT Q: What does an amber FAULT
only in respond to an ECAM procedure light on the BLOWER pb light on the EXTRACT pb
indicate? indicate?
A:
Q: Is Air Conditioning ever introduced into the  SMOKE warning is activated A:
Avionics compartment?  Computer power supply fails  SMOKE warning is activated
A: YES, in the SMOKE CONFIG, AIR COND INLET  Duct overheats  Computer power supply fails
VALVE opens  Blowing pressure is low  Extract pressure is low
Q: Is the Skin Heat Exchanger ever bypassed in If the warning occurs on the ground when the
flight? engines are stopped, the external horn sounds
A: YES, during the SMOKE configuration, skin heat
exchanger isolation valve is closes Q: With BLOWER and EXTRACT pbs in AUTO, how does the
system operate?
Q: With 2 FAULT lights on the VENTILATION panel, A:
are there any other indications?  OPEN configuration, this configuration is selected on the
A: YES, The SMOKE light on the GEN 1 LINE pb-sw ground when the skin temperature is +12° C increasing.
 CLOSED configuration, this configuration is selected on
the ground when the skin temperature is +9° C
decreasing. Selected in flight when the skin temperature
is 32° C decreasing.
 INTEMEDIATE configuration, this configuration is
selected during flight when the skin temperature is +35°
Q: With Both BLOWER and EXTRACT pbs in OVRD,
C increasing. This configuration is similar to the closed –
what are the positions of the INLET and EXTRACT
circuit configuration, except a small flap on the skin air
valves?
outlet extract valve is open.
A:
- INLET valve is CLOSED
Q: How is the equipment cooled in each configuration?
- EXTRACT valve PARTIALLY OPEN
A:
 OPEN CIRCUIT: is cooled by blown outside air
Q: Which Fan is OFF in the above situation?
 CLOSED CIRCUIT: is cooled by blown air through a skin
A: The BLOWER Fan is OFF
heat exchanger
NOTE: All valves are CLOSED (except EXTRACT valve)  INTERMEDIATE: is cooled by blown air through a skin heat
and air from air-conditioning system is added to the exchanger which is then partially exhausted overboard
ventilation air and directed overboard through the
skin air extract valve

CARGO SMOKE PANEL

DSC-26
S
Q: How many fire extinguishers are provided for the
Cargo compartments?
A: One fire bottle with two discharge heads, one for
each compartment, supplies three nozzles:
‐ One nozzle in the forward cargo compartment
‐ Two nozzles in the aft cargo compartment
Q: What does the Red SMOKE light on the FWD or AFT

pb indicate?
A:
 Both channels detect smoke, or
 One channel detects smoke and the other one is
faulty
Q: what does the DISCH light indicates?

A: Within 60 s after pressing the discharge pushbutton,
the amber DISCH light comes on when the associated
bottle is fully discharged.
Q: How many SMOKE detectors are there (cavities)?

A:
- Two smoke detectors that are in the forward cargo
compartment ceiling panel cavities. Each detector
is linked to one of the two detection loops.
- Four smoke detectors that are in the aft cargo
compartment ceiling panel cavities. Each detector
is linked to one of the two detection loops.
Q: With a CARGO SMOKE Warning, what happens to

the Isolation Valve and Extract Fan?
A:
- Isolation valves CLOSES automatically
- Extract Fan STOPS

GLARESHIELD Q: What does the Red AUTO LAND light

indicate?
A: Below 200ft RA:
- Excessive LOC or G/S deviation
- Loss of LOC or G/S signal
- 15ft difference between both RA
- The last AP disengages
- FMGS detect a Long Flare
Q: What do the flashing Green CAPT, and F/O Q: What does the Red Arrow in the SIDE STICK PRIORITY light mean?
SIDESTICK PRIORITY lights indicate? A: Comes in front of the pilot losing authority
A:
Q: How would regain control?
- Both lights flash when the pilots move both
A: The last pilot to press the TAKEOVER pb on the sidestick will have
sidesticks simultaneously and neither takes
priority. An Aural “PRIORITY LEFT” or “PRIORITY RIGHT” will sound
priority.
- When a pilot has taken priority by pressing the Q: What happens when BOTH pilots make an input simultaneously on
takeover pushbutton and the other pilot's BOTH sidesticks?
sidestick is not at neutral, the light in front of A:
the pilot with priority lights up. It goes out - The Inputs are algebraically summed up to the normal limits
when the other pilot returns his stick to the - An Aural “DUAL INPUT” will sound
neutral position. - Green CAPT and F/O light will illuminate
FLIGHT CONTROL UNIT - FCU
Q: What is the function of the FCU (Flight Control Unit)?

A:
- Permits short term interface between the Pilot and
Q: What is the function of the LOC pb?
FMGS
A: Arms, Engages or Disengages the LOC mode
- Allows temporary modification of any flight
parameters (HDG, SPD, ALT, V/S)
Q: When do you press the APPR button?
- Used to select operational modes of the autopilots,
A: When Cleared for the Approach flight directors and A/THR system
Q: After pressing the APPR pb, what do you check for? Q: What do Dashes on the FCU display windows along
A: with the adjacent White dot
 ILS – Blue LOC and G/S in FMA indicate?
 RNAV – APP NAV and FINAL A: FMGS Managed Guidance is in use
Q: How is Selected Guidance engaged? Q: How do you confirm all AP, FD and A/THR inputs?
A: Pull the appropriate selector knob A: Confirm all mode inputs by reference to the FMA
Q: When is the FCU inhibited? Q: Will the FCU Altitude window ever displayed dashes?
A: LAND mode and aircraft below 400ft RA, LOC and A: NO, Pilot selected altitude will be always displayed
GS locked

Q: What does each column mean on the PFD?

A: A/THR-VERTIVAL-LATERAL-APPR CAPABILITY, DA/MDA-AP,
PRIMARY FLIGHT DISPLAY - PFD
FD, A/THR ENGAG STS
Q: How are the crew made aware of mode changes on the

FMA?
A: A White Box is temporarily displayed around the new
indication
Q: How are armed modes displayed on the FMA?

- BLUE – Armed
- MAGENTA – Armed or Engaged because of a constraint
- GREEN – Engaged (Active)
Q: When is the Sidestick position indication icon ╬ (white

cross) displayed?
- Displayed as soon one ENG is started
- Disappears at Lift-off
Q: What would the large Red arrowheads indicate?

A: Beyond 30 °, large red arrowheads indicate that the attitude
has become excessive and show the direction to move the
nose in order to reduce it.
Q: After you inputs the Destination and ILS information into

the MCDU, what do you check for?
- After the ILS pb is pressed, green light
- ILS frequency and course on PFD
- ILS identifier once identified
- LOC and G/S scales displayed on PFD
Q: What does the MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY in Red mean?

A: You are Mechanical Backup
Q: What does the USE MAN PITCH TRIM in Amber mean?

A: You are in Direct Law
Q: What are the Pitch and Roll angle limits indicated by the
Green = signs?
- PITCH: + 30° up / - 15° down
- ROLL: +/- 67°

Q: How can you determine you are in Alternate

law?
- Amber X’s at the pitch (30° UP/15° DN) and
bank (67°) limits
- Only VLS and VSW is displayed on the
airspeed scale
Q: When would the sideslip index change from

yellow to blue?
A: In case of an ENG failure during Take-off/Go-
Around, it is now a Blue Beta Target β
Q: What does the yellow speed trend line on the

airspeed display indicate?
A: Shows the speed the aircraft will reach in 10s if its
acceleration remains constant
Q: What is the difference between the Magenta and

Blue target airspeed β?
- MAGENTA – Managed speed computed by the
FMGC Q: What is Green Dot ● speed?
- BLUE – Selected speed on the FCU - Engine out operating speed in clean configuration
- Appears when the aircraft is in the clean configuration
Q: What is VLS and how is it displayed? - Corresponds to the best lift-to-drag ratio
- Represents lowest selectable speed providing an
appropriate margin to the stall speed Q: What is the GS (ground speed) mini?
- Defined by the top of the amber strip along the A: It’s a computed target speed during the approach that
airspeed scale maintains the aircraft energy level above a minimum value
- In approach mode is equivalent to VREF ensuring standard aerodynamic margin vs stall, this GS mini
is:
Q: What speed does VMAX represent and how is it  Based on a calculated GS at the RWY
displayed?  It will protect against actual GS dropping below this
- It equal to VMO/MMO, VLE or VFE calculated GS due to wind
- Defined by the bottom of a Red and Black strip along The GSmini function is active when:
the speed scale - The speed is managed and
- The FMS flight phase is the approach phase
Q: What does it mean when you see the Magenta Target

airspeed triangle above VAPP on approach?
A: GS mini has increased SPD due to higher Headwind
component at your present location than what was
calculated at the RWY
Q: Is this protection available in selected speed?

A: NO, Managed speed only

Q: What is SRS? When does it appear on the PFD? What Q: What are the RWY engagement conditions?
Speed does it maintain? A:
A: Speed Reference System in TAKEOFF and - Thrust levers set to TOGA or FLEX
GO/AROUND - V2 is inserted in the MCDU PERF TAKEOFF page
- It maintains V2+10kt (2 ENGs) or Highest of - Slats are extended
V2/V2+15kt (1 ENG) - Aircraft on ground for at least 30s
- FPA protection that insures a minimum vertical - Aircraft is receiving a LOC signal and deviation is less
speed of 120ft/m the ½ dot
- Attitude protection to reduce pitch during TO (18° - Aircraft HDG is within 20° of the ILS Course
max o 22.5° max in Windshear) - The ILS course is identical to the RWY HDG
Q: What is the SRS engagement conditions? Q: How can you disengage the LAND mode?
A: On Ground for Take Off: - When in GO-AROUND
- Thrust levers set to TOGA or FLEX - When both AP/FDs are disengaged
- V2 inserted in the MCDU PERF page
- The Slats are extended Q: Which of the SPD displayed on the PFD are actual
- Aircraft on ground for at least 30s Flap/Slat position and which one are Flaps lever position?
Go-Around: - VLS, Overspeed warning are based on the Actual
- Flap lever is at least in position 1, and Flap/Slat position
- The aircraft is in flight, or - VFE, VFE NEXT are based on the Flap Lever
- The aircraft is on the ground for less than 30s position
(rejected landing), AP disengages and can be re-
engaged 5s after lift off Q: Information from ILS receiver 1 is displayed where?
- CPT PFD
Q: What are the disengagements conditions? - F/O ND
- Automatically at acceleration ALT (ACC ALT), or
if ALT* or ALT CST* above 400ft RA Q: What would a flashing Amber ILS indicate on the
- If Crew engages another vertical mode bottom of the PFD?
- If Crew selects a speed (CLICK* CLICK* CLICK*) is A: Flashes amber when the APPR mode is armed, but the
heard LS pb has not been selected
Q: What are the 2 sub-modes of the RWY (Runway Q: When is altitude alerting automatically inhibited in
mode) and what do they provide? flight?
- RWY mode: Lateral guidance during T/O roll up to - When the Slats are out, with the LDG GEAR is selected
30ft RA if LOC signal is available down, or
- RWY TRK mode: Lateral guidance to same TRK during - In APPR after G/S captures, or
the engagement (at 30ft RA) - The LDG GEAR is locked down
Q: What would be indicated if the altitude window Q: What does it mean when the Altitude digits change
changed from Yellow to Amber? from Green to Amber?
A: The aircraft has deviated from the FCU-selected A: The aircraft has descended below the MDA/DH entered
altitude or FL in the FMGS

Q: What colours are used to represent the various NAVIGATION DISPLAY - ND

displayed flight plans?
- ACTIVE – Continuous Green line
- SECONDARY – Continuous White line
- TEMPORARY – Dashed Yellow line
- ALTERNATE – Dashed Blue lines
- MISSED APPR – Continuous Blue line
Q: TOD (Top of descent) and CDFA (Continuous Descent)

arrows are displayed in Blue or White. What is the
difference?
- TOD – Always White (never armed)
- CDFA – Blue indicates Armed, White indicates NOT
Armed
Q: Which colour does each Altitude Constraint circle

represent?
- WHITE – Constraint is not taken into account
- MAGENTA – Constraint is predicted to be satisfied
- AMBER – Constraint is predicted to be missed
Q: If modes range data fails, what should you expect to

see on the ND?
A: ROSE NAV mode and 80 NM range
Q: Where is VOR data displayed?

A: Both NDs and the DDRMI
Q: What displays, or modes are available on the ND?

- ROSE ILS
- ROSE VOR
- ROSE NAV
- ARC
- PLAN

ENGINE WARNING DISPLAY E/WD

Q: What are the 3 Levels of ECAM malfunction notification?
A:
- WARNINGS (LVL 3) – Associated with the Red MASTER WARN
light, CRC, and require Immediate Actions
- CAUTIONS (LVL 2) – Associated with the Amber MASTER CAUT
light, SC, and requires Crew Awareness
- CAUTIONS (LVL 1) – Associated with the Amber E/WD message,
NO Aural, and requires Crew Monitoring
Q: If simultaneously failures occur, how will they be presented to the

crew?
A: A LVL 3 Warning has priority over LVL 2 Caution which has priority
over a LVL 1 Caution
Q: What types of failures are presented to the crew?

A:
- INDEPENDENT – Failure affecting an isolated system/item
without degrading others
- PRIMARY – Failure of a system/item that affects the use of others
(boxed around the failure)
- SECONDARY – Loss of a system/item resulting from a primary
failure
Q: Which part of the E/WD would the crew find indication of

Primary failures?
A: On the Lower left portion of the screen
What indication does the E/WD provide for Secondary failures?

A: They are displayed on the Lower right portion of the E/WD and
preceded by an *
Q: What does the appearance of a Green arrow at the bottom of

the E/WD indicate?
A: Information has been overflowed off the screen and the Piot
must scroll down the CLR pb on the ECAM panel

Q: What does the display T.O. INHIBT or LDG INHIBIT

indicate?
A: Most Warnings and Caution are inhibited to avoid
unnecessary distraction during critical phase of flight
Q: What types of Warnings are not INHIBITED during

Take-off?
- ENG FIRE
- ENG FAIL (ENG SHUT DOWN)
- ENG OIL LO PR
- APU FIRE
- L+R ELEV FAULT
- A/P OFF
- FWC 1+2 FAULT
- CONFIG
Q: What are the TO CONFIG Warnings/Cautions?

- SIDESTICK FAULT (R)
- FWS OEB/FWC DISCREPANCY (A)
- BRAKES HOT (A)
- DOOR (A)
- ENG THR LEVERS NOT SET (A)
- PITCH TRIM NOT IN TO CONFIG (R)
- SLATS/FLAPS NOT IN TO CONFIG (R)
- SPD BRK NOT RECTRATED (R) SYSTEM STATUS DISPLAY SD
- RUD TRIM NOT IN TO RANGE (R)
- CONFIG PARK BRK ON (R)
Q: In general, when are the System pages
automatically displayed on the SD?
Q: When does the TO MEMO appear?
- Relative to the current phase of flight,
- 2 min after Second ENG start, or
- When a system malfunction is detected
- Provided One ENG is running when TO CONFIG
TEST pb is pressed
Q: When is STATUS page displayed?
- After a Failure is displayed on the SD and all
NOTE: it disappears at TO POWER application
Failure items have been cleared
- Display will reappear when the SLATS are
Q: When does the LDG MEMO appear?
extended
A: Below 2000ft RA
Q: What do the Boxed STS indicate when displayed on

NOTE: After GO-AROUND, if the a/c does not climb
the SD?
above 2,200ft RA, the LDG MEMO appears only below
- The STS page holds message other than
800ft RA during the subsequent approach
CANCELLED CAUTIONS
- Flashes after ENG Shutdown to alert
Maintenance of any other applicable
messages

FORWARD INSTRUMENT PANEL

Note: The LDG GEAR panel is connected to the LGCIU
Q: What is the function of the 2 LGCIU (Landing Gear 1 only, therefore, the lights on the LDG GEAR indicator
Control and Interface Units)? panel come on as long as the LGCIU 1 is electrically
- Provide sequencing, operation, monitoring and supplied.
indications for the LDG Gear
If one UNLK indication remains on, the landing gear
- Provide Aircraft “IN FLIGHT” or “ON GROUND” signals
position can be confirmed using the WHEEL SD page
to other aircraft system
(information from LGCIU 1 & 2). Only one green
triangle on each landing gear is sufficient to confirm
Q: What Hydraulic system powers the LDG Gear and
that the landing gear is down locked.
Doors?
A: Green
Q: What 3 things occur when you turn the Manual Gear

Extension Handle?
- Isolates the landing gear hydraulics from the green
hydraulic system
- Unlocks the LDG gear doors, main and nose gear
- Allows gravity to drop the gear into the extended
position
Q: How many cranks does it take to lower the gear

manually?
A: 1 Crank (but 3 clockwise turns)
Q: In what occasion is Green hydraulic power not

available to the LDG Gear?
A:
- After EMERGENCY LANDING GEAR GRAVITY
EXTENSION
- When the aircraft is flying faster than 260 kt, a
safety valve automatically cuts off hydraulic
supply to the landing gear system. Below 260
kt, the hydraulic supply remains cut off as long
as the landing gear lever is up.
Q: When does the red arrow in the L/G LEVER panel

illuminate?
A: This red arrow lights up if the landing gear is not
locked down when the aircraft is in the landing
configuration, and a red warning appears on ECAM
Q: What do the Red UNLK lights indicate?

A: The LDG Gear is not locked in the selected position

Q: What controls and manages all braking Q: What happens when you switch the A/SKID &
function? N/W STRG to off?
A: The BSCU (Brake and Steering Control Unit) A:
- Braking is powered by the yellow system
Q: Which hydraulic systems provide pressure to the
brakes? - Antiskid is deactivated. To avoid wheel locking
A: and limiting the risk of tire burst, brake pressure
- NORMAL BRAKING – Green is automatically limited to 1000 PSI
- ALTERNATE BRAKING – Yellow backed up by the
- Nosewheel steering is lost
hydraulic accumulator
- Differential braking remains available through
Q: When do the Autobrakes activate on landing if the pedals
armed?
A: When the Ground Spoilers deploy - Triple indicator displays yellow system brake
pressure
Q: What is the difference between LOW and MED AUTO
BRK?
A:
- MED – Sends progressive pressure to the brakes 2s
after GND spoilers deploy to decelerate at 3 m/s2
- LOW – Sends progressive pressure to the brakes 4s
after GND spoilers deploy to decelerate at 1.7 m/s2)
Q: What does the AUTO BRK Green DECEL light

indicate?
A: Actual rate of deceleration is 80% of the selected
rate
 ON light: comes on blue to indicate positive
Q: If you do not see DECEL light after landing, will you arming
call DECEL?  DECEL light: comes on green when the
A: YES, if deceleration is felt by the crew and confirmed actual deceleration is 80 % of the selected
by the speed trend on the PFD rate
Q: What is the Take-off setting for AUTO BRK? Note: On slippery runways, the predetermined
A: MAX deceleration may not be reached, due to
antiskid operation. In this case, the DECEL light
Q: What will cause the MAX AUTO BRK to activate on
will not come on. This does not mean that
autobrake is not working.
an RTO? Rejected Take-off
A:
- Airspeed > 40 kt, and
- Thrust Levers at IDLE, and
- GND Spoilers extension

Q: What does the BRAKES & ACCU PRESS triple PARKING BRAKE
indicator indicate?
A:
- Yellow system brake accumulator pressure
- Yellow hydraulic pressure delivered to the Left
and right brakes
Q: How do you perform the brake check during initial

taxi? Q: What effects does the setting the Parking Brake has
A: Press the brake pedals to ensure the aircraft slows on others Braking mode?
down and check the brake pressure on the triple A: All other Braking modes and Antiskid are deactivated
indicator is Zero, indicating the Green hydraulic
system took over Q: When Brake Accumulator pressure is low, how is it re-
charged?
Q: If you lose the Green hydraulic pressure will you A: With the Yellow system electric pump
have the AUTO BRK?
Q: By what means is the Parking Brake activated when
A: NO, not with the Alternate Braking
you turn ON the Parking Brake handle?
A: Electrically
Q: Is Antiskid available with Alternate Braking?
A: YES, if certain conditions are met Q: Is it required to depress the Brake Pedals while setting
the Parking Brake?
With spoilers not armed, will the spoilers deploy for A: NO
an RTO?
A: YES, if the speed is >72kt and when at least one Q: How do you verify the Parking Brake is set?
ENG is in reverse and other engine in IDLE A:
- ECAM “PARK BRK” memo
Q: How many brakes applications are available with
the accumulator pressure? - Triple indicator brake pressure
A: Approximately 7 full applications
Q: If during an ENG start with brake ON, the aircraft
starts to move due to a parking brake failure, what must
Q: What is the maximum brake temperature for
you quickly do?
Take-off?
A: Release the PARK BRK handle to restore Normal
A: 300° C (Brake fan OFF), 150° C
Braking with the pedals
Q: When should the brake fans be selected ON?

- ON when Brake temperature exceeded 300° C
(amber HOT light on) for Take-off
- 5 minutes after landing or just before stopping at
the gate whichever occurs first
Short turnaround time or brake temp is likely to
exceed 500° C

NOSE WHEEL STEERING (N/W STRG)
Q: What Hydraulic system supplies N/W STRG? Q: The Steering Handwheels can steer the Nose Wheel
A: YELLOW up to how much in each direction?
A: The handwheel can turn the nosewheel up to 75 ° in
either direction. A lever, on the towing electrical box
Q: What does the Rudder PEDALS DISC pb on the
(on nose landing gear), enables ground crew to
Steering Handwheels does? deactivate the steering system for towing. Then the
A: Pressing this pb removes control of N/W STRG from wheel can be turned 95 ° in either direction.
the rudder pedals until released
Q: When using the Rudder Pedals for steering, when
Q: What would occur if the A/SKID & N/W STRG sw does the steering angle begins to reduce?
were selected to OFF? A: Starts reduction at 40kt and progressively reduces to
A: 0° at 130kt
- N/W STRG is lost
- Antiskid is deactivated
- Braking is powered by the Yellow Hydraulic
System accumulator (max 1000 psi)
- Autobrake is also lost

EIS SWITCHING PANEL
Q: What computers feed data to the Six display units? Q: If the UPPER DISPLAY knob was switched OFF, what
A: 3 DMC (Display Management Computer) will occur?
A: The E/WD would automatically transfer to the Lower
Q: What does each of the DMCs normally supply? display
A:
- DMC 1 – CAPT PFD, ND ECAM’s DUs Q: With the E/WD displayed on the Lower screen, how
- DMC 2 – F/O PFD, ND else can you view SD information?
- DMC 3 – is on standby, ready to drive any DU A: Press and Hold the appropriate system button on the
ECAM CONTROL panel you wish to view
Q: How can you tell if a DMC has Failed?
A: A diagonal line appears on the respective DU Q: How long will this information be available?
“INVALID DATA” message is displayed on the respective A: Up to 3 minutes by pushing and holding the system
DU (only DMC 1 or 2) page
Q: What happens when the Upper ECAM display fails? Q: What happens when you press the RCL pb?
A: The E/WD automatically replaces the SD on the Lower A:
ECAM display - Allows you to recall any Warnings/Cautions
messages that the activation of the CLR pb or flight
Q: If Both E/WD and SD units fail, how can you display phase inhibition may have suppressed
E/WD information? - If held longer than 3s, the E/WD will show any
A: Use the “ECAM/ND XFR” switch to display the E/WD caution messages suppressed by the EMER CANC pb
on an ND (CAPT 3 or F/O 3)
Q: What does the EMER CANC does?
Q: What does the ALL pb do? A:
A: - Cancels the current LEVEL 1 or 2 caution for the
- Display ALL the system pages successively in 3s remainder of the flight
intervals when held down - Cancels the current LEVEL 3 Warning for that
- Release the pb to maintain display of the selected occurrence
page
Q: What occurs during the Before Take-off Checklist
Q: If you press the STS pb and the system has no STATUS when T.O. CONFIG pb is pressed?
messages, what will be displayed? A:
A: “NORMAL” for 3s - The system simulates the application of T.O. Power
and checks certain system for proper configuration
Q: If power fails to the ECAM CONTROL panel, which - A Warning is displayed if and system is not configured
buttons are still functional? properly
A: - “TO CONFIG NORMAL” is displayed in the TO MEMO
- CLR – RCL – STS – EMER – CANC – ALL section if the configuration is correct

TRIMMABLE HORIZONTAL
RUDDER TRIM PANEL
STABILIZER (THS)
Q: How is the THS normally operated in flight? Q: When Hand flying the aircraft, can we trim the
A: The flight control computers control trim functions rudder?
automatically A: YES, by using the RUD TRIM rotary selector
Q: If NO Hydraulic power is available, can the THS be Q: What happens if you turn the RUD TRIM with the AP
positioned? engaged?
A: NO, the THS requires hydraulic power from the green A: Nothing
or yellow system
Q: What is the RUD TRIM RESET pb used for?
Q: If a complete flight control computer failure occurs A: To reset the rudder trim to 0°
can the THS be positioned?
A: YES, mechanical trimming is possible by manually Q: Does the Rudder RESET pb works with the AP
positioning the Pitch Trim Wheel engaged?
A: NO
Q: Can you move the PITCH trim wheel if all systems are
working normally? Q: Is there any feedback in the Rudder Pedals from the
A: Manual inputs have priority over computer inputs. Yaw Damping or Turn Coordination functions?
The AP will disconnect A: NO
Q: What happens to the THS after Landing?

A: Following nosewheel touchdown, as the pitch
attitude becomes less than 2.5° for more than 5 s, pitch
trim automatically resets to Zero
Note: This function is inoperative, when the green or

yellow hydraulic system is not pressurized. By pushing the RESET pb, the zero trim position
is ordered at 1.5 °/s.
After the reset, an indication of up to 0.3° (L or

R) may be observed in the rudder trim position
indication.

FLAPS/SLATS
Q: With only Green hydraulic system pressure Wingtip brakes WTBs:

available, will Both Flaps and Slats operate? They use blue and green hydraulic power for the slats
A: YES, at ½ speed and for the right-wing flaps, and blue and yellow
hydraulic power for the left-wing flaps.
Q: What system prevents Flap or Slats asymmetry?
If the flap wingtip brakes are on, the pilot can still
A: WTB (Wing Tip Brake) operate the slats, and if the slat wingtip brakes are
on, he can still operate the flaps.
Q: What cause the WTBs to activate?
A: If one SFCC is inoperative, slats and flaps both
- Asymmetry operate at half speed.
- Mechanism overspeed
If one hydraulic system is inoperative, the
- Symmetrical runaway, or
corresponding surfaces (slats or flaps) operate at
- Uncommanded movement of the surfaces half speed.
They cannot be released in flight.
Q: If the WTB activates due to a Flap Asymmetry, can

the Slats still operate?
A: YES, Only Flap operation is inhibited
Q: How many SFCC (Slat/Flap Control Computers) are

installed?
A: 2
Q: What would occur if One SFCC fails?

A: The Slats and Flaps will continue to operate at ½
speed
Q: When will the ARS (Automatic Retraction System)
operate?
Q: What Flap/Slat configurations correspond to
A: On Acceleration in CONFIG 1+F, the Flaps (not Slats)
position 1 on the FLAPS lever and how do they differ?
will automatically retract to 0 at 210kt
A:
- CONFIG 1+F is used for Take-off and provides Both
Q: What is ALPHA LOCK?
Slats (position 1) + Flaps
A: This function inhibits Slat retraction at High AOA and
- CONFIG 1 is used in flight and is Slats only
Low Speed
Q: When the Flap legend appears in Cyan on the Upper

ECAM display, what indicates?
A: Flaps/Slats are in transit
Q: What happens to the Ailerons when the Flaps are

extended?
A: The Ailerons droop 5°

SPEED BRAKE/SPOILERS
Q: Is there any LDG CONFIG when the Speed Brake Q: When are the Speed Brakes inhibited?
extension is inhibited? A: Speed Brakes (2-3-4) are inhibited when:
A: When Flaps are in CONFIG FULL - SEC 1 & 3 both have faults, or
- AOA protection is Active, or
Q: When do the GND Spoilers Automatically - ALPHA FLOOR activation, or
extend during Landing? - Trust Lever above MCT position, or
A: - Flap FULL, or
When ARMED: - An Elevator (L or R) has a fault, or
 Both Main LDG Gears on Ground - When a Speed brake fails on one wing, the
 Both Trust levers at or below IDLE, or REV on symmetric one on the other wing is
at least One ENG (and the other Thrust Lever inhibited
below MCT position)
When NOT ARMED: Q: In Flight, what happens if a Spoiler Fault is
 Both Main LDG Gears on ground detected, or Electrical power is lost?
 REV selected on at least One ENG (and the A: The Spoiler Automatically Retract
other Thrust lever below MCT position)
If an inhibition occurs when the speed brakes are
Q: When do the GND Spoilers automatically extended, they retract automatically and stay retracted
extend during RTO? until the inhibition condition disappears, and the pilots
A: reset the lever. (The speed brakes can be extended
again 10 s or more after the lever is reset).
- If GND Spoilers ARMED and airspeed > 72kt,
when BOTH Trust Levers at IDLE When a speed brake surface on one wing fails, the
- If GND Spoilers NOT ARMED and airspeed > symmetric one on the other wing is inhibited.
72kt, when REV is selected on One ENG (the
other Trust Lever remains at IDLE)
Q: Will the GND Spoilers extend if Touchdown

with REV selected and Only One LDG Gear is
compressed?
A: PARTIALLY, Full extension is limited until BOTH
Main LDG Gears are compressed
Q: When will the GND Spoilers Automatically

Retract?
A:
- After Landing or RTO when the GND Spoilers
are disarmed
- During Touch and GO, when at least One Trust
Lever is advanced above IDLE (20°)

WX RADAR RDR-4000
Q: What capabilities does the RADAR system has?

A:
- WX Avoidance
- TURB Detection
- TERR Mapping
- PWS Detection
Q: What would prevent the WX display on the ND? Q: How many Radar systems are installed?
A: A: 1 or 2
- When ND is in PLAN mode, or
- When TERR pb-sw is selected ON Note: ‐ If only one radar is installed, a DEACT
sticker placed next to the "2" label indicates
Q: Does PWS detection work when Radar system is that the system 2 is deactivated.
switched off?
A: YES, if the PWS is in AUTO
The Predictive Windshear detection is available as
soon as a radar is selected ON and activation TURB sw:
conditions are satisfied In normal operation, the TURB sw is in AUTO
position. The flight crew can remove the
Q: When are the PWS alerts inhibited? turbulence display from the ND (for de-cluttering
A: purpose) by setting the TURB sw to the OFF
position.
- During Take-off > 100kt and up to 50ft and
- During Landing below 50ft
Turbulence areas are displayed in magenta
(within 40 NM)
Q: What is the Scanned Area of the PWS detection
feature?
A: Up to 5NM ahead of the Aircraft when it is below
1800ft AGL

RADIO MGMT PANEL
Q: How are the Communication Radios controlled?

A: From any of the 3 RMPs
Q: Which RMP is powered in the Emergency

Electrical Config?
A: RMP 1
Q: Which Communication radios are powered in the

Emergency Electrical Config? Three modes of tuning are available.
1. Automatic Tuning
A: VHF 1 and HF 1
This is the basic means for tuning navaids.
In normal operation, the FMGC tunes navaids
Q: What would cause the SEL indicator light to automatically, with each FMGC controlling its own
illuminate on Both RMPs? receivers.
A: When a communication radio normally associated If one FMGC fails, the remaining FMGC controls both
with one RMP is tuned by another RMP sides receivers.
2. Manual Tuning
Q: If the NAV key is selected on either RMP, can the
The flight crew can use the MCDU to override the
FMGC still auto-tune Navaids? automatic tuning of navaids by FMGC in order to
A: select a specific navaid for visual display. This does
- NO, RMP now controls the VOR/ILS receivers not affect the automatic function of the FMGC.
- NAV key on RMP 3 has no effect Any entry on one MCDU is sent to both FMGC in dual
- Normal Radio Communication is still available mode, or the remaining FMGC in single mode.
3. Back Up Tuning
If both FMGCs fail, the flight crew can use the RMPs
- The flight crew must select this backup tuning (Radio Management Panels 1 and 2) on the pedestal
mode on both RMP1 and RMP2 if both FMGCs or for back up tuning.
both MCDUs fail. In the emergency electrical
configuration, only RMP1 receives power. The CAPT RMP controls VOR1 and ADF 1.
The F/O RMP controls VOR2 and ADF 2.
- When the flight crew uses an RMP to tune an Either RMP controls ILS, provided “STBY NAV” is
ILS/DME, the PFDs do not display the DME selected on RMP1 and RMP2. RMP3 is not used for
distance. navaids tuning.
- Pressing the NAV key on RMP3 has no effect.

AUDIO CONTROL PANEL
Q: With the INT/RAD switch on the ACP in the INT position

and the Sidestick radio selector pressed, what will you
transmit on?
A: The Radio selected by its transmission key on the ACP
Q: What methods would the Crew utilize to make a PA

announcement?
A:
 Pressing the PA key on the ACP and using the Boom.
Hand or Mask microphone, or
 The Flight Deck dedicated handset to the PA system
only
Q: What does the illumination of the CALL light on the VHF

or HF transmission keys indicate?
A: The SELCAL system detects a call
Q: Will the Loudspeaker Volume Knob control the

loudness of Aural Alert and Voice Messages?
A: NO
TRANSPONDER
Q: How many transponders are installed?

A: 2
Q: Does the illumination of the ATC FAIL light

indicates loss of All transponder capability?
A: NO, Only the selected transponder
MODE SELECTOR AUTO:
- In flight: The selected XPDR operates.

- On ground: The selected XPDR only operates
in mode S (Selective aircraft interrogation
mode)

MCDU/FMGS FLIGHT
Q: What are the main components of the FMGS?
MANAGEMENT GUIDANCE SYSTEM
A:
- 2 FMGCs
MCDU - 2 MCDUs
- FACs
- FCU
Q: What are the functions of the Flight Management

Guidance Computers?
A:
- FG (Flight Guidance)
- FM (Flight Management)
Q: What are the 4 modes of FMGC operation?

A:
- DUAL MODE (the normal mode)
- INDEPENDENT (each FMGC being controlled
by its associated MCDU)
- SINGLE MODE (using one FMGC only)
- BACK-UP NAVIGATION MODE
Q: What are the 2 modes of FG (Flight Guidance)?

A: MANAGED Guidance and SELECTED Guidance
Q: What is the MANAGED mode of Flight Guidance

used for?
A: LONG-TERM Lateral, Vertical and SPD profiles as
determined by the FMGS
Q: What type of Database is periodically updated in

Q: What is SELECTED mode of Flight Guidance used
the FMGS?
for?
A: The airline updates every 28 days. The updating
A: TEMPORARY Lateral, Vertical and SPD commands as
operation takes 20 min to complete or 5 min if cross
selected with the FCU
loaded from the opposite FMGC
Q: Does SELECTED or MANAGED Guidance have

Q: Can the Crew modify data in the NAVIGATION
priority?
Database?
A: SELECTED Guidance
A: The Crew has limited ability to create Pilot stored
Navigational data
The system automatically selects this degraded mode
Q: How do you determine the validity of the under specific abnormal conditions (e.g., different
NAVIGATION Database? database validity on both FMGCs).
A: On the AIRCRAFT STATUS MCDU page
Both FMGCs work independently and are linked only
to peripherals on their own sides of the flight deck
(“onside” peripherals). When this occurs, the
“INDEPENDENT OPERATION” message is displayed on
both MCDU scratchpads.

Q: What inputs does each FMGC use for Position Q: When would a TO Shift be entered on the PERF
determination? TO page?
A: A Hybrid IRS/GPS position A: When TO begins at a RWY Intersection
Q: What is the Normal operational mod of the Q: If the FLEX TEMP is not inserted on Take-off page
FMGS? of the MCDU, and Thrust levers are positioned in the
A: DUAL MODE, with one FMGC as master and the FLEX detent, what will occur?
other FMGC as slave A: A Warning will be generated, Set TOGA, and
execute a MAX Thrust Take-off
Q: How does Autopilot selection influence master
FMGC logic? Q: What occurs when Managed NAV mode is
A: engaged and the Aircraft flies into a Flight Plan
- If One AP is Engaged, the related FMGC is Discontinuity?
Master A: NAV mode automatically reverts to the HDG/TRK
- If Two APs are Engaged, FMGC 1 is Master mode
Q: If Amber “OFFSIDE FM CONTROL” message is

displayed on the ND, what action should the crew
take?
A: An FMGC has failed and BOTH NDs must be set to
the same Mode and Range
Q: Can BOTH APs be engaged during any Phase of

Flight?
A: NO, only during an ILS approach
Q: What is the difference between the large and

small fonts utilized in the MCDU?
A:
- LARGE – Pilot entries and modifiable data
- SMALL – Default/Computed non-modifiable
data

ENGINE / THRUST LEVERS SYSTEM
Q: What controls the ENGs in all operating regimes?

A: FADEC’s (Full Authority Digital Engine Control)
Q: What functions does the FADEC control?

A:
- Fuel metering
- ENG limits based on TLA (Thrust Lever Angle)
- Start sequencing (manual & automatic)
- Provides ENG indications and thrust limit displays
on the E/WD
Q: What redundancy does the FADEC has?

A: DUAL CHANNEL REDUNDANCY – One Channel is
Active while the other on in Standby Q: If the FADEC detects a Fault during an Automatic
start, is any crew intervention
Q: What is the power source for the FADEC? required?
A: A: NO, the FADEC will discontinue the start, clear the
- The system has its own alternator making it ENG and attempt a new start (if warranted)
independent from the aircraft electrical system automatically
when N2 > 12%
- If this alternator fails, the FADEC automatically Q: When does the FADEC command a Higher engine
switches to the aircraft electrical power at Idle Speed?
- Bleed system demand
Q: When will the FADEC abort a start? - Approach configuration
A: - Ambient conditions
- HOT START
- HUNG START Q: How many Igniters fire during a Normal
- STALLED START Automatic ground start sequence?
- NO LIGHT UP - One Igniter with the other serving as a backup
- NO IGNITION - The FADEC automatically alternates the Igniters
(A and B) at each start
Q: How many Igniters fire on Manual or In-Flight

Start?
The pilot can change from FLX to MCT by moving A: Both A and B
the thrust lever to TOGA or CL, then back to MCT.
After that, he cannot use the FLX rating. Q: When does Continuous Ignition Automatically
operate?
A:
Note: Setting the thrust lever out of FLX/MCT
- ENG Flame Out detection
detent without reaching TOGA or CL detent has
- Failure of the EIU
no effect.
- Ignition Delay during start

Q: What are the 5 detent positions of the Thrust Q: How do you arm the A/THR?
Levers? The flight crew arms A/THR:
A:
‐ On ground
- TOGA
 By pushing the A/THR pb on the FCU when the
- FLX MCT
engines are not running, or
- CL  By setting the thrust levers at the FLX or TOGA
- IDLE detent when the engines are running.
- MAX REV
‐ In flight
Q: What is the Active range of the A/THR?  By pushing the A/THR pb on the FCU while the
A: thrust levers are out of the active range, or
 While A/THR is active (“A/THR” white on the
- Just above IDLE to CL detent (2 ENGs)
FMA), by setting all thrust levers beyond the
- Just above IDLE to MCT detent (1 ENG) CL detent or at least one lever above the MCT
detent, or
Q: What is the Normal operational position of  By engaging the go around mode.
the Thrust Levers when A/THR is active?
A: The CL detent Q: What are the ways to disconnect the A/THR?
A: The A/THR can be disconnected in two ways:
‐ Standard disconnection:
Q: What determines the Maximum Thrust the
 The flight crew pushes the instinctive
A/THR system will be able to command?
disconnect pb on the thrust levers, or
A: The Detent position of the Thrust Lever  The flight crew sets both thrust levers to IDLE
detent.
Q: What is the preferred method of
disconnecting the A/THR? MATCH & MASH ‐ Non-standard disconnection:
A:  The flight crew pushes the A/THR pb on the
- Set Thrust Levers to match the TLA to the FCU while A/THR is active/armed, or
 The system loses one of the arming
existing N1 and
conditions.
- disconnect using the Instinctive pb
Q1: How do you disconnect the A/THR for the remainder of the flight?
Q2: Will you be able to restore the A/THR?
Q3: What else will you lose?
If the flight crew pushes and holds one instinctive disconnect pb for
more than 15 s, the A/THR system is disconnected for the remainder
of the flight.
All A/THR functions including ALPHA FLOOR are lost, and they can be
recovered only at the next FMGC power-up (on ground).

ALPHA FLOOR is a protection that commands TOGA Q: What happens to Thrust and what
thrust, regardless of the thrust levers’ positions. This annunciates on FMA when you reach A. FLOOR?
protection is available from lift-off to 100 ft RA on A:
approach. - THRUST – TOGA
- FMA – “A FLOOR”
ALPHA FLOOR calls up the following indications:
- “A FLOOR” in green, surrounded by a flashing Q: What occurs during ALPHA FLOOR protection
amber box on the FMA, and in amber on the after speed increase above VLS?
engine warning display, (as long as α-floor A: FMA changes to “TOGA LK”
conditions are met)
- “TOGA LK” in green, surrounded by a flashing Q: When is ALPHA FLOOR protection active?
amber box on the FMA, when the aircraft leaves
A: From Lift-off to 100 ft RA on approach
the α-floor conditions. TOGA thrust is frozen.
To cancel ALPHA FLOOR or TOGA LK thrust, the flight Q: How do you regain normal A/THR?
crew must disconnect the autothrust. A:
Alpha floor is inhibited when TCAS mode is engaged - Move Thrust levers to the TOGA detent
- Press the Instinctive Disconnect pb
- Return Trust Levers to CL detent
- Push the A/THR pb to engage A/THR
Q: When would Thrust Lock occur?

A: Thrust Levers in CL detent and
- A/THR pb on the FCU is pushed, or
- A/THR disconnects due to a failure
Q: What controls the ENG LP Fuel valves?

A:
FAULT LIGHT - ENG MASTER switch, or
Q: What does a Fault light on the ENG panel - ENG FIRE PUSH pb
indicate?
A:
- Position of HP Fuel shutoff valve is
abnormal, or
- Automatic start sequence aborts, or
- There is a malfunction of the Thrust control

Q: Explain the Normal Engine Start sequence
FIRST STEP
The flight crew must set the ENG MODE selector
to IGN/START, leading to the following:
- The ENG SD page appears on the SD
- All engine parameters are available
- Pack valves automatically close
After 30 s, if the flight crew does not set the ENG
MASTER lever to ON, pack valves automatically
open again.
SECOND STEP Q: Explain the Manual Engine Start sequence

The flight crew must set the ENG MASTER lever
to ON, and the following steps occur: To perform a manual start, the flight crew must:
‐ The LP fuel valve opens ‐ Set the ENG MODE selector to IGN/START
‐ The engine start valve opens ‐ Set the ENG MAN START pb-sw to ON
‐ The ignition starts: ‐ Set the ENG MASTER lever to ON.
 On ground: when N2 is more than 16 %
 In flight: Immediately. The FADEC:
‐ The HP fuel valve opens: ‐ Opens the engine start valve when the flight
 On ground: when N2 is more than 22 % crew:
 In flight: when N2 is more than 15 %. • Sets the ENG MODE selector to IGN/START
‐ When N2 is more than 50 %: • Sets the ENG MAN START pb-sw to ON.
 The engine start valve closes
 The ignition stops if on ground ‐ Opens the HP shutoff valve, and operates both
 The pack valves reopen if another engine igniters when the flight crew sets the ENG
is not started within 30 s MASTER lever to ON
‐ Closes the engine start valve and cuts off the
THIRD STEP ignition when N2 reaches 50 %.
- The automatic engine start is finished For the full procedure Refer to PRO-NOR-SUP-
- The flight crew must set the ENG START ENG Manual Engine Start - General
selector to NORM

Q: What is the difference between HIGH SPD Q: What are the protections in ALTERNATE LAW?
PROTECTION and HIGH SPD STABILITY?
- Low Speed Stability
Speed protections are protections in Normal Law, when
the aircraft is entered in Alternate Law, the speed - High Speed Stability
protections become “High Speed and Low Speed
Stability Protection”. - Load Factor Limitation
The side stick authority is reduced, a nose up command

is introduced to avoid an excessive increase in speed. Q: What is the indication on ECAM if you disconnect the
Unlike Normal Law the pilot can override this nose up AP with the pb on the FCU?
command. That is the difference between the two.
When the AP is disengaged, the system warns the flight
crew:
Q: What if you lose all ADRs? REFFER TO QRH
- If the flight crew disengages it with the takeover pb
PROCEDURE
on the sidestick, the warnings are temporary
PRO-ABN-NAV ADR 1+2+3 FAULT - If the disengagement results from a failure, from the
flight crew pushing the pushbutton on the FCU, or
- Speed (Fly the Green ) from a force on the sidestick, the visual and audio
- PFD ALTITUDE: GPS warnings are continual.
- TCAS & ATC ALT RPTG INOP

- Master Warning Flashing Red
- Cabin Pres Mode Selector Manual
- ECAM AUTO FLT AP OFF red Warning
- Manual Landing Gear extension (QRH)
- Audio Continues Cavalry Charge 1.5 s minimum
Q: What is the indication on ECAM if you disconnect the
Q: What is the SPD Target in SRS with only One
- CLR pb on ECAM CONTROL PANEL Illuminated
ENG?
A/THR with the pb on the FCU?
- Master Caution light illuminated When the FMGS detects an engine failure, the
speed target becomes the highest of V2 or current
- ECAM MASSAG Flashing ENG THRUST LOCKED
speed, limited by V2+15 kts
amber caution
- AUTO FLT A/THR OFF amber Caution
- Blue “THR LEVERS…. MOVE”

Q: When you can connect BOTH APs?
- Single Chime During an ILS Approach
- CLR
Q: When is pb
theON ECAMautomatically
FADEC CONTROL PANEL Illuminated
energized?
The system has its own alternator making it Q: What does FMA mean?
independent from the aircraft electrical system Flight Mode Annunciator
when N2 > 12% , If this alternator fails, the FADEC
automatically switches to the aircraft electrical
power

NOTES:

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2022

A320 SYSTEMS ORAL GUIDE

April 19, 2022 VERSION 4

GOOD LUCK WITH YOUR

A320 SYSTEMS ORAL QUESTIONS V4 | PREPARED BY LAWRENCE

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A320 SYSTEMS ORAL QUESTIONS V4 | PREPARED BY LAWRENCE

WINDSHIELD WIPER PANEL

Q: What does the RAIN RPLNT pb do when pressed?

 A High-Low chime sounds 3 times on all

The cabin call system will reset when the cabin

A320 SYSTEMS ORAL QUESTIONS V4 | PREPARED BY LAWRENCE

Q: What does the PASSENGER SYS ON light mean?

Q: What happens during the pre-flight when you

Q: Above what cabin altitude will the crew oxygen

OXY PRESSURE INDICATION (DSC-35-20-20 P 7/8)

OXY PRESSURE INDICATION (neo aircraft)

A320 SYSTEMS ORAL QUESTIONS V4 | PREPARED BY LAWRENCE

DFDR RECORDS LAST 25 HOURS

A: If the Terrain Avoidance Display or

Q: Pressing the SYS pb does what? FAULT LIGHT

A320 SYSTEMS ORAL QUESTIONS V4 | PREPARED BY LAWRENCE

Q: What is the function of the MAN ON pb?

Q: Is there another way to deploy the RAT?

A: If the EMER GEN is not supplying power when AC

A320 SYSTEMS ORAL QUESTIONS V4 | PREPARED BY LAWRENCE

Q: What buses are powered by the EMERGENCY

Q: Will be there any other indications of Avionics

When GEN 1 LINE pb is pressed to the OFF position,

Q: If CAPT & PURS switch was set to CAPT and CMD pb

A320 SYSTEMS ORAL QUESTIONS V4 | PREPARED BY LAWRENCE

FLIGHT CONTROL PANEL

FAULT LIGHT FAULT LIGHT

A: A: When a failure is detected

Q: What does ELAC stand for? Q: What backup ELAC 2?

A320 SYSTEMS ORAL QUESTIONS V4 | PREPARED BY LAWRENCE

• Yaw function Q: When is AUTOMATIC Pitch Trim Available?

Q: When do we get CONFIG 1+F?

Q: What happen to spoilers if electric is lost?

Q: When do the Ailerons go to the damping mode?

A320 SYSTEMS ORAL QUESTIONS V4 | PREPARED BY LAWRENCE

ADIRS PANEL DSC-34

Q: What info does the Q: What info does the IR

Q: What would be missing on the CPT’s PFD if IR1 failed

Q: What action would recover the attitude and

A: A fault is detected in the AIR DATA reference part

Q: What does the amber ON BAT light indicate?

Q: What would restore the lost ALTITUDE and AIRSPEED

A320 SYSTEMS ORAL QUESTIONS V4 | PREPARED BY LAWRENCE

Q: Why do we have 2 positions for the NAV &

Q: The APU generator can supply 100%

A: Indicates that an A: APU leak

A320 SYSTEMS ORAL QUESTIONS V4 | PREPARED BY LAWRENCE

Q: When will the (FASTEN SEAT BELT & NO SIGNS PANEL

Q: When will the EXIT MARKERS and Proximity

Q: When will the EXIT signs automatically

A320 SYSTEMS ORAL QUESTIONS V4 | PREPARED BY LAWRENCE

Q: Is the ENG anti-ice part of the normal ANTI ICE PANEL

Q: What should you do if there is significant ENG

Q: With ENG Anti-Ice ON, is your descent affected?

Q: Can you use the Wing Anti-Ice on the ground?

Q: What happens if you turn ON the switch on the

DSC-30-40-10 P 1/2 Q: What does the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pb do in

A320 SYSTEMS ORAL QUESTIONS V4 | PREPARED BY LAWRENCE